МИНИСТЕРСТВО ОБРАЗОВАНИЯ И НАУКИ РОССИЙСКОЙ ФЕДЕРАЦИИ
ФГАОУ ВО «КРЫМСКИЙ ФЕДЕРАЛЬНЫЙ УНИВЕРСИТЕТ
ИМЕНИ В. И. ВЕРНАДСКОГО»
МЕДИЦИНСКАЯ АКАДЕМИЯ ИМЕНИ С.И.ГЕОРГИЕВСКОГО
«УТВЕРЖДАЮ»
Зав. кафедрой мед. биологии
профессор_____________ Кутя С.А.
«___»_____________20 г.
ФОНД ОЦЕНОЧНЫХ СРЕДСТВ
ДЛЯ ПРОВЕДЕНИЯ ТЕКУЩЕЙ, РУБЕЖНОЙ
И ПРОМЕЖУТОЧНОЙ АТТЕСТАЦИИ ОБУЧАЮЩИХСЯ
ПО ДИСЦИПЛИНЕ «БИОЛОГИЯ»
Специальность: 060101 «Лечебное дело»
Курс: 1
Всего часов: 216 часов
Всего зачетных едениц: 6
Вид контроля: экзамен во 2 семестре
г.Симферополь
1
Фонд оценочных средств для проведения текущей, рубежной и промежуточной
аттестации обучающихся на английском языке разработан в соответствии с
Положением об учебно-методическом комплексе дисциплины Федерального
государственного образовательного стандарта третьего поколения высшего
профессионального образования (2014 г.) на основе Рабочей программы по
дисциплине «Биология», утвержденного решением Ученого совета от « 19 » июня
2014 г., протокол №6 «Крымского государственного медицинского университета
имени С.И.Георгиевского».
Разработчики:
Заведующий кафедрой,
профессор, доктор медицинских наук _______________________ Кутя С.А.
Завуч, доцент,
кандидат медицинских наук
Ассистент,
кандидат биологических наук
_________________________ Лященко О.И.
________________________ Смирнова С.Н.
Ассистент,
кандидат медицинских наук
_________________________ Сатаева Т.П.
Ассистент,
кандидат биологических наук
_________________________ Жукова А.А.
Утверджено на заседании кафедры медицинской биологии
Протокол № ____ от «____» ___________ 20 ____г.
Заведующий кафедрой,
профессор, доктор медицинских наук. _______________________ Кутя С.А.
2
№
п/п
Тематический план практических занятий
по дисциплине «Биология»
Название тем практических занятий базовой части
дисциплины по ФГОС-3 ВПО и формы контроля
Объем
по семестрам
№1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
Introduction to Medical Biology. Levels organization of
living things. Optical systems in biological research.
Morph-physiology of cells. Structure of the living cell.
Microscopic analysis of animal and plant cells.
Cell membranes. Transport across the cell membrane.
Transport in and out of cells
Eukaryotic chromosomes. Human karyotype.
Nucleic acids and genetic code.
Structure of the gene. Types of genes. Operon model
The control of Gene expression. Protein synthesis.
Life cycle of cells and it periods. Division of the cells.
Mitosis.
Submodule: «Molecular and cellular levels organization of
life».
Biologic features of development of the human being.
Gametogenesis. Fertilization.
Features of embryonic development of the man. Defects of
development at human being, their causes.
Postembryonic development and kinds of it periods.
Regeneration. Transplantation.
Laws of inheritance at monohybrid, dihybrid and polyhybrid
cross.
Multiple alleles. Inheritance of blood groups.
Interaction of allelic and not allelic genes. Pleiotropy.
Theory of Linkage and Crossing over. Inheritance of Sex.
Sex-linked inheritance
Types of variation
Human genetics. Pedigree analysis and Study of Twins.
Genetic disorders (changes in chromosomes). Human
Cytology (Cytogenetics)
Molecular pathology and biochemical testing of Genetic
disorders. Genetic engineering. DNA analysis. Prenatal
diagnosis.
Population and statistic methods. Medico genetic councelling.
Submodule: «ORGANISM’S LEVEL ORGANIZATION OF
LIFE».
Phylum SARCOMASTIGOPHORA. Class Lobozea.
Entamoeba histolytica. Morphology. Life cycle.
Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Class ZOOMASTIGOPHORA (FLAGELLATA).
Trypanosoma gambiense. Leishmania donovani & tropica.
Giardia lamblia. Trichomonas vaginalis. Morphology. Life
cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Phylum APICOMPLEXA. Class SPOROZOEA. Plasmodium
malaria. Toxoplasma gondii. Morphology. Life cycle.
№2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
3
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Phylum CILIOPHORA. Class Rimostomatea. Balantidium
coli. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis.
Prevention and control. Test control.
Submodule on Medical Protozoology
Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class TREMATODA.
Fasciola hepatica. Dicrocoelium dendriticum. Opisthorchis
felineus. Heterophyes heterophyes. Morphology. Life cycle.
Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class TREMATODA.
Schistosoma haematobium. Schistosoma mansoni.
Paragonimus westermani. Morphology. Life cycle.
Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class CESTOIDEA. Taenia
saginata. Taenia solium. Hymenolepis nana. Morphology. Life
cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis.
Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class CESTOIDEA.
Diphyllobothrium latum. Echinococcus granulesus.
Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis.
Phylum NEMATHELMINTHES. Class NEMATODA.
Ascaris Lumbricoides. Trichocephalus trichiurus. Enterobius
vermicularis. Morphology. Life cycle.
Phylum NEMATHELMINTHES. Class NEMATODA.
Ancylostoma duodenale. Necator americanus. Strongyloides
stercoralis. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis.
Prevention and control.
Phylum NEMATHELMINTHES. Class NEMATODA.
Trichinella spiralis. Dracunculus medinensis. Wuchereria
bancrofti. Morphology. Life cycle.
Labolatory diagnostic of helmintosis. Test control.
Submodule on Medical Parasitology
Phylum ARTHROPODA. Class ARACHNOIDEA carriers
and agents of illness of the human being. Ticks Acarina.
Sarcoptes scabiei. Morphology.
Class INSECTA - carriers and agents of illness of the human
being. Pediculus humanus (Lice). Siphonaptera (Fleas).
Hemiptera (Bugs).
Class INSECTA. Hemiptera - carriers and agents of illness of
the human being. Culicidae (Mosquitoes). Phlebotomus
(Sandfly). Musca domestica (House fly). Myiasis.
Synthetic theory of evolution. Population structure of
humanity.
Phylogenies basic systems of organs of phylum Chordata.
Humans in the environment (Human ecology). Biosphere and
man.
Submodule: «Medical ecology and evolution»
Total:
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
2
84
4
Занятие № 1.
Тема: Introduction to Medical Biology. Levels of organization of living things. Optical
systems in biological research.
Решение задач:
1. You are working with the microscope and your field of vision is darkened. What is the
reason of this phenomenon? How to fix this problem?
Answer: Lack of light. Person should turn up the concave side of the mirror to the source of
light and looking into the ocular find the bright light.
2. The object is seen as the blur spot. How to fix this problem?
Answer: The lenses are dirty. Or the microslide by itself is dirty. Person should clean the
lenses and the microslide with the soft cloth.
3. The microslide is seen with the small magnification and can not be seen with the large
magnification. How to fix this problem and what caused it.
Answer: Microslide is lying on the table with the cover slip down. The objective is close to
the microslide. In order not to damage it person should turn the microslide to make cover glass
look up.
4. While using the microscope it was revealed that the part of the field of vision is lightened
and the other part is darkened. What caused this problem and how to fix it.
Answer: Objective is not fixed in the right position in revolver. Turn the objective to hear the
click.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
I. Who of the named below scientists had proposed the term "Biology" ?
a) George Cuvier;
b) Jean Batiste de Lamarck
c) Carolus Linnaeus
d) Treviranus
e) Gregory Mendel
2..Who is the founder of the scientific systematics (binary nomenclature) ?
a) George Louis Buffon;
b) Carolus Linnaeus;
c) Charles Darwin.
d) M. Malpigi.
e) G. Mendel
3. Who had formulated the conception known now as the "cell theory" ?
a) Mattias Schleiden;
b) Jophrois Sent Iller,
c) Teodor Schwann;
d) Louis Pasteur;
e) Augustus Weismann.
4. Who had discovered a cell ?
а) A. Leewenhoek;
b) J. Swammerdam;
c) R. Goock;
d) M. Malpigi.
E. G. Mendel
5. Who is the founder of the first theory of evolution?
a) George Cuvier;
5
b) Charles Darwin;
c) Jean Batiste de Lamarck;
d) Gregory Mendel.
e) Rudolph Virchov
6. One of the main characteristics of a living being is an ability to reproduction. On what level of
living organisms organization does this process happen?
a)
Organismical.
b)
Subcellular.
c)
Cellular.
d)
Tissue.
e)
Molecular
7. Influenced by some chemical substances, the process of ribosome subunits formation has been
impaired in a cell. In consequence this will stop the synthesis of:
a)
Proteins.
b)
Carbohydrates.
c)
Lipids.
d)
DNA.
e)
RNA.
Занятие № 2.
Тема: Morph-physiology of cells. Structure of the living cell. Microscopic analysis of
animal and plant cells.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. The cell of the laboratory animal was overdosed with Roentgen rays. As a result albuminous
fragments formed in the cytoplasm. What cell organoid will take part at their utilization?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum
c)
Cells centre
d)
Golgi complex
e)
Ribosome
2. Low level of albumins and fibrinogen was detected in the patient's blood. Decreased activity
of what organelle of the liver hepatocytes can cause it?
a)
Granular endoplasmatic net
b)
Mitochondrions
c)
Agranular endoplasmatic net
d)
Lysosomes
e)
Golgi complex
3. A tissue sample of benign tumor was studied under the electron microscope. A lot of small
(15-20 nm) spherical bodies, consisting of 2 unequal subunits were detected. These are:
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Microtubules
c)
Golgi complex
d)
Mitochondria
e)
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Oval and round organelles with double wall are seen at the electron micrograph. The outer
membrane is smooth, the inner membrane folded into cristae contain enzyme ATPase synthetase.
These are:
a)
Mitochondria
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Centrioles
6
d)
e)
Golgi complex
Lysosomes
5. During the examination of pancreatic gland cells under an electronic microscope there has
been found an organelle which consists of cisterns, canals, closets and is connected with
plasmolemma. What organelle is it?
1.
Endoplasmic reticulum.
2.
Centriole.
3.
Mitochondrion.
4.
Lysosome.
5.
Peroxisome.
6. During the examination of the cell structure a globular mono-membranous organelle, which
contains hydrolytic enzymes, was found. This organelle is known to provide intracellular
digestion and protective reactions of the cell. What organelle is it?
a)
Lysosome.
b)
Endoplasmic reticulum.
c)
Centriole.
d)
D.Ribosome.
e)
Mitochondrion.
7. There is an organelle near the nucleus which consists of two cylinders built of microtubules.
The cylinders are situated perpendicularly to each other. The organelle is a component of the
mitotic spindle of division in animal cells. What organelle is this?
a)
Centriole.
b)
Mitochondrion.
c)
Ribosome.
d)
Endoplasmic reticulum.
e)
Lysosome.
8.In a nucleus there are nonconstant structures that disappear at the beginning of cell division
and appear again at the end of it. They include protein and RNA. They take part in the formation
of ribosome subunits. What are these structures called?
a)
Nucleoli.
b)
Nucleosomes.
c)
Polysomes.
d)
Microfibriles.
e)
Microtubules.
9. There is an organelle in human cells. The functions of this organelle are formation of
lysosomes, the secretion of glycoproteins, carbohydrates, lipides, and the formation of yolk
granules during the oocytes maturation. What is these organelle called?
a)
Golgi apparatus.
b)
Lysosome.
c)
Endoplasmic reticulum.
d)
Peroxisome.
e)
Ribosome.
10. A cell was affected by a substance which broke the integrity of lysosomal membranes. What
can happen in the cell because of it?
a)
Autolysis.
b)
Specialization.
c)
Differentiation.
d)
Reproduction.
e)
Transformation.
7
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Prokaryotes are:
Gamete
Phages
Viruses
Algae
Bacteria
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Which organelles contain DNA
Lysosomes
Ribosomes
Centrioles
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Which organelles take part in the last stage of the drops of secret formation?
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Outer membrane has a lot of microvilli. If they damaged the function of which processes
will be violated?
Pinocytosis
Phagocytosis
Conduction of the nerve impulse
Protective function
Absorption
2.
3.
4.
5.
*1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Organic substances are being produced from inorganic ones due to the process of:
ATP synthesis
Protein synthesis
Photosynthesis
Transcription
Translation
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Choose cell organelles that take part in the energy production:
Cell center
Lysosomes
Ribosomes
Chloroplasts
Mitochondria
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Unremitting of life is provided by the following cell function:
Metabolism and energy exchange
Excitability
Reproduction
Organic compounds biosynthesis
Protein synthesis
7.
8
8.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Organic substances serving as enzymes are:
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Nucleic acids
Phospholipids
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Elementary unit of the living matter is:
Tissue
Carbohydrates
Organ
Nucleic acids
The cell
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
In physical exercise in the cells of the human organism the rate of ATP synthesis increases
and this process takes place in:
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
Golgi apparatus
RER
Mitochondria
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The main components of the prokaryotic cells are:
Nucleus
Nucleotide
Cell wall
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The main components of the eukaryotic cells are:
Nucleus
Plastids
Cytoplasm
Nucleotide
Cell membrane
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The biggest cell organelle is:
Ribosome
Mitochondria
Microtubules
Lysosomes
Cell center
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Name he main components of the nucleus
Nucleus membrane
Nucleolus
Nucleoplasm
Centrioles
Chromatin
1.
Protein synthesis is taking place in:
Nucleus
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
9
2.
3.
4.
5.
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
Cell center
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
If this organelle is damaged the process of oxidation and energy relieve will be impared.
Name this organelle.
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
Cell center
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
This organelle is typical for the plant cells but can not be found in human cells.
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Chloroplasts
Chromosomes
Cell center
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Cell center consist of:
Two centrioles
Two nucleolus
Vacuoles of the different size
Two chromosomes
One nucleolus and two chromosomes
16.
17.
18.
19.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The most amount of mitochondria can be found in:
Leucocytes
The cells where synthetic processes are active
Red blood cells
Cells that use a lot of energy
Cells that take part in carbohydrates synthesis
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The main function of lysosome is:
Energy transformation
Carbohydrate synthesis
Digestion of different substances
Lipids synthesis
Metabolism
20.
Занятие № 3.
Тема: Cell membranes. Transport across the cell membrane. Transport in and out of cells
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. Testosterone and it's analogs increase the mass of skeletal muscles that allows to use them for
treatment of dystrophy. Due to interaction of the hormon with what cell substance is this action
caused?
a)
Nuclear receptors
b)
Proteins- activators of transcription
10
c)
Chromatin
d)
Ribosomes
e)
Membrane receptors
2. At the aboratory experiment the eukocyte culture was mixed with staphylococci. Neutrophile
leukocytes engulfed and digested bacterial cells. This processes are termed:
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Facilitated diffusion
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
e)
Pinocytosis
3. Golgi complex exports substances from a cell due to the fusion of the membrane vesicle with
the cell membrane. The vesicle contents flows out. What process is it?
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
c)
Active transport
d)
Facilitated diffusion
e)
All answers are false
4. An intensive aerobic process of energy formation and accumulaton in form of high-energy
ATP bonds takes place in the cells of muscular tissue. In what organelle does this process occur?
a)
In the mitochondrion.
b)
In the peroxisome.
c)
In the endoplasmic reticulum.
d)
In the lysosome.
e)
In the centriole.
5. A cell was affected by a substance which broke the integrity of lysosomal membranes. What
can happen in the cell because of it?
a)
Autolysis.
b)
Specialization.
c)
Differentiation.
d)
Reproduction.
e)
Transformation.
6. In some unicellular organisms, for example, in amoebae, nutrition happens by means of
phagocytosis. In what human cells is phagocytosis the way of protection of the organism from
foreign agents (for example, microorganisms)?
a)
Leucocytes.
b)
Erythrocytes.
c)
Epitheliocytes.
d)
Myocytes.
e)
Thrombocytes.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The most important substance inside of the cell taking part in all chemical reactions is:
Polynucleotide
Polypeptide
Sugar
Water
1.
2.
Which cell structure forms a barrier? Through this cell structure different substances
go in and out of the cell.
Endoplasmic reticulum
Cytoskeleton
2.
11
3.
4.
Cell membrane
Plastids
1.
2.
3.
4.
Water is the source of life:
It can be present in 3 different states (liquid, solid and gaseous)
There are more than 90% of water in the fetus tissues
It works as the solvent that provides the flow of substances in and out of the cell
It cools the surface when evaporates
1.
2.
3.
4.
Bioelements are chemical elements that:
Take part in the cell metabolism
Are a part of living and non-living matter
Are a part of inorganic molecules
Are the main components of all organic compounds found in the cell
3.
4.
5.
2.
3.
4.
Homeostasis is characterized by
The condition of dynamic balance of natural system supported by the actions of
regulatory systems
The process of cell destruction due to dissolving processes
The general lowering of viability of the organism
The process of carbohydrates splitting in the lack of oxygen
1.
2.
3.
4.
Metabolism consists of two connected and vise-versa directed processes:
Life and death
Synthesis and disintegration
Excitement and braking
Absorption of oxygen and secretion of CO2
1
2
3
4
5
During the practical lesson at the medical biology department students were studying
cell membrane. The teacher asked them how macromolecules which connect to the
specific receptors at the cell membrane surface come into the cell.
Through Ion channels
Due to endocytosis
Due to special proteins which work as sliding door
Due to passive transport
Due to the work of Na-K pump
1
2
3
4
5
During electron microscopy it was revealed that it has 3 layers which compartmentalize
cytoplasm. Outer surface of this structure has glycocalix. Inner one is presented with
the proteins. What is this?
Cytoskeleton
Nuclear envelope
Cell membrane
Smooth EPR
Rough EPR
1.
6.
7
8
Занятие № 4.
Тема: Eukaryotic chromosomes. Human karyotype.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
12
1. While studying maximally spiralized chromosomes of human karyotype the process of cell
division was stopped in the following phase:
a)
Metaphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Interphase
d)
Anaphase
e)
Telophase
2. On an electron micrograph a scientist has identified a structure formed by eight histone
proteins and a part of DNA molecule which makes about 1,75 revolutions around the molecules.
Which structure has been identified?
a) Nucleosoma
a) Chromatid
b) Chromosome
c) Elemetary fibril
d) Half-chromatid
3. The nuclei of cells were affected with substance, which destroyes the histones structure. What
components of the cell will be changed because of this situation in the first place?
a) Chromosomes.
b) Mitochondria.
c) Nuclear membrane.
d) Ribosomes.
e) Cell membranes.
4. Human cells were influenced by ultraviolet radiation, and as a consequence of this the DNA
molecules had been destroyed. Nevertheless, by means of specific enzymes the DNA structure
was renewed. What do we call this phenomenon?
a)
Reparation.
b)
Replication.
c)
Duplication.
d)
Initiation.
e)
Termination.
5. Karyotyping of healthy man cells is carried out. In the karyotype there was found out a fine
acrocentric odd chromosome. What chromosome is it?
a)
Y-chromosome
b)
Group C chromosome
c)
Group B chromosome
d)
Group A chromosome
e)
Х-chromosome
6. In a cytogenetic laboratory the karyotype of a healthy man was studied. 46 chromosomes were
seen in each somatic cell. How many autosomes does each cell include?
a)
44.
b)
23.
c)
22.
d)
46.
e)
92.
7. The study of the female karyogram shows that the centromere in X-chromosome is placed
near the centre. What do we call such chromosome?
a)
Submetacentric.
b)
Telocentric.
c)
Subacrocentric.
d)
Acrocentric.
e)
Metacentric.
13
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Name the substances that chromosome consists of
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Lipids
ATP
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Where the centromere is located if a chromosome is identified as acrocentric.
Right in the middle of chromatid
Moved closer to one of the ends
At one of the ends
In the centre
One arm of the chromosome is absent
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
How many chromosomes are present in female karyotype
23
69
46
92
47
1
2
3
4
What is the meaning of haploid number of chromosomes
Zygote will have chromosomes from mother and father in equal amount
The number of chromosomes will stay the same during all the generations
To provide variety in nature
To provide constancy of the signs
1
2
3
4
5
Which type of chromosome is called polytene chromosome?
The type that has one chromatid
Two chromatids
Female chromosomes
A lot of chromatids
Sex chromosomes
1
2
3
4
5
From the list of cell cycle stages chose ones belonging to the interphase
S
M
G1
P
G2
1
2
3
4
5
Name the main components of the nucleus in interphase
Nuclear envelope
Cell center
Nucleolus
Dictyosomes
Nucleoplasm
1
What is the significance of euchromatin?
It transfers information that leads to the protein synthesis.
2.
3.
4
5
6
7
8
14
2
3
4
5
9
2
3
4
What is called karyotype?
A photomicrograph of a single cell in the metaphase that is arranged to show the
chromosomes in descending order of size.
A presence of chromatin in the nucleus
It is a structure that passes the information about protein synthesis
Haploid number of chromosomes
1
2
3
4
5
Which stage of the cell cycle is being used for studying the karyotype?
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
S period
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Examining the 2 month old child the doctor paid attention to the sound of crying child
– it sounded like cat’s mewing. Plus the child had microcephaly and heart
malformation. His karyotype is 46 XY, 5p-. In which stage of mitosis did the doctor
saw this karyotype?
Interphase
Prophase
Metaphase
Anaphase
Telophase
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
It is known that interphase nucleus of the somatic cells in normal condition contains 05%of Barr bodies in males and from 60 to 70% of Barr bodies in females. Why
sometimes it is important to know the amount of Barr bodies in the cell?
To study the structure of X-chromosome.
To study the structure of Y-chromosome
To diagnose the sex of a human really fast
To determine karyotype
To study the structure of autosomes.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
How the Y-chromosome can be revealed in the nucleus?
Using light microscopy
Using phase-contrast microscopy
Using luminescence microscopy
Using scanning electron microscopy
Using stereoscopic microscopy
1
2
3
4
What is the effect of colchicine to the mitotic division?
It stops the process on metaphase stage
It prolongs anaphase
It stops karyokinesis
It speeds up metaphase
1
10
11
12
13
14
15
It takes part in the processes of cell metabolism
It slows down the process of protein synthesis
It transfers the information that leads to ATP synthesis
It transfers the information that leads to DNA synthesis
How does colchicine work?
15
1
2
3
4
5
It speeds up the process of centrioles movement to the opposite poles of the cell.
It stops chromosome spiralization processes.
It speed up the formation of the microtubules of the spindle fibers.
It stops the formation of the microtubules of the spindle fibers.
It stops the centrioles formation.
1
2
3
4
5
What human cells are being used to study karyotype?
Leucocytes
Erythrocytes
Platelets
Cells of the skin
Liver cells
1
2
3
4
5
What is the function of telomere?
It prevents chromosomes from forming boundaries with each other
It helps chromosome to duplicate
It takes part in protein synthesis
It takes part in carbohydrate synthesis
It stops the spindle fibers formation
16
17
18
1
2
3
4
5
What do we call idiogram?
Graphic representation of the karyotype
Graphic representation of the chromosomes being identified according to the
centromere position
Graphic representation of the DNA
Graphic representation of genes
Graphic representation of genes according to the centromere position.
2. Ситуационные задачи
№
of task
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
№
of task
1.
2.
3.
Content of the task:
Some cells of the sick person have normal karyotype and the other ones – 47 or 45
chromosomes. Name the main mechanisms of this situation to happen.
In studying buccal epithelium of the men with normal karyotype in one of the cells Xchromatin was revealed. How this situation can be explained?
Can the normal stem cell of the human bone marrow have 93 chromosomes?
Standard answer:
Mosaicism – presence of cells of two different genetic materials in the same two
individuals.
The presence of X-chromatin says that this cell ahs two X-chromosomes. This could of
happen due to the absence of divergence of the chromatids of one chromosome during
mitosis.
Yes it can. In metaphase.
Занятие № 5.
Тема: Nucleic acids and genetic code.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
16
1. Nowadays about 50 minor bases have been found in the t-RNA structure besides the main four
nitrogenous bases. Choose the minor nitrogenous base:
a) Dihydrouracil
b) Cysteine
c) Uracil
d) Adenine
e) Cytosine
2. According to the model of double DNA helix that was suggested by Watson and Creek, it was
established that one of chains would not be lost during replication and the second chain would be
synthesized complementary to the first one. What way of replication is it?
a)
Semiconservative
b)
Analogous
c)
Identical
d)
Dispersed
e)
Conservative
3. Different physical and chemical factors can destroy the structure of DNA. What do we call the
ability of the cells to regenerate the DNA structure?
a)
Reparation.
b)
Transduction.
c)
Transcription.
d)
Replication.
e)
Transformation.
4. During the synthetic period (S) of the cell cycle, the redouble of DNA quantity takes place.
This process occurs because of:
a)
Replication of DNA.
b)
Denaturation of DNA.
c)
Dissociation of DNA.
d)
Reparation of DNA.
e)
Coagulation of DNA.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
2
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
3
What is the “Group of coupling of genes”?
The amount of chromosomes in diploid set
The amount of chromosomes in haploid set
The amount of female sex chromosomes
The amount of male sex chromosomes
The amount of autosomes in diploid set
Choose the right Morgan law definition:
The strength of the genes coupling is in the right proportion with the distance in
between of them in the chromosome.
The coupling of genes is connected with their location at the chromosome
The strength of the genes coupling inversely proportional to the distance in
between of them at the chromosome
The strength of the genes coupling is in the right proportion to the distance in between
of them at the chromosome
The strength of the genes coupling inversely proportional to the distance in between
chromosomes
One morganide is
17
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
One group of genes coupling
The group of genes coupling at X-chromosome
The unit of the distance in between two genes
The unit of the distance in between nucleotides
The unit of the distance in between chromosomes
Ситуационные задачи:
1. Nucleus of the egg call and sperm cell have the same amount of chromosomes. But the
volume of cytoplasm and the amount of organelles in the egg is larger than in the sperm cells. Is
the DNA amount in the egg and sperm cell equal?
Answer: the amount of DNA differs due to the difference of mitochondria’s amount.
2. How many nucleotides are needed for DNA replication if it has А = 600000, G = 2400000
Answer: Т=600000, C=2400000 (according to the Chargaff rule).
Занятие №6.
