Module 3
Neonatology.
Tests (Текстові тестові завдання)
1. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Gestational age of 35 weeks + 5 days should be considered as 36 weeks
B. Preterm is defined as a gestation of less than 35 weeks
C. Small-for-date babies are more than 42 weeks’ gestation
D. Postmature infants are more than 42 weeks’ gestation
E. Neonatal period extends up to 30 days of life
ANSWER: D.
2. Which of the following conditions have more than a chance association with non-conjugated
hyperbilirubinemia in the first month of life?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Sickle-cell disease
C. Hemolytic disease of newborns
D. Exclusive brest feeding
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
3. In the newborn child was diagnosed physiological jaundice and erythema toxicum neonatorum. What
treatment should be performed?
A. phototherapy and antibiotics
B. antibiotics and sorbents
C. antibiotics and local anilin dye
D. sorbents and infusions
E. no need treatment
ANSWER: E.
4. In the newborn child was diagnosed transitory dysbacteriosis and physiological jaundice. What
treatment should be performed?
A. phototherapy and antibiotics
B. antibiotics and sorbents
C. antibiotics and local anilin dye
D. probiotics and infusions
E. no need treatment
ANSWER: E.
5. For conjugative jaundice is typical the presence of:
A. Cytolysis syndrome
B. Hepatolienal syndrome
C. Direct hyperbilirubinemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia
ANSWER: E.
6. What changes in the complete blood test are typical for hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A. Leucocytosis, anemia
B. Thrombocytopenia, neutrophyllosis
C. Anemia, reticulocytosis
D. Leucocytosis, shift of the formula to the left
E. Erythropenia, leucopenia
ANSWER: C.
7. A child was born in term with signs of asphyxia. The estimation for Apgar scale on the first minute is 6
points. What is the first step of resuscitation in this case?
A. clearing the airways
B. warming of the child
C. oxygen therapy
D. injection of adrenaline
E. tactile stimulation
ANSWER: A.
8. The child was born with signs of meconial aspiration. What is the first step of resuscitation in this case?
A. lower the head downwards, tactile stimulation
B. suction of the contents from upper respiratory ways
C. intubation of trachea, sanation of airways
D. suction of the contents from upper respiratory ways, oxygen therapy
E. oxygen therapy, lavage of the tracheobronchial tree
ANSWER: C.
9. The child was born with signs of severe asphyxia. Were performed resuscitation actions by ABC-
resuscitation. What is the 3rd step of resuscitation?
A. tactile stimulation
B. suction of the contents from upper respiratory ways
C. ventilation support
D. oxygen therapy
E. indirect heart massage
ANSWER: E.
10. The decreased incidence of enteric infections noted in breastfed infants compared with formula-fed
infants is MOST likely due to the
A. more alkaline stool pH in breastfed infants
B. nutritional benefits of human milk on the infant's immune system
C. predominance of Bacteroides and Clostridium in the gut of breastfed infants
D. presence of protective antibodies against enteric infection in human milk
E. sterility of human milk
ANSWER: D.
11. Early hospital discharge is defined as the discharge of a newborn earlier than 48 hours following vaginal
delivery or 96 hours following cesarean delivery. Of the following, the MOST common reason for
readmission to the hospital within 7 days following an early discharge is:
A. bacterial sepsis
B. congenital heart disease
C. gastrointestinal malformation
D. hyperbilirubinemia
E. metabolic disorders
ANSWER: D.
12. Choose the most correct statement for the first grade hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy:
A. newborn has hyperirritability, hyperreflexia, seazures
B. newborn has hyporeflexia, muscle atonia, changes on EEG are absent
C. newborn has hyperirritability, hyperreflexia, tremor, changes on EEG are absent
D. newborn has hyporeflexia, muscle atonia, changes on EEG are present
E. newborn is in sopor or in coma
ANSWER: C.
