LỜI NÓI ĐẦU
Để giúp các bạn có tư liệu tham khảo, luyện tập và làm quen với với kỳ kiểm tra chứng chỉ B
Tiếng Anh, chúng tôi biên soạn tập tài liệu này. Tài liệu gồm có 6 phần:
I.
II.
CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỌC
III.
NỘI DUNG YÊU CẦU
IV.
CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ THI
V.
I.
ĐIỀU KIỆN VÀ THỂ THỨC DỰ THI
XẾP LOẠI KẾT QUẢ KIỂM TRA
VI.
NỘI DUNG CÁC CHỦ ĐỀ THI NÓI
VII.
MỘT SỐ ĐỀ THI MẪU
ĐIỀU KIỆN VÀ THỂ THỨC DỰ THI
Nếu bạn là học viên đang theo học tại các trung tâm ngoại ngữ trục thuộc Trung tâm giáo dục
thường xuyên tỉnh Long An thì liên hệ tại văn phòng nhà trường để được hướng dẫn làm thủ tục dự
thi. Nhưng nếu bạn là thí sinh tự do thì đến Trung tâm ngoại ngữ của Trung tâm giáo dục thường
xuyên tỉnh Long An số_____________________để liên hệ nộp hồ sơ và lệ phí dự thi.
* Hồ sơ đăng ký dự kiểm tra gồm:
1. 01 đơn đăng ký dự kiểm tra cấp chứng chỉ (phụ lục)
2. 01 Bản sao giấy CMND hoặc giấy tùy thân có dán ảnh
3. 02 ảnh 4cm x 6cm ( chụp không quá 6 tháng)
Hồ sơ đăng ký dự kiểm tra phải được đựng trong một bao bì, bên ngoài ghi rõ họ tên, địa chỉ,
điện thoại (nếu có) của người đăng ký dự kiểm tra, danh mục giấy tờ trong hồ sơ.
* Thủ tục đăng ký dự kiểm tra:
Thí sinh nộp hồ sơ đăng ký dự kiểm tra, lệ phí kiểm tra đúng thời hạn quy định cho trung tâm để
xét duyệt, đưa vào danh sách dự kiểm tra.
II.
CHƯƠNG TRÌNH HỌC
Muốn dự kiểm tra Chứng chỉ B Tiếng Anh cần phải có vốn từ vựng và ngữ pháp tương đối khá.
Tài liệu ôn tập có thể là:
1. Hutchinson, T. (1997). Lifelines Pre- intermediate. Oxford University Press.
2. Hartley,B & Viney, H. (1994). Streamlines English (Connections). Oxford University
Press
3. Liz & Soars, J. (2001). American Headway (Book 2). Oxford University Press.
4. Naber, T & Blackwell, A. (2004). Knowhow (Book 2). Oxford University Press.
III.
NỘI DUNG YÊU CẦU
A. NGỮ PHÁP
1.
Tenses (present simple tense, present continuous tense, present perfect tense, present
perfect continuous tense, past simple tense, past continuous tense, past perfect tense, simple
future, be going to)
2.
comparative, superlative, positive (as…as)
3.
Relative Clauses (who, whom, which, that, whose)
4.
Conditional clauses ( type I, II)
5.
Passive voice ( present simple tense, present continuous tense, past simple tense, past
continuous tense, present perfect tense, defective verbs)
6.
Causative form
7.
Reported speech (to/ not to do sth, statements, questions)
8.
V + V-ing/ to V/ Vo
9.
used to/ be used to
10.
so, neither
11.
ed/-ing adjectives
12.
Prepositions with verbs and adjectives (depend on, interested in, fond of…)
13.
tag questions
14.
adjectives/ adverbs of manner
15.
too/ enough
B. ĐỌC HIỂU:
Đọc và hiểu được ý chính hoặc chi tiết của một số đoạn văn ngắn để có thể trả lời các dạng
câu hỏi kiểm tra về nội dung của đoạn.
C. VIẾT:
Viết được các câu đơn giản, có thể viết và sắp xếp các câu có liên quan với nhau để tạo thành
một đoạn văn ngắn về các chủ đề quen thuộc liên quan đến bản thân.
D. NGHE
Nghe được ý chính và một số ý chi tiết liên quan đến nội dung các chủ đề cơ bản sau:
1.
time
2.
date
3.
price
4.
color
5.
family
6.
telephone number
7.
food and drink
8.
describing people
9.
weather
10. job
E. NÓI
Trình bày được nội dung cơ bản và trả lời một số các câu hỏi liên quan đến các chủ đề sau:
IV.
1.
personal identification
2.
daily routines
3.
free time and entertainment
4.
city life or country life
5.
weather
CẤU TRÚC ĐỀ THI
1. READING COMPREHENSION (ĐỌC HIỂU) THỜI GIAN: 60 PHÚT- 10 ĐIỂM
* SECTION A:
Choose the best the answer (about grammar and vocabulary) (20 sentences)
* SECTION B:
Read the text and answer the questions. (5 sentences)
Read the text and fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. (5 sentences)
OR
Read the text and decide whether the sentences are True (T) or False (F) (5 sentences)
2. WRITING ( VIẾT) THỜI GIAN: 60 PHÚT- 10 ĐIỂM
* SECTION A:
Make questions for the underlined parts (10 sentences)
OR
Finish the second sentence so that it has the nearest meaning to the first one (10
sentences)
OR Arrange the words and phrases to make correct sentences (10 sentences)
OR Make sentences from given prompts (10 sentences)
OR Combine two sentences into one sentence. (10 sentences)
* SECTION B:
Write a short paragraph about 80-100 words.
3. LISTENING ( NGHE) THỜI GIAN: 30 PHÚT- 10 ĐIỂM
* SECTION A:
Listen to a short passage or conversation and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D)
Listen to a short passage or conversation and check True or False
* SECTION B:
Listen to a short passage or conversation and answer the questions
Listen to a short passage or conversation and fill in the blanks
4. SPEAKING ( VẤN ĐÁP) 10 ĐIỂM
* SECTION A:
Chọn ngẫu nhiên và trình bày được nội dung cơ bản của 1 trong các chủ đề sau
( thí sinh không được nhìn vào tài liệu) (5 điểm):
1.
personal identification
2.
daily routines
3.
free time and entertainment
4.
city life or country life
5.
weather
* SECTION B:
Trả lời 1 số câu hỏi của giám khảo về nội dung có liên quan đến chủ đề vừa trình bày (5
điểm)
V.
XẾP LOẠI KẾT QUẢ KIỂM TRA
* Việc xếp loại kết quả kiểm tra để ghi vào chứng chỉ cấp cho các thí sinh được thực hiện trên cơ sở
điểm trung bình cộng (ĐTBC) của tất cả các điểm kiểm tra đã quy về thang điểm 10, cụ thể:
- Loại Giỏi: ĐTBC từ 8 đến 10 điểm ( không có môn nào dưới 7 điểm)
- Loại Khá: ĐTBC từ 7 đến cận 8 điểm ( không có môn nào dưới 6 điểm)
- Loại TB: ĐTBC từ 5 đến cận 7 điểm ( không có môn nào dưới 3 điểm)
CÁC CHỦ ĐỀ NÓI
Topic 1 : Personal identification.
My name is Le Minh Tan. I’m living on Nguyen Dinh Chieu Street, Tan An City, Long An
province. I am a student of Tan An high school. There are four people in my family. My father is a
teacher. My mother is a doctor. My sister/ brother is thirteen years old and he is a pupil.
I like listening to music and watching television in my free time. My favourite sport is
football. I have studied English for five years. I like learning English to read books and talk to
foreigners. I want to become a doctor when I grow up.
Topic 2 : Daily routines
My name is Le Minh Tan. I’m living on Nguyen Dinh Chieu Street, Tan An City, Long An
province. Every morning I wake up at 5:30 to do exercises. Then I have breakfast and I go to school
at 6:45. At 11:30 I come back home for lunch. In the afternoon I don’t go to school. I often learn my
lessons, do my homework and read books until half past four. I usually have dinner at 6 o’clock
when my mother come s back from work. After dinner I usually watch television or listen to music.
Sometimes I go out with my brother or my friends. I always take a look over my lessons I have
learnt and the homework I have done before going to bed at 10 o’clock.
Topic 3 : Free time and entertainment
I am a student. I go to school every morning from Monday to Saturday. Besides, I am also
attending an English course in the evening. I am very busy with my studies. I am only free on
