Name
Biomechanics
Fall 1999 (11/19/99)
1.
Which of the following is a reason why a cane is typically used in the contralateral as opposed to the ipsilateral
upper extremity (UE)?
A. a cane in the contralateral UE decreases the individual’s base of support
B. the individual can maintain a more normal gait pattern
C. a cane in the contralateral UE decreases the amount of torque needed to produced by the hip
abductors on the involved side
D. all of the above are reasons to use the cane in the contralateral UE
E. both B and C
2.
Due to the trabeulae patterns in the femur and pelvis, which region of the hip is most susceptible to fractures as
a result of bending forces?
A. the femoral head
B. the femoral neck
C. the superior portion of the acetabulum
D. the greater trochanter
E. both C and D
3.
Which of the following is true about the “screw-home mechanism” of the knee:
A. knee extension is associated with external tibial rotation
B. knee extension is associated with internal tibial rotation
C. the screw-home mechanism is due to the asymmetry of the femoral condyles
D. both A and C are true
E. both B and C are true
4.
Which of the following is true regarding the menisci of the knee?
A. they reduce the congruency of the knee joint
B. they distribute and absorb forces in the knee joint
C. they assist in proper arthrokinematics of the knee joint
D. both A and C are true
E. both B and C are true
5.
Which of the following is true regarding the menisci of the knee?
A. they are composed of hyaline cartilage
B. the lateral meniscus is more loosely attached to the tibia than the medial meniscus
C. the lateral meniscus is attached to the lateral collateral ligament
D. all of the above are true
E. both A and B are true
6.
Which of the following is true regarding patella contact as a function of knee flexion angle?
A. at full knee extension there is little or no contact between the patella and femur
B. as the knee flexes the contact moves from the inferior patella toward the superior aspect of the
patella
C. at 1350 of knee flexion there is maximal contact between the medial facet and the femur
D. both A and B are true
E. all of the above are true
7.
Closed-chain supination in the foot is the combined motions of :
A. calcaneal eversion, talus dorsiflexion and adduction
B. calcaneal inversion, talus plantarflexion and adduction
C. calcaneal inversion, talus dorsiflexion and adduction
D. calcaneal eversion, talus plantarflexion and adduction
E. none of the above
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8.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to the stability of the glenohumeral joint?
A. tilt of the glenoid fossa
B. shape of the distal acromion
C. position of the humeral head
D. rotator cuff musculature
E. all of the above contribute to glenohumeral stability
9.
The function of the scapulohumeral rhythm is to:
A. maximize upper extremity ROM
B. maintain glenoid fossa in optimal position
C. maintain optimal length-tension relationship for other muscles
D. all of the above
E. A and C only
10. Which of the following muscles are responsible for upward rotation of the scapula?
A. upper trapezius
B. middle trapezius
C. serratus anterior
D. all of the above
E. A and C only
11. During the initial 600 of shoulder flexion, most of the motion occurs at which of the following joints?
A. glenohumeral
B. sternoclavicular
C. scapulothoracic
D. acromioclavicular
E. all of the above
12. Regarding scapulohumeral rhythm, once the scapula is set which ligament tightens to permit motion at the
sternoclavicular joint?
A. coracohumeral
B. acromioclavicular
C. coracoclavicular
D. costoclavicular
E. none of the above
13. During the latter phase of scapulothoracic movement, which of the following is true?
A. movement occurs about an axis through the acromioclavicular joint
B. motion occurs about the long axis of the clavicle
C. approximately 500 of scapula tipping occurs
D. all of the above
E. A and B only
14. The supraspinatus:
A. provides a compressive force to the glenohumeral joint
B. is a significant abductor of the glenohumeral joint
C. causes significant superior translation of the humeral head
D. all of the above
E. A and B only
15. The wrist is composed of the:
A. radiocarpal joint
B. ulnocarpal joint
C. midcarpal joint
D. all of the above
E. A and C only
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16. Which of the following is true when extending the wrist from an initial position of wrist flexion?
