Name
Anatomy and Physiology II – Exam 1 – Spring 2004
1.
Most of the cell’s ATP is manufactured in organelles called: a. mitochondria; b. Golgi
apparatus; c. ribosomes; d. lysosomes; e. endoplasmic reticulum.
2.
Describe the important differences between facilitated diffusion and active transport
across a cell membrane.
3.
When to body gets cold, the brain senses the decrease in temperature and stimulates
many muscles throughout the body to “shiver.” The muscles generate heat which warms
the body. When the body warms, the brain detects the change and shivering stops.
(1 point each)
A.
The paragraph above describes an example of an important physiological process
known as
.
B.
In the example given above, negative feedback is provided by: a. the shivering
muscle; b. the brain; c. the warming of the body; d. none of the above.
C.
In the example above, the effector would be the: a. muscles; b. brain; c. the
warming body; d. none of the above.
4.
Which of the following WOULD NOT be a serous membrane? a. the pericardium; b. the
lining of the stomach; c. the pleural membranes; d. the peritoneum.
5.
Which term best defines the position of the knee relative to the foot? a. lateral;
b. medial; c. distal; d. posterior; e. proximal.
6.
What is the function (or purpose) of the Na+\K+ active transport pump in the nerve cell?
(4 points)
7.
In the peripheral nervous system, a bundle of nerve cell bodies is called a
8.
A spinal nerve named ‘T-5’ would probably contain: a. only efferent nerves to the chest
and arms; b. efferent and afferent nerves to the lumbar region; c. efferent and afferent
nerves to the thoracic region; d. only afferent nerves to the neck and chest.
9.
A nerve carrying an impulse from a touch receptor to the spinal cord is BOTH:
a. efferent and sensory; b. efferent and motor; c. afferent and sensory; d. afferent and
motor.
.
10.
The portion of the nervous system which uses cranial and sacral nerves and has specific,
organ-by-organ, inhibitory effects is referred to as the
.
11.
Memory is believed to involve an arrangement of neurons called: a. reverberating circuit;
b. converging circuit; c. diverging circuit; d. synergistic circuit.
12.
A man was in a car accident and some damage was done to the man’s head. As a
consequence he had difficulty with both his hearing and his speech. The portion of the
brain which was damaged was probably the
.
13.
Nerves in a descending tract of the spinal cord carry action potentials to: a. afferent
nerves that leave the spinal cord by the dorsal root; b. efferent nerves that leave the
spinal cord by the ventral root; c. afferent nerves that leave the spinal cord by the ventral
root; d. efferent nerves that leave the spinal cord by the dorsal root.
14.
Describe the general function of the sympathetic nervous system. What
neurotransmitters does it utilize? What general effect does it have on the body? Where
are its ganglia located? (4 points)
15.
On the diagrams below, label the following: medulla, cerebellum, hypothalamus, central
sulcus, temporal lobe, corpus callosum, superior colliculus of midbrain, pons
(½ point each)
16.
Generally speaking, an inhibitory neurotransmitter will: a. open calcium channels and
cause hyperpolarization; b. open potassium channels and cause depolarization; c. open
sodium channels and cause depolarization; d. open potassium channels and cause
hyperpolarization.
17.
Feeling the touch of a finger on your back would involve the following sequence:
a. motor neuron, dorsal root, ascending track, hypothalamus, cerebellum; b. sensory
neuron, dorsal root, ascending tract, medulla, thalamus, cerebrum; c. sensory neuron,
dorsal root, ascending tract, cerebellum, corpus callosum, cerebrum; d. sensory neuron,
ventral root, descending tract, thalamus, cerebellum
18.
Depolarization during an action potential is associated with: a. calcium influx;
b. potassium efflux; c. magnesium efflux; d. sodium influx.
19.
To expose the corpus callosum of the cerebrum, which landmark would you use to make
your incision? a. longitudinal fissure; b. central sulcus; c. lateral cerebral sulcus;
d. parietocipital sulcus.
20.
A patient with a tumor of the cerebellum would probably exhibit: a. absence of the
patellar reflex; b. unconsciousness; c. the inability to execute well coordinated
movements; d. the inability to perform voluntary movements.
21.
The diagram below illustrates two axons (A and B) converging on a neuron ©.
