Copyright reserved 2011. This assessment guide originally published by Trials for Teachers. Permission is granted for copying for use by authorised schools only. TRIAL EXAMINATION VCE PSYCHOLOGY UNIT 3 ASSESSMENT GUIDE Question 1 Which of the following statements reflects the view of French philosopher René Descartes? Answer: C. The mind and body are separate but interact with each other Question 2 Which of the following terms indicates that consciousness is a sequence of thoughts and feelings, rather than a fixed and unchanging entity? Answer: D. Stream of consciousness Question 3 Mona was learning to drive her dad’s manual car, at the end of a lesson her dad wanted to discuss the interview that had been played on the radio as she was driving, but Mona had no idea what it was about! The most likely explanation for this is: Answer: B. Mona was paying selective attention to her driving which was a controlled process Question 4 Which of the following is not true in relation to microsleeps? Answer: D. A microsleep involves a sudden period of REM sleep Question 5 The survival (evolutionary) theory of sleep suggests that organisms sleep at times when they are less well adapted to find food or avoid predators. Which of the following is a criticism of the survival theory of sleep? Answer: B. During sleep we are in a reduced state of awareness so we are in increased danger from predators Question 6 Renee is sixteen years old and her sister Jamee is ten years of age. Which is the most likely description of their natural sleep patterns during the summer school holidays. Answer: C. Jamee sleeps from 9.00 pm until 8.00 am; Renee sleeps from 1.00 am until 11.00 am Question 7 ‘Left neglect’ is a phenomenon that sometimes affects people who have an acquired brain injury (ABI). Which of the following statements is true of a person experiencing ‘left neglect’? Answer: C. There has been damage to the cerebral cortex in the right parietal lobe Question 8 Which of the following would be the most appropriate brain imaging technique to be used to discover the parts of the cerebral cortex involved in solving a mathematical problem? Answer: A. SPECT scan or PET scan Question 9 One advantage of TMS (transcranial magnetic stimulation) over DBS (direct brain stimulation) is that Answer: C. The patient needs to have the brain exposed during DBS but not during TMS Question 10 Wernicke’s aphasia is most commonly caused by damage to Answer: B. the association cortex of the left temporal lobe Question 11 After an operation to control his extremely severe epileptic seizures Julian finds that, when he sees an object out of the left-hand corner of his eye (in his left visual field), he cannot speak the object’s name aloud, but when he looks directly at it, he can both recognise and name it. The operation to prevent Julian’s seizures was probably an operation that Answer: A. severed his corpus callosum Question 12 The primary visual cortex, the primary auditory cortex, the primary somatosensory cortex and the primary motor cortex are found, in that sequence, in the following lobes of the cortex Answer: C. occipital lobe; temporal lobe; parietal lobe; frontal lobe Question 13 Which of the following is a function of the association cortex for the lobe named Answer: A. parietal lobe – enables the integration of sensory stimuli Question 14 If a person suffered damage to Wernicke’s area, which of the following difficulties would they be most likely to show? Answer: C. they would not understand what was said to them and when they tried to reply the speech would be jumbled and meaningless Questions 15 to 19 refer to the following research In a recent study 100 volunteer participants (all adult students at Victorian universities, 50 males and 50 females) performed a complex series of tasks. After this, they all slept in a sleep laboratory; half the participants (Group A) were awakened each time they showed signs of REM sleep, the other participants (Group B) were allowed to have an undisturbed night’s sleep. The next day they were asked to describe the series of tasks performed the day before, their responses being scored out of 50 for accuracy and comprehensiveness. Results were as follows: Group A mean score 31 Group B mean score 46 Probability of the difference between the means p = .02 Question 15 Which of the following conclusions could be drawn from these results: Answer: B. For these participants, REM sleep assists consolidation of episodic memories Question 16 The experimental design used here was Answer: B. Independent groups Question 17 If the significance level was set at .05, the difference between the mean scores for the two groups could be said to be Answer: B. statistically significant Question 18 In this study, the dependent variable was: Answer: B. strength of episodic memory N.B. Alternative ‘A’ is not correct – ‘score on the recall task’ is the way the DV was operationalised, not a statement of the DV itself Question 19 In this study, the population was Answer: D. Adult university students in Victoria Question 20 A major role of the thalamus is: Answer: A. Selecting which parts of a stimulus to attend to Question 21 Which of the following is a true statement about the parasympathetic nervous system? Answer: B. In normal daily life it maintains the body’s state of metabolic balance (homeostasis) Question 22 In a normal night’s sleep an adult aged 30 to 45 will spend approximately how many minutes in REM sleep? Answer: C. 90 Question 23 When Sally hears her brother play a chord of A Major on his guitar, she sees a simmering haze of blue – when he plays G Major, she sees green. Sally experiences a condition known as: Answer: D. synaesthesia Question 24 A researcher is using