Oregon Institute of Technology
Department of Medical Imaging Technology
RDSC 235: Final Exam Practice Test
Name:
.
100 Mutiple choice questions:
1. Examples of ectromagnetic radiation include but are not limited to:
a. electrical energy and light
b. sound waves and x-rays
c. alpha, beta, and gamma radiation
d. infrared, ultraviolet, and visible light
e. electrical energy and microwaves.
2. The repulsion-attraction law of electrostatics is applied to the operation of the:
a. filament
b. focusing cup
c. rotor of the induction motor
d. step up transformer
3. The movement law of electrostatics states that:
a. only electrons move in a conductor
b. electrons do not move in a conductor
c. only nucleons move in a conductor
d. nucleons do not move in a conductor
4. Energy given off by radioactive isotopes is in the form of:
a. alpha particles, beta particles, and gamma rays
b. alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays and X-rays
c. alpha, beta, and gamma rays
d. alpha, beta, gamma, and X-rays
5. The atomic mass number (A):
a. is the number of protons in an atom.
b. is the number of protons and neutrons in an atom.
c. identifies it as a specific element
d. determines its chemical properties
e. determines its electrical state
6. The atomic number of carbon is 6, of Oxygen 8. Which has the greatest binding energy?
a. k shell electrons of carbon
b. l shell electrons of carbon
c. k shell electrons of oxygen
d. l shell electrons of oxygen
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7. The maximum number of electrons that can exist in the M shell is.
a. 9
b. 12
c. 18
d. 24
`
8. The name given to an orbital energy shell which expresses the fact that an electron can
only exist in a shell at a given energy is:
a. the valence number
b. the atomic number
c. the mass number
d. the half life number
e. the principal quantum number.
9. 2 protons and 2 neutrons emerge from the nucleus of an atom during:
a. alpha emission
b. beta emission
c. pair production
d. nuclear annihilation
10. An alpha particle is
a. more, larger
b. more, smaller
c. less, larger
d. less, smaller
penetrating and
than beta.
11. How many half cycles (180o) are there in one second of electrical generation in the U.S.?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 60
d. 120
e. 360
12. When the
of electromagnetic radiation decreases by a factor of 2, its
a. frequency, velocity
b. wavelength, frequency
c. amplitude, wavelength
d. amplitude, frequency
13. Attenuation of the x-ray beam is when:
a. photons are transmitted through matter
b. photons are absorbed by matter
c. some photons are absorbed, some are scattered, and some are transmitted.
d. photon energy is transformed to another form of energy
doubles:
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14. As it travels through empty space, the intensity of radiation decreases:
a. by the square of the distance.
b. as its wavelength increases.
c. as its amplitude diminishes.
d. as it lessens in frequency.
e. as it looses velocity.
15. Ohm’s law defines the relationship between:
a. x-ray intensity and atomic mass
b. electromagnetic force and induced current
c. electrical power, voltage, and amperage
d. electrical resistance, voltage, and amperage
16. An electrical current will always produce:
a. electrical resistance.
b. a potential difference
c. a magnetic field
d. an electrostatic charge
17. Watts is the unit of measurement for:
a. the number of electrons flowing past a given point in a conductor
b. potential difference
c. electromotive force
d. the product of amps times volts
e. electrical resistance
18. An example of a conductor, semiconductor, and insulator, in that order, is:
a. gold, copper, rubber.
b. copper, water, silicon
c. gold, silicon, oil.
d. silicon, germanium, wood
19. The flow of current in the rotor of a single phase generator is at zero when the:
a. angle of the conductor is at 0 and 90.
b. angle of the conductor is at 0 and 180.
c. angle of the conductor is at 90o and 180o.
d. angle of the conductor is at 90o and 260o.
