What is the principle of sublay technic of the hernioplasty of postoperative hernia:
A. All are transferred methods
B. Fixation of graft for the edges of defect
C. Fixation of graft between peritoneum and aponeurosis layer
D. Fixation of graft above autoplasty
E. Fixation of graft under autoplasty
ANSWER: E
What is the principle of onlay technic of the hernioplasty of postoperative hernia:
A. All are transferred methods
B. Fixation of graft for the edges of defect
C. Fixation of graft between peritoneum and aponeurosis layer
D. Fixation of graft under autoplasty
E. Fixation of graft above autoplasty
ANSWER: E
The methods of hernioplasty with using of synthetic materials:
A. Fixation of graft for the edges of defect
B. Fixation of graft between peritoneum and aponeurosis layer (inlay technic)
C. Fixation of graft under autoplasty (sublay technic)
D. Fixation of graft above autoplasty (onlay technic)
E. All listed methods
ANSWER: E
What is Lihtenshtein method?
A. Hernioplasty with painter net
B. Hernioplasty with metallic net
C. Hernioplasty with arachnoidite net
D. Hernioplasty with polyethylene net
E. Hernioplasty with mesh material “Ethicon”
ANSWER: E
What hernioplasty is indicated in case of phlegmon of hernia sack:
A. Meyo hernioplasty
B. Bassini hernioplasty
C. Hernioplasty with draining of wound
D. Performed by any methods
E. Contra-indicated
ANSWER: E
What complications can be at incarceration of omentum:
A. Peritonitis
B. Necrosis of hernia sack
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Phlegmon of hernia sack
E. A thrombosis of vessels of omentum and embolism of portal vein
ANSWER: E
If a bowel is jammed in a hernia sack, the diameter will increase in:
A. None of the listed part
B. Remote loop of bowel
C. Loop in a hernia sack
D. Distal loop of bowel
E. Proximal loop of bowel
ANSWER: E
At incarceration hernia microcirculation disorders could be:
A. In abdominal cavity
B. In a hernia gate
C. In a hernia sack
D. In a distal bowel
E. In a proximal bowel
ANSWER: E
What is the time of disability after treatment of incarcerated hernia?:
A. 14 days
B. 1 week
C. 4-6 days
D. 12 weeks
E. 4-6 weeks
ANSWER: E
What hernia tissue can be the tumors origin?
A. Never arise
B. Hernia sack
C. Membrane of hernia
D. Hernia content
E. All listed elements of hernia
ANSWER: E
What is not characteristic for determination of viability of incarcerated bowel:
A. Presence of peristalsis
B. Presence of pulsation of mesentery vessels
C. Absence of strangulation furrow
D. Renewing of the natural color of organ
E. Presence of strangulation furrow
ANSWER: E
Acquire hernia could be all, except:
A. Neurological
B. Traumatic
C. Recurrent
D. Postoperative
E. Post-natal
ANSWER: E
At incarceration of hernia the most deep changes arise up in:
A. In all simultaneously
B. In the peritoneum
C. In the serosa
D. In the muscular tunic
E. In the mucus tunic
ANSWER: E
Incarcerated hernia does not complicated by:
A. Acute ileus
B. Peritonitis
C. Necrosis of hernia sack
D. Phlegmon of hernia sack
E. Lymphadenitis
ANSWER: E
What is contra-indicated for patients with coprostasis?
A. Enemas
B. Antispastic
C. Anaesthetic
D. Easy local massage
E. Purgative drugs
ANSWER: E
What is the first step of operation at the incarcerated hernia?
A. Estimation of viability of jammed organ
B. Conservative treatment
C. Dissecting of jamming ring
D. Puncture of hernia sack.
E. Quick opening of hernia sack and fixing of jammed organ.
ANSWER: E
The Richter incarceration arises up, when in a hernia sack located:
A. Part of urinary bladder
B. Loop of bowel
C. Lateral wall of bowel
D. Part of mesentery
E. Part of wall of bowel
ANSWER: E
The retrograde incarceration looks like :
A. Letters of F
B. Letters of R
C. Letters of B
D. Letters of G
E. Letters of W
ANSWER: E
The excrement incarceration develops:
A. Too slowly
B. Suddenly
C. With high speed
D. Languidly
E. Gradually
ANSWER: E
The elastic incarceration develops:
A. Languidly
B. With high speed
C. Too slowly
D. Gradually
E. Suddenly
ANSWER: E
Acute ileus arises up at presence in the hernia sac:
A. Urinary bladder
B. Salpinx
C. Omentum
D. Subcutaneous fatty tissue
E. Loops of bowel
ANSWER: E
Auscultative sign of presence in the hernia sack of omentum is:
A. Drum shot
B. Noise of falling drop
C. Clang
D. Presence of peristaltic waves
E. Absence of peristaltic waves
ANSWER: E
Auscultative sign of presence in the hernia sack of loop of bowel:
A. Drum shot
B. Noise of falling drop
C. Clang
D. Absence of peristaltic waves
E. Presence of peristaltic waves
ANSWER: E
The best method for differential diagnostics of acute hydropsy of testicle with the
incarcerated inguinal hernia is:
A. Colonoscopy
B. Endoscopy
C. CT
D. Sonography
E. Diaphanoscopy
ANSWER: E
In the case of incarceration of omentum above the hernia sack will be:
A. Absence of sounds
B. Clang
C. Sonorous sound
D. Tympanit
E. Dull sound
ANSWER: E
In case of incarceration of loop of bowel, above the hernia sack will be:
A. Absence of sounds
B. Clang
C. Sonorous sound
D. Dull sound
E. Tympanit
ANSWER: E
The resection of the loop of incarcerated bowel in hernia gate is indicated:
A. At presence of all of the listed signs
B. In default of pulsation of mesentery vessels
C. In default of discoloration
D. In default of peristalsis
E. At presence of any of the listed signs
ANSWER: E
What additional symptom, which will arise up at incarceration of sliding inguinal
hernia, the wall of which is an urinary bladder:
A. Absence of other symptoms
B. Bleeding
C. Symptom of sexual weakness
D. Intoxication symptom
E. Disuria
ANSWER: E
Tactic of surgeon during replacing of the incarcerated hernia during operation:
A. Finishing of operation
B. Draining of abdominal cavity
C. Laparotomy
D. Hernioplasty without revision of nearest organs
E. Operative treatment with the revision of nearest organs
ANSWER: E
Incarcerated hernia must be treated:
A. Conservative treatment
B. Dynamic supervision
C. By reducing of hernia
D. Planned operation
E. Urgent operation
ANSWER: E
Differential diagnostics of femoral hernia is performed with:
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Inguinal hernia
C. Varicosity
D. Cold abscess
E. All listed
ANSWER: E
The effective method of prophylaxis of incarceration of hernia is:
A. Changing of job
B. Diet
C. Anti-spastic drugs
D. Antibiotics
E. The planned operations
ANSWER: E
What signs of viability of the jammed loop of bowel is used?:
A. By a tint
B. By a color
C. By the presence of pulsation of vessels
D. By the presence of peristalsis
E. Used all signs
ANSWER: E
Duration of dynamic supervision if incarcerated hernia is replaced:
A. 2 hours
B. 1 hour
C. 12 hours
D. 6 hours
E. 24 hours
ANSWER: E
Tactic of doctor, if during hospitalization incarcerated hernia is replaced:
A. Nothing to do
B. Conservative treatment
C. To discharge patient
D. Urgent surgical treatment
E. Hospitalization, supervision
ANSWER: E
The retrograde incarceration arises up at presence of:
A. Adhesion in a hernia sack
B. Wrong form of hernia gate
C. Narrow hernia gate
D. Negative pressure in a hernia sack
E. Wide hernia gate
ANSWER: E
When could be false incarceration of hernia?
A. At incarceration of diverticul of Mekkel
B. At inflammation of hernia
C. At jamming of the organ in a hernia sack
D. At the partial incarceration of wall of organ
E. At the acute diseases of organs of abdominal cavity
ANSWER: E
What is more frequent forms wall at sliding right-side inguinal hernia?:
A. Stomach
B. Transverse colon
C. Urinary bladder
D. Small intestine
E. Urinary bladder
ANSWER: E
What is more frequent forms wall at sliding left-side inguinal hernia?
A. Stomach
B. Transverse colon
C. Urinary bladder
D. Small intestine
E. Sigmoid colon
ANSWER: E
What name of the symptoms of the incarcerated hernia:
A. Nausea and vomit
B. Pain in the hernia swelling
C. Negative cough sign
D. Nonreducible swelling
E. All are transferred signs
ANSWER: E
In the case of the incarcerated hernia a main symptom is:
A. Nausea and vomit
B. Bleeding
C. Negative cough sign
D. High temperature
E. Pain in the hernia swelling
ANSWER: E
What is incarcerated hernia:
A. Jamming of content of hernia is from the side of abdominal cavity
B. Inflammation of hernia
C. Jamming of content of hernia by the wall of hernia sack
D. Jamming of content of hernia by surrounding tissue
E. A jamming of content of hernia in its gate
ANSWER: E
What is external hernia of abdomen:
A. An output of organs through the damaged abdominal wall
B. Jamming of organs
C. Inflammations of organs
D. An output of organs outside of peritoneum
E. Output of organs, covered by peritoneum under a skin
ANSWER: E
For diaphragmatic hernia a typical symptom is:
A. Negative cough sign
B. Nausea
C. Pain
D. Positive cough sign
E. Feeling of grumbling in a thorax on the side of hernia
ANSWER: E
Objective sign of the incarcerated hernia:
A. Bleeding
B. Positive cough sign
C. Vomit
D. Pain
E. Negative cough sign
ANSWER: E
What hernia has mesoperitoneal organ as part of hernia sack wall:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Oblique inguinal hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Direct inguinal hernia
E. Sliding hernia
ANSWER: E
Swelling in the area of lateral fossa is means:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Epigastroceles
C. Direct inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. Oblique inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Swelling in the area of medial fossa is means:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Epigastroceles
C. Oblique inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. Direct inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Principle of Zhirar method is:
A. Use of alloplastic material
B. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
C. Narrowing of inguinal channel without its opening
D. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
E. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
ANSWER: E
Principle of Lockwood method is:
A. Strengthening of upper wall of inguinal channel
B. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
C. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
E. Closing of femoral channel by sewing inguinal ligament to the periosteum of pubic
bone
ANSWER: E
When lower epigastric vessels is located laterally to hernia sack?
A. Epigastroceles
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Oblique inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. Direct inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
When lower epigastric vessels is located medially to hernia sack?
A. Epigastroceles
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Direct inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. Oblique inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Principle of Lexer method at umbilical hernia is:
A. Vertical cut on middle line
B. Removing of the umbilicus
C. Horizontal hernioplasty
D. Transversal hernioplasty
E. Placing of circle sutures around the edges of defect
ANSWER: E
At left-side non-reducible femoral hernia is used:
A. Methods of Martinov, Postempsky
B. Methods of Martinov, Zhirar, Spasokukotsky, Kimbarovsky
C. Methods of Bassini, Kukudzhanov, Postempsky
D. Methods of Sapezhko, Meyo
E. Methods of Bassini, Rudzhi, Parlavecho
ANSWER: E
The method of Kukudzhanov is performed at hernioplasty of:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Femoral and inguinal hernia
C. Epigastroceles
D. Femoral hernia
E. Inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Negative cough sign means:
A. Tumor of hernia
B. Inflammation of hernia
C. Coprostasis
D. Nonreducible hernia
E. Incarceration of hernia
ANSWER: E
What is the superior wall of inguinal channel?
A. Pubic bone
B. Transversal fascia of abdomen
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
E. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
ANSWER: E
What is the internal wall of femoral channel?:
A. Transversal fascia of abdomen
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Femoral vein
D. Horizontal branch of pubic bone
E. Edge of Jimbernat ligament
ANSWER: E
What wall of inguinal channel is strengthened by Bassini hernioplasty:
A. Anterior and posterior
B. Inferior
C. Superior
D. Anterior
E. Posterior
ANSWER: E
With the purpose of strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel it is
performed:
A. Method of Kirschner
B. Method of Postempsky
C. Method of Bassini, Kukudzhanov
D. Method of Ru
E. Methods of Martinov, Zhirar, Spasokukotsky
ANSWER: E
Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel performed at the hernioplasty by:
A. Martinov
B. Kimbarovsky
C. Rudzhi
D. Meyo
E. Bassini
ANSWER: E
The method of Spasokukotsky is performed at hernioplasty of:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Direct inguinal hernia
E. Oblique inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Lower epigastric vessels at oblique inguinal hernia is located:
A. Behind hernia sack
B. Laterally to hernia sack
C. Higher to hernia sack
D. Below to hernia sack
E. Medially to hernia sack
ANSWER: E
If during introduction of finger to the superficial ring of inguinal channel the
pulsation of lower epigastric artery is determined medially to the hernia swelling, its
mean:
A. Incarcerated inguinal hernia
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Direct inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. Oblique inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
If during introduction of finger to the superficial ring of inguinal channel the
pulsation of lower epigastric artery is determined laterally to the hernia swelling, its
mean:
A. Incarcerated inguinal hernia
B. Femoral hernia
C. Umbilical hernia
D. Oblique inguinal hernia
E. Direct inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Most frequent form of incarceration:
A. All listed meets rare
B. All listed meets often
C. Incarceration is mixed
D. Excrement incarceration
E. Elastic incarceration
ANSWER: E
What diameter of hernia gate at large hernia:
A. Over 8 cm
B. Over 14 cm
C. Over 12 cm
D. Over 10 cm
E. Over 4 cm
ANSWER: E
Hernioplasty by Kukudzhanov is mean:
A. Use of alloplastic material
B. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
C. Narrowing of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
E. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
ANSWER: E
Hernioplasty by Kimbarovsky is mean:
A. Use of alloplastic material
B. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
C. Narrowing of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
E. Renewing the inguinal channel to it normal state
ANSWER: E
Hernioplasty by Zhirar is mean:
A. Use of alloplastic material
B. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
C. Narrowing of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
E. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
ANSWER: E
Hernioplasty by Martinov is mean:
A. Use of alloplastic material
B. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
C. Narrowing of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
E. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
ANSWER: E
The second stage of operation at incarcerated hernia:
A. Sequence of manipulations not important
B. Section of hernia sack
C. Fixing of jammed organ
D. Puncture of hernia sack
E. Scission of incarceration ring
ANSWER: E
In the case of negative cough sign will be:
A. Tumor of hernia
B. Inflammation of hernia
C. Coprostasis
D. Nonreducible hernia
E. Incarceration of hernia
ANSWER: E
If in a hernia sack organs compressed with lost of function, necrosis, its mean:
A. Damage of hernia
B. Tumor of hernia
C. Nonreducible hernia
D. Inflammation of hernia
E. Incarceration of hernia
ANSWER: E
Nonreducible hernia arises because of:
A. Necrosis
B. Coprostasis
C. Peristalsis
D. An acute jamming of hernia content in the hernia gate
E. Adhesion process between hernia content and hernia sack
ANSWER: E
What methods of hernioplasty at postoperative hernia?:
A. Aponeurotic hernioplasty
B. Alloplasty by a tantal mesh
C. Alloplasty by lavsan suture
D. Muscle-aponeurotic
E. All listed
ANSWER: E
What is principle of Lexer method at umbilical hernia?
A. Vertical cut on middle line
B. Removing of the umbilicus
C. Horizontal hernioplasty
D. Transversal hernioplasty
E. Placing of circle sutures around the edges of defect
ANSWER: E
What method is used for closing of hernia gate from the side of femoral channel:
A. Method of Spasokukotsky
B. Method of Meyo
C. Method Caravanov
D. Methods of Lockwood and Abrazhanov
E. Method of Rudzhi
ANSWER: E
For strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel is used:
A. Methods of Kirschner
B. Methods of Meyo
C. Methods of Cherni, Ru
D. Methods of Martinov, Zhirara, Spasokukotsky
E. Method of Bassini, Kukudzhanov
ANSWER: E
For strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel is used:
A. Method of Kukudzhanov
B. Method of Postempsky
C. Method of Bassini, Kukudzhanov
D. Method of Cherni, Ru
E. Methods of Martinov, Zhirar, Spasokukotsky
ANSWER: E
For hernioplasty of wide femoral fascia is used:
A. Method of Martinov
B. Method of Zhirar
C. Method of Postempsky
D. Method of Meyo
E. Method of Kirschner
ANSWER: E
Operations with liquidation of inguinal channel is named by:
A. Method of Lockwood
B. Method of Kirschner
C. Method of Cherni, Ru
D. Method of Martinov, Zhirar
E. Method of Postempsky
ANSWER: E
Operations of renewing of inguinal channel is named by:
A. Method of Lockwood
B. Method of Kirschner
C. Method of Postempsky
D. Method of Cherni, Ru
E. Method of Martinov, Zhirar
ANSWER: E
In the case of direct inguinal hernia lower epigastric vessels are located:
A. Behind a hernia sack
B. Higher hernia sack
C. Medially from a hernia sack
D. Below hernia sack
E. Lateral to hernia sack
ANSWER: E
In the case of oblique inguinal hernia lower epigastric vessels are located:
A. Behind a hernia sack
B. Lateral to hernia sack
C. Higher hernia sack
D. Below hernia sack
E. Medially from a hernia sack
ANSWER: E
Swelling of anterior abdominal wall in the area of medial fossa could be at:
A. Direct and oblique inguinal hernia
B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Oblique inguinal hernia
E. Direct inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Swelling of anterior abdominal wall in the area of lateral fossa could be at:
A. Direct and oblique inguinal hernia
B. Epigastroceles
C. Direct inguinal hernia
D. Femoral hernia
E. Oblique inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
The objective sign of hernia is:
A. Vomit
B. Nausea
C. Constipation
D. Pain
E. Swelling
ANSWER: E
Any hernia of abdomen consists of:
A. Hernia sack
B. Hernia sack and content
C. Hernia content
D. Hernia gate and hernia sack
E. Hernia gate, hernia sack, hernia content
ANSWER: E
By the method of Postempsky it is performed hernioplasty of:
A. Femoral and inguinal hernias
B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Umbilical hernia
E. Inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
By the method of Sapezhko it is performed hernioplasty of:
A. Femoral and inguinal hernias
B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Umbilical hernia
ANSWER: E
After the method of Meyo it is performed hernioplasty of:
A. Femoral and inguinal hernias
B. Epigastroceles
C. Femoral hernia
D. Inguinal hernia
E. Umbilical hernia
ANSWER: E
After the method of Kukudzhanov it is performed hernioplasty of:
A. Umbilical hernia
B. Femoral and inguinal hernias
C. Epigastroceles
D. Femoral hernia
E. Inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
On the method of the plastic by Bassini is performed:
A. Strengthening of medial wall of inguinal channel
B. Suturing of defect of anterior abdominal wall
C. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
E. Creation or strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
ANSWER: E
Opening, through which goes out direct inguinal hernia:
A. White line of abdomen
B. Femoral channel
C. Lateral inguinal fossa
D. Left inguinal fossa
E. Medial inguinal fossa
ANSWER: E
What is Richter’s hernia?
