Review Questions for PSY 405 Assessment and Evaluation Midterm
Exam.
Multiple-Choice
Chap. 1
1) The use of formal oral examinations for the selection of civil servants began with the
ancient
A) Chinese. B) Egyptians. C) Greeks. D) Jews.
Answer: A
2) Although philosophers and scientists in many countries have contributed to
psychology, the
science of psychology was not formally established until the last quarter of the 19th
century in
A) England. B) France.
C) Germany. D) the United States.
Answer: C
3) Early investigations of the hereditary basis of genius were associated primarily with
the name
of __________, whereas the research conducted by __________ was motivated by
interest in
identifying mentally retarded children.
A) Binet, Cattell B) Darwin, Binet C) Galton, Binet D) Galton, Cattell
Answer: C
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4) Sensorimotor tests for measuring individual differences in abilities and temperament
were
devised originally by
A) Alfred Binet. B) J. M. Cattell.
C) Francis Galton. D) Wilhelm Wundt.
Answer: C
5) The method of co-relations for analyzing test scores was introduced by
A) J. M. Cattell. B) Gustav Fechner.
C) Francis Galton. D) Wilhelm Wundt.
Answer: C
6) The use of printed examinations by the Boston School Committee occurred under the
guidance of
A) George Fisher. B) Horace Mann.
C) J. M. Rice. D) E. L. Thorndike.
Answer: B
7) The tests devised by __________ emphasized the ability to judge, understand, and
reason.
A) Alfred Binet B) J. M. Cattell
C) Francis Galton D) Joseph Jastrow
AA
8) The concept of mental age was first used in scoring an intelligence test constructed by
A) Alfred Binet. B) Francis Galton.
C) Lewis Terman. D) David Wechsler.
Answer: A
9) The first intelligence test that proved to be an effective predictor of scholastic
achievement was
constructed by
A) Binet. B) Cattell. C) Galton. D) Otis.
Answer: A
10) Thorndike was to achievement testing as Woodworth was to __________ testing.
A) ability B) aptitude C) interest D) personality
Answer: D
11) Inkblots are to personality inventory as __________ is to __________.
A) Binet, Cattell B) Murray, Pearson
C) Rorschach, Woodworth D) Terman, Spearman
Answer: C
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12) Credit for devising the first group test of intelligence belongs to
A) Arthur Otis. B) Lewis Terman.
C) Robert Woodworth. D) Robert Yerkes.
Answer: A
13) The first group intelligence test used in the United States military service was the
A) Armed Forces Qualification Test.
B) Armed Services Vocational Aptitude Battery.
C) Army Examination Alpha.
D) Army General Classification Test.
Answer: C
14) Group intelligence tests and personality inventories were both used initially on a
mass basis
during
A) The Renaissance period. B) the late 19th century.
C) World War I. D) World War II.
Answer: C
15) The most obvious source to consult for a test review is the
A) Mental Measurements Yearbooks.
B) Psychological Abstracts.
C) Standards for Educational and Psychological Tests.
D) Tests in Print.
Answer: A
16) A test that has printed directions for scoring and administration, as well as norms, and
is
constructed by testing professionals is by definition a(n)
A) individual test. B) objective test.
C) performance test. D) standardized test.
Answer: D
17) Interpreting test results by referring to a table of norms is most closely associated
with the
question of whether the test is a(n) __________ instrument.
A) achievement or aptitude
B) affective or cognitive
C) individual or group
D) standardized or non-standardized
E) verbal or nonverbal
Answer: D
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are those
designed initially by
A) Alfred Binet. B) Arthur Otis.
18) The most popular of all intelligence tests in clinical and counseling situations today
C) Lewis Terman. D) David Wechsler.
Answer: D
19) The most popular test of personality in clinical and counseling situations today is the
A) Bender-Gestalt Test.
B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
C) Rorschach Inkblot Test.
D) Thematic Apperception Test.
Answer: B
20) Which of the following dichotomies is concerned primarily with the method of
scoring a test?
