1.What groups of teeth in a norm are absent in a temporal bite?
Chisels;
Canines;
Premolars *;
Molars;
Wisdom teeth.
2.How many teeth have the complete temporal bite is formed?
20*;
24;
8;
12;
32.
3.What color of temporal teeth children have in a norm?
With a rather yellow tint;
With a rose tint;
With bluish tint *;
With aт amber tint;
Transparent.
4.What the plane of location of roots of baby teeth is conditioned by?
By the large masticatory loading;
By short alveolar escapes of jaws;
By wide crown part of tooth;
By the location of rudiments of permanent teeth *;
Reason is absent.
5.Temporal teeth have at children:
A. By volume pulp chamber, wide roots canals *;
B. By volume pulp chamber, narrow root-canals;
C. Small pulp chamber, wide root-canals and apical opening;
D. Pulp a chamber is not formed;
E. Small pulp chamber, narrow root-canals and narrow apex opening.
6.Forming of root of temporal tooth takes place :
To eruption of tooth;
after eruption of tooth;
Begins to eruption of tooth and some time lasts after it *;
During eruption;
In 2 years after eruption.
7.Specify the term of completion of forming of root of a 51 tooth:
6 months;
1 year:
1,5-2 years;
3,5-4 years *;
5-6 years.
8. Forming of roots 55, 65, 75, 85 teeth are completed in a norm:
In age a child to 3 years;
In age a child to 4 years *;
In age a child to 5 years;
In age a child to 6 years;
In age a child to 7 years
9.On what stage of development a 55 tooth is at a child 5 years:
A. Forming of root;
B. Stabilizing*;
C. Resorption;
D. Sorption;
E. Remission.
10.The period of stabilizing of development of root of 64 teeth is on age of
child:
To 1 year;
1-2 years;
3-5 years *;
6-7 years;
8-9 years.
11.What type of resorption of roots of temporal teeth at chronic
inflammation of periodontium?
Even resorption of all roots;
Resorption mainly in an area of one root;
Resorption is mainly in the area of bifurcation of roots;
D.Pathological resorption *.
E. Resorption of inflammatory process.
12Specify the terms of resorption of roots of a 75 tooth:
1 year;
2-2,5 years;
4-5 years;
D.6-9 years *;
E.after 9 years.
13 Write down left overhead first temporal molar as a dental formula:
A.14;
24;
64*;
54;
84.
14.Write down right lower second temporal molar as a dental formula:
56;
65;
15;
45;
85 *.
15.The central chisel of maxilla on the right this:
A. 12 tooth;
B. 21 tooth;
C. 11 tooth *;
D. 22 tooth;
E. 18 tooth;
16. Central chisel of maxilla on the left this:
A. 12 tooth;
B. 11 tooth;
C. 22 tooth;
D. 21 tooth *;
E. 46 tooth ;
17. Lateral chisel of maxilla on the left this:
A. 11 tooth;
B. 21 tooth;
C. 22 tooth *;
D. 12 tooth;
E. 32 tooth;
18. The lateral chisel of maxilla on the right this:
A. 12 tooth *;
B. 11 tooth;
C. 21 tooth;
D. 22 teeth;
E. 28 tooth;
19. The canines of maxilla are no the right and on the left this:
A. 31 and 13 teeth;
B. 33 and 13 teeth;
C. 13 and 23 teeth *;
D. 53 and 63 teeth;
E. 14 and 34 teeth;
20. Premolars of maxilla no the right this:
A. 24 and 25 teeth
B. 14 and 15 teeth *
C. 54 and 64 teeth
D. 13 and 23 teeth
E. 46 and 47 teeth
21. Molars of lower jaw no the right this:
A. 36 and 37 teeth
B. 46 and 47 teeth *
C. 16 and 17 teeth
D. 26 and 27 teeth
E. 53 and 63 teeth
48 tooth this:
A. wisdom tooth of lower jaw no the right *
B. wisdom tooth of lower jaw on the left
C. wisdom tooth of maxilla on the left
D. the wisdom tooth of maxilla no the right
E. 22 teeth
47 and 37 teeth have:
A. 4 humps *
B. 5 humps
C. 3 humps
D. 2 humps
E. 6 humps
47 and 37 have the form of crown:
A. trapezium
B. rectangular *
C. rhombus
D. three-cornered
E. cone
36 and 46 teeth have:
A. 5 humps *
B. 4 humps
C. 3 humps
D. 2 humps
E. 6 humps
34 and 44 teeth have:
A. 5 humps
B. 3 humps
C. 4 humps
D. 2 humps *
E. 1 hump
14 and 24 teeth have:
A. 2 humps *
B. 3 humps
C. 4 humps
D. 5 hump
E. 1 hump
15 and 25 teeth have:
A. 4 humps
B. 3 humps
C. 2 humps *
D. 5 humps
E. 1 hump
16 and 26 teeth have:
A. 5 humps *
B. 4 humps
C. 3 humps
D. 2 humps
E. 1 hump
17 and 26 teeth have:
A. 5 humps
B. 4, sometimes 3 humps *
C. 2 humps
D. 5 humps
E. 1 hump
The names of humps are in a 14 tooth:
A. 3 cheeks and 2 tongues
B. front-cheek, back-cheek, front-palatal, back-palatal
anomalous of Korabelli
C. cheek and palatal and anomalous of Korabelli
D. cheek and palatal *
E. 2 cheeks and 2 tongues
The names of humps are in a 16 tooth:
A. front-cheek, back-cheek, front-palatal, back-palatal and
anomalous of Korabelli *
and
B. cheek and palatal and anomalous of Korabelli
C. front-cheek, back-cheek, front-palatal
D. 3 cheeks and 2 tongues
E. 2 cheeks and 2 tongues
The names of humps are in a 26 tooth:
A. 2 cheeks and 2 tongues
B. 3 cheeks and 2 tongues
C. cheek and palatal
D. front-cheek, back-cheek, front-palatal, back-palatal and anomalous of
Korabelli *
E. front-cheek, back-cheek, front-palatal
The names of humps are in a 37 tooth:
A. 2 cheeks, 2 tongues*
B. cheek and palatal
C. back-cheek, front-palatal, back-palatal
D. a front-cheek, anomalous of Korabelli
E. 3 cheeks and 2 tongues
The amount of roots is in a 17 tooth:
A. 3
B. 2
C. 3 can be 1*
D. 1
E. 4
The amount of roots is in a 37 tooth:
A. 2 can be 1*
B. 3 can be 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
The amount of roots is in a 46 tooth:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2*
E. 4
The amount of roots is in a 16 tooth:
A. 2
B. 3*
C.1
D.4
E. 4
The amount of roots is in a 15 tooth:
A. 1*
B. 2
C. 3
D. 2 can be 3
E. 4
The amount of roots is in a 25 tooth:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2*
D. 2 can be 3
E. 4
Amount of channels in 16 and 26 teeth:
A. 3 can be 4*
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
E. 4
Amount of channels in 17 and 27 teeth:
A. 3 can be 1*
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
E. 1
Amount of channels in 36 and 46 teeth:
A. 2
B. 3*
C.1
D.4
E. 3 can be 1
The names of channels are in molars of maxilla:
A. palatal and 2 cheeks (front and back) *
B. distal and two medial
C. cheek and palatal
D. front and back
E. 2 cheeks (front and back)
The names of channels are in molars of lower jaw:
A. cheek and palatal
B. palatal and 2 cheeks (front and back)
C. distal and two medial (cheek and tongue) *
D. front and back
E. 2 cheeks (front and back)
The names of channels are in a 14 tooth:
A. cheek and palatal *
B. palatal and 2 cheeks (front and back)
C. distal and two medial (cheek and tongue)
D. front and back
E. 2 cheeks
What teeth is a blind fossula in?
A. 31 and 41
B. 36 and 46
C. 11, 12, 21, 22
D. 12 and 22 *
E. 36, 46
Two channels can be in:
A. 14, 24, 15, 25 teeth *
B. 36, 46, 37, 47 teeth
C. molars of lower jaw
D. 12 and 22
E. 36, 46
Three channels can be:
A. in molars of maxilla
B. in all molars of maxilla and lower jaw *
C. in molars of lower jaw
D. 12 and 22
E. 36, 46
Does the sign of curvature of root consist in what?
A. the apexes of roots of front teeth deviate from a middle line in a lateral
side, and in teeth of masticatory group - in distal *
B. nearer to the medial surface of crown of the teeth more protuberant
C. more acute angles are formed by a medial surface and cutting edge or
masticatory surface
D. the apexes of roots of front teeth deviate from a middle line in a distal
side, and at the teeth of masticatory group - in lateral
E. more acute angles are formed by a medial surface and cutting edge or
masticatory surface
Does the sign of curvature of crown consist in what?
A. nearer to the medial surface of crown of the teeth more protuberant *
B. the apexes of roots of front teeth deviate from a middle line in a lateral
side, and at the teeth of masticatory group - in distal
C. more acute angles are formed by a medial surface and cutting edge or
masticatory surface
D. the apexes of roots of front teeth deviate from a middle line in a distal
side, and at the teeth of masticatory group - in lateral
E. more acute angles are formed by a lateral surface and cutting edge or
masticatory surface
Does the sign of corner of crown consist in what?
A. more acute angles are formed by a medial surface and cutting edge or
masticatory surface *
B. nearer to the medial surface of crown of the teeth more protuberant
C. the apexes of roots of front teeth deviate from a middle line in a lateral
side, and at the teeth of masticatory group - in distal
D. the apexes of roots of front teeth deviate from a middle line in a distal
side, and at the teeth of masticatory group - in lateral
E. more acute angles are formed by a lateral surface and cutting edge or
masticatory surface
The crowns of frontal group of teeth have surfaces:
A. vestibular, language, masticatory and contact (front and back)
B. vestibular, language, pin (medial and lateral)*
C. contact (front and back)
D. contact (medial and lateral)
E. vestibular, language, masticatory
Crown of premolars and molars have surfaces:
A. vestibular, language, masticatory and contact (front and back)*
B. vestibular, language, contact (medial and lateral)
C. contact (front and back)
D. contact (medial and lateral)
E. vestibular, language, masticatory
The root of what tooth is described? Cone-shaped form, front surface
something wider back, there are longitudinal furrows on lateral surfaces, the
sign of root is not expressed, but on the whole a root deviates in posterior
lateral direction. In 100% cases one channel.
A.11 and 21*
B.12 and 22
C.31 and 41
D.32 and 42
E. 14 and 24
The root of what tooth is described? A root is compressed in medial - lateral
direction, there are furrows on lateral surfaces, the sign of root is expressed.
There is one channel in 100% cases.
A. 32 and 42
B. 11 and 21
C. 31 and 41
D. 12 and 22*
E. 14 and 24
Vestibular surface is slightly protuberance, tongue is concave, but lateral
billows are not expressed, that is why a hump is almost absent, more narrow
crowns in all, the contact surfaces of crowns are located almost apeak,
channels are narrow, in 70% is one channel, in 30% - 2 channels. What is it
a tooth?
A.31 and of 41*
B.21 and 11
C.32 and 42
D.22 and 12
E. 14 and 24
Vestibular and tongue surfaces meet forming a cutting edge, a lateral surface
is located not straightly, inclined in a lateral side. In 56% is one channel, in
44% - two channels. What is it a tooth?
A. 11 and 21
B. 32 and 42*
C.12 and 22
D. 31 and 11
E. 14 and 24
What do the canines of overhead and lower jaws differ by?
A. the canines of lower jaw have a less size, the tongue surface is slightly
concave, 30% cases - 3 channels
B. by the form of crown, presence of blind fossula
C. by the amount of roots and humps
D. the canines of lower jaw have a less size, a tongue surface is slightly
concave, 30% cases - 2 channels (labial and tongue)*
E. the canines of lower jaw have a less size, a tongue surface is slightly
concave, 50% cases - 2 channels (labial and tongue)
Form of crown rectangular, cheek and tongue surfaces are protuberant, two
humps, on a masticatory surface (cheek and tongue), cheek hump is bigger,
a root is compressed in front-back direction, on lateral surfaces are furrows,
a root is divided into two, in 85% - 2 channels, in 6% - 3, in a 9% - 1
channel. What is it a tooth?
A. 35 and 45
B. 15 and 25
C. 34 and 44
D. 14 and 24*
E. 12 and 22
Form of crown rectangular, cheek and tongue surfaces are protuberant, on a
masticatory surface two humps: cheek and tongue, identical size. Root one,
cone-shaped, very rarely in the region of apex divides. A channel can be 1
(75%) or 2 (24%), or 3 (1%). What is it a tooth?
A.15 and 25*
B.14 and 24
C.34 and 44
D.35 and 45
E. 12 and 22
Crown of the rounded form, on a masticatory surface 2 humps: cheek and
tongue (small), they are connected by enamel billows. All surfaces of tooth
are protuberant, root of oval form, has furrows on front and back surfaces.
Quite often a crown and root is located under a corner to each other. In 74%
is one channel, in 26% - 2 channels. What is it a tooth?
A. 14 and 24
B. 34 and 44*
C.35 and 45
D.15 and 25
E. 12 and 22
Crown of the rounded form, on a masticatory surface 2 humps: cheek and
palatal, identical size, sometimes a tongue hump is divided on 2. All
surfaces are protuberant, a root is cone-shaped, in 14% - 2 channels, in 86%
is one channel. What is it a tooth?
A. 14 and 24
B.34 and 44
C. 35 and 45*
D.15 and 25
E. 12 and 22
Basic structural genesis of enamel this:
A. enamel bunches
B. dentine of tube
C. enamel prisms *
D. enamel spindle
E. enamel lymph
What bars of Gunter – Shreger?
A. enamel prisms go S – likeness meandering radially, if to do the
microsection of enamel, part of prisms intersects longitudinally, part is
transversal (dark and light bars)*
B. their appearance is bound to the recurrence by mineralization of enamel
in the process of its forming
C. collogens fibres in a dentine, located radially
D. collogens fibres in a dentine, located tangentially
E. collogens fibres in a dentine, located tangentially and radially
What lines of Retsius?