Sundays. In my free time I enjoy reading books, listening to music and watching television. At
weekends I often go shopping with my mother. Moreover, I can cook very well. I usually cook good
dishes for my family on my holidays. Sometimes, I take a leisurely ride to the countryside to enjoy
fresh air or go on a picnic to Vung Tau with my friends. I enjoy the entertainments I have during my
free time. This makes me feel relaxed and happy.
Topic 4: City life or country life
Both city life and country life have advantages as well as disadvantages.
In the city, the houses are supplied with electricity and drinking water. It’s convenient for
city people to go from place to place by bus, by taxi or by motorbike. They can buy everything they
need in supermarkets and department stores everywhere. For entertainment, they can go to the
theaters, clubs, cinemas and so on. However, they have to suffer from air pollution and noise
pollution which are very harmful to their health.
Many people prefer to live in the country because they can enjoy the fresh air, the peaceful
atmosphere and the beautiful landscapes. However, life in the country is not comfortable and easy.
Country life lack such comforts and conveniences as electricity, good transportation and
entertainment.
I think city life is more suitable for young people. Elderly people should enjoy life in the
countryside.
Topic 5: Weather
Vietnam is a tropical country. The climate is often hot and humid. In the North of Vietnam
there are four seasons: Spring, Summer, Autumn and Winter. In the South of Vietnam there are only
two seasons: the rainy season and the dry season. It rains a lot from May to November. In the dry
season it is very hot. Mainly the temperature swings between the mid 20s to low 30s all year round.
Sometimes, there are storms, floods or hurricanes which humans are afraid of. Therefore, in the
rainy season, the weather forecast is very important, especially with the fishermen.
I prefer Spring because the weather is warm and the landscapes are very beautiful.
MỘT SỐ ĐỀ MẪU
PRACTICE TEST 1
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On
your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 20 for the
word or phrase you choose.
1. He …………………….. on the bench when we saw him.
a. sit
b. sits
c. was sitting
d. is sitting
2. If she ………………… on time, we’ll start the meeting at 9:30.
a. came
b. comes
c. coming
d. will come
3. A ………………….. is a woman whose husband is dead.
a. widow
b. widower
c. groom
d. bride
4. The first in the race will be the …………………….
a. runner
b. racer
c. loser
d. winner
5. She ……………… an argument with her husband and left home.
a. had
b. made
c. did
d. worked
6. My grandmother died at the ……………… of 93.
a. age
b. old
c. time
d. year
7. What she……….to do when she…………10?
a. did…..use / was
b. does……use / is
c. did…..used/ was
d. used / was
8. I want you ……….…………….., be friendly and smile.
a. relax
b. relaxed
c. to relax
d. relaxing
9. I bought a bracelet for their wedding…….
a. annual
b. anniversary
c. vacation
d. receptionist
10. He spent his savings on an expensive holiday.
a. the money he has saved
b. the money he had borrowed
c. the days off work
d. the friends he had saved
11. If he ……… so quickly, you could understand him.
a. doesn’t speak
b. spoke
c. didn’t speak
d. would speak
12. It is raining now. It began raining two hours ago. It ……… four two hours.
a. has rained
b. is raining
13. “ I can’t remember his name.” “……….”
c. has been raining d. had rained
a. Neither I can
b. Either I can
c. Neither can I
d. I don’t, either
c. I feel, too
d. So am I
14. “ I’m feeling tired.” “…………..”
a. So do I
b. I do, too
15. The woman………….. lives next door is a doctor.
a. who
b. whom
c. which
d. whose
16. The passengers didn’t drink coffee, ……..?
a. didn’t they
b. did they
c. didn’t the passengers
d. didn’t them
17. Cats don't eat as much………. dogs.
a. than
b. as
c. more
d. then
c. frighten
d. frightens
c. at
d. of
18. A: Do you like that horror film ?
B: Oh, no. It is very………...
a. frightening
b. frightened
19. He’s afraid……………. his father.
a. in
b. on
20. She’s had that watch……….. three weeks.
a. for
b. since
c. at
d. on
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: Read the following passage then answer the questions. (3 ms)
An American, Charles D. Seeberger, invented moving stairs to transport people in the 1890s.
He called this invention an ‘escalator’, taking the name from the Latin word ‘scala’. ‘Scala’ means
‘ladder’. Escalators move people up and down short distances. Lifts do the same, but only move a
small number of people. If an escalator breaks down, we can still use it as ordinary stairs. An
escalator can move between 8,000 and 9,600 people an hour, and it does not need a person to
operate it.
Towards the end of the nineteenth century, cities were becoming more crowded and the first
escalators were built at railway stations and in big department stores, so that people could move about
more quickly. Today we see escalators everywhere.
Questions:
1. Who invented escalators?
2. When were escalators invented?
3. What can escalators do?
4. What will people do if an escalator breaks down?
5. Where were the first escalators built?
Text 2: Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word (3 marks)
Minh lives in a lovely (1)……….in Ho Chi Minh City. His apartment is (2)……….very big
but it is very comfortable. There are five (3)…………in the apartment – a living room, two
bedrooms, a kitchen and a bathroom. The (4)…………..is very beautiful. It has a sink, a tub and a
shower. The kitchen is very modern. There is (5)……… in the kitchen: refrigerator, washing
machine, dishwasher, gas cooker, electric stove, oven, kitchen table,…Minh’s bedroom isn’t large
but it is very bright. There’s a wonderful view from his bedroom. Minh likes his apartment very
much.
II. WRITING
SECTION A: (5 marks)
Make all the changes and additions necessary from the following set of words and phrases to
produce ten separate sentences. (5 marks)
1. They / build / this house / 1880 //
2. How long / you / have / your motorbike //
3. Mount Everest / be / high / mountain / in / the world //
4. You / got / a mobile phone / which / can / send / e-mails?//
5. My grandfather / use / be / Africa / during / World War II//
6. You / feel / sick / if / you / eat/ too / many / green mango //
7. I/ be/ interested/ read/ books//
8. They/ ask/ me/ practice more//
9. He/ want/ change/ his job/ immediately//
10. She/ be/ intelligent/ than/ her sister//
SECTION B: (5 marks)
In about 80-100 words write about your house or flat. Describe where it is, what rooms there
are, what is in the rooms, what you do in the living room, where you have lunch and dinner, and
what you like about it.
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Are these statements True or False? Listen and check the correct answer. (5 marks)
TRUE
FALSE
1. Mary doesn’t like rock music.


