1. То the instrumental methods for determining burn depth does not apply:
A. needle test;
B. epilation test;
C. alcohol test;
D. evaluation of the patient's wounds;
E. thermography.
ANSWER: E
2. Extent of blood during burn shock:
A. does not change initially and then increases;
B. initially decreases and then increases;
C. increases;
D. decreases;
E. does not change.
ANSWER: D
3. 3.The main symptom of deep chemical burns are:
A. congestion;
B. exudation;
C. large bubble;
D. lack of epidermis;
E. tissue necrosis
ANSWER: E
4. Features burns acids are the following except:
A. dehydration of tissues;
B. coagulative necrosis;
C. necrosis rises above the skin;
D. different color crust;
E. dependency depth of the lesion on the concentration of the agent.
ANSWER: C
5. During burn shock a glomerular filtpathiones of the kidney:
A. increases;
B. reduced;
C. does not change;
D. initially increases and then decreases;
E. first decreases and then increases.
ANSWER: B
6. Area of burns is determined by the following rules, except:
A. hand;
B. nines;
C. Dolinina scheme;
D. overlapping cellophane films;
E. epilation test.
ANSWER: E
7. What% of body surface is the upper limb in adults (when calculating the area of
burn lesions):
A. 5%;
B. 9%;
C. 12%;
D. 15%;
E. 20%.
ANSWER: B
8. How many% of the body is the head and neck of an adult (when calculating the
area of burn lesions):
A. 3% ;
B. 9% ;
C. 12% ;
D. 15% ;
E. 20% .
ANSWER: B
9. How many% of body surface is the palm of the person (when calculating the
area of chemical burns):
A. 0,5%;
B. 1%;
C. 2%;
D. 3%;
E. 5%.
ANSWER: B
10.
How many% of body surface is the lower limb in adults to determine the
area of burns:
A. 9%;
B. 10%;
C. 14%;
D. 18%;
E. 20%.
ANSWER: D
11.
How many% of the body is the body of an adult (when calculating the area
of burn lesions):
A. 30%;
B. 32%;
C. 36%;
D. 45%;
E. 49%.
ANSWER: C
12.
How many isolated periods of burn disease:
A. 1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E. 5.
ANSWER: D
13.
The amount of the patient's age and general care areas used in the rule:
A. hundreds;
B. nines;
C. Dolinina;
D. Frank;
E. ITT.
ANSWER: A
14.
What is the main feature of I degree burns?
A. bladder;
B. edema;
C. pain;
D. redness;
E. necrosis.
ANSWER: D
15.
What is the main feature of burns III- IV degrees?
A. bladder;
B. edema;
C. pain;
D. redness;
E. necrosis.
ANSWER: E
16.
What is the burn rate in the presence of bubbles containing amber color:
A. I ;
B. II ;
C. III ;
D. V ;
E. IV .
ANSWER: B
17.
For any bleeding source localization characteristic ground?
A. lungs;
B. the upper gastrointestinal tract;
C. rectum;
D. Kidneys;
E. Spleen.
ANSWER: B
18.
What forms of temporary stop bleeding can be applied in case of damage of
large arteries?
A. Overlay tow;
B. Imposition of hemostatic clamp the wound;
C. finger pressing of the artery;
D. Temporary bypass vessels;
E. All of the above listed methods.
ANSWER: E
19.
What drugs are used to stop bleeding local?
A. hemostatic sponge;
B. gelatin sponge;
C. Thrombin;
D. Fibrynna film;
E. All of the drugs.
ANSWER: E
20.
What is hidden bleeding?
A. hematoma formation;
B. Bleeding with no clinical signs;
C. Bleeding in to the pleural cavity;
D. Bleeding in to the abdominal cavity;
E. Bleeding in to the joint cavity.
ANSWER: B
21.
Which of the following types applies only to internal bleeding?
A. arterio-venous;
B. parenchymal;
C. Arterial;
D. Venous;
E. Capillary.
ANSWER: B
22.
Anatomical classification of bleeding:
A. Arterial, venous bleeding;
B. Arterial, venous, capillary bleeding;
C. Arterial, venous, arterio-venous bleeding;
D. Arterial, venous, parenchymal hemorrhage;
E. Arterial, venous, capillary, parenchymal hemorrhage.
ANSWER: E
23.
