Health Science-1
Exam Two
There are 80 questions on this exam worth 1.25 points each for a total of 100pts.
You CAN write on this exam. Please put a W (in pencil) on the top of this page if you do.
Multiple Choice Questions. Choose the letter that provides the best answer for each question.
1.
90% of nutrients from digested foodstuffs are absorbed in the __________________.
a.
2.
b. stomach
c. small intestines
d. large intestines
e. rectum
Chemical digestion refers to the use of _____________ to breakdown food material.
a.
3.
mouth
enzymes
b. oxygen
c. carbon dioxide
d. chewing
e. muscles
Chemical and mechanical digestion of food begins in the___________.
a.
mouth
b. esophagus
c. stomach
d. small intestines
e. large intestines
4.
The process in which foods you eat are broken down and absorbed, while indigestible or unwanted material is eliminated as
waste is called,
a. respiration
b. metabolism
c. digestion
d. mastication
e. circulation
5.
The esophagus is a tube that extends from the pharynx (throat) to the _______________.
a.
6.
small intestines
b. large intestines
c. stomach
d. liver
e. rectum
The digestive system contains enzymes that digest proteins and carbohydrates. If both enzymes are actively breaking down
these two substances, what types of molecules would be found in the digestive tract?
a.
fatty acids
b. amino acids
c. monosaccharides
d. a and c
e. b and c only
7.
A calorie is
a. a unit of heat energy
b. the amount of energy required to raise one liter of water 1 Cº
c. equal to 3500 pounds
d. equal to 1500 pounds
e. a and b only
8.
All essential nutrients
a. must be obtained through the digestive system
b. are not made fast enough by the body to meet its physiological needs or not made by the body at all
c. supply energy
d. are lipids, proteins or carbohydrates
e. a and b only
9.
Which of the following macronutrient distributions is consistent with the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges
(AMDR) set by the Food and Nutrition board?
a. 40% of daily calories as protein, 40% of daily calories as carbohydrate, 20% of daily calories as fat
b. 30% of daily calories as protein, 35% of daily calories as carbohydrate, 35% of daily calories as fat
c. 10% of daily calories as protein, 65% of daily calories as carbohydrate, 25% of daily calories as fat
d. 15% of daily calories as protein, 45% of daily calories as carbohydrate, 40% of daily calories as fat
e. none of the above
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Health Science-1
Exam Two
10. Omega-3 fatty acids are a type of lipid that,
a. increases total cholesterol levels
b. regulates various biochemical reactions
c. increases blood pressure
d. reduces blood clotting
e. increases triglyceride levels
11. Food additives,
a. are used to maintain the freshness of foods
b. enhance the flavor of foods
c. help in processing or preparation of foods
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
12. A by-product of hydrogenation is/are
a. monounsaturated fats
b. trans fatty acids
c. cholesterol
d. triglycerides
e. none of the above
13. Fiber is an example of
a. a simple carbohydrate
b. a complex carbohydrate
c. a protein
d. a lipid
e. none of the above
14. If a package of spaghetti noodles lists that it contains functional fiber this means that
a. it contains the natural fiber that is found in the grain used to make the spaghetti noodles
b. fiber has been hydrogenated
c. fiber has been isolated from a natural source and added to the spaghetti noodles
d. the fiber has been removed and replaced with an artificial substance similar to fiber
e. a and b only
15. Triglycerides:
a. are composed of glycerol attached to three fatty acid chains
b. supply more calories per gram than carbohydrates do
c. aid in the absorption of fat soluble vitamins
d. insulate and support body tissues
e. all of the above
16. Leading sources of saturated fats in the American diet include all of the following EXCEPT
a.
red meats
17. Types of lipids include:
a. steroids
b. peeled fruit
c. poultry
d. hot dogs
b. phospholipids
c. triglycerides
d. amino acids
e. pork chops
e. a, b and c only
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Exam Two
18. The form of cholesterol that carries cholesterol out from the liver to other parts of the body and leads to cholesterol deposits on
the artery walls is/are
a.