13. Choose the most correct statement for the third grade hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy:
A. newborn has hyperirritability, hyperreflexia, seazures
B. newborn has hyporeflexia, muscle atonia, changes on EEG are absent
C. newborn has hyperirritability, hyperreflexia, seazures, changes on EEG are absent
D. newborn has hyporeflexia, muscle atonia, changes on EEG are present
E. newborn is in sopor or in coma
ANSWER: E.
14. Choose the definition of the intranatal period:
A. begins from the first signs of the delivery, extends until the birth of the baby
B. begins from the zygote formation, lasts up to the 8-th week of gestation
C. begins from the 8-th week of gestation, continue up to the end of pregnancy
D. begins from 28 weeks of gestation, extends until the 7 days after delivery
E. begins from the birth of the baby, lasts until 7 days after birth
ANSWER: A.
15. Choose the definition of the perinatal period:
A. begins from the first signs of the delivery, extends until the birth of the baby
B. begins from the zygote formation, lasts up to the 8-th week of gestation
C. begins from the 8-th week of gestation, continue up to the end of pregnancy
D. begins from 28 weeks of gestation, extends until the 7 days after delivery
E. begins from the birth of the baby, lasts until 7 days after birth
ANSWER: D.
16. Choose the definition of the early neonatal period:
A. begins from the first signs of the delivery, extends until the birth of the baby
B. begins from the zygote formation, lasts up to the 8-th week of gestation
C. begins from the 8-th week of gestation, continue up to the end of pregnancy
D. begins from 28 weeks of gestation, extends until the 7 days after delivery
E. begins from the birth of the baby, lasts until 7 days after birth
ANSWER: E.
17. Choose the definition of the neonatal period:
A. begins from the birth of the baby, extends until 28 days after birth
B. begins from the birth of the baby, extends until 60 days after birth
C. begins from 28 weeks of gestation, lasts until the 40 weeks of gestation
D. begins from 28 weeks of gestation, extends until the 7 days after delivery
E. begins from the birth of the baby, lasts until 7 days after birth
ANSWER: A.
18. Choose the definition of the late neonatal period:
A. begins from the 14-th day of life, lasts until 28 days after birth
B. begins from the 7-th day of life, lasts until 28 days after birth
C. begins from the birth of the baby, extends until 28 days after birth
D. begins from the birth of the baby, extends until 60 days after birth
E. begins from the birth of the baby, lasts until 14 days after birth
ANSWER: B.
19. Neonatal period consists from the next periods:
A. embrional development and placental development
B. late antenatal, intranatal and early neonatal
C. embrional and perinatal
D. early neonatal and late neonatal
E. perinatal and early neonatal
ANSWER: D.
20. Select the INCORRECT criterion concerning Apgar scale:
A. heart rate
B. reflex irritability
C. skin color
D. body temperature
E. muscle tone
ANSWER: D.
21. When umbilical cord should become dry and should naturally fall off in healthy newborn?
A. during 1-2 days of life
B. between 5-7-th days of life
C. immediately after birth
D. between 10-12 days of life
E. till the end of the second week of life
ANSWER: B.
22. When is recommended to perform first breast feeding for the healthy newborn?
A. in delivery room immediately after birth
B. during first 5 hours of life
C. within 2 hours of life
D. at the second day of life
E. first feeding should be performed with adapted milk formula
ANSWER: A.
23. Choose the INCORRECT reason of the neonatal transient states?
A. the environment becomes totally different
B. change of barometric pressure
C. unstable temperature of surroundings
D. fetal hypoxia
E. microbic environment
ANSWER: D.
24. Choose the CORRECT reason of the neonatal transient states?
A. intrauterine infection
B. pathological delivery
C. unstable temperature of surroundings
D. fetal hypoxia
E. intrauterine growth restriction
ANSWER: C.
25. For transient weight loss is typical:
A. loss of up to 5 % of birth weight which may occur during the first 3 to 5 days
B. loss of up to 15 % of birth weight which may occur during the first 3 to 5 days
C. loss of up to 10 % of birth weight which may occur during the first 7 to 10 days
D. loss of up to 15 % of birth weight which may occur during the first 7 to 10 days
E. loss of up to 10 % of birth weight which may occur during the first 3 to 5 days
ANSWER: E.