Who is easier to tolerate blood loss?
A. males
B. Women;
C. Adolescents;
D. Preschool children;
E. Infants.
ANSWER: B
24.
By the end of methods to stop bleeding include:
A. Mechanical;
B. Physical;
C. Chemical and biological;
D. Combination;
E. All of the above listed options.
ANSWER: E
25.
What is the main cause of death in profuse bleeding during the first hours
after its occurrence?
A. Violation of breath;
B. Ischemia of the liver;
C. Renal insufficiency;
D. myocardial ischemia;
E. Acute hemodynamic violations.
ANSWER: E
26.
Add a mild bleeding in the upper limit of the deficit BCC (globular volume):
A. Up to 5%;
B. Up to 10%
C. Up to 15%
D. Up to 20%
E. Up to 25%.
ANSWER: D
27.
Enter the average degree of blood loss in the upper limit of the deficit BCC
(globular volume):
A. Up to 10%
B. Up to 20%
C. Up to 30%
D. Up to 40%
E. to 50%.
ANSWER: C
28.
A patient has been bleeding from the mucous anal fissure area. What type of
bleeding include this pathology?
A. External bleeding;
B. Internal bleeding;
C. Foreign hidden bleeding;
D. Internal hidden bleeding;
E. Covert bleeding.
ANSWER: A
29.
Ascertained Grade II hemorrhage (classification AA Shalimov). How much
blood loss?
A. 500 ml;
B. 1000 ml;
C. 1500 ml;
D. 1700 ml;
E. 2000 ml.
ANSWER: C
30.
The most common cause of bleeding is:
A. Bleeding in the erosion of the vessel;
B. Bleeding with necrosis of the vessel;
C. Bleeding in violation vascular permeability;
D. Bleeding as a result of mechanical damage to blood vessels;
E. Bleeding from the collapse of the tumor.
ANSWER: D
31.
Bleeding in the cavity is:
A. haemoperitoneum;
B. haemopericardium;
C. hemothorax;
D. hemarthrosis;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: E
32.
What complications can occur when imposing a tourniquet on the middle
third of the arm?
A. Hematoma;
B. Necrosis of the skin;
C. Injury of muscle;
D. Injury to the brachial nerve;
E. erysipelas.
ANSWER: D
33.
What is bleeding?
A. Accumulation of blood, tissue restricted;
B. Accumulation of blood in the wound;
C. leakage of blood from damaged blood vessels on the skin;
D. Diffuse infiltration of the soft tissues with blood;
E. All of the states.
ANSWER: D
34.
Which way to stop bleeding include blood transfusions?
A. Mechanical;
B. Physics;
C. Biological;
D. Chemical;
E. Combined.
ANSWER: C
35.
How is the third stage of blood clotting?
A. recalcification;
B. The formation of fibrin;
C. The synthesis of prothrombin;
D. Fibrinolytic;
E. The synthesis of thrombin.
ANSWER: B
36.
How is the I phase of blood clotting?
A. The formation of fibrin;
B. The synthesis of prothrombin;
C. recalcification;
D. Formation of Blood and Tissue thromboplastin;
E. The synthesis of thrombin
ANSWER: D
37.
How is the II stage of blood clotting?
A. formation of blood clots;
B. Formation of tissue thromboplastin;
C. Transition prothrombin into thrombin;
D. Formation of thrombin;
E. The synthesis of prothrombin.
ANSWER: C
38.
The best indicator of adequate restoration of blood volume after injury are:
A. The hematocrit;
B. blood gases;
C. Urinating;
D. Normalization of blood pressure;
E. Color figure.
ANSWER: C
39.
Specify written right blood group 0 (I) on the system agglutinins agglutinogens:
A. Aβ;
B. 0αβ;
C. Vα;
D. AB;
E. 0,.
ANSWER: B
40.
Specify written right blood group A (II) in the system agglutinins agglutinogens:
A. Aβ;
B. 0αβ;
C. Vα;
D. AB;
E. 0,.
ANSWER: A
41.
