HSM 300- HEALTH SERVICES MANAGEMENT
Sample Exam for Chapters 19 to 26
1.
Hospital Y is locating qualified personnel to form a pool of candidates. Hospital Y is
performing the human resources function of
2.
a.
Recruitment
b.
Retention
c.
Selection
d.
Outsourcing
A nurse supervisor from Hospital Y is choosing the right candidate from a pool of
applicants. This supervisor is performing the human resources function of
3.
4.
a.
Recruitment
b.
Retention
c.
Selection
d.
Outsourcing
The staffing function includes all of the following except
a.
Orienting staff
b.
Writing procedures
c.
Judging performance
d.
Training staff
Effective use of the human resources department includes
a.
Supervising subordinates in the nursing departments
1
5.
6.
b.
Conducting performance appraisals on all managers
c.
Advising on employment practices and regulations
d.
helping managers complete work assignments
When terminating an employee, the supervisor
a.
Must determine whether current employees can fulfill departmental goals
b.
Must conduct the exit interview and share findings with human resources
c.
Documents thoroughly the occurrences leading to the termination decision
d.
Determines whether current skills sets are adequate
Intraorganizational turnover occurs
a.
When an employee moves from one position to another within the same
organization
7.
b.
When an employee moves from one organization to another
c.
When an employee is oriented to his or her job
d.
When an employee’s goals and values match those of the organization
The difference between a job description and job specification is that
a.
The description tells exactly what duties are in the job, whereas the
specifications tell what the qualifications are
b.
The description describes the qualifications, whereas the specifications
specify the duties
c.
The description is based on a job analysis, whereas the specification is not
d.
The description specifies the duties, whereas the specifications specify the
responsibilities
8.
Job analysis involves all of the following except
a.
Analyzing the employees and working conditions in the department
b.
Analyzing the duties and tasks performed
2
9.
c.
Analyzing skill requirements
d.
Analyzing physical demands
When preparing job specifications, the supervisor should
a.
Loosely define the required job knowledge to increase the pool of applicants
b.
Not ask for a higher degree of skill than is absolutely needed
c.
Set the requirements as high as possible to limit the pool of applicants to
interview
d.
10.
Not be concerned with employment laws
When vacancies occur, the supervisor should
a.
Immediately recruit a replacement to help determine the turnover rate
b.
Contact friends who may be interested in the job before posting the vacancy
with human resources
c.
Analyze the job and related jobs to see if any process improvements could
be achieved that may result in lessening the labor requirement
d.
Analyze the job and related jobs to see if any process improvements could
be achieved that may result in lessening the instrumentation requirement.
11.
Which of the following statements describes outsourcing?
a.
It is an alternative that works well when a department is functioning well
b.
It is an alternative for conducting job analyses in an organization
c.
It determines the shifts on which employees will work
d.
An employer engages a third party to supply staff
3
12.
The selection process represents all of the following except
a.
choosing the candidate that meets the job demands
b.
matching the applicant’s personality and capability with the culture of the
department
c.
Reviewing the duties and tools necessary to perform the work and the
qualifications required to do the job
d.
selecting the candidate who is likely to perform well and will stay with the
organization
13.
An employment interview is not something that
a.
Involves two-way communication between the interviewer and applicant
b.
Allows one to learn about the applicant’s background, interests, and values
c.
Is a precise technique
d.
Is more valid for predicting employee behavior than decisions made on tests
alone
14.
15.
All of the following are types of employment interview except
a.
Structured
b.
Directive
c.
Nondirective
d.
comparative
The nondirective interview
a.
Allows the interviewee to say whatever he or she wants to say
b.
Keeps the session structured
4
16.
17.
18.
19.
c.
Pays little attention to what the interviewee wants to say
d.
Restricts what the interviewee would like to say
The purpose of a directive employment interview is to
a.
Locate qualified applicants
b.
Collect facts and reach a decision
c.
Provide training and development
d.
Enhance employee performance
A directive interview
a.
Is the same as a structured interview
b.
Follows a format that is not structured
c.
Is discriminatory in nature
d.
Uses questions that do not follow a pre-designed format
Which of the following items would not appear on an application form?
a.
Education, degrees, and certifications
b.
Previous work experience, dates of employment, and salary
c.
Ancestry, marital status, and age
d.
