A330 2009 – 2010 Systems and Procedures Validation Q&A

A330 2009 – 2010 Systems and Procedures Validation Q&A

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Systems and Procedures Validation Q & A

AIRBUS A330

2009 – 2010

Updated : 02/02/10

Send corrections / comments to:

Bob Sanford, E-mail: busdriver@hky.com

Preflight

1. If the destination airport has no instrument approach available or a circle-to-land must be

conducted, the forecast ceiling must be a minimum vectoring altitude (MVA) or _1,000_ feet AGL (with

_3_ miles visibility), whichever is _higher_. If the destination’s instrument procedure specifies a

controlling ceiling (i.e., Ceiling Required), the forecast ceiling must be at or _above_ the pertinent ceiling. Reference: FOM 7.5.3

2. If released to a destination that is conditionally forecasted to be below landing minimums (i.e., using

Exemption 3585), _two_ destination alternates must be listed on the Flight Release. In addition, while

enroute, the _dispatcher_ and _captain_ will ensure the most current, relevant destination/alternate weather report(s) and forecast(s) are used. Reference: FOM 7.5.5

Exemption 3585. This exemption allows the release of a domestic flight based on the main body of a forecast. The conditional portion of the forecast containing such words as “probability”, “temporary”, and “becoming” does not prevent an otherwise acceptable release. Therefore, when a destination airport is conditionally forecasted to be below landing minimums, it is possible to release the flight to the destination using this exemption subject to the following conditions:

— Two destination alternates must be listed on the Flight Release.

— While enroute, the dispatcher and the captain will ensure the most current, relevant weather report(s) and forecast(s) for the destination and alternate airport(s) are used.

• Note •

Exemption 3585 cannot be used for flag operations, supplemental operations or for “High Minimum” captains.

3. During preflight planning, you note that MEL 22-10-03A has been placed on the aircraft. What

OperationalRestrictions apply? CAT II/III Operations Prohibited Can the autopilot be used during

flight? Yes, see below

REF: MEL 22-10-03A.

22-10-03 Take Over Pb Switches Condition A

One may be inoperative provided: a) Autopilots are not utilized below 1500 feet AGL, b) Approach minimums do not require the use of the autopilot, and c) Priority function is verified to operate normally c) Priority function is verified to operate normally before each departure.

Operational Restrictions

- CAT II/III OPERATIONS PROHIBITED

Operations Procedures

1. Prior to each departure verify the priority function of the affected p.b. remains operative by accomplishing the applicable procedure below:

A. If the autopilot disconnect function of the Captain's takeover p.b. is inoperative:

1) Press the Captain's takeover p.b.

2) Ensure the voice message “priority left” is activated.

3) Ensure the red arrow on the First Officer's side illuminates.

B. If the autopilot disconnect function of the First Officer's takeover p.b. is inoperative:

1) Press the First Officer's takeover p.b.

2) Ensure the voice message “priority right” is activated.

3) Ensure the red arrow on the Captain's side illuminates.

2. Engagement or use of the autopilots at less than initial approach altitude is prohibited.

3. Review placarding procedures.

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Unofficial Airbus Study Site www.airbusdriver.net


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Ref: https://wings.usairways.com/uswings/workgroups/ops_planning (use outside access link)

4. With the above referenced MEL, what does the "C" repair category mean?

Repaired within ten (10) consecutive calendar days

REF: MEL Preamble Definitions.

Category C. Items in this category shall be repaired within ten (10) consecutive calendar days (240 hours), excluding the day the malfunction was recorded in the aircraft maintenance record/logbook. For example, if it were recorded at 10 a.m. on

January 26th, the 10 day interval would begin at midnight the 26th and end at midnight February 5th.

5. During the Captain's Flight Deck Prep Flow the "Engine Fire Test" push button does not generate a

"Fire Test. Maintenance Control decides to place MEL 26-21-02A on the aircraft. What are the

Operations Procedures you must comply with? See below

REF: MEL 26-21-02A.

