Harry T Harper Jr., M.D. School of Cardiac and Vascular Technology
A Program of University Hospital’s Georgia Heart Institute
DIS 150 Registry Review
Week 6
1.
Cath lab personnel may terminate CPR under all of the following circumstances
EXCEPT:
a. His/her exhaustion
b. The MD pronounces patient dead
c. The code team assumes responsibility
d. The patient is unresuscitatable
2.
In 2 - man adult CPR how should the breaths between the 5 chest compressions
be administered?
a. 1 breath without pausing
b. 2 breaths without pausing
c. 1 breath with slight pause
d. 2 breaths with slight pause
3.
All below are accepted maneuvers used to assist in opening the airway
EXCEPT:
a. Tilting the patients head backward
b. Pressing your palm onto the patients forehead
c. Pulling up with your hand under patients neck
d. Pulling up with your hand beneath the patients chin
4.
How deep should you compress the sternum in CPR on infants (0-1 yrs old)?
a. ½ - 1 inch
b. 1 - 1 ½ inches
c. 1 ½ - 2 inches
d. 2 - 2 ½ inches
5.
What is the correct ratio of CPR compressions to ventilations on intubated adult
victims?
a. 3:1
b. 5:1
c. 15:2
d. Unsynchronized
6.
Counterpulsation is the term that describes balloon:
a. Inflation in diastole and deflation in late systole
b. Inflation in systole and deflation in diastole
c. Inflation during IC and deflation in diastole
d. Inflation in diastole and deflation during IC
7.
The intraaortic balloon should be positioned in the ______ just below the______
but above the ______.
a. Descending thoracic aorta, left subclavian artery, renal artery
b. Descending thoracic aorta, right subclavian artery, left renal artery
c. Arch of AO, subclavian artery, renal artery
d. Ascending AO, sinuses of valsalva, subclavian artery
8.
Development and maintenance of ventricular pressure before opening of the
aortic valve refers to:
a. Ventricular systole
b. Dynamic work
c. Static work
d. Isovolumic relaxation
9.
During systole, SV is ejected and temporarily stored within the elastic aorta.
This permits much of the force imparted to the blood by ventricular contraction to
be stored as potential energy. During diastole, the stretched aortic fibers recoil,
maintaining a pressure head, which causes a distal “run-off” of blood. Intraaortic
balloon deflation during diastole enhances this intrinsic:
a. Windkessel effect
b. Venturi effect
c. Laplace’s Law
d. Poiseuilles Law
10. Indications for IABP include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Angina
b. AMI
c. CHF
d. LM lesion
e. Cardiomyopathy
11. The Starling law says that :(at a given SVR) the heart has the capacity to vary its
____ as a function of _______.
a. EDP, preload
b. EDP, afterload
c. Force of contraction, preload
d. Force of contraction, afterload
12.
Final filling of the ventricle at the end of diastole is LV_________.
a. Preload
b. Afterload
c. Stroke index
d. Stroke volume
13.
If all other factors are held constant, increasing ______ will DECREASE cardiac
output (note:Inverse relationship)
a. Preload
b. Afterload
c. Contractility
d. Heart rate
14.
Which hemodynamic measurement most directly reflects left ventricular afterload?
a. Wedge pressure
b. Mean BP
c. End diastolic volume
d. LV contractility
15.
The impedence against which the ventricle must work is defined as ?
a. Preload
b. Afterload
c. Isometric resistance
d. Viscous resistance
16.
How should this patients preload be managed? 2 days after an anterio-lateral MI he
devleopes cool, clammy skin and the following signs: pathologic S3 and S4
heart
sounds, sinus tachycardia HR=124, BP 80/50mmHg, PCW=12 mmHg.
a. Morphine to drop PCW to 4mmHg
b. Diuretics to drop PCW to 9mmHg
c. IV fluids to raise PCW to 18 mmHg
d. Whole blood to raise PCW to 25mmHg
17.
LV contractility is a measure of the hearts ___________ state.
a. Chronotropic
b. Barotropic
c. Chemotropic
d. Inotropic
e. Dromotropic
18.
Which of the following are factors that influence the contractile state of
myocardium?
a. Autonomic tone
b. Disease
c. Drug intervention
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
19.