A. their appearance is bound to the recurrence by mineralization of enamel
in the process of her forming *
B. enamel prisms go S – likeness, meandering radially, if to do the
microsection of enamel, part of prisms intersects longitudinally, part –
transversal (dark and light bars)
C. collogens fibres in a dentine, located radially
D. collogens fibres in a dentine, located tangentially
E. collogens fibres in a dentine, located tangentially and radially
Composition of enamel:
A. 68% inorganics and 32% organic
B.70%- inorganic, 20% is organic, 10% is water
C. 96-97% mineral salts, 3-4% are organic matters *
D. 60% inorganics and 40% organic
E. 80%- inorganic, 10% is organic, 10% is water
What «enamel prism»:
A. the crystals of hydroxide apatites oriented strictly, fluorapatites *
B. crystals of apatites of different orientation
C. densest fabric of organism
D. crystals of hydroxide apatites, which provide durability of enamel
E. crystals of hydroxide apatites, which provide the trophic function of
enamel
What interprismatic matter of enamel?
A. crystals of apatites of different orientations *
B. strictly oriented crystals of hydroxide apatites, fluorapatites, etc.
C. densest fabric of organism
D. crystals of hydroxide apatites, which provide durability of enamel
E. crystals of hydroxide apatites, which provide the trophic function of
enamel
Is it there the organic matter in enamel?
A. yes, as the thickest fibrils
B. no
C. yes, as hydroxide apatites
D. yes, as fluorapatites
E. yes, as thinnest fibrils *
What organic educations are in enamel?
A. enamel liquid
B. enamel plates, bunches and spindles (sprouts of odontoblasts)*
C. albumens, fats, carbonhydratess
D. crystals of hydroxide apatites
E. crystals of fluorapatites
Are there micro spices in enamel?
A. yes, in the tied-up state and in the free consisting of micro spices of
enamel *
B. no, enamel the densest fabric of organism
C. yes, as hydroxide apatites
D. yes, as fluorapatites
E. yes, as the thinnest fibrils
It is, and which volume micro spices in an enamel?
A. yes, a volume is 0,2-0,4% from the volume of enamel
B. no, enamel the densest fabric of organism
C. yes, a volume is 0,6-0,8% from the volume of enamel
D. yes, a volume is 0,1-0,2% from the volume of enamel *
E. yes, a volume is 0,4-0,6% from the volume of enamel
Whether necessary enamel liquid?
A. no, she loosens an enamel
B. yes, she serves as the vection of molecules and ions *
C. yes, she serves for strengthening of enamel
D. yes, she provides the trophism of enamel
E. no, she serves as the vection of carious infection
What is enamel without prisms?
A. the superficial layer of enamel, in which the crystals of apatites are
densely located athwart to the surface, can meet in baby teeth, fissures,
regions of necks at adults
B. crystals of apatites of different orientation
C. the crystals of hydroxide apatites are oriented strictly, fluorapatites, etc.
D. Such determination does not exist
E. the superficial layer of enamel, in which the crystals of apatites are
densely located parallel to the surface, can meet in baby teeth, fissures,
regions of necks in adults *
Composition of dentine:
A. 68% inorganics and 32% organic
B. 96-97% mineral salts, 3-4% are organic matters
C. 70% is inorganic, 20% are organic, 10% - water *
D. 50% is inorganic, 30% are organic, 20% is water
E. 60% is inorganic, 30% are organic, 10% is water
Fibres of Korff this:
A. collogens fibres are in a dentine, trapezoidal form
B. collogens fibres in a dentine, located tangentially
C. their appearance is bound to the recurrence by mineralization of enamel
in the process of its forming
D. enamel prisms go S – shaped meandering radially, if to do the
microsection of enamel, part of prisms intersects longitudinally, part –
transversal (dark and light bars)
E. collogens fibres in a dentine, located radially *
Fibres of Ebner this:
A. collogens fibres in a dentine, located tangentially *
B. collogens fibres in a dentine, located radially
C. their appearance is bound to the recurrence by mineralization of enamel
in the process of its forming
D. enamel prisms go S – shaped meandering radially, if to do the
microsection of enamel, part of prisms intersects longitudinally, part –
transversal (dark and light bars)
E. collogens fibres are in a dentine, trapezoidal form
Cloak dentine this:
A. peripheral part of dentine *
B. part of dentine, adjoining to pulp
C. less all the part of dentine, located between a cloak dentine and
predentine, mineralized, the inorganic is located in this area as spherical
drops
D. enamel prisms go S – shaped meandering radially, if to do the
microsection of enamel, part of prisms intersects longitudinally, part –
transversal (dark and light bars)
E. collogens fibres are in a dentine, trapezoidal form
Predentine or near pulp dentine this:
A. peripheral part of dentine
B. part of dentine, adjoining to pulp *
C. part of dentine mineralized less, located between a cloak dentine and
predentine, the inorganic is located in this area as spherical drops
D. enamel prisms go S – shaped meandering radially, if to do the
microsection of enamel, part of prisms intersects longitudinally, part –
transversal (dark and light bars)
E. collogens fibres are in a dentine, trapezoidal form
Interglobular dentine this:
A. less all the part of dentine, located between a cloak dentine and
predentine, mineralized, the inorganic is bred in this area as spherical drops
*
B. peripheral part of dentine
C. part of dentine, adjoining to mash
D. enamel prisms go S – shaped meandering radially, if to do the
microsection of enamel, part of prisms intersects longitudinally, part –
transversal (dark and light bars)
E. collogens fibres are in a dentine, trapezoidal form
Is there a liquid in a dentine?
A. in sclerosal, transparent, second, reparative - no
B. no
C. yes, she delivers the organic and inorganic matters which take part in the
update of dentine *
D. yes, she provides the trophism of dentine
E. no, she serves as the vection of carious infection
Primary dentine this:
A. dentine which arises up in the process of development of tooth *
B. dentine which appears during life of man
C. dentine which appears in investigation of irritation as protective barrier
D. dentine which appears chemical irritants
E. dentine which appears mechanical irritants
Second dentine this:
A. dentine which appears in motion of life of man *
B. dentine which arises up in the process of development of tooth
C. dentine which appears as a result of irritation as protective barrier
D. dentine which appears chemical irritants
E. dentine which appears mechanical irritants
Tertiary dentine this:
A. dentine which appears as a result of irritation as protective barrier *
B. dentine which arises up in the process of development of tooth
C. dentine which appears during life of man
D. dentine which appears chemical irritants
E. dentine which appears mechanical irritants
Does the structure of the second and tertiary dentine primary, differ?
A. no
B. yes, in a tertiary dentine tubules are windings, located as compared to a
primary and second dentine radially, and tubules are absent sometimes
C. yes, in a primary dentine tubules oriented strictly, radially located; in the
second and tertiary – chaotically
D. yes, in a tertiary dentine tubules are windings, located as compared to a
primary and second dentine chaotically, and sometimes tubules are absence
*
E. yes, in a primary dentine tubules oriented strictly, chaotically located; in
the second and tertiary – radially
Cement consists of:
A. 68% inorganics and 32% organic *
B. 96-97% mineral salts, 3-4% are organic matters
C. 70% is inorganic, 20% is organic, 10% is water
D. 55% inorganics and 45% organic
E. 60% is inorganic, 30% is organic, 10% is water
Cement of tooth is distinguished:
A. cellular (in the region of apex of root and bifurcation) and cell-free*
B. primary, second and tertiary
C. primary and reparative
D. primary (in the region of apex of root and bifurcation) and second
E. second (in the region of apex of root and bifurcation) and tertiary
Cement consists of:
A. strictly oriented crystals of hydroxide of apatites, fluorapatites, etc.
B. basic matter of cement, calcium saturated with salts, pierced collogens
fibers *
C. crystals of apatites of different orientation
D. 50% is inorganic, 30% is organic, 20% is water
E. 60% is inorganic, 30% is organic, 10% is water
At mastication, due to an enamel, the teeth of man maintain pressure:
A. to 10 kg
B. to 190 kg
C. to 130 kg *
D. to 30 kg
E. to 50 kg
Penetrable enamel?
A. yes, an enamel liquid carries molecules and ions, the matters act both
from mash and from saliva (basic way)*
B. no, it is the densest fabric of organism
C. yes, in an enamel the ions of calcium can act from a pulp
D. yes, in an enamel the ions of calcium can act from periodontium
E. not because it is the way of distribution of infection
What ripening of enamel?
A. at the children that borned prematurely the enamel concludes forming
after eruption of teeth
B. the receipt of mineral salts is from pulp for multiplying density of enamel
C. entering enamel after eruption of teeth of calcium, phosphorus, fluorine,
*
D. receipt of mineral salts from the periodontium for multiplying density of
enamel
E. All answers are faithful
Form of cavity of tooth:
A. repeats the form of crown of tooth *
B rectangular
C. in every tooth the form
D. trapezoidal
E. fusiform
The pulp consists of:
A. basic matter (liquid colloid system)
B. connecting fabric *
C. mucoprotein, glycoprotein, mucopolysaccharides
D. 55% inorganics and 45% organic
E. 60% is inorganic, 30% is organic, 10% is water
Are there the differences of connecting fabric of pulp from ordinary
connecting fabric?
A. in pulp is present elastic fibres, and there are the specialized cells
(odontoblasts)
B. no
C. there is the specialized cells – osteoclasts which are only in pulp
D. elastic fibres are absent in pulp, and there are the specialized cells
(odontoblasts)*
E. there is the specialized cells – osteoclasts which are only in pulp
Distinguish the layers of pulp:
A. central, poor by cellular elements and root
B. odontoblasts and preodontoblasts
C. peripheral, poor by cellular elements and central *
D. near pulp and prepulp
E. in pulp exist only one layer of odontoblasts
Periodontium consists of:
A. connecting fabric (basic matter, cellular elements and collogens fibres)*
B. collogens fibres (transseptal free fibres of gums, slanting, alveolar,
circulars)
C. collogens, oxyphilous, argyrophile fibers
D. peripheral, poor by cellular elements and glowed central
E. elastic fibres, and there are the specialized cages (odontoblasts)
Functions to periodontium:
A. support – retaining, division and adjusting of pressure, plastic, trophic,
sensory, protective, participating in eruption, growth and change of teeth *
B. support – retaining, plastic, trophic
C. support – retaining, trophic
D. plastic, trophic, protective
E. helps at the function of mastication and articulation
Functions of pulp:
A. support – retaining, plastic, trophic
B. support – retaining, division and adjusting of pressure, plastic, trophic,
sensory, protective, participating in eruption, growth and change of teeth
C. plastic, trophic, protective *
D. support – retaining, trophic
E. helps at the function of mastication and articulation
Denticle this:
A. areas of irregular dentine
B. dentinoid educations are in pulp of teeth *
C. dentine which appears as a result of defects of hard fabrics of teeth from
the side of cavity of tooth
D. crystals of hydroxide apatites
E. crystals of fluorapatites
How many areas select at an initial caries (stage of white spot)?
A. 1;
B. 2;
C. 3;
D. 4;
E.* 5
2. In the form of what figure in enamel does the caries develop depthfirst?
A. rhombus;
B. circle;
C.* a triangle is with a top in the point of origin;
D. square;
E. parallelepiped
3. On principle of Black prophylactic expansion of carious cavity – this
expansion to:
A.* to the immune areas;
B. to healthy fabrics;
C. to soft fabrics;
D. to the gingival edge;
E. all is transferred.
4. The basic method of treatment of superficial caries is:
A. an applique is the fluorine of varnish;
B.* preparing and imposition of stopping;
C. imposition of stopping;
D. an applique is the fluorine of varnish and imposition of stopping;
E. all is transferred.
5. At opening of carious cavity, the size of head of the drill must be:
A. greater;
B. identical;
C. smaller;
D.* identical or more small;
E. all is transferred.
6. The basic method of treatment of middle caries is:
A. an applique is the fluorine of varnish;
B.* preparing and imposition of stopping;
C. imposition of stopping;
D. an applique is the fluorine of varnish and imposition of stopping;
E. all is transferred.
The carious cavities of a 5 class more frequent arise up on:
A. to the masticatory surface;
B. to the aproximal – medial surface;
C.* to the vestibular surface near a neck;
D. to the aproximal – distal surface;
I) all transferred.
8. In the cavities of a 5 class during preparing of cavity more frequent in all
is formed in a kind:
A.* oval;
B. swallow tail;
C. rhombus;
D. triangle;
E. crosswise.
9. Wheel shaped the drill is mainly used for:
A. polishing of stopping;
B. necrotomy;
C. opening of carious cavity;
D. expansion of carious cavity;
E. *for formation of retention points.
10. An initial caries clinically concernes as a spot:
A. white;
B. light – yellow;
C. yellow;
D. light – brown;
E.* all transferred.