an EEG on a sleeping patient. The trace on the screen is showing waves with a frequency of 28 cycles per second with occasional sequences of waves that resemble the teeth on a saw. The researcher concludes that the patient has entered which stage of sleep? Answer: D. REM Question 25 In researching sleep-patterns, researcher Jade asks participants to keep a ‘sleep diary’ to record how often they dream and the content of those dreams. One problem that Jade must be aware of is the ‘self-fulfilling prophecy’, this means that Answer: B. participants may make up extra dreams, trying to provide Jade with the information she is looking for Question 26 In a study by Sperry and Gazzaniga, split-brain patients were given a cup to hold in their right hand which was hidden from sight. The patient could identify the object as a cup by Answer: C. saying the word ‘cup’ Question 27 Further research into hemispheric specialisation by Sperry and Gazzaniga, showed that when split-brain patients were given blocks and asked to use one hand only to arrange them to match a puzzle-pattern they were shown, the findings were that Answer: A. left-handed and right-handed people performed the task more easily with their left hand Question 28 Kandel trained Aplysia (Sea Hares) to withdraw their gills into the body as a result of being touched on the tail with a glass rod. After training the Aplysia were dissected and the chemical composition of their bodies was measured. The results showed that: Answer: B. Higher levels of certain neurotransmitters were shown Question 29 Which of the following statements regarding the hippocampus and amygdala is correct? Answer: A. The hippocampus is more involved in the formation of explicit memories and the amygdala in the formation of implicit memories Question 30 Which of the following is a correct statement with respect to Atkinson and Shiffrin’s multi-store model of memory? Answer: D. Repeated maintenance rehearsal may assist with storage of material in long-term memory Question 31 Working memory is considered to have four independent but interactive components, these are Answer: A. visuo-spatial sketchpad, phonological loop, central executive and episodic buffer Question 32 According to Craik and Lockhart’s ‘level of processing’ theory, material will be more efficiently retrieved from long-term memory if it has been processed through Answer: D. Semantic encoding Question 33 Which of the following is true of decay theory? Answer: D. All of the above responses are correct Question 34 Annie is 77 years old and has been diagnosed to be in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following best describes Annie’s memory problems: Answer: C. Annie can remember how to knit but has difficulty remembering her daughter’s new telephone number Question 35 ‘Tip-of-the-tongue’ phenomenon refers to a form of retrieval failure. I was trying to recall the name of a friend but could not immediately retrieve it; yet I knew that it was a short name and started with a ‘J’ sound. What does this tell us about storage of memories in long-term memory? Answer: C. A single memory is stored in a complex manner involving several locations in the brain. Question 36 The fact that we cannot recall something we know really well has been referred to as Answer: B. cue-dependent forgetting Question 37 In order, from least sensitive to most sensitive, are the following measures of retention Answer: C. free recall; recognition; relearning Question 38 The duration of iconic sensory memory is considered to be approximately Answer: C. 0.3 seconds Question 39 The sequence of colours of the rainbow (Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet) are frequently remembered by means of the following mnemonics: 1. ROY G. BIV 2. Richard Of York Gained Battles In Vain Which of the following statements is true of these mnemonics? Answer: C. 1 is an acronym, 2 is an acrostic Question 40 Eye-witness testimony has been shown to be unreliable as a result of misleading questions. This has demonstrated which of the following characteristic of episodic memories? Answer: B. Episodic memories are reconstructive memories Question 41 Motivated forgetting includes which of the following? Answer: C. Suppressed memories and repressed memories Question 42 Sara is studying for her Biology exam next week, but she finds that she keeps confusing the terms with the Psychology she studied this morning. It is likely that she is experiencing Answer: B. pro-active interference from the material she had studied earlier Question 43 to 45 refer to the following research Ms Revera used her Grade 5 class in some research on memory for words. First she read them a list of 14 words and immediately asked them to write down as many of the words as they could recall. Next she read them a different set of 14 words, but asked them to write the words down in the order in which she had read them. Question 43 The most likely outcome of this research would be Answer: A. They recalled more words from the first list than from the second list Question 44 For the first list, it is most likely that the best memory would be for Answer: C. words from the beginning and end of the list Question 45 The experimental design used in this research was Answer: C. Repeated measures SECTION B – Short Answer: Answer the questions in the spaces provided. DO NOT write outside the border on any page. As long as the meaning of a word is clear and unambiguous, marks are not deducted for spelling errors except as specified in this guide. Where part of a sample answer is shown in parentheses, it is for information and would not be required in a student response. Question 1 a. It is possible that an altered state of consciousness can be identified from a person’s emotional responses to stimuli. Explain this statement and give an example. 