2. Jim goes dancing often.


3. Susie has stayed home every night this week.


4. Ben doesn’t have tickets to the game.


5. Jenny studies Spanish.


 SECTION B:
Listen carefully and fill in the blanks (5 marks)
Vincent:
I’m going to a dinner (1) __________ this evening. Do you have any (2) ________
what I should take as a (3) ___________?
Linda:
Let’s see….flowers or some (4) _____________ would be nice.
Vincent:
Great. Do you know what time I should (5) ____________?
Linda:
What do you (6) ______________?
Vincent:
Well, the party is at (7) ____________. Is it typical to arrive right on time, or
should I arrive a (8) ___________ later?
Linda:
Oh, you should probably arrive on time.
Vincent:
OK…Can you tell me where I can buy chocolates (9) ____________ here?
Linda:
Yes, there’s a shop near the (10) ____________ station.
Vincent:
Oh, OK. Thanks for your help.
PRACTICE TEST 2
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On
your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 20 for the
word or phrase you choose.
1.
Marcel always ……my hair.
A. makes
2.
B. hasn’t she
B. early enough
B. slept
D. is sleeping
C. more difficult
D. difficult
B. of
C. at
D. with
B. didn’t used to
C. never used to
D. not used to
C. diet
D. duty
C. I feel, too
D. So am I
B. the most difficult
He …………do it.
I’m on a………...I want to lose some weight.
A. holiday
9.
D. early too
William is quite fond………….music.
A. never use to
8.
C. too early
Unit 70 is…………lesson in the book.
A. in
7.
D. won’t she
C. was sleeping
A. very difficult
6.
C. doesn’t she
While Mary was cleaning the flat, her husband ………..
A. sleep
5.
D. takes off
We arrived……to have some coffee before class.
A. enough early
4.
C. does
She has been studying English for two years,……..?
A. isn’t she
3.
B. dresses
B. excursion
“ I’m feeling tired.” “…………..”
A. So do I
B. I do, too
10. An architect is someone…………....designs building.
A. which
B. who
C. whose
D. whom
C. coming
D. to have come
11. Would you like…………...to the party?
A. to come
B. come
12. I want ……….…… .
A. to have my photograph take
B. to have my photograph took
C. to have my photograph taken
D. have my photograph taken
13. If I like the car, I ………... buy it.
A. would
B. will
14. He said, “ I can dance very well .”
C. could
D. will have
A. He said that he could dance very well.
B. He said that he can dance very well.
C. He said that he dances very well.
D. He said that he danced very well.
15. The little girl plays the piano ……………………….
A. beautiful
B. beauty
C. beautifully
D. more beautiful
C. evaporates
D. freezes
16. Water……….. to ice at a temperature of 0°C.
A. condenses
B. melts
17. Do you remember………?
A. when is her birthday
B. when her birthday is
C. when her birthday
D. when be her birthday
18. He told me to shut up and get out.
A. stop talking
B. get up
C. stand up
D. speak up
19. After he retired, he spent his………..on an expensive holiday.
A. dollar
B. accounts
C. savings
D. cheques
C. president
D. king
20. George Bush is the………..of the USA.
A. professor
B. manager
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: Read the following passage then answer the questions. (3 ms)
Abraham Lincoln became President of the United States of America in November 1860. John
Kennedy became President in November 1960. Lincoln was killed in Ford’s Theater. Kennedy was
shot in a car made by Ford Motors. The car was called a Lincoln.
Lincoln’s secretary was Kennedy. Kennedy asked Lincoln not to go to the theater on the day
he was murdered. President Kennedy had a secretary called Lincoln. Lincoln told Kennedy not to go
to Dallas on the day he was killed.
John Wikes Booth, Lincoln’s murderer, was born in 1839. Lee Harvey Oswald, the man who
shot Kennedy, was born in 1939. Booth killed Lincoln in a theater and then ran into a warehouse.
Oswald shot Kennedy from a warehouse and then ran into a theater.
The man who became President after Lincoln was called Johnson and was born in 1808. The
man who became President after Kennedy was also called Johnson and was born in 1908.
Questions:
1. Where was Kennedy when he was shot?
2. Who advised President Lincoln not to go to the theater?
3. Who killed President Lincoln?
4. What did Oswald do after he shot President Kennedy?
5. When was Johnson, the President after Lincoln, born?
Text 2: Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase. (3 marks)
When eating, most Americans hold a fork in the ____(1)____ with which they write. Americans
eat away from home often, and usually they pay for their own meals when dining with friends.
When Americans greet one another they often exchange a firm ___(2)____ . They may greet
strangers on the street by saying “Hello” or “____(3)____”. Friends often greet each other with
“How are you?” and respond “____(4)____”. Americans do not really expect any other answer to
the question “How are you?” because it is a way of ____(5)____. Except in formal situations,
people speak to each other by their given names once they are acquainted.
1.
A. head
B. mind
C. notebook
D. hand
2.
A. adventure
B. handshake
C. militant
D. occasion
3.
A. Goodbye
B. Good morning
C. Not bad, thanks D. Take care
4.
A. Bye
B. So long
C. No smoking
D. Fine, thanks
5.
A. having dinner
B. shaking hands
C. saying hello
D. saying goodbye
II. WRITING
SECTION A: Make questions for the underlined parts (5 marks)
1.
They usually get up at 5.30.
2.
He went to HCM city last Sunday.
3.
He’ll be there on Saturday night.
4.
They study English slowly.
5.
Mr. Brown was watching TV at 3 p. m yesterday.
6.
My mother works eight hours a day.
7.
She has lived here for three years.
8.
I’m going to visit my mother tomorrow.
9.
He’s reading a magazine.
10. Her father goes to work 5 days a week.
SECTION B: (5 marks)
In about 80-100 words write about your ordinary day. Use some of these words.
Usually/ sometimes/ never
have breakfast/lunch/dinner, go to school/work, get home,
get up, listen to music, watch television, go shopping, in the
morning/afternoon/evening, stay at home, go out, play
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Don is checking messages on his voicemail. Are these statement are True or false? Listen
and check the correct answer (5 marks)
TRUE
FALSE
1. The caller is confirming Don’s appointment.