11. For the vital painting of caries in the initial stage is used:
A. ethyl spirit 96%;
B. * methylene turn blue 2%;
C. diamond green;
D. peroxide of hydrogen;
E. all is transferred.
12. An additional ground promotes:
A.* to the best fixing of stopping;
B. to the best polishing of stopping;
C. to the best antiseptic treatment of cavity;
D. facilitates bringing of material in a cavity;
E. all is transferred.
13. To the cavities of the III class cavities belong in:
A.* chisels and canines;
B. molars and premolars;
C. canines;
D. chisels;
E. molars.
14. To the cavities of 4 classes cavities belong in:
A. molars of maxilla;
B. canines;
C.* chisels and canines;
D. chisels and molars
E. trudges molars of mandibula.
15. The first area is at the pathoanatomy of caries:
A. unchanging dentine;
B. softened dentine;
C. transparent dentine;
D.* area of disintegration;
E. appoint dentine.
16. Superficial caries is a defect is localized in scopes:
A.* enamels;
B. dentino –enamel connection;
C. deep layers of dentine;
D. reaches to the cavity of tooth;
E. there is no right answer.
17. For cleaning of tooth before the congratulatory painting use:
A. iodine;
B.* peroxide of hydrogen;
C. beeswax;
D. diamond green;
E. all is transferred.
18. An initial caries clinically appears as spot:
A. green;
B. orange;
C. * light brown;
D. dark blue;
E. rose.
19. To the I class after Black cavities belong in:
A.* molars, premolars, chisels;
B. chisels and canines;
C. canines and molars;
D. premolars, chisels;
E. molars.
20. A necrotomy is conducted:
A. by a mirror;
B. by pincers;
C. by a plugger;
D.* by an excavator;
E. there is no right answer.
21. For opening of carious cavity mainly use the drill:
A.* fissural, spherical;
B. back cone;
C. cone;
D. wheel shaped;
E. there is no faithful answer.
22. To V of class for Black cavities belong located:
A. to the masticatory surface;
B. to the aproximal – medial surface;
C. * to the vestibular surface near a neck;
D. to the aproximal – distal surface;
E. all transferred.
23. Localization of carious process at fissures of premolars and molars
belongs to:
A. * the I class;
B. the II class;
C. the III class;
D. the IV class;
E. the V class.
24. At preparing of enamel it is better to use the drills:
À) steel;
B. hard-alloy;
C. * diamond;
D. pobidit;
E. carborundum pebbles.
25. Classification of carious cavities for Black includes:
À) one class;
B. two classes;
C. three classes;
D. four classes;
E. * five classes.
26. Modern classification of cariuos cavities includes:
À) 4 classes;
B. 5 classes;
C.* 6 classes;
D. 7 classes;
E. 8 classes.
27. Atypical carious cavity this:
A.* difficult carious cavity;
B. simple carious cavity;
C. deep carious cavity;
D. superficial carious cavity;
E. There is no faithful answer.
28. What from the drills are used in therapeutic stomatology:
A.* Spherical;
B. *Wheel shaped;
C. * Fissural;
D. *Cone;
E. * Back cone.
29. In a carious cavity distinguish:
A.* Walls;
B.* Angles;
C.* Bottom;
D.* Edges;
E. There is no faithful answer.
30. Cavity which is in a near neck area belongs to:
À) There is no faithful answer;
B. To the II class for Black;
C. To the III class for Black;
D. IV of class for Black;
E. * V of class for Black.
31. What from transferred does not behave to clinic – anatomic
classification of caries of tooth:
A. Stage of spot;
B. Middle caries;
C.* The III class for Black;
D. Deep caries;
E. * V of class for Black.
32. What from transferred behaves to clinic – anatomic (after the depth of
defeat) classification of caries of tooth:
A.* Stage of spot;
B. * Middle caries;
C. The III class for Black;
D. * Deep caries;
E. V of class for Black.
33. At a superficial caries a defect is localized in scopes:
A.* Enamel;
B. Near pulp dentine;
C. Deep layers of dentine;
D. In the cavity of tooth;
E. There is no faithful answer.
34. At a middle caries a defect is localized in scopes:
A. Enamel;
B. *superficial dentine;
C. Deep layers of dentine;
D. In the cavity of tooth;
E. There is no faithful answer.
35. At a deep caries a defect is localized in scopes:
A. Enamel;
B. Near pulp dentine;
C. *Deep layers of dentine;
D. In the cavity of tooth;
E. There is no faithful answer.
36. The first area is at an initial caries:
A. Internal;
B. Intermediate;
C. Central ;
D. Subsuperficial;
E. * Superficial.
37. The second area is at an initial caries:
A. Internal;
B. Intermediate;
C. Central;
D. *Subsuperficial;
E. Superficial.
38. The third area is at an initial caries:
A. Internal;
B. Intermediate;
C. *Central;
D. Subsuperficial;
E. Superficial.
39. A fourth area is at an initial caries:
A. Internal;
B.* Intermediate;
C. Central;
D. Subsuperficial;
E. Superficial.
40. A fifth area is at an initial caries:
A.* Internal;
B. Intermediate;
C. Central;
D. Subsuperficial;
E. Superficial.
41. For information of micro radiography there are areas in white carious
spot:
A.* Demineralization.
B. * Dismineralization.
C. * Remineralization.
D. Desquamations.
E. There is no faithful answer.
42. By what drills it is better to prepare a necrotizing dentine:
A. Diamond spherical.
B. Diamond fissural.
C. Diamond spherical.
D. Hard-alloy wheel sheped.
E. * Hard-alloy spherical.
43. In the form of what figure in a dentine does the caries develop
depthfirst?
A. rhombus;
B. circle;
C.* triangle with a top directed to pulp;
D. square;
E. parallelepiped;
44. Spherical drill it is possible to use for :
A.* Opening of carious cavity.
B. *Necrotomy.
C. *Sawing of the old stopping.
D. *Expansion mouth of root-canals.
E. *Creation in fabrics of teeth of strong points.
45.The first stage of preparing of carious cavities is from resulted:
A. *Opening and expansion of cavity.
B. Necrotomy.
C. Forming of cavity.
D. Treatment of edges of cavity.
E. There is no faithful answer.
46. The second stage of preparing of carious cavities is from resulted:
A. Opening and expansion of cavity.
B.* Necrotomy.
C. Forming of cavity.
D. Treatment of edges of cavity.
E. There is no faithful answer.
47. The third stage of preparing of carious cavities is from resulted:
A. Opening and expansion of cavity.
B. Necrotomy.
C. *Forming of cavity.
D. Treatment of edges of cavity.
E. There is no faithful answer.
48. The fourth stage of preparing of carious cavities is from resulted:
A. Opening and expansion of cavity.
B. Necrotomy.
C. Forming of cavity.
D. *Treatment of edges of cavity.
E. There is no faithful answer.
49. Opening of carious cavity is:
A.* The I stage of preparing of carious cavities.
B. The II stage of preparing of carious cavities.
C. The stage III of preparing of carious cavities.
D. The IV stage of preparing of carious cavities.
E. The V stage of preparing of carious cavities.
50.* Painless preparing is achieved to applications:
A. * Sharp drills.
B. * By high-rate of drills rotation.
C. * By cooling of the drills.
D. * By absence of vibration.
E. * By irregular carving of processing fabrics.
51. The carious process at the defeat of tooth rather in all spreads in:
A. Superficial layers of enamel.
B. Middle layers of enamel.
C. Internal layers of enamel.
D.* Dentine.
E. There is no faithful answer.
52. For carvings of overhanging enamel at opening of carious cavity use
more frequent in all:
A.* Spherical diamond drills.
B. Spherical hard-alloy drills.
C. * Fissured diamond drills.
D. Fissured the hard-alloy drills.
E. Wheel shaped the hard-alloy drills.
53. What is it necrotomy:
A. It is carving of overhanging enamel.
B.* It is deleting from the carious cavity of product of disintegration of the
softened dentine.
C. Forming of carious cavity.
D. Treatment of edges of cavity.
E. There is no faithful answer.
54. At preparing of cavities of I for Black prepare cavities in the form of:
A.* Rectangle.
B. *Square.
C. *Rhombus.
D.* Cruciform form.
E. *Oval form.
55. The carious cavity, with is located on the masticatory surface of
tooth in the area of fissures, is named:
A. Basic.
B. Unbasic.
C. *Central.
D. Lateral.
E. By a line.
56. Nocrotomy it follows to begin at a deep caries:
A. By the spherical drills for a turbine tip.
B. By the cone drills for a turbine tip.
C. By the spherical drills for an electric tip.
D. *By a sharp excavator.
E. By the cone drills for an electric tip.
57. On the masticatory surface of sixth tooth in the area of fissure there is
two cavities are close located. What does it follow to form the cavity of I
class?
A. * At the preparing they are united in one cavity of half oval form.
B. Prepare the separate cavities of oval form.
C. * At the preparing they are united in one cavity of three-cornered form.
D. Prepare the separate cavities of half oval form.
E. Prepare the separate cavities of round form.
58. On the masticatory surface of molar there are two little carious
cavities parted thick rollers of healthy enamel. How to prepare carious
cavities?
A. At the preparing they are united in one cavity of half oval form.
B.* Prepare the separate cavities of oval form.
C. At the preparing they are united in one cavity of three-cornered form.
D. At the preparing they are united in one cavity of round form.
E. * Prepare the separate cavities of round form.
59. Carious cavities are located on the masticatory and cheek surfaces of
molar, higher equator of crown and have a party strong wall. What tactic of
forming of carious cavity?
A. At the preparing are united in one cavity of half oval form.
B.* Prepare the separate cavities of oval form.
C. At the preparing they are united in one cavity of three-cornered form.
D. At the preparing they are united in one cavity of round form.
E. * Prepare the separate cavities of round form.
60. A carious cavity is located on the aproximal – lateral surface of canine
and a fourth tooth is not. From what side it follows to prepare a carious
cavity.
A. To prepare carious cavity from a palatal side.
B. * To prepare a carious cavity from that side where no neighbouring tooth
is, creating the cavity of three-cornered form.
C. To prepare a carious cavity from a vestibular side.
D. There is no faithful answer.
E. * To prepare a carious cavity from that side where no neighbouring
tooth is, creating the cavity of oval form.
61. The prophylactic expansion of carious cavity to the immune areas
offered by:
A. Berche.
B. * Black.
C. Richmond.
D. Jegorov.
E. Katc.
63. The basic method of treatment of deep caries is:
A. An applique of the fluorine varnish.
B. * Preparing and imposition of stopping.
C. Imposition of stopping.
D. An applique of the fluorine varnish and imposition of stopping.
E. All is transferred.
64. Carious cavities which arise up on a vestibular surface near the neck of
teeth belong to:
A. Cavities of I class.
B. Cavities of II class.
C. Cavities of third class.
D. Cavities of fourth class.
E. *Cavities of fifth class.
65. For formation of retention points is mainly used:
A. Olive diamond drill.
B. Olive hard-alloy drill.
C. Spherical diamond drill.
D. Spherical hard-alloy drill.
E. * Wheel drill.
66. Metylene turn blue 2% is used for:
A. * For vital painting of caries in the initial stage.
B. For treatment of superficial caries.
C. For treatment of middle caries.
D. For treatment of deep caries.
E. All is transferred.
67. If in chisels there is a carious cavity on an aproximal surface without the
damage of cutting edge, it behaves to the cavities:
A. * To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
68. If in chisels there is a carious cavity on an aproximal surface from the
damage of cutting edge, it behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. * To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
69. If in canine there is a carious cavity on an aproximal surface without the
damage of cutting edge, it behaves to the cavities:
A. * To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
70. If in chisels there is a carious cavity on an aproximal surface from the
damage of cutting edge, it behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. * To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
71. If the carious cavity is on the masticatory surface of molars, ot behaves
to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. * To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
72. If the carious cavity is on the masticatory surface of premolars, it
behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. * To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
73. If the carious cavity is on the aproximal surface of molars, it behaves to
the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. * To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
74. If the carious cavity is on the aproximal surface of premolars, it behaves
to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. * To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
75. If the carious cavity is on-the-spot of molars in the region of neck of
tooth from a vestibular side, it behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. * To the Black’s V class.
76. If the carious cavity is on-the-spot of premolars in the region of neck of
tooth from a vestibular side, it behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. * To the Black’s V class.
77. If the carious cavity is on-the-spot of canines in the region of neck of
tooth from a vestibular side, it behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. * To the Black’s V class.
78. If the carious cavity is on-the-spot chisels in the region of neck of tooth
from a vestibular side, it behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. * To the Black’s V class.
79. If the carious cavity is on the tongue surface of chisels in natural
fissures, it behaves to the cavities:
A. To the Black’s III class.
B. To the Black’s II class.
C. * To the Black’s I class.
D. To the Black’s IV class.
E. To the Black’s V class.
80. The area of disintegration it is:
A.* The first area at the pathoanatomy of caries.
B. The second area at the pathoanatomy of caries.
C. The third area at the pathoanatomy of caries.
D. The fourth area at the pathoanatomy of caries.
E. By a fifth area at the pathoanatomy of caries.
81. If a defect is localized within the limits of enamel than it is taken to:
A. Middle caries.
B. * Superficial caries.
C. Deep caries.
D. Black’s I class.
E. There is no right answer.
82. Five classes of carious cavities are included by classification:
À. Of Kennedi.
B. Of Black.
C. Modern classification.
D. Of Borovskyj,
E. Of Katc.
83. If the defect is localized within the limits of superficial dentine than it is
taken to:
A.* Middle caries.
B. Superficial caries.
C. Deep caries.
D. Black’s I class.
E. There is no right answer.
84. If the defect is localized within the limits of deep layers of dentine than
it is taken to:
A. Middle caries.
B. Superficial caries.
C. * Deep caries.
D. Black’s I class.
E. There is no right answer.
85. Superficial area it is:
A. * First area at an initial caries.
B. Second area at an initial caries.
C. Third area at an initial caries.
D. Fourth area at an initial caries.
E. Fifth area at an initial caries.
86. Subsuperficial area it is:
A. First area at an initial caries.
B. * Second area at an initial caries.
C. Third area at an initial caries.
D. Fourth area at an initial caries.
E. Fifth area at an initial caries.
87. Central area is this:
A. First area at an initial caries.
B. Second area at an initial caries.
C. * Third area at an initial caries.
D. Fourth area at an initial caries.
E. Fifth area at an initial caries.
88. Intermediate area is this:
A. First area at an initial caries.
B. Second area at an initial caries.
C. Third area at an initial caries.
D. * Fourth area at an initial caries.
E. Fifth area at an initial caries.
89. Internal area is this:
A. First area at an initial caries.
B. Second area at an initial caries.
C. Third area at an initial caries.
D. Fourth area at an initial caries.
E. * Fifth area at an initial caries.
90. Most informing method at the study of caries in the stage of spot from
transferred is:
A. * Polarization microscopy.
B. Biopsy.
C. Intracanal sciagraphy.
D. Panoramic sciagraphy.
E. There is no faithful answer.
91. For efficiency of stopping, corner of „ steps ” between basic and
additional cavities (Black’s II class) must be:
A. 60 degrees.
B. 35 degrees.
C. 45 degrees.
D. * 90 degrees.
E. 120 degrees.
92. At defeat by the caries simultaneously front and back surfaces of
premolars (Black’s II class) additional ground on a masticatory surface:
A. Create separately.
B. Create general.
C. Does not create.
D. No faithful answer.
E. All answers are faithful.
93. At the defeat by the caries simultaneously front and back surfaces of
molars (Black’s II class) additional ground on a masticatory surface:
A. Create separately.
B.* Create general.