A. Nonreducible hernia
B. Incarceration of sliding hernia
C. Incarceration of diverticulum of Mekkel
D. Retrograde incarceration
E. A hernia in which only a portion of the wall of the intestine is involved.
ANSWER: E
What wall of inguinal channelis strengthened at the plastic by Kukudzhanov:
A. Anterior and posterior
B. Inferior
C. Superior
D. Anterior
E. Posterior
ANSWER: E
During Postempsky method:
A. Forming of double-layer of white line of abdomen
B. Suturing of defect of anterior abdominal wall
C. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
D. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
E. The closing of inguinal interval
ANSWER: E
Wall of inguinal channel, which is strengthened at the plastic by Bassini:
A. Anterior and posterior
B. Lower
C. Upper
D. Anterior
E. Posterior
ANSWER: E
What stages has by medial vascular-lacunar femoral hernia?
A. Incomplete, complete
B. Initial, complete
C. Incomplete, complete, eventual
D. First, second, third
E. Initial, incomplete, complete
ANSWER: E
What is initial femoral hernia?
A. Swelling goes out outside of internal femoral ring
B. Swelling goes out outside superficial fascia
C. Swelling passes all anatomic structure of femoral channel
D. Swelling does not go outside superficial fascia
E. Swelling does not go outside of internal femoral ring
ANSWER: E
The internal wall of femoral channel is formed by:
A. Transversal fascia of abdomen
B. By the inguinal ligament
C. By a femoral vein
D. By the horizontal branch of pubic bone
E. By the edge of Jimbernat ligament
ANSWER: E
The posterior wall of inguinal channel is:
A. Pubic bone
B. Inguinal ligament
C. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
D. Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
E. Transversal fascia of abdomen
ANSWER: E
The lower wall of inguinal channel is formed by:
A. Pubic bone
B. Transversal fascia of abdomen
C. Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
D. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
E. Inguinal ligament
ANSWER: E
The upper wall of inguinal channel is:
A. Pubic bone
B. Transversal fascia of abdomen
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
E. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
ANSWER: E
Methods of operative treatment of the left-side oblique reducible inguinal hernia:
A. Methods of Sapezhko, Meyo
B. Methods of Abrazhanov, Caravanov
C. Methods of Rudzhi, Parlavecho, Praksin
D. Methods of Bassini, Kukudzhanov, Postempsky
E. Methods of Martinov, Zhirar-Spasokukocky-Kimbarovsky
ANSWER: E
Operation, which is used at right nonreducible femoral hernia:
A. Methods of Martinov, Postempsky
B. Methods of Bassini, Kukudzhanov, Postempsky
C. Methods of Martinov, Jirar, Spasokukocky, Kimbarovsky
D. Methods of Sapezhko, Meyo
E. Methods of Bassini, Rudzhi, Parlavecho
ANSWER: E
By Bassini method the plastic are performed:
A. All of the listed hernia
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Only inguinal hernia
D. Only femoral hernia
E. Inguinal and femoral hernia
ANSWER: E
The anterior wall of inguinal channel is:
A. Inguinal ligament
B. Lower edge of internal oblique and transversal muscles of abdomen
C. Direct muscle of abdomen
D. Transversal fascia
E. Aponeurosis of external oblique muscle of abdomen
ANSWER: E
The external wall of femoral channel is:
A. Transversal fascia
B. Os pubis
C. Lakunar ligament
D. Inguinal ligament
E. Femoral vein
ANSWER: E
The Rudzhi method is use for:
A. Oblique and direct inguinal hernia
B. Direct inguinal hernia
C. Acquired oblique inguinal hernia
D. Congenital oblique inguinal hernia
E. Femoral hernia
ANSWER: E
Principles of Meyo method:
A. Strengthening of posterior wall of inguinal channel
B. Strengthening of anterior wall of inguinal channel
C. Strengthening of lateral wall of inguinal channel
D. Formation of double-layer of white line
E. Suturing of defect of anterior abdominal wall in the area of umbilical ring by Ushape sutures
ANSWER: E
By Spasokukocky method treated:
A. A method can be applied at all hernias
B. Umbilical hernia
C. Femoral hernia
D. Direct inguinal hernia
E. Oblique inguinal hernia
ANSWER: E
Congenital inguinal hernia could be?
A. Upper and lower
B. Combined
C. Oblique and direct
D. Direct
E. Oblique
ANSWER: E
What is orifice of hernia sack?
A. Its widest part
B. Its upper part
C. Its lower part
D. Distal part of hernia sack
E. Part of hernia sack, which connected with abdominal cavity
ANSWER: E
Measure of resection of the incarcerated bowel:
A. 10-15 cm distally
B. 25-30 cm proximally
C. Within the limits of visible healthy tissue
D. 15-20 cm proximally and 5-10 cm distally
E. 25-30 cm proximally and 10-15 cm distally
ANSWER: E
At incarcerated hernia after the dissection of hernia sack, the next manipulation is:
A. Finish operation
B. Sequence of manipulations are not important
C. To perform puncture of hernia sack and delete hernia water
D. To cut a incarceration ring
E. To cut a hernia sack
ANSWER: E
If hernia, complicated by phlegmon, is jammed:
A. Performed hernioplasty by Kukudzhanov
B. Performed hernioplasty by Spasokukocky
C. Performed hernioplasty by Sapezhko
D. Performed hernioplasty by Bassini
E. A hernioplasty is not performed
ANSWER: E
The excrement incarceration arises up at:
A. Sneeze
B. Cough
C. Physical training
D. Bleeding
E. Decreasing of peristalsis
ANSWER: E
What hernia is operated by Sapezhko method?
A. Direct inguinal hernia
B. Only at hernia of white line
C. Only umbilical hernia
D. Only femoral hernia
E. Umbilical and white line
ANSWER: E
The average stay of the patient after appendectomy in hospital consists of:
A. 7-8 days
B. 6-8 days
C. 1-2 days
D. 2-3 days
E. 4-6 days
ANSWER: E
What form of appendicitis the signs of peritoneal irritation are absent in?
A. appendicular abscess
B. appendicular infiltrate
C. perforative
D. calculous
E. chronic
ANSWER: E
The most prominent clinical sign of chronic appendicitis is:
A. pain by bimanual palpation
B. skin hyperesthesia
C. pain by superficial palpation
D. pain by percussion
E. pain by deep palpation
ANSWER: E
To the chronic secondary appendicitis belongs:
A. gangrenous
B. phlegmonous
C. empyema
D. catarrhal
E. residual
ANSWER: E
Chronic primary appendicitis - is the development of pathological changes in
appendix after:
A. pilephlebitis
B. appendicular abscess
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. acute appendicitis
E. without the signs of acute appendicitis in anamnesis
ANSWER: E
What form of the appendicitis results in the obliteration of the appendix??
A. perforative
B. gangrenous
C. catarrhal
D. phlegmonous
E. chronic
ANSWER: E
What form of the appendicitis results in the developing of fibrosis of the appendix?
A. perforative
B. gangrenous
C. catarrhal
D. phlegmonous
E. chronic
ANSWER: E
The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with intestinal obstruction
is:
A. laparoscopy
B. laparotomy
C. blockade
D. ultrasound examination
E. X-ray film
ANSWER: E
The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with pancreatitis is:
A. X-ray film
B. laparoscopy
C. laparostomy
D. blockades
E. ultrasound examination
ANSWER: E
The most informative for the differentiation of appendicitis with cholecystitis is:
A. laparoscopy
B. laparocentesis
C. anamnesis
D. X-ray film
E. ultrasound examination
ANSWER: E
The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with perforative ulcer of
duodenum is:
A. absence of the gastric dullness
B. presence of a high tympanic sound by percussion
C. absence of the splenic dullness
D. presence of hepatic dullness by percussion
E. absence of hepatic dullness
ANSWER: E
The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with gastric phlegmon is:
A. ultrasound examination
B. laparocentesis
C. palpation
D. roentgenoscopy
E. esophagogastroscopy
ANSWER: E
The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with food poisoning is:
A. slow peristalsis
B. increased peristalsis
C. nausea
D. single vomit
E. frequent vomit
ANSWER: E
The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with intercostal neuralgia is:
A. peridural blockades
B. laparocentesis
C. microlaparotomy
D. laparoscopy
E. paravertebral blockade
ANSWER: E
The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with an epigastric form of
myocardial infarction are the changes in:
A. tachycardia
B. auscultation
C. expressed shortness of breath
D. hemodynamic disturbances
E. ECG
ANSWER: E
The most informative for differentiation of appendicitis with a basal pleurisy is:
A. bronchoscopy
B. auscultation
C. tomography
D. percussion
E. X-ray film
ANSWER: E
The purulent inflammation of portal vein as the complication of acute appendicitis is:
A. adnexitis
B. thrombophlebitis
C. tiphlitis
D. mesadenitis
E. pilephlebitis
ANSWER: E
Theory of abdominal tonsil of the origin of acute appendicitis was found out by:
A. Reindorf
B. Delafua
C. Ashoff
D. Ricker
E. Davidovsky
ANSWER: E
The infectious theory of the origin of acute appendicitis was found out by:
A. Davidovsky
B. Delafua
C. Reindorf
D. Ricker
E. Ashoff
ANSWER: E
The angioneurotic theory of the origin of acute appendicitis was found out by:
A. Davidovsky
B. Ashoff
C. Delafua
D. Reindorf
E. Ricker
ANSWER: E
Theory of helminth invasion of the origin of acute appendicitis was found out by:
A. Ashoff
B. Delafua
C. Davidovsky
D. Ricker
E. Reindorf
ANSWER: E
Pain during palpation in the triangle of Пті is a the sign :
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Yaure-Rozanov sign
ANSWER: E
Theory of stagnation and closed cavities of the origin of acute appendicitis was found
out by:
A. Ashoff
B. Ricker
C. Davidovsky
D. Reindorf
E. Delafua
ANSWER: E
Pain during palpation in the Petit triangle which increases after taking away of the
hand is the sign:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Gabay's sign
ANSWER: E
The bailer form of appendix is characteristic for:
A. elderly patients
B. pregnant
C. females
D. males
E. new-born
ANSWER: E
What is the lethality in acute appendicitis caused by?
A. severity of disease
B. technical errors during an operation
C. concomitant diseases
D. tactical errors
E. late hospitalization
ANSWER: E
The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are
caused by the displacement of appendix in relation to cecum:
A. retroperitoneal
B. medial
C. downword
D. lateral
E. upword
ANSWER: E
What is the medical tactic of the acute appendicitis in pregnant:
A. to interrupt pregnancy
B. to observe
C. to prescribe conservative therapy
D. to prescribe antibiotics
E. to operate
ANSWER: E
The changes of clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are caused
by:
A. inflammation of the right ovarium
B. compression of appendix by uterus
C. irritation of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
D. inflammation of uterus
E. distension of anterior abdominal wall by uterus
ANSWER: E
The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in pregnancy are characterised by
the changes of:
A. character of pain
B. duration of pain
C. irradiation of pain
D. severity of pain
E. localization of pain
ANSWER: E
The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the third trimester of the
pregnancy are:
A. absent
B. unexpressed
C. expressed
D. typical
E. atypical
ANSWER: E
The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the second trimester of the
pregnancy are:
A. absent
B. unexpressed
C. expressed
D. atypical
E. typical
ANSWER: E
The clinical manifestations of acute appendicitis in the first trimester of the
pregnancy are:
A. absent
B. unexpressed
C. expressed
D. atypical
E. typical
ANSWER: E
The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis in pregnancy depends on:
A. the form of appendicitis
B. the duration of appendicitis
C. the relation of appendix to peritoneum
D. degree of inflammatory changes
E. the term of pregnancy
ANSWER: E
The destructive changes in the appendix don't relate to the clinical manifestation of
acute appendicitis in:
A. pregnant
B. males
C. females
D. children
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
The clinical manifestation of acute appendicitis does not relate to destructive changes
in the appendix in:
A. pregnant
B. males
C. females
D. children
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
The expressed deviation of the differential leukocyte count to the left in acute
appendicitis is characteristic for persons :
A. children
B. pregnant
C. males
D. females
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
Inexpressive leucocytosis in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. males
B. pregnant
C. children
D. females
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
Inexpressive muscular tension of anterior abdominal wall in acute appendicitis is
characteristic for:
A. males
B. pregnant
C. children
D. females
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
Inexpressive abdominal pain in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. pregnant
B. males
C. females
D. children
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
Rapid destruction of the appendix in the course of acute appendicitis is characteristic
for:
A. females
B. males
C. pregnant
D. children
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
Reduced reactivity of the organism influences on the peculiarities of the course of
acute appendicitis in:
A. children
B. pregnant
C. males
D. females
E. elderly patients
ANSWER: E
The rapid spread of inflammatory process in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. elderly patients
B. pregnant
C. males
D. females
E. children
ANSWER: E
For acute appendicitis typical t° is:
A. 38-40° С
B. 37-39° С
C. subfebrile
D. 37° С
E. 38° С
ANSWER: E
Dyspeptic syndrome is characteristic for acute appendicitis in:
A. elderly patients
B. pregnant
C. males
D. females
E. children
ANSWER: E
The omental hypoplasia influences on the peculiarities of the course of acute
appendicitis in:
A. elderly patients
B. pregnant
C. males
D. females
E. children
ANSWER: E
The pain all over the whole abdomen in acute appendicitis is characteristic for:
A. elderly patients
B. males
C. pregnant
D. females
E. children
ANSWER: E
Lymphoid hypoplasia determines the peculiarities of the clinical course of
appendicitis in:
A. females
B. males
C. pregnant
D. elderly patients
E. children
ANSWER: E
Appendicular pilephlebitis is the inflammation of:
A. colon and portal vein
B. mesenteric and portal vein
C. jejunal and portal vein
D. appendicular and hepatic vein
E. appendicular and portal vein
ANSWER: E
The peculiarities of the clinical course of appendicitis in children are caused:
A. by the spherical form of appendix
B. by atrophy of appendix
C. by hypertrophy of appendix
D. by the tubular form of appendix
E. by the bailer form of appendix
ANSWER: E
Icteric sclerae, pain in right hypochondria, enlargement of the liver – are the signs of:
A. typhlitis
B. mesadenitis
C. hepatitis
D. appendicular abscess
E. pilephlebitis
ANSWER: E
The most frequent complications of appendicitis are:
A. abscess, peritonitis, adhesions, phlebitis
B. infiltrate, conglomerate, hepatitis
C. conglomerate, adhesions, cystitis, peritonitis
D. infiltrate, abscess, thrombophlebitis, hepatitis
E. infiltrate, abscess, pilephlebitis, peritonitis
ANSWER: E
Tumour with fluctuation are the main clinical manifestation of:
A. appendicular typhlitis
B. appendicular mesadenitis
C. appendicular infiltrate
D. appendicular peritonitis
E. appendicular abscess
ANSWER: E
The clinical manifestation of appendicular infiltrate is:
A. leucocytosis
B. high temperature
C. muscular tension
D. the signs of peritoneal irritation
E. swelling
ANSWER: E
Causes of the appendicular infiltrate development:
A. surgical trauma, infection
B. peritonitis, abscessing
C. adhesions, increased immunity
D. aggressive infection, impaired immunity
E. late hospitalisation, misdiagnosed appendicitis
ANSWER: E
The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. colicks
B. nausea
C. constipation
D. vomiting
E. diarrhea
ANSWER: E
For pelvic appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. Voskresensky's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Yaure-Rozanov sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
ANSWER: E
The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. enuresis
B. paresis
C. myalgia
D. spasms
E. tenesmi
ANSWER: E
The pelvic appendicitis manifests by:
A. dystrophy
B. hematuria
C. hyperthermia
D. dyspepsia
E. dysurination
ANSWER: E
Microhematuria is typical for such kind of appendicitis:
A. left-side
B. subhepatic
C. pelvic
D. retrocecal
E. retroperitoneal
ANSWER: E
For retroperitoneal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. Koer's
B. Rovzing's
C. Yaure-Rozanov
D. Sitkovsky's
E. Pasternatsky's
ANSWER: E
After appendectomy the sutures removed on:
A. 6-7th day
B. 1st day
C. 3-4th day
D. 2nd day
E. 4-6th day
ANSWER: E
For retrocecal appendicitis characteristic the sign:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Gabay's sign
ANSWER: E
For retrocecal appendicitis is characteristic the sign:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Yaure-Rozanov sign
ANSWER: E
Pain during palpation in a lumbar region after taking away of the hand is the sign:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Gabay's sign
ANSWER: E
Pain during palpation in the Petit triangle - is the sign:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Yaure-Rozanov sign
ANSWER: E
Pain during palpation in a lumbar region - is the sign:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Yaure-Rozanov sign
ANSWER: E
Appendectomy, as a rule, is performed under such anaesthesia:
A. endotracheal anaesthesia
B. conducting anaesthesia
C. ether anaesthesia
D. local anaesthesia
E. intravenous anaesthesia
ANSWER: E
After appendectomy to early postoperative complications belongs:
A. colitis
B. ligature fistula
C. ventral hernia
D. intestinal fistula
E. peritonitis
ANSWER: E
During appendectomy the most frequent complication is:
A. peritonitis
B. infecting
C. leak of the sutures
D. infiltrate
E. bleeding
ANSWER: E
After appendectomy the patient stands out of bed on:
A. fifth day
B. fourth day
C. third day
D. second day
E. first day
ANSWER: E
Modern method of appendectomy is:
A. ligation
B. laparotomy
C. laparocentesis
D. microlaparotomy
E. laparoscopic
ANSWER: E
The point through which the Volkovich-Dyakonov access is performed located on the
line between anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus:
A. in external third
B. in the middle
C. in the internal third
D. between external and internal third
E. between external and middle third
ANSWER: E
The removal of appendix from the base is:
A. laparoscopic appendectomy
B. antececal appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. antegrade appendectomy
E. Retrograde appendectomy
ANSWER: E
On the line between the anterior-superior process of the iliac bone and umbilicus
located the point:
A. Volkovich-Dyakonov
B. Lenander's
C. Kehr's
D. Kalk's
E. McBurney's
ANSWER: E
The removal of appendix from apex - is :
A. laparoscopic appendectomy
B. antececal appendectomy
C. retrocecal appendectomy
D. retrograde appendectomy
E. antegrade appendectomy
ANSWER: E
For appendectomy the most suitable surgical access is:
A. Kocher
B. Sprengel
C. Lenander
D. McBurney
E. Volkovich-Dyakonov
ANSWER: E
Appendectomy after the treatment of appendicular infiltrate performed after:
A. 3-5 days
B. 1-2 months
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1-2 weeks
E. 2-4 months
ANSWER: E
Appendicular infiltrate appears after:
A. 8-10 days
B. 7-8 days
C. 5-6 days
D. 1-2 days
E. 3-5 days
ANSWER: E
Conservative treatment of appendicular infiltrate is going on:
A. 2-4 months
B. 1-2 months
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 1 week
E. 1-2 weeks
ANSWER: E
Appendicular infiltrate is treated:
A. anti-inflammatory drugs, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
B. analgesia, antibiotics, diuretics, anti-inflammatory therapy
C. antibiotics, diuretics, antispasmodic, anti-inflammatory therapy
D. antiseptics, analgesia, antibiotics, anti-inflammatory therapy
E. antibiotics, paranephral blockade, detoxication therapy
ANSWER: E
Treatment of appendicular infiltrate:
A. at first ultraviolet radiation, then the cold
B. at first the warm, then the cold
C. the warm on the abdomen
D. the cold on the abdomen
E. at first the cold, then the warm
ANSWER: E
Appendicular infiltrate is treated:
A. only surgical treatment
B. drainage
C. puncture
D. only conservative therapy
E. conservative therapy, then surgery
ANSWER: E