20. If the high voltage transformer has a ratio of 1000:1, the line voltage from the operator’s
console is 70V at .5A, which exposure factor is known?
a. 7 kVp
b. 70 kVp
c. 5 mA
d. 50 mA
e. 500 mA
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21. When the operator’s console is supplied with 220V, three phase, 60 cycle (Hz) current:
a. the line voltage compensator must correct that line voltage
b. there is no need for rectification
c. there will be 120 pulses per second
d. there will be 360 pulses per second
e. there will be 660 pulses per second
22. Amperage, and subsequently milliamperage, is produced by the:
a. high voltage transformer circuit
b. filament circuit
c. autotransformer
d. step up transformer
23. When exposure time is an undetermined factor of a radiographic technique, the timer is:
a. a synchronous motor timer
b. an mAs timer
c. automatic exposure control (AEC)
d. an electronic timer
24. Exposure timers in increments such as 1/60, 1/30, 1/15. and 1/10 of a second are:
a. mechanical timers
b. synchronous motor timers
c. mAs timers
d. automatic exposure controls (AEC)
e. electronic timers
25. A 1% ripple is indicative of a:
a. single phase generator
b. three-phase, 6-pulse generator
c. three-phase, 12-pulse generator
d. high frequency generator
26. If 140V are applied to the primary side of the high voltage transformer, and 70kVp are
applied to the x-ray tube, the change in the wave form will be seen in its:
a. velocity
b. frequency
c. amplitude
d. wavelength
e. number of pulses
27. 1/60 of a second is roughly:
a. 8 ms
b. 17 ms
c. 90 ms
d. 120 ms
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A
C
B
D
28-31 refer to this illustration
28. The part labeled A:
a. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing voltage
b. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing
amperage
c. operates on DC current for the purpose of controlling the voltage and amperage
d. operates on AC current to adjust the line voltage and amperage
e. changes AC to DC
29. The part labeled B:
a. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing voltage
b. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing
amperage
c. operates on DC current for the purpose of controlling the voltage and amperage
d. operates on AC current to adjust the line voltage and amperage
e. changes AC to DC
30. The part labeled C:
a. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing voltage
b. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing the
amperage
c. operates on DC current for the purpose of controlling the voltage and amperage
d. operates on AC current to adjust the line voltage and amperage
e. changes AC to DC
31. The part labeled D:
a. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing voltage
b. operates on the principle of mutual induction for the purpose of increasing the
amperage
c. operates on DC current for the purpose of controlling the voltage and amperage
d. operates on AC current to adjust the line voltage and amperage
e. changes AC to DC
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Questions 32-34 refer to this illustration
32. This illustration best demonstrates the:
a. biangular focus principle
b. line focus principle
c. anode heel effect
d. target angle principle
33. If the focal spot size was said to be 1 mm, this measurement would be of the:
a. target angle
b. electron beam
c. actual focal-spot
d. effective focal-spot
34. If the target angle was changed from 10 to 15 degrees, it would effect the:
a. electron beam size
b. actual focal spot size
c. effective focal spot size
d. actual and effective focal-spot sizes
e. electron beam, actual, and effective focal-spot sizes
35. Arcing inside the x-ray tube is caused by:
a. convection
b. steeper target angles
c. off-focus radiation
d. the evaporation of tungsten
36. The most common cause of tube failure is:
a. a cracked anode
b. loose bearings
c. pitting of the anode
d. tungsten vaporization
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37. The filament is made of __________.
a. graphite
b. tungsten or thoriated tungsten
c. copper
d. molybdenum
38. The rotating anode is turned by:
a. convection currents.
b. a belt drive.
c. electromagnetic induction.
d. gears.
39. The basis of the line focus principle is that the effective focal spot size decreases
when the
decreases.
a. target angle.
b. width of the electron beam.
c. length of the focal track.
d. length of the filiment.
40. High speed rotors, for high heat capacity tubes, rotate at _________.
a. 2,000 rpm
b. 3,600 rpm
c. 10,000 rpm
d. 36,000 rpm
41. The anode heel effect is an unfortunate consequence of the:
a. line focus principle.
b. space charge effect.
c. saturation of the tube current.
d. small focal spot.
42. What is the formula for heat units for a three-phase, six-pulse x-ray machine?
a. kVp × mA × seconds
b. 1.35 × kVp × mA × seconds
c. 1.41 × kVp × mA × seconds
d. 1.66 × kVp × mA × seconds
43. A dual focus tube has two
a. anodes.
b. filaments.
c. target angles.
d. focal tracks.
RDSC 235: Final Exam practice test
44.
a.
b.
c.
d.
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from the cathode interact with the target of the anode.
inner shell electrons.