C. Does not create.
D. No faithful answer.
E. All answers are faithful.
94. If a gingival papilla grew in a carious cavity than:
A. On it take no notice.
B. Stopping is imposed on a papilla.
C. * Delete a papilla by a coagulator.
D. No faithful answer.
E. All answers are faithful.
95. Slant of corner of enamel under the corner of 45 degrees is named:
A. Splising.
B.* Falc.
C. Revers.
D. Processing.
E. There is no faithful answer.
96. At preparing of teeth such complications are possible:
A. * Perforation of wall of carious cavity.
B. * Damage by the drill of contiguous teeth.
C. *Damage of gingival papilla.
D. * Perforation of bottom of carious cavity.
E. There is no faithful answer.
97. A carious cavity is located on the aproximal – lateral surface of the
second chisel, and a canine is not. From what side it follows to prepare a
carious cavity?
A. To prepare the carious cavity from a palatal side.
B. * To prepare the carious cavity from that side where no neighbouring
tooth is, creating the cavity of three-cornered form.
C. To prepare a carious cavity from a vestibular side.
D. There is no faithful answer.
E. * To prepare the carious cavity from that side where no neighbouring
tooth is, creating the cavity of oval form.
98. At the deep carious cavity of the Black’s III class, additional
ground is formed better:
A. From a vestibular side.
B. * From an oral side.
C. To show out an additional ground on a cutting edge.
D. To show out an additional ground on the vestibular side of neighbouring
tooth.
E. To show out an additional ground on the oral side of neighbouring
tooth.
99. The carious cavity located in the area of humps of a 7 tooth. To which
type does this cavity belong?
A. * Atypical.
B. I class.
C. To the III class.
D. To the V class.
E. To the II class.
100. Atypical carious cavity is located in:
A. Fissures of molars.
B. Fissures of premolars.
C. Blind fossulas of chisels.
D. Blind fossulas of molars.
E. * There is no faithful answer.
1. To what stopping materials does belong „Evicrol" (Evicrol)?
A. compos; *
B. polymers;
C. metallic materials;
D. cements;
E. not a single variant.
2. What percentage of silver is in a silver amalgam?
A. 50%;
B. 65%; *
C. 72%;
D. 55%;
E. 30%
3.
What from transferred belongs to metallic stopping materials?
A. Visphat;
B. Karbodent;
C. Silidont;
D. * Galodent – M
E. Acryloxide
4.
On bases what is Galodent – M created?
A. * to gallium;
B. to the mercury;
C. to the aluminium;
D. silver;
E. to the copper.
5.
The representatives of zinc – phosphate cements are:
A. "Beladent" and " Silidont ";
B. "Silicyn" and "Fritex";
C. * "Unicem", phosphate-cement;
D. „Evicrol”
E. „Heliomolar”
6.
To positive properties of glass ionomer cement belongs:
A. good adhesion to the dentine;
B. selection of ions to the fluorine;
C. does not dissolve in a mouth liquid;
D.* all transferred
E. good adhesion to the enamel
7. What from these properties not peculiar for an amalgam?
A. aesthetically unbeautifulness
B. firmness to corrosion;
C. discoloration tooth;
D. * insufficient durability;
E. reliability of restoration.
8.
Presence of silver in an amalgam alloy:
A. causes contraction at consolidation;
B.* provides durability and firmness to corrosion;
C. diminishes durability;
D. multiplies time of consolidation;
E. diminishes oxidization of other materials.
9.
Tin is in an amalgam alloy:
A. causes contraction at consolidation;
B. diminishes durability and firmness to corrosion;
C. multiplies time of consolidation;
D. * all is listed above;
E. none of the above – mentioned.
10. What component of amalgam alloy diminishes oxidization of other
metals of alloy?
A. silver;
B. tin;
C. * zinc;
D. copper;
E. gold
11. Compos which have high durability and firmness to elimination are
well polished, are good aesthetically beautiful characteristics and are used
for stopping of carious cavities of all classes is belonged to:
A. * hybrid compos;
B. minifilled compos;
C. microfilled compos;
D. macrofilled;
E. none of transferred.
12. The requirements are to stopping materials:
A. biocompatibility;
B. functional integrity;
C. aesthetically beautifulness;
D. durability;
E. * all transferred.
13. Microfills compos use for stopping:
A.* III, IV, V of class
B. II, to the III class;
C. I, V class;
D. IV, I, to the III
class;
E. V class.
14. Macrofills compos use for stopping:
A. * I;
B. II, III;
C. IV, V;
D. III, IV;
E. II, III, IV.
15. What does not behave to cement?
A. * Galodent – M ;
B. Silicyn;
C. Visphat;
D. Silidont;
E. Unicem
16. What is not a member of cement of phosphate?
A. Oxide of zinc;
B. * Oxide of potassium;
C. 2 – oxide of silicon;
D. Oxide of magnesium
E. There is no faithful answer
17. At the premix of Silicyn was glass small planks and metallic spatula are
used. How is complication possible?
A. bad consolidation of material;
B.* discoloration stopping;
C. bad durability of stopping;
D. all answers are faithful;
E. complications are not.
18. Is it needed at stopping of Noracrylic – 100 of carious cavity of insetting
of gasket?
A.* it is needed;
B. it is not needed;
C. depending on the depth of caries;
D. at will of doctor;
E. depending on the sensitiveness of tooth.
19. What Black’s classes more expedient in all to stop by photopolymer
material?
A.I, II;
B.* III, IV, V;
C. II, III;
D. II;
E. I, V.
20. Time of premix of composite materials?
A. 10-20 sec;
B. 1min;
C. * 30-40 sec;
D. 30 sec – 1 min;
E. 2 min
21. Time of consolidation of composite material of Karbodent?
A. 10-20 sec;
B. * 5-7 min;
C. 2-3 min;
D. 9 min;
E. 1 min
22. Acryl stopping material consists of:
A. * powder and liquid;
B. powder and water (H2O);
C. paste and paste;
D. none of answers incorrect;
E. all answers can walk up ( depending on the issue by a firm)
23. For stopping composite stopping material was used. One of the stages
of stopping is acid etching of enamel and dentine. What purpose does he
pursue?
A. * improvement of connection between fabrics of tooth and stopping
mass;
B. reduces contraction of stopping material.
C. has a antiinflammation influence on fabrics of tooth;
D. reduces elimination of material;
E. diminishes the heat-conducting of material.
24. What type of cement selects ions to the fluorine?
A.* Glass ionomers
B. Zinc – phosphate
C. Zinc – sulfate
D. Silicate – phosphate
E. Polycarboxilate
25. What liquid is used for the premix of zinc – phosphate cement?
A.* 70-% solution of phosphorus acid
B. 30% solution of phosphorus acid
C. 20% solution of phosphorus acid
D. Distilled water
E. EDTA
26. An amalgam is an alloy on basis:
A.* Mercury
B. Tin
C. Silver
D. Copper
E. Zinc
27. The basic component of powder of zinc – phosphate cement is:
A.* Oxide of zinc
B. Phosphate of zinc
C. Oxide of magnesium
D. Oxide of bismuth
E. Phosphate of magnesium
28. After restoration of teeth by an amalgam most often can be the
unpleasant feelings from what type of irritants?
A.* Cold
B.* Heat (hot)
C. Sweets
D. Galvanose
E. Enhanceable pressure on stopping
29. On the size of particles of filler compos divide into all resulted:
A. macrofilled;
B. microfilled;
C. minifilled;
D. Hybrid;
E. Universal. *
30. High aesthetically beautiful properties are not inherent:
A. * To the amalgam
B. To the compos
C. To the compomers
D. To the ormocers
E. To cements
31. Correlation of powder to the liquid at mixing of cements makes:
A. 1:1;
B. 2:1;
C. 1:2;
D. * to adhere to instruction of producer;
E. 2:2.
32. What makes basis of organic polymeric matrix of compos?
A. Bor – silicate glass;
B. Aluminium – silicate glass;
C.* Bis – gma;
D. Silan;
E. Crystalline quartz.
33. At consolidation of amalgam, this component causes contraction,
diminishes durability:
A. tin;*
B. copper;
C. zinc;
D. silver;
E. mercury.
34. In a norm eugenol this:
A. liquid of green color;
B. liquid of white color;
C. thick light liquid;
D. * transparent light liquid;*
E. liquid of brown color.
35. In connection with low durability, by plastics mainly stop cavities:
A. I, II, III classes
B. * III, IV, V classes
C. III, V, II classes;
D. I, IV, V classes
E. I, II, classes
36. The size of particles of hybrid compos makes:
A. 00,3-0,5 mcm;
B. 0,5-10 mcm;
C. * 0,5-1 mcm;
D. 1-5 mcm;
E. 10-25 mcm.
37. Size of particles of composite 0,03-0,5 mcm, low maintenance of filler.
They perfectly polished to mirror brilliance, give contraction, small
durability, high coefficient of thermal expansion. Testimony to the use:
stopping of Black’s cavity III, IV, V classes. What material does this
description answer?
A. macrofills
B. * microfills
C. hybrid;
D. ”compact” compos;
E. fluid compos
38. To name dental material which is used for gaskets, stopping of roots
canals. Has the easy irritant and antimicrobial actions.
A. Silver amalgam
B. silicate cement
C.* zinc – eugenol cement
D. silicate – phosphate cement.
E. Copper amalgam
39. What component of polymeric composition materials provides such
properties of compos as durability, contraction, absorption, firmness to
wear?
A. organic polymeric matrix
B.
connecting layer
C. * filler
D. catalysts
E. adhesive
40. To name material which the presence of two polyreactions is in: freely
radical and acid – alkaline, is apt at the protracted selection of ions to the
fluorine and attaching to fabrics of tooth by the adhesion system.
A.
compos
B.
glass ionomer cement
C.
zinc – phosphate cement
D. compomer *
E. temporal stopping
41. Conditioning is named treatment of surface of carious cavity:
A. by primer
B. by an adhesive
C. by bond
D. by acid *
E. by water
42. What from the transferred stopping materials attribute to mineral
cements?
A.
zinc – phosphate, silicates, polycarboxilates, compos
B.
polycarboxilates, glass ionomers, silicates, compos
C. * silicates, phosphate, zinc – phosphate
D.
zinc – phosphate, polycarboxilates, glass ionomers, compos
E.
compos
43. What stopping mass better does fill celluloid’s dispersers at stopping
of carious cavities of the IV class?
A. by a galodent
B. by an amalgam
C. by an evicrol*
D. by phosphate cement
E. by silicate – phosphate cement
44. All stopping materials of – by setting are divided into such groups:
A.
permanent and temporal
B.
medical
C.
for filling of root-canals of teeth
D.
encapsulants
E.
* all answers are faithful.
45. Zinc – phosphate cements use:
A.
as insulating cements at stopping of teeth by other materials
(amalgam, by silicate cement, compos)
B.
for stopping of root-canals of teeth
C.
for making of the permanent stopping in the case of coverage of tooth
by an artificial crown
D.
for making of the temporal stopping with the prolonged term of
service
E.
* all answers faithful.
46. For work with stopping material of light consolidation in a dental
cabinet it is necessary to have a photopolymerizator is the source of light
with a wave-length which:
A. 100-300 mm
B.200-300 of mm
C. 400-500 mm *
D. 300-500 mm
E. 500-600 mm
47.
To polymeric cements belong:
A. silicates and zinc – phosphate
B. phosphate
C. silicate – phosphate and water dentine
D. * glass ionomer cements
E. zinc oxide eugenol and glass ionomer cements, water dentine
48. Stopping material which shows itself the alloy of metals with mercury:
A. GIC
B. * amalgam
C. compomer
D. ormocer
E. plastic
49. Minifilling compos have the size of particles?
A. from 10-25 mcm
B. from 0,03-0,5 mcm
C. * 1-5 mcm
D. 0,1-3 mcm
E. 0,2-0,5 mcm
50. Polymeric stopping material on the basis of ceramic polysiloxane
which engulfs parts of inorganic filler
A. compo
B. compomer
C. photopolymer
D.* ormocer
E. amalgam
51
A.
B.
Adhesive this:
matter for etching of enamel
complex of superficially-active matters
C. * polymeric matter which provides connection between fabric of
tooth and
material
D.
material for cleaning of dentine from „softened layer"
E.
stopping material
52. What size of particles of filler in microfilling compos (microfills):
A. * 0,04- to 1 mcm
B. 10-25 mcm
C. 0,1-3 mcm
D. 0,5-1 mcm
E. 0,03-10 mcm
53. What distinguish adhesives on the method of hardening?
A. selfsolidifiable
B. lightsolidifiable
C. double consolidation
D. * all answers are right
E. a right answer is not.
54. Metallic stopping material is an alloy one or a few metals with a
mercury.