2. Sue will call Don later.


3. Don’s aunt will call him from the hotel.


4. Ted and Don are going to play tennis on Saturday.


5. Francis wants to meet Don in the office.


6. The flight leaves from the airport in New Orleans.


 SECTION B: Listen carefully and fill in the blanks (5 marks)
Chuck: What’s the matter?
Sheila: There’s something wrong with my (1) _______, and I don’t know how to (2) ______it.
Chuck: I’ll take a look at it if you want.
Sheila: Really? That would be (3) ___________.
Chuck: I can’t do it right now because I’m going to have (4) ________, and then I have an (5)
________. But I can come back tomorrow.
Sheila: Tomorrow isn’t good. I’m going to be at a (6) ____________’s house all day. How
about (7) ___________?
Chuck: Sure. Sunday’s fine. In the (8) ________________?
Sheila: Yes, and then I’ll buy you (9) ____________. Ok?
Chuck: Ok, it’s a deal. I’ll call you tomorrow, and we can (10) ___________the time.
PRACTICE TEST 3
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On
your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 20 for the
word or phrase you choose.
1. I like to be a tour guide. I’m going to……...the job.
A. ask for
B. insist on
C. demand
D. apply for
2. The girl………….mother I am talking to has left the room.
A. who
B. whom
C. whose
D. that
3. He had a nightmare last night.
A. bad dream
B. black and white dream C. nice dream
D. flying dream
4. Tom……….wear shorts.
A. often use to
B. often use
C. often used to
D. often used
5. Children remain dependent………their parents for a long time.
A. to
B. with
C. for
D. on
6. Yesterday I took hold of a strange woman’s hand. I was very……..
A. embarrass
B. embarrassing
C. embarrassed
D. to embarrass
7. The house is………expensive for us to buy.
A. enough
B. too
C. very
D. so
B. difficult
C. more difficult than
D. difficult as
B. being
C. to be
D. to have been
C. student good
D. student well
8. This exercise is…………...that one.
A. difficult than
9. I enjoy………..alone.
A. be
10. Mary is a……………
A. good student
B. well student
11. Last night I ………..… in bed when suddenly I heard a scream.
A. read
B. am reading
C. had read
D. was reading
12. If I knew something about cars, I … … … go with them.
A. have to
B. must
C. would
D. will
13. I’m studying now, tell them ……….. noise.
A. don’t make
B. not make
C. to make not
D. not to make
C. So did I
D. I did, either
14. A: I met Tom yesterday. B:………..
A. Neither did I
B. I did
15. Can you tell me………….?
A. where the Plaza Hotel
B. where is the Plaza Hotel
C. where the Plaza Hotel is
D. the Plaza Hotel where is
16. I paid Gower what I ……… him.
A. lent
B. owed
C. loaned
D. presented
C. a comb
D. a razor
17. One normally shaves with……………..
A. a knife
B. a fork
18. When you want to get married you need to get your parents’ ……………………
A. license
B. permission
C. complaint
D. rights
19. They closed their shop though a lot of ……………………. were waiting outside.
A. customs
B. customers
C. curtains
D. cushions
C. doesn’t she
D. does she
20. She does a lot of washing, ………….?
A. isn’t she
B. is she not
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: Read the following passage then answer the questions. (3 ms)
Captain James Cook was a great explorer. Before he started exploring, maps of the Pacific
Ocean were almost empty. He visited hundreds of islands and put them in the correct places on the
map. He made maps of the coastlines of Australia and New Zealand and made them colonies of
England.
James Cook was born in England in 1728. His parents were poor farm workers. When James
was 18, he found a job on a coastal ship. He worked on ships until he was 27 years old, and then he
joined the navy. He fought in Canada in a war against France, and he mapped some of the eastern
coats of Canada.
In 1768 King George III made him the captain of a ship and sent him to the Pacific. He had gone
for nearly ten years. When he returned, he was a national hero.
Questions:
1.
Who was Captain James Cook?
2.
When was Captain Cook born?
3.
What did he do when he was 18?
4.
When did he join the navy?
5.
How long was his trip to the Pacific?
Text 2: Read the text and mark the correct answer (A–D) to each question (1– 5). (3 marks)
Elizabeth Blackwell was born in England in 1821, and emigrated to New York City when she
was ten years old . One day she decided that she wanted to become a doctor . That was nearly
impossible for a woman in the middle of the nineteenth century . After writing many letters seeking
admission to medical school, she was finally accepted by a doctor in Philadelphia. So determined
was she that she taught at school and gave music lessons to earn money for her tuition.
In 1849, after graduation from medical school, she decided to further her education in Paris.
She wanted to be a surgeon, but a serious eye infection forced her to abandon the idea.
Upon returning to the United States, she found it difficult to start her own practice because
she was a woman . By 1857 Elizabeth and her sister, also a doctor , along with another female
doctor, managed to open a new hospital , the first for women and children . Beside being the first
physician and founding her own hospital , she also established the first medical school for women.
1. Why couldn’t Elizabeth Blackwell realize her dream of becoming a surgeon ?
A. She couldn’t get admitted to medical school.
B. She decided to further her education in Paris.
C. A serious eye infection halted her quest.
D. It was difficult for her to start a practice in the United States.
2. What did she do to earn money for her tuition?
A. She taught at school.
B.She gave music lessons.
C. She ran a business.
D. Both A and B.
3. What main obstacle almost destroyed Elizabeth’s chances for becoming a doctor?
A. She was a woman .
B. She wrote too many letters.
C. She couldn’t graduate from medical school
D. She couldn’t establish her hospital.
4. How many years elapsed between her graduation from medical school and the opening of her
hospital?
A.8
B.10
C.19
D.36
5. All of the following are “first “ in the life of Elizabeth Blackwell , EXCEPT.
A. She became the first physician.
B. She was the first woman surgeon .
C. She and several other women founded the first hospital for children and women.
D. She established the first medical school for women.
II. WRITING
SECTION A: Finish the second sentence so that it has the nearest meaning to the first one (5
marks)
1. He asked, “Can Tom speak English?”
He asked…………..
2. I don’t know the answer, so I can’t tell you.
If………….
3. The box was too heavy for the child to carry.
The box …….
4. David drives very carefully.
David ...……………
5. Helen is taller than you.
You ………………..
6. No one in our class is as intelligent as Nam.
Nam is ………………….
7. I eat nothing for breakfast.
I don’t eat
8. She started working as a secretary five years ago.
She has……………...
9. She is our teacher of English.
She teaches…………………
10. She cleaned the floor.
The floor……………
SECTION B: (5 marks)
In about 80-100 words write about your family. (Their names, their ages, their jobs…)
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Match the people on the left with the activities on the right. (5 marks)
1.
Bill
a. plays golf
2.
Liz
b. bicycles
3.
Victor
c. plays baseball