A. movement is initiated in distal carpals as a glide on fixed proximal carpals
B. the distal carpals and scaphoid move together as the wrist moves through neutral flexion/extension?
C. as the wrist approaches full extension, the carpals move as a unit on the radius and gliding occurs in
the same direction as the movement of the hand
D. all of the above are true
E. only A and B are true
17. Which of the following is true regarding the three bony arches of the hand?
A. there are two longitudinal arches
B. there is one transverse arch
C. the capitate is the keystone of the distal transverse arch
D. the intrinisic hand muscles maintain the shape of these arches
E. none of the above
18. The volar or palmar plates of MCPs 2-4:
A. prevent hyperextension of the MCPs
B. blend and reinforce the joint capsules of the MCPs
C. are composed of hyaline cartilage
D. all of the above
E. A and B only
19. The extensor mechanism consists of:
A. extensor expansion
B. tendons of the extensor digitorum
C. lumbricals
D. all of the above
E. A and B only
20. Which of the following is true regarding the extensor mechanism?
A. the extensor digitorum tendons flatten to form the extensor expansion
B. the central tendon inserts into the distal phlanx
C. the two lateral bands contribute to the formation of the terminal tendon
D. all of the above are true
E. both A and C are true
21. Which injury to the finger is the result of a rupture to the terminal tendon?
A. heberden’s nodes
B. mallet finger
C. boutonniere deformity
D. swan-neck deformity
E. none of the above
22. Which of the following would not be affected by a severed ulnar nerve at the level of the cubital tunnel?
A. thumb function
B. stability of the bony arches of the hand
C. finger function
D. all of the above would be affected
E. only A and B would not be affected
23. In the “stress fracture model” presented in class, which of the following is true?
A. fatigue reduces the muscles ability to absorb forces
B. fatigue alters the gait pattern
C. direct compressive loading from strenuous exercise causes traumatic fractures
D. all of the above
E. A and B only
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24.
Functionally, which of the following bones contributes to both the proximal and distal carpals?
A. Scaphoid
B. Capitate
C. Lunate
D. Both A and B
E. None of the above
25.
Which of the following is true about the function of the hand?
A. the wrist flexors are critical for maintaining optimal length-tension relationship for the long finger
flexors
B. the interossei are critical to the timing of hand opening and closing
C. the extrinsic musculature of the hand counteracts the clawing tendency of the intrinsic musculature.
D. Both A and B are true
E. None of the above are true
26. Which of the following is true about the anatomic pulleys in the fingers?
A. there are 5 annular pulleys
B. there are 2 cruciform pulleys
C. as the PIP joints move from 60 degrees to 90 degrees of flexion the tension in the restraining pulleys
decreases
D. all of the above are true
E. only A and C are true
27. What is the most common type of dislocation in the shoulder?
A. posterior
B. anterior
C. inferior
D. superior
E. C and D
28. Which of the following is commonly described as a cause of throwing injuries to the medial collateral ligament
of the elbow?
A. valgus forces
B. varus forces
C. compressive forces
D. both A and C
E. both B and C
29. Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon commonly occurs between the greater tubercle of the humerus and
which of the following?
A. acromioclavicular ligament
B. coracoclavicular ligament
C. coracoacromial ligament
D. sternoclavicular liagement
E. both B and C
30. Impingement may eventually progress into glenohumeral joint subluxation:
A. true
B. false
31. Which acromion shape is the most likely to cause impingement of the supraspinatus tendon?
A. flat
B. curved
C. hooked
D. rounded
E. none of the above
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32. Which of the following is NOT a potential contributor to impingement of the supraspinatus tendon?
A. repetitive upper extremity movement
B. excessive ingestion of calcium
C. awkward static postures of the upper extremity
D. overhead movements of the upper extremity
E. all of the above are contributors to impingement of the supraspinatus tendon
33. Which of the ligaments are most commonly injured in an acromioclavicular sprain?
A. Coracoclavicular and acromioclavicular
B. Costoclavicular and acromioclavicular
C. Coracohumeral and costoclavicular
D. Glenohumeral and coracohumeral
E. None of the above
34. Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow usually involves the tendon of which muscle?
A. extensor carpi radialis longus
B. pronator teres
C. long head of biceps
D. extensor digitorum
E. none of the above
35. The distal radius articulates predominately with which of the following bones
A. lunate
B. scaphoid
C. triquetrum
D. pisiform
E. none of the above
36. During the weight acceptance or deceleration phase of normal gait. Which of the following is the predominate
foot motion on the lead/stance limb?
A. supination
B. pronation
C. inversion
D. both A and B
E. none of the above
37. During the weight acceptance phase of gait, the compensated forefoot varus foot will exhibit:
A. no pronation
B. supination
C. normal pronation
D. excessive pronation
38. During gait the uncompensated forefoot varus foot will often present similar to the:
A. supinated foot
B. compensated forefoot varus foot
C. compensated rearfoot varus foot
D. all of the above
39.
The most common non-traumatic cause of femoral neck fracture is:
A. excessive hip flexion and internal rotation
B. excessive hip extension and external rotation
C. excessive hip adduction and internal rotation
D. excessive hip flexion and external rotation
E. none of the above
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40. Over the life span, the vascular supply of the knee menisci:
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. the menisci are always avascular
41.
Over the life span, the innervation of the knee menisci:
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. the menisci are always aneural
42. In general when in a closed-chain situation, the patellofemoral joint reaction force as the knee moves from 0 to
900…
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. there is no joint reaction force in the patellofemoral joint
43. When developing a lower extremity strengthening program for an individual who is complaining of retropatella knee pain, which of the following exercises would be most recommended?