Appendicular infiltrate is treated:
A. by the novocain block
B. surgically
C. by antibiotics
D. by anti-inflammatory medicines
E. conservative therapy
ANSWER: E
Name the clinical phases of appendicitis
A. abdominal, abdominal changes, complications
B. iliac, local changes, peritonitis
C. mesogastric, abdominal changes, peritonitis
D. local, abdominal changes, peritonitis
E. epigastric, local changes, complications
ANSWER: E
Acute appendicitis in the 1st phase is necessary to differentiate from:
A. strangulated hernia
B. intestinal obstruction
C. cholecystitis
D. pancreatitis
E. gastric ulcer
ANSWER: E
The most informing method of instrumental diagnostics of acute appendicitis is:
A. colonoscopy
B. esophagogastroscopy
C. gastroscopy
D. contrasting roentgenoscopy
E. ultrasound examination
ANSWER: E
Characteristic changes in the general blood analysis in appendicitis:
A. white cells neutrophilia with deviation of the differential count to the right
B. neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the right
C. neutrophil eosonophilia with deviation of the differential count to the left
D. neutrophil lymphocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
E. neutrophil leucocytosis with deviation of the differential count to the left
ANSWER: E
Pain during removing of the hand from abdominal wall after its pressing - is:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Rovsing's sign
E. Shchotkin-Blumberg's sign
ANSWER: E
Pain in the right iliac region by pushing of the left - is:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Rovsing's sign
ANSWER: E
Pain during percussion by fingers of anterior abdominal wall - is:
A. Kulenkampf's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Rozdolsky's sign
ANSWER: E
Pain during digital examination of rectum - is:
A. Sitkovsky's sign
B. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Kulenkampf's sign
ANSWER: E
Pain in the right iliac region during palpation of the iliac region on the left side - is:
A. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
B. Voskresensky's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
ANSWER: E
Strengthening of pain in right iliac region on the left side - is:
A. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
B. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
C. Voskresensky's sign
D. Obrastsow's sign
E. Sitkovsky's sign
ANSWER: E
Pain during sliding of hand on abdominal wall - is:
A. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
B. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
C. Obrastsow's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Voskresensky's sign
ANSWER: E
Pain in the iliac region during elevation of the leg - is:
A. Voskresensky's sign
B. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
C. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
D. Sitkovsky's sign
E. Obrastsow's sign
ANSWER: E
Displacement of pain from epigastric region into the iliac– is:
A. Bartomier-Mikhelson's sign
B. Obrastsow's sign
C. Sitkovsky's sign
D. Voskresensky's sign
E. Kocher-Volkovitch's sign
ANSWER: E
Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, perforation are the signs of:
A. dystrophic appendicitis
B. catarrhal appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. phlegmonous appendicitis
E. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
ANSWER: E
Black colour, fibrino-purulent fur, pus in the lumen are the signs of:
A. dystrophic appendicitis
B. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
C. catarrhal appendicitis
D. phlegmonous appendicitis
E. gangrenous appendicitis
ANSWER: E
Hyperemia, fibrino-purulent fur, pus the lumen are the signs of:
A. dystrophic appendicitis
B. gangreno-perforative appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. catarrhal appendicitis
E. phlegmonous appendicitis
ANSWER: E
Hyperaemia, thickening, oedema of appendix are the signs of:
A. dystrophic appendicitis
B. gangreno-perforating appendicitis
C. gangrenous appendicitis
D. phlegmonous appendicitis
E. catarrhal appendicitis
ANSWER: E
Typical complications of the appendicitis are:
A. infiltrate, abscess, osteomyelitis, pilephlebitis
B. abscess, phlegmon, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
C. infiltrate, gangrene, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
D. abscess, phlegmon, paraproctitis, pilephlebitis
E. infiltrate, abscess, peritonitis, pilephlebitis
ANSWER: E
What is the treatment of appendicular infiltrate?
A. Caecostomy
B. Hemicolectomy
C. Appendectomy
D. Draining operation
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: E
What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?
A. Malignization
B. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular bleeding
E. Appendicular abscess
ANSWER: E
What complication is typical for acute appendicitis?
A. Malignization
B. Appendicular-intestinal fistula
C. Acute intestinal obstruction
D. Appendicular bleeding
E. Appendicular infiltrate
ANSWER: E
What does the examination of infant children in acute appendicitis require to use?
A. X-ray with barium swallow
B. Cleaning enema
C. Siphon enema
D. Contrast enema
E. Chloralhydrate enema
ANSWER: E
What clinical picture is typical for appendicitis in children?
A. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
B. Absence of muscular tenderness
C. Absence of dyspeptic manifestation
D. Abdominal distension
E. Clinic of destructive forms of appendicitis and intoxication
ANSWER: E
Where is the pain localized in left-side appendicitis?
A. Right lumbar region
B. Left subcostal region
C. Right iliac region
D. Epigastric region
E. Left iliac region
ANSWER: E
What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
B. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Abdominal distension
E. Painfullness of anterior rectal wall and posterior vaginal vault
ANSWER: E
What manifestation is typical for pelvic appendicitis?
A. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
B. Clinic of acute abdomen
C. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
D. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
E. Absence of muscular tenderness
ANSWER: E
What manifestation is predominant for pelvic appendicitis?
A. Clinic of acute pancreatitis
B. Clinic of acute intestinal obstruction
C. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
D. Clinic of acute abdomen
E. Clinic of irritation of pelvic organs (dysuria, pulling rectal pain, tenesmi)
ANSWER: E
What does the Gabay’s sign mean?
A. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
B. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
E. Blumberg’s sign in Petit triangle
ANSWER: E
What does the Yaure-Rozanov sign mean?
A. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
B. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
C. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
D. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
E. Painfullness during palpation of Petit triangle
ANSWER: E
What does the Pasternatsky’s sign mean?
A. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
E. Tapping of lumbar region cause the pain
ANSWER: E
What sign is typical for retrocaecal appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. Dunphy's sign
B. Sitkovsky’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Kocher’s sign
E. Pasternatsky’s sign
ANSWER: E
What objective manifestations are typical for retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
B. Clinic of retroperitoneal phlegmon
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Abdominal distension
E. Pain and muscular rigidity in a right iliac area during palpation
ANSWER: E
Where is the pain localized in retrocaecal appendicitis?
A. Left subcostal region
B. Left iliac region
C. Epigastric region
D. Right iliac region
E. Right lumbar region
ANSWER: E
Who usually suffer from gangrenous appendicitis?
A. Young men
B. Pregnant women
C. Children
D. Newborns
E. People of old age
ANSWER: E
What signs are typical for gangrenous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. Single nausea and vomiting
B. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
C. Retention of stool or single diarrhea
D. Signs of gas migration
E. Signs of intoxication
ANSWER: E
What does the Rozdolsky’s sign mean?
A. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
E. Painfulness in a right iliac area during percussion
ANSWER: E
What does the Voskresenky's sign mean?
A. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
E. Increase of pain during quick sliding movements by the tips of fingers from
epigastric to right iliac area
ANSWER: E
What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. Dunphy's sign
B. Kocher’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Sitkovsky’s sign
E. Voskresenky's sign
ANSWER: E
What objective manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?
A. Rigidity of anterior abdominal wall
B. Absence of peristalsis
C. Absence of hepatic dullness
D. Abdominal distension
E. Muscular tension in a right iliac area
ANSWER: E
What sign is typical for phlegmonous appendicitis in contrast to simple appendicitis?
A. Dunphy's sign
B. Sitkovsky’s sign
C. Bartomier’s sign
D. Kocher’s sign
E. Blumberg's sign
ANSWER: E
What dyspeptic manifestations are typical for acute appendicitis?
A. Constant diarrhea
B. Absence of peristalsis
C. Vomiting by bile without any relief
D. Constant vomiting and nausea without any relief
E. Single nausea and vomiting
ANSWER: E
Where does the pain irradiate in acute appendicitis?
A. Perineum
B. Right scapular
C. Left iliac region
D. Lumbar region
E. Not irradiate
ANSWER: E
The sign of gas migration is called:
A. Dunphy's sign
B. Bartomier’s sign
C. Sitkovsky’s sign
D. Kocher’s sign
E. Rovsing's sign
ANSWER: E
What does the Sitkovsky’s sign mean?
A. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
D. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
E. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
ANSWER: E
What does the Rovsing's sign mean?
A. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
B. Increased pain with coughing
C. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
D. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
E. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
ANSWER: E
What does the Kocher’s sign mean?
A. Increased pain with coughing
B. The increase of pain intensity during the palpation of right iliac area when the
patient lies on the left side.
C. Increase of pain in a right iliac area when the patient lies on the left side
D. Pain in right lower quadrant during palpation of left lower quadrant
E. Migration of pain to the right iliac area from epigastric
ANSWER: E
Where is the pain localized in acute appendicitis?
A. Right lumbar region
B. Left subcostal region
C. Left iliac region
D. Epigastric region
E. Right iliac region
ANSWER: E
What components is absent in urine at a mechanical jaundice?
A. All are present
B. Bilious acids.
C. Not direct bilirubin.
D. Direct bilirubin.
E. Urobilin.
ANSWER: E
Specify one of symptoms, what not characteristic for hydropsy of gallbladder:
A. Absence of peritoneal symptoms
B. palpable gall-bladder
C. Increase of gall-bladder
D. Pains in right hypohondrium
E. Icterus
ANSWER: E
The reason of development of mechanical jaundice can be all, except
A. Stenosis of duodenal papilla
B. Stricture of the choledochus
C. Stone in proximal part of choledochus
D. Increase of head of pancreas
E. To the stone in the area of neck of gall-bladder
ANSWER: E
For a cholangitis the most characteristic combination of symptoms: 1) icterus 2) fever
3) anaemia 4) leucocytosis 5) peritonitis
A. 2,3,5
B. 2,5
C. 3,4,5
D. 1,2,3
E. 1,2,4
ANSWER: E
What method of examination is most informative for diagnostics of calculus
cholecystitis?
A. ERCP
B. Endoscopy
C. X-Ray
D. Laparoscopy
E. Sonography
ANSWER: E
What method of examination is most informative at the estimation of pathology of
bile ducts?
A. CT
B. Sonography
C. transcutaneus transhepatic cholangiography
D. intravenous cholangiography
E. ERCP
ANSWER: E
What combination of clinical symptoms does explain the syndrome of Curvuasie?
A. an icterus, enlarged liver
B. absence of stool, pain, appearance of formation in abdominal region
C. icterus, local peritoneal phenomena
D. increase of liver, hydro-peritoneum, expansion of veins of front abdominal wall
E. A painless enlarged gall-bladder in combination with icterus
ANSWER: E
What is the most frequent reason of development of mechanical jaundice?
A. Metastases of tumor into the liver
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Cancer of head of pancreas
D. Stricture of extrahepatic bile ducts
E. Choledocholitiasis
ANSWER: E
What indications for surgical treatment of cholecystitis?
A. Dispeptic syndrome
B. presence of pancreatitis
C. Concomitant changes in a liver
D. Anamnesis of disease
E. Presence of stones in the gall-bladder
ANSWER: E
What is the method of treatment of chronic calculus cholecystitis?
A. Conservative therapy
B. Antispastic drugs
C. Lithothripsy
D. Cholecystostomy
E. Cholecystectomy
ANSWER: E
At gallstone disease cholecystectomy is performed:
A. At young persons
B. At old patients
C. At presence of clinical signs of disease
D. At the latent form of disease
E. Always
ANSWER: E
Complication of choledocholitiasis is:
A. Perforative cholecystitis, peritonitis
B. Chronic hepatitis
C. Hydrocholecystitis
D. Empyema of gall-bladder
E. Icterus, cholangitis
ANSWER: E
In the case of gallstone disease urgent operation is indicated:
A. At a hepatic colic
B. At mechanical joundice
C. At oclusion of cystic duct
D. At Cholecysto-pancreatitis
E. At perforative cholecystitis
ANSWER: E
The symptom of Curvuasie is not observed at cancer of:
A. Head of pancreas
B. Duodenal papilla
C. Retroduodenal part of common bile duct
D. Supraduodenal part of choledochus
E. Gall-bladder
ANSWER: E
Gallstone disease is complicated by all of listed, except:
A. Mechanical jaundice
B. Development of destructive cholecystitis
C. Secondary pancreatitis
D. Cancer of gall-bladder
E. Development of cirrhosis of liver
ANSWER: E
A remittent icterus is caused:
A. By the stricture of choledochus
B. Peptic ulcer disease
C. By the stone in cystic duct
D. By the tumor of choledochus
E. By the valve stone of choledochus
ANSWER: E
For acute cholangitis not characteristic:
A. High temperature
B. Leucocytosis
C. Icterus
D. Pain in right hypochondrium
E. Unsteady liquid stool
ANSWER: E
Gallstone disease is not complicated:
A. Cholangitis
B. Fistula
C. By acute cholecystitis
D. By mechanical icterus
E. Intra-abdominal bleeding
ANSWER: E
For acute cholangit is not characteristic:
A. increase of liver
B. leucocytosis with shift of formula to the left
C. icterus
D. increase of temperature
E. decreasing of sizes of liver
ANSWER: E
Intraoperative cholangiography is not indicated:
A. At icterus during the operation
B. At dilatation of choledochus
C. At presence of icterus in anamnesis
D. At tumor of head of pancreas
E. At a single large stone in the common bile duct
ANSWER: E
For clarification of character of icterus and its reason of origin not used:
A. Sonography
B. ERCP
C. transcutaneus transhepatic cholangiography
D. CT
E. intravenous cholecystocholangiography
ANSWER: E
For a mechanical icterus, with choledoholitiasis, not characteristic:
A. absence of stercobilin in stool
B. hypertermy
C. increase of alkaline phosphatase
D. Increasing of direct bilirubin of blood
E. An acute increasing of level of amylase is in plasma
ANSWER: E
For patient with gangrenous cholecystitis it is indicated:
A. Conservative treatment
B. Without operation
C. Tactic depends from age
D. An operation is deferred
E. Urgent operation
ANSWER: E
The diameter of ductus choledochus is :
A. over 2,0 cm
B. 1,6-2,0 cm
C. 1,1-1,5 cm
D. to 0,5 cm
E. 0,6-1,0 cm
ANSWER: E
The basic method ofexamination of acute cholecystitis is:
A. Gastroduodenoscopy
B. Laparoscopy
C. Cholegraphy
D. Endoscopy
E. Sonography of gall-bladder
ANSWER: E
At a acute and chronic cholecystitis contra-indicated drugs:
A. Baralginum
B. Atropinum sulfate
C. Nospanum
D. Omnoponum
E. Morphinum
ANSWER: E
Normal indexes of білірубіну of blood:
A. 60,6-80,5 mmol/l
B. 40,6-60,5 mmol/l
C. 20,6-40,5 mmol/l
D. 0-1,6 mmol/l
E. 1,7-20,5 mmol/l
ANSWER: E
A acute cholecystitis usually begins from:
A. Paine in the left hypohondrium
B. Disorders of chair
C. High temperature
D. Vomiting
E. Paine in the right hypohondrium
ANSWER: E
Complaints of the patient with pseudo-tumorous pancreatitis:
A. Yellow color of the skin
B. Icterus
C. Dispeptic syndrome
D. Pain in the epigastric region
E. All of answers are true
ANSWER: E
At a pseudo-tumorous pancreatitis a basic symptom is:
A. Portal hypertension
B. Suppuration
C. Pseudocysts
D. Paine
E. Intensive mechanical jaundice
ANSWER: E
A liquid in the cysts of pancreas:
A. Milk-white
B. Green
C. Hemorragic
D. Brown grey
E. Transparent or rather yellow
ANSWER: E
Method of instrumental examination of pseudocysts is:
A. Biopsy
B. Endoscopy
C. Colonoscopy
D. Sciagraphy of organs of abdominal cavity
E. Sonography of organs of abdominal cavity
ANSWER: E
An unreal pancreatitis cyst contains:
A. Sinovial liquid
B. Gastric juice
C. Serous liquid
D. Rudiments of teeth, hairs, nails
E. Blood, pancreatitis juice, products of necrosis of pancreas
ANSWER: E
What does the pseudocyst of pancreas behave to?:
A. All of answers are true
B. Symptom of acute pancreatitis
C. Congenital pathology of pancreas
D. Early complication of acute pancreatitis
E. Late complication of acute pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
As a rule, a pseudocyst contains:
A. Water
B. Lymph
C. Pus
D. Bile
E. Pancreatic juice
ANSWER: E
What is the complications of pseudocyst of pancreas:
A. Fistula
B. Bleeding
C. Perforation
D. Suppuration
E. All is true
ANSWER: E
Specify what pathology is reason of development of pseudocyst of pancreas:
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Peptic ulcer
C. Diabetes
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Acute pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
At the complicated pancreatitis conservative therapy indicated for:
A. Decreasing of secretion of stomach
B. Decreasing of secretion of pancreas
C. Treatment of shock
D. Decreasing of pain
E. All listed true
ANSWER: E
Frequency of hepatic insufficiency at complicated acute pancreatitis:
A. In 95 % patients
B. In 2 % patients
C. In 75 % patients
D. In 100 % patients
E. In 25 % patients
ANSWER: E
Fermentativ shock at the complicated pancreatitis more frequent arises up at:
A. Chronic pancreatic fistula
B. Abscess of pancreas
C. To the edema of pancreas
D. Local necrosis of pancreas
E. Subtotal or total necrosis of pancreas
ANSWER: E
Result of hypersecretion of pancreas can be the spasm of sphincter:
A. Heyster
B. Vestfal
C. Mirizzi
D. Lutkins
E. Oddi
ANSWER: E
Complications of acute pancreatitis is not:
A. Omentobursitis
B. Biliary hypertension
C. Fermentativ peritonitis
D. Pylephlebitis
E. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
ANSWER: E
What are complications of acute pancreatitis:
A. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
B. Biliary hypertension
C. Omentobursitis
D. Fermentativ peritonitis
E. All indicated complication
ANSWER: E
Principle of conservative treatment of fistula of pancreas:
A. Conservative treatment is non-effective
B. Improvement of outflow of bile
C. Increase of regeneration
D. Increase of pancreatic secretion
E. Decrease of pancreatic secretion
ANSWER: E
Specify the most dangerous complication of pancreonecrosis:
A. Pseudocyst of pancreas
B. Diabetes
C. Inflamation
D. Fibrosis of pancreas
E. Bleeding
ANSWER: E
Ferment’s peritonitis in patients with acute pancreatitis develops:
A. After 72 hours
B. In 5-6 days
C. In 12-15 hours
D. In 6 hours from the beginning of disease
E. In the period of 24-48 hours
ANSWER: E
The symptoms of intoxication psychosis at the complicated acute pancreatitis is:
A. Visual hallucinations
B. Aggression
C. Apathy
D. Hypodynamia
E. Disorientation
ANSWER: E
Ferment’s peritonitis can arise up in the case of disease of such organs of abdominal
cavity:
A. Stomach
B. Gall-bladder
C. Liver
D. Spleen
E. Pancreas
ANSWER: E
What procedure must be performed at the postnecrotic cysts of pancreas:
A. Omentopancreatopexy
B. Pancreatotomy
C. Necrectomy
D. Pancreatectomy
E. Puncture and external draining of cyst
ANSWER: E
Mostly a intoxication psychosis can arise up at abuse of:
A. Smoking
B. Medicines
C. Drugs
D. Fatty food
E. Alcohol
ANSWER: E
When could be intoxication psychosis at acute pancreatitis?