2 marks Answer: In an ASC a person may show heightened or reduced emotional responses to stimuli. E.g. they may watch a sad movie but not feel sadness. Marking Protocol: 2 marks: Both explanation and example are given 1 mark: Either explanation or example are appropriate b. It is possible that an altered state of consciousness can be identified from a person’s perceptual responses. Explain this statement and give an example. 2 marks Answer: In an ASC a person may be less aware of stimuli than they would be in NWC. E.g. in a meditative state a person’s experience of pain may be reduced. Marking protocol: 2 marks: 1 mark: Both explanation and example are given Either explanation or example are appropriate Question 2 a. Explain why a large proportion of the primary somatosensory cortex is devoted to fingers, hands, lips and tongue. 2 marks Answer: Sensory receptors in all body parts send messages to the primary somatosensory cortex (in the parietal lobe). As there are concentrations of receptors in the fingers, lips etc., a similarly large proportion of the somatosensory cortex must be devoted to these body parts. Marking protocol: 2 marks: Students identify both high concentrations of receptors in body parts and similar proportions in the primary somatosensory cortex. 1 mark: Either of the above points is made b. Which part of the primary motor cortex controls the fingers of the right hand? Answer: Upper left 1 mark Marking protocol: 1 mark: Both pieces of information are required Question 3 a. Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using a CT scan, compared with an fMRI, for brain research. 2 marks Answer: Advantage: CT-scan is cheaper and more readily available than fMRI. Disadvantage: CT-scan shows only structure of the brain (fMRI shows both structure and function) Marking protocol: 2 marks: Both advantage and disadvantage are identified. 1 mark: Either advantage or disadvantage is identified N.B. other points are acceptable – e.g. CT advantage – no problems with metallic inserts (pacemaker etc). CT disadvantage – high level of X-rays, cannot re-use within several months. b. Give one advantage of using a SPECT scan for brain research, compared with an MRI scan. 1 mark Answer: SPECT shows structure and function (MRI shows only structure) Marking protocol: 1 mark: As above. Question 4 Julia’s grandmother is having her 70th birthday celebration and asks Julia to take lots of photographs because she says ‘Now I’m over 70, I’m worried that I’m not going to be able to remember things very well’. a. As a psychology student, what could Julia say to reassure her grandmother? 1 mark Answer: In healthy older adults, memory loss with advancing age is not inevitable. Marking protocol: 1 mark: As above. b. What suggestions should Julia make to help her grandmother to minimise memory loss as she becomes older? 2 marks Answer: Keep using your brain, doing as many different types of mental activity as possible (word puzzles, number puzzles, spatial puzzles, reading etc.). Also keep physically active (increased blood flow through the brain increases the supply of oxygen and nutrients – glucose etc.) Marking protocol: 2 marks: Both of the above suggestions are made 1 mark: One appropriate suggestion is given Question 5 a. What is the function of the reticular activating system? 1 mark Answer: Regulates level of attention Controls sleeping/waking transitions Marking protocol: 1 mark: Students make one of the two points above b. Describe the physical changes in the reticular activating system during normal waking consciousness and identify the effect this has on a person’s consciousness. 2 marks Answer: Increased level of blood flow and increased activity in neurons leads to increased awareness. As a person becomes drowsy, blood flow and level of neural activity decrease. Marking protocol: 2 marks: Both blood flow and neuronal activity levels are identified 1 mark: Either blood flow or neuronal activity levels is identified Question 6 Complete the following table which refers to Baddeley and Hitch’s model of working memory COMPONENT 4 marks FUNCTION Answer: VISUO-SPATIAL SKETCHPAD Storage of visual information PHONOLOGICAL LOOP Storage of auditory information EPISODIC BUFFER Selects material from LTM to be used in working memory Commits material to LTM CENTRAL EXECUTIVE Decision-making: (switching attention; inhibition; updating) Marking protocol: One mark is allocated for each cell in the above table. For the Central Executive, any of the four functions earns a mark. Question 7 David is an auctioneer who has to sell a house this afternoon – his first auction! He is worried that he will forget the important features of the house when he is giving his introduction so he uses the peg-word method to make sure he covers the four main selling-points; the kitchen, the rose garden, the double garage and the local primary school. Describe in detail how he could use this visualisation method to improve his retrieval. 3 marks Answer: the items. Number One Two Three Four Peg-word involves visualising the item along with a picture that represents a number to sequence Peg-word Bun Shoe Tree Saw Item to be recalled KITCHEN ROSE GARDEN DBL GARAGE LOCAL SCHOOL VISUALISATION Plate of buns on kitchen counter Shoe in bird-bath in rose garden Large tree blocking door of garage A huge saw cutting into the roof of a school Marking protocol: 3 marks: All four items are shown. Peg words represent numbers for sequencing Linking images are described 2 marks: Two or three items are shown 1 mark: Visualisation of one linked item and peg-word is shown Question 8 Lara is a lawyer conducting the defense of Annie who is accused of negligent driving because she ran into the back of a stationary car at traffic lights. Lara asks a witness ‘How fast would you estimate my client was travelling when she ran into the BMW stopped at the lights?’ The witness suggested that Annie was slowing down and well under the speed limit. Jack is the police prosecutor. a. How might Jack have phrased a question to obtain a higher estimate of speed? 1 mark Answer: ‘How fast was she travelling when she smashed into the stationary BMW’ Marking protocol: 1 mark: Any response that uses a term implying extra speed and violence in the collision. b. Explain why Jack’s question may cause a different response from Lara’s question . 2 marks Answer: The word ‘smashed’ (crashed; banged etc.) provides the information that there was some violence in the impact. When the witness recalls the crash, they reconstruct the memory increasing the violence of the event. Marking protocol: 2 marks: Students show that the term used implies increased violence/energy and that this term contributes to the reconstruction of the memory. 1 mark: One of the two points above is made Question 9 Use an example to show how memory may be enhanced by a. using state-dependent cues 2 marks Answer: When John witnessed an assault in the city he was very anxious; when giving a statement to the police he was advised by the psychologist to try to feel the same level of anxiety so that this would improve his recall. Marking protocol: 2 marks: Students identify an appropriate example. The example shows the relationship between state-dependent cues and memory. 1 mark: The example is given but the explanation of the relationship is not clear. Or state-dependent cues are explained but without an appropriate example. b. using context-dependent cues 2 marks Answer: Later, John was taken back to the place in the road outside a nightclub where the assault had occurred. He found that his memory for the event was much stronger. 2 marks: Students identify an appropriate example. The example shows the relationship between context-dependent cues and memory. 1 mark: The example is given but the explanation of the relationship is not clear. Or contextdependent cues are explained but without an appropriate example. SECTION C – This question is worth 15 marks: answer in the space provided. Question 1 You have been asked to investigate the relationship between the amount of daytime activity a person undertakes and the amount of REM sleep they experience the next night. You have access to a sleep laboratory and equipment including an EEG and EOG. Forty Year 12 students (20 male and 20 female), all over the age of 18 years, have volunteered for the study. Identify the operational variables you would investigate and state the experimental hypothesis. Describe the experimental design and procedures in the format of the ‘Method’ section of a psychological report. State two ethical considerations that you would follow and describe the procedures you would use to make sure that these were appropriately met. 15 marks Answer: Variables: Independent variable – Level of daytime physical activity – operationalised as High – More than 3 hours per day physical activity Low – Less than 1 hour per day physical activity. Dependent variable – Sleep pattern – operationalised as minutes spent in REM sleep (proportion of sleep that is REM sleep is also appropriate). Experimental hypothesis: That Year 12 VCE students who undertake higher levels of physical activity during the day will experience lower levels of REM sleep the following night. N.B. Because the initial question refers to ‘…a person…’, it is (possibly more) correct to refer to ‘all people’ as the population. The population identified above is the population implied from the sample. Method Participants Participants were 40 Year 12 students (20 males and 20 females). Measures Recordings of electrical activity in the muscles controlling eye movement (EOG) and electrical activity of the brain in the form of brain waves (EEG) were made. Procedures Participants were randomly assigned to ‘high activity group’ or ‘low activity group’ by tossing a coin (independent groups). High activity group were asked to undertake 3 hours of physical activity per day and record this in a self-report diary. Low activity group were asked to undertake less than 1 hour of physical activity per day and record this in a self-report diary. Each participant slept in the sleep laboratory attached to the EOG and EEG. Ethical considerations Informed consent: Participants were informed of what would be involved in the research, how the results would be used and signed a form indicating that they agreed to take part. Debriefing: After the research all participants were informed of the results and informed how to obtain counselling if they felt they needed it. (Voluntary participation: coercion was used) All participants had volunteered to take part in the study, no Marking protocol: Content: Students adequately address each of the following content items: Independent variable Dependent variable Experimental (research) hypothesis Method Participants Measures Procedures Ethical considerations 7 marks Explanation: Operationalisation of variables Description of procedures Experimental design and allocation Experimental procedures Description of procedures to ensure ethical requirements are met 8 marks N.B. Although the extended question is not intended to be ‘count the points made’ type of assessment, this will necessarily occur to some extent as there is certain essential content. This means that in this scheme, ‘content’ is recall and application of knowledge, ‘explanation’ is demonstration of understanding.