A. closed-chain knee extension activities are recommended for the last 25 0 of knee extension
B. open-chain knee extension activities are recommended for the last 250 of knee extension
C. both open and closed chain activities are recommended for the last 25 0 of knee extension
D. neither open nor closed chain activities are recommended for the last 25 0 of knee extension
44. Which patella facet receives the most consistent contact with the femur throughout knee flexion and extension?
A. odd
B. lateral
C. medial
D. superior
E. none of the above
45. A swan-neck deformity results in which of the following?
A. MCP flexion, PIP extension, DIP flexion
B. MCP extension, PIP extension, DIP flexion
C. MCP flexion, PIP extension, DIP extension
D. MCP flexion, PIP flexion, DIP flexion
E. None of the above
46. Pronation of the foot is important for all of the following except:
A. attenuation of ground reaction forces
B. conforming to the ground
C. establishing the foot as a rigid lever
D. converting torque from the joints above
E. it is important for all of the above
47. A patient presents to you with a diagnosis of severe cubital tunnel syndrome. Upon evaluation, which of the
following signs and/or symptoms do you expect to find?
A. tingling in the thumb and index fingers
B. lumbrical weakness
C. interossei weakness
D. all of the above
E. B and C only
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48. Which of the following best describes the cause of cubital tunnel syndrome?
A. compression of ulnar nerve as it traverses through the ulna groove
B. tension of the ulnar nerve as it passes through the pronator teres
C. compression of the ulnar nerve as it passes through through the cubital fossa
D. tension of the ulnar nerve as it passes under the hook of the hamate
E. none of the above
49. A laceration of the radial nerve at the mid-humeral level would likely result in?
A. diminished or absent wrist extensor strength
B. diminished or absent wrist flexor strength
C. reduced sensation in the C6-C8 dermatome below the elbow
D. all of the above
E. both A and C
50. A laceration of the median nerve at the mid-humeral level would likely result in?
A. diminished or absent wrist extensor strength
B. diminished or absent interossei strength
C. reduced grip strength
D. all of the above
E. both B and C
51. Scapulohumeral rhythm refers to which of the following?
A. active movement of the shoulder complex
B. passive movement of the shoulder complex
C. active assistive movement of the shoulder complex
D. all of the above
E. both B and C
52. A patient presents to you with reduced ability to elevate (flex/abduct) their right upper extremity. As you
passively abduct this individual's right upper extremity to approximately 200, you notice the scapula begins to
upwardly rotate. Which of the following would most likely cause this?
A. tight rotator cuff musculature
B. tight teres major
C. weak upper trapezius
D. both A and B
E. both A and C
53. A 19 year-old college baseball player presents to you with a primary complaint of medial elbow pain that is
provoked with "hard" throwing. Based on this complaint, which of the following is the most likely injury?
A. lateral epicondylitis
B. sprain of the lateral collateral ligament
C. sprain of the medial collateral ligament
D. strain of the common extensor tendon
E. none of the above are possible injuries
54.
During gait the normal range of foot pronation is:
A. 6 - 100
B. 11 - 150
C. 1 - 50
D. pronation does not occur during gait
55. As a normal knee actively flexes and extends, the patella rotates around an anterior-posterior axis.
A. true
B. false
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56. Which of the following is not often associated with osteoarthritis of lower extremity joints?
A. softening of articular cartilage
B. subchondral bone necrosis
C. increased joint space
D. joint deformity
E. all of the above are associated with osteoarthritis of the lower extremity joints?
57. Which of the following foot deformities is most common?
A. forefoot valgus
B. uncompensated ankle joint equinus
C. forefoot varus
D. compensated ankle joint equinus
E. both B and C
58. During the stance phase of gait, what is the most common compensation for a foot with a rearfoot varus
deformity?
A. excessive subtalar pronation
B. excessive subtalar supination
C. excessive forefoot valgus
D. both A and C
E. none of the above
59. Which of the following bones are part of the midfoot:
A. talus and calcaneus
B. cunneiforms
C. cuboid
D. both A and B
E. both B and C
60. Which of the following is a common cause of ankle joint equinus?
A. spasticity in the dorsiflexors
B. excessive tightness in the gastrocnemius
C. spasticity in the gastrocnemius
D. both A and C
E. both B and C
61. As the knee flexes from 250 to full flexion, what occurs with the patella?
A. tilts medially approximately 110 about a vertical axis
B. tilts laterally approximately 110 about a vertical axis
C. does not tilt at all
D. tilts laterally approximately 300 about a vertical axis
E. none of the above
62. Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?
A. hamate
B. pisiform
C. lunate
D. scaphoid
E. triquetrum
63. Which of the following were listed as possible causes of a hamstring strain?
A. inflexibility
B. muscle imbalance
C. muscle fatigue
D. all of the above
E. A and B only
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