Тема: Structure of the gene. Types of genes. Operon model
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. RNA that contains AIDS virus penetrated into a leukocyte and by means of reverse
transcriptase forced a cell to synthetize a viral DNA. This process is based upon:
a) Reverse transcription
b) Operon repression
c) Operon depression
d) Convariant replication
e) Reverse translation
2. It was found out that some compounds, for instance fungi toxins and some antibiotics can
inhibit activity of RNA-polymerase. What process will be disturbed in a cell in case of inhibition
of this enzyme?
a) Transcription
b) Reparation
c) Processing
d) Replication
e) Translation
3. It is known that the genetic code is degenerate and has triplet nature. What nucleotide can be
changed in the codifyng triplet without loosing its sense?
a) Third.
b) Second.
c) First.
d) Second or third.
e) First or second.
4. Polypeptide which has been synthesized on the ribosome includes 54 aminoacids. How many
codons did mRNA, used as a matrix during the synthesis, have?
a) 54.
b) 44.
c) 27.
d) 108.
e) 162
18
5. Some mRNA triplets (UAA, UAG, UGA) code no aminoacids, but in the process of reading
information they are terminators, in other words, they are able to stop the translation. What are
they?
a) Stop-codons.
b) Operators.
c) Anticodons.
d) Exons.
e) Introns.
6. Under the influence of mutation of a gene, the composition of the triplets was changed but the
gene continued the synthesis of the protein. What characteristics of genetic code can it be
connected with?
a) Degeneracy.
b) Specificity.
c) Universality.
d) Triplet nature.
e) Collinearity.
7. The gene which codifies the polypeptide chain consists of 4 exons and 3 introns. When
processing is over, the mature mRNA consists of nucleotides, which are complementary to:
a) 4 exons.
b) 3 introns.
c) 2 exons and 1 intron.
d) 1 exon and 1 intron.
e) 4 exons and 3 introns.
8. The transcription is taking place in human cells. RNA-polymerase enzyme moving along the
DNA molecule has reached a specific nucleotide sequence; after that the transcription ended.
What do we call this DNA site?
a) Terminator.
b) Operator.
c) Promoter.
d) Repressor.
e) Regulator.
9. It was determined that the mRNA tripletic sequence totally corresponded to the amino acid
sequence in the polypeptide chain. What do we call this characteristic of the genetic code?
a) Collinearity.
b) Universality.
c) Triplet nature.
d) Specificity.
e) Degeneracy.
10. During translation a few ribosomes, placed along the mRNA molecule at a certain distance
from one another, join each mRNA simultaneously. What do we call the translation complex that
consists of one mRNA molecule and some ribosomes which are placed on it?
a) Polysome.
b) Centrosome.
c) Lysosome.
d) Phagosome.
e) Nucleosome.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. It is known that the information about the amino acid sequence in the protein molecule is
written in the form of nucleotide sequence. There are 4 types of nucleotides in the DNA
19
molecule. Different amino acids are codified by a different number of triplets — from one to six.
What do we call this property of the genetic code?
a) Degeneracy.
b) Triplet nature.
c) Universality.
d) Collinearity.
e) Specificity.
2. RNA-polymeraseB(II) is blocked due to amanitine poisoning (poison of death-cup). It
disturbes:
a) Synthesis of m-RNA
b) Maturation of m-RNA
c) Reverse transcription
d) Primers synthesis
e) Synthesis of t-RNA
3. Protein-repressor has been found in a cell. What gene codifies the aminoacid sequence of this
protein?
a) Regulator.
b) Promotor.
c) Terminator.
d) Modificator.
e) Operator.
Занятие №7.
Тема: The control of Gene expression. Protein synthesis.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. Genetic structure of eukaryote is "exon-intron-exon". This structure-functional organization of
gene caused transcription peculiarities. What will be pro-i-RNA according to the schema?
a) Exon-intron-exon
b) Intron-exon
c) Exon-intron
d) Exon-exon-intron
e) Exon-exon
2. Examination of a patient revealed reduced contents of magnesium ions that are necessary for
attachment of ribosomes to the granular endoplasmatic reticulum. It is known that it causes
disturbance of protein biosynthesis. What stage of protein biosynthesis will be disturbed?
a) Translation
b) Aminoacid activation
c) Termination
d) Replication
e) Transcription
3. It was proved that a molecule of immature mRNA (precursor mRNA) contained more triplets
than amino acids found in the synthesized protein. The reason for that is that translation is
normally preceded by:
a) Processing
b) Initiation
c) Reparation
d) Mutation
e) Replication
20
4. You are studying functioning of a bacteria operon. The operator gene has been released from
the repressor gene. Immediately after this the following process will start in the cell:
a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) Replication
d) Processing
e) Repression
5. Protein synthesis includes several subsequent stages. It is preceded by the synthesis of
immature mRNA. What do we call this process?
a) Transcription.
b) Termination.
c) Replication.
d) Elongation.
e) Translation.
6. According to the hypothesis of be operon (Jacob, Mono, 1961), in Esherichia coli the lactose,
which is got by cell from the environment, acts as an inducer. In what way does the cell induce
the synthesis of enzyme that decompose it, and is turn on operon?
a) It combines with the repressor protein.
b) It combines with the operator gene.
c) It combines with the regulator gene.
d) It combines with the promoter.
e) It combines with the structural gene.
7. Protein-repressor has been found in a cell. What gene codifies the aminoacid sequence of this
protein?
a) Regulator.
b) Promotor.
c) Terminator.
d) Modificator.
e) Operator.
8. The work of bacterium operon is being studied. A gene operator has been released from the
protein-repressor. What do we call the process, which begins right after that?
a) Transcription.
b) Amino acids activation.
c) Translation.
d) Replication.
e) Processing.
9. The operator is known to be responsible for joining the RNA polymerase enzyme and
initiating the transcription. At that site deletion of two nucleotide pairs has taken place. What
consequences could it have?
a) Lack of protein synthesis.
b) Formation of abnormal proteins.
c) Synthesis of protein in unlimited quantities.
d) Formation of normal protein.
e) Short finish of protein synthesis.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. The elongation stage of protein synthesis involves
A. Initiation tRNA
B. Adding amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain
C. Loading initiation tRNA on the large ribosomal subunit
D. The code AUG
21
E. GTP
2. Ribosomes attach to
A. tRNA
B. 3 ' end of mRNA
C. An mRNA recognition sequence
D. 5' end of mRNA
E. RNA polymerase.
3. Translation involves
1. Decoding of codons
2. mRNA
3. Adapter molecules
4. Copying codes into codons
5. Copying codons into codes
4. Transcription involves
A. Decoding of codons
B. Copying DNA information
C. Copying codes into codons
D. mRNA synthesis
E. Peptide bonding
5. Introns probably function to
A. Integrate special coding sequences
B. Provide for recombination
C. Separate structural domains of proteins
D. Organize assembly of amino acids in proteins
E. Indirectly provide an evolutionary advantage
6. Initiation of protein synthesis involves
A. Initiation tRNA
B. The code AUG
C. Loading initiation tRNA on the large ribosomal subunit
D. Adding amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain
E. Peptidyl transferase
7. Post-transcriptional modification and processing of mRNA takes place in
1. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
2. Cytoplasm
3. Prokaryotes only
4. Eukaryotes only
5. Nucleus
8. A string of dozens to hundreds of adenine nucleotides thought to prevent mRNA degradation
is a description of a
A. Sequence added to mRNA about one minute after transcription
B. Cap on the 3' end of mRNA
C. Poly-A tail
D. Portion of the activated ribosomal complex
E. Cap on the 5' end of mRNA
Занятие №8.
Тема 8. Life cycle of cells and it periods. Division of the cells. Mitosis.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically
dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
22
a) Anaphase
b) Interfase
c) Metaphase
d) Prophase
e) Telophase
2. The study of mitotic cycle phases of onion root revealed the cell, in which the chromosomes
are situated in the equatorial plane, forming a star. What stage of the cell mitosis is it?
a) Metaphase
b) Prophase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase
e) Interphase
3. During the postsynthetic period of mitotic cycle the synthesis of proteins - tubulines, which
take part in the mitosis formation, was destroyed. It can cause the impairment of:
a) Chromosome separation
b) Cytokinesis
c) Duration of mitosis
d) Chromosome despiralization
e) Chromosome spiralization
4. Normal, actively dividing cells of human red bone marrow are analyzed. What number of
cells' chromosomes is typical for G1 period?
a) 46
b) 48
c) 47
d) 45
e) 23
5. Life cycle of a cell includes the process of DNA autoreduplication. As a result of it
monochromatid chromosomes turn into bichromatid ones. What period of cell cycle does this
phenomenon fall into?
a) S
b) Go
c) G1
d) G2
e) M
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. What organisms or cells fall into prokaryotic:
а) bacteria,
b) phages,
c) viruses,
d) blue-green algas,
e) muscle cells,
f) erythrocytes?
2. What type of division is not accompanied by decrease of a set of chromosome?
а) amitosis,
b) meiosis,
c) mitosis,
d) polytenia,
e) endomitosis.
4. What set of chromosome is received at a mitotic division:
а) tetraploid,
23
b) diploid,
c) triploid,
d) haploid?
5. How many cells are formed as a result of a mitosis:
а) 4,
b) 2,
c) 3,
d) 6,
e) 8?
6. During mitotic cell division a scientist can see the phase when the nuclear envelope and
nucleolus disappear, the centrioles are placed on the opposite poles of the cell and chromosomes
are in the form of a thread ball freely placed in the cytoplasm. What stage of mitotic cycle is the
cell at?
a) Prophase.
b) Metaphase.
c) Anaphase.
d) Interphase.
e) Telophase
7. Microfilaments and microtubules are known to include tubuline proteins, which take part in
the formation of the division spindle. In what period of the mitotic cycle are tubuline proteins
synthesized?
a) Postsynthesis period (G2) of interphase.
b) Postmitotic period of interphase.
c) Mitosis.
d) Synthesis period (S) of interphase.
e) Presynthesis period (G^ of interphase.
8. During the whole life of a human in some adult cells mitosis is not observed, and the quantity
of DNA stays permanent. What do we call these cells?
a) Neurons.
b) Hepatocytes.
c) Eye cornea epitheliocytes.
d) Red bone marrow cells.
e) Germinal epithelium.
9. During an experiment the culture of the cells divided by mitosis was influenced by the
substance which destroyed the spindle of division. Which substance was used in the experiment?
a) Colchicine.
b) Penicillin.
c) Histamine.
d) Methanol.
e) Iodine.
10. During the G2 phase (postsynthesis period) of the cell cycle the synthesis of tubulin proteins
which take part in the production of the division spindle was impaired. What process can be
disturbed?
a) Divergence of daughter chromosomes.
b) Chromosome despiralization.
c) Chromosome spiralization.
d) Formation of ribosome subunits.
e) Formation of nucleolus.
Занятие №9.
Тема: Control occupation: «Molecular and cellular levels organization of life».
24
Тесты с ответами
1. Low level of albumins and fibrinogen was detected in the patient’s blood. Decreased activity
of what organelle of the liver hepatocytes can cause it?
A. Granular endoplasmatic net
B. Golgi complex
C. Lysosomes
D. Mitochondrions
E. Agranular endoplasmatic net
2. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically
dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
A. Anaphase
B. Telophase
C. Interf'ase
D. Metaphase
E. Prophase
3. The cell of the laboratory animal was overdosed with Roentgen rays. As a result albuminous
fragments formed in the cytoplasm. What cell organoid will take part at their utilization?
A. Lysosomes
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cells centre
D. Ribosome
E. Golgi complex
6. Who of the named below scientists had proposed the term "Biology"?
A. Jean Lamarck
B. George Cuvier
C. Carolus Linnaeus
D. Treviranus
E. Gregory Mendel
7. Who had formulated the conception known now as the "cell theory" ?
A. Mattias Schleiden
B. Jophrois Sent Iller
C. Charles Darwin
D. Louis Pasteur
E. Augustus Weismann
8. Who had discovered a cell?
A. R. Hoock
B. J. Swammerdam
C. A. Leewenhoek
D. M. Malpigi
E. G. Mendel
9. What cell structure contain DNA?
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosomes
C. Lysosomes
D. Golgi apparatus
E. Nucleolus
10. A granular endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are well developed in cells. What
main function do these cells perform?
A. Release of protein secretion
B. Phagocytosis and digestion of entrapped particles
C. Production of energy
25
D. Transmission of nervous stimulation
E. Production of protein
11. Chromosomes forming figures of "Stars" located in the centre of the cell are seen in the
microslide. What phase of mitosis is there in this cell?
A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Prophase
E. Interphase
12. Colchicine (a substance extracted from a meadow saffron - Colchicum L.) stops the process
of mitosis. What does colchicine disturb in the mechanism of mitosis?
A. Formation of mitotic spindle
B. Separation of centrosome centrioles
C. Dissolution of nuclear membrane
D. Doubling of chromosomes
E. Cytoplasm division
13.What organelle takes a direct part in exocytosis?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Ribosomes
C. Cilia
D. Chloroplasts
E. Mitochondria
14. What method of investigation is necessary for studying a fine structure of the cell surface?
A.
Scanning electronic microscopy
B.
Transmission electronic microscopy
C.
X-ray diffraction analysis
D.
Light microscopy
E.
Fluorescence microscopy
16. The "cytoskeleton" of eukaryotic cells
A. Includes microfilaments
B. Changes constantly
C. Includes some DNA
D. Extends into the nucleus
E. Includes protein
17. The part(s) of a mitochondrion that are rich in enzymes is/are the
a) Cristae
b) Outer membrane
c) Matrix
d) Intermembrane space
e) Inner membrane
18. Actin, myosin, and tubulin are
A.
Proteins
B.
In chromatin
C.
Possess a membrane.
D.
Contain nucleic acids.
E.
Break down organelles
19. Lysosomes
A. Contain digestive enzymes
B. Break down complex molecules
C. Constructed on ribosomes
D. Components of filaments
E. Components of the plasma membrane
26
20. Which of the following propositions about cell membrane functions is incorrect?
A. Sorting genetic material
B. Energy transduction
C. Selective permeability
D. Concentration of reactants
E. Isolation of different chemical reactions
21. Cells are small at least in part because as size increases the surface-to-volume ratio
A. Decreases
B. Doubles
C. Decreases to half
D. Energy transduction
E. Increases
23. The cell theory states that
A. Living things are composed of cells
B. Cells divide
C. New cells come from adult cells
D. All cells are descended from ancient cells
E. Cells don’t contain genetic material
24. Which of the following propositions about “chloroplasts and mitochondria” is incorrect?
A. Are found in animal cells
B. Are found in plant cells
C. Have two membranes
D. Contain a matrix
E. Contain DNA
25.The high resolution attained by the electron microscope is attributed to its use of
A. Electrons instead of light
B. Fixed specimens
C. Grid patterns
D. Electromagnetic lenses
E. Large wavelengths
26. Which of the following cells contain plastids?
A. Plants
B. Some prokaryotic
C. Animal
D. All cells
E. Some prokaryotic
27. The cell synthesized its own compounds (proteins and carbohydrates) and has separated them
as microdrops of a secret. What organelle was included in the work on an ending stage of this
process connected with separation of a secret?
A. Golgi body
B. Rough-surfaced ER
C. Ribosomes
D. Smooth-surfaced ER
E. Lysosomes
28. In the woman of 60 years the tumor uterus is removed. At the analyses of tumor cells
multipole mitoses were found with divergence of chromosomes to many poles. What organelles
were distroyed?
A.
Centrosome
B.
Secondary lisosomes
C.
Peroxisomes
D.
Ribosomes
E.
Rough-surfaced ER
27
29. On nutritious environment with cells, the solution thimin (T) with radioactive mark is
brought in. In what structures of cells will find out marked thimin (T) in time radioavtography?
A.
Nucleus
B.
Ribosomes
C.
Golgi body
D.
Endoplasmatic reticulum
E.
Lisosomes
Molecular biology
1. Genetic structure of eukaryote is "exon-intron-exon". This structure-functional organizalion
of gene caused transcription peculiarities. What will be pro-i-RNA according to the schema?
a)
Exon-intron-exon
b)
Exon-exon
c)
Exon-exon-intron
d)
Exon-intron
e)
Inlron-exon
2. While studing of the family tree with history of hypertrichosis (hyperhirsutism of the ear) this
sign was founded only in the men and it was inherited from father to the son. Define the type of
hypertrichosis inheritance?
a)
Connected with Y-chromosome
b)
Connected with X-chromosome recessive
c)
Autosomal-recessive
d)
Connected with X-chromosome dominant
e)
Autosomal-dominant
3. Which of the named below propositions of the cell theory belongs to Rudolf Virchow?
A. Each cell is formed by the division of mother cell
B. Cell is an elementary structural unit of plant and animal organisms
C. Cells of different organisms have the same principle of organization (homologous by
their structure)
D. One gene — one polypeptide
E. Codons are in the template ribonucleic acid
4. Which of the given postulates corresponds to the modern level of genetic knowledge?
A.
One gene — one polypeptide
B.
One gene — one trait
C.
One gene — one protein
D.
One gene — one ATP
E.
One gene — one DNA
5. It is known that there are 64 codons. How mаny of them have no information of amino acids
and are stop codons:
A.
3
B.
1
C.
5
D.
8
E.
10
6. Which of the following propositions concerning a genetic code is incorrect?
A. Each codon determines one amino acid
B. Codon contains three nucleotides
C. There is only one codon for each amino acid
D. Codons are in the template ribonucleic acid
E. Nucleotide of one codon cannot be a part of another codon
7. What answer is the most qualified one? A transcription it is:
28
a)
A synthesis of the template RNA on DNA-molecule with the sequence of
nucleotides complementary to DNA-molecule
b)
A transcription of the genetic information from DNA-molecule to the template
ribonucleic acid
c)
Copying of template ribonucleic acid of DNA-molecule
d)
Synthesis of the proteins
e)
Synthesis of the polypeptide
8. What nucleic acids take part in the process of translation?
A.
Ribosomal RNA’s (r -RNA)
B.
Transfer RNA’s (t-RNA)
C.
Messenger RNA
D.
DNA
E.
ATP
9. DNA-dependent RNA polymerases are enzymes that
A. Use nucleoside triphosphates as substrates
B. Add groups of polynucleotides to mRNA
C. Require a primer
D. Recognize promoters on a gene
E. Are present only in eucaryotic cells
10. A recognition sequence for ribosome binding to mRNA is/are
A. Upstream from the coding sequence
B. Aminoacyl-tRNA
C. Initiator
D. Coding sequence
E. Leader sequence
11. Which of the following is/are termination codons?
A.
UAG
B.
UUA
C.
AUA
D.
GUA
E.
GUA
12. An "adapter" molecule containing an anticodon and a region to which an amino acid is
bonded is a/an
a) Aminoacyl-tRNA
b) Coding sequence
c) Initiator
d) Peptidyl transferase.
e) Leader sequence.
13. The A-site accepts
A.
Aminoacyl-tRNA
B.
Coding sequence
C.
Initiator
D.
Peptidyl transferase
E.
Leader sequence
14. The elongation stage of protein synthesis involves
A. Adding amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain
B. Initiation tRNA
C. Loading initiation tRNA on the large ribosomal subunit
D. The code AUG
E. GTP
15. Ribosomes attach to
A. 5' end of mRNA
29
B. 3 ' end of mRNA
C. An mRNA recognition sequence
D. tRNA
E. RNA polymerase.
16. Translation involves
A. Decoding of codons
B. mRNA
C. Adapter molecules
D. Copying codes into codons
E. Copying codons into codes
17. Energy for transfer of a peptide chain from the A site to the P site is provided by
A.
GTP
B.
Enzymes
C.
ATP
D.
ADP
E.
Guanosine triphosphate
18. Transcription involves
A. mRNA synthesis
B. Decoding of codons
C. Copying DNA information
D. Copying codes into codons
E. Peptide bonding
19. Introns probably function to
A. Separate structural domains of proteins
B. Integrate special coding sequences
C. Provide for recombination
D. Organize assembly of amino acids in proteins
E. Indirectly provide an evolutionary advantage
20. Initiation of protein synthesis involves
A. The code AUG
B. Initiation tRNA
C. Loading initiation tRNA on the large ribosomal subunit
D. Adding amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain
E. Peptidyl transferase
21. Post-transcriptional modification and processing of mRNA takes place in
A.
Nucleus
B.
Cytoplasm
C.
Prokaryotes only
D.
Eukaryotes only
E.
Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
22. A string of dozens to hundreds of adenine nucleotides thought to prevent mRNA degradation
is a description of a
A.
Cap on the 3' end of mRNA
B.
Poly-A tail
C.
Sequence added to mRNA about one minute after transcription
D.
Portion of the activated ribosomal complex
E.
Cap on the 5' end of mRNA
23. The coiled double helix structure of DNA was suggested as a result of X-ray diffraction data
collected by
A.
Franklin and Wilkens
B.
Griffith
C.
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
30
D.
Watson and Crick
E.
Hershey and Chase
24. Which of the following base pairs is/are incorrect?
A.
A-D
B.
U-A
C.
G-C
D.
T-A
E.
C-G
25. A large quantity of homogentistic acid in urine
A. Is associated with alkaptonuria
B. Indicates a kidney disease
C. Is caused by a block in the metabolic reactions that break down phenylalanine
D. Is due to presence of an oxidizing enzyme
E. Indicates that a diuretic has been consumed
26. Which of the following propositions in Chargaff’s rules is incorrect?
A.
[A] = [D]
B.
[G]=[C]
C.
Ratio of purines to pyrimidines = 1
D.
Ratio of T to a = 1
E.
Ratio of G to С =1
27. The investigators credited with elucidating the structure of DNA are
A.
Watson and Crick
B.
Hershey and Chase
C.
Meselson and Stahl
D.
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
E.
Franklin and Wilkens
28. Which of the following is/are true of linkages in DNA?
A.
5' phosphate to 3' sugar carbon
B.
The backbone has 3', 2' phosphodiester bonds
C.
The two strands are joined by covalent bonds
D.
One strand ends with a 2' phosphate
E.
Both strands end with a 3' hydroxyl group
29. Neurospora was a good choice for the Beadle and Tatum studies because
A. Its sexual phase enables genetic analysis
B. Is diploid
C. It can be cultivated on maximal medium
D. It had no known mutant forms
E. Control strain could not use arginine
30. Deoxyribose and phosphate are joined in the DNA backbone by
A. Phosphodiester bonds
B. One of four bases
C. Purines
D. Pyrimidines
E. The 1' carbon of the sugar
31. A mutation is
A. A change in a gene
B. A change in an enzyme
C. A change in proteins
D. An alteration of mRNA
E. Non inheritable
32. Beadle and Tatum concluded that
A. One gene affects one protein
31
B. One gene affects one polypeptide
C. A mutation directly affects an enzyme
D. Mutations have no effect on enzymes
E. Proteins mutate when exposed to radiations
33. The 3' end of one DNA fragment is linked to the 5' end of another fragment by means of
A. DNA ligase
B. Helicase enzymes
C. RNA polymerase
D. Hydrogen bonds
E. Complementary base pairing
34. The molecule(s) thought to be responsible for untying knots in replicating DNA is/are
1. Topoisomerases
2. Histones
3. Chromatin
4. Scaffolding proteins
5. Protosomes
35. The following can be said about the leading strand and lagging strand, respectively:
A. Forms continuously, forms in short pieces
B. Both form continuously
C. Both form in short pieces
D. Forms in short pieces, forms continuously
E. Scaffolding proteins
36. Nucleosomes are held together in large coiled loops by
A. Scaffolding proteins
B. Histones
C. Chromatin
D. Topoisomerases
E. Protosomes
37. The coiled double helix structure of DNA was suggested as a result of X-ray diffraction data
collected by
A. Franklin and Wilkens
B. Hershey and Chase
C. Griffith
D. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
E. Watson and Crick
38. The direction for synthesis of DNA is
A. 5' —> 3'
B. 3' —> 5'
C. 5'—>5'
D. 3' —> 3'
E. Variable
39. The proteins intimately associated with DNA in chromosomes are
A. Absent in prokaryotic
B. Nucleosomes
C. Chromatin
D. Topoisomerases
E. Nonhistones
40. The genetic code is carried in the
A. Sequence of bases
B. DNA backbone
C. Arrangement of 5', 3' phosphodiester bonds
D. Okazaki fragments
32
E. Histones
41. In one molecule of DNA one would expect the composition of the two strands to be
A. One old, one new
B. Both either old or new
C. Both all new
D. Both partly new fragments and partly old parental fragments
E. Unpredictable
42. RNA-polymerase B(II) is blocked due to amanitine poisoning (poison of death-cup). It
disturbes:
A. Synthesis of m-RNA
B. Synthesis of t-RNA
C. Reverse transcription
D. Primers synthesis
E. Maturation of m-RNA
43. Testosterone and it's analogs increase the mass of skeletal muscles that allows to use them
for treatment of dystrophy. Due to interaction of the hormones with what cell substance is this
action caused?
A. Nuclear receptors
B. Membrane receptors
C. Ribosomes
D. Chromatin
E. Proteins-activators of transcription
Вопросы:
1
Definition of biology as sciences. A place of biology in preparation of the doctor.
2. Definition of concept of life on a modern level of development of a biological science.
The forms and basic properties alive.
3. Structural organizations of life, Types of cells.
4. Cell - elementary structurally functional unit alive. Pro- and eukaryotic cells.
5. Cellular theory, its modern condition and importance for medicine.
6. Morphology of a cell. Cytoplasm and organoids.
7. Cell membranes. Chemical structure. Organization and importance.
8. Nucleus of a cell in an interphase. A chromatin: different organizations (packing) of a
hereditary material (euchromatin , heterochromatin).
9. Chromosomal and genomic levels of organization of a hereditary material in time
mitotical division of a cell.
10. Chemical structure, feature of morphology Chromosomes. Changes of their structure in
cell cycle.
11. Karyotype of the man. Morphofunctional characteristic and classification chromosomes
of the man. Meaning of study of a karyotype in medicine.
12. A molecular level of organization of the hereditary information. Nucleic acids.
Morphofunctional characteristic and classification, their importance.
13. A structure of a gene. Types of Genes. Synthesis tRNA and rRNA.
14. Replication DNA, its importance. Self-correction and reparation DNA.
15. Genetic code, its property.
16. The basic stages of a biosynthesis of protein in a cell.
17. Translation: Initiation, elongation, terminationт. Posttranslation transformation of
proteine - basis of their functioning.
18. Features of realization of the genetic information at eukaryotic cell. Exon-intron
organization of genes at eukaryotic cell. Processing and splicing.