A. cement
B. * amalgam
C. compo
D.
adhesive
E.
ormocer
55. Classification of compos on the sizes of particles of filler:
A. for stopping of front teeth, masticatory surfaces of teeth, universal
B. * macrofilling, microfilling, minifilling, hybrid
C. fluid, liquid „compact"
D. all answers are correct
E. transparent, opaque
56. The adhesion systems are used for:
A.
improvement of aesthetically beautiful properties of stopping
B. * air-tight and strong attaching of stopping material to the walls of
tooth
C.
there is no faithful answer
D. to protecting of tooth from influencing of external environment
E. as medical gasket
57. Bactericidal cements this:
A. antiseptic phosphate cements for stopping of baby teeth;
B. bactericidal cements for stopping of permanent teeth;
C. enriching bactericidal properties phosphate cements for stopping of the
second teeth;
D. * enriching by the bactericidal matters phosphate cements which applies
for stopping of baby teeth;
E. it is cements which is used in sterile terms.
58. What stopping material is not attributed to composition:
A. Charisma;
B. Alpha – dent;
C. Geliomolar;
D.* Adhesor;
E. Latelux.
59. Is it needed under the amalgam stopping to put a gasket?
A. * it is needed;
B. not necessarily;
C. it is not needed;
D. depends on localization of CC;
E. depends on the depth of CC.
60. Ormocers this
A. microfils;
B. macrofils;
C. the organic is modified ceramics;*
D. hybrid compos;
E. fluid compos.
61. At stopping of Black’s CC I class it follows to bring in an amalgam:
A. by a 1 portion
B. by many portions, to condense not
C. * by many portions, to condense
D. by a 2 portions
E. none of answers faithful
62. For defence the stopping from saliva her cover:
A. by beeswax
B. by Vaseline
C. by protective varnish
D. by paraffin
E. all right*
63. Introduction to cement of silver powder results to:
A. improvement of aesthetically beautiful type of stopping
B. * bactericidal effect
C. the best fixing of stopping
D. worsening of physical descriptions of stopping
E. diminishing of durability of stopping
64. Disadvantages of phosphate cement as insulating gaskets are:
A.* unhermetical closing of dentinal tubes and the «phenomenon of micro
impregnation», which results in inflammation of pulp or relapse of caries, is
possible
B. heat-conducting effect
C. no faithful answer
D. hardens long time
E. incongruous color
65. For insulating gaskets use:
A. * zinc – phosphate, polycarboxilate, glass ionomer cements
B. on the basis of hydroxide of calcium
C. compos
D. silicate cements
E. no insulating is presently used gaskets
66. Setting of zinc – phosphate cement:
A.* stopping of carious cavities with subsequent coverage by crowns, for
stopping of baby teeth, if there was a not more than year to the change, for
fixing of crowns, for insulating gaskets, for stopping of root-canals
B. presently is not used
C. for fixing of crowns and imposition of insulating gaskets
D. for proceeding in a vestibular surface
E. for stopping of roots canals
67. Composition of zinc – phosphate cement:
A.* oxide of zinc to 90%, oxide of magnesium to 13%, 2 – oxide of silicon
to 5% . A liquid is the phosphorus acid partly neutralized by the hydrates of
oxides of aluminium and zinc
B. oxide of silicon to 47%, to the aluminium to 35%, to fluoride of sodium
to 15%, the oxide of zinc is not. A liquid is mixture of phosphoric acids
C. to a 66% oxide of zinc, 24% sulfate of zinc, 10% kaolin
D. окис to zinc to 50%, a liquid is phosphorus acid
E. to a 100% sulfate of zinc, liquid – phosphorus acid
68. What is needed for diminishing of porosity of GIC?
A.* consolidation of stopping must be force-feed, not to get mouth liquid
B. to add more powder
C. it is good to insulate from saliva
D. it is good to ram stopping
E. to cover stopping by a beeswax
69. Why it is impossible to polish stopping from GIC of chemical
consolidation in the first days after imposition of stopping:
A. * overheated to material and the vibration violates its fixing
B. contraction of stopping will take place
C. the color of stopping will change
D. brilliance will get lost
E. polishing is possible
70. What is insulating used for varnishes or bond-agents of compos at
imposition of stopping from GIC?
A. * for isolations of stopping from GIC on 24 hours from a mouth liquid
B. it is not used
C. for bleaching of stopping
D. for of diminishing of contraction
E. for brilliance of stopping
71. When is it possible to conduct eventual treatment of stopping from GIC?
A. * in 24 hours
B. in 48 hours
C. in a week
D. right after consolidation
E. eventual treatment is not conducted.
72. Advantages of GIC:
A. contact with the structure of tooth, have the low coefficient of
microimpregnation and select the fluorine
B. strong does not almost resolve under the action of saliva
C. select the fluorine consequently own the anticariuos action
D. * all answers are faithful
E. well aesthetically beautiful properties
73. Stopping material which is not used for the permanent stopping at I and
V classes in the baby and second teeth:
A. Beladont;
B. Belacyn;
C. Belocor;
D. Unicem;
E.* Water dentine
74. Stopping material which is not used for the permanent stopping at the II
class in the baby and second teeth:
A. Beladont;
B. Ketac molar;
C. Belocor;
D. Unicem;
E. * Dentine paste
75. Negative properties of silicate cement:
A.* the toxicness (through free phosphoric acid), insufficient mechanical
durability, solubility is in a mouth liquid, inadhesion to fabrics of tooth,
considerable contraction at consolidation;
B. stronger, than phosphate cement, selects the fluorine
C. very strong, owns wonderful adhesion
D. proof to the action of saliva and mechanical action
E. not cosmetic
76. Positive properties of silicate cement:
A. * stronger, than phosphate cement more cosmetic
B. very strong
C. owns wonderful adhesion
D. not toxic, not heat-conducting
E. proof to the action of saliva and mechanical action
77. Silicate – phosphate cements this:
A.* 80% silicate cement + to 20% zinc – phosphate cement
B. to a 80% silex (SiO2), 20% - oxide of zinc
C. 1:1 powder of phosphate and silicate cement is mixed, a liquid is
phosphorus acid
D. material for the temporal stopping
E. material for medical gaskets
78. Negative properties of silicate – phosphate cement:
A. * irritating operating on mash and bad adhesion
B. Had a heat-conducting
C. less strong, than a silicate is cements
D. does not select the fluorine
E. not natural color
79. Composition of polycarboxilate cement:
A. * the oxide of zinc, oxide of magnesium, liquid, is specially treated –
37% water solution of polyacrylic acid
B. aluminium – silicate glass with addition of fluorides, a liquid is water
solution polyacrylic or polimalein acids
C. oxide of silicon to 47%, to the aluminium to 35%, to fluorides of sodium
to 15%, the oxide of zinc is not. A liquid is mixture of phosphoric acids
D. oxide of silicon to 47%, to the aluminium to 35%, to fluorides of sodium
to 15%, the oxide of zinc is not. A liquid is polimalein acid
E. oxide of zinc and phosphoric acid
80. Positive properties of polycarboxilate cement:
A. Stronger than an amalgam
B. * able chemically to contact with an enamel and dentine
C. cosmetic
D. selects ions to the fluorine
E. selects ions to the calcium.
81. Lacks of polycarboxilate cements:
A. own bad adhesion
B. heat-conducting
C. toxic
D. * not cosmetic
E. able chemically to contact with an enamel and dentine
82. Polycarboxilate cements are used:
A. There is no faithful answer
B. for stopping of carious cavities III and the V classes
C. contra-indications are not to the use
D.* at imposition of insulating gaskets, for fixing of orthopaedic and
orthodontic constructions, at stopping of baby teeth (1,5 years prior to their
change) and teeth which are covered by crowns
E. for restoration of frontal teeth
84. Glass ionomer cements consist of:
A. * aluminium – silicate glass with addition of fluorides, a liquid is water
solution of polyacrylic or polimalein acids
B. the oxide of zinc, oxide of magnesium, liquid, is specially treated – 37%
water solution of polyacrylic acid
C. oxide of silicon to 47%, to the aluminium to 35%, to fluoride of sodium
to 15%, the oxide of zinc is not. A liquid is mixture of phosphoric acids
D. There is no faithful answer
E. oxide of zinc and phosphoric acid
85. Stopping material which is not used for the permanent stopping at III
and IV classes in the baby and second teeth:
A. Konsis;
B. Degufil;
C. Evicrol;
D. * Unicem;
E. Charisma
86. Biological requirements to stopping material:
A. to keep constancy of volume
B. absence of pore, insignificant absorption of moisture, moisture resistance,
insolubility, is in a tissue liquid
C. easy delete of stopping
D.* to be biocompatible, to cause not an allergy
E. to stimulate the regeneration of dentine, protracted consolidation
87. The physical requirements are to stopping material for the roots
stopping:
A. absence of pore, constancy of volume, protracted consolidation, strong
tripping with the wall of tooth, moisture resistance, insolubility in a tissue
liquid *
B. to be biocompatible, bactericidal, to cause not resorption
C. it is easily to be entered in the cavity of tooth, x – ray contrast, absence of
pigmentation of teeth, to be bactericidal
D. it is easily to hatch from the cavity of tooth, cause not an allergy
E. to cause not an allergy
88. The polyreaction is initiated by visible blue light with a wave-length:
A. 250 – 350 nm
B. 350 – 450 nm
C. * 450 – 550 nm
D. 550 – 650 nm
E. 650 – 750 nm
89. Polymerization contraction of compomers:
A. 1 %
B.* 3 %
C. 10 %
D. 12 %
E. 30 %
90. What from the transferred stopping materials belongs to the photo of
compos?
A. Amalgam
B. A phosphate is cement
C. Ketac – cem
D.* Charisma
E. A dentine is paste
91. From this list of stopping materials to the compos belongs:
A. Silicyn
B. Argcem
C. Foredent
D.* Direct
E. Karbodent
92. What from the below transferred stopping materials belongs to GIC?
A. Visphat cement
B. Argil
C.* Ketac – cem
D. Amalgam
E. Evicrol
93. What from the below transferred components are included in the
adhesion system?
A. polymeric powder
B. polymeric paste
C. ceramic mass
D. * primer
E. metal
94. The size of particles of filler of composition stopping materials can
make:
A. * 0,01 – 12 mcm and more
B. 0,11 – 12 mcm and more
C. 0,21 – 12 mcm and more
D. 0,31 – 12 mcm and more
E. 0,41 – 12 mcm and more
95. What from the below transferred stopping materials belongs to GIC?
A. Argil
B.* Cemion
C. Foredent
D. Silidont
E. Alpha – dent
96. Device for surveillance after power of light stream of
photopolymerisator:
A. * radiometer
B. spectrometer
C. photometer
D. gnatodynamometer
E. dynamometer
97. The size of particles of inorganic filler of compomers makes:
A. 0,6 – 0,8 mcm
B. *0,8 – 1,0 mcm
C. 1,0 – 1,2 mcm
D. 1,2 – 1.4 mcm
E. 1,4 – 1,6 mcm
98. What from the transferred stopping materials belongs to the
photocompos?
A. * Emamogen
B. Visphat cement
C. Endometason
D. Silidont
E. Cemion
99. From this list of stopping materials to compomers belongs:
A.* F 2000
B. Argil
C. Silicyn
D. Dentine paste
E. Terafill
100. What from the below transferred stopping materials belongs to GIC?
A. Amalgam
B. Phosphate cement
C. * Ketac cem
D. Alpha – dent
E. Dentine paste
1. At a child 10 years there are pain in the 85 tooth characteristic for a
pulpit, concernes mobile of tooth. Tactic of doctor.
A. * Extraction of a 85 tooth
B. Opening of pulp chamber
C. Medicinal treatment of channels
D. Pressurizing of channels
E. Physiotherapy
2. At partial inflammation of pulp of temporal teeth with the unformed
roots the basic mean of treatment is:
A. * Vital amputation;
B. Devital amputation;
C. Devital pulp extraction;
D. Vital pulp extraction;
E. Extraction.
3. By what does cover pulp that remained?
A. By the eugenol of zinc;
B. * By hidroxide of calcium;
C. By pharmacresol;
D. By GIC;
E. By an amalgam.
4. Forming of calcareous bridge at stopping of channels with the unformed
roots must be looked on a sciagram through:
A. 2 weeks;
B. 6 weeks;
C. * 4 weeks;
D. 9 weeks;
E. 12 weeks.
5. At a child 3 years diagnosis of sharpening of initially-chronic pulpit.
Tactic of doctor.
A.* Devital pulp amputation with subsequent mummification of pulp in 3
visits
B. Extraction
C. Vital amputation in a 1 visit
D. Vital pulp extraction in 2 visits
E. Devital pulp extraction with subsequent mummification of pulp in 3
visits
6. When do temporal canines teething and when forming of roots is
completed in permanent canines?
A. * in 14-20 months teething, a root is formed -15 years
B. 6-8 months teething, a root is formed -12 years
C. 12-16 months teething, a root is formed 16 years
D. 14-15 months teething, a root is formed 13 years
E. 20 months teething, a root is formed 18 years
7. In pulp does distinguish such layers?
A. * Peripheral, intermediate, central
B.
Apical, crown, intermediate
C.
Crown and apical
D. External and internal
E. Lateral, basale
8. A central temporal chisel teething in:
A. 8-10 months;
B. 10-16 months;
C. * 6-8 months;
D. 6-10 months;
E. 16-20 months.
9. Endodontical treatment includes the obligatory sequence of the
followings stages:
A. * Mechanical treatment, medicinal treatment, stopping;
B. Instrumental, mechanical and medicinal treatment;
C. Preparing, expansion and stopping of root-canal;
D. None of variants;
E. Expansion and passing a root-canal
10. The form of crown of the temporal tooth is similar to the rectangle. On a
masticatory surface 5 humps: 3 cheeks and 2 tongues. What tooth of
temporal bite has such structure?
A. * Second lower temporal molar;
B. Second overhead temporal molar;
C. First lower temporal molar;
D. First overhead temporal molar;
E. Canines.
11. From what age does begin to resolve the roots of temporal central and
lateral chisels?