26. For transient weight loss is typical:
A. loss of up to 3 % of birth weight
B. loss of up to 5 % of birth weight
C. loss of up to 10 % of birth weight
D. loss of up to 15 % of birth weight
E. loss of up to 20 % of birth weight
ANSWER: C.
27. What is erythema toxicum neonatorum?
A. local skin infection
B. transient allergic reaction to the environment
C. type of allergic dermatitis
D. first stage of flegmona in newborns
E. rare complication of neonatal sepsis
ANSWER: B.
28. Choose the INCORRECT reason of physiological jaundice:
A. functional immaturity of liver enzymes system
B. destroy of hemoglobin F
C. transient hypoproteinemia
D. ABO incompatibility
E. increased enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin
ANSWER: D.
29. Choose the CORRECT reason of physiological jaundice:
A. increased activity of liver enzymes system in newborns
B. intensive excretion of bilirubin
C. Rh - incompatibility
D. ABO - incompatibility
E. increased enterohepatic circulation of bilirubin
ANSWER: E.
30. What is pathogenetic type of physiological jaundice?
A. mechanical
B. parenchymatous
C. hemolytic
D. conjugated
E. Toxic
ANSWER: D.
31. What is name of the transient stool of the newborn?
A. melena
B. meconium
C. hematemesis
D. lanugo
E. “rice water” stool
ANSWER: B.
32. When does appear meconium in healthy newborns?
A. during the first few minutes after birth
B. during the first few days after birth
C. during the first few weeks after birth
D. in the case of infection
E. it doesn’t appear in healthy newborns
ANSWER: B.
33. What should be treatment of physiological jaundice?
A. phototherapy
B. glucose infusions
C. sorbents
D. exchange blood transfusion
E. *treatment isn’t necessary
ANSWER: E.
34. Erb’s palsy is a result of:
A. C5-C6 injury
B. C6-C7 injury
C. C7-C8 injury
D. C8-T1 injury
E. C5-T1 injury
ANSWER: A.
35. Klumpke’s paralyses is a result of:
A. C5-C6 injury
B. C6-C7 injury
C. C7-C8 injury
D. C8-T1 injury
E. C5-T1 injury
ANSWER: C.
36. Kerer’s paralyses is a result of:
A. C5-C6 injury
B. C6-C7 injury
C. C7-C8 injury
D. C8-T1 injury
E. C5-T1 injury
ANSWER: E.
37. What is the possible indication for the lumbar puncture in newborns?
A. Convulsive syndrome
B. Neonatal meningitis
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Hypertensive-hydrocephalic syndrome
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
38. What should be treatment of uric acid infarct in newborns?
A. antibiotics
B. glucose infusions
C. sorbents
D. diuretics
E. treatment isn’t necessary
ANSWER: E.
39. What should be treatment of hormonal crisis in newborns?
A. estrogens
B.
C.
D.
E.
androgens
sorbents
infusions
treatment isn’t necessary
ANSWER: E.
40. Choose CORRECT statement about early jaundice of newborn:
A. It’s always pathological
B. It appears within first 48 hours of life
C. It always disappears till 14 days of life
D. TSB level doesn’t exceed 200 mkmol/L
E. Sometimes it can occur in healthy newborn
ANSWER: A.
41. Choose CORRECT statement about physiological jaundice of newborn:
A. It appears within first 48 hours of life
B. It appears after 36 hours of life and lasts till 14 days
C. It always disappears within 7 days of life
D. There is direct hyperbilirubinemia
E. It is typical triad: jaundice, anemia, hepatospleenomegaly
ANSWER: B.
42. Choose CORRECT statement about physiological jaundice of newborn:
A. It appears within first 48 hours of life
B. It appears after 24 hours of life and lasts till 14 days
C. It always disappears within 7 days of life
D. There is indirect hyperbilirubinemia
E. It is typical triad: jaundice, anemia, hepatospleenomegaly
ANSWER: D.