A. In 2 weeks
B. On the 9-11 days
C. On the 6-8 days
D. On the first day
E. On the 2-3 days
ANSWER: E
At the complicated pancreatitis, bleeding could be from vessels, except:
A. Left gastric artery
B. Gastro-duodenal artery
C. Splenic vein
D. Splenic artery
E. Hepatic artery
ANSWER: E
In case of acute pancreatitis bleeding could be to:
A. Intestine (at internal fistula)
B. Abdominal cavity
C. Wound
D. External fistula
E. At all listed variants
ANSWER: E
The early bleeding at the complicated pancreatitis is stopped by using:
A. Cold on the abdomen
B. Hot-water bottles on the abdomen
C. Rest and cold on the abdomen
D. Operative treatment
E. Ordinary haemostatic drugs
ANSWER: E
What are cysts of pancreas ?:
A. Traumatic
B. Inflammatory
C. After echinococcus
D. Real and unreal
E. All of answers are true
ANSWER: E
The early bleeding at the complicated acute pancreatitis are more frequent:
A. In the first minute
B. During the first hour
C. During the first minute
D. At a few first hours
E. In a few first days
ANSWER: E
Name specific complications of acute pancreatitis in early and late postoperative
periods:
A. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
B. Pseudocyst of pancreas
C. Fistula of pancreas
D. Bleeding
E. All of answers are true
ANSWER: E
After what develops postnecrotic cysts of pancreas?
A. Acute pancreatitis, edematous form
B. Chronic indurative pancreatitis
C. Chronic pseudotumor- pancreatitis
D. Chronic pancreatitis
E. Acute pancreatitis, pancreonecrosis
ANSWER: E
What is local symptoms of retroperitoneal phlegmon at complicated acute
pancreatitis?
A. Hyperemia of tissue
B. Swelling of tissue
C. Tension of lumbar muscles
D. Pain during palpation on the left hypochondrium
E. All of symptoms true
ANSWER: E
Lung complications is includes:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Pulmonary insufficiency
C. Abscess of lights
D. Right-side pleurisies and pneumonias
E. Left-side pleurisies and pneumonias
ANSWER: E
What is the basic methods of diagnostics of postnecrotic cysts:
A. Laparoscopy
B. ERCP
C. Colonoscopy
D. Endoscopy
E. Sonography and CT
ANSWER: E
At lung complication of acute pancreatitis respiratory insufficiency is characterized:
A. By absence of all listed symptoms
B. By a frequent superficial breath
C. Acrocianosis
D. By the short breath
E. By the presence of all listed symptoms
ANSWER: E
Septic complications of acute pancreatitis is indication to:
A. Analgesic treatment
B. Antibiotic treatment
C. Conservative treatment
D. Sonography
E. Operation
ANSWER: E
Specify the best therapy of parapancreatic infiltrate:
A. Operative treatment
B. Antispastic
C. Analgesic treatment
D. Desintoxication
E. Antibiotic
ANSWER: E
What is the best method of examination of pancreatic infiltrate:
A. Sonography
B. X-Ray
C. Biochemical blood test
D. Palpation
E. Sonography
ANSWER: E
What is result of pancreatic infiltrate:
A. Development of pseudocyst
B. Distribution of process with development of peritonitis
C. Formation of capsule
D. Quick disappear
E. Slow (during 1,5-3 month) disappear
ANSWER: E
Forming of pancreatic infiltrate is depended from:
A. Toxic influence
B. Autoimmune inflammation
C. Septic inflammation
D. Allergic reaction
E. Aseptic inflammation
ANSWER: E
What is the reason of late complications of acute pancreatitis?
A. By violation of local blood flow
B. Obstruction of pancreatic ducts
C. Development of aseptic inflammation
D. Enzymes
E. Infection
ANSWER: E
Late complications of acute pancreatitis are:
A. Cysts and fistula of pancreas
B. Abscesses of abdominal cavity
C. Phlegmon retroperitoneal tissue
D. Festering pancreatitis and parapancreatitis
E. All of answers are true
ANSWER: E
What procedure is prescribed for patients with plenty of hemorrhagic exudates with
high ferment activity in the abdominal cavity?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Computer томографії of organs of abdominal cavity
C. X-Ray of organs of abdominal cavity
D. Sonography of organs of abdominal cavity
E. Laparotomy
ANSWER: E
When do patients have late complications of acute pancreatitis?
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. 5-6 days
D. 3-4 days
E. 10-12 days
ANSWER: E
What pathology is characterized by presence of plenty of hemorrhagic exudates with
high ferment activity in the abdominal cavity?
A. Destructive cholecystitis
B. Perforation of ulcer
C. Hepatitis
D. Cirrhosis of liver
E. Pancreonecrosis
ANSWER: E
By localization complications of acute pancreatitis are divided to:
A. Pancreatic
B. Ekstraabdominal
C. Intraabdominal
D. Parapancreatic
E. All of answers are true
ANSWER: E
What is early complications of acute pancreatitis?
A. Shock
B. Jaundice
C. Peritonitis
D. Acute hepatic-renal insufficiency
E. All of answers are true
ANSWER: E
According to time of origin of complications of acute pancreatitis is divided to:
A. All true
B. All false
C. Primary and secondary
D. Urgent and non-urgent
E. Early and late
ANSWER: E
What is complication of acute pancreatitis:
A. Hepatitis
B. Cyst of pancreas
C. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Pylephlebitis
E. Pankreonekrosis
ANSWER: E
Which drug is applied at chronic pancreatitis:
A. Panthenol.
B. Pyracetamum;
C. Pantocrinum;
D. Papaverin;
E. Creon
ANSWER: E
An optimum volume of operation is at a acute biliary pancreatitis:
A. Draining of bed of pancreas.
B. Removing of exudates from abdominal cavity;
C. Pancreatectomy;
D. Encapsulation of pancreas;
E. Draining of bilious ways;
ANSWER: E
Classification of clinical passing of acute pancreatitis:
A. All true
B. Edema, necrosis
C. Easy, middle, heavy
D. Acute, chronic
E. Abortive, progressive
ANSWER: E
Late complications at acute pancreatitis are:
A. Acute ileus
B. Shock
C. Renal insufficiency
D. Peritonitis
E. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
ANSWER: E
Early complication at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Acute ileus
B. Development of diabetes
C. Formation of pseudocysts
D. Phlegmon of retroperitoneal space
E. Peritonitis
ANSWER: E
The third period of acute pancreatitis has the name:
A. A right answer is absent
B. All of answers are true
C. Hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock
D. Functional insufficiency of parenchyma’s organs
E. Degenerative and festering complications
ANSWER: E
The second period of acute pancreatitis has the name:
A. A right answer is absent
B. All of answers are true
C. Degenerative and festering complications
D. Hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock
E. Functional insufficiency of parenchyma’s organs
ANSWER: E
The first period of acute pancreatitis has the name:
A. A right answer is absent
B. All of answers are true
C. Degenerative and festering complications
D. Functional insufficiency of parenchyma’s organs
E. Hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock
ANSWER: E
Which pathology characterized by appearance of pain in left costal-vertebral area
(symptom of Meyo-Robson):
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute ileus
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Peptic ulcer
E. Acute pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
Which pathology characterized by appearance of cyanosis of lateral surfaces of
abdomen (symptom of Turner):
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute ileus
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Peptic ulcer
E. Acute pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
Which pathology characterized by absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta
(Voskresensky symptom):
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute ileus
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Acute pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
Which pathology characterized by violet spots on the skin and body:
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Acute ileus
C. Peptic ulcer
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Acute pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
Specify the norm of diastase:
A. Up to 10
B. Up to 30
C. Up to 20
D. Up to 50
E. Up to 160
ANSWER: E
The most informing method for diagnostics of acute pancreatitis is:
A. Colonoscopy
B. Duodenodcopy
C. Endoscopy
D. ECG
E. Sonography
ANSWER: E
Total pancreonecrosis is characterized by:
A. Increasing of AST
B. Decreasing of activity of diastase
C. Increasing of ALT
D. Decreasing of AST
E. Increasing of activity of diastase
ANSWER: E
What complication of acute pancreatitis?
A. Paranephritis
B. Cyst of pancreas
C. Pylephlebitis
D. Abscess of Duglas space
E. Pancreonecrosis
ANSWER: E
What symptom is typical for a acute pancreatitis?
A. Rovzing symptom
B. Lenander symptom
C. Ker symptom
D. Pasternacky symptom
E. Kulen symptom
ANSWER: E
Clinical signs of acute pancreatitis:
A. Constipation
B. Vomiting by blood
C. Melena
D. Vomiting by „coffee-grounds”
E. There is a pain in the epigastria
ANSWER: E
Irradiation of pain to the back could be in case of:
A. Acute cystitis
B. Gastric ulcers
C. Acute ileus
D. Acute cholecystitis
E. Acute pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
Hormone of pancreas which is responsible for metabolic of fat:
A. Somatotropinum
B. Adrenalin
C. Insulin
D. Glukagon
E. Lipocainum
ANSWER: E
Cells of pancreas, which are makes glucagone:
A. Z-cells
B. Y-cells
C. X-cells
D. W-cells
E. B-cells
ANSWER: E
Cells of pancreas, which are makes insulin:
A. Z-cells
B. Y-cells
C. X-cells
D. W-cells
E. B-cells
ANSWER: E
What hormone of pancreas responsible for metabolism of glucose:
A. Tiroksin
B. Somatotropinum
C. Adrenalin
D. Vasopressinum
E. Insulin
ANSWER: E
The period of degenerative complications has:
A. 2 hours
B. 2 weeks
C. 1-3 days
D. 3-7 days
E. over 7 days
ANSWER: E
The period of functional insufficiency of abdominal organs has:
A. 2 hours
B. 2 weeks
C. over 7 days
D. 1-3 days
E. 3-7 days
ANSWER: E
The period of hemodynamic violations and pancreatic shock has:
A. 2 hours
B. 2 weeks
C. over 7 days
D. 3-7 days
E. 1-3 days
ANSWER: E
Symptom of Meyo-Robson at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Hyper seniti of skin in the projection of gland
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Pain and proof tension of muscles in the epigastria with irradiation to left
hypochondria
D. Absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta
E. Pain in left costal-vertebral area
ANSWER: E
Symptom of Kerte at a acute pancreatitis it:
A. Hyper seniti of skin in the projection of gland
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta
D. Pain in left costal-vertebral area
E. Pain and proof tension of muscles in the epigastria with irradiation to left
hypochondria
ANSWER: E
Symptom of Voskresensky at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Hyper seniti of skin is in the projection of gland
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Pain and tension of muscles in the epigastria
D. Pain in the left costal-vertebral area
E. Absence of pulsation of abdominal aorta
ANSWER: E
Symptom of Bonde at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Cyanosis of hands
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Cyanosis of skin of abdomen
D. Cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen and body
E. Swelling of abdomen only in the epigastric area
ANSWER: E
Symptom of Kulen at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Cyanosis of hands
B. Violet spots are on face and body
C. Cyanosis of skin of abdomen
D. Cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen and body
E. Yellow skin around umbilicus
ANSWER: E
Holsted symptom at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Cyanosis of hands
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Violet spots are on face and body
D. Cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen and body
E. Cyanosis of skin of abdomen
ANSWER: E
Turner symptom at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Cyanosis of hands
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Cyanosis of skin of abdomen
D. Violet spots are on face and body
E. Cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen and body
ANSWER: E
Mondor symptom at acute pancreatitis is:
A. Cyanosis of hands
B. Yellow skin around umbilicus
C. Cyanosis of skin of abdomen
D. Cyanosis of lateral surfaces of abdomen and body
E. Violet spots are on face and body
ANSWER: E
Blood supply of body and tail of pancreas is:
A. Variously
B. A.cystica
C. A.gastrica sinistra
D. A.gastroduodenalis
E. Splenic artery
ANSWER: E
In relation to peritoneum pancreas is located:
A. All of answers are correct
B. All of answers are incorrect
C. Intraperitoneally
D. Mesoperitoneally
E. Retroperitoneally
ANSWER: E
Pancreatectomy is mean:
A. True answer is absent
B. Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue
C. Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
D. Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting
E. Complete removing of pancreas
ANSWER: E
Resection of pancreas is mean:
A. True answer is absent
B. Complete removing of pancreas
C. Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue
D. Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
E. Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting
ANSWER: E
Necrectomy of pancreas is mean:
A. True answer is absent
B. Complete removing of pancreas
C. Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting
D. Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue
E. Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
ANSWER: E
Sekvestrectomy of pancreas is mean:
A. True answer is absent
B. Complete removing of pancreas
C. Removing of part of pancreas with its transversal cutting
D. Removing of necrotic area is within the limits of healthy tissue
E. Removing of necrotic area within the measures of necrotic tissue
ANSWER: E
At the destructive forms of acute pancreatitis all surgical operations are divided on:
A. Not divided
B. With complications, without complications
C. Invasive, non-invasive operations
D. Primary, secondary, repeated operations
E. Early, late, delay operation
ANSWER: E
What is mechanism of Voskresensky symptom at acute pancreatitis:
A. Development of peritonitis
B. Embolism of abdominal aorta
C. Thrombosis of abdominal aorta
D. Reflex-paresis of colon
E. Inflammatory edema of pancreas
ANSWER: E
Specify the most effective treatment of the formed non-complicated cyst:
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. External draining of cyst
C. A resection of cyst
D. Conservative treatment
E. Cystoenteroanastomosis
ANSWER: E
Specify the most effective treatment of the non-formed complicated cyst:
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. Cystoenteroanastomosis
C. A resection of cyst
D. Conservative treatment
E. External draining of cyst
ANSWER: E
What is the most effective treatment of the non-formed non-complicated cyst:
A. Cystogastrostomy
B. Cystoenteroanastomosis
C. A resection of cyst
D. External draining of cyst
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: E
What operation is not performed at pancreatic abscesses and infected necrosis?
A. Draining of abscess
B. Pancreato-necro-sekvestrectomy with laparostomy
C. Pancreato-sekvestrectomy
D. Pancreato-necro-sekvestrectomy
E. Total pancreatectomy
ANSWER: E
In the case of surgical treatment of the complicated acute pancreatitis does not used:
A. Right-side resection of gland
B. Left-side resection of gland
C. Omentopancreatopexy
D. Abdominisation of pancreas
E. Pankreatojejunostomy
ANSWER: E
Specify indication to early operative treatment at acute pancreatitis:
A. Forming of pseudocyst
B. Acute fatty pancreatitis
C. Acute edematous pancreatitis
D. Acute pancreatolysis
E. Acute traumatic pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
Specify indication to early operative treatment at acute pancreatitis:
A. Forming of pseudocyst
B. Acute fatty pancreatitis
C. Acute oedematous pancreatitis
D. Acute pancreatolysis
E. Acute biliary pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
What drugs from cytostatic group is used in acute pancreatitis:
A. Mezimforte
B. Baralgin
C. Creon
D. Motilium
E. 5-ftoruracyl
ANSWER: E
What operation is performed at localization of the formed pseudocyst in the tail of
pancreas:
A. Cistoenteroanastomosis
B. Cistoenterostomy
C. Conservative treatment
D. External draining of cyst
E. Resection of tail of pancreas
ANSWER: E
What operation is performed at the pseudocyst of pancreas in III stage usually:
A. Conservative treatment
B. Cistoduodenostomy
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. External draining of cyst
E. Cistoenterostomy
ANSWER: E
In case of purulent inflammation of the pseudocysts of pancreas is used:
A. Cystoenteroanastomosis
B. Cystoduodenostomy
C. Cystogastrostomy
D. Cystoenterostomy
E. External draining of cyst
ANSWER: E
What is not inhibitors of protease:
A. Pantripin
B. Trasilol
C. Gordoxum
D. Kontrikal
E. Tebris
ANSWER: E
What drug is used at chronic pancreatitis with violation of the external function of
pancreas?