26-21-02 ENG FIRE TEST Condition A

May be inoperative provided verification is made before the first departure of each day that the fault is in test circuit only.

Operations Procedures

1. It must be verified that the fault is in the test circuit prior to the first flight of each day. Verification will be a log book entry indicating "Failure verified to be in test circuit per MEL 26-21-02 procedure". Ensure this entry appears in the log book for the current flight day.

2. Review placarding procedures.

6. With MEL 26-21-02A, can the flight crew placard? No

REF: MEL 26-21-02A.

A Crew Placard is identified by a “Y” in the “Flight Crew May Placard” column in the MEL Table.

7. Your international flight has been dispatched under re-release provisions. The flight time from your departure station to the release station is planned at 4 hours and 45 minutes. The flight time from your re-release point to your destination station is planned at 1 hour and 16 minutes. The weather at the release station is forecast to be 1 SM and OVC 035, while the weather at your destination is VFR. What

alternates are required on your flight plan? _d_ a.

One alternate is required. The destination is VFR, but the total flight time is more than 6 hours, so an international alternate is mandated. b.

Two alternates required. One for the release station, and another for the destination since the total flight time is over 6 hours. c.

None are required. Both segments are less than 6 hours, and the destination weather is the only one that needs to be considered. d.

One alternate is required for the release station, since the forecast visibility is lower than 3 sm, or 2 sm above the lowest compatible visibility minimums, whichever is greater. No alternate is required for the destination because the weather forecast is VFR and the flight time from rerelease to destination is less than 6 hours.

Reference: FOM 7.5.4

International Operations: Alternates for international flights are evaluated on weather and segment length criteria. For flights:

 not operated under re-release provisions, the segment length is from departure to destination station.

 operated under re-release provisions, there are two segment lengths: one from the departure station to the release station and the other from the re-release point to the destination station.

Note: Alternates may be required for one or both segments.

An alternate airport is not required for international flight segments scheduled for 6 hours or less if:

 either the destination weather reports and forecasts within ±1 hr of the ETA indicate the:

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_____________________________________________________________________________________ o ceiling will be at least 1,500 ft above the lowest compatible published instrument approach minimum, or 2,000 ft above the airport elevation, whichever is greater, and o visibility will be at least 3 sm, or 2 sm above the lowest compatible approach visibility minima for the planned approach, whichever is greater, for the instrument approach procedure to be used at the destination airport;

 or the segment(s) are conducted over a route approved without an available destination alternate, and, considering wind and other weather conditions, the aircraft can fly to the destination and at least 2 hours thereafter at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Exception: An alternate may be planned when single runway operations, runway contamination, winds approaching crosswind limits, or when other special considerations are present.

8. During the exterior inspection, you notice that the tread on a tire has completely worn away. Should

you notify maintenance? Yes (notify maintenance if any tires show cord, are cut, or tread groove(s) are worn completely away)

REF: PH 2a.4.1

9. During the First Officer's Flight Deck Equipment Flow, it is noted that one normal procedures

checklist is missing. May the flight continue? Yes

REF: PH 2a.3.1. (Now 2a.3.4 Expanded Flow)

Normal Procedures Checklist (2 copies) - the PH checklists may be used.

• Note •

If any required form or manual is missing, make a write up in the FDML and contact maintenance. If any non- required form or manual is missing, make an information only write up.

10. When is the "Flight Deck Door" check accomplished and by which crewmember? First Officer’s

Flightdeck Equipment Flow (First Flight of the day)

REF: PH 2a.3.4.

If a flow or checklist is preceded by the diamond symbol ( ◆ ), that item is accomplished only on the first flight of the day (i.e., the first flight entered into the FDML under the current day using local time).