43. Choose CORRECT statement about physiological jaundice of newborn:
A. It appears within first 48 hours of life
B. Level of TSB usually doesn’t exceed 250 mkmol/L
C. It always disappears within 7 days of life
D. There is acholic stool
E. It should appear on the third day of life
ANSWER: B.
44. What does mean prolonged jaundice of term newborn?
A. Lasts longer than 7 days
B. Lasts longer than 14 days
C. Lasts longer than 21 days
D. Lasts longer than 1 month
E. All is correct
ANSWER: B.
45. What does mean prolonged jaundice of preterm newborn?
A. Lasts longer than 7 days
B. Lasts longer than 14 days
C. Lasts longer than 21 days
D. Lasts longer than 1 month
E. All is correct
ANSWER: C.
46. What can be the reason of prolonged jaundice of newborns?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Intrauterine infection
C. Brest milk intake
D. All is correct
E. All is incorrect
ANSWER: D.
47. What can be the reason of early jaundice of newborns?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Sepsis
C. Brest milk intake
D. All is correct
E. All is incorrect
ANSWER: B.
48. What is significant for the hemolytic jaundice?
A. Anemia, reticulocytosis, hepatospleenomegaly
B. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, acholic stool
C. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, colored stool, dark urine
D. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, absence of anemia, normal liver size
E. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, anemia, normal liver size
ANSWER: A.
49. What is significant for the conjugated jaundice?
A. Anemia, reticulocytosis, hepatospleenomegaly
B. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, acholic stool
C. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, colored stool, dark urine
D. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, absence of anemia, normal liver size
E. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, anemia, normal liver size
ANSWER: D.
50. What is significant for the mechanical jaundice?
A. Anemia, reticulocytosis, hepatospleenomegaly
B. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, acholic stool
C. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, colored stool, dark urine
D. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, absence of anemia, normal liver size
E. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, anemia, normal liver size
ANSWER: B.
51. What is significant for the parenchymatous jaundice?
A. Anemia, reticulocytosis, hepatospleenomegaly
B. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, acholic stool
C. Direct hyperbilirubinemia, colored stool, dark urine
D. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, absence of anemia, normal liver size
E. Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, anemia, normal liver size
ANSWER: C.
52. What does mean “zone 1” according Kramer’s scale?
A. Face, neck
B. Chest, abdomen
C. Pelvis, buttocks, hips
D. Arms, legs
E. Hands, palms, feet
ANSWER: A.
53. What does mean “zone 2” according Kramer’s scale?
A. Face, neck
B. Chest, abdomen
C. Pelvis, buttocks, hips
D. Arms, legs
E. Hands, palms, feet
ANSWER: B.
54. What does mean “zone 3” according Kramer’s scale?
A. Face, neck
B. Chest, abdomen
C. Pelvis, buttocks, hips
D. Arms, legs
E. Hands, palms, feet
ANSWER: C.
55. What does mean “zone 4” according Kramer’s scale?
A. Face, neck
B. Chest, abdomen
C. Pelvis, buttocks, hips
D. Arms, legs
E. Hands, palms, feet
ANSWER: D.
56. What does mean “zone 5” according Kramer’s scale?
A. Face, neck
B. Chest, abdomen
C. Pelvis, buttocks, hips
D. Arms, legs
E. Hands, palms, feet
ANSWER: E.
57. Absence of chin movements during breathing according to Silverman scale can be estimated as:
A. O points
B. 1 point
C. 2 points
D. 3 points
E. Shouldn’t be estimated
ANSWER: A.
58. Mild retraction of sternum during breathing according to Silverman scale can be estimated as:
A. O points
B. 1 point
C. 2 points
D. 3 points
E. Shouldn’t be estimated
ANSWER: B.
59. Surfactant deficiency is the etiological factor of:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Neonatal pneumonia
Respiratory distress syndrome
Congenital lung atelectasis
Acidosis
Asphyxia
ANSWER: B.
60. What is usually used for the feeding of newborns whose gestational age is 33-35 weeks?
A. Nasogastric tube
B. Bottle
C. Teaspoon
D. Mother’s breast
E. Syringe
ANSWER: A.