Address, telephone number, and middle initial
The structured interview
5
20.
a.
Permits asking questions that may be considered discriminatory
b.
Consists of questions about the personality of previous bosses
c.
Includes questions about job knowledge and work requirements
d.
Should include a human resources representative
Which of the following is incorrect about reference checks?
a.
Human resources should conduct the reference checks.
b.
The Equal Employment Commission discourages them.
c.
They require the applicant’s authorization.
d.
They are used to obtain additional information about the applicant’s work
habits.
21.
Supervisors must comply with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission laws
during an interview, which means
a.
b.
c
d.
Questions must be job-related
Supervisor may be required to hire an unqualified candidate
Questions about spousal tolerance of work hours are acceptable
Questions about the national origin of the applicant is acceptable
22.
When evaluating an applicant one should
a.
Review the notes taken during the interview, make the hire decision, and speak to
others who may have interviewed the chosen candidate
b.
Go with the “gut” and make a snap decision before another firm hires the person
c.
Learn how to recognize over-generalization and avoid the halo effect
d.
Always seek the help of present employees
23.
The halo effect
a.
Occurs when an interviewer is using one or two characteristics on which to base
all other factors.
b.
Occurs when the applicant gives all the right answers
c.
Occurs when one appears angelic during the interview but becomes an unreliable
employee once hired
d.
May work favorably or unfavorably for the interviewer
24.
The performance appraisal system is not
6
a.
b.
c.
d.
A coaching tool
A planning tool
A structure tool
A motivational tool
25.
Ideally, the performance appraisal will
a.
Show the employee where and how to improve
b.
Apply sufficient stress to make the person improve
c.
Preclude merit increase
d.
Be used as a tactic to intimidate employees
26.
An appraisal approach that lists employees in a high-to-low order is
a.
Group rank ordering
b.
Individual ranking
c.
H-L approach
d.
Paired comparison
27.
An appraisal approach that requires the input from subordinates, peers, and superiors is
a.
Group rank ordering
b.
Graphic rating scale
c.
360-degree feedback
d.
BARS
28.
An effective appraisal process will identify all of the following except
a.
How well the employee is performing
b.
If process changes could improve the employee’s performance
c.
How well the supervisor is performing
d.
The punishment that subordinates deserve
29.
An empowered environment is more likely to use which appraisal system?
a.
Paired comparison
b.
Group rank ordering
c.
BARS
d.
360-degree feedback
30.
During the annual appraisal process an empowered environment will
a.
Permit the team to make work assignments to other teams
b.
Permit the team to contribute to identifying strengths and weaknesses of its team
members
c.
Permit the team to delegate authority for certain duties and grant leaves of absence
for its team members
d.
Permit the team to defend team members at all cost
7
31.
Performance appraisals should not
a.
Be conducted regularly
b.
Include a skills inventory
c.
Provide timely feedback
d.
Occur at the time of wage adjustment
32.
A major fault of appraisals is that
a.
They are subjective
b.
They do not provide feedback
c.
They usually occur annually
d.
They are objective
33.
The comparative appraisal method includes
a.
360 degree feedback
b.
Management by objective
c.
Behaviorally anchored rating scales
d.
Paired distribution
34.
An appraisal interview may use
a.
Directive or unstructured approach
b.
Listen and tell or win-lose approach
c.
Problem-solving or combined approach
d.
Mixed or win-lose approach
35.
An interviewing approach that allows the employee to state his or her own appraisal
thoughts and then allows the supervisor to state his or hers is known as
a.
Tell and sell
b.
Problem solving
c.
Directive
d.
Listen and tell
36.
When the appraisal interview is being conducted
a.
The supervisor should resolve any misunderstandings, seek acceptance of the
rating, and secure commitment to future goals
b.
The supervisor should rely on the daily interactions he or she has had with the
subordinate
c.
The supervisor should confirm the mutual understandings, assign the ratings, and
secure commitment to future goals
d.
The supervisor should be a constructive listener, briefly answer questions, and
emphasize the subordinate’s shortcomings
37.
The supervisor’s role in wage and benefit administration is
8
a.
b.
c.
d.
To ensure his or her staff is financially rewarded to the maximum extent
Limited to making suggestions and recommendations
To ensure that internal inequity and external alignment is maintained
Limited to what is established by human resources
38.