11. For Non-ETOPS operations, the nearest _suitable_ airport should provide the _highest_ level of safety while considering the exposure to the non-normal procedure. ATC controllers have charts and directories which are helpful in determining the best alternatives. Reference: FOM 4.12.1

Factors to consider:

 in-flight hazard created by non-normal

 time to diversion airport and aircraft performance

 enroute weather and terrain

 terminal weather, terrain and instrument approach facilities

 number, length and condition of runways

 pilot airport familiarity

 airport NOTAMs

 facilities including crash, fire, and rescue capabilities

Note: The nearest suitable airport in this context is not the same as the ETOPS definition of a suitable airport.

12. The crew arrives at the aircraft in EDDF and starts the Flightdeck Preparation Flow. When the

Captain checks the ADIRS Panel, should a full alignment be performed? Yes

REF: PH 2a.7.3(Ref: 2a.7.2 – not a diamond item)

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13. Arriving at the aircraft before a flight, the crew notices the external power is ON and the APU is

OFF. Before starting the APU, is an APU FIRE TEST required? Yes

REF: PH 2a.2.3 and PH 2a.7.3

• Note •

Before starting the APU, ensure an APU FIRE TEST is accomplished (see paragraph 2a.7.3, "Expanded Flow", “APU FIRE

Panel” flow item).

14. While checking the batteries, the Captain turns the batteries OFF, clears the ECAM, selects the

ECAM ELEC DC Page, then selects the batteries back ON. What are the three battery charge current

requirements? Ten seconds after selecting ON, the three battery charge currents are below 60 amps and decreasing.

REF: PH 2a.7.3

15. What are the Maximum Takeoff and Maximum Landing Weights for the A330-300; A330-200?

REF: PH 1.2.3

A330-300 A330-200

Maximum Takeoff 513,600 513,600

Maximum Landing 412,200 401,200

16. If the Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure is below 1000 PSI, what reference should be used to determine

MIN Bottle Pressure? See table below

REF: PH 1.15.3

17. After the Captain completes the Alternate Brakes Check, the PARK BRK is set ON. How does the

Captain confirm its actual position? Confirm by ECAM MEMO and BRAKES and ACCU PRESS indicator

(Ref 2a.7.3)

18. During the First Officer's Flightdeck Preparation Flow, the RCDR GND CTL need not be ON to get a

successful CVR Test, true or false?

REF: PH 2a.8.3.

19. Is there any requirement for the First Officer to perform an actual Cargo Smoke Test during the

accomplishment of the First Officer's Flightdeck Preparation Flow? No

REF: PH 2a.8.3.

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START

1. A fuel slip is normally required, but may be substituted with a verbal acknowledgement from the

gate agent that the proper fuel was loaded, true or false?

REF: 2b.1.7. (Ref 2b.1.8)

The captain ensures the required fuel is on board and a fuel slip is in his possession prior to gate departure

2. Is there any mechanical connection between the thrust levers and the engines? No

REF: A-330 Training Manual 7-70.1.4.

3. It is now approximately 15 minutes prior to departure. What flow should be accomplished and what three activities does this trigger also assume have already occurred?

Before Start Flow; assumes fueling complete, clearance received, and APU started.

REF: PH 2b.2.1

4. When a PDC ***REVISED SEGMENT*** is received make sure the _FMS routing_ matches the ATC

clearance. The revised segment and the original filed segment must be _combined_ to determine the

new clearance. Reference: PH 2b.3, 2b.4 and FOM 2.2.7

A PDC revised segment will be followed by the original filed segment. The two must be combined to determine the new clearance. Ensure the ATC clearance matches the FMS routing. If the ATC clearance matches the Flight Release routing, verify the Release total mileage is close to the FMS mileage. If ATC clearance differs from the Flight Release routing, ensure fuel is adequate for flight. Confer with the dispatcher when necessary.

5. In the Captain's Before Start Flow, the Parking Brake need not be set to ON as long as the aircraft is

chocked or attached to the tug with the tow bar, true or false?

