NICET Fire Alarm Technician Level II Practice Test Number 5

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NICET Fire Alarm Technician Level II Practice Test
Number 6
You will have 60 minutes to answer as many questions as possible. Try to complete
at least the first 20 questions before the end of the 60 minutes.
Module 33015 Governmental Agencies
1. The Army Corps of Engineers requires a _____________ on all fire alarm
drawings.
a. PE stamp
b. Green labeling
c. Large print for easy reading
d. Both A and B
e. Both A and C
2. The Veteran Administration requires ___________________ on fire alarm
systems in their buildings.
a. Base loop reporting
b. Buy American
c. Ion detectors
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
3. Fire alarm systems installed in New York City, New York are subject to the
regulations enforced by the ____________________.
a. New York Bureau of Standards
b. FDNY
c. New York State Electrical Board
d. None of the above
4. The American with Disabilities act does not apply to fire alarm systems installed
in the living units of private condominiums; however, local ordnances may apply.
a. True
b. False
5. Which department of the US Government uses the acronym DOE.
a. Department of the Environment
b. Department of Emergency Systems
c. Department of Energy
d. None of the above
Module 33014 Insurance Authorities and Their Requirements
6. Factory Mutual Insurance group consists of two groups, which are:
a. FMRC, FMAT
b. FMAT, FMI
c. FGIE, FGG
d. FMI, FMRC
e. None of the above
7. Kemper Insurance Group is primarily a:
a. Insurance agency
b. Insurance broker
c. Insurance Underwriter
d. None of the above
33016 Protective Premises Fire Alarm Systems
8. A coded alarm consists of not less than three complete rounds of the number
transmitted. Each round will consists of not less than __________ impulses.
4.4.3.1
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
9. Initiating, notification, and signaling line circuits will be designated by ________,
depending upon the circuit’s capability to continue to operate during a specified
fault condition. 6.4.2
a. Type
b. Class
c. Style
d. A only
e. A and B
f. B, C or B and C
10. A style C initiating system is also a class __________ system. Table 6.7
a. A
b. B
c. Both A and B
d. Either A and B depending on the installation
11. A style __________ notification appliance circuit will not have alarm capability
during a single ground abnormal condition.
a. W
b. X
c. Y
d. Z
e. Both a and b
f. Both a and c
g. None of the above
12. The American National Audible Emergency Evacuation Signal will not be used
where, _______________________________________. 6.8.6.4.1
a. The planned action is not evacuation, but relocation of occupants
b. In public schools
c. In health care facilities
d. None of the above
Element 33018 Supervising Station Alarm Systems
13. The secondary power supply shall automatically provide power to the protected
premises fire alarm system with in __________, whenever the primary power
supply fails to provide the minimum voltage required for proper operation.
4.4.1.6.2
a. 6 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d. 90 seconds
14. Fire alarm and supervisory signals shall be permitted to be received at
____________________________________ . 8.4.2.1.1
a. Public fire service communications center
b. Fire station
c. Governmental agency responsible for taking action
d. None of the above
e. Both A and B
f. Both B and C
g. A, B and C
15. A(n) ______ signal will be received when the system or any portion of the system
at the protected premises is placed in a bypass or test mode. 8.4.3.1
a. Alarm
b. Trouble
c. Tamper
d. Loss of power
e. Security
f. None of the above
Element 33019 Proprietary Supervising Station Systems
16. When the runner is not in attendance at the proprietary supervising station, the
runner will establish two-way communications with the station at intervals not
exceeding ______________. 8.3.4.6.2
a. 30 seconds
b. 180 seconds
c. 5 minutes
d. 15 minutes
17. Access to the proprietary station will be restricted to those persons directly
concerned with the implementation and ______________ of emergency action
and procedure. 8.3.3.2
a. Supervision
b. Recording
c. Coordination
d. Direction
e. None of the above
18. Complete records of all signals received shall be kept for at least __________
year. 8.3.6.1
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
19. At least ________ operators will be on duty at all times.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
20. Trouble signals shall be automatically recorded at the proprietary supervising
station.
a. True
b. False
Remaining Questions Are Provided for Practice and Study.