A. 3 years;
B. 14 months;
C. 7 years;
D. * 5 years;
E. 24 months.
12. For what does use medical gaskets?
A.* At the biological method of treatment of pulpit
B. At treatment of deep caries
C. At treatment of initial caries
D. At treatment of sharp pulpit
E. At treatment of periodontitis
13. Dycal – this:
A. Compo.
B. Cement.
C. Amalgam.
D. * Hydroxide of calcium.
E. Dentine – paste.
14. The amount of roots is in a 55 tooth:
A.* 3
B. 2
C. 3 can be 1
D. 1
E. 2 cheeks and 1 palatal.
15. What period is forming of roots of baby teeth during?
A. 3 months;
B. * 2,5 years;
C. 1 year;
D. 1 month;
E. Forming of roots of teeth synchronizes with teething.
16. What period is forming of roots of the second teeth during?
A. 3 months;
B. * 3 years;
C. 1 year;
D. 1 month;
E. Forming of roots of teeth synchronizes with teething.
17. Is it possible by a medical gasket from hydroxide of calcium to cover all
bottom of carious cavity?
A. * No, as a medical gasket on the basis of hydroxide of calcium does not
own adhesion to dentine *
B. It is possible
C. It is needed
D. Cover to dentini – enamel connection
E. It is possible partly
18. What sequence of the stages of opening of cavity of tooth is in the baby
and second teeth:
A. * Necrectomy, opening of carious cavity, opening of cavity of tooth;
B. Opening of carious cavity, necrectomy, medicinal treatment, drying,
opening of cavity of tooth;
C. Opening of cavity of tooth, opening of carious cavity, necrectomy,
medicinal treatment, drying;
D. Medicinal treatment, opening of cavity of tooth, opening of carious
cavity, necrectomy;
E. Drying, opening of cavity of tooth, opening of carious cavity,
necrectomy, medicinal treatment.
19. Name a medicinal degreaser and drying of root-canal after mechanical
treatment before stopping:
A. Angidrin;
B. Color – test №4;
C. Endogel;
D. * Hypochlorite of sodium 3%;
E. Dry air.
20. Name a medicinal mean which is not used for stopping of root-canals at
children:
A. Apexdent;
B. Eodent;
C. Iodent;
D. Phosphadent
E. * Water dentine.
21. The amount of roots is in the 85 tooth:
A. 2 can be 1
B. 3 can be 1
C. * 2
D. 3
E. 2-3
22. Amount of channels in 85 and 84 teeth:
A. 2
B. * 3
C. 1
D. 4
E. 4-5
23. Predentine or parapulpar dentine this:
A. Peripheral part of dentine
B. Part of dentine, adjoining to mash
C. * Less all the part of dentine, located between a cover dentine and
predentine, mineralized the inorganic is located in this area as spherical
drops
D. Dentine which is located near predentine
E. There is no such dentine
24. The pulp consists of:
A. Basic matter (liquid colloid system)
B. * Connecting fabric
C. Mucoprotein, glycoprotein, mucopolysaccharides
D. Enzymes, albumens, carbonhydratess
E. Glycoproteins, alpha – globulins, enzymes, fats
25. Are there the differences of connecting fabric of pulp from ordinary
connecting fabric?
A. * Elastic fibers are absent in pulp, there are the specialized cell
(odontoblasts)
B. No
C. There are the specialized cells – odontoblasts which are only in pulp
D. There are elastic fibers in pulp
E. They are identical after the structure
26. Stages of endodontical treatment:
A.* Mechanical treatment of carious cavity and root-canals, medicinal and
stopping
B. Step-beck and crown-down
C. Medicinal treatment and stopping
D. Mechanical and medicinal treatment
E. Mechanical treatment and stopping
27. Openings of cavity of tooth consider correct, if:
A. * Free access to the channels
B. An enamel is absent without the proper dentine
C. All are remote staggered by the caries of fabric and old stopping
D. Space is absent under the edge of fabrics
E. All dentine is absent
28. Level of stopping of root-canal:
A.* To the apical opening, at a pulpit – to the physiology opening
B. To show out for the apex opening
C. To the apical opening
D. To the physiology opening
E. To the half of root
29. In what age surgical treatment is not rotined at a pulpit in 51 tooth?
A. * To 5 years
B. To 8 years
C. After 6 years
D. After 7 years
E. To 2 years
30. In what age conservative treatment is not rotined at a pulpit in 83 tooth?
A. To 5 years
B. To 8 years
C. * After 6 years
D. After 7 years
E. To 2 years
31. In what age surgical treatment is not rotined at a pulpit in 65 tooth?
A. To 5 years
B. To 8 years
C. After 6 years
D. * After 7 years
E. To 2 years
32. In what age extraction is rotined at a pulpit in 82 tooth?
A. To 6 years
B. To 8 years
C. After 9 years
D. * After 7 years
E. To 2 years
33. In what age extraction is rotined at a pulpit in 51 tooth?
A. * To 6 years
B. To 8 years
C. After 9 years
D. After 7 years
E. To 2 years
34. In what age extraction is rotined at a pulpit in 73 tooth?
A. To 6 years
B. To 8 years
C. * After 9 years
D. After 7 years
E. To 2 years
35. In what age extraction is rotined at a pulpit in 85 tooth?
A. To 6 years
B. To 8 years
C. * After 9 years
D. After 7 years
E. To 2 years
36. In what age extraction is rotined at a pulpit in 64 tooth?
A. To 6 years
B. * To 8 years
C. After 9 years
D. After 7 years
E. To 2 years
37. In what age contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 42 tooth?
A. * To 9 years
B. To 10 years
C. To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. To 14 years
38. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 21 tooth?
A. To 9 years
B. * To 10 years
C. To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. To 14 years
39. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 32 tooth?
A. To 9 years
B. * To 10 years
C. To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. To 14 years
40. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 44 tooth?
A. To 9 years
B. To 10 years
C. * To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. To 14 years
41. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 25 tooth?
A. To 9 years
B. To 10 years
C. To 12 years
D. * To 13 years
E. To 14 years
42. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 36 tooth?
A.* To 9 years
B. To 10 years
C. To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. To 14 years
43. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 47 tooth?
A. To 9 years
B. To 10 years
C. To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. * To 14 years
44. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 13 tooth?
A. To 9 years
B. To 10 years
C. To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. * To 14 years
45. In what age of contra-indicated pulp extraction at a pulpit in 33 tooth?
A. To 9 years
B. To 10 years
C. * To 12 years
D. To 13 years
E. To 14 years
46. Vital amputation is rotined:
A. Unformed roots
B. Initial resorption of roots
C. * Unformed roots, initial resorption of roots
D. Complete resorption of roots
E. In the formed roots
47. Extraction is rotined:
A. Unformed roots
B. Initial resorption of roots
C. Unformed roots, initial resorption of roots
D. * Complete resorption of roots
E. In the formed roots
48. Vital extraction is rotined:
A. Unformed roots
B. Initial resorption of roots
C. Unformed roots, initial resorption of roots
D. Complete resorption of roots
E. * In the formed roots
49. Devital extraction is rotined:
A. Unformed roots
B. Initial resorption of roots
C. Unformed roots, initial resorption of roots
D. Complete resorption of roots
E. * In the formed roots
50. For temporal obturation of root-canals use:
A. Encapsulant
B. * Calasept
C. Foredent
D. AH-PLUS
E. Phosphate cement
1. According to Black, to the IV class refer:
*A. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of incisors and canines with
destructed angle and cutting edge of a crown
B. Cavities in the area of fissure and fossae of all groups of teeth
C. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of premolars and molars
D. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of incisors and canines with a
preserved cutting edge
E. Cavities on the labial, cheek, and lingual surfaces situated in near
gingival part of a tooth’s crown
2. According to Black, to the V class refer:
*A. Cavities on the labial, cheek, and lingual surfaces situated in near
gingival part of a tooth’s crown
B. Cavities in the area of fissure and fossae of all groups of teeth
C. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of premolars and molars
D. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of incisors and canines with a
preserved cutting edge
E. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of incisors and canines with
destructed angle and cutting edge of a crown
3. According to Black, to the VI class refer:
*A. Cavities on the cutting edge of the frontal teeth and tubers of lateral
teeth
B. Cavities in the area of fissure and fossae of all groups of teeth
C. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of premolars and molars
D. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of incisors and canines with a
preserved cutting edge
E. Cavities situated on the adjoining surfaces of incisors and canines with
destructed angle and cutting edge of a crown
4. Stages of cavity preparation:
*А. Anesthesia, opening, necrectomy, cavity formation, scaling
B. Opening, necrectomy, cavity formation
C. Anesthesia, excision of sphaceli, medical treatment
D. It is held in one stage of preparation itself
E. Opening, cavity formation
5. What is the essence of cavity opening?
*A. Removal of overhanging enamel that does not have a dentin under it till
formation of vertical walls. Fissure and spherical dental drills are used.
B. Exteriorization of a cavity to a grinding surface
C. Widening of a little inlet opening
D. Formation of vertical walls
E. Formation of a large inlet opening
6. How is the opening of a carious cavity of the II class performed according
to Black?
*A. An access is formed from unaffected grinding surface
B. An access is formed from a lingual surface, in some rare cases, from a
vestibular one
C. An access is formed from oral surface
D. An access is formed from an affected palatal surface
E. There are no correct answers
7. How is the opening of a carious cavity of the III class performed
according to Black?
*A. An access is formed from a lingual surface, in some rare cases, from a
vestibular one
B. An access is formed from unaffected grinding surface
C. An access is formed from oral surface
D. An access is formed from an affected palatal surface
E. There are no correct answers
8. What is the essence of necrectomy?
*A. Removal of softened and pigmented dentin with an excavator, spherical,
fissure or inverted conical dental drills
B. Removal of softened dentin with an excavator and drills
C. Removal of pigmented dentin with an excavator
D. There is no such a stage
E. There are no correct answers
9. Is it possible to preserve a dentin that is pigmenting?
*А. Yes, sometimes, when there is a deep carious cavity
B. No
C. Only in the area of masticatory teeth
D. Only in the bottom area of the carious cavity
E. Yes, sometimes, when there is a median caries
10. What is the essence of forming a carious cavity?
*А. Creation of optimal conditions for fixation of a filling, especially when
a material does not possess adhesive properties
B. Making an enamel slant at an angle of 45
C. Creation of an additional space
D. Making an enamel slant at an angle of 90
E. Creation of retentional points
11. Classically formed cavities of the I class should be:
*А. Straight walls situated at right angle to the bottom, a form of a cavity
may be cylindrical, quadrangular, rhombic, crosslike
B. Provided that there is no a neighbouring tooth and the cavity is situated
below the equator, it is formed as a cavity of the I class. When an access is
complicated, a cavity is exteriorized to the grinding surface and an
additional areola is formed there. A usage of tunnel method is possible
C. When there is a good access in a shape of rounded triangle with tightly
situated teeth, it is exteriorized to the lingual surface and there is formed an
additional areola
D. Obligatory with an additional areola either in the area of cutting edge
(when it is wide) or on the under palatal surface within the dentin limits
E. There are no correct answers
12. Classically formed cavities of the II class should be:
*А. Provided that there is no a neighbouring tooth and the cavity is situated
below the equator, it is formed as a cavity of the I class. When an access is
complicated, a cavity is exteriorized to the grinding surface and an
additional areola is formed there. A usage of tunnel method is possible.
B. There is always formed an additional areola
C. When there is a good access in a shape of rounded triangle with tightly
situated teeth, it is exteriorized to the lingual surface and an additional
areola is formed there
D. Obligatory with an additional areola either in the area of cutting edge
(when it is wide) or on the under palatal (lingual) surface within the limits of
dentin
E. There are no correct answers
13. Classically formed cavities of the III class should be:
*А. When there is a good access in a shape of rounded triangle with tightly
situated teeth it is exteriorized to the lingual surface and an additional areola
is formed there
B. Straight walls situated at right angle to the bottom, a form of a cavity
may be cylindrical, quadrangular, rhombic, crosslike
C. Provided that there is no a neighbouring tooth and the cavity is situated
below the equator, it is formed as a cavity of the I class. When an access is
complicated, a cavity is exteriorized to the grinding surface and an
additional areola is formed there. A usage of tunnel method is possible.
D. Obligatory with an additional areola either in the area of cutting edge
(when it is wide) or on the under palatal (lingual) surface within the limits of
dentin
E. When there is a good access in the shape of a rounded square
14. Classically formed cavities of the IV class should be:
*А. Obligatory with an additional areola either in the area of cutting edge
(when it is wide) or on the under palatal (lingual) surface within the limits of
dentin
B. Straight walls situated at right angle to the bottom, a form of a cavity
may be cylindrical, quadrangular, rhombic, crosslike
C. Provided that there is no a neighbouring tooth and the cavity is situated
below the equator, it is formed as a cavity of the I class. When an access is
complicated, a cavity is exteriorized to the grinding surface and an
additional areola is formed there. A usage of tunnel method is possible.
D. When there is a good access in a shape of rounded triangle with tightly
situated teeth, it is exteriorized to the lingual surface and an additional
areola is formed there
E. There are no correct answers
15. Classically formed cavities of the V class should be:
*А. In the shape of ellipse, walls and the bottom should be at the right angle,
near gingival wall may be at a 45 angle to the carious cavity
B. Straight walls situated at right angle to the bottom, a form of a cavity
may be cylindrical, quadrangular, rhombic, crosslike
C. Provided that there is no a neighbouring tooth and the cavity is situated
below the equator, it is formed as a cavity of the I class. When an access is
complicated, a cavity is exteriorized to the grinding surface and an
additional areola is formed there. A usage of tunnel method is possible.
D. In the shape of ellipse, walls and the bottom should be at the right angle,
near gingival wall may be at a 90 angle to the carious cavity
E. There are no correct answers
16. Classically formed cavities of the II class should be:
A. Straight walls situated at right angle to the bottom, a form of a cavity
may be cylindrical, quadrangular, rhombic, crosslike
B. In a shape of ‘swallow’s tail’
*С. A cavity is exteriorized to the grinding surface and an additional areola
is formed there
D. A tunnel method may be used
E. Obligatory with an additional areola
17. Is it possible to cover the whole bottom of the carious cavity with a
calcium hydroxide liner?
