CP BIO II
Exam Review
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. Which of the following is a major principle upon
a. passive and active transport. b. exocytosis and
which cell theory is based?
endocytosis. c. diffusion and vesicle transport.
a. All cells form by free-cell formation. b. All
d. phagocytosis and passive transport.
cells have DNA. c. All organisms are made of
cells. d. All cells are eukaryotic.
11. Which process requires no energy from the cell?
a. exocytosis b. endocytosis c. active transport
2. Which organelle is the storehouse for most of a
d. facilitated diffusion
cell's genetic information?
a. mitochondrion b. chloroplast c. centriole
12. Which organelles are involved in the process called
d. nucleus
endocytosis?
a. ribosomes b. vesicles c. centrioles
3. Which phrase best describes rough ER?
d. chloroplasts
a. studded with ribosomes b. protected by vesicles
c. connected to the Golgi apparatus d. stored in the
13. Which process is occurring when a vesicle fuses
central vacuole
with the cell membrane and releases its contents
outside the cell?
4. Which organelles supply energy to the cell?
a. endocytosis b. phagocytosis c. exocytosis
a. ribosomes b. centrosomes c. mitochondria
d. osmosis
d. vacuoles
14. What molecule carries chemical energy that cells
5. Which organelles contain enzymes that break down
use for their functions?
old cell parts?
a. ADP b. ATP c.
d.
a. centrosomes b. lysosomes c. vacuoles
d. chloroplasts
15. Which of the following molecules found in the food
6. Which organelles are unique to plant cells?
a. ribosomes b. vacuoles c. chloroplasts
d. centrosomes
7. Which process occurs inside the chloroplasts?
a. detoxification b. ribosome assembly
c. photosynthesis d. protein synthesis
8. A protein that detects a signal molecule and
performs an action in response is called a
a. receptor. b. ligand. c. vesicle. d. proton.
9. A solution that is hypotonic to a cell has
a. more solutes than the cell. b. fewer solutes than
the cell. c. the same concentration of solutes as the
cell. d. too many solutes.
we eat is most commonly broken down to make
ATP?
a. carbohydrates b. lipids c. proteins d. vitamins
16. Which of the following directly provides the energy
needed for cell functions?
a. A phosphate group is removed from ATP.
b. ADP loses a phosphate group. c. Electrons are
passed to proteins. d. Oxygen picks up electrons.
17. Chemosynthesis is a process through which some
organisms use energy from chemicals in their
environment to build sugars in the absence of
a. ATP. b. water. c. glucose. d. sunlight.
18. Which of the following is a reactant in
photosynthesis?
a.
b.
c.
d. COOH
10. Transport proteins play a role in both
19. Where in plant cells are the energy-absorbing
molecules for photosynthesis located?
a. stroma b. thylakoids c. ATP synthase
d. mitochondria
20. What happens to the sugars that are made during
photosynthesis?
a. They move directly into an electron transport
chain. b. They go back into the Calvin cycle.
c. They can be used for cellular respiration.
d. They make ATP by bonding together.
21. The part of cellular respiration that needs oxygen
takes place inside the
a. nucleus. b. mitochondria. c. thylakoid.
d. cytoplasm.
22. Which process is best represented by the following
chemical equation?
sugars + oxygen
carbon dioxide + water
a. cellular respiration b. photosynthesis
c. glycolysis d. fermentation
23. An electron transport chain that produces ATP is
part of both the cellular respiration process and
a. glycolysis. b. fermentation. c. photosynthesis.
d. the Krebs cycle.
24. In which process is lactic acid formed when there is
not enough oxygen present for cellular respiration
to take place?
a. ATP synthase b. photosystem I c. glycolysis
d. fermentation
25. Before cellular respiration, glucose must be broken
down by the process of
a. photosynthesis. b. glycolysis. c. electron
transport. d. fermentation.
26. Which of the following is a product of the Krebs
cycle?
a. carbon dioxide b. oxygen c. lactic acid
d. glucose
27. If a cell cannot move enough material through its
membrane to survive, then the ratio of its surface
area to volume is
a. too large. b. just the right size. c. too small.
d. growing too quickly.
28. Before a cell can proceed to mitosis from the gap 2
stage of the cell cycle, it must
a. double in size. b. complete a full cell cycle.
c. undergo cytokinesis. d. pass a critical
checkpoint.
29. During interphase a cell grows, duplicates
organelles, and
a. copies DNA. b. divides the nucleus. c. divides
the cytoplasm. d. produces a new cell.
30. Why do the cells lining the stomach divide more
quickly than those in the liver?
a. They are much smaller cells. b. They have
fewer chromosomes. c. They need much more
surface area. d. They undergo more wear and tear.
31. Kinases and cyclins are internal factors that
a. cause apoptosis. b. control the cell cycle.
c. cause cancer cells to break away. d. prevent
mitosis.
32. Proteins from outside a cell that stimulate it to
divide are called
a. oncogenes. b. stem cells. c. cyclins. d. growth
factors.
33. In a single-celled organism, mitosis is used for
a. development. b. reproduction. c. growth.
d. epair.