LDL’s
b. HDL’s
c.VLDL’s
d.triglycerides
e.none of the above
19. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
a. are bad cholesterol because they shuttle unused cholesterol back to the liver for recycling
b. are bad cholesterol because they deposit the cholesterol they are carrying in blood vessels
c. are good cholesterol because they pick up cholesterol from places in the body where it can cause damage
d. have nothing to do with transporting cholesterol around the body
e. none of the above statements characterize HDL’s
20. A high fat diet is dangerous because,
a. it increases caloric intake
b. it can lead to severe chronic diseases
c. it can lead to obesity
d. it makes it difficult to manage weight
e. all of the above
21. Which of the following are richest in complex carbohydrates?
a. grains and legumes
b. fruits, milk, and cheese
c. milk and vegetables
d. fruits and honey
e. none of the above
22. Carbohydrates
a. provide 4 calories/gram
b. are the main source of fuel for cells
c. are sugars
d. can be simple or complex
e. are all of the above
23. Fiber
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
can help prevent constipation by increasing fecal bulk
is readily broken down by the body
is found in high amounts in all animal products
is not a recommended for ones diet
a and b only
24. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding vitamins?
a. vitamins are required by the body in large amounts
b. the human body does not manufacture most vitamins
c. vitamins provide direct energy to the body
d. vitamins are best taken in the form of vitamin supplements
e. none of the above are true
25. Foods with a high glycemic index,
a. are foods such as whole grains and vegetables
b. are mainly fruits
c. cause a sharp rise in cortisol
d. cause a sharp rise in glucose and insulin
e. a and b only
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Exam Two
26. To control your blood cholesterol levels, the most important action you can take is to limit the amount of _______________
in your diet.
a. polyunsaturated fat
b. saturated and trans fats
c. monounsaturated fat
d. omega-3 fat
e. alpha linolenic acid
27. When grains are refined,
a. the bran and germ are removed
b. it transforms whole-wheat flour to white flour
c. fiber, vitamins and antioxidants are lost
d. they retain their calorie content
e. all of these are correct
28. The extent to which the body can respond or adapt to the demands and stress of physical effort is called,
a. physical fitness
b. physical activity
c. peak workload
d. anaerobic capacity
e. none of the above
29. All of the following are health-related components of physical fitness EXCEPT
a. cardiorespiratory endurance
b. flexibility
c. coordination
d. muscular strength
e. body composition
30. Which one of the following is an example of physical fitness?
a. exercising for thirty minutes while at home
b. lifting a 25 lb weight 10 times for 3 repetitions
c. building muscle tissue in response to a weight training program
d. swimming seven laps in 20 minutes
e. playing a game of tennis
31. To gain maximum cardiorespiratory endurance benefits which of the following should one consider?
a. How quickly the body temperature rises
b. The amount of sweat being produced/minute
c. Maximal oxygen consumption (VO2)
d. The amount of tension generated in the large muscle groups
e. C and D are correct
32. The ability of your lungs to extract oxygen from the environment and for your heart to pump this oxygenated blood around the
body illustrates _________________________.
a. cardiorespiratory endurance
b. muscular endurance
c. muscular strength
d. flexibility
e. body composition
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Exam Two
33. Cardiorespiratory endurance depends on
a. how well you can move your joints through their full range of motion
b. the amount of lean tissue to body fat
c. the ability of your body to divert blood to muscles during exercise
d. the ability of the lungs to deliver oxygen from the environment to the bloodstream
e. c and d only
34. Stretching exercises should ideally be performed
a. with a swinging, bouncing motion
b. to the point of intense pain
c. 5 to 7 days a week
d. within a 5-minute time period
e. none of the above
35. Flexibility is,
a. beneficial because it reduces the stiffening of joints with age
b. the ability to move joints through their full range of motion
c. the ability to run long distances without your muscles fatiguing
d. achieved by weight training
e. a and b only
36. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the effects of exercise on metabolism and body composition?