19. Features of a regulation of work of genes in pro- and at eukaryotic cells.
33
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
Cell cycle, its periodics.
Division of a cell. Concept about mitotic activity. Infringement of a mitosis.
Types of cell division. (Mitosis, Amitosis, Endomitosis, politenia, Meiosis).
Kloning of organisms. Importance of a method of culture of tissues for medicine.
Apoptosis. Morphology of apoptosis.
Перечень микропрепаратов:
1. Onion cuticle
2. Blood of a frog
3. Transverse section of the ascaris uterus
4. Кариокинез в клетках корешка лука
5. Политенные хромосомы дрозофилы
6. Жировые включения
7. Пигментные включения
8. Митохондрии
9. Кровь человека
10. Амитоз в эпителии стенки мочевого пузыря лягушки
Занятие №10.
Тема: Biologic features of development of the human being. Gametogenesis. Fertilization.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. According to the rule of the permanent chromosomes number, each animal species can be
characterized by a specific and permanent number of chromosomes. What mechanism provides
this feature during sexual reproduction?
a) Meiosis.
b) Reparation.
c) Translation.
d) Mitosis.
e) Cytokinesis.
2. A woman who was infected with toxoplasmosis during the pregnancy has a child with
multiple congenital defects.This is a result of:
a) Teratogenesis
b) Chemical mutogenesis
c) Biological mutogenesis
d) Recombination
e) Cancerogenesis
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. The tube(s) that transport(s) gametes away from gonads is/are the
a) vas deferens.
b) vagina.
c) seminal vesicle.
d) oviduct,
e) sperm cord.
2. At what stage of a prophase of the first division of meiosis there is a crossing-over:
а) leptotene,
b) pachynema,
c) diplotene,
34
d) zigotene?
3. To choose the type of ovum characteristic for men and mammals:
а) telolecithal,
b) centrolecithal,
c) isolecithal.
4. The presence animal and vegetative pole is peculiar:
a) isolecithal ovum,
b) telolecithal ovum,
c) centrolecithal ovum.
5. In what method breeding of the gametes are formed:
а) vegetative,
b) sexless,
c) sexual
6. The spermaries and ovaries of the man are gland of:
а) incretion,
b) mixed secretion,
c) exsecretion.
Занятие №11.
Тема:Features of embryonic development of the man. Defects of development at human
being, their causes.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. At a definite stage of embryogenesis the mother's and fetus's circulatory systems are becoming
physiologically connected. What provisional organ fulfils this function?
a) Placenta.
b) Amnion.
c) Yolk sac.
d) Serosa.
e) Alantois.
2. At the stage of blastocyst beginning of a human embryo implantation into the womb wall was
recorded. What term of embryogenesis does it occur at?
a) 6-7 days.
b) 10-12 days.
c) 3 —4 days.
d) 24-26 days.
e) 30 — 35 days.
3. In a human embryo the creation of axial organs has begun. What is this development stage
called?
a) Gastrula.
b) Blastula.
c) Zygota.
d) Cleavage.
e) Neurula.
4. Antibiotic actinomycin D is known to have no toxic effect on the maternal organism, on the
other hand, it impairs the formation of tissues and organs of ectodermic origin in the embryo
organism. A woman was taking actinomycin D during pregnancy. What organs or systems of the
fetus can be impaired as a result?
a) Nervous system.
b) Sex glands.
c) Skeleton muscles.
35
d) Locomotion system.
e) Urogenital system.
5. A healthy woman, who had viral roseola during pregnancy, gave birth to a baby with a cleft
lip and cleft palate. The baby has a normal karyotype and genotype. This anomaly can be the
result of:
a) Influence of teratogenic factor.
b) Gene mutation.
c) Chromosomal aberration.
d) Chromosomal mutation.
e) Combinative variability.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. The ontogenesis represents
а) consecutive series of phylogenesis.
b) historical development of an alive tissue.
c) development of an alive organism before birth.
d) development from a zygote to the end of life.
2. Final stage of cleavage is
а) blastula.
b) gastrula.
c) morula.
d) ectoderm.
e) mesoderm.
3. Isolecital ovum has cleavage
а) incomplete.
b) total.
c) transversal .
d) longitudinal.
e) regional.
4. What germinal layer is a connective tissue formed from?
а) ectoderm
b) mesoderm
c) entoderm
d) blastoderm
5. What way do blastomeres divide by?
а) mitosis
b) meiosis
c) amitosis
d) direct division
6. The ectoderm yields a beginning to
а) chorda.
b) intestinal tube.
c) skeletal muscles.
d) dermal derivates.
e) skeleton.
7. How do we call the individual development of organisms from the moment of formation of a
zygote up to the end of life?
а) phylogenesis
b) ontogenesis
c) normogenesis
d) ovogenesis
36
e) spermatogenesis
8. What number of chromosomes has a zygote?
а) haploid
b) diploid
c) polyploid
d) aneuploid
9. A hollow ball of several hundred cells
a. is a morula.
b. is the gastrula.
c. is a blastula.
e. contains a blastocoel.
c. surrounds a fluid-filled cavity.
Занятие №12.
Тема: Postembryonic development and kinds of it periods. Regeneration. Transplantation.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. During the postembryonal development of a human two lordoses and two kyphoses are
formed. It can be explained as the human ability to:
a) Walk vertically.
b) Sit.
c) Swim.
d) Creep.
e) Lie.
2. During the postembryonal development in a man's organism some age-related changes occur.
They are skin elasticity loss, visual and hearing impairment. What do we call the period of
individual development when such changes occur?
a) Aging.
b) Adolescence.
c) First mature.
d) D.Juvenile.
e) Youth.
3. In a transplantation canter a 40-year-old patient has been transplanted a kidney which was
taken from a donor perished in a car accident. To avoid graft rejection, the patient's immunity is
suppressed with the help of:
a) Immunostimulants.
b) Antibiotics.
c) Vitamines.
d) Immunodepressants.
e) Antiseptics.
4. In an experimental laboratory a sheep kidney has been grafted to a cow. What do we call this
way of transplantation?
a) Allotransplantation.
b) Explantation.
c) Autotransplantation.
d) Ksenotransplantation.
e) Homotransplantation.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
37
1. A patient has been badly burnt, in result he has skin defects. To liquidate of these defects the
surgeons have obtained a piece of skin from another part of the patient's body. What way of
transplantation is it?
a) Autotransplantation.
b) Homotransplantation.
c) Explantation.
d) Allotransplantation.
e) Ksenotransplantation.
2. In a transplantation centre a patient has been transplanted a heart. What cells of the immune
system can hence the graft cells?
a) Macrophages.
b) Plasma cells.
c) T-Lymphocytes.
d) B-Lymphocytes.
e) Lymphoblasts.
3. During the ontogenesis there appear some changes in a human organism: the vital capacity of
his lungs decreases, his arterial pressure increases, and the progress of atherosclerosis takes
place. What do we call the period of individual development in which all these changes happen?
a) Elderly.
b) Youth.
c) Adolescence.
d) Juvenile.
e) First mature.
4. Following exposure to radiation a lot of mutant cells appeared in a patient. Some time later
most of them were detected and destroyed by the following cells of the immune system:
a) T-lymphocytes-killers
b) Plasmoblasts
c) T-lymphocytes-supressors
d) B-lymphocyte
e) Stem cells
5. Highly injured person gradually died. Please choose the indicator of biological death:
a) Autolysis and decay in the cells
b) Absence of movements
c) Absence of palpitation
d) Loss of consciousness
e) Disarray of chemical processes
6. Donor skin transplantation was performed to a patient with extensive burns. On the 8-th day
the graft became swollen and changed colour; on the 11-th day graft rejection started. What cells
take part in this process?
a) T-lymphocytes
b) B-lymphocytes
c) Erythrocytes
d) Basophils
e) Eosinophils
7. For the purpose of myocardium infarction treatment a patient was injected with embryonal
stem cells derived from this very patient by means of therapeutic cloning . What transplantation
type is it?
a) Autotransplantation
b) Allotransplantation
c) Xenotransplantation
d) Isotransplantation
e) Heterotransplantation
38
8. A female patient underwent liver transplantation. 1,5 month after it her condition became
worse because of reaction of transplant rejection. What factor of immune system plays the
leading part in this reaction?
a) T-killers
b) B-lymphocytes
c) T-helpers
d) Interleukin-1
e) Natural killers
9. A patient in a transplantation centre underwent heart transplantation. The organ was taken
from a donor who died in a road accident. Foreign heart can be rejected as a result of
development of transplantation immunity. It is usually prevented by means of:
a) Immunosuppressors
b) Chemotherapy
c) Ultrasound
d) Enzymes
e) X-ray therapy
10. Examination of a pregnant woman having Rh-negative blood revealed high level of
antierythrocytic antibodies. For its reduction she was implanted with her husband's Rh-positive
skin graft. The graft was rejected in two weeks. Its microscopic examination revealed circulatory
disturbance, edema and cellular infiltration with lymphocytes, neutrophils and macrophages
predominance. What is the most likely pathology?
a) Graft immunity
b) Interstitial inflammation
c) Delayed-type hypersensitivity
d) Immediate hypersensitivity
e) Granulomatous inflammation
Занятие №13.
Тема: Laws of inheritance at monohybrid, dihybrid and polyhybrid cross.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. A family of students who came from Africa got a child with anemia signs. The child died
soon. Examination revealed that the child's erythrocytes have abnormal semilunar shape. Specify
genotypes of the child's parents:
a) Аа х Аа
b) Аа х аа
c) АА х АА
d) аа х аа
e) Аа х АА
2. Examination of a 12-year-old boy with developmental lag revealed achondroplasia:
disproportional constitution with evident shortening of upper and lower limbs as a result of
growth disorder of epiphyseal cartilages of long tubal bones. This disease is:
a) Inherited, dominant
b) Inherited, sex-linked
c) Inherited, recessive
d) Congenital
e) Acquired
3. One of the parents is suspected of having phenylketonuria recessive gene. What is the risk of
giving birth to a child with inborn phenylketonuria?
a) 0%
39
b)
c)
d)
e)
75%
100%
25%
50%

Контроль конечного уровня знаний (
1. Inclination to diabetes mellitus provoked by the autosomal-recessive gene. This gene becomes
apparent only in 30 % of homozygous individuals, what genetic regularity is observed in this
case?
a) Incomplete penetrance.
b) Discontinuity.
c) Complementarity.
d) Gene expressiveness.
e) Pleiotropy.
2. A husband is a homozygous by a dominant gene which causes polydactily. His wife is a
homozygote by recessive allele of this gene. Which of the below mentioned genetic regularities
can be apparent in their children as for their having polydactily?
a) The law of unit characters.
b) The law of segregation.
c) The law of independent assortment.
d) Linkage of genes.
e) Sex-linked inheritance.
3. Parents with a normal phenotype gave birth to an ill with albinism child (the feature that is
inherited by the autosomal-recessive type). What genotype do the parents have?
a) Aa and Aa.
b) AA and aa.
c) AA and AA.
d) AA and Aa.
e) aa and aa.
4. Alkaptonuria is inherited as an autosomal-recessive feature. Parents with a normal phenotype
have a baby with alkaptonuria. What genotype do these parents have?
a) Aa and Aa.
b) aa and aa.
c) AA and AA.
d) AA and Aa.
e) Aa and aa.
Ситуационные задачи:
1. Blue-eyed the man is married to a brown-eyed woman, whose parents were brown-eyed,
but sister — blue-eyed. Can they have blue-eyed child?
2. Albinism is inherited as autоsome-recessive gene. In family, where one of the spouses
albino, and another is normal, children the twins — one were born is normal, and another
albino. What probability of birth of the following child albino?
3. Surdomutism is supervised recessive by a gene. In family, where both parents are
healthy, the deaf-and-dumb child was born. Whether it is possible to define his genotype?
4. Phenylketonuria is inherited as a recessive gene. Both parents heterozygous on a gene
phenylketonuria. Define probability that they will transfer a gene to the child.
5. At the man the short sight dominates above normal sight, and brown eyes – above lightblue. The father and mother are heterozygous to these attributes. Define probability of
birth blue-eyed of children with normal sight and brown-eyed with short sight.
40
6. Coat colors in cats are caused by the interactions of several genes, some affecting the
ability to produce the black pigment eumelanin, some the red pigment phaeomelanin and
some the patterns of deposition of pigment. A tabby brown cat is crossed to a cinnamon
solid cat. All the kittens resulting from this cross are brown tabbies. When adult these F1
were allowed to intercross freely with each other to produce an F2. In the resulting
exploding cat population four classes of cat could be seen, brown tabbies, cinnamon
tabbies, solid blacks and solid cinnamons in the relative proportions 9:3:3:1. Account for
these observations.
7. R and г are genes for flower color. Homozygous dominant and heterozygous genotypes
both have red flowers; the homozygous recessive genotype has white flowers. Т and t are
genes that control plant height. Homozygous dominant plants are tall, heterozygous
plants are medium height, and homozygous recessive plants are short. Genes for flower
color and height are on different chromosomes.
Занятие №14.
Тема: Multiple alleles. Inheritance of blood groups.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. On blood grouping on the system ABO, standard serum of the I and II groups caused RBC
agglutination of the examined blood and serum group of the III didn't. What agglutinogens are
on these RBC?
a) В
b) А and В
c) А
d) D and C
e) С
2. A woman with (B), Rh- blood group born a child with (A) blood group. The child is diagnosed
with hemolytic disease of newborn as a result of rhesus incompatibility. What blood group is the
child's father likely to have?
a) (A), Rh+*
b) (0), Rh+
c) (B), Rh+
d) (0), Rfr
e) (A), Rh~
3. A boy has I (I0I0) blood group and his sister has IV (IAIB) blood group. What blood groups
do their parents have?
a) II (IАI0) and III (IВI0)
b) II (IАIА) and III (IВI0)
c) I (I0I0) and IV (IAIB)
d) III (IВI0) and IV (IAIB)
e) I (I0I0) and III (IВI0)
4. Blood group of a 30 year old man was specified before an operation. His blood is Rh-positive.
Reaction of erythrocyte agglutination was absent with standard sera of 0/ (I), А (II), В (III)
groups. The blood under examination is of the following group:
a) 0/ (I)
b) А (II)
c) АВ (IV)
d) В (III)
e) 41
5. Before a surgery a blood sample of a 30-year-old man has been typed. Blood is Rh-positive.
Standard serums of such groups as 0 (I), А (II), В (III) didn’t activate erythrocyte agglutination
reaction. The group of the analyzed blood is:
a) 0 (I)
b) А (II)
c) d) В (III)
e) АВ (IV)
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. Genotypes
(a)______________produce blood type A,
(b)______________produce type В,
(с) _____________ produces AB,
(d)
_____________results in type O.
2. ____________ may result when a pregnant Rh-negative woman's sensitized WBCs are
producing large quantities of anti-D antibodies
3. Who is at greatest risk for Rh mother-fetus incompatibility problems?
a) Europeans
b) Africans
c) Native Americans
d) all are equally at risk
4. Which of the following statements is true regarding the ABO blood system?
a) People who have the A antigen normally would not produce the anti-A antibody.
b) People who are type AB normally produce both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
c) The only ABO type blood that normally does not have either A or B antigens is AB.
Ситуационные задачи:
1. Mrs. Doe and Mrs. Roe had babies at the same hospital and at the same time. Mrs. Doe took
home a girl and named her Nancy. Mrs. Roe took home a boy and named him Richard. However,
she was sure that she had given birth to a girl and brought suit against the hospital. Blood tests
showed that Mr. Roe was blood type O Mrs. Roe was type AB, and Mr. and Mrs. Doe were both
type B. Nancy was type A, and Richard was type O. Had an exchange occurred?
2. In humans the three alleles IA, IB, and i constitute a multiple allelic series that determine the
ABO blood group system. For the following problems, state whether the child mentioned can
actually be produced from the marriage. Explain your answer.
a. An O child from the marriage of two A individuals.
b. An O child from the marriage of an A to a B.
c. An AB child from the marriage of an A to an O,
d. An O child from the marriage of AB to an A.
e. An A child from the marriage of an AB to a B.
3. A woman of blood group AB marries a man of blood group A whose father was group O.
What is the probability that
a. their two children will both be group A?
b. one child will be group B and the other group O?
c. the first child will be a son of group AB and their second child a son of group B?
Занятие №15.
Тема: Interaction of allelic and not allelic genes. Pleiotropy.
42
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. A woman with 0 (I) bllod group has born a child with AB blood group. This woman's husband
has A blood group. What genetic interaction explains this phenomenon?
a) Recessive epistasis
b) Codominance
c) Polymery
d) Incomplete dominance
e) Complementation
2. Hartnup disease is caused by point mutation of only one gene which results in disturbance of
tryptophane absorption in the bowels and its resorption in the renal tubules. It is the reason for
disorder of both digestive and urination systems. What genetic phenomenon is observed in this
case?
a) Pleiotropy
b) Complementary interaction
c) Polymery
d) Codominance
e) Semidominance
3. The same genotype in a human can cause the development of a feature with different degrees
of manifestation that depends on the interaction of this gene with the others and on the influence
of environmental conditions. What do we call the degree of phenotypical manifestation of the
character controlled by a definite gene?
a) Gene expression.
b) Penetrance.
c) Inheritance.
d) Mutation.
e) Polymery.
4. Some people with good clinical health can feel anaemia symptoms in the conditions of high
mountains. During their blood test we can find sickle-shaped erythrocytes. What genotype can a
person with occasional symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia have?
a) Aa
b) XCXC.
c) aa.
d) AA.
e) XCY.
5. Children with normal hearing have been born by deaf and dumb parents with the genotype
DDee and ddEE. What is the form of gene interaction between the genes D and E?
a) Complementarity.
b) Complete dominance.
c) Epistasis.
d) Polymery.
e) Codominance
6. A patient with a normal karyotype has some abnormalities of the finger structure
(arachnodactyly), skeleton, cardio-vascular system, disorders in the development of connective
tissue, a lens bet. What provisional diagnosis can you make?
a) Marfan's syndrome.
b) Edward's syndrome.
c) Down's syndrome.
d) Turner's syndrome.
e) Patau syndrome.
43
7. The intensity of human skin pigmentation is controlled by a few pairs of nonallelic dominant
genes. It was found that if the quantity of the genes increased, the pigmentation became more
intensive. What do we call this type of genes' interaction?
a) Polymery.
b) Epistasis.
c) Pleiotropy.
d) D.Codominance.
e) Complementary.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. Polygenic inheritance means that a pair of genes
a. exhibits incomplete dominance,
b. affects expression of other genes,
c. has the same effect as another pair of genes.
d. has multiple effects.
e. is sex-influenced.
2. Epistasis means that a pair of genes
a. exhibits incomplete dominance,
b. affects expression of other genes,
c. has the same effect as another pair of genes.
d. has multiple effects.
e. is sex-influenced.
3. Pleiotropy means that a pair of genes
a. exhibits incomplete dominance.
b. affects expression of other genes.
с has the same effect as another pair of genes.
d. has multiple effects.
e. is sex-influenced,
4. Phenotypic expression
a. always involves only one pair of genes
b. may involve many pairs of genes.
с. is partly a function of environmental influences.
d. refers specifically to the composition of genes.
e. refers to the appearance of a trait
Занятие №16.
Тема: Theory of Linkage and Crossing over. Inheritance of Sex. Sex-linked inheritance
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. While studing of the family tree with history of hypertrichosis (hyperhirsutism of the ear) this
sign was founded only in the men and it was inherited from father to the son. Define the type of
hypertrichosis inheritance?
a) Connected with Y-chromosome
b) Autosomal-dominant
c) Autosomal- recessive
d) Connected with Х-chromosome dominant
e) Connected with Х-chromosome recessive
2. Colorblindness was diagnosed in a 7-year-old boy while prophylactic medical examination.
Parents are healthy, color vision is normal. Grandfather from the mother's side has the same
disorder. What is the type of inheriting of this anomaly?
44
a) Recessive, connected with sex
b) Autosomal-recessive
c) Incomplete domination
d) Autosomal-dominant
e) Dominant, connected with sex
3. Woman applied to the medico-genetic consulting centre for information about the risk of
haemophilia in her son. Her husband has been suffering from this disease since birth. Woman
and her parents are healthy (don't have haemophilia). Is the boy likely to have the disease in this
family?
a) All boys will be healthy
b) All boys will be ill
c) 50% of the boys will be ill
d) 75% of the boys will be ill
e) 25% of the boys will be ill
4. A healthy woman has three sons affected by color blindness who were born after her two
marriages. Children both of her husbands are healthy. What is the most possible pattern of
inheritance of this disease?
a) X-linked recessive
b) Autosomal recessive
c) Y-linked
d) Autosomal dominant
e) X-linked dominant
5. A couple came for medical genetic counseling. The man has hemophilia, the woman is healthy
and there were no cases of hemophilia in her family. What is the risk of having a sick child in
this family?
a) 0 %
b) 25%
c) 100%
d) 75%
e) 50%
6. A man suffering from a hereditary disease married a healthy woman. They got 5 children,
three girls and two boys. All the girls inherited their father’s disease. What is the type of the
disease inheritance?
a) Dominant, X-linked
b) Autosomal recessive
c) Asutosomal dominant
d) Y-linked
e) Recessive, X7. The skin of a newborn boy is covered with a thick layer of keratinized scales (ichtyosis). It
looks like reptile skin. After the investigation of the pedigree of his family it was revealed that
this feature occurs in each generation only in males. Which of the below mentioned biological
regularities becomes apparent in this case?
a) Sex-linked inheritance.
b) The law of independent assortment.
c) The law of unit characters.
d) The law of segregation.
e) Linkage of genes.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
45
1. Daltonism was diagnosed in a 7-year-old boy while prophylactic medical examination. Parents
are healthy, color vision is normal. Grandfather from the mother's side has the same disorder.
What is the type of inheriting of this anomaly?
A. Autosomal-recessive
B. Incomplete domination
C. Recessive, connected with sex
D. Dominant, connected with sex
E. Autosomal-dominant
2. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically
dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
A. Interfase
B. Telophase
C. Anaphase
D. Metaphase
E. Prophase
3. At what stage of a prophase of the first division of meiosis is there a crossing over?
A. Zigotene
B. Diplotene
C. Leptotene
D. Pachynema
A. Interphase
4. Which of the following would be true if hairy toes happened to be a recessive X-linked trait?
A. All men would have hairy toes.
B. No women would have hairy toes.
C. Parents with hairy toes could have a child without hairy toes.
D. More women than men would have hairy toes.
E. More men than women would have hairy toes.
5. Linked genes are
A. Inseparable,
B. Generally on the same chromosome,
C. In separate homologous chromosomes.
D. In different chromatids.
E. Always separated during crossing over.
Ситуационные задачи
№
of task
4. 1
5. 2
6. 3
7. 4
8. 5
9. 6
Content of the task:
Father is suffering from hemophilia and color blindness. Can their children receive
only one of his pathological genes?
In some families there is an inherited defect – a membrane in between the toes but it
can be met only in males (this defect passes from the father to the son). I which
chromosome is this gene located?
The father of the girl is suffering from hemophilia; her mother is healthy and coming
from the family where there are no cases of hemophilia being noted. The girl is getting
married with the healthy boy. What can you say about their future sons and daughters?
What children can be born in the family where husband is suffering from hemophilia
and woman suffering from color blindness?
Write the genotype of the healthy women whose father was suffering from hemophilia
and mother was albino.
In one family the father and the son are suffering from hemophilia and have brown
eyes. Mother is healthy and has blue eyes. Can we say that son has inherit all traits
46
from his father?
In humans pseudohypertrophical muscle dystrophy is being met as the recessive sexlinked gene. This disease can be met only in males.Boys are dying usually at the age of
10-12 years. If all boys are dying why the disease is still being met in the population?
Females АаВв gave 6% recombinants. Determine the distance in between the genes А
and В at the chromosome.
In crossing of the diheterozygos on A and B genes female and male it was revealed that
phenotype splitting appeared to be 1:1:1:1. Are genes A and B linked or being inherited
independently?
The drosophila fly female (diheterozygous on A and P genes) was crossed with the
drosophila fly male (recessive on those two genes). The splitting was received: АаРр 48%, Аарр - 2%, аарр-48%, ааРр - 2%. Determine the distance in between the A and P
genes.
10. 7
11. 8
12. 9
13. 10
№
of task
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Standard answer:
No they can not. In between the X and Y chromosomes the crossing over process is not
taking place. Male is giving to his daughter X chromosome with both genes.
In Y sex chromosome.
Р of the girl are ХУ, XX. The girl will definitely get X chromosome from her father
and will be the carrier. Girl’s genotype ХX, boy’s genotype - XУ. If they are going to
get married there is a possibility for them to have ХХ — carrier, phenotypically
healthy, ХУ — suffering from hemophilia, ХХ — healthy, ХУ — healthy. Possibility
- 25%.
All girls are carriers of the two pathological genes – color blindness and hemophilia, all
boys will be suffering from color blindness.
ХhX Аа — female carrier of the hemophilia gene and heterozygote to the albino gene.
The son inherited from his father brown eyes and from his mother hemophilia gene.
The disease is still present in the population because females are carrying this
pathological gene.
The distance – 6 morganids.
They can be combined freely.
The distance – 4 morganids
Занятие №17.
Тема: Types of variation
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. In some regions of South Africa there is a spread sickle-shaped cell anemia, in which
erythrocytes have shape of a sickle as a result of substitution of glutamin by valine in the
hemoglobin molecule. What is the cause of this disease?
a) Gene mutation
b) Disturbance of mechanisms of genetic information realization
c) Crossingover
d) Genomic mutations
e) Transduction
2. 46 chromosomes were revealed on karyotype examination of the 5-year-old girl. One of the
15th pair of chromosomes is longer than usual due to connected chromosome from the 21 pair.
What type of mutation does this girl have?
a) Translocation
b) Deletion
47
c) Insufficiency
d) Inversion
e) Duplication
3. Part of the DNA chain turned about 180 degree due to gamma radiation. What type of
mutation took place in the DNA chain?
a) Inversion
b) Replication
c) Translocation
d) Doubling
e) Deletion
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. A woman who was sick with rubella during the pregnancy gave birth to a deaf child with hare
lip and cleft palate. This congenital defect is an example of:
a) Phenocopy
b) Genocopy
c) Down’s syndrome
d) Edward’s syndrome
e) Patau’s syndrome
2. It is known that the gene responsible for development of blood groups according to AB0
system has three allele variants. If a man has IV blood group, it can be explained by the
following variability form:
a) Combinative
b) Mutational
c) Phenotypic
d) Genocopy
e) Phenocopy
3. An alcoholic woman has born a girl with mental and physical developmental lag. Doctors
diagnosed the girl with fetal alcohol syndrome. What effect is the cause of the girl's state?
a) Teratogenic
b) Mutagenic
c) Malignization
d) Carcinogenic
e) Mechanic
4. Parents with normal health have an ill with phenylketonuria son, but owing to a special diet he
has normal development. What type of variability is his normal development connected with?
a) Modificative variability.
b) Mutational variability.
c) Combinative variability.
d) Genotype variability.
e) Inherited variability.