Compton electrons.
projectile electrons.
characteristic photons.
45. During an exposure most of the _________ energy of the projectile electrons is converted
to __________.
a. kinetic, x-rays
b. x-ray, kinetic
c. kinetic, heat
d. heat, kinetic
46. Most of the heat generated at the target is due to
a. inner-shell ionization.
b. outer-shell excitation.
c. nucleus bombardment.
d. K x-rays.
47. Approximately ____ of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to xrays at the target during the interaction that produces heat.
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 99%
48. The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are ______ x-rays.
a. K-shell
b. L-shell
c. M-shell
d. N-shell
49. Characteristic K-shell x-rays of tungsten have an effective energy as high as ______ keV.
a. 0.6
b. 3
c. 12
d. 69
50. Most of the x-rays produced at the target are __________.
a. bremsstrahlung
b. characteristic
c. coherent
d. Compton
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51. At 55 kVp _____ of the x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung.
a. 15%
b. 80%
c. all
d. none
52. Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced when:
a. outer shell electrons are excited.
b. inner shell electrons are excited.
c. kenetic energy of the projectile electrons is given off.
d. projectile electrons ionize atomic electrons.
53. An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have a continuous emission spectrum with a
maximum energy of ______ keV.
a. 30
b. 69
c. 100
d. 140
54. To maintain the same density on a radiograph:
a. double the kVp and increase the mAs by 15%
b. double the kVp and decrease the mAs by 15%
c. increase the kVp by 15% and cut the mAs in half
d. decrease the kVp by 15% and cut the mAs in half
.
Questions 55 & 56 refer to the tube rating charts
55. When using the 1mm focal spot and the low speed rotor, is a technique of 125 kVp, 250
mA at .1 seconds permissible?
a. Yes
b. No
56. When using the1mm focal spot and the high speed rotor, is a technique of 100 kVp, 500
mA at 3 seconds permissible?
a. Yes
b. No
RDSC 235: Final Exam practice test
A
C
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B
D
Questions 57 - 63 refer to the emission spectra
57. Which of these four emission spectra shows no change in the quality of the beam?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
58. Which of these four emission spectra reflect a change in the K-shell binding energy of the
target material?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
59. Which of these four emission spectra demonstrate a loss of quantity with a gain in quality?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
60. Which of these four spectra demonstrate a doubling of intensity with a gain in quality?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
61. Which of these four emission spectra demonstrate the highest energy K x-ray production?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
62. How does added filtration affect the emission spectrum?
a. Bremsstrahlung is decreased
b. Quality is decreased
c. Characteristic is more energetic
d. The peak emission energy is decreased
63. What change to the emission spectrum is most beneficial for soft tissue radiography?
a. Adding filtration
b. Decreasing filtration
c. Decreasing kVp
d. Using a molybdenum target
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Questions 64-67 refer to the HVL graph
64. The HVL of this test (solid line A) is:
a. 1.2 mm Al
b. 1.8 mm Al
c. 2.0 mm Al
d. 2.5 mm Al
120
65.
100
80
60
mR
R
A HVL would be greater (thicker) if the:
a. average keV was increased
b. mAs was increased
c. distance was descreased
d inherent filtration was decreased
66. Which of these graphs is of a harder (more
penetrating) x-ray beam ?
a. A
b. B
B
40
A
67. This graph can be used to determine the
HVL for energy(ies) of:
a. 80-100 keV
b. 90 keV
c. 0-120 keV
d. an undetermined
(not stated) keV
20
0
0
1
2
3
4
5
mm Al
68. When the distance from the source to the image (SID) is doubled, x-ray intensity is:
a. increased 4 times.
b. doubled.
c. reduced to ½.
d. reduced to ¼.
69. If the thickness of a filter is increased, x-ray:
a. intensity is increased (only)
b. quality is decreased (only)
c. intensity is increased and quality is decreased
d. intensity is decreased and quality is increased.
70. If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 40 mAs is 100 mR, what would it be at 10 mAs?
a. 25 mR
b. 50 mR
c. 400 mR
d. 800 mR
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71. The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray _______.
a. quantity
b. quality
c. intensity
d. All of the above.