4.
Maria
d. takes walks
5.
David
e. plays video games
SECTION B:
Listen carefully and fill in the blanks (5 marks)
Elvis Presley was born on January 8th, 1935 in Pupelo, Mississippi. His (1)
brother, Jesse
Garon, died at birth. His parents were very poor and Elvis never had music lessons, but he was
surrounded by music from an (2)
age. His parents were very (3)
, and Elvis regularly
song at church services. In 1948, when he was (4) _______, his family moved to Memphis,
Tennessee. He left school in 1953 and got a job as (5)
.
In the summer of (6) ___________, Elvis paid $4 and (7)
two songs for his
mother’s (8) ________at Sam Phillips’ Sun Records studio. Sam Phillips heard Elvis and asked him
to record “That’s all right” in July 1954, 20,000 (9)
were sold, mainly in and
around Memphis. He made five more records for Sun, and in July 1955, he met Colonel Tom
Parker, who became his manager in (10)
.
PRACTICE TEST 4
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. On
your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to 20 for the
word or phrase you choose.
1. Lord Worth wanted Mary to…..a special effort because sir Thomas is a very important guest.
A. do
B. make
C. try
D. give
C. used to be ill
D. would be ill
2. Bill………..very often when he was young.
A. used be ill
B. used to being ill
3. That…………...motorbike doesn’t work well, and it is not economical.
A. new
B. brand new
C. second hand
D. hand second
C. enough to join
D. enough and to join
4. Well, you’re old…………..the army.
A. too to join
B. enough joining
5. Your shoes are similar…………….mine but they are not exactly the same.
A. with
B. by
C. from
D. to
6. Do you mind……..…..such a long way to work every day?
A. to travel
B. to have traveled
C. travel
D. traveling
C. bakers
D. customers
7. People who buy goods are known as ………… .
A. sellers
B. salesmen
8. If I … … … speak German, I would apply for the job.
A. could
B. can
C. am able to
D. should
C. coldest
D. more cold
C. whom
D. which
9. Winter is ……. than Autumn.
A. cold
B. colder
10. This is the woman ………… I saw.
A. whose
B. what
11. Your father knows you are a hard student, ……?
A. aren’t you
B. don’t you
C. does he
D. doesn’t he
12. The news about the storm is really …….. It ………..us .
A. frightening / frighten
B. frightened / frightening
C. frightening / frightened
D. frightening / frightens
13. A: I’ve never been to Ireland. B: …………… .
A. Never have I
B. Neither have I
14. I’ll call the restaurant and make a…………..
C. Either have I
D. I have never
A. reservation
B. table
C. room
D. provision
15. I asked him, “What is the homework?”
A. I asked him what the homework was
B. I asked him what was the homework
C. I asked him what was to be the homework
D. I asked him what is the homework
16. Do you know …………….?
A. where did he gone
B. where he went
C. where he gone
D. where did he go
17. ‘How will you ………………. to London?’ ‘By train. I don’t like cars.’
A. earn
B. earn
C. get
D. make
B. careful
C. insane
D. famous
18. He is crazy.
A. angry
19. The engine in Tom’s car couldn’t be repaired, so he ……… .
A. had to have a new engine fit
B. had to have a new engine fitting
C. had to have a new engine fitted
D. had to have fitted a new engine
20. World War ……….in 1918.
A. has ended
B. ended
C. have ended
D. ends
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: Read the following passage then answer the questions. (3 ms)
Amy Johnson joined the London Aeroplane Club when she was still a schoolgirl. There, she
was taught how to service planes and she was introduced to a pilot called Jim Mollison, who held
the record for a flight to Australia. In 1930, Amy tried to beat his record. She didn’t succeed, but
she was still the first woman to fly to Australia. When she returned, she and Jim Mollison were
married. Amy was very popular and a song was written about her: Amy, wonderful Amy! Her death
is a mystery. During the war, in 1941, she and her aeroplane disappeared into the sea.
Questions:
1.
When did Amy join the London Aeroplane Club ?
2.
Who was she introduced to ?
3.
Who was the first woman to fly to Australia ?
4.
What happened to her and her plane in 1941?
5.
What’s her husband’s name ?
Text 2: Read the text. Are the sentences true (T) or false (F)? (3 marks)
FLAT FOR SALE
This large flat is on the top floor of a five- storey modern block of flats in a quiet part of
the country. There are two schools, a restaurant and several shops nearby. Wetton Station is only a
few hundred meters away. The flat has got a large living- room, a dining- room , a modern kitchen,
a large bedroom and two small bedrooms. There is a bathroom with a shower, a sink and a toilet.
The flat has also got a small storeroom, and there is a large verandah. The price is 44,590 including
carpets.
1. Near the flat there are two schools.
2. There is a railway station near the flat.
3. There is a dining room but there is not a living- room.
4. The flat has got four bedrooms.
5. You must pay extra for the carpets
II. WRITING
SECTION A: Arrange these words and phrases to make correct sentences (5 marks)
1. sister / me / your / than / younger / is
2. you/ if/ this/ press/ the/ stop/ will/ lift/ button
3. have/ English/ for/ I/ ten/ learned/ years
4. five/ the meeting/ minutes/ will/ in/ start
5. wants/ his/ to/ job/ he/ change/ immediately
6. went/ Paris/ to/ by/ plane/ he/ yesterday
7. fluently/ can’t/ French/ I/ speak
8. get/ young/ to/ Jane/ too/ is/ married
9. family / the / am / my / in / I / oldest
10. met/ yesterday/ Tom/ I
SECTION B: (5 marks)
In about 80-100 words write about the food you eat. Use some of these words:
Always/ never/ sometimes
fruit, vegetables, meat, fish, vegetarian food, meal,
yoghurt, wine, lunch, dinner, cooking, breakfast
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Listen to the conversation and complete them.
1. A: Excuse me. Is there a (1) __________near here?
B: Yes. It’s (2) ____________.
A: Thanks.
2. A: Excuse me. Is there a (3) __________near here?
B: Yes. It’s on Davis Street. Just go straight and then turn (4) ___________on Davis. It’s
next to the music store.
A: OK. Thanks.
3. A: Excuse me. Is there a (5) ______________near here?
B: There’s a Chinese one on Maple Street, (6) _____________the bank, and there’s an Italian
one on the Davis Street next to the travel agent.
A: Is that one far?
B: No. it’s just a block away. It takes (7) __________, that’s all.
4. A: Is there a (8) ____________near here?
B: Go (9) ___________ahead. It’s on the (10) ___________, next to the Italian restaurant.
A: Thanks a lot.