A. Panthenol
B. Pyracetamum
C. Pantocrinum
D. Papaverin
E. Panzinorm
ANSWER: E
What is the inhibitors of protease:
A. Trypsinum
B. Tocopherolum
C. Loroxon
D. Tebris
E. Trasilol
ANSWER: E
What is the inhibitors of protease:
A. Gramicidine
B. Loroxon
C. Garamycine
D. Motilium
E. Gordox
ANSWER: E
Endoscopic papillosphincterotomy is indicated at such disease, as:
A. Mechanical jaundice
B. Hepatitis
C. Postcholecystectomy syndrome
D. Peptic ulcer
E. Stenosis of supraduodenal part of choledohus
ANSWER: E
Vomiting by „coffee-grounds” at acute pancreatitis is predefined:
A. By presence of enzymes in blood
B. By violation of microcirculation
C. By the presence of concomitant gastric ulcer
D. By the presence of concomitant gastritis
E. By formation of erosions in a stomach
ANSWER: E
What place does occupy an acute pancreatitis among acute surgical diseases?
A. It is most widespread
B. Second place
C. Fifth place
D. First place
E. Third place
ANSWER: E
The best time of operative treatment at acute pancreatitis after beginning of disease
is:
A. 7-8 days
B. 3-4 days
C. 4-5 days
D. 1-3 days
E. Surgical treatment is not indicated
ANSWER: E
The principle of operation at acute biliary pancreatitis:
A. Draining of parapancreatic tissue
B. Removing of fluid from abdominal cavity
C. Pancreatectomy
D. Decapsulation of pancreas
E. Draining of bile ducts
ANSWER: E
What is the best resort which is used for pathology of pancreas?
A. Nemirov
B. Truskavets
C. Kuyal'nik
D. P'yatigorsk
E. Morshin
ANSWER: E
A primary purpose of treatment of patients with fatty pancreonecrosis before
operation is:
A. Improvement of microcirculation
B. Decrease of secretion of pancreas
C. Decrease of secretion of stomach
D. Analgesia
E. Desintoxication of organism
ANSWER: E
What is conservative treatment before operation in patients with severe form of
hemorragic pancreonecrosis:
A. Improvement of microcirculation
B. Decrease of secretion of pancreas
C. Decrease of secretion of stomach
D. Analgesia
E. Desintoxication of organism
ANSWER: E
How often pancreatic part of common bile duct pass through the head of pancreas?
A. 40-50 %
B. 30-40 %
C. 25-35 %
D. 10-20 %
E. 80-90 %
ANSWER: E
The most frequent complication after ERCP is:
A. Chronic hepatitis
B. Reactive cholecystitis
C. Pancreatic sepsis
D. Cholangitis
E. Pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
If patient has frequent „fatty stool” with undigested meat, it could be:
A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Ulcerous disease of duodenum
C. Chronic hepatitis
D. Chronic duodenitis
E. Chronic pancreatitis
ANSWER: E
What operation is indicated at the edematous form of acute pancreatitis:
A. Marsupilisation
B. Abdominisation of pancreas
C. Omentopancreatopexy
D. Pancreatectomy
E. Operation is not needed
ANSWER: E
Main reason of acute pancreatitis is:
A. Achalasia
B. Chronic alcoholic pancreatitis
C. Alimentary factor
D. Trauma of pancreas
E. Gallstone disease
ANSWER: E
Early complication of acute pancreatitis is not:
A. True answer is absent
B. Enzymes peritonitis
C. Collapse
D. Pancreatic shock
E. Fistula of pancreas
ANSWER: E
What is included in conservative treatment of acute pancreatitis?
A. Morning exercises
B. High caloric diet
C. A diet by Pevzner N15
D. A diet by Pevzner N5
E. Hunger
ANSWER: E
What is the basic method of treatment of acute pancreatitis:
A. Diet
B. Physical therapy
C. Homeopathic
D. Surgical
E. Conservative
ANSWER: E
At acute pancreatitis with heavy motion a patient must be treated in:
A. True answer is absent
B. All of answers are true
C. Home
D. Surgical department
E. Department of intensive therapy
ANSWER: E
Aberrant goiter is:
A. The goiter of additional gland
B. Dislocation of the goiter
C. The goiter with increased function
D. The goiter with decreased function
E. The goiter with normal function
ANSWER: A
Among the typical complication of a postoperative period for thyrotoxicosis is:
A. Asphyxia
B. Cretinism
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
Basedow's disease is:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Wooden thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
E. Mixedema
ANSWER: A
Diffuse goiter with hyperthyroidism is called:
A. Grave's disease
B. Hashimoto disease
C. De Kerven disease
D. Riedel's disease
E. Raynaud's disease
ANSWER: A
Ectopic goiter is:
A. Dislocation of the goiter
B. The goiter of additional gland
C. The goiter with increased function
D. The goiter with decreased function
E. The goiter with normal function
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of retrosternal is typical:
A. Dyspnea
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of the damage of laryngeal nerve is typical:
A. Hoarseness
B. Diarrhea
C. Cramps
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of the parathyroid tetany is typical:
A. Cramps
B. Aphonia
C. Diarrhea
D. Fever to 40°С
E. Anemia
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of thyroid storm is typical:
A. Excitement, up to psychosis and coma
B. Hoarseness
C. Cramps
D. Aphonia
E. Anemia
ANSWER: A
For the laboratory disturbances of thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. Increased level of lipid metabolism
B. Decreased level of carbohydrate metabolism
C. Decreased level of lipid metabolism
D. Decreased level of protein metabolism
E. Decreased level of all kinds of metabolism
ANSWER: A
For the thyrotoxicosis is typical:
A. Mebius' sign
B. Homan's sign
C. Lovenberg's sign
D. Mondor's sign
E. Murphy's sign
ANSWER: A
Goiter which localized on the back of the tongue is called:
A. Ectopic goiter
B. Aberrant goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
ANSWER: A
Grave's disease is:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Wooden thyroiditis
C. Purulent thyroiditis
D. Autoimmune thyroiditis
E. Mixedema
ANSWER: A
How is the sign, which is characterized by the upper lid lag when the patient looks
downward named by author?
A. Graefe's sign
B. Mebius' sign
C. Stellwag's sign
D. Dalrymple's sign
E. Kocher's sign
ANSWER: A
In case of euthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. Neck deformity
B. Sleepiness
C. Hypomnesia
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
ANSWER: A
In case of hyperthyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. Excessive sweating
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
ANSWER: A
In case of hypothyroid goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. Sleepiness
B. Difficult breathing
C. Neck deformity
D. Excessive sweating
E. Tremor of arms
ANSWER: A
In case of thyrotoxicosis goiter the patient mainly complains of:
A. Excessive sweating
B. Leg edemas
C. Hypomnesia
D. Neck deformity
E. Constipation
ANSWER: A
Intrathoracic localization of goiter is called:
A. Ectopic goiter
B. Aberrant goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
ANSWER: A
The "woody" goiter is a:
A. Riedel's goiter
B. Hashimoto's goiter
C. De Kerven thyroiditis
D. Grave's disease
E. Basedow's disease
ANSWER: A
The Dalrymple's sign is:
A. Wide palpebral fissure
B. Infrequent winking
C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
D. A weakness of convergence
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
ANSWER: A
The development of aphonia in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. The damage of laryngeal nerve
B. Thyroid storm
C. Parathyroid tetany
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The development of complete arrhythmia in early postoperative period after thyroid
surgery is the manifestation of:
A. Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The development of cramps in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the
manifestation of:
A. Parathyroid tetany
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Thyroid storm
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The development of excitement, up to psychosis and coma in early postoperative
period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Air embolism
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The development of fever to 40°С in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery
is the manifestation of:
A. Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The development of hoarseness in early postoperative period after thyroid surgery is
the manifestation of:
A. The damage of laryngeal nerve
B. Thyroid storm
C. Parathyroid tetany
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The development of hyperemia of the face, neck, limbs in early postoperative period
after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Lerishe's syndrome
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The development of tachycardia (pulse rate – 150-200 per minute) in early
postoperative period after thyroid surgery is the manifestation of:
A. Thyroid storm
B. The damage of laryngeal nerve
C. Parathyroid tetany
D. Adrenal insufficiency
E. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: A
The difficult breathing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Euthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Esophageal achalasia
E. Gastric ulcer
ANSWER: A
The difficult swallowing is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Euthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Empyema
ANSWER: A
The dry skin is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The edemas is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The excessive sweating is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The exophthalmos is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The feeling of fever is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The general weakness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The goiter of additional gland is called:
A. Aberrant goiter
B. Ectopic goiter
C. Typical
D. Presternal
E. Retrosternal
ANSWER: A
The Graefe's sign is:
A. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
B. Infrequent winking
C. A weakness of convergence
D. Wide palpebral fissure
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
ANSWER: A
The heartbeat is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The hypomnesia is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The irritability is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The Kocher's sign is typical for:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The Kocher's sign is:
A. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
B. Wide palpebral fissure
C. Infrequent winking
D. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
E. A weakness of convergence
ANSWER: A
The loss of weight is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hyperthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroid goiter
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The main feature of the disease of Mintz is:
A. Increasing sensitivity of an areola
B. Deviation of nipple
C. Loosened nipple
D. Bloody nipple
E. Nipple of green-brown color
ANSWER: D
The malaise is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The Mebius' sign is typical for:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The Mebius' sign is:
A. A weakness of convergence
B. Infrequent winking
C. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
D. Wide palpebral fissure
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
ANSWER: A
The neck deformity is a clinical manifestation plaint of the patient with:
A. Euthyroid goiter
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Esophageal achalasia
E. Empyema
ANSWER: A
The palpitation is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The sleepiness is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Hypothyroid goiter
B. Euthyroid goiter
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The Stellwag's sign is typical for:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The Stellwag's sign is:
A. Infrequent winking
B. The upper lid lag when the patient looks downward
C. A weakness of convergence
D. Wide palpebral fissure
E. Retraction of the upper eyelid at prompt change of view
ANSWER: A
The subtotal subfascial resection of the thyroid gland is indicated for:
A. Severe forms of thyrotoxicosis
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Goiter with hypothyroidism
ANSWER: A
The tremor is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The tremor of arms is a clinical manifestation of the patient with:
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Mixedema
C. Euthyroid goiter
D. Gastric ulcer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
What appears in Paget disease?
A. Bilateral lesions of areoles
B. Rapid cancer progression
C. Raising the temperature
D. Erosion of nipple and areola
E. Massive hematogenous metastasis
ANSWER: D
What are the anatomical structures to be removed during the Patey mastectomy?
A. Breast, major and minor pectoral muscles, axillary, subclavian and subscapular
lymph nodes
B. Breast, minor pectoral muscle, axillary, subclavian and subscapular lymph nodes
C. Quadrant breast resection, axillary, subclavian and subscapular lymph nodes
D. Breast, pectoral fascia and parasternal lymph nodes
E. Breast segment with tumor and axillary lymph nodes
ANSWER: B
What are the anatomical structures to be removed during the Halsted mastectomy?
A. Breast, minor and major pectoral muscles, axillary, subclavian, subscapular lymph
nodes
B. Breast, the minor pectoral muscle, axillary, subclavian, subscapular lymph nodes
C. Quadrant mastectomy, axillary, subclavian,subscapular lymph nodes
D. Breast, pectoral fascia and parasternal lymph nodes
E. Breast segment with tumor and axillary lymph nodes
ANSWER: A
What belongs to the I stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
E. Asymptomatic course
ANSWER: A
What belongs to the II stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
B. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
C. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
E. Asymptomatic course
ANSWER: A
What belongs to the III stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
B. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
C. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
D. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
E. Asymptomatic course
ANSWER: A
What belongs to the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Nonreversible dystrophy of organs and systems
B. Thyrotoxic lesion of viscera
C. Marked sings of thyrotoxicosis, the thyroid is noticeably enlarged in size
D. Onset of thyrotoxicosis, slight enlargement of thyroid gland
E. Asymptomatic course
ANSWER: A
What clinical form of breast cancer does not exist?
A. Preclinical
B. Toxic
C. Nodular
D. Inflammatory
E. Paget cancer
ANSWER: B
What clinical signs of early breast cancer:
A. Pain before the days of menstruation
B. Ulcer of the breast
C. Discharge from the nipple
D. Presence a node less than 2 cm in breast
E. Erythema of the breast
ANSWER: D
What drugs are not used for hormonotherapy in premenopausal women with breast
cancer?
A. Androgen
B. Estrogen
C. Antiestrogens
D. Aromatizing inhibitors
E. Corticosteroid
ANSWER: B
What drugs do not use in hormonal therapy of breast cancer?
A. Androgens
B. Estrogens
C. Progesterones
D. Corticosteroid
E. Mineralocorticoid
ANSWER: B
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a mild?
A. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
B. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 %
E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 %
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as a moderate?
A. Increase of basal metabolism on 30-50 %
B. Increase of basal metabolism to 30 %
C. Increase of basal metabolism more than 50 %
D. Decrease of basal metabolism to 30 %
E. Decrease of basal metabolism more than 50 %
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is classified as severe?
A. Pulse rate more than 120 beat/min
B. Pulse rate less than 40 beat/min
C. Pulse rate 40-80 beat/min
D. Pulse rate 80-100 beat/min
E. Pulse rate 100-120 beat/min
ANSWER: A
What is the 0 degree of goiter?
A. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
B. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism more
than 50 %?
A. Severe
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism on 30-50
%?
A. Moderate
B. Mild
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the increase of basal metabolism to 30 %?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight 5-10 kg?
A. Moderate
B. Mild
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight less than 3-5 kg?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What form of thyrotoxicosis is related with the loss weight more than 10 kg?
A. Severe
B. Moderate
C. Mild
D. Subclinic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What group of medicines does Mercasolil belong to?
A. Thyrostatic agents
B. Antibiotics
C. Anticoagulants
D. Antiaggregants
E. Vitamines
ANSWER: A
What is the best option for breast cancer T1N0M0?
A. Hemiresection with axillary lymphadenectomy
B. Segmental resection with axillary lymphadenectomy
C. Patey mastectomy
D. Halsted mastectomy
E. Madden’s mastectomy
ANSWER: B
What is the best option for breast cancer T3N1M0?
A. Hemiresection with axillary lymphadenectomy
B. Quadrantectomy with axillary lymphadenectomy
C. Patey mastectomy
D. Halsted mastectomy
E. Madden’s mastectomy
ANSWER: C
What is the cause of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Autoimmune disturbances
B. Atherosclerotic changes
C. Calcium metabolism disturbances
D. Renal insufficiency
E. Pulmonary emphysema
ANSWER: A
What is the clinical symptom typical for diffuse mastopathy?
A. Bloody nipple
B. Green nipple
C. Asymmetry of breasts
D. Painful breasts before menstruation
E. Microcracks on areola
ANSWER: D
What is the contributing factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. Excessive calcium, deficiency of bromine in environment
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Suprarenal insufficiency
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Lack of vitamin C
ANSWER: A
What is the degree of goiter when entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and
could be palpated?
A. I
B. II
C. V
D. III
E. IV
ANSWER: A
What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement of gland results in evident
thickening of neck ("a thick neck")?
A. III
B. I
C. V
D. II
E. IV
ANSWER: A
What is the degree of goiter when the enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of
major sizes)?
A. V
B. IV
C. III
D. I
E. II
ANSWER: A
What is the degree of goiter when the gland considerably enlarged, and sharply
deforms neck?
A. IV
B. III
C. I
D. V
E. II
ANSWER: A
What is the degree of goiter when the isthmus of the gland is noticeable during
swallowing and could be palpated?
A. I
B. V
C. II
D. III
E. IV
ANSWER: A
What is the degree of goiter when the thyroid gland is not palpated?
A. 0
B. II
C. I
D. III
E. IV
ANSWER: A
?What is the endemic goiter characterized by?
A. Goiter which occurs in biogeochemical regions with iodine deficiency in
environment
B. Goiter which occurs in unendemic regions
C. Goiter lesion of both lobes
D. Goiter of atypical localization
E. Goiter with changed function
ANSWER: A
What is the I degree of goiter?
A. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
B. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
C. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck
ANSWER: A
What is the I stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Neurotic
B. Neurohormonal
C. Visceropathic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What is the II degree of goiter?
A. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
B. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck
ANSWER: A
What is the II stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Neurohormonal
B. Neurotic
C. Visceropathic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What is the III degree of goiter?
A. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck");
B. The thyroid gland is not palpated;
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
E. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck
ANSWER: A
What is the III stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Visceropathic
B. Neurohormonal
C. Neurotic
D. Cachectic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
?What is the incidence of breast cancer in Ukraine?
A. 11-20 cases per 100 thousand of female population
B. 21-40 cases per 100 thousand of female population
C. 41-50 cases per 100 thousand of female population
D. 51-60 cases per 100 thousand of female population
E. 61-70 cases per 100 thousand of female population
ANSWER: E
What is the indication for the conservative treatment of the goiter?
A. The goiter of II degree
B. The retrosternal ectopy of thyroid gland
C. The aberrant goiter
D. The goiter of IV degree
E. The goiter with secondary hyperthyroidism
ANSWER: A
What is the indication for the operative treatment of the goiter?
A. Nodular goiter
B. The goiter of 0 degree
C. The goiter of I degree
D. The goiter of II degree
E. Uncomplicated hypothyroid goiter
ANSWER: A
What is the IV degree of goiter?
A. The gland considerably enlarged, and sharply deforms neck;
B. The enlargement reaches excessive size (goiter of major sizes)
C. The isthmus of the gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
D. Entire gland is noticeable during swallowing and could be palpated;
E. The enlargement of gland results in evident thickening of neck ("a thick neck")
ANSWER: A
What is the IV stage of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Cachectic
B. Visceropathic
C. Neurohormonal
D. Neurotic
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What is the main treatment of noncomplicated goiter?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Hemithyroidectomy
ANSWER: A
What is the most informative in the diagnostic of thyrotoxicosis?
A. Serum thyroidstimulating antibodies
B. General blood analysis
C. X-ray examination with barium
D. Coagulogram
E. X-ray examination of the neck
ANSWER: A
What is the predominant factor which causes the goiter?