Random Element Order
21. Which of the following shall be performed to ensure that each smoke detector is
within its listed and marked sensitivity ranges:
a. Calibrated test method
b. Smoke entrance method
c. Listed control equipment arranged for the purpose
d. Manufacturer’s calibrated sensitivity test instrument test
e. Any of the tests listed in A through D
f. Any test listed in A, B, D
g. Any test listed in A, C, D
22. Which of the following is best described as an instrument that provides financial
protection for the owner in the event the contractor does not complete the work in
accordance with the agreement.
a. Payment bond
b. Liability insurance
c. Performance Bond
d. Non-completion bond
e. None of the above
23. ___________ are used to revise, delete, or add to any of the bidding requirements
or contract documents during the bidding process.
a. Change orders
b. Requests for price
c. Addenda
d. None of the above
24. When testing a (RAT) radio alarm transmitter, a(n) ____________ between
elements of the transmitting equipment shall be caused.
a. Resistance
b. Open condition
c. Fault
d. All of the above
25. Records of testing shall be retained until the next test date and for _________
thereafter.
a. 30 days
b. 90 days
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
e. 22.
23. An ELL on a construction drawing indicates:
a. An electronic leveling locator
b. An extension or wing of a building at right angles to the main section
c. A type of angle iron used in structural framing
d. None of the above
24. The rafters of a flat roof are sometimes called:
a. Flat rafters
b. Structural support flat system bracing
c. Roof joists
d. None of the above
25. This symbol represents what type of lumber on a construction drawing:
a. Plywood
b. Compression board
c. Dimension lumber
d. None of the above
26. This symbol represents what type of brick on a construction drawing:
a. Cut stone
b. Face brick
c. Common brick
d. Fine brick
27. Structural members arranged and fastened in triangular units to form a rigid
framework for support of loads over a long span are referred as:
a. Joists
b. Beams
c. Framework
d. Trusses
28. Division 15 of standard construction specifications is typically :
a. Electrical
b. Life Safety
c. Mechanical
d. None of the above
29. A blueprint note referenced the specifications for determining a wall covering
would be referencing which division:
a. 6
b. 12
c. 9
d. 11
30. In order to determine requirements for equipment installation and supply which
division of the specifications would most likely be referenced:
a. 1
b. 4
c. 11
d. 16
31. In general, performance bonding requirements for a construction project would be
found in which of the construction documents:
a. Specifications
b. Contract
c. Bidding requirements
d. Both A and B
e. None of the above
32. Electronic media shall not be permitted as a medium for retaining inspection
records.
f. True
a. False
33. Which of the following are not considered specifications:
a. Bidding requirements
b. Performance bond requirements
c. Certificate information
d. Contract conditions
e. All items A through D
f. Both A and B
g. Both A and D
34. A scale of 1/8”:1 can be translated to mean that a line on a drawing measuring 16
5/8” represents a actual distance of:
a. 128 feet
b. 131 feet
c. 16.5 feet
d. None of the above
26. ___________ are used to revise, delete or add work after a contract has been
signed.
a. Change orders
b. Requests for price
c. Architects Supplementary Instructions
d. Addenda
e. All of the above
f. Both A and B
g. Both A and C
27. The ______________ protects the labor force and suppliers of materials on a
construction project should the contractor fail to meet their obligations.
a. Performance bond
b. Liability insurance
c. Labor agreement
d. Both A and C
e. Both B and C
f. None of the above
28. A ____________ is a contract between a contractor and an individual or
organization that will provide services or material to a construction project under
the responsibility of the contractor.