*А. No, as far as a calcium hydroxide liner does not possess adhesion to
dentin
B. It is possible to do that
C. It is necessary to do that
D. It is covered up to dentinoenamel tissue
E. It is partially possible
18. Carious cavities (CCs) of the V class according to Black are localised?
*а) On the palatal surface
b)On the approximal surface
c) On the occlusion surface
d) On the vestibular surface
e) On the medial surface
19. CCs of the II class according to Black are characterized by?
*а) Presence of an additional cavity which makes 1/2 of the main cavity
b) Presence of an additional cavity which is 1/2 bigger than the main cavity
c) Presence of an additional cavity which is of the same size as the main one
d) Presence of an additional cavity which is 2/3 bigger than the main cavity
e) Presence of a cone
20. CCs of the III class B subclass according to Black are characterized by?
*а) A cavity with a thin layer of an enamel on the vestibular surface or its
destruction
b) CCs that get under the gums
c) CCs with preserved enamel on the vestibular surface
d) CCs affecting cutting edge
d) CCs that are not affecting cutting edge
21. CCs of the IV class according to Black are localized on:
*а) Approximal surface of incisors and canines with affected cutting edge
b) Approximal surface of incisors and canines with unaffected cutting edge
c) Approximal surface of incisors and premolars
d) Approximal surface of incisors and premolars with affected cutting edge
e) Approximal surface only of incisors.
22. To what kinds of filling materials is referred Evicrol?
* а) Composites
b) Polymers
c) Metal materials
d) Cements
e) None of the mentioned
23. Which one of mentioned below does refer to metal filling materials?
а) Visfat
b) Carbodent
c) Sylidont
d) Halodent-M
e) Acryloxide
24. On the basis of which material is created Halodent-M?
* а) Gallium
b) Mercury
c) Aluminium
d) Silver
e) Copper
25. The filling of a tooth was not completed with a polishing of a stopping.
Which complication may it cause?
а) Loss of a filling
b) Rise in temperature
*c) Colour change of a filling
d) Loss of a tooth
e) Pulpitis
26. For removal of food debris and filling material from a carious cavity,
performing necerctomy, there is used:
а) Enamel knife
b) Excavator
c) Dental explorer
d) Drill
e) Smoother
27. Cleansing of a basin for spitting should be performed:
a) At the end of a working day
b) Once a week
*c) After every patient
d) Twice a day
b) Once a month
28. Items of medical function and dental tools, which do not contact with a
wound surface, blood or affected mucous tunic, are
*а) Only disinfected
b) Disinfected, exposed to pre-sterilization treatment and sterilization
c) Irrigated with a water
d) All of abovementioned
e) None of mentioned above
29. The principle of cavity preparation according to Black is based on:
*а) Removal of hard tissue of a tooth up to ‘immune zones’
b) Cavity preparation within the limits of changed tissue
c) None of mentioned above
d) All of abovementioned
30. A carious cavity in the area of a fissure on the grinding surface of the 1st
molar of a lower jaw refers to:
*а) 1st class
b) 3rd class
c) 5th class
d) 2nd class
e) 4th class
31. Representatives of zinc phosphate cement are:
а) Belladent and Sylidont
b) Silicin and Fritex
*c) Unicym, phosphate cement
d) Evicrol
d) Helioмolar
32. Main requirements to filling materials are mentioned below, except for:
а) Biogenity
b) Functional integrity
c) Aesthetic qualities
d) Strength
e) None of the mentioned above
33. Microfil composites are used for feeling:
*а) III, IV classes
b) II, III classes
c) I, V classes
d) IV, I, III classes
e) V class
34. Macrofil composites are used for feeling:
*а) І, V
b) II, III
c) IV, V
d) III, IV
e) II, III, IV
35. While feeling a carious cavity of the III class a contact point was not
restored. What are the possible complications?
а) Loss of a filling
b) Progression of a secondary decay
*c) Development of papillitis
d) All answers are correct
e) There will be no complications
36. Which of the dental tools do not refer to diagnostic ones?
a) Dental explorer, dental mirror, dental tweezers
b) Water syringe
c) Chip-blower
*d) Metal spatula
e) Dental explorer
37. Which of the mentioned below tools do not refer to filling ones?
а) Smoother, plugger
b) Amalgam carrier
c) Parapulpal pins
*d) Drills of different sizes
e) All
38. What is the length of a drill for an air-turbine handpiece?
*а) 22-27 mm
b) 44 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 24-29 mm
e) 27 mm
39. What stages does the treatment of dental tools include?
*а) Disinfection, pre-sterilization treatment, sterilization
b) Dipping into a disinfection solution, sterilization
c) Pre-sterilization treatment, sterilization
d) Washing, cleansing, sterilization
e) Disinfection, sterilization
40. What is the main anatomical feature of temporal teeth as distinct from
permanent teeth?
*а) Enamel torus
b) Number of roots
c) Tooth colour
d) Number of teeth
e) Enamel body
41. Cavity preparation is performed in several stages. Which one does
follow after a widening of the carious cavity?
*а) Necrectomy
b) Opening cavity
c) Forming a cavity of CC
d) Forming edges of CC
e) Extraction of a pulp
42. Which from mentioned below does not refer to tools for examining an
oral cavity?
а) Dental mirror
b) Dental tweezers
*c) Excavator
d) Dental explorer
e) Periodontal explorer
43. What is used for polishing fillings?
а) Spherical drills
*b) Scales
c) Wheel-shaped drills
d) Pluggers
e) Polishing paste
44. What is the function of a plugger?
*a) Condensation of a filling’s spare material in the cavity
b) Extraction of dental deposits
c) Measuring the depth of periodontal pocket
d) Widening of an interdental space
e) Extraction of feeling material
45. What is the length of a drill for a straight handpiece?
a) 40 mm
b) 37 mm
c) 45 mm
*d) 44 mm
e) 50 mm
46. At what age do the roots of temporary central and side incisors begin to
resolve?
a) 3 years
b) 14 months
c) 7 years
*d) 5 years
e) 24 months
47. Which teeth do have a gouge-shaped crown?
*а) Incisors
b) Molars
c) Canines
d) Premolars
e) 24th tooth
48. A shape of a crown of a milk-tooth is similar to a rectangle. There are
five cones on the grinding surface, three cheek and two lingual ones. Which
tooth of a milk occlusion does have such a shape?
*а) Lower second molar
b) Upper first premolar
c) Lower second premolar
b) Upper first molar
e) Lower canine
49. Which of the temporary teeth come through first?
а) Canines
b) Side incisors
*c) Central incisors
b) First molars
e) Second molars
50. To which class according to Black refer carious cavities that are situated
on the adjoining surfaces of molars and premolars?
*а) I class
b) IV class
*c) II class
d) V class
e) III class
51. To which class according to Black refer carious cavities that are situated
on the cervical zone of all teeth?
а) III class
*b) V class
c) II class
d) IV class
e) I class
52. Which stage of preparation follows a widening of carious cavity?
a) Anesthesia
b) Opening
*c) Necroctomy
d) Treatment of an enamel edge
e) Amputation of a pulp
53. What does not refer to the classification of filling materials by its
nature?
a) Cements
b) Composites
*c) Hermetics
d) Plastics
e) Metal materials
54. Which one does not refer to cement?
*а) Halodent-M
b) Sicilin
c) Visfat
d) Silidont
55. Which is not included in composition of phosphate cement?
a) Zink oxide
*b) Potassium oxide
c) Silicone dioxide
d) Magnesium oxide
56. The level of a room illumination while using fluorescent illuminator
should be not less than:
a) 200-300 lux
*b) 500 lux
c) 100 lux
d) 700 lux
e) 900 lux
57. With what speed one should rotate drill microengine?
a) 200-700 rotations per min
b) 100 000 rotations per min
c) From 200 till 1000 rotations per min
*d) From 500 till 15000 rotations per min
e) 1000 rotations per min
58. What tools are used for examination of oral cavity?
*а) Dental mirror, dental tweezers, dental explorer, periodontal explorer
b) Dental tweezers, dental mirror, excavator
c) Smoother, dental explorer, dental mirror
d) Dental mirror, plugger, dental explorer
e) Plugger, smoother, dental mirror
59. Where is situated secondary cement?
a) Near dental cervix
b) Along the whole root
*c) Near the root apex
d) All answers are correct
e) On the crown of a tooth
60. Dental cavity has a spindle shape that unnoticeably transforms into the
root channel. What teeth have a cavity of such a shape?
a) Premolars
b) Central incisors
*c) Canines
d) Lateral incisors
e) Molars
61. In the sixth upper tooth a main cavity was formed. An additional areola
should be processed. What drills should be used?
a) Spherical
*b) Figured, inverted conical
c) Wheel-shaped
d) Cylindrical pear-shaped
e) Spherical pear-shaped
62. A carious cavity is well seen in the sixth lower tooth on the approximalmedial surface. There is no neighbouring tooth. A grinding surface is
preserved and is thick enough. How should one form a cavity?
a) To make a preparation from a grinding surface
b) To prepare in a vertical way
c) To make an additional areola on a grinding surface
*d) To prepare from the side of absent tooth
e) According to the doctor
64. While making silicin glass plates and metal spatula were used. What are
the possible complications?
*a) Bad solidifying of a material
b) Colour change of a filling
*c) All answers are correct
d) There will not be any complications
65. Is it necessary to put a liner when filling a cavity with Noracril-100?
*a) Yes
b) No
c) Depends on a caries depth
d) According to a doctor
e) Depends on dental sensitivity
66. What classes according to Black are expedient to be filled with a plastic?
a) I, II
*b) III, IV, V
c) II, II
d) II
e) I-V
67. Time for mixing composite materials.
a) 10-20 sec
b) 1 min
*c) 30-40 sec
d) 30 sec - 1 min
e) 2 min
68. A time of solidification of a composite material Carbodent.
a) 10-20 sec
*b) 5-7 min
c) 2-3 min
d) 9 min
e) 1 min
69. Acryl feeling material consists of:
*a) Powder and liquid
b) Powder and water (H2 O)
c) Paste and paste
d) None of the answers is correct
e) All answers may be correct (depending on the firm’s output)
70. Plugger is used for:
*а) Compression of feeling material in the cavities
b) Extraction of food debris, softened dentin
c) Insertion of a feeling material
d) Holding small tools
e) Mixing of a feeling material
71. Carious cavities of the II class according to Black are:
*а) Situated on adjoining surfaces of premolars and molars
b) Situated on adjoining surfaces of front teeth with destruction of cutting
edge
c) On the labial, cheek, and lingual surfaces that are situated in a precervical zone
d) In the area of fissures and natural deepening
e) Situated on the adjoining surfaces of incisors and canines with preserved
cutting edge
72. The first stage of cavity preparation is:
a) Opening and widening of the CC
*b) Forming of the CC
c) Necrectomy
d) Processing of CC’s edges
e) There is no difference with what to start.
73. What means would use a doctor if during the preparation a horn of a
pulp was accidentally opened?
*а) Processing with a mild antiseptic solution and putting a calcium paste.
b) Putting a devitalizing paste
c) Vital amputation of a pulp
d) Putting an isolating layer
e) Performing a remineralising therapy
74. An iodinol of what concentration is used for antiseptic preparation of
root channels?
*A. 1% aqueous solution
B. 0,5 % aqueous solution
C. 1.5 % aqueous solution
D. 2 % aqueous solution
E. 5 % aqueous solution
75. There was detected a carious cavity with a narrow inlet opening,
undermined enamel edges, filled with a light soft dentin, painful when
applying thermal tests and exploring a bottom of the cavity. Which layers of
the filling should be made while treating this patient?
*A. Treating and isolating layers, a permanent feeling
B. Glass-ionomer feeling
C. Amalgam feeling
D. Amalgam feeling
E. Temporary feeling
76. A patient was diagnosed: acute deep caries of 54th and 64th teeth. What
properties should have a treatment layer for feeling those cavities?
*A. Antiinflammatory, stimulating dentinogenesis
B. Antibacterial
C. Isolating
D. To be X-ray contrast
E. Hemostatic
77. Which optimal temperature is recommended in dental room for working
with photocomposite materials?
A. 21-24°С
B. 18-24°С
C. 24-26°С
D. 16-18°С
*E. It does not matter
78. What is the percentage of a hydrogen peroxide that is used for cleaning
dental mirrors?
*A. 6 %
B. 4 %
C. 3 %
D. 2 %
E. 10 %
79. Which of the mentioned below preparation has a strong antiviral
activity?
*A. Sterylium
B. 70% alcohol solution
C. 0.5% chloramine solution
D. 3% hydrogen peroxide solution
E. Chlorhexidine solution
80. Point out a retention period of keeping sterile surgical armaments in kaft
paper in a surgery of dental function?
A. 7 days
B. 20 days
*C 3 days
D. 21 days
*E 1 day
81. On the grinding surface of 56th there is a deep carious cavity. After a
preparation on the bottom zone a dentin is soft, exploring is a little bit
painful; a thermal test provokes a short term pain. Choose an optimal layer
for the first visit.
*A. Calcesil
B. Glass-ionomer cement
C. Polycarboxylate cement.
D. Artificial dentin
E. Phosphate cement
82. A patient is 11 years old. As a result of examination there was detected a
carious cavity within the limits of mental dentin in 73rd, which is of the III
class according to Black. The dentin is thick, slightly pigmented. Exploring
and cold test are painless. Choose a feeling material with remineralizing
properties.
A. Silicate cement
*B. Zink phosphate cement
C. Amalgam
D. Silicophosphate cement
E. Composite material
83. A deep carious cavity with softened dentin was detected in 84th.
Exploring in the bottom zone is slightly painful. Thermal test is painful at
the moment of stimulation. Percussion is painless. Choose a tool for
performing necroctomy
*A. Excavator
B. Wheel-shaped drill
C. Polisher
D. Curette
E. Scaler
84. A patient addressed the clinic next day after the amalgam filling was put
on the grinding surface of his 87th tooth. Lack of which filling component
provoked a pain while taking hot and cold food?