A. Lack of iodine
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Suprarenal insufficiency
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Lack of vitamin C
ANSWER: A
What is the primary method of diagnosis the breast cancer?
A. Blood analysis
B. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
C. Radioisotope examination
D. Thermography
E. Breast ultrasound
ANSWER: B
What is the treatment of breast cancer in the third stage?
A. Surgical
B. Radiation therapy
C. Hormonal therapy
D. Combined treatment
E. Complex treatment
ANSWER: E
What is the treatment of diffuse (inflammatory) breast cancer?
A. Conservative (radiotherapy, chemotherapy and hormonal therapy)
B. Surgical
C. Immunotherapy
D. Radiation + Surgery
E. Surgical + chemotherapy
ANSWER: A
What kind of operation used in the treatment of diffuse forms of breast cancer?
A. Patey’s mastectomy
B. Halsted’s mastectomy
C. Partial mastectomy
D. Ovariectomy
E. Madden’s mastectomy
ANSWER: D
What kind of treatment of breast cancer is combined?
A. The use of surgical treatment with radiation
B. The use of radiation and operational methods of hormonal correction
C. Surgical treatment, plus symptomatic therapy
D. The use of multiple chemotherapy drugs
E. Surgical treatment in combination with therapy of related diseases
ANSWER: A
What kind of X-ray technique used for diagnosis of the Mints disease?
A. Mammography
B. Pneumocystography
C. Ductography
D. Pneumomammography
E. Electro-roentgenography
ANSWER: C
What medicines are used for the treatment of goiter?
A. Triiodothyronine
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
ANSWER: A
What medicines belong to thyrostatic agents?
A. Mercasolil
B. Euphyllin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Nicotine acid
E. Detrlex
ANSWER: A
What method of treatment of intraductal breast papilloma?
A. Surgical
B. Conservative
C. Radiation therapy
D. Immunotherapy
E. Chemotherapy
ANSWER: A
What operation is performed in endemic goiter?
A. Subfascial resection of thyroid gland
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Thyroidectomy
E. Hemithyroidectomy
ANSWER: A
What pathogenetic form of breast cancer does not exist?
A. Mastitis type
B. Hypothyroid
C. Ovarian
D. Adrenal
E. Involution
ANSWER: B
What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the marked sings of thyrotoxicosis and
noticeably enlarged thyroid?
A. II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. 0
ANSWER: A
What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the onset of the disease, slight
enlargement of thyroid gland?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. 0
ANSWER: A
What stage of thyrotoxicosis correlates with the thyrotoxic lesion of viscera?
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. 0
ANSWER: A
What treatment in breast fibroadenoma?
A. Hormone replacement
B. Surgery
C. Radiation therapy
D. Immunotherapy
E. Chemotherapy
ANSWER: B
What type of cancer cells is present in breast nipple?
A. Sternberg cells
B. Langerhans cells
C. Paget cells
D. Hodgkin's cells
E. Spindle cell
ANSWER: C
Where more often is localized nodular forms of breast cancer?
A. Upper-inner quadrant
B. Upper-outer quadrant
C. Lower-inner quadrant
D. Nipple and areola
E. Lower- outer quadrant
ANSWER: B
Which method of treatment is not used for breast cancer?
A. Surgical
B. Radiation therapy
C. Enzymotherapy
D. Chemotherapy
E. Hormonal therapy
ANSWER: C
Which of the clinical forms of breast cancer does not belong to diffuse?
A. Infiltrative-edematous
B. Armor type
C. Mastitis type
D. Erysipeloid type
E. Paget disease
ANSWER: B
Which of these diagnostics procedures of breast is not an X-ray method?
A. Mammography
B. Sonography
C. Pneumocystography
D. Ductography
E. Pneumomammography
ANSWER: B
Cardiodilatation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Cardiodilatation is used for the treatment of:
A. Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
ANSWER: A
Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation with absent peristalsis relates
to such stage of achalasia:
A. III
B. I
C. II
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation relates to such stage of
achalasia:
A. IV
B. I
C. II
D. III
E. V
ANSWER: A
Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
relates to such stage of achalasia:
A. II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Diet, conservative treatment is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis beyond the lobe without the tendency to defined
demarcation is called:
A. Lung gangrene
B. Lung gangrenous abscess
C. Lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia
E. Bronchoectatic disease
ANSWER: A
Disturbances of liquid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Disturbances of semisolid food passage relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. II
B. I
C. III
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Esophagogastroanastomosis is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
ANSWER: A
Esophagogastroanastomosis is used for the treatment of:
A. Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
ANSWER: A
Esophagogastroanastomosis is:
A. Helerovsky's operation
B. Heller's operation
C. Bilroth's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
ANSWER: A
Esophagomyotomy is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Esophagomyotomy is:
A. Heller's operation
B. Helerovsky's operation
C. Bilroth's operation
D. Cocher's operation
E. Lerishe's operation
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal achalasia is typical:
A. Dysphagia
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of esophageal diverticulum is typical:
A. Compressible mass in the neck
B. Dyspnea
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Retention of stool and gases
E. Vomiting by "coffee masses"
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of lung abscess is typical:
A. Chest pain
B. Abdominal pain
C. Paralysis of intercostal nerve
D. Edema of legs
E. Dilated cervical veins
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of pleural empyema is typical:
A. Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
ANSWER: A
For the clinical manifestation of pyopneumothorax is typical:
A. Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Regurgitation
D. Dysphagia
E. Dilated cervical veins
ANSWER: A
The pulmonary hemorrhage less than 300 ml is classified as:
A. I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The severe intoxication is typical for:
A. Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The pulmonary hemorrhage more than 700 ml is classified as:
A. III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The pulmonary hemorrhage within 500-700 ml is classified as:
A. II degree
B. I degree
C. 0 degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The rapid (more than 100-120 beats/min), small, thread pulse is characteristic for
such degree of pulmonary bleeding:
A. III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The restricted thoracic excursion with severe chest pain are typical for the:
A. Paracostal empyema
B. Apical empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
ANSWER: A
The rounded cavity with air-fluid level on X-ray is typical for:
A. II stage of acute lung abscess
B. I stage of acute lung abscess
C. III stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
The rounded shadow with irregular contour on X-ray is typical for:
A. I stage of acute lung abscess
B. II stage of acute lung abscess
C. III stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
The site of cardia is:
A. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
ANSWER: A
The site of crossing with aorta is:
A. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
ANSWER: A
The site of crossing with left bronchus is:
A. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
ANSWER: A
The site of passing through diaphragm is:
A. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
ANSWER: A
The site of pharyngoesophageal junction is:
A. The first anatomical narrowing of esophagus
B. The second anatomical narrowing of esophagus
C. The third anatomical narrowing of esophagus
D. The first physiological narrowing of esophagus
E. The second physiological narrowing of esophagus
ANSWER: A
The small hemothorax means:
A. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
ANSWER: A
The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs relates
to such degree of esophageal burns:
A. IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
ANSWER: A
The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs relates
to such degree of esophageal burns:
A. IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
ANSWER: A
The swelled soft tissues of supraclavicular region are typical for the:
A. Apical empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Paramediastinal empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
ANSWER: A
The tachycardia to 100 beats/min is characteristic for such degree of pulmonary
bleeding:
A. II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The total hemothorax means:
A. Loss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss of 20-30 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss of 30-40 % of volume of circulating blood
ANSWER: A
The troubling cough with foul-smelling sputum is typical for:
A. Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
What acute complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. Pulmonary bleeding
B. Emphysema
C. Rib fracture
D. Malignancy
E. Esophageal bleeding
ANSWER: A
What can bifurcational diverticula result in?
A. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
E. Coarctation of aorta
ANSWER: A
What can bifurcational diverticula result in?
A. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
E. Coarctation of aorta
ANSWER: A
What complication is characteristic for lung abscess?
A. Pleural empyema
B. Esophageal bleeding
C. Rib fracture
D. Emphysema
E. Malignancy
ANSWER: A
What complication is typical for acute stage of esophageal burn?
A. Shock
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
ANSWER: A
What complication is typical for esophageal burn?
A. Gastrointestinal bleeding
B. Esophageal diverticulum
C. Obstructive jaundice
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Lerishe's syndrome
ANSWER: A
What complication is typical for esophageal diverticula?
A. Diverticulitis
B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Lung atelectasis
ANSWER: A
What disease doesn't result in pulmonary bleeding?
A. Pleurisy
B. Lung gangrene and abscess
C. Lung cancer
D. Tuberculosis
E. Bronchiectatic disease
ANSWER: A
What disease should be the diverticulitis differentiated from?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
ANSWER: A
What disease should be the diverticulitis differentiated from?
A. Angina pectoris
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
ANSWER: A
Functional spasm without esophageal dilation relates to such stage of achalasia:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
Helerovsky's operation is indicated for such stage of achalasia:
A. IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
ANSWER: A
Helerovsky's operation is used for the treatment of:
A. Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal ulcer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
ANSWER: A
Helerovsky's operation is:
A. Esophagogastroanastomosis
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Resection of the stomach
D. Cardiodilatation
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
ANSWER: A
Heller's operation is used for the treatment of:
A. Esophageal achalasia
B. Esophageal cancer
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
ANSWER: A
Heller's operation is:
A. Esophagomyotomy
B. Resection of the stomach
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
ANSWER: A
Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue on X-ray is typical for:
A. Lung cyst
B. Tuberculoma
C. Peripheral lung cancer
D. Tubercular cavern
E. Lung emphysema
ANSWER: A
How long has been the risk of esophageal bleeding after the burn?
A. 1-2 months
B. 2-3 days
C. 10-20 days
D. 1-2 years
E. 2 years and more
ANSWER: A
How long is formed the esophageal stricture after the burn?
A. 1-2 years
B. 2-3 days
C. 10-20 days
D. 1-2 months
E. 2 years and more
ANSWER: A
Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs are called:
A. Abscessing pneumonia
B. Lung abscess
C. Lung gangrenous abscess
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
ANSWER: A
No passage of any food relates to such stage of dysphagia:
A. IV
B. III
C. II
D. I
E. V
ANSWER: A
One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath on X-ray is typical for:
A. Chronic lung abscess
B. Lung gangrene
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
Partial pneumothorax means:
A. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
E. Total collapse of lung
ANSWER: A
Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of cavity,
filled by pus is called:
A. Lung abscess
B. Abscessing pneumonia
C. Lung gangrenous abscess
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
ANSWER: A
Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from adjacent
pulmonary parenchyma is called:
A. Lung gangrenous abscess
B. Lung abscess
C. Abscessing pneumonia
D. Lung gangrene
E. Bronchoectatic disease
ANSWER: A
Subtotal pneumothorax means:
A. Collapse of lung to 2/3 of its volume
B. No collapse of lung
C. Collapse of lung to 1/3 of its volume
D. Collapse of lung more than 2/3 of its volume
E. Total collapse of lung
ANSWER: A
Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus relates to such
degree of esophageal burns:
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
The chest pain is typical for:
A. Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
The absence of breathing sounds by auscultation is typical for:
A. Pleural empyema
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Pneumonia
ANSWER: A
The amount of hemoglobin less than 50-60 g/l is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The amount of hemoglobin within 60-80 g/l is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The bandbox sound by percussion is typical for:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Lung gangrene
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleural empyema
E. Lung abscess
ANSWER: A
The bloodloss more than 40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. Total hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Small hemothorax
D. Great hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
ANSWER: A
The bloodloss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. Moderate hemothorax
B. Small hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
ANSWER: A
The bloodloss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. Great hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Small hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
ANSWER: A
The bloodloss to 10 % of volume of circulating blood relates to:
A. Small hemothorax
B. Moderate hemothorax
C. Great hemothorax
D. Total hemothorax
E. Coagulated hemothorax
ANSWER: A
The blunted sound by percussion is typical for:
A. Pleural empyema
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pneumothorax
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
The burn damage of all layers of esophagus relates to such degree of esophageal
burns:
A. III
B. II
C. I
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by different kinds of
complications regards to the:
A. Complicated course
B. Incapsulated process
C. Progressing course
D. Non-progressive course
E. Favorable course
ANSWER: A
The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by prompt positive
clinical, roentgenological and laboratory dynamics and recovery after the adequate
treatment regards to the:
A. Favorable course
B. Non-progressive course
C. Progressing course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
ANSWER: A
The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by the partial or
complete obstruction of the draining bronchus combined with satisfactory resistance
of the organism regards to the:
A. Incapsulated process
B. Progressing course
C. Non-progressive course
D. Favorable course
E. Complicated course
ANSWER: A
The clinical dynamics of lung abscess which is characterized by transforming of the
process into the chronic form due to poor drainage of the suppurative focus and
permanent purulent intoxication regards to the:
A. Non-progressive course
B. Favorable course
C. Progressing course
D. Incapsulated process
E. Complicated course
ANSWER: A
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax from 1/3 to 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. Subtotal pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
ANSWER: A
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax less than 1/3 of its volume is called:
A. Partial pneumothorax
B. Subtotal pneumothorax
C. Total pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
ANSWER: A
The collapse of lung in pneumothorax more than 2/3 of its volume is called:
A. Total pneumothorax
B. Partial pneumothorax
C. Subtotal pneumothorax
D. Bilateral pneumothorax
E. Paradoxal pneumothorax
ANSWER: A
The coughing out of the blooddy sputum without hemodynamic disturbances are
characteristic for such degree of pulmonary bleeding:
A. I degree
B. III degree
C. II degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The decrease of arterial pressure on 20-30 mm Hg is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. II degree
B. I degree
C. III degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The decrease of arterial pressure to 40-60 mm Hg is characteristic for such degree of
pulmonary bleeding:
A. III degree
B. II degree
C. I degree
D. 0 degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The dysphagia is typical for:
A. Acute mediastinitis
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
The dyspnea is typical for:
A. Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax is called:
A. Achalasia
B. Chalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
ANSWER: A
The failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax is called:
A. Achalasia
B. Chalasia
C. Esophageal diverticulum
D. Pilorostenosis
E. Intestinal obstruction
ANSWER: A
The fever to 39-40°С is typical for:
A. Acute mediastinitis
B. Sliding diaphragmatic hernia
C. Esophageal achalasia
D. Esophageal cancer
E. Esophageal diverticulum
ANSWER: A
The great hemothorax means:
A. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
ANSWER: A
The heart pain is typical for the:
A. Paramediastinal empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
ANSWER: A
The intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities with sequesters and
fluid levels on X-ray is typical for:
A. Lung gangrene
B. III stage of acute lung abscess
C. II stage of acute lung abscess
D. Lung emphysema
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
The intoxication is typical for:
A. Lung abscess
B. Bronchitis
C. Lung emphysema
D. Pulmonary hypertension
E. Lung cyst
ANSWER: A
The lung collapse by X-ray is typical for:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
ANSWER: A
The moderate hemothorax means:
A. Loss of 10-20 % of volume of circulating blood
B. Loss less 10 % of volume of circulating blood
C. Loss of 20-40 % of volume of circulating blood
D. Loss of 40-60 % of volume of circulating blood
E. Loss more than 60 % of volume of circulating blood
ANSWER: A
The pain in subcostal area, which increases at respiration is typical for the:
A. Paramediastinal empyema
B. Paracostal empyema
C. Apical empyema
D. Basal empyema
E. Postoperative empyema
ANSWER: A
The pleural drainage in II intercostal space along midclavicular line is used for the
treatment of:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pleural empyema
C. Pneumonia
D. Pleurisy
E. Hemothorax
ANSWER: A
The pleural drainage in VII intercostal space along scapular line is used for the
treatment of:
A. Pleural empyema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Chronic bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Lung emphyzema
ANSWER: A
The pleural drainage is used for the treatment of:
A. Pneumothorax
B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Pneumonia
D. Lung emphyzema
E. Lung abscess
ANSWER: A
What does dysphagia mean?
A. Disturbances of swallowing
B. Pain behind breastbone
C. Absence of appetite
D. Esophageal vomiting
E. Vomiting with blood
ANSWER: A
What does dysphagia mean?
A. Disturbances of swallowing
B. Pain behind breastbone
C. Absence of appetite
D. Esophageal vomiting
E. Vomiting with blood
ANSWER: A
What does the clotted hemothorax result in?
A. Pleural empyema
B. Dyspnea
C. Hemoptysis
D. Obliteration of pleural space
E. Cardiac tamponade
ANSWER: A
The pneumonectomy is indicated for:
A. Complicated lung abscess
B. Pneumonia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Lung emphysema
E. Pleural empyema
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in acute lung abscess by percussion?
A. Blunted sound
B. Bandbox sound
C. Tympanic sound
D. Clear sound
E. Pulmonary sound
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in chronic lung abscess by X-ray?
A. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Expressed fibrosis
E. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in hemothorax by percussion?
A. Blunted sound
B. Clear sound
C. Bandbox sound
D. Tympanic sound
E. Metallic ringing
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in hemothorax by X-ray?
A. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
D. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in lung gangrene by X-ray?
A. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Expressed fibrosis
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in pleural empyema by percussion?
A. Blunted sound
B. Clear sound
C. Bandbox sound
D. Metallic ringing
E. Tympanic sound
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in pneumothorax by auscultation?
A. The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in pneumothorax by X-ray?
A. Lung collapse
B. Lung atelectasis
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by auscultation?
A. The breathing isn't auscultated
B. Vesicular breathing
C. Amphoric breathing with moist rales
D. Bronchial breathing with moist rales
E. Harsh breathing with dry rales
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in pyopneumothorax by X-ray?
A. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
E. Lung atelectasis
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in the I stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
B. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
C. Expressed fibrosis
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in the II stage (after draining) of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Expressed fibrosis
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in the III stage of acute lung abscess by X-ray?
A. Expressed fibrosis
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive shadow of a considerable area of lung with cavities and fluid levels
E. One or several cavities with a thick, dense pyogenic sheath
ANSWER: A
What is revealed in wide-spread pleural empyema by X-ray?
A. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with oblique upper contour
B. Rounded shadow with irregular contour
C. Rounded cavity with air-fluid level
D. Intensive homogeneous shadow in a basal parts with horizontal upper contour
E. Lung atelectasis
ANSWER: A
?What is the abscessing pneumonia characterized by?
A. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
B. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus
C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
ANSWER: A
What is the cause of achalasia?
A. Disturbance of innervation of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
ANSWER: A
What is the cause of acute mediastinitis?
A. Perforation of esophagus
B. Ischemia of esophagus
C. Tumour growth of esophagus
D. Diverticula of esophagus
E. Cicatrical changes after the burn of esophagus
ANSWER: A
What is the cause of pleural empyema?