A) affective vs. cognitive B) individual vs. group
C) objective vs. nonobjective D) speed vs. power
Answer: C
21) Tests requiring examinees to manipulate various physical objects are, of necessity,
__________
tests.
A) affective
Answer: B
B) performance C) power D) speed
22) Affective is to cognitive as
A) ability is to achievemC) subjective is to objectiAnswer: D
ent.
ve.
B) attitude is to pD) temperament
ersonality.
is to intelligence.
23) Most essay examinations can be characterized as __________ tests.
A) affective B) group C) objective D) speed
Answer: B
24) Interest inventories are __________ instruments.
A) affective B) performance C) speed D) subjective
Answer: A
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25) The most comprehensive classification of psychological tests is found in the
A) American Psychological Association's Test Classification Catalog.
B) Library of Congress Test Classification System.
C) Mental Measurements Yearbooks.
D) Publishers' Index to Psychological Tests.
Answer: C
26) At which qualification level are users required to have a PhD in psychology or
education, the
equivalent in training in assessment, or verification of licensure or certification?
A) Level A B) Level B C) Level C D) Level D
Answer: C
Chap 2
Multiple-Choice Questions
1) The first step in devising a test to screen job applicants is
A) analyzing the job content into components.
B) constructing a table of specifications.
C) consulting a taxonomy of job objectives.
D) writing test items to predict the criterion.
Answer: A
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2) Classroom achievement tests are measures of
A) affective objectives. B) cognitive objectives.
C) nonintellective objectives. D) psychomotor objectives.
Answer: B
3) In Bloom's Taxonomy of Educational Objectives: Cognitive Domain, "analysis and
synthesis"
are considered to be more fundamental (i.e., they appear earlier in the taxonomy) than
A) application. B) comprehension.
C) evaluation. D) knowledge.
Answer: C
4) Before beginning the task of writing items for an achievement test, it is important to
construct
a(an)
A) expectancy chart. B) list of critical behaviors.
C) predictable criterion. D) table of specifications.
Answer: D
5) In constructing an objective test, approximately __________ more items than needed
for the
final version of the test should be prepared initially.
A) 10% B) 20% C) 50% D) 75%
Answer: B
6) The only thing that is "objective" about an objective test is the
A) construction. B) design. C) interpretation. D) scoring.
Answer: D
7) Although __________ items are useful in measuring knowledge of terminology, they
are of
little value in assessing higher-order thinking.
A) essay B) multiple-choice
C) short-answer D) true-false
Answer: C
8) Short answer items are most useful in measuring
A) ability to evaluate propositions. B) analysis and synthesis.
C) knowledge of terminology. D) understanding of principles.
Answer: C
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9) Qualifying words such as "never, sometimes, and always," which reveal the answer to
an
examinee who has no information about the subject of the item, are called
A) false positives and false negatives. B) glittering generalities.
C) interlocking adverbs. D) specific determiners.
Answer: D
10) On which kind of objective test items are specific determiners a more serious
problem?
A) matching B) multiple-choice
C) short-answer D) true-false
Answer: D
11) Bluffing is more of a problem on __________ tests.
A) essay B) objective C) oral D) performance
Answer: A
12) The tendency to answer an item on the basis of its form rather than its content is
known as a
A) content distraction. B) context effect.
C) form bias. D) response set.
Answer: D
13) On a matching item, the number of
A) response options should equal the number of premises.
B) response options should be greater than the number of premises.
C) the number of premises should be greater than the number of response options.
D) the number of premises is immaterial, but the number of response options should be
substantially less.
Answer: B
14) Rearrangement and ranking items are special varieties of
A) matching items. B) multiple-choice items.
C) short-answer items. D) true-false items.
Answer: A
15) Recall is to recognition as __________ is to __________.
A) essay, multiple-choice B) matching, ranking
C) multiple-choice, true-false D) short answer, completion
Answer: A
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16) The type of test item preferred by most professional testers, because of its ability to
measure
both simple and complex skills, is the
A) completion item. B) essay item.