SECTION B:
Listen and circle the correct answer a, b, c or d.
1. Where did the woman go at the weekend?
a. To the cinema
c. To the beach
b. Nowhere
d. To the theater
2. The man doesn’t eat enough____________.
a. Fish
c. Vegetables
b. Fruit
d. Meat
3. How often does the woman go to the gym?
a. Only on Friday
c. Twice a week
b. Every day
d. Once a month
4. What time does the woman get up?
a. 7:00
c. 7: 15
b. 7:30
d. 7: 50
5. What do the men have in common?
a. They drink coffee.
b. They’re teachers.
c. They work in computers.
d. They used to be married.
24
PRACTICE TEST 5
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
In this section you must choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
On your answer sheet indicate the letter A, B, C or D against the number of each item 1 to
20 for the word or phrase you choose.
1. Susan is interested in…………...a bus.
A. drive
B. driving
C. to drive
D. driven
C. be eating
D. be eaten
C. to
D. for
C. will make
D. is making
C. cook
D. hotel manager
2. He doesn’t get used to………..…Japanese food.
A. eating
B. eat
3. I’ve lived here … … … 1990.
A. since
B. from
4. Jack ………... some coffee, isn’t he?
A. makes
B. has made
5. The chef is very busy today.
A. boss
B. trainee journalist
6. We had to ………………. the night under a big tree.
A. send
B. spend
C. lend
D. trend
7. Where is the disk …………… was on my desk?
A. which
B. who
C. what
D. whose
8. If you …………… so much, you …………… weight.
A. wouldn’t eat / lost
B. ate / would lose
C. didn’t eat / would lose
D. didn’t eat / lost
9. Are you good …………… English?
A. at
B. in
C. for
D. by
10. Did you………………. relaxed after the holiday?
A. feel
B. fall
C. see
D. find
11. I asked her ________.
A. what is the answer
B. what the answer
C. what was the answer
D. what the answer was
12. On each hand, you have got five …………...
A. arms
B. fingers
C. toes
D. legs
25
13. I……………. last night. That's why I am tired now.
A. stayed up late
B. slept
C. relaxed
D. enjoyed
C. pollution
D. cars
C. guest
D. board
14. There is too much __________ in the big cities.
A. people
B. accidents
15. They stayed in a five-star ………………..
A. host
B. hotel
16. I don't believe in the old _________ that the number 13 is unlucky.
A. truth
B. fallacy
C. superstition
D. fact
17. Is it true that many years ago he ……… by a famous artist?
A. painted
B. had his portrait painted C. had painted
D. has his portrait
painted
18. I like swimming.- ………..
A. So I do
B. Yes, I do.
C. I do, too.
D. Neither do I
C. neither
D. too
19. She doesn’t like pork, and……..does her uncle.
A. either
B. so
20. He said, “Do you know Mr. Brown?”
A. He asked if I knew Mr. Brown.
B. He asked if I know Mr. Brown.
C. He asked that I knew Mr. Brown.
D. He said if do you know Mr. Brown.
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: Read the following passage then answer the questions. (3 ms)
The adventures of Robin Hood” is an interesting book. Robin Hood lived in England many
years ago. He and his men lived in a big forest. They wore green clothes. They were tall and
young. They ate the animals of the forest when they are hungry and slept under the tree when
they are sleepy.
Robin Hood and his men didn’t work for anybody. They took money from the rich and
gave it to the poor.
Questions:
1. What’s the title of the book ?
2. Where did Robin Hood and his men live ?
3. What did they eat ?
4. Where did they sleep ?
26
5. What did they do to help the poor ?
Text 2: Read the passage and fill in each gap with one word in the box: (3 ms)
Visited
write
most
family
island
years
famous
novel
story
One of the first novels in the history of literature was written in England in 1719. It was
Robinson Crusoe by Daniel Defoe.
Daniel Defoe was born in London in the _____(1) of a rich man. When Daniel was a
school boy, he began to ___(2) stories. After leaving school he worked in his father’s shop and
wrote articles for newspapers. Defoe _____(3) many countries and met many people. That
helped him much in his writings.
In 1719, when Defoe was sixty years old, he wrote the novel Robinson Crusoe which
made him ____(4). Defoe used in his book a true story about a sailor who lived on an island
for four years. Robinson Crusoe in Defoe’s novel lived in an ____(5) for twenty-eight years.
People liked the novel in England and in many other countries. Daniel Defoe wrote other
books but his novel Robinson Crusoe is the most famous. Daniel was not a rich man when he
died in 1731.
II. WRITING
SECTION A: Combine each of the following pairs into one sentence, using the directions in the
brackets. (5 marks)
1. The dog jumped up and tried to get my ice cream. I was eating an ice cream. (while)
2. Mark turned off the lights and went to sleep. He felt exhausted. (because)
3. I don’t have a typewriter; I won’t type the letter. (if)
4. Shakespeare wrote King Lear. It was probably his best play. (relative pronoun)
5. This book is very technical. I can’t read it. (too)
6. They are very strong. They can lift that taxi. (enough)
7. She is a teacher. She teaches English. (of)
8. He is a driver. He drive carefully. (adjective)
9. Jane is 10 years old. Alice is 15 years old. (comparative)
10. The book is about a girl. She runs away from home. (relative pronoun)
11.
27
SECTION B: (5 marks)
Write eight to ten sentences about your favorite colors/clothes, what you are wearing
now, and what you usually wear during the week/at weekend.
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
People are talking about their vacations. Are these statement are True or False?
Listen and check the correct answer
TRUE
FALSE
1. She learned to water- ski very slowly.


