Biosafety in Microbiological and Biomedical Laboratories. 4th ed. JY Richmond,
RW McKinney, eds. 1999. Health and Human Services Dept, Public Health Service,
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, National Institute of Health. ISBN:
0788185136.
Text can be downloaded from the following website:
http://www.cdc.gov/od/ohs/biosfty/bmbl4/bmbl4toc.htm
For purchase, Government Printing Office, Stock #: 017-040-00547-4.
Phone: 1-866-512-1800
www.gpo.gov
Section VII – Agent Summary Statements (p. 88) and Section VIIA – Bacterial
Agents (pp. 88-117)
QUESTIONS
1. T or F: There have been no case reports of laboratory-associated
anthrax in the U.S. since the late 1950s
2. What Biosafety level is required for the following situations involving
Anthrax (Bacillus anthracis):
a) diagnostic quantities of infectious cultures
b) experimentally infected rodents
c) production quantities, concentrated cultures, activities that might
produce aerosols
3. In what cases is the anthrax vaccine recommended?
4. What is the causative agent of whooping cough?
5. B. pertussis is found in the following:
a) blood
b) tissues
c) sputum
d) urine
e) feces
6. T or F: All work with B. pertussis must be done in a BL-3 facility
7. T or F: Brucella is the most commonly reported laboratory associated
bacterial infection
8. Name 4 species of Brucella
9. T or F: All work with animals experimentally infected with Brucellosis
can be done in ABL-2 facilities
10. T or F: The Brucella vaccine for humans is not currently available in
the U.S.
11. What biosafety level is required when working with Burkholderia
pseudomallei?
12. T or F: BL-3 facilities are required for Campylobacter work
13. Name the causative agent for each of the following:
a) Psitacosis
b) lymphogranuloma venereum
14. T or F: laboratory animals have been reported to cause human infection
with C. trachomatis
15. What practice can reduce the risk of aerosol transmission of C. psittaci
during bird necropsies?
16. Clostridium botulinum organisms and their toxins can be found in which
of the following:
a) food products
b) serum
c) feces
d) soil
e) all of the above
17. T or F: Sodium hypochlorite (0.1%) inactivates C. botulinum toxin.
18. Who does the CDC recommend receive the botulinum toxoid?
19. T or F: Work with Clostridium tetani requires BL-3 facilities
20. What is the recommended interval for vaccination of workers exposed to
C. tetani and Corynebacterium diptheriae?
21. What bacterial agent is responsible for Hemolytic uremic syndrome?
22. What 2 types of food have been associated with E. coli contamination?
23. T or F: Biosafety level 2 (BL-2 and ABL-2) practices are acceptable for
working with enterohemmorrhagic E. coli
24. What is the causative agent of Tularemia?
25. T or F: Special security considerations are required for Tularemia
because of the potential for use in biological terrorism
26. What is the mode of transmission of Helicobacter pylori?
27. H. pylori infection causes what illness in humans?
28. T or F: Animals infected with Leptospira can shed large quantities of
bacteria in the urine for long periods of time
29. Which of the following is NOT true of Listeria monocytogenes:
a) Gram positive
b) aerobic
c) spore forming
d) non-spore forming
e) catalase positive
30. From which of the following has Listeria been isolated:
a) dust
b) soil
c) food
d) asymptomatic humans
e) all of the above
31. What 3 types of food are most commonly associated with Listeria?
32. T or F: Listeria infections in pregnant women occur most commonly in the
second trimester
33. T or F: Human to Human spread of Legionella pneumophila has been
documented.
34. Name the causative agent of leprosy
35. Name 3 species in which naturally occurring leprosy or leprosy-like
diseases have been reported.
36. What biosafety level is required for working with animals infected with
M. leprae?
37. T or F: Bedding from rodents experimentally infected with M.
tuberculosis can be as source of infection in the lab setting.
38. T or F: M. tuberculosis has a high infective dose in humans
39. T or F: Guinea pigs and non human primates infected with M. tuberculosis
or M. bovis can be handled in ABL-2 facilities.