REF: PH 2b.3.3.

6. During preflight, the APU fails to start. Can the APU be put on MEL for ETOPS operations?

REF: MEL 49-11-01 (ER OPS beyond 120min. prohibited.) No

7. During the Before Start Checklist, the crew responds to the FUEL QTY as 116.2 Required, 115.5 On

Board. Is this within the fuel variance allowed on the Gate Release fuel requirement? Yes

REF: PH 2b.1.7

A variance of 500 pounds or 1% of the “Gate Release” fuel load (whichever is greater) is allowed

8. If the TPS shows your flight is "Weight Restricted", may you push back from the gate prior to

receiving the final W&B data? No

REF: FOM 6.1.6.

Whenever the Takeoff Performance System Departure Plan indicates a “Weight Restricted Flight” or “CG Critical Flight”, a

“W&B Gate Hold” is in effect.

Procedure.

1. The captain will notify the controlling dispatcher if actual fuel on board exceeds gate release fuel by any amount.

2. The captain will not depart the gate until receiving the final W&B data.

3. Upon receipt of final W&B data, the captain informs the station agent and requests the jetway be removed.

9. If the TPS shows your flight is "Weight Capped", can you push back from the gate prior to receiving

the final W&B data? Yes Push is allowed prior to receipt of final weight and balance

REF: FOM 6.1.6

10. Prior to pushback, if NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms the

steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, what is the Captain's response? Do not pushback: Contact Maintenance

REF: PH 2b.3.3 and PH 2b.7.3.

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11. Before starting the After Start Flow, what three triggers must occur before initiating the Captain's

or First Officer's Flow? After ground equipment is clear, first officer verbally acknowledges the captain’s wands up signal statement, and engine(s) are stabilize

REF: PH 2b.13.1 and PH 2b.14.2

12. Departing EDDF on RWY 25R, the crew starts the engines and starts to taxi out to the RWY 25R

holding point. What is the engine warm-up time requirement prior to applying takeoff thrust? 5 min.

REF: PH 2b.11.6

Operate engines for at least 5 minutes prior to applying takeoff thrust to allow engine temperature to stabilize. Exception: If an engine has been shutdown for 1 and 1/2 hours or less, then the 5 minute warm-up can be reduced to a minimum of 3 minutes (workload permitting).

BEFORE TAKEOFF

1. A flight crew discovers an aircraft discrepancy that occurs after dispatch but before takeoff. In what manual is a decision aid located to assist the crew in determining if the flight can safely continue or

should return to the gate for maintenance action? Pilot Handbook

REF: PH 2c.1.1.

2. Both engines have been shutdown during taxi out due to an extended ground delay. At the end of the ground delay, before starting engines, is the flight crew required to complete the Before Start

Checklist? Yes

REF: PH 2c.5.

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In the event both engines are shut down due to an extended ground delay, accomplish the following:

• Note •

This procedure assumes the aircraft is not chocked or connected to a tug.

1. APU.........................................................................................START

2. PARK BRK....................................................................................ON

3. Engines .............................................................................. Shutdown

At the end of the ground delay, complete the Before Start Checklist, start engines and complete the remaining checklists.

3. Low visibility taxi operations are authorized if the Captain decides visibility is sufficient, true or false.

REF: PH 2c.6.1

Taxi operations are authorized if the captain decides visibility is sufficient. Conduct checklists only when the aircraft is stopped or taxiing straight ahead without complex intersections.

4. Performing non-essential duties or activities during critical phases of flight is prohibited. Critical

phases are defined as: All ground operations involving _taxi_, _takeoff_, and _landing_, and all other

flight operations conducted below _10,000_ feet MSL except for cruise flight. Reference: FOM 1.7.6

Note: An aircraft stopped on the ground with the parking brake set is not in a critical phase of flight.

5. For aircraft equipped with radar dual tilt controls, select CAPT during radar use below 2500 feet AGL, true or false.

REF: PH 2c.12.3.