2. It was cold at night.


3. The museums were interesting.


4. The weather wasn’t good.


5. He went to France.


6. They had to comfortable trip.


 SECTION B:
Listen carefully and fill in the blanks (5 marks)
Martin:
I think I’d better get a new (1) ___________ for my job interview.
Rita:
But a new suit is (2) _________. Why don’t you just (3) ________ the one you
have?
Martin:
Well, a new suit will make a better (4) ______________.
Rita:
Come on. They won’t (5) ____________ you on what you’re wearing.
Martin:
Well, they’re not (6) ___________to, but they will.
Rita:
Well, I think you ought to wear what you have.
Martin:
Hmm, maybe you’re (7) ____________. I’ll think about it.
Rita:
OK. Now, let’s (8) ___________about what they might ask at the (9)
___________.
That’s what you should (10) __________about.
28
ANSWER KEY
PRACTICE TEST 1
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
1. C
11. C
12. C
2. B
13. C
3. A
14. D
4. D
15. A
5. A
16. B
6. A
17. B
7. A
18. A
8. C
19. D
9. B
20. A
10. A
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: (3 ms)
1. Charles D. Seeberger, an American, invented the escalators.
2. Escalators were invented in the 1890s.
3. Escalators can move people up and down short distances.
4. They can use it as ordinary stairs.
5. The first escalators were built at railway stations and in department stores
Text 2: (3 ms)
1. house
2. not
3. rooms
4. bathroom
5. everything
II. WRITING
SECTION A: (5 marks)
1. They built this house in 1880.
29
2. How long have you had your motorbike?
3. Mount Everest is the highest mountain in the world.
4. Have you got a mobile phone which can send e-mails?
5. My grandfather used to be in Africa during World War II.
6. You will feel sick if you eat too many green mangoes.
7. I am interested in reading books.
8. They asked me to practice more.
9. He wants to change his job immediately.
10. She is more intelligent than her sister.
SECTION B: (5 marks)
The answer will vary
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Are these statements True or False? Listen and check the correct answer. (5 marks)
1. T
2. F
3. F
4. F
5.T
 SECTION B:
Listen carefully and fill in the blank ( 5 marks)
1. Party
6. mean
2. idea
7. 8:00
3. gift
8. little
4. chocolates
9. near
5. arrive
10. train
30
PRACTICE TEST 2
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
1. C
11. A
2. B
12. C
3. B
13. B
4. C
14. A
5. B
15. C
6. B
16. D
7. C
17. B
8. C
18. A
9. D
19. C
10. B
20. C
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: (3 ms)
1. He was in a car.
2. His secretary advised him not to go to the theater.
3. John Hikes Booth killed President Lincoln.
4. He ran into a theater.
5. He was born in 1808.
Text 2: (3 ms)
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. C
II. WRITING
SECTION A: (5 marks)
1.
What time do they usually get up?
2.
Where did he go last Sunday?
31
3.
When will he be there?
4.
How do they study English?
5.
Who was watching TV at 3 p.m yesterday?
6.
How many hours a day does your mother work?
7.
How long has she lived here?
8.
Who are you going to visit tomorrow?
9.
What is he reading?
10. How often does her father go to work?
SECTION B: (5 marks)
The answer will vary.
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Don is checking messages on his voicemail. Are these statement are True or false? Listen
and check the correct answer (5 marks)
1. F
2. T
3. F
4. F
5. T
6. F
 SECTION B: Listen carefully and fill in the blanks (5 marks)
1. air conditioner
6.
friend
2. fix
7.
Sunday
3. great
8.
afternoon
4. lunch
9.
dinner
5. appointment
10. arrange
PRACTICE TEST 3
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
1. D
2. C
32
3. A
12. C
4. C
13. D
5. D
14. C
6. C
15. C
7. B
16. B
8. C
17. D
9. B
18. B
10. A
19. B
11. D
20. C
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: (3 ms)
1. Captain James Cook was a great explorer.
2. He was born in 1728.
3. When he was 18, he found a job on a coastal ship.
4. He joined the navy when he was 27 years old.
5. His trip to the Pacific was nearly ten years.
Text 2: (3 ms)
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. A
5. B
II. WRITING
SECTION A: (5 marks)
1. He asked if Tom could speak English.
2. If I knew the answer, I could tell you.
3. The box was not light enough for the child to carry.
4. David is a careful driver.
5. You are shorter than Helen. (You are not as tall as Helen.)
6. Nam is the most intelligent (person) in our class.
7. I don’t eat anything for breakfast.
8. She has been working as a secretary for five years.
33
9. She teaches us English.
10. The floor was cleaned (by her).
SECTION B: (5 marks)
The answer will vary.
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Match the people on the left with the activities on the right. (5 marks)
1. C
2. D
3. E
4.a
5. B
 SECTION B:
Listen carefully and fill in the blanks (5 marks)
1. twin
6. 1953
2. early
7. recorded
3. religious
8. birthday
4. 13
9. copies
5. truck driver.
10. November
PRACTICE TEST 4
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
1.
B
11. D
2.
C
12. D
3.
C
13. B
4.
C
14. A
5.
D
15. A
6.
D
16. B
7.
D
17. C
8.
A
18. C
9.
B
19. C
10. C
20. B
SECTION B: (6 marks)
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Text 1: (3 ms)
1. Amy joined the London Aeroplane Club when she was still a schoolgirl.
2. She was introduced to a pilot called Jim Mollison.
3. Amy was the first woman to fly to Australia.
4. She and her plane disappeared into the sea in 1941.
5. Her husband’s name is Jim Mollison.
Text 2: (3 ms)
1. T
2. T
3. F
4. F
5. F
II. WRITING
SECTION A: (5 marks)
1. Your sister is younger than me.
2. If you press this button, the lift will stop.
3. I have learned English for ten years.
4. The meeting will start in five minutes.
5. He wants to change his job immediately.
6. He went to Paris by plane yesterday.
7. I can’t speak French fluently.
8. Jane is too young to get married.
9. I am the oldest in my family.
10.
I met Tom yesterday.
SECTION B: (5 marks)
The answer will vary.
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
Listen to the conversation and complete them
1.
Drugstore
4.
right
2.
over there
5.
restaurant
3.
newsstand
6.
next to
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7.
two minutes
9.
straight
8.
post office
10.
left
 SECTION B:
Listen and circle the correct answer a, b, c or d.
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. D
PRACTICE TEST 5
I. READING
SECTION A: (4 marks)
1.
B
11. D
2.
A
12. B
3.
A
13. A
4.
D
14. C
5.
C
15. B
6.
B
16. C
7.
A
17. B
8.
C
18. C
9.
A
19. C
10. A
20. A
SECTION B: (6 marks)
Text 1: (3 ms)
1.
The title of the book is “The adventures of Robin Hood”.
2.
Robin Hood and his men lived in a big forest.
3.
They ate the animals of the forest.
4.
They slept under the tree.
5.
They took money from the rich and gave it to the poor.
Text 2: (3 ms)
1. family
2. write
3. visited
4. famous
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5. island
II. WRITING
SECTION A: (5 marks)
1. While I was eating an ice cream, the dog jumped up and tried to get my ice cream.
2. Mark turned off the lights and went to sleep because he felt exhausted
3. If I had a typewriter, I would type the letter.
4. Shakespeare wrote King Lear which was probably his best play.
5. This book is too technical for me to read.
6. They are strong enough to lift that taxi.
7. She is a teacher of English.
8. He is a careful driver.
9. Jane is (5 years) younger than Alice. (Alice is (5 years) older than Jane)
10. The book is about a girl who runs away from home.
SECTION B: (5 marks)
The answer will vary
III. LISTENING
 SECTION A:
People are talking about their vacations. Are these statement are True or False? Listen and
check the correct answer
1. F
4. T
2. T
5. F
3. F
6. T
 SECTION B:
Listen carefully and fill in the blanks (5 marks)
1. suit
6. supposed
2. expensive
7. right
3. wear
8. talk
4. impression
9. interview
5. judge
10. think
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TAPESCRIPTS
ĐỀ 1
 SECTION A:
1. A: Listen. I’ve got some tickets for a great rock concert on Sunday night. Are you free, Mary?
B: Sunday night? Yeah, I’m free. What kind of concert did you say it is?
A: A rock concert.
B: Oh, that’s what I thought you said. Actually, I don’t really like rock music. Thanks, anyway.
Some other time maybe.
A: Oh, sure.
2. A: There’s a great new Mexican restaurant downtown. Would you like to try it, Jim? We could
go there for dinner on Friday night.
B: That sounds great. I love Mexican food.
A: Maybe after dinner we could go dancing.
B: Yeah. I haven’t gone dancing in a long time.
3. A: Are you doing anything tonight. Susie? How about seeing a movie?
B: A movie? I’d like to, but I’m really tired.
A: Are you sure? There’s a new French movie I’m dying to see.
B: I really think I’d better stay home tonight. I’ve been out nearly every night this week. Maybe
some other time?
A: Sure
4. A: I’m going to the park with some friends for barbecue this weekend.
B: That sounds fun.
A: Would you like to come with us, Ben? We’re going on Sunday afternoon.
B: Sunday afternoon? I’d love to. Uh.. wait .. I just remembered, I’m going to a baseball with
my Dad. He got the tickets a month ago.
A: That sounds cool, too. Enjoy the game.
5. A: Do you like ice skating, Jenny?
B: I’ve never tried it.
A: Then you have to try it. How about Thursday or Friday night ?
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B: Thursday night is no good for me. I have a Spanish class.
A: Is Friday night id okay?
B: Yes, it’s fine.
A: terrific. You’ll love it. Then after we finish, we can get something to eat downtown.
B: Okay. Thanks.
 SECTION B:
Vincent: I’m going to a dinner party this evening. Do you have any idea what I should take as a
gift?
Linda: Let’s see….flowers or some chocolates would be nice.
Vincent: Great. Do you know what time I should arrive?
Linda: What do you mean?
Vincent: Well, the party is at 8:00. Is it typical to arrive right on time, or should I arrive a little
later?
Linda: Oh, you should probably arrive on time.
Vincent: OK…Can you tell me where I can buy chocolates near here?
Linda: Yes, there’s a shop near the train station.
Vincent: Oh, OK. Thanks for your help.
ĐỀ 2
 SECTION A:
1. This is Dr. Costello’s office. We’re calling to change your dental appointment to August 3rd at
9:30 in the morning. Thank you.
2. Hi, Don. It’s Sue. I’m calling about Cindy’s birthday party. It’s on July 28th at 8pm. Are you
free? I’ll call you later.
3. Hello, Don. This is Aunt Betty. How are you, darling? Listen, I’m coming to town next month
and I’d love to see you. I’m arriving on August the tenth at 11:15 in the morning. I’ll call you
from the airport. Bye!
4. Hi, Don. This is Ted. Listen, we can’t play tennis on Saturday, July 26th, around three?
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5. Hello, Don. This is Francis. I’ll be back from my trip on Tuesday, September 22 nd. Let’s meet in
my office that Tuesday around 6p.m, Okay? Let me know.
6. This is Star Travel. We’ve booked your flight to New Orleans for next month. You leave on
August 2nd on flight 101 from Kennedy Airport at 2p.m.
 SECTION B:
Chuck: What’s the matter?
Sheila: There’s something wrong with my air conditioner, and I don’t know how to fix it.
Chuck: I’ll take a look at it if you want.
Sheila: Really? That would be great.
Chuck: I can’t do it right now because I’m going to have lunch, and then I have an appointment.
But I can come back tomorrow.
Sheila: Tomorrow isn’t good. I’m going to be at a friend’s house all day. How about Sunday?
Chuck: Sure. Sunday‘s fine. In the afternoon?
Sheila: Yes, and then I’ll buy you dinner. Ok?
Chuck: Ok, it’s a deal. I’ll call you tomorrow, and we can arrange the time.
ĐỀ 3
 SECTION A:
1. I think exercise is so important to good health. There is a really good sports club near my
school. During the week, I play tennis there for an hour before school starts. On weekends, I usually
work out at the gym near my house for a few hours. I also play baseball with some friends from school.
It’s so much fun!
2. I don’t like jogging or doing anything too energetic. I prefer taking walks. I like to take a short
walk everyday through the park across from my house. Sometimes my boyfriend goes with me. It’s
nice to talk and look at the flowers and trees. On Sunday, I like to swim, but for only about a half hour.
I sleep the rest of the weekend.
3. I am a big football fan, but I only watch it on TV. I can’t stand playing it! There are great
games to watch on the weekend. I also enjoy watching tennis.
40
I’d like to learn someday, but I don’t like to sweat. I love chess and often play with my
younger sister. She’s really good at it and usually wins. On the weekends, I love to play video games
with some of my friends.
4. I just love to exercise! I like many different sports. Let’s see…. I like swimming a lot. I get up
very early. Around 5 a.m., and swim for two hours from Monday to Friday. I also enjoy basketball and
play with a group of friends from work every Tuesday night. And I’ve also started playing golf this
year. Before playing, I go jogging to warm up.
5. I enjoy exercise, but I don’t do it as much as I should. I meet a friend every Wednesday and we
play tennis. I’m not a very good player, but it’s fun and we usually play for an hour. On weekends. I
like to bicycles in our neighborhood. I guess I spend an hour or two doing that. Oh, and I love baseball,
but only watching it while sitting on the couch eating popcorn!