*A. Isolating layer
B. Treatment layer
C. Temporary dressing
D. Solidifying paste
E. Non-solidifying paste
85. There is a carious cavity in 66th tooth. Which material should be applied
while filling this cavity with a technique of opened variant ‘sandwich
technique’ for substitution of the dentin?
*A. Glass-ionomer cement
B. Phosphate cement
C. Sylidont
D. Silicin
E. Polycarboxylate cement.
86. Sterilization of tools, linen, dressing, suture material; preparation of
dentist's hands, especially a dental surgeon, are principles of:
*A. Asepsis
B. Antisepsis
C. Disinfection
D. Hygienic means
E. Presterilization means
87. Input of 3% sodium hypochlorite solution into a root channel, lavage
with an antibiotic solution or enzymes is
*A. Antisepsis treatment
B. Aseptic treatment
C. Mechanical treatment
D. Chemical treatment
E. Physical treatment
88. The cavity of 7th and 5th teeth is situated within the limit of grinding
surface. Point out the principle of formation of the I class cavity according
to Black.
*A. The angle between a bottom and walls of the cavity is 90°.
B. Forming of pre-gingival wall at the angle of 45°.
C. The angle between a bottom and walls is 120°.
D. Creation of an additional space.
E. Preserving overhung edges of an enamel.
89. While treating a deep caries a treatment layer on the basis of calcium
hydrate was used. What properties of this preparation predetermined its
choice?
*A. Reparative, antiinflammatory, anaesthetic
B. Sedative, antiseptic
C. Good edge adaptation.
D. High adhesion
E. Respectively law price of the material
90. In 52nd and 53rd teeth there are carious cavities in the zone of blind hole
that are filled with thick pigmented dentin. Exploring and cold test provoke
slight reaction. Point out to which class of destruction according to Black
such cavities are referred.
A. I class according to Black
B. II class according to Black
*C. III class according to Black
D. IV class according to Black
B. V class according to Black
91. There are carious cavities on the approximal surfaces of 52nd and 53rd
teeth. Point out to which class of destruction according to Black such
cavities are referred.
*A. III class according to Black
B. I class according to Black
B. II class according to Black
D. IV class according to Black
B. V class according to Black
92. Carious cavities are situated on the approximal surfaces of 62nd and
63rd teeth.
To which class according to Black are referred such cavities?
*A. III class according to Black
B. I class according to Black
C. IV class according to Black
D. II class according to Black
E. V class according to Black
93. In 64th tooth a carious cavity is situated in the pre-cervical zone.
To which class of carious destructions according to Black are referred such
cavities?
*A. V class according to Black
B. II class according to Black
C. I class according to Black
D. III class according to Black
B. IV class according to Black
94. What tools are referred to diagnostic ones?
A. Dental mirror, tweezers, explorer
B. Dental explorer
C. Dental mirror
*D. Dental mirror, tweezers, explorer, excavator
E. Dental mirror, tweezers, excavator, plugger
95. How many kinds of carious cavities are there according to Black?
*A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1
96. Which layer is put below amalgam?
*A. Isolating
B. Treatment
C. Linear
D. None
E. Glass-ionomer
97. Carious cavities are situated on the adjoining surfaces of premolars and
molars. What class are they according to Black?
а) I
*b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) V
98. A carious cavity is localised in a lingual surface of blind hole of medial
upper incisor. Which class does it belong to?
*а) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) V
99. Which filling material is used for filling carious cavities of the I class?
a. - Silicatophosphate cements
b. - Amalgam, cement
c. – Amalgam, halodent
*d. - Composite materials, amalgam
e. - Amalgam
100. While filling which classes matrixes are used?
*A. I, III, IV
B. I, III, V
C. II, IV, V
D. I, IV, V
E. I, III, II
101. Fillings of glass-ionomer cements are scaled and polished in:
*A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 1 hour
C. 6 hours
D. 10 hours
102. How are amalgams put into a CC?
*А. With a small dose that is rubbed lightly into the walls of CC with a help
of a plugger
B. With one portion
C. With several portions
D. It does not matter
D. With 2-3 portions
103. Sufficient adhesion of the material with tooth structures is provided by:
*A. Less than 15-18 MPa
B. More than 18 MPa
C. 40-50 MPa
D. More than 50 MPa
E. 35-40 MPa
104. CМ paste-paste in equal proportions should be mixed for:
*A. 10-15 sec
B. 1 min
C. 5 sec
D. 45 sec
E. 30-35 sec
105. What is the reason of using macrofils or hybrid CM with a high level of
excipient while filling the CC of the I class with a CM of chemical
solidification?
*А. For bearing a great masticatory load
B. For aesthetic reasons
C. For better adhesion of CM with a tooth tissue
D. For better durability of a filling
E. All answers are correct
106. Full polymerization of a composite lasts:
*А. Not less than 5 min
B. Not less than 1 min
C. 10 min
D. 30 sec
E. 7 min
107. What is the reason for widening a main areola in order to create an easy
access to interdental space in CC of the II class with a preserved dentition
on the brink of ‘filling-tooth’?
*А. Prevention of a secondary decay
B. For bearing a masticatory load
C. Not to injure gum
D. For aesthetic view
E. All answers are correct
108. What is the main aim when restoring a cavity of the IV class?
*А. Restoration of the cutting edge
B. Aesthetic view
C. Bearing a masticatory load
D. All answers are correct
E. Not to injure gum
109. The following are not used while filling CC of the V class in front
teeth:
*A. Amalgams
B. Composite materials
C. Inlays
D. Synthetic resins
E. All answers are correct
110. When feeling a CC of the III class the mass of silicate cement is
recommended to be put in:
*А. With one portion
B. With several portions
C. With several portions rubbing them into walls
D. Any of abovementioned variants
E. There is no correct answer
111. What feeling materials are used for feeling CCs of I and IV classes?
*А. Amalgam, Halodent-M
B. Halodent-M, phosphate cement
C. Phosphate cement, composite materials
D. All variants are correct
E. There is no correct answer
112. An enlarged distance between central incisors is called:
*A. Diastema
B. Trema
C. Contact point
D. Defect
E. There is no correct answer
113. An enlarged distance between other teeth is called:
*A. Trema
B. Diastema
C. There is no correct answer
D. Contact point
E. Defect
114. What is used for degreasing and drying of the CC?
*А. Alcohol, ether, dry air
B. Dry air, iodine
C. Iodine, antiseptics
D. Only dry air
E. All answers are correct
115. After what period of time a scaling and polishing of a filling is
performed?
*A. 10-12 hours
B. 12-24 hours
C. 11-14 hours
D. At once
E. 2-5 min
116. Into which zones does a contact point divide an interdental space?
*A. Alveolar and crown zones
B. Alveolar and precervical zones
C. Precervical and crown zones
D. All answers are not correct
E. All answers are correct
117. Cements are divided to:
*A. Mineral and polymeric
B. Phosphate and silicate
C. Polymeric and glass-ionomere
B. Zink phosphate and silicate
E. All answers are correct
118. Isolating liner is produced from neutral substances, such as:
*А. Phosphate cement, artificial dentinal fluid
B. Amalgam, halodent
C. Halodent, phosphate cement
D. All answers are not correct
E. Correct are 1st and 2nd answers
119. Scaling of edges of plastic feeling is performed with a:
*A. Carborundum stone
B. Diamond drill
C. Hard-alloy drill
D. None
E. All answers are correct
120. What CCs are appropriate to be filled with a plastic?
*A. III, IV, V
B. I, II, V
C. I, II, IV
D. I, III, V
E. I, II, III
121. Acryl feelings should not be used in the following CCs:
A. I, II
*B. I, VI
C. III, IV
D. I, IV
E. I, III
123. While filling what classes matrixes are not used?
A. I, VI
B. II, III
*C. І, V
D. III, IV
E. Only III
124. Carious cavities (CC) of the V class according to Black are localised:
*а) On the prepalatal area
b) On the approximal surface
c) On the occlusion surface
d) On the vestibular surface
e) On the medial surface
125. CCs of the II class according to Black are characterized by:
*а) Presence of an additional cavity which makes 1/2 of the main cavity
b) Presence of an additional cavity which is 1/2 bigger than the main cavity
c) Presence of an additional cavity which is of the same size as the main one
d) Presence of an additional cavity which is 2/3 bigger than the main cavity
e) Presence of a cone
126. III class B subclass according to Black is characterized by:
*а) A cavity with a thin layer of an enamel on the vestibular surface or its
destruction
b) CCs that get under the gums
c) CCs with preserved enamel on the vestibular surface
d) CCs affecting cutting edge
d) CCs with unaffected cutting edge
127. CCs of the IV class according to Black are localized on:
*а) Approximal surface of incisors and canines with destructed cutting edge
b) Approximal surface of incisors and canines with unaffected cutting edge
c) Approximal surface of incisors and premolars
d) Approximal surface of incisors and premolars with destructed cutting
edge
e) Approximal surface only of incisors.
128. What is a percentage of silver in silver amalgam?
а) 50%;
* b) 65%
c) 72%;
d) 55%
e) 30%
129. Which one of mentioned below refers to metal filling materials?
а) Visfat
b) Carbodent
d) Sylidont
d) Halodent-M
e) Acryloxide
130. On the basis of which material is created Halodent-M?
* а) Gallium
b) Mercury
c) Aluminium
d) Silver
e) Copper
131. For removal of food debris and filling material from a carious cavity,
performing necerctomy there is used:
а) Enamel knife
*b) Excavator
c) Dental explorer
d) Drill
e) Smoother
132. A carious cavity in the area of a fissure on the grinding surface of the
1st molar of a lower jaw refers to:
*а) 1 class
b) 3rd class
c) 5th class
d) 2nd class
e) 4th class
133. Which alloy is marked with gamma phase?
* а) Silver and tin (Ag3 Sn)
b) Silver and mercury (Ag2 Hg3)
c) Tin and mercury (Sn Hg)
d) Copper and tin (Cu6 Sn5)
e) Silver and tin (Ag3 Sn), silver and mercury (Ag2 Hg3)
134. Microfil composites are used for feeling:
*а) III, IV classes
b) II, III classes
c) I, V classes
d)
IV, I, III classes
e) V class
135. Macrofil composites are used for feeling:
*а) I, V
b) II, III
c) IV, V
d) III, IV
e) II, III, IV
136. While feeling a carious cavity of the III class a contact point was not
restored. What are the possible complications?
а) Loss of a filling
b) Progression of a secondary decay
*c) Development of papillitis
d) All answers are correct
e) There will be no complications
137. Preparation of a carious cavity is performed in several stages. Which
one does follow a widening of carious cavity?
*а) Necrectomy
b) Opening of a carious cavity
c) Forming a cavity of CC
d) Forming edges of CC
e) Extraction of a pulp
138. What is used for polishing fillings?
a) Spherical drills
*b) Scalers
c) Wheel-shaped drills
d) Pluggers
e) Polishing paste
139. To which class according to Black refer carious cavities that are
situated on the adjoining surfaces of molars and premolars?
*а) I class
b) IV class
*c) II class
d) V class
e) III class
140. To which class according to Black refer carious cavities that are
situated in cervical zone of all teeth?
а) III class
*b) V class
c) II class
d) IV class
e) I class
141. Which stage of preparation follows a widening of carious cavity?
a) Anesthesia
b) Opening
*c) Necroctomy
d) Treatment of an enamel edge
e) Amputation of a pulp
143. The first stage of cavity preparation is:
a) Opening and widening of the CC
*b) Forming of the CC
c) Necrectomy
d) Processing of CC’s edges
e) It makes no difference with what to start.
144. Carious cavities are situated on the adjoining surfaces of premolars and
molars. What class are they according to Black?
а) I
*b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) V
145. A carious cavity is localised in a lingual surface of a blind hole of
medial upper incisor. Which class does it refer to?
*а) I
b) II
c) III
d) IV
e) V
146. Such dental tools as enamel knife, excavator, drills, and separator are
referred to:
a) Tools for mouth examination
b) Tools for filling carious cavity
c) Tools for scaling and polishing fillings
d) Tools for preparation of amalgam
*e) Tools for preparation of carious cavity
147. With what kind of numerals are marked permanent teeth in a clinical
formula:
а) Roman
b) Hindu
c) Jewish
*d) Arabic
e) Your variant
148. Due to the low solidity cavities of these classes are filled with plastic.
a) I, II, III
*b) III, IV, V
c) III, V, II
d) I, IV, V
149. The third stage of cavity preparation is:
a. - Nephrectomy
*b - Forming a CC
c. - Opening and widening
d. - Forming edges of enamel
e. - Nephrectomy and forming a CC
150. What form should have cavities of the I class if a carious cavity is
localized in a blind hole of under palatal (lingual) surface of incisors?
a. - Crosslike or cylindrical
b. - Rhombic or triangular
*c. - Cylindrical or rectangular
d. - Oval or rhombic
e. - Oval
151. There are filled two contiguous carious cavities of the III class. What
should be treated after their simultaneous preparation and closing with a
temporary filling?
* а.- Inflammation of interdental papilla
b. - Parodontosis
c. - Gingivitis
d. - Stomatitis
e. - Periodontitis
152. An access of what form should be created for getting into a root
channel of molars of a lower jaw?
a. - Triangular
b. - Oval
c. - Oval, triangular
*d. - Quadrangular
e. - Crosslike
153. With the help of what drills are prepared cavities of the III class
according to Black?
* а. - Figured and inverted conical
b. - Spherical and cylindrical
c. - Figured and cylindrical
d. - Wheel-shaped and inverted conical
e. - Inverted conical
154. What is the shape of a tool tray?
a. - Oval
*b. - Kidney-shaped
c. - Square
d. - Round
e. - Wheel-shaped and figured
155. This dental tool is used for defining a filling material for a formed
cavity of a tooth, plastic working of the material, forming of anatomic
openings.
a. - Spatula
*b. - Smoother
c. - Plugger
d. - Excavator
e. - Explorer