Specify written right blood type B (III) in the system agglutinins agglutinogens:
A. Aβ;
B. 0αβ;
C. Vα;
D. AB;
E. 0,.
ANSWER: C
42.
Specify truly written AB blood group (IV) on the system agglutinins agglutinogens:
A. Aβ;
B. 0αβ;
C. Vα;
D. AB0;
E. 0,.
ANSWER: D
43.
Add the contents of agglutinogens in the erythrocytes of patients with blood
group 0 (I)
A. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A;
B. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens B;
C. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens 0;
D. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A and B;
E. Red blood cells do not contain agglutinogens.
ANSWER: E
44.
Add the contents of agglutinogens in the erythrocytes of patients with blood
group A (II):
A. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A;
B. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens B;
C. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens 0;
D. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A and B;
E. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A and 0.
ANSWER: A
45.
Add the contents of agglutinogens. Add content agglutinogens in the
erythrocytes of patients with blood group A (II):
A. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A;
B. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens B;
C. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens 0;
D. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A and B;
E. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A and 0.
ANSWER: A
46.
Add the contents of agglutinogens in the erythrocytes of patients with blood
group AB (IV):
A. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A;
B. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens B;
C. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens 0;
D. Red blood cells contain agglutinogens A and B;
E. Red blood cells do not contain agglutinogens.
ANSWER: D
47.
Add the contents of agglutinins in the serum of patients with blood group 0
(I):
A. The serum contains agglutinins α;
B. The serum contains agglutinins β;
C. The serum contains agglutinins O;
D. The serum contains agglutinins α and β;
E. The serum contains agglutinins.
ANSWER: D
48.
Add the contents of agglutinins in the serum of patients with blood group A
(II):
A. The serum contains agglutinins α;
B. The serum contains agglutinins β;
C. The serum contains agglutinins O;
D. The serum contains agglutinins α and β;
E. The serum contains agglutinins.
ANSWER: B
49.
Add the contents of agglutinins in the serum of patients with blood group B
(III):
A. The serum contains agglutinins α;
B. The serum contains agglutinins β;
C. The serum contains agglutinins O;
D. The serum contains agglutinins α and β;
E. The serum contains agglutinins.
ANSWER: A
50.
Add the contents of agglutinins in the serum of patients with blood group
AB (IV):
A. The serum contains agglutinins α;
B. The serum contains agglutinins β;
C. The serum contains agglutinins O;
D. The serum contains agglutinins α and β;
E. The serum contains agglutinins.
ANSWER: E
51. What is necessary to transfuse blood components considering Rh - origin?
A. frozen plasma;
B. Leukocyte mass;
C. red cell mass;
D. platelet mass;
E. Dry plasma.
ANSWER: C
52. How fast rationally administered detoxification solutions?
A. 20 drops per minute;
B. 30 drops per minute;
C. 40-50 drops per minute;
D. 55 drops per minute;
E. inkjet.
ANSWER: C
53. The blood group and Rh compatible blood transfusion checks:
A. The attending physician;
B. The doctor in charge of the organization of transfusion therapy in the
medical department;
C. Central Laboratory;
D. Physician assistant clinical laboratory hospital;
E. The physician office transfusion therapy hospital.
ANSWER: A
54.To carry out transport immobilization of the cervical spine?
A. bandage Velpeau;
B. cruciate-dressing;
C. collar Shanca;
D. pneumatic splint;
E. Cramer splint.
ANSWER: C
55.Hemorrhage is:
A. Diffuse permeation blood of any tissue;
B. The output of the blood vessels in the internal environment;
C. The output of the blood vessels outside;
D. The accumulation of blood in the cavity;
E. Accumulation of blood between tissues.
ANSWER: A
56. Which of the following applies anesthesia to a local?
A. Intravenous;
B. Infiltration;
C. conduction;
D. Epidural;
E. intraosseous.
ANSWER: B
57.During the collapse of blood pressure in the victim:
A. Absent;
B. Reduced;
C. High;
D. intense;
E. Do not rhythmic.
ANSWER: B
58.Type of shock:
A. traumatic, hemorrhagic, erectile;
B. traumatic, hemorrhagic, torpid;
C. traumatic, hemorrhagic, anaphylactic;
D. Traumatic, specific, anaphylactic;
E. Traumatic, necrotic, hemolytic.
ANSWER: C
59.Traumatic shock is caused by:
A. Stress;
B. blood loss;
C. pain impulses;
D. hypothermia;
E. poisoning.
ANSWER: C
60.The first stage of traumatic shock:
A. Light;
B. average;
C. Heavy;
D. Terminal;
E. agonal.
ANSWER: A
61. The second level of traumatic shock:
A. Light;
B. average;
C. Heavy;
D. Terminal;
E. agonal.
ANSWER: B
62.Third stage of traumatic shock:
A. Light;
B. average;
C. Heavy;
D. Terminal;
E. agonal.
ANSWER: C
63. The fourth degree of traumatic shock:
A. Light;
B. average;
C. Heavy;
D. Terminal;
E. agonal.
ANSWER: D
64. Hemorrhagic shock is caused by:
A. Stress;
B. blood loss;
C. pain impulses;
D. hypothermia;
E. poisoning.
ANSWER: B
65. The development and severity of hemorrhagic shock depends on:
A. constitution of the victim;
B. Body temperature;
C. amount of blood loss;
D. Gender victim;
E. a state of nervous system.
ANSWER: C
66. Anaphylactic shock - a reaction of organism on:
A. Trauma;
B. blood loss;
C. Allergen;
D. Stress;
E. Burns.
ANSWER: C
67. Anaphylactic shock - an allergic reaction:
A. The immediate type;
B. slow type;
C. Inert type;
D. A characteristic type;
E. Unknown type.
ANSWER: A
68. Insulin is produced by the body in
A. liver;
B. spleen;
C. pancreas;
D. lymph glands;
E. marrow.
ANSWER: C
69. Diabetic coma develops in patients with:
A. infarction;
B. The stroke;
C. cardiac insufficiency;
D. Pulmonary insufficiency;
E. Diabetes.
ANSWER: E
70. The hypoglycemic coma develops in patients with:
A. infarction;
B. The stroke;
C. cardiac insufficiency;
D. Pulmonary insufficiency;
E. Diabetes.
ANSWER: E
71. In seriously ill suddenly 3 minutes ago stopped breathing and heartbeat; Skin
pale, cyanotic; pupils are dilated; How is this situation?