When an internal alignment assessment is being performed, one tool that is helpful is
a.
BARS
b.
A job description
c.
A job evaluation
d.
A job analysis
39.
Absolute standards performance appraisals
a.
Trims the communication of the grapevine
b.
Compare one employee to another
c.
Compare job titles in one area with another
d.
Evaluate each employee against written standards
40.
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding employee promotions?
a.
Promotions entail more demands on the individual, more authority, and more
responsibility.
b.
Promotions will result in larger offices, more important titles, and a secretary.
c.
Promotions from within are the most widely practiced and often are less
expensive.
d.
Promotions from within can serve as a strong motivator.
41.
An advantage to recruiting from outside the organization is that
a.
It is often less expensive
b.
It avoids having to fill two positions in the organization
c.
It injects “new blood” or new thinking or expertise into the organization
d.
It causes fewer hard feelings among staff within the organization
42.
Influencing is not
a.
A process to achieve goal-directed action
b.
Known as motivating
c.
Primarily the job of the CEO
d.
A means for developing an effective work force
43.
A good directive
a.
Is compatible with the objectives of the organization
b.
Takes into consideration wage levels
c.
Takes into consideration benefit plans
d.
Takes into consideration the likes of the subordinate
Intelligibility includes all of the following except
44.
9
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reasonableness
Language
Tone
Understanding
45.
Two basic techniques of direction are
a.
Planning and organization
b.
Participative and close
c.
Recruitment and retention
d.
Training and development
46.
In the United States, the more accepted approach to direction is
a.
Theory X
b.
Close
c.
Consultative
d.
autocratic
47.
An atmosphere of understanding and mutual confidence is fostered when the supervisor
a.
Ensures staff is informed, understand what is expected, and believe the directives
are reasonable
b.
Provides all directives in writing so that all staff on all shifts have access to the
directive
c.
Gives directives as commands and staff has an opportunity to debate them
d.
Uses the autocratic style of directing and gives staff an opportunity to negotiate
them
48.
When organizations use do-it group or quality control circle, they
a.
Add a different structure to the existing channels of communication
b.
Develop more effective methods to ensure the work is accomplished
c.
Require no additional training given their familiarity with the jobs
d.
Work on issues affected by the Pareto principle
49.
Which of the following is true of change?
a.
Most individuals understand that change is a necessity
b.
Staff tends to resist change; however, management does not
c.
Imposing change unilaterally it is the most successful approach
d.
Communication is important to help staff understand why change is necessary
50.
Which of the following contributes to team failure?
a.
Lack of accountability
b.
Clear goals
c.
Effective leadership
d.
Role clarity
10
51.
Employee participation in the change process
a.
Increases resistance to change
b.
Reduces the resistance to change
c.
Inhibits progress
d.
Is time consuming
52.
Motivation results from
a.
Drive, achievement, efforts, and reinforcement
b.
Attainment of goals, efforts, and direction
c.
Efforts, direction, and opportunity
d.
Drive, efforts, and opportunity
53.
Two categories of motivational theory are
a.
Content and procedures
b.
Process and content
c.
Process and control
d.
Content and need
54.
Need theories include all of the following except
a.
Something desired
b.
Unsatisfied needs
c.
Why a behavior is selected
d.
Reducing tensions
55.
Process theories examine
a.
The needs that drive individuals
b.
Why an individual chooses a particular partner to achieve a goal
c.
How individuals evaluate their satisfaction with a goal that is accomplished
d.
Why an individual selects a particular department to work
56.
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
a.
Identifies five tiers of needs, each level of which requires stronger motivation
b.
Identifies three tiers of needs for individuals of all ages and economic stature
c.
Prohibits supervisors from recognizing the needs of employees
d.
eliminates how an organization can help fulfill employee needs
57.
The need that is defined as the deficiency need is
a.
Physiological need
b.
Esteem need
c.
Growth need
d.
achievement need
58.
The need that is defined as the growth need is
11
a.
b.
c.
d.
Shelter, employment
Self-image, achievement
Love, affection
Food, water
59.
The need that may never be satisfied is
a.
Love, affection
b.
Self-image, achievement
c.
Self-actualization
d.
employment
60.
How does the ERG model differ from Maslow’s theory?
a.