61. For antenatal prophylaxis of the hyaline membrane disease are used:
A. antibiotics
B. surfactant
C. vitamins
D. glucocorticoids
E. prophylaxis isn’t necessary to perform
ANSWER: D.
62. Which treatment of hyaline membrane disease is the most important?
A. antibiotics
B. surfactant
C. vitamins
D. glucocorticoids
E. oxygen inhalation
ANSWER: B.
63. For the premature newborn is typical:
A. Opened posterior fontanel
B. Opened anterior fontanel
C. Skin peeling
D. Presence of jaundice
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
64. What is the etiology of hyaline membrane disease?
A. Bacterial
B. Viral
C. Hereditary
D. Surfactant deficiency
E. All is correct
ANSWER: D.
65. Of the following, erythromycin prophylaxis is MOST likely to prevent ocular infection due to:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. group B streptococci
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
ANSWER: C.
66. What are the skin lesions of the herpes?
A. Scales
B. Papules
C. Vesicles
D. Pustules
E. Wheals
ANSWER: C.
67. What are the skin lesions of the impetigo?
A. Scales
B. Ulcers
C. Reddish maculae
D. Crusts
E. Plaques
ANSWER: D.
68. What are the skin lesions of the folliculitis?
A. Vesicles
B. Pustules
C. Cysts
D. Bullae
E. Wheals
ANSWER: B.
69. Of the following, the condition that is MOST likely to present with seizures during the first 24 hours of
life is
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
fetal alcohol syndrome
herpes simplex infection
hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy
organic acidemia
urea cycle defect
ANSWER: C.
70. What is the medicine of the choice for congenital CMV-infection treatment ?
A. Sumamed
B. Chloridin
C. Acyclovir
D. Ampicillin
E. Ganciclovir
ANSWER: E.
71. Approximately 30%-50% of infants born from Chlamydia-positive mothers will have
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Dermatitis
C. Jaundice
D. Pneumoniae
E. Pyelonephritis
ANSWER: A.
72. What ocular lesion is typical for neonatal toxoplasmosis:
A. Chorioretinitis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Anterior uveitis
Keratoconjunctivitis
Cataract
Optic neuritis
ANSWER: A.
73. Hydrocephalus is the most typical for:
A. Rubella
B. CMV
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Lysteriosis
E. Syphilis
ANSWER: C.
74. Choose the clinical feature of TORCH-syndrome:
A. Low birthweight
B. Jaundice
C. Hepatosplenomegaly
D. Seizures
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
75. Toxoplasma gondii belongs to:
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Parasites
E. All is incorrect
ANSWER: D.
76. Cat is the definitive host in the contamination mechanism of:
A. Staphylococcal infection
B. Candidosis
C. Lysteriosis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Syphilis
ANSWER: D.
77. Raw meat can be the source of contamination with:
A. Staphylococcal infection
B. Candidosis
C. Lysteriosis
D. Toxoplasmosis
E. Syphilis
ANSWER: D.
78. What bacteria can be revealed in darkfield microscopy?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Toxoplasma gondii
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Cytomegalovirus
ANSWER: C.
79. What is the medicine of choice for the congenital toxoplasmosis treatment in newborns?
A. Spiramycin
B. Pyrimethamine
C. Penicillin
D. Metronidazol
E. Ceftriaxon
ANSWER: B.
80. What medicine should be used for the congenital syphilis treatment in newborns?
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Penicillin G
C. Ampicillin
D. Ceftriaxon
E. Acyclovir
ANSWER: B.
81. What is the most dangerous period for rubella contacts for pregnant women?
A. The first trimester of pregnancy
B. The second trimester of pregnancy
C. The third trimester of pregnancy
D. The last several days before delivery
E. Any period of pregnancy
ANSWER: A.
82. Cardiac defects development in fetus is the most typical for:
A. Congenital toxoplasmosis
B. CMV infection
C. Congenital rubella
D. Herpes
E. Congenital syphilis
ANSWER: C.