C) multiple-choice item. D) true-false item.
Answer: C
17) The type of objective item that is most effective in measuring comprehension,
application, and
other higher order objectives of instruction is the __________ item.
A) multiple-choice(completion) B) rearrangement
C) short answer D) true-false
Answer: A
18) "Which of the following terms does not belong with the others?" is the stem of a(n)
__________
item.
A) classification B) correlate C) oddity D) relational
Answer: C
19) The results of psychometric research have revealed that the quality of a cognitive test
is
improved when
A) examinees are urged to attempt each item before going on to the next item.
B) items are arranged in order from least to most difficult.
C) items of the same general type are grouped together.
D) more time is spent in item writing and less time in item arrangement.
Answer: D
20) In a typical 50-minute class period at the high-school or college level, an examinee
can be
expected to answer approximately __________ multiple-choice or __________ true-false
items
during the time limit.
A) 25, 50 B) 40, 75 C) 50, 100 D) 60, 100
Answer: C
21) The arrangement in which test items are placed in order of increasing difficulty but
are
alternated with other items of similar difficulty throughout the test is known as the
__________
format.
A) critical incidence B) homogeneous hierarchy
C) spiral omnibus D) tandem order
Answer: C
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22) Which of the following is a type of Likert scale?
A) visual analogue B) true-false
C) performance assessment D) hierarchical omnibus
Answer: A
23) Likert scales request examinees to make ratings using __________ choices.
A)5 B)7
C) 4 D) can be all of the above
Answer: A
24) Test scores are higher when items are grouped
(1) in order from easiest to most difficult, and
(2) according to the type of item
A) Both 1 and 2 are true B) Only 1 is true
C) Only 2 is true D) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
Answer: D
25) Which of the following can be evaluated more effectively by a written test than by an
oral test?
A) personal qualities B) cheating and bluffing
C) knowledge of facts D) in-depth understanding
Answer: C
26) Oral tests are used most often in grades
A) 1-3. B)4-6. C)7-9. D)10-12.
Answer: A
27) Separate answer sheets can be used at the __________ school level and beyond.
A) primary B) upper elementary
C) junior high D) senior high
Answer: B
Chap.3
10) Test wiseness is an aspect of test
A) planning. B) preparation. C) scoring. D) taking.
Answer: D
11) Which of the following statements concerning test taking is true?
A) Answers are more likely to be changed from right to wrong than vice versa.
B) Changing answers tends to raise scores more on less difficult than on more difficult
tests.
C) Examinees should always review their answers when time permits.
D) Girls tend to improve their test scores more than boys when they change answers.
Answer: C
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12) In scoring a classroom achievement test, it is recommended that
A) a correction for guessing be applied to multiple-choice, but not to true-false items.
B) essay answers containing the same information not be weighted according to the
length
of the answer.
C) multiple-choice items be weighted according to their length and degree of complexity.
D) multiple-choice items be weighted more than true-false and short-answer items.
Answer: B
13) Giving a person a high score or high rating on one question simply because he or she
scores
high on other questions is referred to as the
A) central tendency error. B) halo effect.
C) leniency error. D) response set.
Answer: B
14) Ebel's confidence weighting procedure was designed for __________ items.
A) completion B) matching
C) multiple-choice D) true-false
Answer: D
15) Computing the absolute values of the differences between the correct answers and the
examinee's answers is the first step in scoring a __________ item.
A) matching B) multiple-choice
C) rearrangement D) true-false
Answer: C
16) Which of the following recommendations concerning test scoring is incorrect?
A) Do not use correction for guessing formulas.
B) Give multiple-choice items having four alternatives twice as much weight as true-false
items.
C) Let examinees know the scoring system before the test begins.
D) Weight essay items according to the amount of space that examinees are instructed to
use
in their answers.
Answer: B
17) On a classroom test composed of a 50 multiple-choice items, the most appropriate
scoring
formula, where S = final score, R = number of items answered correctly, W = number of
items
answered incorrectly, and k = number of options per item, is
A) S = R. B)S = R -kW.