5. The check-up of an 18-year-old girl showed underdevelopment of the ovaries, wide shoulders,
a narrow pelvis, shortened extremities, and a "neck of sphinx". The girl was mentally healthy.
The case was diagnosed as Turner's syndrome. What changes in the chromosomes' quantity is
this disease connected with?
a) Monosomy on X-chromosome.
b) Trisomy of the 18th chromosome.
c) Trisomy of the X-chromosome.
d) Trisomy of the 13th chromosome.
e) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
48
6. A baby has such pathology: anomaly of the lower jaw and the larynx development
accompanied by voice changes resembling a cat's cry. Moreover, the baby has microcephaly,
heart trouble, and four fingers. A likely cause of such anomaly is the deletion of:
a) Short arm of the 5th chromosome.
b) Short arm of the 11th chromosome.
c) Short arm of the 7th chromosome.
d) Short arm of the 9th chromosome.
e) Short arm of the 21st chromosome.
7. During the examination of a newborn the diagnosis of Down's syndrome was made. What is
the main cause of this pathology?
a) Trisomy on the 21st chromosome.
b) Trisomy on the 13th chromosome.
c) Trisomy on X-chromosome.
d) Monosomy on the 1st chromosome.
e) Undivergence of sex chromosomes
8. Under the influence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a chromosome is lost. What
chromosomal mutation is it?
a) Deletion.
b) Duplication.
c) Inversion.
d) Intrachromosomal translocation.
e) Interchromosomal translocation.
9. Under the influence of gamma-radiation a fragment of a chromosome is turned by 180°. What
chromosomal mutation has taken place?
a) Inversion.
b) Duplication.
c) Deletion.
d) Intrachromosomal translocation.
e) Interchromosomal translocation.
10. A cell at the stage of mitosis anaphase was stimulated by colchicine that inhibits
chromosome separation to the poles. What type of mutation will be caused?
a) Polyploidy
b) Inversion
c) Deletion
d) Duplication
e) Translocation
11. Cytogenetic examination of a patient with reproductive dysfunction revealed normal
karyotype 46 ХY in some cells, but most cells have karyotype of Klinefelter's syndrome - 47
ХХY. Such cell heterogenity is called:
a) Mosaicism
b) Inversion
c) Transposition
d) Duplication
e) Monomorphism
12. During the cytogenetic analysis in the cells of an abortive foetus only 44 chromosomes were
found due to the absence of both chromosomes from the 3rd pair. What type of mutation
occurred?
a) Nullisomy.
b) Monosomy.
c) Chromosomal aberration.
d) Gene mutation.
49
e) Polyploidy.
Ситуационные задачи:
1. The following short sentence represents a gene:
WET WET WET ARE NOT ALL BAD
What types of mutations are the following?
Answer:
WEE WET WET ARE NOT ALL BAD
_______________________________________________________
WET WET WET ARE COT ALL BAD
_______________________________________________________
WEW ETW ETA REN OTA LLB AD
_______________________________________________________
WET WET WET ART TEN TAL LBA D
_______________________________________________________
WET WET ARE NOT ALL BAD
_______________________________________________________
WET WET WEG OOD MOR NIN GTA REN OTA LLB AD
_______________________________________________________
WET WET WET WET WET WET ARE NOT ALL BAD
_______________________________________________________
2.
Full colour vision requires that the retinal cone cells be of three types differing in which
of three opsin molecules they produce. One of the three opsin genes, that coding for a blue
sensitive protein, is autosomal but the other two genes (red sensitive and green sensitive
respectively) are adjacent to each other on the X chromosome. What are the consequences of this
arrangement of genes for the mutation frequency of the X linked genes?
Занятие №18.
Тема: Human genetics. Pedigree analysis and Study of Twins. Genetic disorders (changes
in chromosomes). Human Cytology (Cytogenetics)
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. During the observation of a baby boy a pediatrician noticed that the baby's crying was similar
to a cat's cry. Besides, the baby had microcephaly and abnormality in heart development. By
means of the cytogenetic method, it was found that the baby's karyotype was 46,XY, 5p’. At
what mitotic stage was the karyotype of the baby examined?
a) Metaphase.
b) Prometaphase.
c) Prophase.
d) Anaphase.
e) Telophase.
2. White- haired, with blue eyes girl was born in healthy parents. Irritability, anxiety, troubled
sleep and feeding developed in the first months of life of the infant. What method of genetic
investigation should be used for the exact diagnosis?
a) Biochemical
50
b) Cytological
c) Twin
d) Genealogical
e) Population-statistical
3. After the genealogy analysis a geneticist came to the conclusion: a feature is manifested in
each generation, men and women inherit the feature with equal frequency, parents in the equal
way give this feature to their offspring. What type of inheritance does the investigated feature
have?
a) Autosomal-dominant
b) Х-linked dominant inheritance
c) Х-linked recessive inheritance
d) Y-linked inheritance
e) Autosomal-recessive
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. The examination of an youth with mental retardation revealed eunuchoid body construction
and genitals underdevelopment. The cells of the oral cavity contained chromatin. What method
of genetic investigation should be performed to make more specified diagnosis?
a) Cytological
b) Biochemical
c) Dermatoglyphics
d) Population-statistic
e) Clinico-genealogical
2. A genetics specialist analyzed the genealogy of a family and found that both males and
females may have the illness, not across all the generations, and that healthy parents may have ill
children. What is the type of illness inheritance?
a) Autosomal recessive
b) Y-linked
c) X-linked recessive
d) Autosomal dominant
e) X-linked dominant
3. In course of prophylactic medical examination a 7-year-old boy was diagnosed to have
daltonism. Parents are healthy, color vision is normal. But grandfather from the mother's side has
the same disorder. What is the type of inheriting of this anomaly?
a) Recessive, sex-linked
b) Autosomal-dominant
c) Autosomal-recessive
d) Incomplete domination
e) Dominant, sex-linked
4. A human has galactosemia — a disease of accumulation. Which genetic method can we use to
diagnose the case?
a) Biochemical.
b) Cytogenetic.
c) Population-statistical.
d) Study of twins.
e) Pedigree analysis.
5. During the check-up of an 18-year-old boy some physical and psychical developmental
defects are found. They as following: eunuchoidism, female stature and an adult woman pattern
of hair distribution, muscular hypoplasia, mental deficiency. Using the cytogenetic method, the
karyotype of the patient was determined. Which karyotype was it?
a) 47, XXY.
51
b) 47,XY,21+.
c) 45, X0.
d) 47, XY,18+.
e) 47, XYY.
6. Due to the results of the pedigree analysis a geneticist found out that feature became apparent
in each generation, a male and a female inherited feature with the same frequency, the parents
transmitting of this feature to their children. What type of inheritance does this feature have?
a) Autosomal-dominant.
b) Recessive, X-linked.
c) Autosomal-recessive.
d) Dominant, X-linked.
e) Y-linked.
7. Three forms of Down's syndrome — trisomic, translocation, and mosaic — are known. What
genetic method do we have to use to distinguish these forms?
a) Cytogenetic.
b) Population-statistical.
c) Study of twins.
d) Pedigree analysis.
e) Biochemical.
8. The first step in diagnosing diseases provoked by the disorder of metabolism is the application
of express-methods which are based on a simple quality reaction of determining metabolites in
blood or urine. The second step is to confirm the diagnosis, for which exact chromatographical
methods of enzymes and amino acids study are used. What genetic method can be applied?
a) Biochemical.
b) Study of twins.
c) Cytogenetic.
d) Population-statistical.
e) Hibridization of somatic cell.
Ситуационные задания.
Following questions show pedigrees of the type that are used to determine patterns of
inheritance. Use the following list to answer questions :
a. sex-linked recessive
b. sex-linked dominant
c. autosomal dominant
d. autosomal recessive
e. cannot determine the pattern of inheritance
1) What is the pattern of inheritance for the following pedigree?
I.______________________________________________________II.____________________
_________________________________ II
Ш_____________________________________________________
2) What is the pattern of inheritance for the following pedigree?
52
I.______________________________________________________II.____________________
_________________________________
III____________________________________________________
3) What is the pattern of inheritance for the following pedigree?
I.______________________________________________________II.
_____________________________________________________
III._____________________________________________________
IV._____________________________________________________
Занятие №19.
Тема: Molecular pathology and biochemical testing of Genetic disorders. Genetic
engineering. DNA analysis. Prenatal diagnosis.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. An 18-year-old man with asthenic body constitution: tall, narrow shoulders, broad pelvis and
with poor hair on his face came to the geneticist. There was marked mental retardation. The
preliminary diagnosis was Klinefelter's syndrome. What method of medical genetics can confirm
the diagnosis?
a) Cytogenic
b) Population-statistic
c) Dermatoglyphics
d) Gemellary
e) Genealogic
2. Hypertrychosis of auricles is caused by a gene that is localized in Y-chromosome. Father has
this feature. What is the probability to give birth to a boy with such anomaly?
a) 100%
b) 25%
c) 0%
d) 35%
e) 75%
53
3. Both a mother and a father are phenotypically healthy. They have a sick baby in whose blood
and urine phenylpyruvic acid has been found, which indicates phenylketonuria. What is the type
of the inheritance of this disease?
a) Autosomal-recessive.
b) Autosomal-dominant.
c) Recessive, X-linked.
d) Y-linked.
e) Dominant, X-linked.
4. The parents of an ill 5-year-old girl came for advice to a genetic consultation. In her karyotype
46 chromosomes were found. One of the chromo some of the 15th pair was longer than usual
due to joining a part of chromosome of the 21th pair to it. What mul tion took place in this case?
a) Translocation.
b) Inversion.
c) Deletion.
d) Duplication.
e) Aneuploidy.
5. A teenager with the provisional diagnosis of Klinefelter's syndrome came for advice to a
genetic consultation. What genetic method does the doctor have to apply to make a correct
diagnosis?
a) Cytogenetic.
b) Biochemical.
c) Pedigree analysis.
d) Study of twins.
e) Population-statistical.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами, ситуационные задачи,
тестовые задания с ответами).
1. During the analysis of the woman's buccal mucosa epithelium cells no sexual chromatin was
found. Which of the below mentioned diseases can it be?
a) Turner's syndrome.
b) Edward's syndrome.
c) Klinefelter's syndrome.
d) Down's syndrome.
e) Patau syndrome.
Fill-in the blanks
I. RECOMBINANT DNA METHODS GREW OUT OF RESEARCH IN MICROBIAL
GENETICS
A. Restriction enzymes are "molecular scissors" that cleave DNA reproducibly
■ 1 A___________________sequence reads the same as its complement, but in the opposite
direction.
В. Recombinant DNA is formed when DNA is spliced into a vector (DNA carrier)
■ 2____________________________cut isolated DNA at specific loci, producing precise
fragments that can be incorporated into vector molecules.
■ 3 Recombinant DNA vectors are usually constructed from___________________
С. Cloning techniques provide the means for replicating and isolating many copies of a specific
recombinant DNA molecule
■ 4______________________are radioactive strands of RNA or DNA that are complementary
to specific targeted cloned fragments. They are used to identify a particular fragment in a large
population of clones.
54
■ 5 A_________________________is a population of recombinant plasmids that collectively
contain a fragmented genome.
■ 6 In order to avoid cloning introns, the enzyme________________
is used to create complementary DNA (cDNA) on a mRNA template.
D. The polymerase chain reaction is a technique for amplifying DNA in vitro
■ 7 The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) technique for amplifying DNA is advantageous
because it side-steps the cumbersome, time-consuming process of cloning DNA. PCR is an in
vitro process that alternately uses (a)_________________________to replicate DNA with the
use of (b)_______to dissociate the replicated DNA strands for further replications.
E. A cloned gene sequence is usually first analyzed by restriction mapping, followed by DNA
sequencing
■ 8____________________are detailed "charts" that help identify the specific sites cut by
selected restriction enzymes.
■ 9 "Riflips," an acronym for_______________________________, are used to elucidate the
degree of variability among genes in a population. "Riflips" are especially useful to study genetic
relatedness of individuals.
II. GENETIC ENGINEERING HAS MANY PRACTICAL APPLICATIONS
A. Additional engineering is required for a recombinant eukaryotic gene to be expressed in
bacteria
■ 10 Once a eukaryotic gene is incorporated into a bacterial genome, in order to produce the
object product (an encoded protein), the gene must be linked to
__________sequences that bacterial RNApolymerase can recognize.
B. Transgenic organisms incorporate foreign DNA into their cells
■ 11 Transgenic organisms (plants or animals) are generally produced by injecting the DNA of a
gene into a recipient's
(a)_____________________, or by using
(b)____________________ as recombinant DNA vectors.
Занятие №21
Тема: Control occupation: «ORGANISM’S LEVEL ORGANIZATION OF LIFE».
Тестовые задания с ответами:
1. Genetic structure of eukaryote is "exon-intron-exon". This structure-functional organizalion
of gene caused transcription peculiarities. What will be pro-i-RNA according to the schema?
A.
Exon-exon
B.
Exon-intron-exon
C.
Exon-exon-intron
D.
Exon-intron
E.
Inlron-exon
2. White-haired, with blue eyes girl was born in healthy parents. Irritability anxiety, troubled
sleep and feeding developed in the first months of life of the infant. What method of genetic
investigation should be used for the exact diagnosis?
F.
Twin
G.
Genealogical
H.
Biochemical
I.
Cytological
55
J.
Population-statistical
3. Daltonism was diagnosed in a 7-year-old boy while prophylactic medical examination. Parents
are healthy, color vision is normal. Grandfather from the mother's side has the same disorder.
What is the type of inheriting of this anomaly?
A.
Dominant, connected with sex
B.
Incomplete domination
C.
Autosomal-recessive
D.
Recessive, connected with sex
E.
Autosomal-dominant
4. 46 chromosomes were revealed on karyotype examination of the 5-year-old girl. One of the
15th pair of chromosomes is longer than usual due to connected chromosome from the 21 pair.
What type of mutation does this girl have?
A.
Deletion
B.
Insufficiency
C.
Duplication
D.
Inversion
E.
Translocation
5. While studing of the family tree with history of hypertrichosis (hyperhirsutism of the ear) this
sign was founded only in the men and it was inherited from father to the son. Define the type of
hypertrichosis inheritance?
A.
Connected with X-chromosome dominant
B.
Connected with X-chromosome recessive
C.
Autosomal-recessive
D.
Connected with Y-chromosome
E.
Autosomal-dominant
6. Woman applied to the medico-genetic consulting center for information about the risk of
haemophilia in her son. Her husband has been suffering from this disease since birth. Woman
and her parents are healthy (don't have haemophilia). Is the boy likely to have the disease in this
family?
A.
All boys will be ill
B.
25% of the boys will be ill
C.
All boys will be healthy
D.
75 % of the boys will be ill
E.
50% of the boys will be ill
7. Substitution of the glutamic acid on valine was revealed while examining initial molecular
structure. For what inherited pathology is this typical?
A.
Favism
B.
Sickle-cell anemia
C.
Minkowsky-Shauffard disease
D.
Thalassemia
E.
Hemoglobinosis
8. A 40-year-old pregnant woman underwent amniocentesis. The examination of fetus karyotype
revealed 45Х0. What pathology of the fetus was found out?
A. Schereschevsky-Terner's disease
B. Patau's disease
C. Klinefelter's syndrome
D. Down's syndrome
E. Phenylketonuria
9. Which of the given postulates corresponds to the modern level of genetic knowledge?
A.
One gene — one trait
B.
One gene — one polypeptide
C.
One gene — one protein
56
D.
One gene — one ATP
E.
One gene — one DNA
10. It is known that there are 64 codons. How mаny of them have no information of amino acids
and are stop codons:
A.
5
B.
1
C.
3
D.
8
E.
10
11. Which of the following propositions concerning a genetic code is incorrect?
A.
Codons are in the template ribonucleic acid
B.
Codon contains three nucleotides
C.
There is only one codon for each amino acid
D.
Each codon determines one amino acid
E.
Nucleotide of one codon cannot be a part of another codon
12. What answer is the most qualified one? A transcription it is:
A.
Synthesis of the polypeptide
B.
A transcription of the genetic information from DNA-molecule to the template
ribonucleic acid
C.
Copying of template ribonucleic acid of DNA-molecule
D.
Synthesis of the proteins
E.
A synthesis of the template RNA on DNA-molecule with the sequence of
nucleotides complementary to DNA-molecule
13. What nucleic acids take part in the process of translation?
A.
Ribosomal RNA’s (r -RNA)
B.
Transfer RNA’s (t-RNA)
C.
Messenger RNA
D.
DNA
E.
ATP
14. A 40-year-old pregnant woman underwent amniocentesis. The examination of fetus
karyotype revealed 47ХУ+13. What pathology of the fetus was found out?
A. Phenylketonuria.
B. Patau's disease
C. Klinefelter's syndrome
D. Down's syndrome
E. Schereschevsky-Terner's disease
15. A 40-year-old pregnant woman underwent amniocentesis. The examination of fetus
karyotype revealed 47ХХУ. What pathology of the fetus was found out?
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Patau's disease
C. Klinefelter's syndrome
D. Down's syndrome
E. Schereschevsky-Terner's disease
16. Which of the following is/are termination codons?
A.
GUA
B.
UUA
C.
AUA
D.
UAG
E.
GUA
17. An "adapter" molecule containing an anticodon and a region to which an amino acid is
bonded is a/an
A.
Leader sequence
57
B.
Coding sequence
C.
Initiator
D.
Peptidyl transferase.
E.
Aminoacyl-tRNA
18. A 40-year-old pregnant woman underwent amniocentesis. The examination of fetus
karyotype revealed 47ХУ+21. What pathology of the fetus was found out?
A Phenylketonuria.
B. Patau's disease
C. Klinefelter's syndrome
D. Down's syndrome
E. Schereschevsky-Terner's disease
19. The elongation stage of protein synthesis involves
A.
Loading initiation tRNA on the large ribosomal subunit
B.
Initiation tRNA
C.
Adding amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain
D.
The code AUG
E.
GTP
20. Ribosomes attach to
F.
3 ' end of mRNA
G.
5' end of mRNA
H.
An mRNA recognition sequence
I.
tRNA
J.
RNA polymerase.
21. Translation involves
A.
Decoding of codons
B.
mRNA
C.
Adapter molecules
D.
Copying codes into codons
E.
Copying codons into codes
22. An 18-year-old man with asthenic body constitution: tall, narrow shoulders, broad pelvis and
with poor hair on his face came to the geneticist. There was marked mental retardatoin. The
preliminary diagnosis was Phenylketonuria. What method of medical genetics can confirm the
diagnosis?
A. POPULATION-STATISTIC
B. BIOCHEMICAL
C. GENEALOGIC
D. CYTOGENETICS
E. DERMATOGLYPHICS
23. Transcription involves
A.
Copying DNA information
B.
Decoding of codons
C.
mRNA synthesis
D.
Copying codes into codons
E.
Peptide bonding
24. An 18-year-old man with asthenic body constitution: tall, narrow shoulders, broad pelvis and
with poor hair on his face came to the geneticist. There was marked mental retardatoin. The
preliminary diagnosis was Kleifelter’s disease. What method of medical genetics can confirm the
diagnosis?
58
A. DERMATOGLYPHICS
B. POPULATION-STATISTIC
C. GENEALOGIC
D. CYTOGENETICS
E. BIOCHEMICAL
25. Initiation of protein synthesis involves
A.
Peptidyl transferase
B.
Initiation tRNA
C.
Loading initiation tRNA on the large ribosomal subunit
D.
Adding amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain
E.
The code AUG
26. Post-transcriptional modification and processing of mRNA takes place in
F.
Eukaryotes only
G.
Cytoplasm
H.
Prokaryotes only
I.
Nucleus
J.
Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
27. A string of dozens to hundreds of adenine nucleotides thought to prevent mRNA degradation
is a description of a
A.
Sequence added to mRNA about one minute after transcription
B.
Poly-A tail
C.
Cap on the 3' end of mRNA
D.
Portion of the activated ribosomal complex
E.
Cap on the 5' end of mRNA
28. The coiled double helix structure of DNA was suggested as a result of X-ray diffraction data
collected by
B.
Griffith
C.
Franklin and Wilkens
D.
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
E.
Watson and Crick
F.
Hershey and Chase
29. Which of the following base pairs is/are incorrect?
A.
A-D
B.
U-A
C.
G-C
D.
T-A
E.
C-G
30. A large quantity of homogentistic acid in urine
A.
Indicates a kidney disease
B.
Is associated with alkaptonuria
C.
Is caused by a block in the metabolic reactions that break down phenylalanine
D.
Is due to presence of an oxidizing enzyme
E.
Indicates that a diuretic has been consumed
31. Which of the following propositions in Chargaff’s rules is incorrect?
A.
Ratio of purines to pyrimidines = 1
B.
[G]=[C]
C.
[A] = [D]
D.
Ratio of T to a = 1
E.
Ratio of G to С =1
32. The investigators credited with elucidating the structure of DNA are
A. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
B. Hershey and Chase
59
C. Meselson and Stahl
D. Watson and Crick
E. Franklin and Wilkens
33. Which of the following is/are true of linkages in DNA?
A.
Both strands end with a 3' hydroxyl group
B.
The backbone has 3', 2' phosphodiester bonds
C.
The two strands are joined by covalent bonds
D.
One strand ends with a 2' phosphate
E.
5' phosphate to 3' sugar carbon
34. Neurospora was a good choice for the Beadle and Tatum studies because
A.
Is diploid
B.
Its sexual phase enables genetic analysis
C.
It can be cultivated on maximal medium
D.
It had no known mutant forms
E.
Control strain could not use arginine
35. Deoxyribose and phosphate are joined in the DNA backbone by
A. Purines
B. One of four bases
C. Phosphodiester bonds
D. Pyrimidines
E. The 1' carbon of the sugar
36. A mutation is
A.
A change in an enzyme
B.
A change in proteins
C.
An alteration of mRNA
D.
A change in a genea
E.
Non inheritable
37. Beadle and Tatum concluded that
F.
Proteins mutate when exposed to radiations
G.
One gene affects one polypeptide
H.
A mutation directly affects an enzyme
I.
Mutations have no effect on enzymes
J.
One gene affects one proteina
38. The 3' end of one DNA fragment is linked to the 5' end of another fragment by means of
A. DNA ligase
B. Helicase enzymes
C. RNA polymerase
D. Hydrogen bonds
E. Complementary base pairing
39. Karyotyping of healthy man cells is carried out. In the karyotype there was found out a fine
acrocentric odd chromosome. What chromosome is it?
A. Group A chromosome
B. Group В chromosome
C. X-chromosome
D. Y-chromosome
E. Group C chromosome
40. The following can be said about the leading strand and lagging strand, respectively:
A.
Both form continuously
B.
Forms continuously, forms in short pieces
C.
Both form in short pieces
D.
Forms in short pieces, forms continuously
E.
Scaffolding proteins
60
41. Nucleosomes are held together in large coiled loops by
A.
Chromatin
B.
Histones
C.
Scaffolding proteins
D.
Topoisomerases
E.
Protosomes
42. The coiled double helix structure of DNA was suggested as a result of X-ray diffraction data
collected by
A.
Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
B.
Hershey and Chase
C.
Griffith
D.
Franklin and Wilkens
E.
Watson and Crick
43. The direction for synthesis of DNA is
A.
Variable
B.
3' —> 5'
C.
5'—>5'
D.
3' —> 3'
E.
5' —> 3'
44. The proteins intimately associated with DNA in chromosomes are
A.
Absent in prokaryotic
B.
Nucleosomes
C.
Chromatin
D.
Topoisomerases
E.
Nonhistones
45. The genetic code is carried in the
A.
DNA backbone
B.
Sequence of bases
C.
Arrangement of 5', 3' phosphodiester bonds
D.
Okazaki fragments
E.
Histones
46. In one molecule of DNA one would expect the composition of the two strands to be
A.
Both all new
B.
Both either old or new
C.
One old, one new
D.
Both partly new fragments and partly old parental fragments
E.
Unpredictable
47. At what stage of a prophase of the first division of meiosis is there a crossing over?
A. Diplotene
B. Leptotene
C. Pachynema
D. Interphase
E. Zigotene
48. Woman applied to the medico-genetic consulting center for information about the risk of
hemophilia in her son. Her husband has been suffering from this disease since birth. Woman and
her parents are healthy (don't have hemophilia). Is the boy likely to have the disease in this
family?
A.
25% of the boys will be ill
B.
All boys will be ill
C.
75 % of the boys will be ill
D.
50% of the boys will be ill
E.
All boys will be healthy
61
49. RNA-polymerase B(II) is blocked due to amanitine poisoning (poison of death-cup). It
disturbes:
A. Synthesis of t-RNA
B. Synthesis of m-RNA
C. Reverse transcription
D. Primers synthesis
E. Maturation of m-RNA
50. Testosterone and it's analogs increase the mass of skeletal muscles that allows to use them
for treatment of dystrophy. Due to interaction of the hormones with what cell substance is this
action caused?
A.
Ribosomes
B. Membrane receptors
C. Proteins-activators of transcription
D. Chromatin
E. Nuclear receptors
51. A woman who was sick with rubella during the pregnancy gave birth to a deaf child with
hare lip and cleft palate. This congenital defect is an example of:
A. Down's syndrome
B. Edward's syndrome
C. Genocopy
D. Phenocopy
E. Patau's syndrome
52. A couple came for medical genetic counseling. The man has hemophilia, the woman is
healthy and there were no cases of hemophilia in her family. What is the risk of having a sick
child in this family?
A.O
B.25%
С 50%
D. 100%
E. 75%
53. Part of the DNA chain turned about 180 degrees due to gamma radiation. What type of
mutation took place in the DNA chain?
A. Replication
B. Inversion
C. Translocation
D. Doubling
E. Deletion
54. The study of the genealogy of a family with hypertrichosis (helix excessive pi-losis) has
demonstrated that this symptom is manifested in all generations only in men and is inherited by
son from his father. What is the type of hypertrichosis inheritance?