A. Destructive processes of lungs
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
ANSWER: A
What is the cause of pyopneumothorax?
A. Lung abscess
B. Obstructive bronchitis
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Bronchial asthma
E. Pulmonary emphysema
ANSWER: A
What is the characteristic feature of achalasia of the cardia?
A. Failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax
B. Spasm of the lower esophageal sphincter
C. Cicatrical changes after the burn
D. Anorexia
E. Esophageal gaping
ANSWER: A
What is the characteristic feature of the II stage of achalasia?
A. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
D. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
ANSWER: A
What is the characteristic feature of the III stage of achalasia?
A. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
B. Asymptomatic
C. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
D. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
E. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
ANSWER: A
What is the characteristic feature of the IV stage of achalasia?
A. Considerable esophageal dilation with S-shaped elongation.
B. Cicatrical changes with expressed esophageal dilation, the peristalsis is absent
C. Asymptomatic
D. Functional spasm without esophageal dilation
E. Constant spasm with a moderate esophageal dilation and maintained peristalsis
ANSWER: A
What is the chief clinical manifestation of hemothorax?
A. Clinic of internal bleeding
B. Pain
C. Vomiting
D. Hemoptysis
E. Intoxication
ANSWER: A
What is the chief clinical manifestation of pneumothorax?
A. Chest pain
B. Vomiting
C. Hemoptysis
D. Melena
E. Heart failure
ANSWER: A
What is the chief clinical manifestations of reflux-esophagitis?
A. Heartburn
B. Achalasia
C. Dysphagia
D. Vomiting
E. Coughing
ANSWER: A
What is the chief manifestation of valvular pneumothorax?
A. Shock
B. Vomiting
C. Melena
D. Hemoptysis
E. Heart failure
ANSWER: A
What is the first aid in closed pneumothorax?
A. It doesn't require first aid measures
B. Pleural drainage
C. Compression bandage with closure of the wound
D. Artificial respiration
E. Intubation
ANSWER: A
What is the I degree of esophageal burns?
A. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
B. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What is the I stage of dysphagia?
A. Disturbances of solid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
ANSWER: A
What is the I stage of lung abscess?
A. Necrotic pneumonia
B. Asymptomatic
C. Destruction and rejection
D. Cleaning and cicatrization
E. Gangrenous
ANSWER: A
What is the I stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. Stage of acute esophagitis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of chronic esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
E. Stage of late complications
ANSWER: A
What is the II degree of esophageal burns?
A. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What is the II stage of dysphagia?
A. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of liquid food passage
E. No passage of food
ANSWER: A
What is the II stage of lung abscess?
A. Destruction and rejection
B. Asymptomatic
C. Necrotic pneumonia
D. Cleaning and cicatrization
E. Gangrenous
ANSWER: A
What is the II stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. Stage of chronic esophagitis
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
E. Stage of late complications
ANSWER: A
What is the III degree of esophageal burns?
A. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What is the III stage of dysphagia?
A. Disturbances of liquid food passage
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
E. No passage of food
ANSWER: A
What is the III stage of lung abscess?
A. Cleaning and cicatrization
B. Asymptomatic
C. Necrotic pneumonia
D. Destruction and rejection
E. Gangrenous
ANSWER: A
What is the III stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
E. Stage of late complications
ANSWER: A
What is the indication for conservative treatment of bifurcational diverticula?
A. Asymptomatic course
B. Frequently recurrent diverticulites
C. Perforation
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula
E. Suspicion on malignancy
ANSWER: A
What is the indication for conservative treatment of bifurcational diverticula?
A. Asymptomatic course
B. Frequently recurrent diverticulites
C. Perforation
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula
E. Suspicion on malignancy
ANSWER: A
What is the indication for operative treatment of acute abscess of lungs?
A. Pulmonary bleeding of ІІ- ІІІ degree
B. Decompensation of the vital organs
C. Bilateral purulent destruction of lungs
D. Incurable malignant tumours
E. Pulmonary hypertension
ANSWER: A
What is the IV degree of esophageal burns?
A. The spread of postburn necrosis on paraesophageal tissue and adjacent organs.
B. Superficial burn with the damage of epithelial layer of esophagus;
C. The burn with the damage of entire mucosa of esophagus;
D. The burn damage of all layers of esophagus;
E. Asymptomatic
ANSWER: A
What is the IV stage of dysphagia?
A. No passage of food
B. Asymptomatic
C. Disturbances of solid food passage
D. Disturbances of semisolid food passage
E. Disturbances of liquid food passage
ANSWER: A
What is the IV stage of morphological changes of esophageal burns?
A. Stage of late complications
B. Asymptomatic
C. Stage of acute esophagitis
D. Stage of chronic esophagitis
E. Stage of cicatrical stricture of esophagus
ANSWER: A
What is the late complication of chest trauma?
A. Pleural empyema
B. Pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Mediastinal emphysema
E. Traumatic shock, asphyxia
ANSWER: A
What is the lung abscess characterized by?
A. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma
D. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
ANSWER: A
What is the lung gangrene characterized by?
A. Diffuse purulent, ichorous necrosis more than lobe without the tendency to
defined demarcation
B. Multiple destructive foci 0,3-0,5 cm in size within 1-2 segments of lungs
C. Purulent destruction of pulmonary tissue within 1 segment with formation of
cavity, filled by pus
D. Purulent, necrosis of a pulmonary tissue within 2-3 segments, detached from
adjacent pulmonary parenchyma
E. Accumulation of pus in a pleural cavity
ANSWER: A
What is the main clinical manifestation of the esophageal burn of severe degree?
A. Clinic of shock
B. Clinic of reflux-esophagitis
C. Clinic of acute abdomen
D. Clinic of hepatic insufficiency
E. Clinic of respiratory insufficiency
ANSWER: A
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal achalasia?
A. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
ANSWER: A
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal diverticula?
A. X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. Pleural punctere
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Irrigoscopy
ANSWER: A
What is the main method of diagnostic of esophageal stricture?
A. X-ray examination with barium swallow
B. General blood analysis
C. Ultrasound examination
D. Plain X-ray examination of the chest
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
ANSWER: A
What is the main method of lung abscess sanation?
A. Microtracheostomy
B. Transpleural
C. Transesophageal
D. Endovascular
E. Thoracotomy
ANSWER: A
What is the main objective manifestation of epiphrenal diverticula?
A. Signs of achalasia
B. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
C. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
ANSWER: A
What is the main objective manifestation of Zenker's diverticula?
A. Compressible mass on the left side of the neck
B. Signs of achalasia
C. Cyanosis of the upper part of body
D. Esophago-bronchial fistula with aspiration pneumonia
E. Lung atelectasis
ANSWER: A
What is the main prophylaxis of esophageal stricture after the chemical burn?
A. Esophageal bougienage
B. Spasmolytics
C. Parenteral feeding
D. Pneumocompression
E. Gastrostomy
ANSWER: A
What is the main treatment of chronic lung abscess?
A. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
B. Draining of a pleural space
C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess
D. Transplantation of lungs
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the main treatment of noncomplicated acute lung abscess?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Segmentectomy
C. Lobectomy
D. Pneumonectomy
E. Pleural puncture
ANSWER: A
What is the main treatment of the I stage of achalasia?
A. Diet, conservative treatment
B. Cardiodilatation
C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
ANSWER: A
What is the main treatment of the II stage of achalasia?
A. Cardiodilatation
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
ANSWER: A
What is the main treatment of the III stage of achalasia?
A. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
ANSWER: A
What is the main treatment of the IV stage of achalasia?
A. Esophagogastroanastomosis (Helerovsky's operation)
B. Diet, conservative treatment
C. Cardiodilatation
D. Esophagomyotomy (Heller's operation)
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
ANSWER: A
What is the mechanism of formation of pulsion diverticula?
A. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
B. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
ANSWER: A
What is the mechanism of formation of traction diverticula?
A. Inflammatory changes of paraesophageal tissues
B. Herniation of the esophageal wall proximal to anatomical narrowing
C. Dilatation of esophagus caused by achalasia
D. Changes of esophagus caused by chemical burns
E. Changes of esophagus caused by reflux esophagitis
ANSWER: A
What is the most dangerous pneumothorax?
A. Valvular
B. Subtotal closed
C. Total closed
D. Subtotal open
E. Total open
ANSWER: A
What is the most informative in the diagnostic of pleural empyema?
A. Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Auscultation
D. Clinical manifestation
E. Sputum analysis
ANSWER: A
What is the most often cause of cicatrical esophageal stricture?
A. Chemical burns
B. Thermal burns
C. Radial burns
D. Esophagitis
E. Peptic ulcers
ANSWER: A
What is the predominant factor which causes the lung abscess?
A. Disturbances of bronchial permeability with the development of atelectasis
B. Increased cholesterol, dyslipoproteinemia
C. Pulmonary hypertension
D. Rheumatism, endocarditis
E. Myocardial infarction
ANSWER: A
What is the roentgenological sign of achalasia?
A. "Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
ANSWER: A
What is the roentgenological sign of achalasia?
A. "Rat tail" sign
B. Filling defects
C. "Niche" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
ANSWER: A
What is the roentgenological sign of esophageal cancer?
A. Filling defects
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. "Bird-beak" sign
D. "Bell" sign
E. Blunt His angle
ANSWER: A
What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of mild degree?
A. Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
ANSWER: A
What is the roentgenological sign of the esophageal burn of moderate degree?
A. Dilated esophagus with sites of constriction and weak peristalsis
B. Filling defects without peristalsis
C. "Rat tail" sign with stagnation of barium
D. "Bird-beak" sign without peristalsis
E. Free passage of barium with maintained peristalsis
ANSWER: A
What is the sign of continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. The property of pleural blood to form the clot
B. Data of general blood analysis
C. Data of biochemical blood analysis
D. Data of coagulogram
E. Clinical manifestation
ANSWER: A
What is the treatment of partial pneumothorax?
A. Pleural puncture
B. Pleural drainage
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the treatment of subtotal and total pneumothorax?
A. Pleural drainage
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the typical method of treatment of chronic empyema?
A. Pleurectomy, decortication of lung
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the typical method of treatment of focal empyema?
A. Pleural puncture
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the typical method of treatment of pyopneumothorax?
A. Drainage of pleural space
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the typical method of treatment of restricted pyopneumothorax?
A. Pleural puncture
B. Drainage of pleural space
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the typical method of treatment of spread empyema?
A. Drainage of pleural space
B. Pleural puncture
C. Thoracotomy
D. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
E. Conservative treatment
ANSWER: A
What is the typical treatment of complicated Zenker's diverticula?
A. Surgical treatment
B. Spasmolytics
C. Analgetics
D. Nonsteroid antiinflammatory drugs
E. Antibiotics
ANSWER: A
What kind of esophageal plastic doesn't exist?
A. Retroperitoneal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Retrosternal
D. Intrapleural
E. Mediastinal
ANSWER: A
What kind of hemothorax is treated by pleural aspiration?
A. Small
B. Great
C. Total
D. Clotted
E. Continuing hemothorax
ANSWER: A
What kind of operation is performed for liquidation of esophageal stricture?
A. Esophageal plastic
B. Esophagostomy
C. Gastrostomy
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
ANSWER: A
What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for acute lung abscess before draining?
A. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications, excentric destruction and regular edge
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
ANSWER: A
What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for peripheral lung cancer?
A. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
ANSWER: A
What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tubercular cavern?
A. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
E. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
ANSWER: A
What kind of X-ray shadow is typical for tuberculoma?
A. Heterogeneous shadow with calcifications and regular edge
B. Homogeneous spherical shadow with regular edge on the background of intact
pulmonary tissue
C. Rounded shadow with considerable perifocal infiltration
D. Homogeneous spherical shadow with irregular edge and phenomena of
lymphangitis (corona maligna)
E. Heterogeneous shadow with destruction, displaced in the upper lobes, with
fibrosis, petrifactions in adjacent tissue, peribronchial lymphadenitis
ANSWER: A
What medicine drug belongs to broad spectrum antibiotics?
A. Tebris, Ciprinol
B. Dimedrol, Suprastin
C. Vasaprostan, Alprostan
D. Nicotine acid, Heparin
E. Detrlex, Venoplant
ANSWER: A
What medicine used for the treatment of pulmonary bleeding?
A. Aminocapronic acid
B. Heparin
C. Vasaprostan
D. Fenillin
E. Omeprasol
ANSWER: A
What method is the most informative in differential diagnostic of hemothorax with
pleurisy?
A. Pleural puncture
B. Clinical manifestation
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
ANSWER: A
What method is the most informative in the diagnostic of hemothorax?
A. Pleural puncture
B. General blood analysis
C. Sputum analysis
D. Auscultation
E. X-ray examination
ANSWER: A
What operation is performed in complicated acute lung abscess?
A. Pneumonectomy, bilobectomy, lobectomy
B. Draining of a pleural space
C. Transthoracic drainage of the abscess
D. Bronchial plastics
E. Transplantation of lungs
ANSWER: A
What operation is performed in esophageal diverticula?
A. Resection of diverticulum
B. Esophagomyotomy
C. Esophagogastric anastomosis
D. Extirpation of esophagus
E. Esophageal plastics by intestine
ANSWER: A
What organ is used for esophageal plastic?
A. Large intestine
B. Part of vein
C. Prosthetic graft
D. Xsenotransplantat
E. Lyophilized esophagus
ANSWER: A
What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as I degree?
A. Less than 300 ml
B. 300-500 ml
C. 500-700 ml
D. 700-1000 ml
E. More than 1500 ml
ANSWER: A
What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as II degree?
A. 500-700 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 100-300 ml
D. 700-1000 ml
E. More than 1500 ml
ANSWER: A
What pulmonary hemorrhage is classified as III degree?
A. More than 700 ml
B. 50-100 ml
C. 100-300 ml
D. 300-500 ml
E. 500-700 ml
ANSWER: A
What sign is not typical for pleural empyema?
A. Hemoptysis
B. Pain
C. Dyspnea
D. Cough
E. Intoxication
ANSWER: A
What sign is not typical for Zenker's diverticula?
A. Dyspnea
B. Salivation
C. Cervical dysphagia
D. Difficult swallowing
E. Cough
ANSWER: A
What sign shows that the pleural bleeding is stopped?
A. The pleural blood doesn't form the clot
B. Data of general blood analysis
C. Data of biochemical blood analysis
D. Data of coagulogram
E. Clinical manifestation
ANSWER: A
What solution is used for washing out of acid esophageal burn?
A. Sodium hydrocarbonatis solution
B. Antiseptic solution
C. Antibiotic solution
D. Glucose solution
E. Vinegar solution
ANSWER: A
What stage of lung abscess correlates with the necrotic pneumonia?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. V
ANSWER: A
What surgical access should be applied for bifurcational diverticula?
A. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
ANSWER: A
What surgical access should be applied for epiphrenal diverticula?
A. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
B. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
C. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
ANSWER: A
What surgical access should be applied for Zenker's diverticula?
A. Cervical access along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
B. Left-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
C. Right-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in ІV intercostal space
D. Left-sided posterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
E. Right-sided anterolateral thoracotomy in VІІ intercostal space
ANSWER: A
What test is used to determine the continuity of pleural bleeding?
A. Revilour-Greguar's test
B. Troyanov-Trendelenburg's test
C. Talman's test
D. Mayo-Pratt's test
E. Delbe-Pertess test (marching test)
ANSWER: A
What type of the lung gangrene is considered to be limited?
A. The lesion within 1 lobe
B. The lesion within 1 segment
C. The total lesion of 1 lung
D. The lesion of 2 lungs
E. The lesion of lungs and pleura
ANSWER: A
When the lung abscess is considered to be chronic?
A. In 6-8 weeks after the onset
B. In 10 days after the onset
C. In 3-4 weeks after the onset
D. In 6-8 months after the onset
E. In 1 year after the onset
ANSWER: A
?Where is located the first anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
B. The site of crossing with left bronchus
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
ANSWER: A
Where is located the second anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. The site of crossing with left bronchus
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of passing through diaphragm
E. The site of cardia
ANSWER: A
Where is located the third anatomical narrowing of esophagus?
A. The site of passing through diaphragm
B. The site of pharyngoesophageal junction
C. The site of crossing with aorta
D. The site of crossing with left bronchus
E. The site of cardia
ANSWER: A
Where is performed the drainage of pleural space in pyopneumothorax?
A. II intercostal space, midclavicular line and VII intercostal space, scapular line
simultaneously
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
ANSWER: A
Where is the drainage of pleural space in spread empyema performed?
A. VII intercostal space, scapular line
B. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
C. II intercostal space, scapular line
D. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
E. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
ANSWER: A
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in great hemothorax?
A. Up to ІІІ rib
B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
C. Up to scapular angle
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
ANSWER: A
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in moderate hemothorax?
A. Up to scapular angle
B. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
ANSWER: A
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in small hemothorax?
A. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
B. Up to scapular angle
C. Up to ІІІ rib
D. Complete shadow of a pleural space
E. The shadow is absent
ANSWER: A
Where is the level of the X-ray shadow in total hemothorax?
A. Complete shadow of a pleural space
B. Up to scapular angle
C. Shadow observed only in the region of sinus
D. Up to ІІІ rib
E. The shadow is absent
ANSWER: A
Where the drainage of pleural space in pneumothorax is performed?
A. II intercostal space, midclavicular line
B. II intercostal space, scapular line
C. IV intercostal space, anterior axillary line
D. VII intercostal space, midclavicular line
E. VII intercostal space, scapular line
ANSWER: A
Who mostly suffer from achalasia?
A. Young women
B. Young men
C. Old men
D. Old women
E. Both old men and women
ANSWER: A
5 hours ago, after the bouginage of esophageal cicatricle stricture appeared the pain
behind the breastbone, a feeling of compression, subcutaneous crepitation on the
neck, fever to 38,5°C. On examination the weakening of the heart tones by
auscultation. On plain X-ray of chest – mediastinal emphysema, mediastinal
extension of the shadows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Acute mediastinitis
B. Reflux esophagitis
C. Sliding esophageal hernia
D. Paraesophageal hernia
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
ANSWER: A
53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What
roentgenological sign confirms the pathology?
A. "Bell" sign
B. "Rat tail" sign
C. Filling defects
D. "Bird-beak" sign
E. Esophageal dilatation
ANSWER: A
53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What drugs
are used for the treatment of this pathology?