A. Termnal pause;
B. Clinical death;
C. Biological death;
D. Social death;
E. agony.
ANSWER: B
72. Prerequisite Conducting ALV "from mouth to mouth":
A. Head thrown back;
B. Head brought to the sternum;
C. Head lowered;
D. POSITION of the victim on the abdomen;
E. POSITION of the victim on side.
ANSWER: A
73. What is not a means of emergency care in case of fainting?
A. Provide horizontal POSITION with raised legs;
B. Spraying patient's face with cold water;
C. Exemption from clothing;
D. smelling ammonia on a cotton swab;
E. Introduction mezatonum.
ANSWER: E
74. What is not a means of emergency care in case of fainting?
A. Provide horizontal POSITION with raised legs;
B. Spraying patient's face with cold water;
C. Exemption from clothing;
D. smelling ammonia on a cotton swab;
E. open cardiac massage.
ANSWER: E
75. What is not a means of emergency care in case of fainting?
A. Provide horizontal POSITION with raised legs;
B. Spraying patient's face with cold water;
C. Exemption from clothing;
D. smelling ammonia on a cotton swab;
E. artificial respiration.
ANSWER: E
76. Initial examination of the victim conducted:
A. Before giving first aid;
B. After first aid;
C. During the first aid;
D. After the bleeding stops;
E. After stopping breathing.
ANSWER: A
77. Initial examination of the victim conducted:
A. At the incident location;
B. In the ambulance;
C. At the first aid stations;
D. In the hospital;
E. In the intensive care unit.
ANSWER: A
78. Initial examination of the victim conducted:
A. To restore the airway, breathing, circulation;
B. After the restoration of the airway, breathing, circulation;
C. During the restoration of the airway, breathing, circulation;
D. It is not necessary to carry out;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: A
79. Secondary examination of the victim conducted:
A. To restore the airway, breathing, circulation;
B. After the restoration of the airway, breathing, circulation;
C. During the restoration of the airway, breathing, circulation;
D. Not necessarily conduct;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: B
80. Initial review of victim includes:
A. Overview place of incident;
B. Determination of the level of consciousness;
C. Determination of airway and breathing;
D. Determination of heart rate and blood circulation;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: E
81. Initial review of victim includes:
A. Determining the level of consciousness;
B. Determination of blood pressure;
C. Determining the level of venous pressure;
D. Determination of blood volume;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: A
82. Initial review of victim includes:
A. Determination of airway and breathing;
B. Determination of blood pressure;
C. Determining the level of venous pressure;
D. Determination of blood volume;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: A
83. Initial review of victim includes:
A. Definition of heartbeat and blood circulation;
B. Determination of blood pressure;
C. Determining the level of venous pressure;
D. Determination of blood volume;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: A
84. Initial review of victim includes:
A. Brief neurological examination;
B. Determination of blood pressure;
C. Determining the level of venous pressure;
D. Determination of blood volume;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: A
85. The secondary review of victim includes:
A. Overview from head to toe;
B. Determination of the level of consciousness;
C. Determination of airway and breathing;
D. Determination of heart rate and blood circulation;
E. All the answers are correct.
ANSWER: A
86. What is palpation?
A. probing;
B. Listening;
C. percussion;
D. Measurement;
E. fixation.
ANSWER: A
87. What is percussion?
A. probing;
B. Listening;
C. percussion;
D. Measurement;
E. fixation.
ANSWER: C
88. What is auscultation?
A. probing;
B. Listening;
C. percussion;
D. Measurement;
E. fixation.
ANSWER: B
89. The serious condition of the victim indicates dysfunction:
A. Heart;
B. Brain;
C. lungs;
D. spine;
E. vital organs.
ANSWER: E
90. Bradycardia - a violation?
A. Movements;
B. Languages;
C. Respiration;
D. Consciousness;
E. Pulse.
ANSWER: E
91. Bradycardia - a violation?
A. rapid pulse;
B. Deceleration of pulse;
C. The pulse does not change;
D. The weakening of the pulse;
E. Absence of pulse.
ANSWER: B
92. Tachycardia - a violation?
A. rapid pulse;
B. Deceleration of pulse;
C. The pulse does not change;
D. The weakening of the pulse;
E. Absence of pulse.
ANSWER: A
93. Tachycardia - a violation?
A. Movements;
B. Languages;
C. Respiration;
D. Consciousness;
E. Pulse.
ANSWER: E
94. What is crepitation?
A. The heartbeat;
B. pulsation vessels;
C. Noise breathing;
D. Crunch bones;
E. Expansion of the pupil.
ANSWER: D
95. crepitation characteristic for:
A. slaughter;
B. dislocation;
C. Fracture;
D. Rupture of muscles;
E. Inflammation.
ANSWER: C
96. What is subcutaneous emphysema?
A. Accumulation of fluid;
B. Accumulation of blood;
C. Accumulation of air;
D. The accumulation of mucus;
E. Accumulation of hemorrhage.
ANSWER: C
97. Subcutaneous emphysema is a sign of damage:
A. chest;
B. Heart;
C. of large vessels;
D. aorta;
E. lungs.
ANSWER: E
98. Perforation of the organ - is:
A. Slaughter;
B. Hemorrhage;
C. crushing;
D. Breakthrough;
E. Separation.
ANSWER: D
99. The main signs of venous bleeding are:
A. The bright red color of blood;
B. Bright red blood and pulsating character bleeding;
C. Dark blood;
D. Relatively slow nature of the bleeding;
E. dark color of blood with relatively slow nature of the bleeding.
ANSWER: E
100. When of venous bleeding from the vessels of the extremities should:
A. Apply a tourniquet above the wound;
B. Provide limbs elevated position;
C. Apply compressive bandages;
D. Apply the tourniquet below the injury;
E. Finger pressing vessels.
ANSWER: D