34. Which of the following is true of malignant
tumors?
a. They do not require treatment. b. They are
easily removed through surgery. c. They can cause
tumors in other parts of the body. d. They contain
cells that stay clustered together.
35. One difference between a cancer cell and a normal
cell is that
a. cancer cells divide uncontrollably. b. normal
cells divide uncontrollably. c. cancer cells cannot
make copies of DNA. d. normal cells cannot make
copies of DNA.
36. Which statement about the process of binary fission
is true?
a. It does not involve the division of cytoplasm.
b. It does not require any duplication of DNA. c. It
does not take place in multicellular organisms.
d. It does not produce genetically identical
offspring.
37. A plant's leaf consists of
a. a group of organs. b. various types of tissue.
c. organs that form a system. d. many identical
cells.
38. Cells in a developing embryo differentiate based on
a. their location in the embryo. b. symmetry in the
first division. c. their particular DNA.
d. secretions from the embryo.
39. Which organism is capable of reproduction through
asexual mitosis?
a. horse b. oak tree c. bacterium d. starfish
40. Two similar chromosomes that you inherit from
your parents (one from your mother, one from your
father) are called
a. homologous chromosomes. b. sister chromatids.
c. sex chromosomes. d. homozygous alleles.
41. Meiosis produces cells with how many
chromosomes?
a. 44 b. 22 c. 46 d. 23
42. Which of the following cell types is diploid?
a. ovum b. sex cell c. somatic cell d. gamete
43. A distinguishing characteristic that can be inherited
is a(n)
a. cross. b. allele. c. gene. d. trait.
44. Which of the following phrases describes the
Punnett square in Figure 6.1?
a. 1/4 probability of heterozygous offspring
b. monohybrid heterozygous-heterozygous cross
c. 3/4 probability of homozygous offspring
d. dihybrid heterozygous-heterozygous cross
45. Which of the following statements is true of
homozygous alleles?
a. They are always inherited together. b. They are
different forms of the same trait. c. They are
identical forms of the same gene. d. They are
identical forms of the same gene.
46. Which law states that organisms inherit two copies
of each gene and donate one copy to each of their
offspring?
a. law of genetic linkage b. law of segregation
c. law of independent assortment d. law of
inheritance
47. Mendel knew that the variations in the offspring
generations resulted from his experiments because
he
a. allowed plants to cross-pollinate. b. ensured that
plants self-pollinated. c. controlled the fertilization
process. d. changed the growing conditions.
48. Which event takes place during anaphase II of
meiosis II?
a. Nuclear membrane breaks down. b. Spindle
fibers disassemble. c. Sister chromatids separate.
d. Cytoplasm divides.
49. Recessive alleles may not be expressed because
they are
a. masked by a dominant allele. b. the least
common allele in a population. c. the least
common allele in a population. d. the least
common allele in a population.
50. Mendel's second law of genetics, the law of
independent assortment, is one explanation of the
a. random fertilization of gametes. b. genetic
variation within species. c. greater strength of
dominant alleles. d. final stages of gametogenesis.
51. Which of the following events is an important
factor in increasing variety among sexually
reproducing organisms?
a. testcross b. gene linkage c. crossing over
d. crossing over
52. Mendel's observation that traits are inherited
separately was based on which set of experiments?
a. monohybrid crosses b. purebred crosses
c. testcrosses d. dihybrid crosses
53. Imagine two heterozygous parents. Each has a
dominant allele X for brown eyes and a recessive
allele x for blue eyes. The phenotypic ratio for
brown:blue eyes in their children is
a. 1:2:1. b. 3:1. c. 9:3:3:1. d. 1:3:1.
54. What did Hershey and Chase know about
bacteriophages that led them to use these viruses in
their DNA experiments?
a. Bacteriophages are mostly DNA and protein.
b. Sulfur in all bacteriophages is radioactive.
c. Protein from bacteriophages enters bacteria.
d. Bacteriophages have no DNA of their own.
55. Which scientist conducted tests on extracts made of
bacteria to show that the genetic material in
bacteria is DNA?
a. Martha Chase b. Oswald Avery c. Frederick
Griffith d. Alfred Hershey
56. The main difference between the four nucleotides
that make up DNA is that they have different
a. sugars. b. uracil. c. bonds. d. bases.
57. Which scientists figured out the three-dimensional
structure of DNA by using a model of metal and
wood?
a. Hershey and Chase b. Watson and Crick
c. Pauling and Franklin d. Chargaff and Griffith
58. In humans, where does DNA replication take
place?
a. cytoplasm b. ribosome c. nucleus d. vacuole
59. During replication, the function of the enzyme
DNA polymerase is to
a. bind nucleotides together. b. send messages.
c. send messages. d. locate replication sites.
60. During transcription, what does messenger RNA
do?
a. It delivers DNA's instructions for making
proteins. b. It constructs proteins out of random
amino acids. c. It strings together two
complementary RNA strands. d. It strings together
two complementary RNA strands.