83. Cataracts development in fetus is the most typical for:
A. Congenital toxoplasmosis
B. Congenital rubella
C. CMV infection
D. Herpes
E. Congenital syphilis
ANSWER: B.
84. The classic triad for congenital rubella syndrome is:
A. Rush, CNS abnormalities (seizures), eye abnormalities (cataract, microphtalmia)
B. Congenital heart defects, jaundice, sensorineural hearing loss
C. Eye abnormalities (cataract, microphtalmia), microcefalus, rush
D. Eye abnormalities (cataract, microphtalmia), congenital heart defects, sensorineural hearing loss
E. Congenital heart defects, sensorineural hearing loss, CNS abnormalities (seizures)
ANSWER: D.
85. What is the etiological treatment of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ganciclovir
C. Acyclovir
D. Pyrimethamine
E. There is no etiological treatment
ANSWER: B.
86. What medicines should be chosen for the treatment of congenital cytomegalovirus infection?
A. Ampicillin and Cefatoxim
B. Ampicillin and Amikacin
C. Ganclovir and Cytotect
D. Acyclovir and Prednison
E. Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazin
ANSWER: C.
87. What is the etiological treatment of congenital HSV infection?
A. Ampicillin
B. Ganciclovir
C. Acyclovir
D. Pyrimethamine
E. There is no etiological treatment
ANSWER: C.
88. What infection is NOT included into TORCH-syndrome?
A. Syphilis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Tuberculosis
E. HIV-infection
ANSWER: D.
89. What symptom is the most typical for congenital clamidiosis?
A. Jaundice
B. Hydrocefalus
C. Seizures
D. Purulent conjunctivitis
E. Maculopapular rash
ANSWER: D.
90. What symptom is the most typical for congenital syphilis?
A. Cataract
B. Meningitis
C. Purulent conjunctivitis
D. Rinitis
E. Hydrocefalus
ANSWER: D.
91. Of the following, erythromycin prophylaxis is MOST likely to prevent ocular infection due to:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. group B streptococci
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
ANSWER: C.
92. Which of the following statements is NOT true in physiological jaundice?
A. It always appears later than 24 hours
B. It is due mainly to temporary impaired hepatic clearance of bilirubin
C. In premature newborns it may persist for 3-4 weeks
D. Direct bilirubin level may be as high as indirect bilirubin level
E. It can not be the reason of kernicterus
ANSWER: D.
93. Which of the following conditions have more than a chance association with non-conjugated
hyperbilirubinemia in the first month of life?
A. Fetal hepatitis
B. Beta-thalassemia major
C. Biliary atresia
D. Congenital syphilis
E. Hemolytic disease of newborn
ANSWER: E.
94. The most frequent reason of neonatal phlegmona development is:
A. Infection
B. Overcooling
C. Compression
D. congenital immunodeficiency
E. All is correct
ANSWER: A.
95. The typical symptom of the neonatal phlegmona is:
A. Soft tissues infiltration
B. Intoxication syndrome
C. Deep scars on the skin
D. "Creeping infiltration"
E. All is correct
ANSWER: E.
96. The typical symptom of the SSS-syndrome is:
A. Skin infiltration
B. Palms hyperkeratosis
C. Deep scars on the skin
D. Bullae with bloody content
E. Positive Nikolsky’s sign
ANSWER: E.
97. For the Ritter’s dermatitis are typical:
A. Tonic seizures
B. Feet hyperkeratosis
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Ektropion
E. Erosive skin changes
ANSWER: E.
98. The most frequent etiological factor of the Ritter’s dermatitis is:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Group B streptococci
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
ANSWER: D.
99. The acholic stool in neonate is typical for the:
A. Physiological jaundice
B. Haemolytic jaundice
C. Mechanical jaundice
D. Parenchymatous jaundice
E. All is incorrect
ANSWER: C.
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ANSWER: C.
The acholic stool in neonate is one of the typical symptoms for the:
Physiological jaundice
Haemolytic disease of newborns
Bile ducts atresia
Fetal hepatitis
All is correct