Starling’s law of the heart states that the force of cardiac contraction increases with:
a. Increased coronary perfusion
b. Increased diastolic filling
c. Increased heart rate
d. Decreasing heart size
20.
What 3 measurements below evaluate LV preload?
1. dp,dt
2.inotropic state
3. Resting fiber length
4. EDV
6. Systolic BP
7. EDP
8. SVR
9. PVR
5. ESV
a. 1,2,4
b. 3,4,7
c. 4,7,9
d. 5,7,8
21. Which of the following is complication of cardiac catheterization?
a. CVA
b. CHF
c. Thrombosis
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
22. What should the injection time for a coronary artery be?
a. 1-2 sec
b. 3-4 sec
c. 1 minute
d. 5-10 sec
23. What significant arrhythmias could not be caused by coronary injection?
a. Ventricular Tachycardia
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Atrial Fibrillation
d. Asystole
24.
Most episodes of bradycardia or asystole are brief and are resolved promptly by
having the patient:
a. Put in the reverse Trendelenburg
b. Make a forceful cough
c. Take NTG sublingual
d. Sit up right
25.
____________ may develop after coronary angiography, particularly in patients who
are hypovolemic, who receive large volumes of contrast, or have diabetes, or
multiple myeloma.
a. Angina
b. Renal failure
c. Renal insufficiency
d. CHF
26.
Contrast is essentially used to replace the blood contained in the involved vessel
and cause slight but continuous reflux into the aortic root.
a. True
b. False.
27. Too vigorous of an injection of contrast during angiography may cause:
a. Coronary dissection
b. Excessive myocardial blushing
c. None of the above
d. Both a and b
28. The most common injection site utilized for an adult having left heart exam is :
a. Femoral vein
b. Antecubital artery
c. Femoral artery
d. Subclavian vein
29.
Contrast media can cause sinus node slowing: occurring for 5 to 10 sec after
injection and persists approximately 60 seconds. It also can cause all of the
following except:
a. Increased QRS duration
b. ST segment depression
c. T wave inversion
d. Decreased AV conduction
30.
The major hemodynamic effect of contrast media is a decrease in SVR and BP. It
may also cause a rise in _________ :
a. LVEDP
b. RV systolic
c. CVP
d. PCW
31.
The greatest heart rate increases comes by stimulating the ---------- autonomic
nerve
receptors.
a. Alpha adrenergic
b. Beta-1 adrenergic
c. Beta-2 adrenergic
d. Parasympathetic
32.
Which answers below are associated with stimulation of the sympathetic autonomic
nervous system?
1. Adrenergic
2. Cholinergic
3. Vegetative response
4. Fight or flight response
5. Sacral-bowel nerve stimulation
6. Acetylcholine mediator
7. Increase dp/dt
a. 1,4,7
b. 2,5,6
c. 3,4,6
d. 4,6,7
33.
Sympathetic nerve over stimulation may be seen in an acute MI as:
a. Warm, sweaty skin
b. Cold, sweaty skin
c. Warm, dry skin
d. Cold, dry skin
34.
The parasympathetic nerve that innervates the heart is the
a. Phrenic
b. Vagus
c. Cardiac plexus
d. Brachial plexus
35.
The naturally occuring neurotransmitter liberated at the parasympathetic nerve
junction is
a. Adrenalin
b. Norepinephrine
c. Atropine
d. Acetylcholine
36.
Two primary cardiac responses associated with a parasympathetic neural discharge
are:
1. Decrease heart rate
2. Increase heart rate
3. Decrease AV conduction
4. Increase AV conduction
5. Decrease contractility
6. Increase contractility
a. 1,3
b. 1,5
c. 2,4
d. 2,5
37.
On which type of patient should extra care be taken in holding pressure at the
femoral artery after a seldinger left heart cath, because they are prone to
developing
a hematoma?
a. Tight aortic stenosis
b. Bounding aortic regurgitation
c. Obese diabetic males
d. Men over 65 years of age
38.
Arterial lines should be connected to a continuous flush device which at 300 mmHg
infusion pressure will deliver approximately:
a. 1-2 ml flush/min
b. 5-10 ml flush/min
c. 3-5 ml flush/min
d. 20-40 ml flush/min
39.