22.
A.
What is released from “2” and what effect does it have?
B.
The gap at “3” is called a
C.
Cell A exerts an excitatory effect. Cell B exerts an inhibitory effect. If A is
producing 15 action potentials/sec and B is producing 35 action potentials/sec,
what is the most likely response of cell C?
.
A researcher found that a single stimulus to a neuron did not cause the neuron to produce
an action potential. But two, simultaneous stimuli to different dendrites of the same
neuron did cause it to produce an action potential. This is an example of: a. a graded
potential; b. spatial summation; c. an inhibitory post synaptic potential; d. temporal
summation.
23.
The diagram given below represents a spinal cord and 3 pairs of spinal nerves.
I.
What region of the spinal cord would contain ascending and descending nerve
tracts?
A B C D
II.
At the point labeled “C” on the diagram, we expect to find: a. interneurons;
b. motor neuron cell bodies; c. sensory neuron cell bodies; d. sensory cell axons.
III.
If the nerve root at “D” was cut, we would expect the person to: a. lose feeling in
this area of the body; b. lose all sensory function in this area of the body; c. lose
motor control in this area of the body; d. none of the above.
24.
Vision, touch and motor control are said to be “mapped” on the cerebrum in three
different areas. Briefly explain the concept of “mapping” as it applies to the cerebrum.
Use an example to describe your point.
25.
Prozac is a drug used to treat depression. Biologically it is categorized as a “selective reuptake inhibitor.” Why would a re-uptake inhibitor effect behavior? Briefly explain.
(4 points)
26.
Give two examples of cranial nerves and briefly explain their function. (4 points)
27.
Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells would both be closely associated with:
a. cerebrospinal fluid production; b. the blood-brain barrier; c. myelin on axons;
d. consuming bacteria; e. the neuromuscular junction.
28.
The ulnar nerve has its origin at the: a. sacral plexus; b. thoracic plexus; c. Cl to C4;
d. brachial plexus; e. the coccygeal spinal nerve; f. cranial nerves; g. the sciatic nerve.
29.
Which of the following describes the typical nervous pathway for sensory perception?
a. sensory receptor  medulla  midbrain  cerebrum.
b. sensory receptor  sensory neuron  thalamus  cerebrum.
c. sensory receptor  cerebrum  cranial nerve  midbrain.
d. sensory receptor  sensory neuron  medulla  hypothalamus  mammillary body.
30.
The minimum stimulus required to initiate an action potential in a neuron is called the
.
31.
We would describe the sympathetic ganglia as being: a. superior to the vertebrae;
b. anterior to the vertebrae; c. lateral to the vertebrae; d. deep to the vertebrae.
32.
The semicircular canals of the ear: a. contain hair cells that detect fluid movement and
allow us to hear; b. allow you to equalize the pressure on each side of the tympanum;
c. are used to detect changes in balance and acceleration; d. transmit information to the
oval window; e. provide a passage out of the inner ear through which the
vestibulocochlear nerve runs.
33.
Explain how the pressure applied to the oval window by the ossicles can eventually give
rise to nervous impulses arising from the cochlea. Hint: what roles do the hair cells
play? (4 points)
34.
A nerve emerges from the spinal chord in the sacral region. It does not enter a ganglion
near the spinal cord but continues to the kidney. There, the nerve enters a small ganglion
right on the kidney. A short nerve emerges from the ganglion and acts on the kidney.
A.
What neurotransmitter do you think the post-ganglionic nerve releases?
B.
This nerve is probably part of the
nervous system.
35.
What is the reticular activating system? What does it do and where is it found? (3 pts)
36:
MATCHING:
Involved with “stereo vision” and movement
Interacts with cerebellum and
reticular activating system
Involved with weight regulation and ionic
regulation
Contains centers that regulate heart rate and
respiratory rate
a. medulla oblongata
b. pons
c. auditory
(Eustacian) tube
d. midbrain
37:
MATCHING:
found between the tympanum and the oval window
drains fluids from inner ear and equalizes air pressure
contains sensory cells used for hearing
contains sensory cells used to detect dynamic equilibrium
38.
What are two specific functions of the neuroglia?
a. semicircular canals
b. ossicles
c. auditory
(Eustacian) tube
d. cochlea