ERG is a process theory; Maslow’s is a content theory.
b.
ERG has three categories of needs; Maslow’s has five categories
c.
There is no overlap of the two theorists’ categories
d.
The ERG model is more popular than Maslow’s theory
61.
Alderfer’s ERG model states that
a.
Increased frustration may cause regression of need demands.
b.
Needs are limited by resources; it is a win-win situation for all persons
c.
Needs are driven by the situation
d.
Growth needs cannot be satisfied through personal development
62.
Frederick Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory deals with
a.
Job satisfiers
b.
Maslow’s satisfiers
c.
Residential satisfiers
d.
Processes
63.
The two-factor theory speaks of motivating factors as
a.
Hygiene factors
b.
The work itself
c.
Interpersonal relations
d.
Working conditions
64.
Administrative policies can keep employees satisfied or dissatisfied. To keep employees
satisfied management
a.
Must compensate employees equally regardless of their position within the
organization
b.
Should focus on hiring people from the outside to fill supervisory positions
c.
Conduct performance appraisals just before a pay adjustment
d.
Should provide appropriate fringe benefits
12
65.
The theory that focuses on learned needs is
a.
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
b.
Vroom’s expectancy theory
c.
McClelland’s achievement theory
d.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory
66.
Learned needs include
a.
Achievement, power, and acceptance
b.
Achievement, affiliation, and power
c.
Power, satisfiers, and dissatisfiers
d.
Achievement, power, and motivators
67.
While each person will have a core set of learned needs, the degree of needs will vary
based on
a.
Compensation
b.
The working environment
c.
The situation
d.
The general population
68.
Vroom’s expectancy theory has three base elements. They are
a.
Effort, reward, and behaviors
b.
Effort, reward, and probability of getting the reward
c.
Reward, probability, and ability
d.
Probability, satisfier, and effort
69.
The human behavior that is motivated by unsatisfied needs has its basis in
a.
Strength of motivation, personality, stimuli
b.
Last names, supervisor’s health beliefs
c.
Stimuli, the CEO’S health beliefs
d.
Personality and food preference
70.
A factor that alters one’s perception is a
a.
Perceptual process
b.
Stimuli
c.
Barrier
d.
Attitude
71.
Examples of perceptual barriers include all the following except
a.
Values
b.
Stereotypes
c.
Bias
d.
Halo effect
13
72.
Frustrations may be dealt with by all of the following approaches except
a.
Resignation
b.
Aggression
c.
Stimuli
d.
Retreat
73.
Which of the following describes leadership?
a.
A nonessential component to facilitating motivation
b.
A process that influences others to do something voluntarily
c.
Represented by a person who is always in a management position
d.
Represented by a person who always have formal authority
74.
The leadership theory that espouses that leadership is dependent on the situation is
a.
The early genetic theory
b.
The trait theory
c.
The contingency approach
d.
None of the above
75.
A leadership approach that is employee centered is
a.
Emotive
b.
Task-oriented
c.
Objective
d.
Goal-playing
76.
A leader cannot be a leader if there are no:
a.
Needs
b.
Followers
c.
Personal characteristics
d.
Monetary funds
77.
Which of the following is not true about morale?
a.
Morale can be improved by offering flexible hours
b.
It is emotion affecting attitudes and feelings of individuals about work
c.
Turnover is lower when morale is low
d.
All management personnel must be concerned with employee morale
78.
Morale can be exhibited in several ways. Which of the following is not one of those
ways?
a.
Turnover and absenteeism
b.
Updated procedures
c.
Workers helping coworkers
d.
sharing ideas
14
79.
Which of the following helps management to assess how employees view their jobs?
a.
Job analysis
b.
Job pricing
c.
Turnover audit
d.
Surveys
80.
Morale is affected mostly by
a.
Supervision
b.
Internal factors
c.
External factors
d.
Friendship
81.
To help employees deal with external factors that may be affecting their work,
organizations have
a.
Implemented closer supervision programs
b.
Initiated disciplinary programs for tardiness and absenteeism
c.
Offered employee assistance programs
d.
Provided financial assistance programs
82.
When morale is high
a.
Teamwork is typically present in the work force
b.
Productivity is typically below average
c.
Turnover is higher
d.
absenteeism is higher
83.
Surveys are used by management to
a.