a. Agreement
b. Sub-contract
c. Proposal
d. Purchase order
e. None of the above
29. Which of the following organizations have developed model building codes:
a. American Insurance Association
b. National Fire Protection Association
c. Southern Building Code Congress International
d. Northeastern Builders Alliance
e. All of the above
f. Items A, B and D only
g. Items A, B and C only
h. Items A,C and D only
30. The acronym ANSI represents:
a. American National Supply Institute
b. American Natural Standards Institute
c. American National Safety Institute
d. None of the above
31. The Occupational Safety and Health Organization is responsible for approving
safety related items used in construction.
a. True
b. False
32. Underwriter’s Laboratory is the only organization approved to give listing to
materials used in construction.
a. True
b. False
33. Which of the following are used by jurisdictions in the United States for building
codes:
a. Uniform Building code
b. Standard Building Code
c. Basic/National Building Code
d. NFPA 5000
e. All of the above
f. Items A through C only
g. Items A,B, and D only
Module 33016 Protected Premises Fire Alarm Systems
34. An initiating device circuit that will provide a trouble alarm under a single open,
single ground, wire to wire short, and loss of carrier and is a class B system would
be classified a style ________ system.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
35. The American National Standard Audible Emergency Evacuation Signal will not
be used where the planned action during a fire emergency is not evacuation, but is
the relocation of occupants for their protection in place as directed by the
firefighting personnel.
f. True
g. False
36. The secondary power supply shall automatically provide power to the supervising
station facility and equipment within ________ seconds whenever the primary
power supply fails to provide the minimum voltage required for proper operation.
h. 8
i. 10
j. 30
k. 60
37. The standard fire alarm evacuation signal is a ________ pulse temporal pattern
using any appropriate sound.
l. Single
m. Two
n. Three
o. Four
38. Required signals shall not be interrupted or delayed by more than ________
seconds as a result of the primary power failure.
p. 8
q. 10
r. 30
s. 60
39. Where DC voltages are employed for a power source, they shall be limited to no
more than ________ volts above earth ground.
t. 24
u. 50
v. 120
w. 350
40. A style E initiating device circuit is a class _______ system.
x. A
y. B
z. C
aa. D
bb. E
41. A protected premises fire alarm system shall include which of the following:
cc. Manual fire alarm signal initiation
dd. Radio transmitter (RAT)
ee. Integrated systems
ff. Automatic alarm signal initiation
gg. All of the above
hh. Items B,C and D
ii. Items A, C and D
jj. Items A, B and C
42. Initiating device circuits that transmit an alarm or supervisory signal and allow all
connected devices to operate during a single open condition are class ______
circuits.
kk. A
ll. B
mm.
C
nn. D
oo. E
43. A system that has a positive alarm sequence shall be provided with the means to
bypass the positive alarm sequence.
pp. True
qq. False
Module 33018 Supervising Station Fire Alarm Systems
44. Fire alarm and supervisory signals shall be permitted to be received at which of
the following locations:
a. Fire station
b. Fire service communications center
c. Contracted private monitoring organization
d. Government agency responsible for taking the prescribed action
e. All of the above
f. Items A through C
g. Items A, B, and D
h. Items B, C and D
45. Signal receiving equipment will indicate receipt of each signal both audibly and
visibly.
a. True
b. False
46. A __________ signal will be received when the system or any portion of the
system at the protected premises is placed in a bypass or test mode.
a. Alarm
b. Trouble
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
47. Which of the following items must be kept as a recorded permanent record for 1
year and be made available upon request to the authority having jurisdiction:
a. Time of alarm
b. Date of trouble signals
c. Time of alarm restoration
d. Date of trouble signal restoration
e. All items A through D
f. Only Items A and C
g. Only Items B and D
48. The testing of a supervising station fire alarm system shall include the initiating
device actuation and verification that the receipt of the correct initiating device
was received by the station within __________ seconds of actuation.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 60
d. 90
49. Which of the following must comply with FC rules and regulations:
a. Electromagnetic radiation
b. Use of radio frequencies
c. Connection to the public switched telephone network of telephone
equipment
d. All of the items A through C
e. Only items A and B
f. Only items B and C
50. A one-way radio alarm system shall be supervised to ensure that at least
_________ radio alarm repeater station receivers are receiving signals from each
radio alarm transmitter during each 24 hour period.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
51. A system that uses a DACT shall employ one telephone line and in addition
which of the following shall be employed:
a. A second telephone line
b. A one-way private radio alarm system
c. A network of certified runners
d. A two way RF multiplex system
e. Any one of items A through D
f. Any one of items A, B,C only
g. Any one of items A,B, D only
52. If a DACT initially fails to communicate with a DACR a DART will transmit the
information and repeat the information 5 times. The DART transmission may be
allowed to be less than 5 sequences if the DACT is able to establish a
communication with the DACR before the DART has completed 5 full sequences.