A. Y-linked chromosome
B. Autosome-dominant
C. Autosome-recessive
D. X-linked dominant chromosome
E. X-linked recessive chromosome
55. A healthy woman has three sons affected by color blindness who were born after her two
marriages. Children both of her husbands are healthy. What is the most possible pattern of
inheritance of this disease?
A. Autosomal recessive
B. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal dominant
D. X-linked recessive
62
E. Y-linked
56. An individual is characterized by rounded face, broad forehead, a mongolian type of eyelid
fold, flattened nasal bridge, permanently open mouth, projecting lower lip, protruding tongue,
short neck, flat hands, and stubby fingers. What diagnosis can be put to the patient?
A. Klinefelter's syndrome
B. Supermales
C. Down's syndrome
D. Alkaptonuria
E. Turner's syndrome
57. A woman who was infected with toxoplasmosis during the pregnancy has a child with
multiple congenital defects. This is a result of:
A. Recombination
B. Biological mutogenesis
C. Teratogenesis
D. Chemical mutogenesis
E. Canceroeenesis
58. Nowadays about 50 minor bases have been found in the t-RNA structure besides the main
four nitrogenous bases. Choose the minor nitrogenous base:
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
С. Cysteine
D. Uracil
E. Dihydrouracil
59. Moving of the daughter chromatids to the poles of the cell is observed in the mitotically
dividing cell. On what stage of the mitotic cycle is this cell?
A. Anaphase
B. Interfase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase
E. Metaphase
60. Oval and round organelles with double wall are seen at the electron micrograph. The outer
membrane is smooth, the inner membrane folded into cristae - contain enzyme ATPase
synthetase. These are:
A. Golgi complex
B. Centrioles
C. Mitochondria
D. Lysosomes
E. Ribosomes
Вопросы:
1. Subject and problems of genetics of the human being.
2. Laws of heredity at monohybrid crossing. G.Mendel's first and second laws. Mendelian
signs.
3. Laws of heredity at di - and polyhybrid crossing. G.Mendel's Third law.
4. Multiple allels. Inheritance blood types and Rhesus factor.
5. Interaction аof allelic and non-allelic genes.
6. Linked inheritance.
7. Chromosomal theory of heredity.
8. Genetics of sexes. Sex linked diseases.
9. Variability and its forms.
10. Modification variability. Norm of reaction. Phenocopy.
63
11. Combinational variability and mechanisms of its occurrence.
12. Mutational variability.
13. Gene mutations.
14. Chromosomal abberations.
15. Genome mutations.
16. Hereditary diseases and their classification.
17. Mutagen factors, their kinds.
18. Man as specific object for the genetic analysis.
19. Pedigree analysis and study of twins as the methods of medical genetics.
20. Cytogenetic and biochemical methods of medical genetics.
21. Prenatal diagnostics of hereditary diseases.
22. Population-statistic method and its value in genetics.
23. Reproduction and its forms.
24. Gametogenesis. Meiosis.
25. Sexual cells of the man.
26. Features of a human reproduction. Fertilization.
27. Ontogenesis and its periods.
28. Stages of embryonic development.
29. Critical periods of embryonic development. Teratogenic factors.
30. Postembryonic development and its periods.
31. Ageing as a stage of ontogenesis. Ageing theories.
32. Clinical and biological death.
33. Regeneration and its kinds.
34. Problem of transplantation of tissues and organs.
Микропрепараты
1. Cleavage
2. Blastula of a frog
3. Gastrula of a frog
4. Human chromosomes
5. Ovary of a cat
6. Sperm cells of guinea pig
7. Spermary of a rat
Занятие №22.
Тема: Phylum SARCOMASTIGOPHORA. Class Lobozea. Entamoeba histolytica.
Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
6. Patients with similar complaints applied to the doctor: weakness, pain in the intestines,
disorder of GIT. Examination of the feces revealed that one patient with four nucleus cysts
should be hospitalized immediately. For what protozoa are such cysts typical?
A. Dysenteric amoeba
B. Lamblia
C. Balantidium
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
7. A patient died 3 days after the operation because of perforated colon with the
manifestations of diffuse purulent peritonitis. The autopsy demonstrated: colon mucos
membrane was thickened and covered with a fibrin film, isolated ulcers penetrated into
64
different depth. Results of histology: mucous membrane necrosis, leukocytes infiltration
with hemorrhages focuses. The complication of what disease caused the patient's death?
A. Dysentery
B. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
C. Typhoid
D. Crohn's disease
E. Amebiasis
8. A patient was taken to a hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion. The feces examination revealed cysts with 4 nuclei. Which protozoan are these
cysts most typical of?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Balantidium coli.
E. Entamoeba gingivalis.
9. A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion, frequent cases of bloody diarrhea (3 — 5 times a day). Laboratory analysis
showed that the patient's feces contained vegetative forms of protozoans with an unstable
body shape. Their cytoplasm contained food vacuoles with erythrocytes. What
representative of Protozoa was found in the patient's feces?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Balantidium coli.
D. Entamoeba coli.
E. Trichomonas vaginalis.
10. Cysts with 8 nuclei were found in the feces examined through a microscope. Which
protozoans did those cysts belong to?
A. Entamoeba coli.
B. Balantidium coli.
C. Giardia intestinalis.
D. Trichomonas hominis.
E. Toxoplasma gondii.
11. A patient with a provisional diagnosis of liver abscess was delivered to surgical department
of a hospital. The patient was staying in Russia. He had stomach disorder, indigestion, and
frequent bloody diarrhea. The patient hadn't consulted a doctor before. Which protozoan
illness could the patient be ill with?
A. Amebiasis.
B. Malaria.
C. Trypanosomiasis.
D. Leishmaniasis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.
12. Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is pathogenic in human being?
A. Forma magna
B. The last one
C. Forma minuta
D. The first one
E. Cyst
8. The feces examination of a patient was taken to a hospital revealed cysts with 8 nuclei.
Which protozoan are these cysts most typical of?
A. Entamoeba coli.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Balantidium coli.
65
D. Entamoeba gingivalis.
E. Entamoeba histolytica.
9. A patient was taken to a hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion. The feces examination revealed cysts with 4 nuclei. Which protozoan are these
cysts most typical of?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Balantidium coli.
E. Entamoeba gingivalis.
10. During the checkup of restaurant workers doctors often notice assymptomatic parasitosis: a
totally healthy person is a carrier of cysts which infect other people. The parasitism of which
parasites makes it possible?
A.
Entamoeba histolytica.
B.
Plasmodium vivax.
C.
Trypanosoma gambiense.
D.
Leishmania donovani.
E.
Leishmania infantum.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. Cysts were found in the feces of a restaurant worker. They had 4 nuclei of the same size.
Which of the protozoans did the cysts belong to?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Entamoeba coli.
C. Balantidium coli.
D. Trichomonas vaginalis.
E. Toxoplasma gondii.
2. In the feces of a person ill with chronic colitis round cysts with 4 nuclei, 10 micrometers in
diameter were found. Which of the protozoans do they belong to?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Entamoeba gingivalis.
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Giardia intestinalis.
E. Balantidium coli.
3. A patient with a provisional diagnosis of liver abscess was delivered to surgical department
of a hospital. The patient was staying in Ukraine. He had stomach disorder, indigestion, and
frequent bloody diarrhoea. The patient hadn't consulted a doctor before. Which protozoan
illness could the patient be ill with?
A. Amebiasis.
B. Malaria.
C. Trypanosomiasis.
D. Leishmaniasis.
E. Toxoplasmosis
4. During the checkup of restaurant workers doctors often notice assymptomatic parasitosis: a
totally healthy person is a carrier of cysts which infect other people. The parasitism of which
parasites makes it possible?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Plasmodium vivax.
C. Trypanosoma gambiense.
D. Leishmania donovani.
E. Leishmania infantum.
66
5. In laboratory are feces with an impurity of blood of the patient with amoebic dysentery.
What forms of Entamoeba histolytica can be revealed?
A. Cyst with 4 nuclei
B. Cyst with 2 nuclei
C. Eggs
D. Cyst with 6 nuclei
E. Cyst with 1 nuclei
13. Stool examination of the man is revealed cysts, which have 8 nuclei. Indicate what protozoa
is finding on the patient?
A. Entamoeba сoli
B. Balantidium
C. Dysenteric amoeba
D. Trichomonas
E. Lamblia
14. In infectious hospital comes the patient with the complaints to an often-liquid stool and pain
in the field of a stomach. Stool examination has revealed vegetative form of amoeba by size
15 microns without erythrocytes incorporations. Faces have placed in a refrigerator and in
day 10 microns in diameter cysts have come. Everyone cyst had 4 nuclei. What kind of
amoebas is the parasite of the patient?
A. Balantidium
B. Lamblia
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
15. A patient consulted a doctor because of complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion, frequent cases of bloody diarrhea (3 — 5 times a day). Laboratory analysis
showed that the patient's feces contained vegetative forms of protozoans with an unstable
body shape. Their cytoplasm contained food vacuoles with erythrocytes. What
representative of Protozoa was found in the patient's feces?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Balantidium coli.
D. Entamoeba coli.
E. Trichomonas vaginalis.
16. Cysts were found in the feces of a restaurant worker. They had 4 nuclei of the same size.
Which of the protozoans did the cysts belong to?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Entamoeba coli.
C. Balantidium coli.
D. Trichomonas vaginalis.
E. Toxoplasma gondii.
17. In the feces of a person ill with chronic colitis round cysts with 4 nuclei, 10 micrometers in
diameter were found. Which of the protozoans do they belong to?
A. Entamoeba histolytica.
B. Entamoeba gingivalis.
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Giardia intestinalis.
E. Balantidium coli.
Занятие №23.
67
Тема: Class ZOOMASTIGOPHORA (FLAGELLATA). Trypanosoma gambiense.
Leishmania donovani & tropica. Giardia lamblia. Trichomonas vaginalis. Morphology.
Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
1.Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. The child had vomiting, nausea and the pains in the right hypochondrium. In stool
examination oval-shaped cysts (8-14 µm) with 2-4 nuclei have been found out. What
disease can be suspected in the patient?
F. Giardiasis
G. Amoebiasis
H. Тrichomoniasis
I. Trypanosomiasis
J. Leishmaniasis
2. To the patient the preliminary diagnosis of genitourinary trichomoniasis was made. For
specification of the diagnosis it is necessary to:
A. Find out vegetative form in urethral discharge
B. Find out vegetative form in feces
C. Find out vegetative form in blood
D. Find out cysts in feces
E. Make serological tests
3. A doctor is staying in one of Asian countries taking care of 10-year-old sick children. The
symptoms of the disease are: exhaustion, fever, anemia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly,
there are a lot of mosquitoes in this country, the children are likely to be sick with:
F. Visceral leishmaniasis.
G. Balantidiasis.
H. Toxoplasmosis.
I. Giardiasis.
J. Amebiasis.
4. The parents of an ill boy have borne to consult an infectious disease doctor. The family has
lived in an Asian country for a while, where there are a lot of mosquitoes. The boy's skin is
of dark color. He has a bad appetite, malaise, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, and
peripheral lymph nodes enlargement. Which protozoan illness are these symptoms typical
of?
A. Visceral leishmaniasis.
B. Giardiasis.
C. Balantidiasis.
D. Amebiasis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.
5. A female patient with symptoms of the inflammatory process of urogenital apparatus had
large unicellular organisms observed in the vagina smear. The cell bodies of the organisms
are pear-shaped with a pointed posterior part, a large nucleius, and an undulating
membrane. What protozoans have been found in the smear?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis.
B. Trichomonas hominis.
C. Toxoplasma gondii.
D. Trypanosoma gambiense.
E. Giardia intestinalis.
6. Parents with ill child came to the doctor. They worked in one of the Asian countries for a
long time. Child has earthy colored skin, loss of appetite, laxity, enlarged liver, spleen,
peripheral glands. What protozoan illness can this child have?
A. Visceral leishmaniasis
68
B. Balantidiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Lambliasis
E. Amebiasis
7. At the student, which has returned from Central Asia, on the face has appeared crimson
papule. In 10 days papule has turned to ulcer. What protozoa disease can be suspected?
A. Skin leishmaniasis
B. Balantidiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Lambliasis
E. Amebiasis
8. The domestic fly transfers cysts of Giardia lamblia and Amoebae on their legs. What is the
name of this host type?
A. Mechanical
B. Reservoir
C. Intermediate
D. Final
E. Speific
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. At the patient with pains in duodenum area and bilious bladder area in stool examination
revealed 2-4 nuclear oval cysts by the size of 10-14 microns with an environment as a half
moon. What protozoa disease is at the patient?
A. Lamblia
B. Balantidium
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
2. In liquid feces pear-shaped protozoa 10-20 microns by the size are revealed. Protozoa have 5
flagella, move quickly. The undulating membrane and large nucleus are visible. The body
comes to an end by axostyle. What protozoa is revealed?
A. Trichomonas hominis
B. Balantidium
C. Lamblia
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Intestinal amoeba
3. Sick man has addressed to the doctor with symptoms of an inflammation of urogenital ways.
In smear from vagina mucous oval-pear-shaped protozoa with axostyle on the end of a body,
large nucleus and undulating membrane are revealed. Put the laboratory diagnosis.
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Balantidiasis
C. Lambliasis
D. Enterobiasis
E. Ascariasis
4. A patient with bile ducts inflammation was admitted to a gastrointestinal department. In the
bile ducts the pear-shaped protozoans with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella were found. What
protozoan disease did the patient have?
A. Giardiasis.
B. Toxoplasmosis.
C. Balantidiasis.
D. Trichomoniasis.
69
E. Amebiasis.
5. Some antelopes were brought to the Kyiv zoo from Africa. Trypanosoma gambiense were
found in their blood. Are these antelopes epidemically dangerous?
A. Are not epidemically dangerous at all.
B. Dangerous only to human.
C. Dangerous to domestic animals and human.
D. Dangerous to other antelopes.
E. Dangerous only to predators.
6. Having returned from Turkmenia, a patient with ulcers on his face came to a doctor. The
doctor diagnosed cutaneous leishmaniasis. How did the disease agent get into the patient's
organism?
A. By the inoculative way.
B. By the respiratory way.
C. By a direct contact.
D. By a sexual contact.
E. By food.
7. A doctor is staying in one of Asian countries taking care of 10-year-old sick children. The
symptoms of the disease are: exhaustion, fever, anemia, hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly,
there are a lot of mosquitoes in country; the children are likely sick with:
A. Visceral leishmaniasis.
B. Balantidiasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Giardiasis.
E. Amebiasis.
8. The parents of an ill boy have borne to consult an infectious disease doctor. The family has
lived in an Asian country for a while, where there are a lot of mosquitoes. The boy's skin is of
dark color. He has a bad appetite, malaise, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, and peripheral
lymph nodes enlargement. Which protozoan illness are these symptoms typical of?
F. Visceral leishmaniasis.
G. Giardiasis.
H. Balantidiasis.
I. Amebiasis.
J. Toxoplasmosis.
9. A female patient with symptoms of the inflammatory process of urogenital apparatus had
large unicellular organisms observed in the vagina smear. The cell bodies of the organisms
are pear-shaped with a pointed posterior part, a large nucleus, and an undulating membrane.
Which protozoans have been found in the smear?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis.
B. Trichomonas hominis.
C. Toxoplasma gondii.
D. Trypanosoma gambiense.
E. Giardia intestinalis.
10. Parents with ill child came to the infectionist. They worked in one of the Asian countries
for a long time. Child has earthy colored skin, loss of appetite, laxity, enlarged liver, spleen,
peripheral glands. What protozoan illness can this child have?
F. Visceral leishmaniasis
G. Amebiasis
H. Balantidiasis
I. Lambliasis
J. Toxoplasmosis
11. A businessman came to India from South America. On examination the physician found
that the patient was suffering from Chagas disease. What was the way of invasion?
70
F. As a result of bug's bites
G. Through dirty hands
H. With contaminated fruits and vegetables
I. As a result of mosquito's bites
J. After contact with a sick dogs
12. A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10-18 mkm large.
They have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the
broadened part of body. What kind of the lowest organisms is it?
A. Lamblia
B. Balantidium
C. Intestinal ameba
D. Dysentery ameba
E. Trichomonas
13. A lymph node punctate of a patient with suspected protozoal disease was examined.
Examination of the stained specimen (Romanovsky's stain) revealed some crescent bodies
with pointed end, blue cytoplasm and red nucleus. What protozoan were revealed in the
smears?
A. Trypanosomes
B. Viscerotropic leishmania
C. Toxoplasms
D. Malarial plasmodiums
E. Dermotropic leishmania
14. A patient has symptoms of inflammation of urogenital tracts. Examination of a vaginal
smear revealed big monocellular, pear-shaped organisms with the pointed spike at the
posterior end of body, big nucleus and undulating membrane. What protozoa were found in
the smear?
F. Trichomonas vaginalis
G. Trichomonas hominis
H. Trichomonas buccalis
I. Trypanosoma gambiense
J. Lamblia intestinalis
A. Lambliasis
15. A gynaecologist was examining a patient and revealed symptoms of genital tract
inflammation. A smear from vagina contains pyriform protozoa with a spine, flagella at
their front; there is also an undulating membrane. What disease can be suspected?
A. Urogenital trichomoniasis
B. Lambliasis
C. Intestinal trichomoniasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Balantidiasis
16. Mosquitoes bites caused appearance of ulcers on the human skin; the ulcers were observed
under microscope. The ulcer's contents analysis revealed nonflagelated protozoans. What
disease is this?
A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
B. Visceral leishmaniasis.
C. Malaria.
D. Scabies.
E. Myiasis.
17. A patient complained of general weakness, bad appetite, and nausea. After the examination
in the duodenal aspirates pear-shaped protozoans with 4 pairs of flagella and two nuclei
were found. Which disease could the patient be ill with?
A. Giardiasis
71
B. Trichomoniasis.
C. Leishmaniasis.
D. Toxoplasmosis.
E. Malaria.
18. A patient with bile ducts inflammation was admitted to a gastrointestinal department. In the
bile duct pear-shaped protozoans with 2 nuclei and 4 pairs of flagella were found. What
protozoan disease did the patient have?
A. Giardiasis.
B. Toxoplasmosis.
C. Balantidiasis.
D. Trichomoniasis.
E. Amebiasis.
19. Some antelopes were brought to the Moscow zoo from Africa. Trypanosoma gambiense
was found in their blood. Are these antelopes epidemically dangerous?
A. Are not epidemically dangerous to all.
B. Dangerous to domestic animals and human.
C. Dangerous only to human.
D. Dangerous to other antelopes.
E. Dangerous only to predators.
20. Having returned from Turkmenia, a patient with ulcers on his face came to a doctor. The
doctor diagnosed cutaneous leishmaniasis. How did the disease agent get into the patient's
organism?
F. By the inoculable way.
G. By the respiratory way.
H. By a direct contact.
I. By a sexual contact.
J. By food.
Занятие №24.
Тема: Phylum APICOMPLEXA. Class SPOROZOEA. Plasmodium malaria. Toxoplasma
gondii. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. In the woman's anamnesis there were two miscarriages. The third pregnancy ended in a
birth of a baby with a lot of malformations (upper extremities were absent and lower
extremities were underdeveloped). The presence of what protozoans in the woman's body
could cause such abnormalities?
A. Toxoplasma gondii.
B. Entamoeba histolytica.
C. Giardia intestinalis.
D. Balantidium coli.
E. Trichomonas hominis.
2. In hospital have brought the patient with the complaints to a headache, pain in left
hypochondrium. He is sick for 1,5 weeks. The illness began sharply from increase of
temperature of a body up to 39,90 C. In 3 hours has decreased and hydropoiesis began. The
attacks repeat rhythmically in every 48 hours. The patient was at excursion in one of the
African countries. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory
diagnosticss is necessary for using?
A. Blood examination
B. Immunological tests
C. Stool examination
72
D. Examination of vaginal and urethral discharge
E. Urine examination
3. In hospital have brought the patient with the complaints to a headache, pain in left
hypochondrium. He is sick for 4,5 weeks. The illness began sharply from increase of
temperature of a body up to 39,90 C. In 3 hours has decreased and hydropoiesis began. The
attacks repeat rhythmically everyone 72 hours. The patient was at excursion in one of the
African countries. The physician has suspected “malaria”. What kind of Plasmodium can be
assumed?
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Plasmodium vivax
D. Plasmodium ovale
E. Plasmodium minuta
4. In blood smear of the patient with malaria is revealed Plasmodium malaria, which borrows
almost all red blood cells. The pigment is seen. A nucleus is large. What stage of
erythrocytic schizogony is revealed in a specimen?
A. Trophozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Sporozoite
D. Ring-shaped trophozoite
E. Oocyst
5. At the woman the dead child with infringements of development was born. What protozoa
disease can cause destruction of a fetus?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Balantidium
C. Lamblia
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
6. At the three-year child temperature sharply has risen, have appeared pneumonia, diarrhea,
increase of a liver and spleen. At the cat, which lived at the patient, some time ago the eyes
are sick, and then she has lost sight. What disease can be assumed at the child?
A. Toxoplasma
B. Balantidium
C. Lamblia
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
7. In three weeks after mission in India the journalist’s temperature of the body has sharply
increased in the morning, being accompanied with shivering and bad headache. In some
hours the temperature has decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. The diagnosis tropical malaria was made. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for
anopheles-female?
A. Gametocytes
B. Shizontes
C. Merozoites
D. Microgamete
E. Sporozoites
8. A woman gave birth to a child with fatal disorders of development. What protozoa might
have been the cause of fetus death?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Lamblia intestinalis
D. Leishmania donovani
73
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
9. In some regions of the world the cases of malaria became more frequent. What insect is a
carrier of the agent of malaria?
A. Anopheles mosquito.
B. Culex mosquito.
C. Phlebotomus sandfly.
D. Simulium black fly.
E. Aedes mosquito.
10. In the woman's anamnesis there were two miscarriages. The third pregnancy ended in a
birth of a baby with a lot of malformations (upper extremities were absent and lower
extremities were underdeveloped). The presence of what protozoans in the woman's body could
cause such abnormalities?
A.
Toxoplasma gondii.
B.
Entamoeba histolytica.
C.
Giardia intestinalis.
D.
Balantidium coli.
E.
Trichomonas hominis.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
 A woman gave birth to a dead baby with a lot of failures of development. What protozoan
disease could cause the fetus's death?
A.
Toxoplasmosis.
B.
Malaria.
C.
Amebiasis.
D.
Leishmaniasis.
E.
Giardiasis.
 The examination of a patient showed that he had toxoplasmosis. Which material was used
for diagnosing of the disease?
A.
Blood
B.
Feces.
C.
Urine.
D.
Duodenal contents.
E.
Phlegm.
 A patient has typical symptoms of malaria: wasting fever, exhaustion. These attacks repeat
after certain intervals of time. What stage of Plasmodium is in the patient's blood?
A. Merozoites.
B. Ookinete.
C. Oocysts.
D. Sporozoites.
E. Sporocysts.
 A patient with attacks of wasting fever and the body temperature rising up to 40° C was
admitted to an infectious department of a hospital. The attacks repeated rhythmically every
48 hours. It was known from anamnesis that the patient had recently returned from South
Africa where he had been staying for 3 years. What was the causative organism of the
disease?
A. Agent of three-days' malaria.
B. Agent of Gambian trypanosomiasis.
C. Agent of giardiasis.
D. Agent of four-days' malaria.
 Agent of toxoplasmosisA patient has typical symptoms of malaria: wasting fever,
exhaustion. These attacks repeat after certain intervals of time. What stage of Plasmodium
is in the patient's blood?
74
A. Merozoites.
B. Ookinete.
C. Oocysts.
D. Sporozoites.
E. Sporocysts.
 A woman who had two miscarriages came to a women's consultating centre. Which
protozoan illness could provoke the miscarriages?
A. Toxoplasmosis.
B. Balantidiasis.
C. Trichomoniasis.
D. Giardiasis.
E. Amebiasis.
 A patient with attacks of wasting fever and the body temperature rising up to 40° C was
admitted to an infectious department of a hospital. The attacks repeated rhythmically every
48 hours. It was known from anamnesis that the patient had recently returned from South
Africa where he had been staying for 3 years. What was the causative organism of the
disease?
A. Agent of three-days' malaria.
B. Agent of Gambian trypanosomiasis.
C. Agent of giardiasis.
D. Agent of four-days' malaria.
E. Agent of toxoplasmosis.
 A woman gave birth to a dead baby with a lot of failures of development. What protozoan
disease could cause the fetus's death?
F. Toxoplasmosis.
G. Malaria.
H. Amebiasis.
I. Leishmaniasis.
J. Giardiasis.
 The examination of a patient showed that he had toxoplasmosis. Which material was used
for diagnosing the disease?
A. Blood.
B. Feces.
C. Urine.
D. Duodenal contents.
E. Phlegm.
 A woman delivered a dead child with multiple developmental defects. What protozoan
disease might have caused the intrauterine death?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Malaria
D. Amebiasis
E. Balantidiasis
 A patient has been brought to the hospital with the complaints of headache, pain in left
hypochondrium. He has been ill for 1,5 weeks. The sudden illness began with the increase
of body temperature up to 39,90C. In 3 hours the temperature decreased and hydropoiesis
began. The attacks repeat rhythmically in 48 hours. The patient had visited one an African
country. The doctors have suspected malaria. What method of laboratory diagnostics is
necessary to use?
A. Blood examination
B. Urine examination
C. Examination of vaginal and urethral discharge
75
D. Stool examination
E. Immunological tests
 A journalist’s body temperature has sharply increased in the morning three weeks after his
mission in India, it was accompanied with shivering and bad headache. A few hours later
the temperature decreased. The attacks began to repeat in a day. He was diagnosed with
tropical malaria. What stage of development of Plasmodium is infective for anophelesfemale?
A. Gametocytes
B. Sporozoites
C. Shizontes
D. Merozoites
E. Microgamete
 2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recepient has developed fever. What protozoal
disease can it be?
A. Malaria
B. Trypanosomiasis
C. Amebiasis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Leishmaniasis
Занятие №25.
Тема: Phylum CILIOPHORA. Class Rimostomatea. Balantidium coli. Morphology. Life
cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control. Test control.
1.Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. The working woman of pig farm has addressed to the doctor with the complaints to a pain
in a stomach, often stool with an impurity of blood and slime, reduction of appetite, loss of
weight. What protozoa disease can cause such symptoms?