a. exercise can reduce the incidence of depression and anxiety
b. over time, exercise lowers the resting heart rate
c. exercise increases caloric expenditure and thus helps regulate body weight
d. over time, exercise increases the strength of bones, ligaments and tendons
e. exercise or physical activity always results in physical fitness
37. What is the recommendation by the American College of Sports Medicine in order to develop muscular strength?
a. 1 day /week
b. 2 nonconsecutive days/week
c. 2 consecutive days/week
d. 3 to 4 consecutive days/week
e. 5 to 6 days/week (nonconsecutive)
38. When the body adjusts to lower levels of physical activity in the same way it adjusts to higher levels this is called_________.
a.
reversibility
b. overload
c. duration
d. flexibility
e. intensity
39. Stored fat is most dangerous in terms of an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease when it is stored in the,
a.
hips
b. buttocks
c. subcutaneous layer
d. abdomen
e. hypodermis
40. Visceral fat is
a. stored fat in the abdomen
b. mainly composed of cholesterol
c. fat that is just below the skin
d. a and b only
e. b and c only
41. A hormone thought to be linked to obesity is
a.
leptin
b. adrenalin
c. epinephrine
d. norepinephrine
e. none of the above
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Health Science-1
Exam Two
42. Characteristics of the condition called the “female athlete triad” are
a. muscle pain, osteoporosis, obesity
b. osteoporosis, amenorrhea, low self-esteem
c. osteoporosis, amenorrhea, abnormal eating patterns
d. binge eating, low-self esteem, excessive physical activity
e. abnormal sleeping patterns, amenorrhea, excessive physical activity
43. Which of the following are health risks that are associated with obesity?
a. Type II diabetes
b. CVD
c. hypertension
d. impaired immune function
e. all of the above health risks are associated with obesity
44. Compulsive behaviors, excessive exercise and a failure to eat enough food to maintain a reasonable body weight are all
characteristics of
a. binge eating
b. body dysmorphic disorder
c. voluntary starvation
d. anorexia nervosa
e. bulimia nervosa
45. An eating disorder characterized primarily by alternating binge eating and self-induced purging is
a. anorexia nervosa
b. bulimia nervosa
c. binge eating
d. body dysmorphic disorder
e. mania
46. Skinfold measurements measure
a. visceral fat
b. fat underneath the skin
c. the amount of lean tissue a person has
d. the waist circumference
e. all of the above
47. Insulin resistance (as in type II diabetes) is a term that refers to
a. a condition where body tissues are extremely sensitive to insulin
b. a condition where insulin is not produced in the body
c. an excessive amount of insulin in the bloodstream
d. a condition where body tissues do not respond to insulin
e. none of the above
48. Hydrostatic (underwater weighing) is used to predict percent body fat based on
a. body mass index
b. body density
c. height
d. height and total body weight
e. how quickly electricity flows through the body
49. To calculate body mass index (BMI) one must,
a. consider their height and gender
b. consider their height and weight
c. consider skinfold measurements and height
d. consider their age and their height
e. none of the above
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Health Science-1
Exam Two
50. A person with the least risk of developing cardiovascular disease based on their body mass index is
a. a person with a BMI between 30 and 40
b. a person with a BMI between 18.6 and 24.9
c. a person with a BMI greater than 40
d. a person with a BMI between 25 and 30
e. all of the above individuals are at an increased risk of developing CVD
51. A person with a BMI of ______ is considered overweight.
a. 18.5
b. 23.5
c. 26
d. 31
e. 33
52. If Mary is at a healthy weight, where she doesn’t want to lose or gain any weight over time, she needs to make sure that
a. she maintains a positive energy balance
b. she maintains a negative energy balance
c. her caloric intake and caloric expenditure are equal
d. she is burning more energy than what she is taking in
e. none of the above
53. Researchers frequently use BMI in conjunction with ____________ to examine the health risks associated with body weight.