A. Blockers of proton pomp
B. Spasmolytics
C. Adrenoblockers
D. Blockers of calcium channel
E. Anticoagulants
ANSWER: A
53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What disease
should be this pathology differentiated from?
A. Peptic ulcer
B. Pancreatitis
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Cholecystitis
E. Bronchial asthma
ANSWER: A
53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the
main treatment of this pathology?
A. Conservative treatment
B. Esophagostomy
C. Esophageal plastic
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
ANSWER: A
53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What type of
operation is used for treatment of this pathology?
A. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
B. Esophagostomy
C. Cruroplasty
D. Resection of the esophagus
E. Resection of the stomach
ANSWER: A
?53 year old man complains of recurrent pain behind the breastbone, heartburn,
especially in the horizontal position. Sometimes the burning pain behind the sternum
occurs after hot or spicy food. Two weeks ago was vomiting by blood and lost of
consciousness. Has entered the hospital after repeated gastric bleeding. What is the
most probable diagnosis?
A. Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
ANSWER: A
After the birth of the child appeared the signs of respiratory failure. By auscultation
on the left side the breathing is absent. On X-ray expressed mediastinal shift to the
right, the presence of protrusion on the left side. What is the most probable
diagnosis?
A. Left-sided diaphragmatic hernia
B. Hypoplasia of right lung
C. Polycistosis of the left lung
D. Relaxation of the diaphragm
E. Esophageal stricture
ANSWER: A
Complaints of burning, pain behind the breastbone. Has been ill for 4 months. On
contrasting X-ray was diagnosed: the "bell" sign, the absence of gas bubble of the
stomach, blunt Hiss angle. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Sliding esophageal hernia
B. Paraesophageal hernia
C. Gastric ulcer
D. Peptic duodenal ulcer
E. Decompensated pyloric stenosis
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood,
increased body temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest.
Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half
of the chest during breathing, with a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound,
by auscultation moist rales over the lower lobe of the left lung. On X-ray of the chest
expressed infiltration of left lung tissue with a giant cavity in the lower lobe with the
level of the fluid. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Gangrenous abscess of lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Gangrene of the lung.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with foul-smelling purulent sputum with streaks of blood,
increased body temperature to 40°C, pain in the left half of the chest, dyspnea at rest.
Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by undercooling. The lag of the left half
of the chest during breathing, with a shortening of the pulmonary percussion sound,
by auscultation moist rales over the left lung. On X-ray of the chest expressed
infiltration of the left lung with multiple sites of destruction. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. Gangrene of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest, dyspnea. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation the breathing is absent. On Xray of the chest the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with a horizontal fluid
level and enlightenment over it. Is visible the edge of collapsed lung. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. Limited pyopneumothorax.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Pleural empyema.
E. Total pyopneumothorax.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 months, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with
amphoric sound. On X-ray of the chest the destruction cavity with the fibrous capsule
in the projection of lower lobe of the left lung, infiltration of lung tissue is not
determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Chronic lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
ANSWER: A
?Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C,
pain in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, lung sounds by
percussion, by auscultation crackling rales over the lower lobe of the left lung. On Xray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung tissue with areas of enlightenment in the
center. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Abscessing pneumonia.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with
amphoric sound, crackling rales. On X-ray of the chest expressed infiltration of lung
tissue with enlightenment in the center with fluid level. What is the primary
diagnosis?
A. Acute lung abscess.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Abscessing pneumonia.
D. Pyopneumothorax.
E. Bronchiectatic disease.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing with
amphoric sound. On the X-ray of chest the destruction cavity with the fluid level,
with a clear thin-walled capsule in the projection of the lower lobe of the left lung.
Infiltration of lung tissue is not determined. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Suppurative cyst of the lung.
B. Pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Abscessing pneumonia.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, over the left lobe
a dull percussion sound, by auscultation the breathing is absent. On X-ray of the chest
the shadow in the basal parts of the left lung with an oblique upper level along
Damuazo's line. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Pleural empyema.
B. Acute lung abscess
C. Chronic lung abscess.
D. Suppurative cyst of the lung.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of cough with purulent sputum, increased body temperature to 39°C, pain
in the left half of the chest. Has been ill for 2 weeks, the onset is caused by
undercooling. The lag of the left half of the chest during breathing, the shortening of
percussion sound over the lower lobe, by auscultation weakened breathing. On X-ray
of the chest paracostal fusiform shadow in the projection of the left lower lobe of the
lung. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Limited empyema.
B. Wide-spread pleural empyema.
C. Acute lung abscess
D. Chronic lung abscess.
E. Pyopneumothorax.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of heartburn, pain behind the breastbone, outpour of food. Has been ill
for 2 months. On X-ray examination revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle,
absence of gas bubble of the stomach. Your tactics?
A. Conservative therapy.
B. Bouginage of esophagus.
C. Surgical intervention.
D. Large-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
E. Small-intestinal plastic of esophageal cardia.
ANSWER: A
Complaints of heaviness in the epigastric region, nagging pain after eating. When
EGDS pathology identified. On X-ray examination pronounced gas bubble of the
stomach is is visible the to the level III intercostal space on the left. What is the most
probable diagnosis?
A. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Sliding esophageal hernia.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus.
ANSWER: A
Complications paraesophageal hernias of esophagus:
A. Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflux esophagitis.
ANSWER: A
In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea,
vomiting. 6 months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What complication
arose?
A. Incarceration
B. Malignancy.
C. Esophageal stricture.
D. Dysphagia.
E. Reflex esophagitis.
ANSWER: A
In the patient at night appeared a severe pain in the epigastric region, nausea,
vomiting. 6 months ago was diagnosed paraesophageal hernia. What type of
operation is is indicated for this patient?
A. Cruroplasty
B. Esophagostomy
C. Resection of the esophagus
D. Resection of the stomach
E. Cruroplasty with Nissen's fundoplication
ANSWER: A
In the patient on the fourth day after the chest trauma on X-ray - heterogeneous
shadow in the lower lobe. By puncture received a small amount of light yellow fluid
with blood clots. What treatment are the best for the patient?
A. Drainage of the pleural cavity
B. Operational - lung decortication
C. Daily puncture
D. Resorbed therapy
E. Antibacterial therapy
ANSWER: A
In the patient, 35 years old, during the physical exertion appeared severe pain in the
left half of the chest. Objectively: the patient is covered with cold sweat, dyspnea,
pain during inspiration. By auscultation: vesicular breathing on the right side, on the
left - is absent. Tachycardia, pulse 100 beats/min. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Angina pectoris
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Left-sided pleurisy
E. Pneumonia
ANSWER: A
In the patient, 48 years old, on the seventh day after the onset of a moderate pain in
the chest, severe cough, fever to 39°C appeared the bad-smell sputum. The patient's
condition remains grave, with expectoration more than 600 ml of gray-green sputum,
and hectic fever. On X-ray – on the background of the heterogeneous shadow of the
lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with a horizontal level of fluid. What is the
primary diagnosis?
A. Abscess of the right lung
B. Gangrene of the right lung
C. Acute abscess of the right lung
D. Suppuration cyst of the right lung
E. Suppuration tuberculous cavern
ANSWER: A
Patient A., aged 42, had been treated for two months for an acute abscess of the upper
lobe of right lung without improvement. The treatment: intramuscular injection of
antibiotics, sulfanilamidns drugs. Remains the cough with purulent sputum to 80-100
ml per day, fever (37,6°C). What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Chronic lung abscess
B. Acute abscess of the right lung
C. Tuberculous cavern
D. Peripheral lung cancer
E. Suppurative cyst of lung
ANSWER: A
The patient A., age 37, entered with complaints of cough with purulent sputum to 150
ml per day, pain in the right half of the chest, fever to 38°C. Has been ill for two
weeks. The day before the entrance to the clinic during cough attack expectorated to
300 ml of purulent bad-smell sputum. On examination: a shortening of the pulmonary
percussion sound under the right scapula, and the weakening of vesicular breathing.
What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Acute lung abscess
B. Acute bronchitis
C. Exacerbation of chronic abscess
D. Exacerbation of bronchoectatic disease
E. Pleural empyema
ANSWER: A
The patient has a pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by repeated
bleeding., The patient is undergoing the operative treatment. What antibiotics are the
most suitable for preoperative prophylaxis?
A. Cephalosporins.
B. Penicillin.
C. Macrolides.
D. Aminoglycosides.
E. Fluorohinolones.
ANSWER: A
The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding to 200 ml. How
this bleeding is classified?
A. I degree
B. 0 degree
C. II degree
D. III degree
E. IV degree
ANSWER: A
The patient has the lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What
medicines are the most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. Dicynon.
B. Heparin.
C. Penicillin.
D. Courantil.
E. Alprostan.
ANSWER: A
The patient has the pain behind the breastbone, heartburn, which increases after the
meal. Has been ill for 6 months. For 5 days has a black chair. On X-ray examination
revealed the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraezofagalnaya esophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
ANSWER: A
The patient has the postburn stenosis of the esophagus. After the next bouginage felt
the fever, tachycardia, pain behind the breastbone. On X-ray: the horizontal level of
fluid in the posterior mediastinum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Acute posterior mediastinitis.
B. Acute anterior mediastinitis.
C. Diverticulum of the esophagus.
D. Acute pleural empyema.
E. Paraesophageal hernia.
ANSWER: A
The patient has the pyogenic lung abscess, which was complicated by bleeding. What
medicines are the most suitable to stop the bleeding?
A. Vitamin K.
B. Anticoagulants.
C. Antibiotics.
D. Antiaggregants.
E. Prostaglandins.
ANSWER: A
The patient with bilateral hydrothorax has undergone the repeat pleural puncture of
both sides. After the last puncture felt the deterioration, fever, pain in the chest.
Therapeutist on the next day during pleural puncture on the right obtained the pus.
What is the mechanism of acute right-side empyema?
A. Contact-aspirating.
B. Lymphogenous.
C. Hematogenous.
D. Implantation.
E. Airborne.
ANSWER: A
The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night,
heartburn, belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Sliding esophageal hernia, reflux esophagitis
B. Diverticulum of the esophagus
C. Varicose veins of the esophagus
D. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Crohn's disease.
ANSWER: A
The patient, 45 years old, complains of retrosternal pain, which increase at night,
heartburn, belching. Has been ill for 4 months. What research is the most
appropriate?
A. X-ray contrast study in Trendelenburg's position.
B. Plain chest X-ray
C. Fibroesophagogastroduodenoscopy
D. Plain X-ray of the abdominal cavity.
E. Computer tomography
ANSWER: A
The patient, 78 years old, entered with complaints of pain in the left half of the chest,
coughing, with daily 80 ml of mucopurulent sputum, fever to 37,2°C. The X-rays of
the lower lobe of right lung revealed a cavity with irregular internal border and
outside spicules with minor infiltration around. What is the primary diagnosis?
A. Hollow form of lung cancer
B. Chronic lung abscess
C. Suppuration cyst of lung
D. Fibro-cavernous tuberculosis
E. Limited empyema
ANSWER: A
The patients with sliding esophageal hernia mostly complain of:
A. Heartburn, pain behind the breastbone.
B. Difficult passage of food, loss of weight.
C. The pain behind the breastbone, difficulty in food passage.
D. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the right hypochondrium.
E. Pain in the epigastric region with irradiation into the back.
ANSWER: A
What is the most wide-spread cause of the peptic stricture of esophagus associated
with reflux-esophagitis?
A. Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Prolonged nasogastric intubation in the esophagus.
C. Short stay nasogastric intubation.
D. Frequent vomiting of pregnancy.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
ANSWER: A
X-ray signs: the "bell" sign, blunt Hiss angle, absence of gas bubble of the stomach
are characteristic for:
A. Sliding esophageal hernia.
B. Paraesophageal hernia.
C. Relaxation of the diaphragm.
D. Malignant tumor of the esophagus.
E. Achalasia of the esophagus
ANSWER: A
A man 50 years of asymptomatic mixed goiter. At the first stage, it should appoint
A. thyroid hormones to suppress the function of cancer
B. propylthiouracil
C. subtotal thyroidectomy
D. radioiodine
E. only observation
ANSWER: E
In patient K, aged 26, noted a relapse of hyperthyroidism after medical treatment.
Your tactics.
A. Continue medical treatment
B. Surgical treatment
C. Outpatient
D. Treatment is not required
E. Is no right answer
ANSWER: B
On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the
thyroid gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What additional diagnostic method
to assign?
A. Radiography of the neck
B. Thyroid gland
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
ANSWER: B
On examination, the patient was 32 years reveal the formation of the left lobe of the
thyroid gland size 4x6 cm, painless at palpation. What analysis should be performed
in order to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Total blood
B. Urinalysis
C. Immunogram
D. Thyroid hormones
E. Protein fraction
ANSWER: D
Patient D, aged 39, admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic goiter.
What study be done.
A. EFGDS
B. Is no right answer
C. Rheovasography
D. Investigation of iodine hormones in the blood serum
E. Doppler
ANSWER: D
Patient J., 57, was admitted to the surgical clinic with a diagnosis: euthyroid nodular
goiter. Choose the correct treatment option.
A. enucleation
B. medication
C. subtotal resection of the thyroid gland
D. resection of the thyroid gland with maximal preservation of healthy tissue and
routine histological examination
E. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
ANSWER: D
Patient K, aged 49, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic
goiter. What study be done.
A. EFGDS
B. Rheovasography
C. Scanning of the thyroid gland
D. Doppler
E. There is no correct answer
ANSWER: C
Patient K., aged 45, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic
with complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a
patient?
A. goiter
B. acute strumitis
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
ANSWER: A
Patient M, 39 years old, was admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis: diffuse toxic
goiter. What study be done.
A. EFGDS
B. Thyroid gland
C. Rheovasography
D. Doppler
E. Is no right answer
ANSWER: B
Patient M., aged 35, lives in the area of iodine deficiency, was admitted to the clinic
with complaints of enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely diagnosis in a
patient?
A. acute strumitis
B. there is no right answer
C. sporadic goiter
D. epidemic goiter
E. mass thyrotoxicosis
ANSWER: B
Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the
thyroid gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles
appeared convulsive reduction of hands. Treatment.
A. the introduction of calcium chloride intravenously
B. introduction Seduxen
C. introduction of iodine
D. infusion therapy
E. introduction of calcium chloride oral
ANSWER: A
Patient O., aged 39, on the diffuse toxic goiter performed subtotal resection of the
thyroid gland. One day the patient became restless, twitching of facial muscles
appeared convulsive reduction of hands. What mated complication of surgery?
A. Iodine deficiency
B. Lack of thyroid tissue
C. Removal of parathyroid glands
D. Increased thyroid hormone
E. Increased parathyroid hormone
ANSWER: C
?Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue
homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. Hashimoto struma
B. toxic goiter
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
ANSWER: B
Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. At USD: tissue
homogeneous, tissue hypertrophy hyper. The most likely diagnosis
A. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
B. there is no right answer
C. Acute thyroiditis
D. nodular goiter
E. goiter De Quervain
ANSWER: B
Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What additional
diagnostic method to assign?
A. Radiography of the neck
B. Thyroid gland
C. Doppler
D. Reovazogrfiyu
E. EEG
ANSWER: B
Patient S., 43, in the last 5 months of worry tearfulness, irritability, fatigue,
progressive weight loss. On palpation the thyroid gland increased to III class.,
painless. Pulse 110-120 in minute, regular, blood pressure - 150/80. What analysis
should be performed in order to clarify the diagnosis?
A. Total blood
B. Urinalysis
C. Thyroid hormones
D. Protein fraction
E. Immunogram
ANSWER: C
Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek
and Trousseau. What a complication arose in a patient?
A. there is no right answer
B. laryngeal nerve injury
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
ANSWER: A
Patients after resection of the thyroid having convulsions, symptoms by Chvostek and
Trousseau. What a complication is arose in a patient?
A. laryngeal nerve injury
B. hypoparathyreosis
C. residual effects of hyperthyroidism
D. thyrotoxic crisis
E. hypothyroidism
ANSWER: B
The patient complaints of excessive sweating, hand tremor, exophthalmos. The most
likely diagnosis.
A. Goiter
B. Tireodit
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Strumil
E. Is no right answer
ANSWER: D
The patient diagnosed with an aberrant goiter. Refine the definition of aberrant goiter.
A. metastases of thyroid cancer in the liver
B. atypical location of the thyroid gland
C. is a cancer of the thyroid gland
D. all true
E. all wrong
ANSWER: C
The patient diagnosed with nodular euthyroid goiter left lobe of the thyroid gland.
What is the optimal treatment option.
A. excision of the node with the routine histological examination
B. enucleation site
C. subtotal thyroidectomy
D. hemistrumectomy or resection of the lobe of the thyroid gland
E. conservative treatment thyroidin
ANSWER: D
The patient lives in the area of endemic iodine. What can be used to prevent goitre?
A. merkasalil
B. vaccination
C. iodine
D. improving the social life of the population
E. iodination salt
ANSWER: E
The patient S., 546 years old, diagnosed with goiter II degree. What is characteristic
of the III degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. giant goiter
B. determined only by palpation
C. visible swallowing
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
ANSWER: C
The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase
in the node. What method of diagnosis is the most informative?
A. X-ray of the neck
B. scanning with radioactive iodine
C. Doppler
D. Rheovasography
E. EEG
ANSWER: B
The patient S., 61, suffering for 2 years nodular goiter, recently noted a rapid increase
in the node. On scanning image identified a "cold node". Specify the most probable
cause of this condition
A. node malignancy
B. cystic degeneration of the node
C. autoimmune
D. all true
E. hemorrhage site
ANSWER: A
The patient V., age 56, diagnosed with goiter of third degree. What is characteristic
of the III degree of increase in thyroid gland?
A. giant goiter
B. determined only by palpation
C. visible without swallowing
D. visible only when swallowing
E. determined only on ultrasound
ANSWER: C
The patient's 43 years revealed an increase in the left lobe of the thyroid gland. When
scanning in this region found a hot site. Diagnosis.
A. diffuse non-toxic goiter
B. toxic goiter
C. multinodular toxic goiter
D. nodular toxic goiter
E. non-toxic nodular goiter
ANSWER: D
The patient's 60 years in the last 3 months has been rapidly increasing dense mass in
the left lobe of the thyroid gland. Effects of hyperthyroidism is not. At thyroid scan
revealed a cold junction. Preliminary diagnosis
A. thyroid cancer
B. lipoma of the thyroid gland
C. cyst
D. metastasis of lung cancer
E. thyroid cyst
ANSWER: A