A. Balantidium
B. Toxoplasma
C. Lamblia
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
2. The man in feces has slime, blood, the protozoa 30-200 microns of length is revealed. The
body is covered by cilias, has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide
round shaped back end. On the forward end mouth is visible. In cytoplasm are two nucleuses and
two short vacuoles. For whom the described attributes are characteristic?
A. Balantidium
B. Lamblia
C. Dysenteric amoeba
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
3. At the sanitary – protozoa control of waste water cysts of protozoa are revealed: round shaped
cysts with a thick environment of the sizes 50-70 microns, cytoplasm is homogeneous, the large
and small nuclei are well visible. What protozoa cysts are in waste water?
A. Balantidium
B. Lamblia
C. Dysenteric amoeba
D. Trichomonas
E. Intestinal amoeba
3. Which stage of Balantidium coli is infective for humans?
76
A. Cyst
B. Forma minuta
C. Forma magna
D. The first one
E. The last one
4. Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns of length have been revealed in a man's feces. The
body is covered with cilia’s and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide
round shaped back end. On the forward end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two
nucleuses and two short vacuoles. For whom are the described attributes typical?
A. Balantidium
B. Lamblia
C. Intestinal amoeba
D. Trichomonas
E. Dysenteric amoeba
5. Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns long have been revealed in a man's feces. The body
is covered with cilias and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed anterior and wide round
shaped posterior end. At the anterior end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nucleui
and two short vacuoles. What are the described features typical for?
A. Balantidium
B. Lamblia
C. Trichomonas
D. Dysenteric amoeba
E. Intestinal amoeba
6. A patient working at a pig farm complains about paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces with
admixtures of mucus and blood, headache, weakness, fever. Examination of large intestine
revealed ulcers from 1 mm up to several cm large, feces contained oval unicellular organisms
with cilia. What disease should be suspected?
A. Balantidiasis
B. Amebiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Lambliasis
E. Trichomoniasis
7. A patient was taken to a hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion. The feces examination revealed large cysts and vegetative forms of ciliated
protozoa. Which protozoan are these features most typical of?
A. Balantidium coli.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Entamoeba coli.
D. Entamoeba gingivalis.
E. Entamoeba histolytica.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. The working woman of pig farm has addressed to the doctor with the complaints to a pain
in a stomach, often stool with an impurity of blood and slime, reduction of appetite, loss of
weight. What protozoa disease can cause such symptoms?
A.
Balantidium
B.
Toxoplasma
C.
Lamblia
D.
Trichomonas
E.
Intestinal amoeba
77
2. The man in feces has slime, blood, the protozoa 30-200 microns of length is revealed. The
body is covered by cilias, has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide
round shaped back end. On the forward end mouth is visible. In cytoplasm are two nucleuses and
two short vacuoles. For whom the described attributes are characteristic?
A.
Balantidium
B.
Lamblia
C.
Dysenteric amoeba
D.
Trichomonas
E.
Intestinal amoeba
3. At the sanitary – protozoa control of waste water cysts of protozoa are revealed: round shaped
cysts with a thick environment of the sizes 50-70 microns, cytoplasm is homogeneous, the large
and small nuclei are well visible. What protozoa cysts are in waste water?
A.
Balantidium
B.
Lamblia
C.
Dysenteric amoeba
D.
Trichomonas
E.
Intestinal amoeba
4. Which stage of Balantidium coli is infective for humans?
A.
Cyst
B.
Forma minuta
C.
Forma magna
D.
The first one
E.
The last one
5. Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns of length have been revealed in a man's feces. The
body is covered with cilia’s and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed forward and wide
round shaped back end. On the forward end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two
nucleuses and two short vacuoles. For whom are the described attributes typical?
A.
Balantidium
B.
Lamblia
C.
Intestinal amoeba
D.
Trichomonas
E.
Dysenteric amoeba
6. Slime, blood and protozoa 30-200 microns long have been revealed in a man's feces. The body
is covered with cilias and has correct oval form with a little bit narrowed anterior and wide round
shaped posterior end. At the anterior end a mouth is visible. In cytoplasm there are two nucleui
and two short vacuoles. What are the described features typical for?
A.
Balantidium
B.
Lamblia
C.
Trichomonas
D.
Dysenteric amoeba
E.
Intestinal amoeba
7. A patient working at a pig farm complains about paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces with
admixtures of mucus and blood, headache, weakness, fever. Examination of large intestine
revealed ulcers from 1 mm up to several cm large, feces contained oval unicellular organisms
with cilia. What disease should be suspected?
A.
Balantidiasis
B.
Amebiasis
C.
Toxoplasmosis
D.
Lambliasis
E.
Trichomoniasis
78
8. A patient was taken to a hospital with complaints of general weakness, pain in bowels,
indigestion. The feces examination revealed large cysts and vegetative forms of ciliated
protozoa. Which protozoan are these features most typical of?
A.
Balantidium coli.
B.
Giardia intestinalis.
C.
Entamoeba coli.
D.
Entamoeba gingivalis.
E.
Entamoeba histolytica.
Занятие №26.
Тема: Submodule on Medical Protozoology
Тестовый контроль
1. What is endoparasite?
A. Organism living in the host
B. Organism living on the host
C. Organism living with the host
D. Free-living individual
E. Organism living near the host
2. What is ectoparasite?
A. Organism living on the host
B. Organism living in the host
C. Organism living with the host
D. Free-living individual
E. Organism living near the host
3. What is constant parasite?
A. Organism parasitizing on the other organism whole life
B. Organism parasitizing on the other organism
C. Organism living with the host
D. Free-living individual
E. Organism living near the host
4. The feces examination of a patient was taken to a hospital revealed cysts with 8 nuclei.
Which protozoan are these cysts most typical of?
A. Entamoeba coli.
B. Giardia intestinalis.
C. Balantidium coli.
D. Entamoeba gingivalis.
E. Entamoeba histolytica.
5. Which host gives to parasite possibility of sexual maturation reaching?
A. Definitive host
B. The last one
C. Intermediate host
D. The first one
E. Additional host
6. Which form of Entamoeba histolytica is pathogenic in human being?
A. Forma magna
B. The last one
C. Forma minuta
D. The first one
E. Cyst
7. Which host carries larval parasitic stages?
79
A. Intermediate host
B. The last one
C. Definitive host
D. The first one
E. Additional host
8. Mosquitoes bites caused appearance of ulcers on the human skin; the ulcers were observed
under microscope. The ulcer's contents analysis revealed nonflagelated protozoans. What
disease is this?
A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
B. Visceral leishmaniasis.
C. Malaria.
D. Scabies.
E. Myiasis.
 In some regions of the world the cases of malaria became more frequent. What insect is a
carrier of the agent of malaria?
A. Anopheles mosquito.
B. Culex mosquito.
C. Phlebotomus sandfly.
D. Simulium black fly.
E. Aedes mosquito.
9. A patient complained of general weakness, bad appetite, and nausea. After the examination
in the duodenal aspirates pear-shaped protozoans with 4 pairs of flagella and two nuclei
were found. Which disease could the patient be ill with?
A. Giardiasis
B. Trichomoniasis.
C. Leishmaniasis.
D. Toxoplasmosis.
E. Malaria.
10. A woman who had two miscarriages came to a women's consulting centre. Which
protozoan illness could provoke the miscarriages?
F.
Trichomoniasis.
G.
Balantidiasis.
H.
Toxoplasmosis.
I. Giardiasis.
J. Amebiasis.
11. During the examination of duodenal aspirates of a patient with indigestion pear-shaped
protozoans measuring 10 — 18 micrometers with 4 pairs of flagella were found. On a large
scale there were 2 symmetrically placed nuclei. Which of the protozoans parasitized within
the patient's body?
A. Giardia intestinalis.
B. Entamoeba coli.
C. Entamoeba histolytica.
D. Trichomonas hominis.
E. Balantidium coli.
12. During the examination of a patient a doctor found small ulcers with rough edges on the
patient's skin. The patient had just returned from an Asian country where there were a lot of
mosquitoes. What disease can be suspected?
A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
B. Trypanosomiasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Malaria.
E. Scabies.
80
13. The patient has fever with double daily rise (39-400 C), the enlargement of the spleen and
the liver. Blood analysis revealed bad anaemia. What disease can be suspected in the
patient?
A. Trypanosomiasis
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Giardiasis
D. Тrichomoniasis
E. Amoebiasis
14. A patient working at a pig farm complains about paroxysmal abdominal pain, liquid feces
with admixtures of mucus and blood, headache, weakness, fever. Examination of large
intestine revealed ulcers from 1 mm up to several cm large, feces contained oval unicellular
organisms with cilia. What disease should be suspected?
A. Balantidiasis
B. Amebiasis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Lambliasis
E. Trichomoniasis
15. During the examination of duodenal aspirates of a patient with indigestion pear-shaped
protozoans measuring 10 — 18 micrometers with 4 pairs of flagella were found. High
power magnification shows 2 symmetrically placed nuclei. Which of the protozoan
parasitized within the patient's body?
A. Giardia intestinalis
B. Entamoeba histolytica.
C. Trichomonas hominis.
D. . Entamoeba coli.
E. Balantidium coli.
16. A woman who had two miscarriages came to a women's consultating centre. Which
protozoan illness could provoke the miscarriages?
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Balantidiasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Giardiasis.
E. Amebiasis.
17. During the examination of a patient a doctor found small ulcers with rough edges on the
patient's skin. The patient had just returned from an Asian country where there were a lot of
mosquitoes. What disease can be suspected?
A. Cutaneous leishmaniasis.
B. Trypanosomiasis.
C. Toxoplasmosis.
D. Malaria.
E. Scabies.
18. Which stage of Balantidium coli is infective for humans?
A. Cyst
B. Forma minuta
C. Forma magna
D. The first one
E. The last one
19. A patient with attacks of wasting fever and the body temperature rising up to 40° C was
admitted to an infectious department of a hospital. The attacks repeated rhythmically every
48 hours. It was known from anamnesis that the patient had recently returned from South
Africa where he had been staying for 3 years. What was the causative organism of the
disease?
81
A. Agent of three-days' malaria.
B. Agent of Gambian trypanosomiasis.
C. Agent of giardiasis.
D. Agent of four-days' malaria.
E. Agent of toxoplasmosis.
20. In laboratory are feces with an impurity of blood of the patient with amoebic dysentery.
What forms of Entamoeba histolytica can be revealed?
A. Cyst with 4 nuclei
B. Cyst with 2 nuclei
C. Eggs
D. Cyst with 6 nuclei
E. Cyst with 1 nuclei
2. Вопросы для контроля рубежного уровня знаний.
1. Characterization of Phylum Apicomplexa and its division on species.
2. General morphological characteristic of class Sporozoa.
3. Malaria parasites of man and Toxoplasma gondii: Desease, Geographcal distribution,
Morfology, Organs of parasitism, Life cycle, Pathogenicity, Diagnosis, Prevention and
control of desease.
4. General morphological characteristic Phylum Ciliophora class Litostomatea.
5. Balantidium coli. Desease, Geographcal distribution, Morfology, Organs of parasitism,
Life cycle, Pathogenicity, Diagnosis, Prevention and control of desease.
6. Characterization of class Sarcomastigophora and its division on species.
7. General morphological characteristic of class Sarcomastigophora.
8. Trypanosoma, Leishmania, Giardia, Trichomonas: Desease, Geographcal distribution,
Morfology, Organs of parasitism, Pathogenicity, Diagnosis, Prevention and control of
desease.
9. Taxonomy of the important human parasitic protests.
10. General morphology of class Lobosea.
11. Life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica.
12. Pathogenicity of Entamoeba histolytica
13. Diagnosis of amoebic dysentery. Free-Living Amoebas.
3. Перечень фото микропрепаратов
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Entamoeba hystolitica
Giradia Intestinalis
Trichomonas
Leishmania
Tripanosoma
Plasmodium
Toxoplasma
Balantidium coli
Занятие № 27.
Тема: Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class TREMATODA. Fasciola hepatica.
Dicrocoelium dendriticum. Opisthorchis felineus. Heterophyes heterophyes. Morphology.
Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
82

A 35-year-old man came to a doctor complaining of epigastric pain. As it appeared, the
patient was fond of fishing and often ate raw fish. Eggs of helminths were found in the
patient's feces. The eggs were dark and oval-shaped with an operculum on one of the poles,
30x15 micrometers in size. Which helminthosis did the patient have?
A. Opisthorchiasis.
B. Paragonimiasis.
C. Fascioliasis.
D. Schistosomiasis.
E. Ancylostomiasis.
 A hunter drank raw water from a pond. Which of helminthosis may the man get?
A. Fascioliasis.
B. Opisthorchiasis.
C. Paragonimiasis.
D. Clonorchiasis.
E. Taeniasis.
 A patient complains of pain in the area of his liver. Duodenal intubation revealed yellowish,
oval, narrowed at the poles eggs with an operculum at the end. Size of these eggs is the
smallest among all helminth eggs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Opisthorchosis
B. Beef tapeworm infection
C. Diphyllobothriasis
D. Echinococcosis
E. Teniasis
 A patient came to a doctor complaining of allergy and epigastric pain. Oval-shaped, yellow
eggs measuring 135x80 micrometers with an operculum on one of the poles were found in
the feces during the stool examinations. What disease did the patient have?
A. Fascioliasis.
B. Taeniasis.
C. Opisthorchiasis.
D. Diphyllobothriasis.
E. Echinococcosis.
 During the examination a patient was diagnosed with opisthorchiasis. With what food could
the patient get the agent of opisthorchiasis?
A. Undercooked fish.
B. Cysticercosis beef.
C. Dirty vegetables.
D. Cysticercosis pork.
E. Dirty fruit.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. What type of host are human beings for Fasciola hepatica?
A. Definitive
B. Intermediate
C. Panxenous
D. Monoxenous
E. Reserve
2. What type of host are human beings for Opisthorhis felineus?
A. Definitive
B. Intermediate
C. Panxenous
D. Monoxenous
83
E. Reserve
3. A hunter drank raw water from a pond. Which of helminthosis may the man get?
A. Fascioliasis.
B. Opisthorchiasis.
C. Paragonimiasis.
D. Clonorchiasis.
E. Taeniasis.
4. A patient came to a doctor complaining of allergy and epigastric pain. Oval-shaped, yellow
eggs measuring 135x80 micrometers with an operculum on one of the poles were found in
the feces during the stool examinations. What disease did the patient have?
F. Fascioliasis.
G. Taeniasis.
H. Opisthorchiasis.
I. Diphyllobothriasis.
J. Echinococcosis.
5. During the examination a patient was diagnosed with opisthorchiasis. With what food could
the patient get the agent of opisthorchiasis?
A. Undercooked fish.
B. Cysticercosis beef.
C. Dirty vegetables.
D. Cysticercosis pork.
E. Dirty fruit.
6. A male patient has fever and enanthesis. As a result of the examination involving
serological tests he has been diagnosed with fasciola hepatica. It was found out that the
patient had been infected through raw river water. Which stage of fasciola life cycle is
invasive for humans?
A. Adolescaria
B. Miracidium
C. Ovum
D. Cysticercus
E. Metacercaria
7. A patient complains of pain in the area of his liver. Duodenal intubation revealed yellowish,
oval, narrowed at the poles eggs with an operculum at the end. Size of these eggs is the
smallest among all helminth eggs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Opisthorchiasis
B. Beef tapeworm infection
C. Diphyllobothriasis
D. Echinococcosis
E. Teniasis
Занятие № 28.
Тема: Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class TREMATODA. Schistosoma haematobium.
Schistosoma mansoni. Paragonimus westermani. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity.
Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. A tourist who was staying in Eastern Asia had been hospitalized to a therapeutic department
with suspected pneumonia. During the examination of the patient's sputum and feces the
eggs of Paragonimus ringeri were found. With what food could the patient get the
pathogenic organism?
A. Undercooked crabs.
84
B. Unboiled water.
C. Undercooked fish.
D. Undercooked pork.
E. Dirty fruit and vegetables.
2. The examination of a foreigner revealed intestinal schistosomiasis. How could the patient
be infected?
A. During river swimming
B. While eating fish
C. While eating meat
D. Through dirty hands
E. Through insects bites
3. A patient consulted an urologist about pain during urination. Analysis of his urine taken in
the daytime revealed eggs with a characteristic sharp point. It is known from the anamnesis
that the patient has recently returned from Australia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Urogenital schistosomiasis
B. Intestinal schistosomiasis
C. Japanese schistosomiasis
D. Opisthorchiasis
E. Dicroceliasis
4. A patient, who came to Ukraine from Australia, consulted a doctor complaining of pain
during urination. The analysis of his day urine specimens revealed large terminally spined
eggs. What helminth did the patient have?
A. Schistosoma haematobium.
B. Opisthorchis felineus.
C. Schistosoma mansoni.
D. Schistosoma japonicum.
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. During the examination of a man who has recently come back from Africa schistosomiasis
is diagnosed. How could the pathogenic organism penetrate into the organism of the
patient?
F. While swimming in the river.
G. While eating pork.
H. While eating fish.
I. Through dirty hands.
J. In case of mosquitos' bites.
2. A tourist who was staying in Eastern Asia had been hospitalized to a therapeutic department
with suspected pneumonia. During the examination of the patient's sputum and feces the
eggs of Paragonimus ringeri were found. With what food could the patient get the
pathogenic organism?
A. Undercooked crabs.
B. Unboiled water.
C. Undercooked fish.
D. Undercooked pork.
E. Dirty fruit and vegetables.
3. A patient, who came to Ukraine from Australia, consulted a doctor complaining of pain
during urination. The analysis of his day urine specimens revealed large terminally spined
eggs. What helminth did the patient have?
A. Schistosoma haematobium.
B. Opisthorchis felineus.
85
C. Schistosoma mansoni.
D. Schistosoma japonicum.
E. Dicrocoelium lanceatum.
4. During the examination of a man who has recently come back from Africa schistosomiasis
is diagnosed. How could the pathogenic organism penetrate into the organism of the
patient?
A. While swimming in the river.
B. While eating pork.
C. While eating fish.
D. Through dirty hands.
E. In case of mosquitos' bites.
Занятие № 29.
Тема: Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class CESTOIDEA. Taenia saginata. Taenia solium.
Hymenolepis nana. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. A helminth 2 m long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The
helminth's body consist of segments, has a little head with hooks and four suckers. Which
helminth did the patient have?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Taenia saginata.
C. Hymenolepis nana.
D. Echinococcus granulosus.
E. Diphillobothrium latum.
2.
A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found
in his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7—12 lateral branches. Which helminth does
the patient have?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
3.
After the dissection of a woman's pad body larvae of helminths — cysticercus were found
in the tissue of the brain. Which helminth did the larvae belong to?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Alveococcus multilocularis.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Echinococcus granulosus.
E. Hymenolepis nana.
4.
A woman came to a doctor complaining of indigestion. In her feces flat white moving
segments constantly appeared. Laboratory examination revealed that they were long,
narrow proglottids with a longitudinal canal of the uterus which had 17 — 35 lateral
branches on each side. Which of the helminths did the woman have in her intestines?
A. Taenia saginata.
B. Hymenolepis nana.
C. Taenia solium.
D. Diphyllobothrium latum.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
5.
A 35-year-old man was taken to the hospital. He failed to see with one of his eyes. It was
known from anamnesis that he used to eat pork. After the radiologic examination and
86
serologic findings he was diagnosed with cysticercosis. What helminth is an agent of
cysticercosis?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Taenia saginata.
C. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
D. Trichinella spiralis.
E. Diphyllobothrium latum.
6.
A patient came to a doctor complaining of general weakness and indigestion. He brought
segments of a tape worm found on his bedclothes. Which of the helminths did the patient
have?
A. Taenia saginata.
B. Hymenolepis nana.
C. Taenia solium.
D. Diphyllobothrium latum.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
7.
A helminth 2 m long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The
helminth's body consists segments, has a little head with hook and four suckers. Which
helminth did the patient have?
F. Taenia solium.
G. Taenia saginata.
H. Hymenolepis nana.
I. Ehinococcus granulosus.
J. Diphyllobothrium latum
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. A helminth 10 m long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The
helminth's body consists segments, has a little head with suckers. Which helminth did the
patient have?
A. Taenia saginata.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Hymenolepis nana.
D. Ehinococcus granulosus.
E. Diphyllobothrium latum
2.
A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found
in his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7—12 lateral branches. Which helminth does
the patient have?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
3.
A patient came to a doctor complaining of general weakness and indigestion. He brought
segments of a tape worm found on his bedclothes. Which of the helminths did the patient
have?
F. Taenia saginata.
G. Hymenolepis nana.
H. Taenia solium.
I. Diphyllobothrium latum.
J. Echinococcus granulosus.
4.
What host for Himenolepis nana human is?
A. Both definitive and intermediate
87
B.
C.
D.
E.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Definitive
Intermediate
Reservoir
First
A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found
in his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7—12 lateral branches. Which helminth does
the patient have?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
After the dissection of a woman's pad body larvae of helminths — cysticerci were found
in the tissue of the brain. Which helminth did the larvae belong to?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Alveococcus multilocularis.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Echinococcus granulosus.
E. Hymenolepis nana.
A woman came to a doctor complaining of indigestion. In her feces flatworm white
moving segments constantly appeared. Laboratory examination revealed that they were
long, narrow proglottids with a longitudinal canal of the uterus which had 17 — 35 lateral
branches on each side. Which of the helminths did the woman have in her intestines?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Hymenolepis nana.
C. Taenia solium.
D. Diphyllobothrium latum.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
A 35-year-old man was taken to the hospital. He failed to see with one of his eyes. It was
known from anamnesis that he used to eat pork. After the radiologic examination and
serologic findings he was diagnosed with cysticercosis. What helminth is an agent of
cysticercosis?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Taenia saginata.
C. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
D. Trichinella spiralis.
E. Diphyllobothrium latum.
Занятие № 30.
Тема: Phylum PLATHELMINTHES. Class CESTOIDEA. Diphyllobothrium latum.
Echinococcus granulesus. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний
1. A woman came to a doctor complaining of general weakness, epigastic pain and
indigestion. After the examination of the patient anemia concerned with vitamin B12
deficiency was found. It was known from anamnesis that living in the Far East she used to
eat caviar. Labora-tory analysis showed that the feces contained eggs of helminth which
were oval-shaped, yellow, and had an operculum on one of the poles. What disease did the
patient have?
A. Diphyllobothriasis.
B. Taeniasis.
88
C. Echinococcosis.
D. Trichinosis.
E. Ascariasis.
2. The guide of the scientific expedition in India was native who always was with his dog.
What invasive diseases can be transmitted by the dog if it is the source of invasion?
A. Echinococcosis
B. Fascioliasis
C. Teniasis
D. Dicroceliasis
E. Paragonimiasis
3. Fragments of a helminth were found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. These
fragments had a tape like segmented structure. The width of the segments exceeded their
length. In the centre of the segment there was a rosette-shaped uterus. Which helminth did
the patient have?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Alveococcus multilocularis.
E. Hymenolepis nana.
4. What host are human beings for E. granulosus?
A. Intermediate
B. First
C. Last
D. Definitive
E. Reservoirs
5. A woman came to a doctor complaining of general weakness, epigastic pain, indigestion.
After the examination of the patient anemia connected with vitamin B12 deficiency was
found. It was known from anamnesis that living in the Far East she used to eat caviar.
Laboratory analysis showed that the feces contained eggs of helminth which were ovalshaped, yellow, and had an operculum on one of the poles. What disease did the patient
have?
A. Diphyllobothriasis.
B. Taeniasis.
C. Echinococcosis.
D. Trichinosis.
E. Ascariasis.
6. Fragments of a helminth were found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. These
fragments had a tape-like segmented structure. The width of the segments exceeded their
length. In the centre of the segment there was a rosette-shaped uterus. Which helminth did
the patient have?
A. Diphyllobothrium latum.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. D.Alveococcus multilocularis.
E. Hymenolepis nana.
7. It is well known that some of the helminths at the larval stage parasitize in the muscles of
fish. What helminthosis may a person get if he eats raw fish?
A. Diphyllobothriasis
B. Taeniasis.
C. Enterobiasis.
D. Trichinosis.
E. Ascariasis.
89
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. A female patient consulted a physician about digestive disorder, extended abdominal pain.
Examination revealed drastic decrease in hemoglobin concentration. It is known from the
anamnesis that while living in the Far East the patient used to eat freshly-salted caviar.
Some relatives living with her had the similar condition. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Diphyllobothriasis
B. Echinococcosis
C. Teniasis
D. Trichiniasis
E. Ascaridiasis
2. A worker of a live-stock farm was made a provisional diagnosis of echinococcosis. The
diagnosis was confirmed during a surgery. From what animal could the patient get the
disease?
A. A dog.
B. A sheep.
C. A pig.
D. A rabbit.
E. A cow.
3. Which of the animals enumerated are parasites?
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Planaria alba
C. Domestic fly
D. Euglena viridis
E. Entamoeba coli
4. What is the first intermediate host for Difillobotrium latum?
A. Crustaceans
B. Fish
C. Snail
D. Human
E. Bear
5. What is the source of broad tapeworm ingestion for humans?
A. Fish
B. Water
C. It passes with the contaminated hands
D. Pork
E. Beef
6. It is well known that some of the helminths at the larval stage parasitize in the muscles of
fish. What helminthosis may a person get if he eats raw fish?
A. Diphyllobothriasis.
B. Ascariasis.
C. Taeniasis.
D. Enterobiasis.
E. Trichinosis.
7. A worker of a live-stock farm was made a provisional diagnosis of echinococcosis. The
diagnosis was confirmed during a surgery. From what animal could the patient get the
disease?
A.
A dog.
B.
A sheep.
C.
A pig.
D.
A rabbit.
90
E.
A cow.
Занятие № 31.
Тема: Phylum NEMATHELMINTHES. Class NEMATODA. Ascaris Lumbricoides.