61. In order to produce all the protein that a cell needs,
transcription takes place
a. on a gene segment over and over again. b. on a
gene segment over and over again. c. using
double-stranded RNA. d. using double-stranded
RNA.
62. The central dogma states that information flows
from
a. RNA to DNA to polysaccharides. b. DNA to
RNA to proteins. c. DNA to RNA to proteins.
d. DNA to polysaccharides to RNA.
63. How many amino acids are coded for by the strand
of mRNA shown below? Assume the reading frame
begins with the first nucleotide.
CGAUAC
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 6
64. Where is messenger RNA "edited" into its final
form?
a. in the ribosomes b. in the ribosomes c. in the
nucleus d. in the anticodon
65. What is the term for the sections of messenger
RNA that are spliced together during processing?
a. operators b. promotors c. exons d. introns
66. In bacteria, what binds with the repressor to
activate the lac operon?
a. enzymes b. lactose c. repressors d. promoters
67. What is the term for a feature that allows an
organism to survive better in its environment?
a. variation b. adaptation c. homologous structure
d. vestigial structure
68. All the individuals of a species that live in a
particular area are called a
a. variation. b. fossil. c. population. d. group.
69. The remnant of an organ that had a function in an
early ancestor is known as a(n)
a. vestigial structure. b. analogous structure.
c. homologous structure. d. fossil structure.
70. What observations did Charles Darwin make about
finches in the Galápagos Islands?
a. The same species of finches lived on all the
islands. b. Different species of finches lived on
different islands. c. Various species of finches
lived on just one of the islands. d. Identical species
of finches lived in South America.
78. What is the study of the distribution of organisms
around the world?
a. paleontology b. geography c. geology
d. biogeography
71. Which scientist developed a classification system
for organisms?
a. Carolus Linnaeus b. Charles Darwin c. JeanBaptiste Lamarck d. Georges L.L. de Buffon
79. Fossil evidence shows that structures considered
vestigial in living organisms
a. are not found in ancient organisms. b. have
always been vestigial. c. were useful to their
ancestors. d. do not fill gaps in the fossil record.
72. Which theory states that floods and earthquakes
have occurred often in Earth's history?
a. uniformitarianism b. natural selection
c. catastrophism d. artificial selection
80. Which theory ties the fields of biology and geology
together?
a. evolution b. uniformitarianism
c. catastrophism d. gradualism
73. The hind leg bones shown in the whale in Figure
10.2 are examples of
81. The combined alleles of all the individuals in a
population is called the
a. phenotype. b. gene pool. c. mutation rate.
d. allele frequency.
a. homologous structures. b. analogous structures.
c. fossil structures. d. vestigial structures.
74. Charles Darwin found fossils that looked like
ancient versions of living species. From this
evidence Darwin suggested that Earth was
a. much more than 6000 years old. b. less than
6000 years old. c. only 6000 years old. d. about
1000 years old.
75. What is the process in which humans breed
organisms for certain traits?
a. natural selection b. inheritance of acquired
characteristics c. artificial selection d. descent
without modification
76. Individuals that are well adapted to their
environment will survive and produce
a. fewer mutations. b. more offspring. c. stronger
genes. d. better traits.
77. Natural selection results in change over time by
acting on traits that are
a. heritable. b. new. c. mutated. d. better.
82. What are two main sources of genetic variation?
a. mutations and extinction b. recombination and
extinction c. recombination and reproduction
d. mutations and recombination
83. A group of organisms of the same species that live
in the same area is called a(n)
a. community. b. population. c. biome.
d. ecosystem.
84. Herbivores are which of the following?
a. producers b. secondary consumers c. primary
consumers d. decomposers
85. Which phrase best describes biodiversity?
a. the number of individuals in an ecosystem b. the
amount of biomass in an ecosystem c. the amount
of available energy in an ecosystem d. the number
of species in an ecosystem
86. Which organisms help convert gaseous nitrogen
into ammonia in the nitrogen cycle?
a. bacteria b. trees c. squirrels d. grasses
87. Organisms that feed on dead or decaying matter are
called
a. herbivores. b. carnivores. c. omnivores.
d. detritivores.
88. What do all the biotic and abiotic factors in a given
area make up?
a. a habitat b. a community c. an ecosystem d. a
population
89. Which of the following provide most of the energy
in ecosystems?
a. keystone species b. carnivores c. generalists
d. producers
90. Almost all autotrophs get their energy from
a. sunlight. b. hydrothermal pools. c. decaying
matter. d. producers.
91. A major regional or global community of
organisms is called
a. an ecosystem. b. a biome. c. a species. d. a
population.
92. Zebras live on the savannas of Africa. A watering
hole on the savanna would be part of a zebra's
a. biotic factors. b. niche. c. habitat. d. behavior.
93. Which of these is an example of parasitism?
a. A lion defends its territory. b. A squirrel stores
food in a tree hole. c. A leech feeds on a host's
blood. d. A polar bear kills and eats a seal.
94. Which of the following will increase the size of a
population?
a. emigration and deaths b. immigration and
deaths c. emigration and births d. immigration
and births
CP BIO II
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
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Exam Review #3
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