C) S = R -W. D)S = R -W/(k -1).
Answer: A
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18) Employing the standard correction for guessing formula in scoring a 50-item truefalse test,
an examinee who gets 30 items right and 20 items wrong will make a score of
A) 10. B) 20. C) 25. D) 30.
Answer: A
19) By sheer random guessing, on the average an examinee can expect to get
__________ of the
items on a true-false test right and __________ of the items on a four-option multiplechoice
test right.
A) 25%, 40% B) 50%, 25% C) 60%, 30% D) 75%, 20%
Answer: B
20) On a four-option, multiple-choice test scored by the recommended procedure for a
classroom
achievement test, James gets 24 items right, 24 items wrong, and leaves 2 items blank.
His
score on the test is
A)0. B)16. C)18. D)24.
Answer: D
21) Which of the following is not an advantage of computer-based adaptive tests?
A) Answers can be revised and changed if the examinee likes.
B) Time to complete them is less than for conventional tests.
C) They are less reliable and valid than conventional tests.
D) Adaptive tests are less expensive than conventional tests.
Chap. 4
23) The mean and standard deviation of z scores are __________ and __________.
A)0, 1 B)5,2 C)50,10 D)100,15 E)500,100
Answer: A
24) Percentile is to percentile rank as
A) decile is to quartile. B) percentage is to decile.
C) score is to percentage. D) score is to quartile.
Answer: C
25) The deviation IQs on the Wechsler Intelligence scales are
A) CEEB scores. B) percentile ranks.
C) standard scores. D) T scores.
Answer: C
26) The use of either age norms or grade norms assumes that the rate of increase in
achievement
or ability is
A) greater during the early years or grades.
B) greater during the later years or grades.
C) highly variable from year to year.
D) the same from year to year or grade to grade.
Answer: D
27) From which of the following are all the others derived?
A) AGCT scores B) CEEB scores C) T scores D) z scores
Answer: D
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28) Given that the mean WAIS IQ is 100 and the standard deviation is 15, if Johnny's
WAIS IQ is
125 what is his corresponding z score?
A) -1.67 B) 1.67 C) 2.00 D) 2.33
Answer: B
29) The problem of unequal score units is least troublesome in the case of __________
norms.
A) age B) grade C) percentile D) standard score
Answer: D
30) Approximately 68% of a normal distribution of test scores falls between a z score
range of
A) -.5 to +.5. B) -1.0 to +1.0. C) -1.5 to +1.5. D) -2.0 to +2.0.
Answer: B
31) Which of the following types of scale is an "open-ended" standard score scale?
A) CEEB B) stanine C) Wechsler IQ D) z
Answer: B
32) Wechsler deviation IQ is to Wechsler subtest scaled scores as __________ is to
__________.
A)15,2 B)15,10 C)100,3 D)100,10
Answer: D
Chap. 5
1) The extent to which a test measures anything consistently is a definition of
A) normality. B) objectivity. C) reliability. D) validity.
Answer: C
2) According to classical test theory, s2obs = s2tru + s2err, and r11 = s2tru/s2obs. If the
observed
variance of a test is 50 and the error variance is 10, what is the estimated reliability of the
test?
A) .20 B) .25 C) .45 D) .80
Answer: D
3) The definition of reliability as the ratio of true score variable to observed score
variance comes
from
A) dependability theory. B) classical test theory.
C) generalizability theory. D) item response theory.
Answer: B
4) If40%ofatest's observed variance is due to errors of measurement, then what is the
reliability
coefficient of the test?
A) .20 B) .40 C) .60 D) .80
Answer: C
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5) Which of the following types of reliability coefficients is a coefficient of equivalence?
A) coefficient alpha
B) Kuder-Richardson
C) parallel forms
D) split-half
E) test-retest
Answer: C
6) Which type of reliability takes into account error variance due to both different
samples of test
items and different conditions of administration?