Trichocephalus trichiurus. Enterobius vermicularis. Morphology. Life cycle.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами)
1. A child complains of general weakness, loss of appetite, a troubled sleep, itching in the
perianal area. The provisional diagnosis is enterobiasis. In order to specify this diagnosis it is
necessary to perform:
a) Scraping from perianal folds
b) Duodenal contents analysis
c) Roentgenoscopy
d) Immune diagnostics
e) Biopsy of muscle tissue
2. In the perianal folds of a 5-year-old girl her mother has found some white "worms" that caused
itch and anxiety in the child. The "worms" were sent to the laboratory. During examination the
physician saw white filiform helminths 0,5-1 cm long, with pointed ends, some helminths had
twisted ends. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Enterobiasis
B. Diphyllobothriasis
C. Teniasis
D. Ascaridiasis
E. Opisthorchiasis
3. A 10-year-old child complains of weakness, nausea, irritability. Helminthes of white color
and 5-10 mm long were found on the underwear. On microscopy of the scrape from the perianal
folds achromic ova of the unsymmetrical form were revealed. Indicate what helminth is
parasiting on the child?
f) Enterobius vermicularis
g) Ancylostoma duodenalis
h) Trichuris
i) Ascaris lumbricoides
j) Trichina
4. Larvae were detected occasionally on the microscopic examination of the sputum of the
patient with pneumonia. Eosinophiles were detected on the blood examination. What
helminthiasis can be diagnosed?
a)
Ascariasis
b)
Enterobiosis
c)
Opistorchis
d)
Trichocephaliasis
e)
Paragonimiasis
5. Microscopic examination of the sputum of a patient with pneumonia occasionally revealed
some larvae. Eosinophiles were detected on blood examination. What helminthiasis can be
diagnosed?
B) Ascariasis
C) Enterobiosis
D) Trichocephaliasis
E) Paragonimiasis
F) Opisthorchosis
91
6. During regular examination of schoolchildren it was revealed that a 10 year old girl had
asymmetric oval eggs with a larva in the scrape from her perianal folds. What diagnosis should
be made?
1.
Enterobiasis
2.
Ascariasis
3.
Amebiasis
4.
Trichocephalosis
5.
Ankylostomiasis
7. During the microscopy of the scrape of the anal mucosa of a child assymmetric colorless eggs
were found. Which helminth did those eggs belong to?
A. Enterobius vermicularis.
B. Ancylostoma duodenale.
C. Ascaris lumbricoides.
D. D.Trichocephalus trichiurus.
E. Hymenolepis nana.
8. During the operation white helminths 40 mm long with a thin filiform anterior part of the body
were found in the appendix. After the preliminarily examination of the patient's feces ovalshaped eggs with two prominent plugs on the poles were found. What helminth was found
during the operation?
A. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
B. Ancylostoma duodenale.
C. Enterobius vermicularis.
D. Ascaris lumbricoides.
E. Strongyloides stercoralis.
9. A child doesn't sleep well; sometimes he scratches the area around the anus. After the
examination of the child's nightwear white filiform helminths 1 cm long were found. During the
microscopic examination of a 1 specimen from perianal folds of the child small ovoid
asymmetrical colourless eggs were observed. What is the helminth, which parasitizes in the
child's organism, called?
A. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Ascaris lumhricoides.
C. Strongyloides stercoralis.
D. Trichinella spiralis.
E. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
10. A sick child had recurrent diarrhoea, epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting. Once after the child's
vomiting his mother found a spindle-shaped helminth 20 cm long. Which disease could cause
such a condition?
1.
Ascariasis.
2.
Trichuriasis.
3.
Ancylostomiasis.
4.
Dracunculiasis.
5.
Trichinosis.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. A microscopy revealed yellow-brown knobby-coated eggs of helminths with a thick wall in
the faeces of a schoolboy. Which helminth did the eggs belong to?
1. Ascaris lumbricoides.
2. Trichocephalus trichiurus.
3. Enterobius vermicularis.
4. Hymenolepis nana.
5. Diphyllobothrium latum.
92
2. A mother of a 5-year-old girl found filiform helminths 0.5 — 1 cm long with sharp tips on the
child's nightwear. She brought them to a laboratory. Which disease did these parasites cause?
f)
Enterobiasis.
g)
Ascariasis.
h)
Diphyllobothriasis.
i)
Taeniasis.
j)
Opisthorchiasis.
3. The treatment of a patient with pneumonia didn't relieve his condition. He began complaining
of stomach ache, vomiting, indigestion, worsening of his general state. The analysis of the feces
revealed oval-shaped helminth's eggs covered with a thick tuberculate envelope. What diagnosis
can be made basing on the above mentioned data?
f) Ascariasis.
g)
Fascioliasis.
h)
Trichuriasis.
i) Diphyllobothriasis.
j) Enterobiasis.
4. During the check-up of school girls colourless asymmetric oval eggs with larvae inside were
found in the scrape bf perianal folds of a 10-year-old girl. What disease does it indicate?
1)
Enterobiasis.
2)
Amebiasis.
3)
Ascariasis.
4)
Trichuriasis.
5)
Ancylostomiasis.
5. Larvae of roundworms (Nematoda) have been found in the sputum of a patient with the
provisional diagnosis of pneumonia. What species of the roundworm is this?
A.
Ascaris lumbricoides.
B.
Fasciola hepatica.
C.
Paragonimus ringeri.
D.
Taenia solium.
E.
Echinococcus granulosus.
6. During the microscopy of the scrape of the anal mucosa of a child assymmetric colorless eggs
were found. Which helminth did those eggs belong to?
1.Enterobius vermicularis.
2.Ancylostoma duodenale.
3.Ascaris lumbricoides.
4.Trichocephalus trichiurus.
5.Hymenolepis nana.
7. During the operation white helminths 40 mm long with a thin filiform anterior part of the body
were found in the appendix. After the preliminarily examination of the patient's feces ovalshaped eggs with two prominent plugs on the poles were found. What helminth was found
during the operation?
1.
Trichocephalus trichiurus.
2.
Ancylostoma duodenale.
3.
Enterobius vermicularis.
4.
Ascaris lumbricoides.
5.
Strongyloides stercoralis.
8. A child doesn't sleep well; sometimes he scratches the area around the anus. After the
examination of the child's nightwear white filiform helminths 1 cm long were found. During the
microscopic examination of a specimen from perianal folds of the child small ovoid
asymmetrical colourless eggs were observed. What is the helminth, which parasitizes in the
child's organism, called?
1.
Enterobius vermicularis.
93
2.
Trichinella spiralis.
3.
Ascaris lumhricoides.
4.
Strongyloides stercoralis.
5.
Trichocephalus trichiurus.
9. A sick child had recurrent diarrhea, epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting. Once after the child's
vomiting his mother found a spindle-shaped helminth 20 cm long. Which disease could cause
such a condition?
1.
Ascariasis.
2.
Trichuriasis.
3.
Ancylostomiasis.
4.
Dracunculiasis.
5.
Trichinosis.
10. A microscopy revealed yellow-brown knobby-coated eggs of helminths with a thick wall in
the feces of a schoolboy. Which helminth did the eggs belong to?
A.
Ascaris lumbricoides
B.
Trichocephalus trichiurus.
C.
Enterobius vermicularis.
D.
Hymenolepis nana.
E.
Diphyllobothrium latum.
11. A mother of a 5-year-old girl found filiform helminths 0.5 — 1 cm long with sharp tips on
the child's nightwear. She brought them to a laboratory. Which disease did these parasites cause?
1.Enterobiasis.
2.Ascariasis.
3.Diphyllobothriasis.
4.Taeniasis.
5.Opisthorchiasis.
12. The treatment of a patient with pneumonia didn't relieve his condition. He began
complaining of stomachache, vomiting, indigestion, worsening of his general state. The analysis
of the feces revealed oval-shaped helminth's eggs covered with a thick tuberculate envelope.
What diagnosis can be made basing on the above mentioned data?
A. Ascariasis.
B. Fascioliasis.
C. Trichuriasis.
D. Diphyllobothriasis.
E. Enterobiasis.
13. During the checkup of school girls colorless asymmetric oval eggs with larvae inside were
found in the scrape of perianal folds of a 10-year-old girl. What disease does it indicate?
F. Enterobiasis.
G. Amebiasis.
H. Ascariasis.
I.
Trichuriasis.
J. Ancylostomiasis.
14. Larvae of roundworms (Nematoda) have been found in the sputum of a patient with the
provisional diagnosis of pneumonia. What species of the roundworm is this?
1. Ascaris lumbricoides.
2. Fasciola hepatica.
Paragonimus ringeri.
Taenia solium.
3. Echinococcus granulosus.
Занятие № 32.
94
Тема: Phylum NEMATHELMINTHES. Class NEMATODA. Ancylostoma duodenale.
Necator americanus. Strongyloides stercoralis. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity.
Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
Тестовые задания с ответами
1. Which of helminthes listed below can have both parasitic and free-living stages in the
lifecycle?
A.
Strongyloides stercoralis.
B.
Ancylostoma duodenale.
C.
Dracunculus medinensis.
D.
Trichinella spiralis.
E.
Wuchereria bancrofti.
2. Which forms of Strongiloides are infective for human being? Among answers choose most
qualified one:
 Filarieform larva in the environment
 Rhabditiform larva
 Adult worm
 Cysts
 Eggs
Занятие № 33.
Тема: Phylum NEMATHELMINTHES. Class NEMATODA. Trichinella spiralis.
Dracunculus medinensis. Wuchereria bancrofti. Morphology. Life cycle.
Тестовые задания с ответами
1. A patient came to a stomatological department complaining of pain in the chewing muscles. It
was known from anamnesis that he was fond of hunting and often ate meat of wild animals. The
encysted larva of what parasite was found in the result of muscle biopsy of the patient?
A.
Trichinella spiralis.
B.
Ancylostoma duodenale.
C.
Taenia solium.
D.
Dracunculus medinensis.
E.
Wuchereria bancrofti.
2. What vectors are responsible for the lymphatic filariasis?
A.
Mosquitoes
B.
Blackflies
C.
Deerflies
D.
Ticks
E.
Midges
3. Two days after consumption of smoked pork a patient got face and eyelid edema,
gastrointestinal disturbances, abrupt temperature rise, muscle pain. Blood analysis showed fullblown eosinophilia. What helminth could the patient be infected with?
A. Ascaris
B. Trichina
C. Hookworm
D. Whipworm
E.
Pinworm
4. How human mostly can be infected by guinea worm? Choose among answers a most qualified
one:
A. By consuming a copepods infected by larvae with contaminated water
95
B. By drinking a contaminated water
C. By eating the fish with larvae
D. By consuming a copepods infected by larvae
E. By eggs in air passage
5. A patient with the preliminary diagnosis of trichinosis was admitted to a hospital. Consuming
of what food could cause that disease?
1. Pork.
2. Beef.
3. Fish.
4. Crayfish.
5. Crab.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. A man has worked in an African country for 3 years. A month after his return to Ukraine he
consulted an ophthalmologist and complained about eye ache, eyelid edema, lacrimation and
temporary visual impairment. Underneath the eye conjunctiva the doctor revealed helminths 3050 mm long with elongated filiform body. What diagnosis might be suspected?
F. Filariasis
G. Diphyllobothriasis
A. Ascaridiasis
B. Enterobiasis
C. Trichocephaliasis
2. Two days after consumption of smoked pork a patient got face and eye-lid edemata,
gastrointestinal disturbances, abrupt temperature rise, muscle pain. Blood analysis showed fullblown eosinophilia. What helminth could the patient be infected with?
A.
Trichina
B.
Pinworm
C.
Ascarid
D.
Whipworm
E.
Hookworm
3. A patient with the preliminary diagnosis of trichinosis was admitted to a hospital. Consuming
of what food could cause that disease?
1.
Pork
2.
Beef.
3.
Fish.
4.
Crayfish.
5.
Crab.
4. What diseases are transmitted to humans by Aedes and Culex mosquitoes?
A.
Lymphatic filariasis
B.
Trench fever
C.
Malaria
D.
Dirofilariosis
E.
Subcutaneous filariasis
5. What disease is transmitted to humans by deer fly?
1. Loaosis
2. Onchocerciasis
3. Dirofilariosis
4. Elefantiasis
5. Lymphatic filariasis
96
6. A patient came to a stomatological department complaining of pain in the chewing muscles. It
was known from anamnesis that he was fond of hunting and often ate meat of wild animals. The
encysted larva of what parasite was found in the result of muscle biopsy of the patient?
A.
Trichinella spiralis.
B.
Ancylostoma duodenale.
C.
Taenia solium.
D.
Dracunculus medinensis.
E.
Wuchereria bancrofti.
7. A group of men applied to the doctor complaining of rising temperature, headache, swelling
of face and eyelids, myalgia. From the history it became known that they all were hunters and
they often ate meat of wild animals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.
Trichinosis
B.
Teniarrhinchosis
C.
Teniasis
D.
Cysticercosis
E.
Filariasis
Занятие № 34.
Тема: Labolatory diagnostic of helmintosis. Test control.
1. A patient complains of pain in the area of his liver. Duodenal intubation revealed yellowish,
oval, narrowed at the poles eggs with an operculum at the end. Size of these eggs is the
smallest among all helminth eggs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A.
Opisthorchiasis
B.
Beef tapeworm infection
C.
Diphyllobothriasis
D.
Echinococcosis
E.
Teniasis
2. A 35-year-old man came to a doctor complaining of epigastric pain. As it appeared, the
patient was fond of fishing and often ate raw fish. Eggs of helminths were found in the
patient's feces. The eggs were dark and oval-shaped with an operculum on one of the poles,
30x15 micrometers in size. Which helminthosis did the patient have?
A.
Opisthorchiasis.
B.
Paragonimiasis.
C.
Fascioliasis.
D.
Schistosomiasis.
E.
Ancylostomiasis.
3. A patient has severe indigestion. Mature and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found
in his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7—12 lateral branches. Which helminth does the
patient have?
a)
Taenia solium.
b)
Diphyllobothrium latum.
c)
Taenia saginata.
d)
Hymenolepis nana.
e)
Echinococcus granulosus.
4. A man has worked in an African country for 3 years. A month after his return to Ukraine he
consulted an ophthalmologist and complained about eye ache, eyelid edema, lacrimation and
temporary visual impairment. Underneath the eye conjunctiva the doctor revealed helminths
30-50 mm long with elongated filiform body. What diagnosis might be suspected?
a) Filariasis
b) Diphyllobothriasis
97
c) Ascaridiasis
d) Enterobiasis
e) Trichocephaliasis
Занятие № 35.
Тема: Submodule on Medical Parasitology
Тесты для контроля рубежного уровня знаний.
1.
A helminth 2 m long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The
helminth's body consists segments, has a little head with hook and four suckers. Which
helminth did the patient have?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Taenia saginata.
C. Hymenolepis nana.
D. Ehinococcus granulosus.
E. Diphyllobothrium latum
2.
A group of men applied to the doctor complaining of rising temperature, headache,
swelling of face and eyelids, myalgia. From the history it became known that they all
were hunters and they often ate meat of wild animals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Trichinosis
B. Teniarrhinchosis
C. Teniasis
D. Cysticercosis
E. Filariasis
A tourist who was staying in Eastern Asia had been hospitalized to a therapeutic
department with suspected pneumonia. During the examination of the patient's sputum
and feces the eggs of Paragonimus ringeri were found. With what food could the patient
get the pathogenic organism?
Undercooked crabs.
Unboiled water.
Undercooked fish.
Undercooked pork.
Dirty fruit and vegetables.
Larvae of roundworms (Nematoda) have been found in the sputum of a patient with the
provisional diagnosis of pneumonia. What species of the roundworm is this?
Ascaris lumbricoides.
Fasciola hepatica.
Paragonimus ringeri.
Taenia solium.
Echinococcus granulosus.
During the examination of a man who has recently come back from Africa
schistosomiasis is diagnosed. How could the pathogenic organism penetrate into the
organism of the patient?
While swimming in the river.
While eating pork.
While eating fish.
Through dirty hands.
In case of mosquitos' bites.
3.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
4.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
5.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
98
6.
A helminth 10 m long was found in the feces of a patient after drug treatment. The
helminth's body consists segments, has a little head with suckers. Which helminth did the
patient have?
A. Taenia saginata.
B. Taenia solium.
C. Hymenolepis nana.
D. Ehinococcus granulosus.
E. Diphyllobothrium latum
7.
A male patient has fever and enanthesis. As a result of the examination involving
serological tests he has been diagnosed with fasciola hepatica. It was found out that the
patient had been infected through raw river water. Which stage of fasciola life cycle is
invasive for humans?
1.
Adolescaria
2.
Miracidium
3.
Ovum
4.
Cysticercus
5.
Metacercaria
8.
A patient has severe indigestion. Ripe and immovable segments of a tapeworm are found
in his feces; the uterus of each of them has 7—12 lateral branches. Which helminth does
the patient have?
A. Taenia solium.
B. Diphyllobothrium latum.
C. Taenia saginata.
D. Hymenolepis nana.
E. Echinococcus granulosus.
9.
The guide of the scientific expedition in India was native who always was with his dog.
What invasive diseases can be transmitted by the dog if it is the source of invasion?
A Echinococcosis
B Fascioliasis
C Teniasis
D Dicroceliasis
E
Paragonimiasis
10.
A female patient consulted a physician about digestive disorder, extended abdominal
pain. Examination revealed drastic decrease in haemoglobin concentration. It is known
from the anamnesis that while living in the Far East the patient used to eat freshly-salted
caviar. Some relatives living with her had the similar condition. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
1.
Diphyllobothriasis
2.
Echinococcosis
3.
Teniasis
4.
Trichiniasis
5.
Ascaridiasis
11.
During regular examination of schoolchildren it was revealed that a 10 year old girl had
asymmetric oval eggs with a larva in the scrape from her perianal folds. What diagnosis
should be made?
A.
Enterobiasis
B.
Ascariasis
C.
Amebiasis
D.
Trichocephalosis
E.
Ankylostomiasis
99
12.
A patient came to a doctor complaining of general weakness and indigestion. He brought
segments of a tape worm found on his bedclothes. Which of the helminths did the patient
have?
a)
Taenia saginata.
b)
Hymenolepis nana.
c)
Taenia solium.
d)
Diphyllobothrium latum.
e)
Echinococcus granulosus.
13.
What type of host for Himenolepis nana human is?
a)
Both definitive and intermediate
b)
Definitive
c)
Intermediate
d)
Reservoir
e)
First
14.
Which forms of Strongiloides are infective for human being? Among answers choose
most qualified one:
A. Filarieform larva in the environment
B. Rhabditiform larva
C. Adult worm
D. Cysts
E.
Eggs
15.
During the operation white helminths 40 mm long with a thin filiform anterior part of the
body were found in the appendix. After the preliminarily examination of the patient's feces ovalshaped eggs with two prominent plugs on the poles were found. What helminth was found during
the operation?
A.
Trichocephalus trichiurus.
B.
Ancylostoma duodenale.
C.
Enterobius vermicularis.
D.
Ascaris lumbricoides.
E.
Strongyloides stercoralis.
16. What vectors are responsible for the lymphatic filariasis?
A.
Mosquitoes
B.
Blackflies
C.
Deerflies
D.
Ticks
E.
Midges
17.
It is well known that some of the helminths at the larval stage parasitize in the muscles of
fish. What helminthosis may a person get if he eats raw fish?
1. Diphyllobothriasis.
2. Ascariasis.
3. Taeniasis.
4. Enterobiasis.
5. Trichinosis.
18.
A worker of a live-stock farm was made a provisional diagnosis of echinococcosis. The
diagnosis was confirmed during a surgery. From what animal could the patient get the disease?
A.
A dog.
B.
A sheep.
C.
A pig.
D.
A rabbit.
E.
A cow
10
0
19.
A patient complains of pain in the area of his liver. Duodenal intubation revealed
yellowish, oval, narrowed at the poles eggs with an operculum at the end. Size of these eggs is
the smallest among all helminth eggs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
a)
Opisthorchiasis
b)
Beef tapeworm infection
c)
Diphyllobothriasis
d)
Echinococcosis
e)
Teniasis
20.
Larvae of roundworms (Nematoda) have been found in the sputum of a patient with the
provisional diagnosis of pneumonia. What species of the roundworm is this?
a)
Ascaris lumbricoides.
b)
Fasciola hepatica.
c)
Paragonimus ringeri.
d)
Taenia solium.
e)
Echinococcus granulosus.
Вопросы для контроля рубежного уровня знаний.
2. Principles and contents basic macrо- and microhelmintological methods of research
faeces, water, ground etc.
3. Feature of structure eggs of flukes, cestodes and nematodes - parasites of the man.
4. The doctrine of К.I. Skrjabin about devastation and decontamination of an environment
from eggs and larva’s of helminthes.
5. Trichinella spiralis. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and
control.
6. Dracunculus medinensis. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention
and control.
7. Wuchereria bancrofti. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and
control.
8. Loa Loa. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
9. Ancylostoma duodenale. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathoge-nicity. Diagnosis. Prevention
and control.
10. Necator americanus. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and
control.
11. Strongyloides stercoralis. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathoge-nicity. Diagnosis. Prevention
and control.
12. Classification of Class NEMATODA and its division on species.
13. General morphological characteristic of class NEMATODA.
14. Ascaris Lumbricoides. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and
control.
15. Trichocephalus trichiurus. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention
and control.
16. Enterobius vermicularis. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention
and control
17. Characterization of Class CESTOIDEA and its division on species.
18. General morphological characteristic of class CESTOIDEA.
19. Diphyllobothrium latum. Echinococcus granulosus. Alveococcus multilocularis.
Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
20. Characterization of class Cestodes and its division on species.
21. General morphological characteristic of class Cestodes.
10
1
22. Taenia saginata. Taenia solium, Hymenolepis nana: Desease, Geographcal distribution,
Morfology, Organs of parasitism, Life cycle, Pathogenicity, Diagnosis, Prevention and
control of deceases.
23. Characterization of class Trematoda and its division on species.
24. General morphological characteristic Trematodes of the blood.
25. Paragonimus westermani, Schistosoma haematobium, Schistosoma mansoni,
Schistosoma japonicum: Desease, Geographcal distribution, Morfology, Organs of
parasitism, Pathogenicity, Diagnosis. Prevention and control of desease.
26. Taxonomy of the important human parasitic helmints.
27. General morphology of class Trematoda.
28. Fasciola hepatica. Opisthorchis felineus. Dicrocoelium dendriticum. Heterophyes
heterophyes. Morphology. Life cycle. Pathogenicity. Diagnosis. Prevention and control.
3. Перечень фото микропрепаратов
1. Fasciola hepatica
2. Dicrocolium dendriticum
3. Opistorchis fellineus
4. Dyphylobotrium latum gravid segment
5. Hymenolepis nana
6. Enterobius male
7. Enterobius female
8. transverse section ofascaris
9. Egg of ascaris
10. Eggs of Dyphylobotrium latum
11. Eggs of Trichuris trichura
12.Different eggs of helminthes
Занятие № 36.
Тема: Phylum ARTHROPODA. Class ARACHNOIDEA carriers and agents of illness of
the human being. Ticks Acarina. Sarcoptes scabiei. Morphology.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1.
Living in the recreation department at the sea students found after they woke up in the
morning some tick on the body of their friend. Can you suppose which arthropod it was?
1. Argasidae tick
2. Ixodidae tick
3. Demodex folliculorum
4. Demodex brevis
5. Sarcoptes scabiei
6. Pediculosis pubis
2. Patient with brain envelops inflammation was delivered to the hospital located in field-forest
zone. It was known this patient like hunting and sometimes eliminate from his body some ticks.
Can you suppose which arthropods have carried disease to this patient?
A.
Ixodidae tick
B.
Argasidae tick
C.
Demodex folliculorum
D.
Demodex brevis
E.
Sarcoptes scabiei
10
2
3. Single lady came to the doctor with her dog complaining of itching, inflammation of facial
skin, ruseola. After skin microscopic examination elongated mites without legs and eyes were
revealed in lady skin. What disease may be diagnosed in this case?
A.
Demodicosis
B.
Ichtiosis
C.
Scabies
D.
Pediculosis capitis
E.
Pediculosis pubis
4. А patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of ulcers which appeared on his face and neck
skin surface. After the laboratory examil1ation of the ulcers mobile parasitic arachnids were
foul1d. What animal infected the patient?
A.
Follicle mite.
B.
Itch mite.
C.
Human flеа.
D.
Bedbug.
E.
Wohlfahrtia fly.
5. A patient came to a doctor with complaints of itchy skin especially between the fingers and at
the bottom of his abdomen. Sinuous passages with disseminations on their ends were found on
the patient's skin. What disease did these symptoms point out?
1.
Scabies.
2.
Pediculosis.
3.
Toxoplasmosis.
4.
Malaria.
5.
Myiasis
6. After the examination a patient was diagnosed with tickborne relapsing fever. How was he
infected?
A. By means of a soft tick's bite.
B. By means of an itch mite's bite.
C. By means of a hard tick's bite.
D. By means of a housefly mite's bite.
E. By means of a dog tick's bite.
7. A patient came to a doctor complaining of itching between the fingers and on the abdomen,
which intensified at night. After the examination of his skin rash and thin grey stripes were
found. What pathogenic organism could produce such symptoms?
1.Sarcoptes scabiei.
2.Ixodes ricinus.
3.Ornithodoros papillipes.
4.Dermacentor pictus.
5.Ixodes persulcatus.
8. A 40-year-old man who in a pisewalled house came to a laboratory. He found dark-grey
arthropods with a long oval body and a somewhat pointed front end in the wall chink. The mouth
apparatus of the arthropod were placed in the notch of the abdomen surface. The arthropod had 4
pairs of ambulatory legs, the sexual opening was placed at the level of the first pair of legs. What
arthropod is it?
1.
Ornithodoros papillipes.
2.
Ixodes ricinus.
3.
Ixodes persulcatus.
4.
Sarcoptes scabiei.
5.
Dermacentor nuttalli
9. After the examination а patient was diagnosed with Russian spring-summer encephalitis. How
was the patient infected?
A.
By mеаns of а hard tick's bite.
10
3
B.
By means of аn itch mite's bite.
C.
By means of а malaria mosquito's bite
D.
By means of а soft tick's bite.
E.
By means of а sand fly's bite.
10. What amimals can transmit demodicosis to humans?
1.
Dogs
2.
Anopheles mosquito
3.
Glossina palpalis
4.
Black fly
5.
Musca domestica
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. Patient with itched rash between fingers and on abdomen came to the doctor. After
microscopic examination of his rash small roundish haired arthropods without eyes were found.
What disease may be diagnosed?
A.
Scabies
B.
Ichtiosis
C.
Demodicosis
D.
Pediculosis capitis
E.
Pediculosis pubis
2. A patient has acne on his face. Microspcopic examination of scrapings from the affected areas
revealed living porrect vermiform arthropoda 0,2-0,5 mm large with four pairs of short
extremities in the front part of their bodies. What is the laboratory diagnosis?
A.
Demodecosis
B.
Scabies
C.
Myiasis
D.
Pediculosis
E.
Phthiriasis
3. A boy found a spider with the following morphological characteristics: it is 2 cm long, has
roundish black abdomen with two rows of red spots on its dorsal side; four pairs of jointed limbs
are covered with small black hairs. What arthropod is it?