a. True
b. False
53. Each DART shall automatically initiate and compete a test signal transmission
sequence to it’s associated digital alarm radio receiver at least once every
___________.
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours
Module 33019 Proprietary Supervising Station Systems
54. The secondary power supply shall automatically provide power to the protected
premises fire alarm system with in ________, whenever the primary power supply
fails to provide the minimum voltage required for proper operation.
a. 8 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 90 seconds
55. Access to the proprietary supervising station will be restricted to those persons
directly concerned with the implementation and direction of
________________________.
a. Fire alarm evacuation
b. Emergency action and procedure
c. Trouble alarm sequencing
d. None of the above
56. If 25 or more protected buildings are connected to a single subsidiary station then
which of the following apply:
a. An additional subsidiary station is required
b. The subsidiary system shall be designed so as not to rely solely on the
ability of human operators to receive and record signals under
emergency staffing conditions
c. A telephone shall be provided at the subsidiary station with at least 3
dedicated lines
d. None of the above.
e. All of the items A through C
57. Trouble signals and their restoration shall be automatically indicated and
recorded at the proprietary supervising station.
a. True
b. False
58. When the runner is not in attendance at the proprietary supervising station , the
runner shall establish two way communications with the station at intervals not to
exceed ____________.
a. 60 seconds
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 30 minutes
59. How many operators are required to be on duty at all times?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
60. Upon receipt of an alarm, the proprietary supervising station operator will initiate
action to perform which of the following:
a. Immediately notify the fire department
b. Restore the system to normal and silence all alarms
c. Dispatch a runner to the alarm location
d. Retrieve fire fighting equipment and report to the area of the fire.
e. None of the above
f. Items A, C and D
g. Items A and C
h. Items A, B and C
61. Provision shall be made to designate the _____________ in which a signal
originates.
a. Zone
b. Device
c. Building
d. None of the above
62. The proprietary supervising station shall have _______ means for alerting the
operator when each signal is received, in addition to a recording device.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
63. The proprietary station shall provide written notice to the authority having
jurisdiction as the nature of the signal, time and occurrence and restoration of
service, when equipment has been out of service for _______ or more.
a. 60 seconds
b. 10 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 8 hours
Module 33020 Central Station Fire Alarm Systems
64. The subsidiary facility will be inspected at least ________ by central station
personnel for the purpose of verifying the operation of all supervised equipment,
all telephones, all battery conditions, and all fluid levels of batteries and
generators.
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Yearly
65. A back up will be made available within __________ in the event of the failure of
equipment at the subsidiary station or the communications channel to the central
station .
a. 8 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d. 90 seconds
66. Which ANSI document provides the restricted access minimum standards for a
central station building?
a. NFPA 118
b. NFPA 101
c. ANSI 827
d. None of the above
67. A listed Central Station shall have which of the following elements:
a. At least one DACT
b. Fire alarm transmitters
c. Alarm, guard and supervisory and trouble signal monitoring
d. Runner service
e. All of the above
f. Items A through C only
g. Items B through D only
68. A central station system requires a contract with the owner and the central station
supplier.
a. True
b. False
69. The installation must be certified.
a. True
b. False
70. The installation will placarded.
a. True
b. False
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