40. What does PPD stand for?
41. Name 2 species of Neisseria bacteria.
42. Neisseria meningitidis can be found in all but which one of the
following:
a) blood
b) feces
c) saliva
d) cerebrospinal fluid
e) pharyngeal exudates
43. T or F. A vaccine is available for N. meningitidis
44. T or F. All species of Salmonella may be handled in BL-2 or ABL-2
facilities
45. T or F. A vaccine is available for S. typhi
46. T or F. Guinea pigs infected with Shigella have not been associated with
human infection
47. T or F. Shigella infected animals must be handled in ABL-3 facilities
48. Name the causative agent of syphilis
49. T or F: Humans are the only known natural reservoir for syphilis
50. Infection with Vibrio cholerae occurs primarily through what route?
51. T or F: Cholera vaccines exist and their use in laboratory personnel is
strongly recommended.
52. Name the causative agent of Plague.
53. What are the primary modes of infection with Plague in the laboratory
setting?
54. BL-3 precautions are required for all but which one of the following
situations involving Yersinia pestis:
a) aerosol production
b) large production quantities
c) antibiotic-resistant strains
d) clinical samples
Section VII – Agent Summary Statements (p. 88) and Section VIIA – Bacterial
Agents (pp. 88-117)
ANSWERS
1. True, the anthrax vaccine was introduced around this time. Prior to the
vaccine becoming available, there were numerous reported cases of
lab-associated anthrax.
2. a - BL2, b - ABL2, c - BL3
3. The anthrax vaccine is recommended for people working in facilities
where there is frequent contact with clinical specimens or diagnostic
cultures (e.g., animal diagnostic labs).
4. Bordetella pertussis
5. c) sputum
6. F. Only work involving large-scale production requires a BL-3 facility,
all other activities can be done in BL-2 or ABL-2 facilities
7. True
8. abortus, canis, melitensis, suis
9. False, ABL-3 facilities are required.
10. True
11. BL-2 for most activities although BL-3 precautions may be necessary if
working with production quantities or in situations where aerosolization is
likely.
12. False: BL-2 and ABL-2 faculties are used for Campylobacter work
13: a) Chlamydia psittaci, b) C. trachomitis
14. False
15. Spraying the feathers with a detergent-disinfectant
16. e) all of the above
17. True
18. Personnel working with C. botulinum cultures or toxins
19. F, BL-2 facilities are required.
20. 10 years
21. E. coli cytotoxin producing strains VTEC, SLT (aka enterohemmorhagic
strains)
22. uncooked ground beef and unpasteurized dairy products
23. True
24. Francisella tularensis
25. True
26. Fecal-oral or oral-oral
27. acute or chronic gastritis
28. True
29. c) Listeria is a non-spore-forming bacteria
30 e) all of the above
31. soft cheeses, raw meat, unwashed raw vegetables
32. False - infections occur most commonly during the 3rd trimester
33. False
34. Mycobacterium leprae
35. armadillos, non-human primates, humans
36. ABL-2
37. True
38. False, the ID50 of M. tuberculosis in humans is less than 10 bacilli
39. False: guinea pigs and mice can be handled in ABL-2 facilities but
nonhuman primates must be handled in BL-3 facilities
40. Purified Protein Derivative (used in skin testing for TB)
41. N. gonorrhoeae and N. meningitidis
42. b
43. T
44. F. All species of Salmonella except for S. typhi may be handled in BL-2
and ABL-2 facilities. S. typhi can be handled in BL-2 conditions unless
production quantities of organism are present or there is the potential for
aerosols to be generated.
45. T
46. F
47. F. ABL-2 and BL-2 facilities are used for Shigella work
48. Treponema pallidum
49. True
50. Ingestion
51. False, although cholera vaccines exist, their use in lab personnel is
not routinely recommended.
52. Yersinia pestis
53. direct contact with or aerosol exposure to cultures or other infectious
materials
54. d - clinical samples require only BL-2 level practices.