72. Beam quality is affected by
a. mAs and SID.
b. kVp and mAs.
c. kVp and filtration.
d. filtration and mAs.
73. Image contrast is primarily affected by ________.
a. distance
b. kVp
c. mAs
d. Both a and b.
74. The primary purpose of added filtration is to reduce
a. the HVL.
b. patient dose.
c. beam quality.
d. beam penetrability.
75. A compensating filter is used to:
a. harden the beam
b. reduce patient dose
c. equalize density over a part of varying thickness
d. comply with federal regulations
76. The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are
a. coherent scattering and Thompson scattering.
b. Compton scattering and pair production.
c. photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering.
d. Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption
77. An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during:
a. photoelectric absorption
b. coherent scattering
c. Compton scattering
d. pair production
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78. An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during:
a. photoelectric interactions.
b. Compton interactions.
c. coherent scattering.
d. pair production.
79. K-shell electrons are ejected when x-ray photons interact with matter during:
a. coherent scattering
b. Compton interaction
c. pair production
d. photoelectric absorption
80. The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains ________ of the energy of
the incident photon.
a. none
b. little
c. most
d. all
81. The angle of Compton scattered phontons may be:
a. up to 76º in tungsten
b. up to 90º
c. up to140º
d. any angle
82. Complete absorption of the incident x-ray photon occurs with:
a. photoelectric effect.
b. Compton interactions.
c. pair production.
d. coherent scatter.
83. _________ occurs only with high energies used in radiation therapy and in nuclear
medicine PET imaging.
a. Coherent scatter
b. Compton scatter
c. Photoelectric absorption
d. Pair production
84. Which has the greatest mass density?
a. fat
b. soft tissue
c. bone
d. air
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L
K
J
H
I
G
F
D
E
C
B
A
85. The energy labeled “C” has been transformed from
a. kinetic energy, light photons
b. remnant x-rays, light photons
c. light photons, free electrons
d. remnant x-rays, free electrons
to
.
86. The energy labeled “D” has been transformed from
a. kinetic energy, light photons
b. free electrons, light photons
c. light photons, free electrons
d. remnant x-rays, free electrons
to
.
87. Light photons come from the components labeled
a. B, E
b. E, J
c. F, J
d. B, J
and
.
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88. The energy labeled “K” has been transformed from
a. kinetic energy, light photons
b. remnant x-rays, light photons
c. light photons, free electrons
d. remnant x-rays, free electrons
to
.
89. The component labeled I:.
a. accelerates electrons increasing their kinetic energy
b. accelerates light photons increasing their kinetic energy
c. is the source of light photons in the tube
d. is the source of electrons in the tube
90. Fluoroscopic milliamperage is:
a.
1 mA
b.
5 mA
c.
50 mA
d.
100 mA
91. The input phosphor of the image intensifier is composed of:
a. cesium iodide
b. antimony
c. zinc cadmium sulfide
d. graphite
92. Light produced at the output phosphor of the image intensifier has been increased
______ times in intensity.
a. 50–100
b. 200–350
c. 500–7,500
d. 5000–30,000
93. The _____ is the product of the minification gain and the flux gain.
a. horizontal resolution
b. brightness gain
c. contrast resolution
d. flux gain
94. The ratio of light photons on the input phosphor to light photons exiting the output
phosphor based on the ratio their sizes is called ___________ gain.
a. magnification
b. minification
c. brightness
d. flux
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95. Image fog in diagnostic imaging is caused by
a. photoelectric absorption.
b. Compton scatter.
c. pair production.
d. All of the above.
96. Because of differential absorption, about ___ of the incident beam from the x-ray tube
contributes to the finished image.
a. 0.5%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 95%
97. Differential absorption is dependent on the
a. kVp of the exposure.
b. atomic number of the absorber.
c. mass density of the absorber.
d. All of the above.
98. The purpose of using contrast agents is to increase the amount of
a. differential absorption.
b. Compton scatter.
c. photoelectric absorption.
d. All of the above.
99. If 5% of an incident beam is transmitted through a body part, then 95% of that beam
was
a. scattered.
b. attenuated.
c. absorbed.
100. Photopic vision is also referred to as:
a. daylight vision
b night vision
c color vision
d double vision.