SECTION B:
Elvis Presley was born on January 8th, 1935 in Pupelo, Mississippi. His twin brother, Jesse Garon,
died at birth. His parents were very poor and Elvis never had music lessons, but he was surrounded by
music from an early age. His parents were very religious, and Elvis regularly song at church services.
In 1948, when he was 13, his family moved to Memphis, Tennessee. He left school in 1953 and got a
job as truck driver.
In the summer of 1953, Elvis paid $4 and recorded two songs for his mother’s birthday at Sam
Phillips’ Sun Records studio. Sam Phillips heard Elvis and asked him to record “That’s all right” in
July 1954, 20,000 copies were sold, mainly in and around Memphis. He made five more records for
Sun, and in July 1955, he met Colonel Tom Parker, who became his manager in November.
ĐỀ 4
 SECTION A:
5. A: Excuse me. Is there a drugstore near here?
B: Yes. It’s over there.
A: Thanks.
6. A: Excuse me. Is there a newsstand near here?
41
B: Yes. It’s on Davis Street. Just go straight and then turn right on Davis. It’s next to the music
store.
A: OK. Thanks.
7. A: Excuse me. Is there a restaurant near here?
B: There’s a Chinese one on Maple Street, next to the bank, and there’s an Italian one on the
Davis Street next to the travel agent.
A: Is that one far?
B: No. it’s just a block away. It takes two minutes, that’s all.
8. A: Is there a post office near here?
B: Go straight ahead. It’s on the left, next to the Italian restaurant.
A: Thanks a lot.
 SECTION B:
A: Did you have a good weekend?
B: Yeah, fine, thanks.
A: Did you go anywhere nice?
B: Well, we wanted to go to the beach but the weather was awful, so we didn’t.
A: Did you go out on Saturday night?
B: No, we stayed at home and watched a film.
A: Do you eat a lot of fast food?
B: No, almost none. I think my diet is quiet healthy. I eat lots of fruit and vegetables, although I
should probably eat more fish.
A: How often do you go to the gym?
B: Not as often as I’d like to.
A: I thought you went everyday!
B: No, only Mondays and Fridays now. I’m too busy.
A: What time do you get up?
B: I wake up at 7:00 but I always go back to sleep for fifteen minutes. Then I get up.
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A: Do you want a coffee?
B: No, I don’t drink coffee, thanks.
A: What do you do?
B: I’m a teacher. What about you?
A: I work in computers.
B: Are you married?
A: Divorced.
B: So am I.
ĐỀ 5
 SECTION A:
1. A: Is this you?
B: Yes, it is.
A: Wow! It looks really fun, but hard. How do you stay on them?
B: In the beginning, you don’t. You fall off all the time. But you learn pretty quickly. I had a
wonderful time.
2. A: What are you doing here?
B: My friends and I went camping. It was really great. But it got very cold at night. This is how
we kept warm.
3. A: What did you do?
B: Oh, I went sightseeing and visited all the museums.
A: Oh, that sounds interesting.
B: Actually, it was pretty boring. I hate museums.
4. A: Oh, this must have been a wonderful vacation.
B: Yes, it was fantastic. The weather was perfect. And the water was so clear.
A: Wow. Look at you. You’re all red.
B: Yes, I got a terrible sunburn.
5. A: What are you doing here?
B: Oh, I took a cooking course in Italy.
A: Terrific. So what can you make now?
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B: Spaghetti and meatballs!
6. A: This you go all the way in this?
B: Yes. We did. It was really very comfortable to travel in. we slept in it, too.
 SECTION B:
Martin: I think I’d better get a new suit for my job interview.
Rita: But a new suit is expensive. Why don’t you just wear the one you have?
Martin: Well, a new suit will make a better impression.
Rita: Come on. They won’t judge you on what you’re wearing.
Martin: Well, they’re not supposed to, but they will.
Rita: Well, I think you ought to wear what you have.
Martin: Hmm, maybe you’re right. I’ll think about it.
Rita: OK. Now, let’s talk about what they might ask at the interview. That’s what you should think
about.
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Phụ lục III
MẪU ĐƠN ĐĂNG KÝ DỰ KIỂM TRA CẤP CHỨNG CHỈ
(Kèm theo Quyết định số 30/2008/ QĐ-BGDĐT ngày 06 tháng 6 năm 2008
của Bộ trưởng Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo)
CỘNG HÒA XÃ HỘI CHỦ NGHĨA VIỆT NAM
Độc lập- Tự do- Hạnh phúc
(……….., ngày…….tháng…….năm 20….)
Kính gửi: Ông (Bà) Chủ tịch Hội đồng kiểm tra
…………………………………………..
Căn cứ Quy định về tổ chức đào tạo, bồi dưỡng, kiểm tra và cấp chứng chỉ ngoại ngữ,
tin học theo chương trình giáo dục thường xuyên ban hành theo Quyết định số 30/2008/QĐBGDĐT ngày 6 tháng 6 năm 2008 của Bộ trưởng Bộ Giáo dục và Đào tạo,
Tôi tên: …………………………………………………………………………
Ngày sinh: ……………………………………………………………………...
Quê quán: ………………………………………………………………………
Số CMND: ……………, ngày cấp: …………….., nơi cấp: ………………….
Tôi đã hoàn thành chương trình giáo dục thường xuyên về …………………..
Khóa học …………………… tại ……………………………………………..
Tôi xin đăng ký dự kiểm tra cấp chứng chỉ ……………………………………
Tại Hội đồng kiểm tra …………………………………………………………
Tôi cam kết thực hiện đúng Quy định kiểm tra.
……….., ngày…….tháng…….năm 20….
Người đăng ký dự kiểm tra
(Ký, ghi rõ họ tên)
45