A.
Karakurt spider
B.
Scorpion
C.
Solpuga
D.
Mite
E.
Tarantula
4. Patient with itched rash between fingers and on abdomen came to the doctor. After
microscopic examination of his rash small roundish haired arthropods without eyes were found.
What disease may be diagnosed?
A.
Scabies
B.
Ichtiosis
C.
Demodicosis
D.
Pediculosis capitis.
E.
Wohlfahrtia fly.
5. А patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of ulcers which appeared on his face and neck
skin surface. After the laboratory examil1ation of the ulcers immobile parasitic arachnids were
found. What animal infected the patient?
A.
Follicle mite.
B.
Itch mite.
C.
Human flеа.
D.
Bedbug.
10
4
E.
Wohlfahrtia fly.
6. A patient came to a doctor with complaints of itchy skin especially between the fingers and at
the bottom of his abdomen. Sinuous passages with disseminations on their ends were found on
the patient's skin. What disease did these symptoms point out?
A.
Scabies.
B.
Pediculosis.
C.
Toxoplasmosis.
D.
Malaria.
E.
Myiasis
7. A patient came to a doctor complaining of itching between the fingers and on the abdomen,
which intensified at night. After the examination of his skin rash and thin grey stripes were
found. What pathogenic organism could produce such symptoms?
1.
Sarcoptes scabiei.
2.
Ixodes ricinus.
3.
Ornithodoros papillipes.
4.
Dermacentor pictus.
5.
Ixodes persulcatus.
8. A 40-year-old man who in a pisewalled house came to a laboratory. He found dark-grey
arthropods with a long oval body and a somewhat pointed front end in the wall chink. The mouth
apparatus of the arthropod were placed in the notch of the abdomen surface. The arthropod had 4
pairs of ambulatory legs, the sexual opening was placed at the level of the first pair of legs. What
arthropod is it?
A.
Ornithodoros papillipes.
B.
Ixodes ricinus.
C.
Ixodes persulcatus.
D.
Sarcoptes scabiei.
E.
Dermacentor nuttalli
Занятие № 37.
Тема: Class INSECTA - carriers and agents of illness of the human being. Pediculus
humanus (Lice). Siphonaptera (Fleas). Hemiptera (Bugs).
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
 A child complained of itching in the occipital and temporal parts of the head. After the
examination of his head surface ulcers on the head skin and white nits on the hair were
found. What arthropod was parasitizing on the child's head?
a) Body louse.
b) Wohlfahrtia fly.
c) Human flea.
d) Head louse.
e) Crab louse.
 А patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of rashes which appeared on his body and
legs skin surface. After their flat’ sanitary-hygienic control black roundish insects about 8
mm long were revealed which feeds on patient’ blood and cause rashes. What animal
infected the patient?
A. Bedbug.
B. Follicle mite.
C. Itch mite.
D. Human flеа.
E. Wohlfahrtia fly.
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 Grey insects measuring 1 — 1.2 mm with a short wide body covered with setae were
observed on the pubis of some boys during the medical check up. What insects were these?
A. Phthirus pubis.
B. Sarcoptes scabiei.
C. Pulex irritans.
D. Pediculus humanus capitis.
E. Cimex lectularius.
 Grey arthropods measuring 3 mm in length with three pairs of legs were found on a
patient's head. The arthropods had deep incisures on each side of the body. What arthropods
did the patient have?
A. Pediculus humanus capitis.
B. Sarcoptes scabiei.
C. Pulex irritans.
D. Cimex lectularius.
E. Phthirus pubis.
 A child complained of itching in the occipital and temporal parts of the head. After the
examination of his head surface ulcers on the head skin and white nits on the hair were
found. What arthropod was parasitizing on the child's head?
A. Body louse.
B. Wohlfahrtia fly.
C. Human flea.
D. Head louse.
E. Crab louse.
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
 А patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of rashes which appeared on his body and
legs skin surface. After their flat’ sanitary-hygienic control black roundish insects about 8
mm long were revealed which feeds on patient’ blood and cause rashes. What animal
infected the patient?
A.
Bedbug.
B.
Follicle mite.
C.
Itch mite.
D.
Human flеа.
E.
Wohlfahrtia fly.
 Grey insects measuring 1 —1.2 mm with a short wide body covered with setae were
observed on the pubis of some boys during the medical check up. What insects were these?
A.
Phthirus pubis.
B.
Sarcoptes scabiei.
C.
Pulex irritans.
D.
Pediculus humanus capitis.
E.
Cimex lectularius.
 Grey arthropods measuring 3 mm in length with three pairs of legs were found on a
patient's head. The arthropods had deep incisures on each side of the body. What arthropods
did the patient have?
A. Pediculus humanus capitis.
B. Sarcoptes scabiei.
C. Pulex irritans.
D. Cimex lectularius.
E. Phthirus pubis.
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 A patient with suspicion on epidemic typhus was admitted to the hospital. Some arachnids
and insects have been found in his flat. Which of them may be a carrier of the pathogen of
epidemic typhus?
A. Lice
B. Spiders
C. Houseflies
D. Bed-bugs
E. Cockroaches
Занятие № 38.
Тема: Class INSECTA. Hemiptera - carriers and agents of illness of the human being.
Culicidae (Mosquitoes). Phlebotomus (Sandfly). Musca domestica (House fly). Myiasis.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1.
A man lives in the area of dermal leishmaniasis distribution. He hasn't been inoculated
against this disease because of his having contraindication against it. What insects' bites should
this man avoid?
A.
Sandflies.
B.
Mosquitoes.
C.
Fleas.
D.
Gadflies.
E.
Stable flies.
2. Old patient came to а dеrmаtоlоgist complaining of subcutaneous furunculoid and boil-like
lesions. In these lesions white undeveloped creatures were found. What animal infected the
patient?
1. Wohlfahrtia fly.
2. Follicle mite.
3. Itch mite.
4. Human flеа.
5. Bedbug.
3. Global heating leads to increasing of tropical animals’ areas. Which of them are now present
in the temperate zone?
A. Latrodectus mactans tredecimguttatus
B. Simulium fly
C. Glossina fly
D. Lycosa tarantula
E. Dracunculus medinensis
4. A doctor revealed tissues injury on patient's scalp with localized suppurations and diagnosed
his disease as myiasis. This infestation is caused by larvae of the following insect:
F. Wohlfahrt fly
G. Kissing bug
H. Stable fly (Stomoxys calcitrans)
I. Malarial mosquito
J. Mosquito
5. What diseases are transmitted to humans by Anopheles mosquito?
A. Malaria
B. Trench fever
C. Dirofilariosis
D. Lymphatic filariasis
E. Subcutaneous filariasis
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6. During the examination of a patient with bleeding wounds the doctor found out that the tissue
was damaged by maggots, there were local maturations. The diagnosis was obligate myiasis. The
maggots of what insect caused the disease?
1. Blow fly (Musca Volfarti)
2. Stable fly
3. Filth (house) fly
4. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
5. Sandfly
7. According to the data of WHO, for about 250 mln of Earth population fall ill with malaria.
This disease is mostly spread in tropical and subtropical regions. Range of its spread falls into
the areal of the following mosquitoes:
A. Anopheles
B. Aedes
C. Mansonia
D. Culex
E. Culiseta
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. During the examination of a patient with bleeding wounds the doctor found out that the tissue
was damaged by maggots, there were local maturations. The diagnosis was obligate myiasis. The
maggots of what insect caused the disease?
A. Filth (house) fly
B. Tsetse fly (Glossina)
C. Stable fly
D.
Blow fly (Musca Wohlfarti)
Занятие № 39.
Тема: Synthetic theory of evolution. Population structure of humanity.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний (тесты с ответами).
1. Labor activity, speech thought playing a large role in development of man ancestors are
attributed to the following factors of evolution:
A. social
B. biological
C. anthropogenic
D. biotic
E. a + b + c
2. Main directions of evolution are following:
1.
biological progress and biological regress
2.
aromorphosis and biological progress
3.
idioadaptation and biological progress
4.
aromorphosis
5.
idioadaptation
3. Name exact changes of genotype are forming reserve for inherited variation:
A.
recessive mutations
B.
dominant mutations
C.
combinations of alleles of different genes
D.
combinations of non-allelic genes
E.
b+c
4. The independent development of similar signs at the different groups of organisms, caused
by adaptation to the similar environmental factors is named:
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8
A.
allogenesis
B.
convergence
C.
coevolution
D.
drift of genes
E.
idioadaptation
5. A half of a human pregnancies do not finished of a childbirth. It can be example of
following selection type:
A.
antihunt
B.
motive
C.
disruptive (developing)
D.
sexual
E.
artificial
6. Group of individuals of the same specie which inhabit some territory within which these
individuals are breeding freely and are relatively isolated from other members of the same
specie is termed as:
A.
population
B.
genus
C.
Sort
D.
Kind
E.
b+c
7. Group of people was historically created in some geographical conditions and has similarity
in morphological signs is named:
A. race
B. nation
C. nationality
D. population
E. isolate
8. Macroevolution is a process:
A.
resulting in formation of large systematic groups
B.
of transformations above specie
C.
of evolutional transformations inside a specie
D.
a+b
E.
a+c
9. The first human of modern type is:
A.
Cro-Magnon
B.
Neanderthal
C.
Synanthropus
D.
Pithecanthropus
E.
Australopithecus
10. Leading role in human evolutions belongs to:
A.
Social factors and biological laws
B.
Only social factors
C.
Only biological factors
D.
Motive form of natural selection
E.
Mutational process and migration
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. Population waves lead to:
a)
Changes of genes frequencies and genotypes in population
b)
Migrations of individuals from one population to another
c)
Weakening of natural selection
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9
d)
Stabilizing of genes frequencies and genotypes in population
e)
Deceleration of evolutional process
2. Displaying in individuals some traits are peculiar to ancestors is termed as:
a)
atavisms
b)
Analogies
c)
Homologies
d)
Rudimentary organs
e)
phylembryogenesis
3 Complex of evolutional processes passing in the population is termed as:
A.
Microevolution
B.
Macroevolution
C.
Creation of species
D.
Idioadaptation
E.
Mimicry
4. The first integral conception of biological evolution was offered by:
A.
J. B. Lamarck
B.
Ch. Darwin
C.
K. Linnaeus
D.
À. Walles
E.
Ch. Darwin, À. Walles
5. Biological evolution is based on:
a)
Natural selection
b)
Modification variation
c)
Internal aspiration to perfection
d)
Exercise of organs
e)
Ontogenetic variation
6. Process in which individuals with useful for this time traits survive and leave offspring is
named:
1.
Natural selection
2.
Population waves
3.
Macroevolution
4.
Gradation
5.
Coevolution
7. Genetic structure of human populations is determined:
a)
b+c
b)
By a birth-rate
c)
By the system of marriages
d)
By factors changing of genes frequencies
e)
a+c
8. In isolates and demes frequency of consanguineous marriages is:
1.
80-90%
2.40-50%
3.60-70%
4.15-25%
5.10-20%
9. The spontaneous mutations can be caused:
A.
b+c
B.
By degeneracy of the genetic code
C.
By the errors of replication
D.
By influence of physical or chemical factors
E.
a+b
10. A microevolution causes changes of:
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0
A. Species
B. Families
C. Genera
D. Orders
E. Classes
11. Social nature of man is expressed in:
A. creation of the written language
B. forming of five fingered extremities
C. presence of cerebral cortex
D. formation of pavlovian reflexes
E.
c+d
12. A malaria plasmodium (haemamoeba) - the pathogene of vivax malaria - has two strains:
southern and northern. They differ by the duration of their incubation period: the southern has
short and the northern - long one. What selection works in this case?
A. Cutting
B. Stabilizing
C. Artificial
D. Moving
Занятие № 40.
Тема: Phylogenies basic systems of organs of phylum Chordata.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний
1.
What animals have left arch of aorta only?
A.
Mammals
B.
Fishes
C.
Amphibians
D.
Reptiles
E.
Birds
2. How do male sex glands named?
A.
Testes
B.
Ovaries
C.
Malpighi’s duct
D.
Muller’s duct
E.
Yellow body
3. What pair of branchial arches did carotid artery appear from?
A.
Third
B.
Second
C.
Fourth
D.
Fifth
E.
Sixth
4. What pair of branchial arches did pulmonary arteries appear from?
A.
sixth
B.
second
C.
third
D.
fourth
E.
fifth
5. Sebaceous glands were firstly appeared in the members of following class:
A. mammals
B. fishes
C. reptiles
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1
D. amphibians
E. birds
6. Lungs’ of terrestrial mammals are analogous for:
A.
air-bladder of ancient fishes
B.
branchial petals of fishes
C.
branchial arches of fishes
D.
skin of fishess
E.
a+b
7. Salivary glands appear at first in:
a)
amphibians
b)
fishes
c)
reptiles
d)
birds
e)
mammals
8. Congenital malformation, at which testes remains in an abdominal cavity is:
A.
cryptorchidism
B.
epididymis
C.
hypospadia
D.
aplasia of testicle
E.
eunuchoidism
9. Three channels of internal ear at first appear in:
1. fishes
2. amphibians
3. reptiles
4. birds
5. mammals
10. On autopsy of a still-born infant it is revealed heart development abnormalities: ventricles are
not separated, originates from the right part single arterial trunk. For what class of vertebrate is
such heart construction characteristic?
A. Amphibian
B. Birds
C. Reptiles
D. Mammals
E. Fishes
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. Skin participates in the exchange of matters between an organism and environment in:
A.
man
B.
fishes
C.
tortoises
D.
snakes
E.
c+d
2. What part of vertebra is absent in amphibians:
A.
thoracal
B.
Neck
C.
Sacrum
D.
Tail
E.
Truncal
3. Which vertebrates have heterodont dental system:
A.
Mammals
B.
Fishes
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2
C.
Amphibians
D.
a+b
E.
a+c
4. How many gill arches does reptilian embryo have?
A.
6
B.
10
C.
7
D.
5
E.
4
5. Human kidneys are located at the lumbar region and the common amount of nephrones is:
A.
Approximately 2 millions
B.
Approximately 200
C.
Approximately 2000
D.
Approximately 20 thousands
E.
Approximately 200 thousands
6. How many gill arches does human embryo have?
A.
6
B.
10
C.
8
D.
12
E.
7
7. Organ(s) is(are) not participate in metabolites’ secretion is (are) following:
A.
Sebaceous glands
B.
Kidneys
C.
Skin
D.
Lungs
E.
Intestine
8. A biogenetic Law was formulated by:
A.
Haeckel and F. Muller
B.
М. Shleiden and T. Schwann
C.
Mendel and T. Morgan
D.
Oparin and J. Holdein
E.
N.I. Vavilov and N.I. Dubinin
9. How many vessels go out from the heart of fish?
A.
1
B.
2
C.
3
D.
4
E.
5
10. Quantity of pair of spinal nerves in fishes and amphibians is following:
1. 10
2. 31
3. 25
4. 34
5. 12
11 Essence of biogenetic law is following:
A. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny shortly
B. Embryos of one-type-individuals are resembling
C. Monotony of the first filial generation
D. Phylogenetically related genera and species have variations of the inherited
changeability
E.
Independent combining of signs
11
3
12. What pair of arterial arches of embryo gives raise the left arch of aorta?
A.
IV-th
B.
I-st
C.
II-nd
D.
III-rd
E.
V-th
F.
VI-th
13. A main ductless gland is:
A. Hypophysis
B. Thyroid
C. Sexual glands
D. Adrenal glands
E.
Epiphysis
14. What structure precedes true teeth?
A.
Placoid scale
B.
Bone scale of fish
C.
Cuticle
D.
Chitin cuticle
E.
Hanoid scale
15. Hormone of epinephros is:
A.
Adrenalin
B.
Insulin
C.
Growth hormone
D.
Adrenocortoctropic
E.
-Aldosteron
16. What germ layers are responsible for breathing organs of vertebrates’ creation?
A.
Entoderm
B.
Ectoderm
C.
Mesoderm
D.
Ectoderm and mesoderm
E.
Entoderm and mesoderm
17. Thyroxin is a hormone of:
A.
Thyroid gland
B.
Hypophysis
C.
Parathyroids
D.
Sexual glands
E.
Epinephros
18. What animals did a diaphragm appear at first?
A.
Mammals
B.
Fishes
C.
Amphibians
D.
Reptiles
E.
Birds
19. Indicate the brain part where higher integrative center of nervous activity of fishes is located:
A.
Middle
B.
Front
C.
Intermediate
D.
Cerebellum
E.
Medulla
20. In what animals two vascular circles did appear at first?
A.
Amphibians
B.
Worms
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4
C.
Fishes
D.
Birds
E.
Reptiles
21 Amnion provides for the embryo:
1.a + b
2.Water environment for its development
3.Protection
4.Oxygen
5.b + c
22. Vertebrates which have the three-chambered heart, naked skin which produce mucilage,
belong to the class:
A.
Amphibious
B.
Fishes
C.
Mammals
D.
Reptiles
E.
Birds
Занятие № 41.
Тема: Humans in the environment (Human ecology). Biosphere and man.
Контроль исходного уровня знаний
1. The integral study of biosphere developed is developed by:
1.V.I. Vernadsky
2.K. Linnaeus
3.E. Zoos
4.Zh. B. Lamarck
5.Ch. Darwin
2. Any component of environment, influencing of geobiocenosis’ members, is:
A. abiotic factor
B. biotic factor
C. ecological factor
D. anthropogenic factor
E. demographic factor
3. Ecological system is integration of:
A.
Living beings populations
B.
Animal and plant species
C.
Organisms and their abiotic environment
D.
Organisms of the one specie
E.
Plants
4. Ecosystem can not exist without:
1.
rotation of matters
2.
putting of fertilizers
3.
eliminations of wreckers
4.
interventions of a human being
5.
genes drift
5. The adaptive types of people shows:
A.
norm of biological adaptive reactions for the prevailing conditions of
existence
B.
national features of people
C.
ethnic belonging of people
D.
racial features of people
11
5
E.
economic-cultural features of some people group
6. The main reason of global ecological crisis development is:
A.
low ecological culture of man and his aspiration to dominate above nature
B.
unfavorable climatic changes on a planet under influencing of spaces forces
C.
technical progress and exhaustion of natural resources
D.
disafforestation
E.
speed-up disappearance of flora and fauna
7. Stabile complex of animals, plants, fungi and microorganisms are living in the homogeneous
area of land or water reservoir is termed as:
1)
biocenosis
2)
biosphere
3)
troposphere
4)
geobiocenosis
5)
biotope
8. Symbiotic relations in which the presence of each of two members becomes obligatory for
other partner is named:
A.
mutualism
B.
commensalism
C.
protocooperation
D.
neutralism
E.
synoiky
9. Science studying the complex questions of human and mankind co-operation with a difficult
multicomponent world changing constantly is named:
A.
human ecology
B.
anthropology
C.
general ecology
D.
valeology
E.
human physiology
10. Complex of natural conditions and public creations in which human lives as natural and
public creature is named:
A.
human environment
B.
biocenosis
C.
geobiocenosis
D.
social environment
E.
labour environment
Контроль конечного уровня знаний
1. Factors limiting life in a hydrosphere are following:
F.
absence of light, high pressure
G. deficit of oxygen, high temperature
H. low temperature, radiations
I.
low temperature
J.
c+d
2. On what atmosphere maxheight spores of fungi and bacteria were determined?
A.
22 km
B.
12 km
C.
16 km
D.
28 km
E.
35 km
3. What is the integrated criterion of human living environment’ quality?
A. Health of population’ condition
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6
B. Acceleration
C. Terms of puberty
D. Terms of climax
E.
a+d
4. A hotbed effect is related to accumulation in the Earth atmosphere of:
A.
carbon dioxide
B.
nitrogen
C.
oxygen
D.
rare gases
E.
ammonia
5. Ecology is the Science studying:
A. Relations among the living beings and their environment
B. Animals, plants and environment of their existence
C. Relations among living beings
D. Relations among the plants and mushrooms
E. Phenomena of parasitism, commensalism and predation
6. Term “ecology” is offered by:
1.
Haeckel
2.
Aristotelian
3.
Ch. Darwin
4.
V.I. Vernadsky
5.
I.I. Mechnikov
7. The new biosphere state, when reasonable human activity becomes the main (determining)
factor of its development, is named:
A.
Noosphere
B.
Technosphere
C.
Anthroposhere
D.
Socioshere
E.
Biogeocenosis
8. Abiotic factors are following:
A.
Light, temperature, humidity
B.
Plants
C.
Animals
D.
Mushrooms, microorganisms, viruses
E.
Factors of human labor activity
9. Anthropogenic factors are:
A. Factors of human labor activity
B. Light and temperature
C. Plants and mushrooms
D. Protista and fungi
E. Humidity and barometric pressure
10. The state of anabiosis is characterized by:
A.
Mobility of animals
B.
Increasing of feed
C.
All physiological functions intensification
D.
The almost complete freezing of vital processes
E.
Forming of adaptations to the unfavorable environmental conditions
11. Beneficial symbiosis for all its members is:
a) Mutualism
b) Antibios
c) Synocy
d) Commensalism
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7
e) Parasitism
Занятие № 42.
Тема: Submodule: «Medical ecology and evolution»
1. Essence of biogenetic law is following:
A.
Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny shortly
B.
Embryos of one-type-individuals are resembling
C.
Monotony of the first filial generation
D.
Phylogenetically related genera and species have variations of the inherited
changeability
E.
Independent combining of signs
2. Small people populations the quantity of which does not exceed 1500 – 4000 individuals are
named:
A.
Demes
B.
Isolates
C.
Ideal population
D.
Opened population
E.
Closed population
3. What animals have left arch of aorta only?
A.
Mammals
B.
Fishes
C.
Amphibians
D.
Reptiles
E.
Birds
4. The integral study of biosphere developed is developed by:
1.V.I. Vernadsky
2.K. Linnaeus
3.E. Zoos
4.Zh. B. Lamarck
5.Ch. Darwin
5. Process of nature historical development by mean of transition of one living beings to others is
named:
A.
Artificial selection
B.
Waves of life
C.
Natural selection
D.
Evolution
E.
Struggle for existence
6. How many gill arches does reptilian embryo have?
A.
6
B.
10
C.
7
D.
5
E.
4
7. The new biosphere state, when reasonable human activity becomes the main (determining)
factor of its development, is named:
A.
Noosphere
B.
Technosphere
C.
Anthroposhere
D.
Socioshere
E.
Biogeocenosis
8. Elementary evolutional material is:
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8
A.
Mutations
B.
Modifications
C.
Population
D.
Organisms
E.
Struggle for existence
9. Abiotic factors are following:
A.
Light, temperature, humidity
B.
Plants
C.
Animals
D.
Mushrooms, microorganisms, viruses
E.
Factors of human labor activity
10. Anthropogenic factors are:
A.
Factors of human labor activity
B.
Light and temperature
C.
Plants and mushrooms
D.
Protista and fungi
E.
Humidity and barometric pressure
11. Anthropogenesis is a process of:
A.
Evolutionary-historical formation of human specie
B.
Embryonic development of man
C.
Individual development of man
D.
Post-embryonic development of man
E.
Actions of anthropogenic factors
12. What germ layers are responsible for breathing organs of vertebrates’ creation?
1. Entoderm
2. Ectoderm
3. Mesoderm
4. Ectoderm and mesoderm
5. Entoderm and mesoderm
13. In what animals two vascular circles did appear at first?
A.
Amphibians
B.
Worms
C.
Fishes
D.
Birds
E.
Reptiles
14. Ecological system is integration of:
A.
Living beings populations
B.
Animal and plant species
C.
Organisms and their abiotic environment
D.
Organisms of the one specie
E.
Plants
15. Most ancient people are following:
A.
Pithecanthropus, Synanthrope
B.
Neanderthal men, Australopithecus
C.
Australopithecus, Cro-Magnon
D.
Pithecanthropes, Neoanthropes
E.
Driopithecus, Synanthropes
16. Ideal population is characterized by following features:
A.
Absence of evolution
B.
High evolution speed
C.
Slow evolution speed
D.
Pressure of mutagenesis
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9
E.
Rendering of harmless mutations by translation them into heterozygotic state
Вопросы для контроля рубежного уровня знаний.
1. Community ecology. Environment as ecological concept. Types of environment. The
factors of environment.
2. Types of ecosystems. Formation of antropocenosis. Anthropogenous migration of
elements.
3. Human ecology. Healthy (comfortable), unhealthy (discomfortable) and extreme
environment. Adequate and inadequate conditions of environment. Acclimatization of the
people to extreme conditions.
4. Structure and functions of biosphere. Organization of biosphere (doctrine of V.I.
Vernadsky). The modern concepts of biosphere. Noosphere.
5. Human being as an active geological force. Influence of the anthropogenesis factors of
pollution of an environment on health of the population. Protection of biosphere in the
national and international scientific programs.
6. Evolution of the basic systems of the bodies of vertebrates.
7. Lancelet (Branchiostoma, Amphioxus)
8. Comparative morphology of endoskeleton
9. Comparative morphology of the skin.
10. Comparative morphology of the respiratory system
11. Comparative morphology of the circulatory system
12. Ontophylogenetic the caused inherent disadvantages of development of the man.
13. The synthetic theory of evolution.
14. Features of action of the evolutionary factors in populations of the people.
15. The doctrine about mаcro- and microevolution. The biogenetic law
16. Population structure of mankind
17. Parentage of the man. Human races as reflection adaptative of laws of development of the
man.
12
0
Критерии оценки знаний студентов на практическом занятии
по дисциплине «Биология»:
№
п/п
1
Оценка
Критерии оценки
«Отлично»
Оценка “отлично” выставляется студентам, проявившим творческие способности в понимании,
изложении
и использовании учебно-програмного
материала.
2
«Хорошо»
Оценку “хорошо” заслуживает
руживший
материала,
полное
знание
студент,
обна-
учебно-програмного
успешно
выполняющий
предусмотренные в программе задания, усвоивший
основную
литературу,
рекомендованную
в
программе.
3
«Удовлетворительно»
Оценка “удовлетворительно“ выставляется студентам, допустившим погрешности в ответе и
при выполнении практических заданий, но
облада-ющим необходимыми знаниями для их
устранения под руководством преподавателя.
4
«Неудовлетворительно»
Оценка “неудовлетворительно” выставляется студенту, обнаружившему пробелы в знаниях основного учебно-программного материала, допустившему принципиальные ошибки в выполнении предусмотренных программой заданий.
12
1