A) internal consistency B) parallel forms
C) split-half D) test-retest
Answer: B
7) The standard deviation of a particular WISC-III subtest is 3, and its reliability
coefficient is .84.
What is the standard error of measurement of the subtest?
A) 1.2 B) 2.0 C) 2.5 D) 3.0
Answer: A
8) Assuming that the correlation between the odd-numbered and the even-numbered
items on a
test is .74, the corrected split-half reliability of the test (using the Spearman-Brown
prophecy
formula) is approximately
A) .80. B) .85. C) .90. D) .95.
Answer: B
9) The Kuder-Richardson method of determining reliability yields an average
__________
coefficient.
A) alternate tests B) parallel forms C) split-half D) test-retest
Answer: C
10) Which of the following statistics enables an examiner to establish confidence limits
for the true
scores of examinees having a given observed score on a test?
A) Kuder-Richardson predictive index B) Spearman-Brown prophecy coefficient
C) standard error of estimate D) standard error of measurement
Answer: D
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11) A test can usually be made more reliable by increasing the
A) correlation between test and criterion scores.
B) length of time for administering the test.
C) number of items on the test.
D) observed variance relative to true variance.
Answer: C
12) The most general formula for computing an internal consistency reliability coefficient
is the
A) Cronbach coefficient alpha formula. B) Kuder-Richardson formula 21.
C) Spearman-Brown prophecy formula. D) Wherry-Doolittle consistency formula.
Answer: A
13) Which of the following types of reliability does not belong in the same category as
the other
three?
A) coefficient alpha B) Kuder-Richardson
C) split-half D) test-retest
Answer: D
14) An interrater reliability coefficient is computed in determining the reliability of
__________ tests.
A) completion and matching B) essay and oral
C) multiple-choice and true-false D) objective and projective
Answer: B
15) The standard error of measurement is always zero whenever the reliability coefficient
equals
A) -1.00. B) .00. C) .50. D) 1.00.
Answer: D
16) Suppose that Jane makes a score of 60 on a test having a standard deviation of 5 and
a
reliability coefficient of .85. Between what two values can we be 95% confidant that
Jane's true
score on the test falls?
A) 59-61 B)57-63 C)56-64 D)55-65
Answer: C
17) Percentile bands for a true score on a test are computed by determining the percentile
rank
equivalents of scores that are one standard __________ on either side of the examinee's
obtained score.
A) deviation B) error of the difference
C) error of estimate D) error of measurement
Answer: D
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18) Increasing the true variance and the observed variance by the same amount will
increase
the test's
A) arithmetic mean. B) error variance.
C) reliability. D) validity.
Answer: C
19) The reliability of a certain test is .70. Approximately how much longer will the test
have to be
made, by adding more items of the same general type, to increase the reliability of the test
to .90?
A) two times as long B) three times as long
C) four times as long D) five times as long
Answer: C
20) Analysis of variance techniques are used in the reliability estimation procedure
known as
A) classical reliability theory. B) generalizability theory.
C) split-half theory. D) true score theory.
Answer: B
21) A test consisting of 25 items has a reliability of .80. Approximately how many items
of the
same type as the original ones must be added to the test in order to increase its reliability
to .95?
A)25 B)50 C)75 D)95
Answer: D
22) The extent to which a test measures what it was designed to measure is its
A) internal consistency. B) reliability.
C) standardization. D) validity.
Answer: D
23) If a test measures consistently but does not measure what it was designed to measure,
then the
test is
A) reliable but not valid. B) reliable but not standardized.
C) standardized but not valid. D) valid but not reliable.
Answer: A
24) What type of validity is of greatest important for an achievement test?
A) concurrent B) construct C) content D) predictive
Answer: C
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25) The type of validity that is used most often in selection programs in education and
industry, in
which criteria of success are specified, is
A) concurrent validity. B) construct validity.
C) content validity. D) predictive validity.
Answer: D
26) A confidence interval for an examinee's obtained score on a criterion measure can be
determined by using the standard error of
A) estimate. B) measurement. C) the mean. D) the sample.
Answer: A