Assess how employees view their jobs, benefits, supervisors, and working
conditions
b.
Assess how management views their subordinates, benefits, and working
conditions
c.
Demonstrate research capabilities of the organization
d.
Help train supervisors
84.
Surveys that are objective
a.
Include questions that are discriminative
b.
Provide fill-in-the-blank answer options
c.
Provide multiple-choice answer options
d.
Include questions that will reflect the tendency to say no
85.
In an organization, who must be concerned about employee morale?
a.
The CEO
b.
Department directors
c.
Front-line supervisors
d.
All management personnel
15
86.
One of the shortcomings of using the observation method to gauge the level of employee
morale is
a.
Supervisors do not take time to use this method
b.
By the time it is noticed, the change has already occurred
c.
It is relatively simple to observe highs and lows
d.
Higher management do not recognize this method
87.
Full-scale attitude surveys should occur
a.
At least every three months
b.
At least every year
c.
At least every three years
d.
At least annually
88.
A condition of orderliness in which the members of the enterprise behave sensibly and
conduct themselves according to the standards of acceptable behavior is known as
a.
Mores
b.
Discipline
c.
Expectations
d.
Ethics
89.
The best discipline is
a.
Self-discipline
b.
Organizational discipline
c.
Timely discipline
d.
Progressive discipline
90.
The first step in discipline is to
a.
Invoke a disciplinary layoff
b.
Take a survey
c.
Obtain the pertinent facts
d.
Give a verbal warning
91.
Mores, unlike discipline, are
a.
Organizationally driven
b.
Not eligible for discipline
c.
Culture-driven
d.
Norms
92.
A set of self-imposed standards that regulates behavior within an organization are
a.
Mores
b.
Norms
c.
Rules
d.
Expectations
16
93.
Disciplinary layoffs may
a.
Positively affect productivity
b.
Enforce a bad attitude with the employee
c.
Be detrimental for both the employee and supervisor
d.
increase in the near future
94.
Supervisors who fail to take quick disciplinary action
a.
Practice Theory Y management
b.
May risk weakening morale
c.
Will be appreciated by their staff
d.
Can rectify it during the annual appraisal
95.
Positive discipline
a.
Serves as a warning to others in the department
b.
Allows the supervisor to “get even”
c.
Inhibits the rights of employees
d.
Demonstrates that the supervisor is the boss
96.
When an event occurs that requires disciplinary action, the supervisor should
a.
Delay in gathering the facts hoping that the problem will go away
b.
Discuss the offense in public to raise the awareness of all employees
c.
Discuss the offenses in private with the subordinate
d.
Give the subordinate a second chance to alleviate bad feelings
97.
The series of actions (1) informal talk, (2) spoken warning, (3) written warning, (4)
disciplinary layoff, (5) demotion, and (6) discharge are associated with
a.
Disciplinary matrix
b.
Progressive discipline
c.
Regressive discipline
d.
Aggressive discipline
98.
The “red-hot-stove” approach has all the following characteristics except
a.
It is personal
b.
It is immediate
c.
It comes with warning
d.
It is consistent
99.
Disciplinary layoffs are often associated with
a.
unions
b.
no pay
c.
lawsuits
d.
loss of business
17
100.
When one appeals a disciplinary action of his or her supervisor, the appeal should be
directed to:
a.
The CEO of the organization
b.
The supervisor’s supervisor
c.
Human resources
d.
The courts
Answers to Sample Test (Chapters 19 -26)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
a
c
b
c
c
a
a
a
b
c
d
c
c
d
a
b
a
c
c
b
a
c
a
c
a
b
c
d
d
b
d
a
d
34. c
35. d
36. a
37. b
38. c
39. d
40. b
41. c
42. c
43. a
44. a
45. b
46. c
47. a
48. b
49. d
50. a
51. b
52. a
53. b
54. c
55. c
56. a
57. a
58. b
59. c
60. b
61. a
62. a
63. b
64. d
65. c
66. b
67. c
68. b
69. a
70. c
71. a
72. c
73. b
74. c
75. a
76. b
77. c
78. b
79. d
80. a
81. c
82. a
83. a
84. c
85. d
86. b
87. c
88. b
89. a
90. c
91. c
92. b
93. b
94. b
95. a
96. c
97. b
98. a
99. b
100. b
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