On which IV access site is it hardest to control hemostasis?
a. Femoral vein
b. Subclavian vein
c. Internal jugular vein
d. External jugular vein
40.
Which type of IV cannulation is seldom uses because it may accidentally shear off
the catheter and embolize into the vein?
a. Catheter over the needle
b. Catheter throught the needle
c. Catheter over the guide wire
d. Sheath and dilator over the wire
41.
Fog density should not exceed:
a. 2.5
b. 0.1
c. 0.5
d. 0.05
42.
Swelling of the emulsion to permit subsequent chemical penetration is referred to
as:
a. Development
b. Fixing
c. Wetting
d. Washing
43.
Humans can expect a reduced life span of ___ for every rad.
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
44.
The cardinal principles of radiation control include time, distance, and shielding.
a. True
b. False
45.
The most effective sterilization technique for heat sensitive products is:
a. Steam
b. Chemical
c. Gas
46.
High Kilo-Voltage settings on the x-ray generator tend to increase the:
a. Umbra (edge distortion)
b. Penumbra (film density)
c. Short scale contrast (more contrast)
d. Long scale contrast (more gray tones)
47.
When a sterile scrub tech places sterile drapes around a prepped area, what area
should be draped first:
a. Furthest from scrub tech
b. Closest to scrub tech
c. Nearest incision site
d. Closest to the physician
48.
Which below is a method of “disinfection” only and is NOT a safe method of
sterilization:
a. Ethylene oxide gas
b. Ionizing radiation
c. Pressurized steam
d. Boiling water
49.
Preventing the contact of microorganisms is termed:
a. Asepsis
b. Bacteriostasis
c. Isolation technique
d. The barrier method
50.
What is the minimum allowable frequency response of a catheter transducer system
needed to accurately record (to the 10th harmonic) the LV pressure of a
patient
which demonstrates a heart rate of 120 bpm?
a. 20 Hz
b. 100 Hz
c. 200 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
51.
52.
The most common type of VSD is located in the:
a.
Membranous septum
b.
Mid IV septum
c.
Apical IV septum
d.
Fenestrated type (multiple holes)
The most common defect causing CHF in the preterm infant “preemie” is:
53.
a.
ASD
b.
VSD
c.
PDA
d.
Ductus Venosus
An elevated pulmonary resistance may become fixed by obstructive changes in the
pulmonary vascular bed. This would be most likely found in a cyanotic child with
chronic:
54.
a.
ASD
b.
Tetralogy of Fallot
c.
Transposition of Great vessels
d.
Transposition with Pulmonary Stenosis
Which normal cardiovascular fetal shunt normally closes off immediately after the
infants first breath?
55.
a.
Patent foramen ovale
b.
Sinus Venosus
c.
Ductus Venosus
d.
Patent Ductus arteriosus
Which shunt normally closes off several days after a full term birth?
a.
V.D. with right to left shunt
b.
V.D. with left to right shunt
c.
Patent ductus Arterious
d.
Patent foramen Ovale
56.
In the normal fetal circulation, oxygenated blood from the placenta preferentially
goes through the
the
57.
and the blood from the SVC preferentially goes through
.
a.
Ductus venosus; umbilical artery
b.
Umbilical artery, Umbilical vein
c.
Ductus arterious, foramen ovale
d.
Foramen ovale, ductus arteriosus
Cyanotic cardiac shunts show a
In O2 saturation on the
the heart.
58.
a.
Step-up, left
b.
Step-up, right
c.
Step-down, left
d.
Step-down, right
Which statement is true regarding “central” cyanosis?
a.
It is much more common than peripheral cyanosis
b.
It almost always indicates cardiopulmonary disease
c.
It reflects increased extraction of oxygen from the peripheral tissues
d.
It may be seen in normal individuals exposed to cold temperatures
Side of
59.
60.
Peripheral cyanosis is blue skin coloration due to:
a.
Desaturated arterial blood
b.
Desaturated venous blood
c.
Peripheral vasodilation
d.
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Central cyanosis is blue skin coloration due to:
a.
Desaturated arterial blood
b.
Desaturated venous blood
c.
Peripheral vasodilation
d.
Peripheral vasoconstriction