a. caloric intake estimates
b. activity assessments
c. resting metabolic rate
d. waist circumference
e. gender
54. Which of the following is the most accurate way to measure percent body fat?
a. Skinfold measurements
b. Body mass index (BMI)
c. Electrical impedance
d. Hydrostatic (underwater weighing)
e. Height-weight charts
55. The basis for the electrical impedance method of determining percent body fat is based on
a. the fact that electricity prefers fat tissue over lean tissue
b. the fact that electricity prefers lean tissue over fat tissue
c. the amount of subcutaneous fat that can be pinched on the surface of the skin
d. body density
e. images can be created by powerful magnets
56. Percent body fat
a. is not important when considering a person’s risk for developing certain chronic diseases
b. can only be determined by measuring the fat beneath the skin
c. the proportion of the total body weight that is due to fat
d. is the same as body mass index (BMI)
e. is none of the above
57. It is important to have powerful muscles because
a. they prevent injuries from occurring
b. they keep the skeleton aligned properly
c. they maintain posture
d. you can compare them with other people to show them how strong you are
e. a, b and c only
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Health Science-1
58. If John wants to increase his muscular endurance, it is recommended that he
a. weight trains five days/week
b. performs cardiorespiratory exercises for 30 minutes 3 days/week
c. weight train with a lighter weight, doing many repetitions
d. weight train with a heavier weight, doing fewer repetitions
e. does stretching exercises 2 days/week
Exam Two
59. Exercise intensity refers to
a. the number of times per week you exercise
b. how hard you work
c. the length of your exercise session
d. the quantity of exercise you get
e. none of the above
60. The ability of muscle to sustain a given level of muscle tension and to resist fatigue is
a. cardiorespiratory endurance
b. muscular strength
c. muscular endurance
d. flexibility
e. body composition
61. Any movement using skeletal muscles and requiring energy is called,
a. physical fitness
b. physical activity
c. peak workload
d. flexibility
e. cardiorespiratory endurance
62. Resting metabolic rate is
a. the energy required to maintain vital body functions
b. the sum of all the processes by which food energy is used by the body
c. the body’s daily energy expenditure
d. the energy required to digest food
e. none of the above
63. Calories are lost through
a. resting metabolism
b. physical activity
c. digestion
d. doing thirty minutes of exercise each day
e. all of the above
64. Recommended treatment of minor soft tissue injuries such as bruises includes all of the following, EXCEPT
a. rest
b. elevation
c. ice
d. massage
65. In order to construct a healthy lifestyle for successful weight management one must consider
a. portion sizes
b. limiting their total daily caloric intake of protein and carbohydrates
c. the energy density of the foods they consume
d. their eating habits such as making sure that they are not eating to cope with stress
e. all of the above must be considered
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Health Science-1
Exam Two
True or False Questions. If any portion of the statement is false, the entire statement is false.
66. Vitamins A and D are water soluble vitamins.
a. true
b. false
67. Lean meats are a good source of phytochemicals.
a. true
b. false
68. Hydrogenation is used to increase the stability of lipids, but also increases the degree of saturation in foods.
a. true
b. false
69. Gastroenteritis due to a food borne illness is most often due to exposure to bacteria rather than viruses.
a. true
b. false
70. A person with an apple shape is at a greater risk for developing diabetes and heart disease than a person with a pear shape.
a. true
b. false
71. Consumption of refined carbohydrates causes a slower rise in blood glucose levels than does consumption of unrefined
carbohydrates.
a. true
b. false
72. Sodium and potassium are trace minerals.
a. true
b. false
73. Whole grain bread is more nutrient-dense than are most white breads.
a. true
b. false
74. Foods containing large amounts of saturated fatty acids are usually solid at room temperature.
a. True
b. false
75. Genes influence body size, shape and where fat is distributed on your body.
a. true
b. false
76. Footwear is an important piece of equipment for almost any activity.
a. true
b. false
77. Strength training can help improve body composition by increasing muscle mass.
a. true
b.false
78. Your muscles consume more oxygen and produce more energy shortly after you begin a workout.
a. true
b. false
79. If a man has a waist circumference of 42 inches, this is considered a health risk for chronic diseases.
a. true
b. false
80. Regular exercise improves learning and memory and metabolic rate.
a. true
b. false
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