A330-200: With radar tilt in AUTO use gain +8 when below 15,000 feet.

6. When accomplishing the Takeoff Data portion of the Taxi Checklist, the First Officer will read the takeoff data directly from the paper Final Weight and Balance (and TPS or Performance Chapter of the

Pilot Handbook, if applicable). The Captain will confirm the correct values are displayed. If the weight

on the lower ECAM is not within _two thousand pounds of the ramp weight, what would be the crew's responsibility?

REF: PH 2c.13.1

The first officer will read the Ramp weight directly from the paper Final Weight and Balance. The captain will confirm the aircraft weight on the lower ECAM is within two thousand pounds of the Ramp weight on the Final Weight and Balance. If the difference is greater than two thousand pounds then ensure the difference is reasonable considering estimated taxi fuel burn.

7. Flight crews are always prohibited from entering the E&E compartment through the cockpit floor

after dispatch, true or false?

REF: PH Limitations 1.14.1.

• Note •

Flight crews are prohibited from entering the E & E compartment through the cockpit floor after dispatch without specific direction from dispatch or maintenance.

TAKEOFF

1. Departing EGCC the visibility is reported as 500 meters. What is the minimum visibility required for a

First Officer to conduct a takeoff? 1600 ft. (500 meters) RVR for any RVR on that runway, or 1/4 statute mile (if no RVR is reported for that runway).

REF: PH 2d.2.1, QRH OD Pages.

2. After performing a rejected takeoff, the aircraft came to a complete stop using autobrakes MAX. How

would the Captain release the brakes prior to taxiing? Disarm the spoilers

REF: PH 2d.6.4

3. On T/O, at what speed does the nosewheel steering become disabled?

Above 100 knots

REF: A-330 Training Manual (at home cd) or found on the HUB, 2d-1.

4. Following loss of thrust at or above V1, the PF will rotate, with one continuous motion, at a rate of

about __3__ degrees per second toward a pitch attitude of _12.5_ degrees.

REF: PH 2d.8.9.

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5. What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff? 29/G32

REF: PH 1.3.1.

6. An engine failure occurred after V1. The ECAM procedures should be accomplished after reaching engine out acceleration altitude. Is it ever permissible to accomplish ECAM procedures prior to engine

out acceleration altitude? Yes

REF: PH 2d.8.13

ECAM procedures should be accomplished after reaching engine out acceleration altitude. However, under compelling circumstances such as severe vibration, adverse flight characteristics, etc., it may be necessary to accomplish the ECAM/QRH procedure(s) as early as 400 ft. AFE.

7. RNAV SID procedures are authorized and require as a minimum single FMS with DME/DME/IRU or

GPS updating, flight director, and autopilot. Additional requirements may be listed in the chart's Note

section, true or false

REF: PH 2d.10.1.

8. Many European stations are extremely noise sensitive. For all European SIDS, use RNAV Departure

procedures as much as possible, true or false.

REF: PH 2d.10.1.

9. When departing LFPG on the EVX 1Y off of RWY 27L, the crew may engage the autopilot at _100_ feet.

REF: PH 2d. 10.1, PH 1.10.1 and FOM 16b.1.3

After Takeoff in SRS mode, 100 feet AG L(an internal FMGC logic prevents the autopilot from engaging the 5 seconds after liftoff). Autopilot should be engaged by 500 feet.

10. When departing on an RNAV SID, the Required Navigational Performance (RNP) for RNAV 1

procedures is _1.0_ NM. For normal operations, cross-track error should be limited to _0.5_ NM. During

and immediately after a turn, momentary deviations up to _1.0_ NM are allowed.

REF: PH 2d.10.1

11. The maximum time limit to use TOGA power is normally 5 minutes. In the event of an engine

failure, is this limit different? Yes, 10 min (only in case of engine failure)

REF: PH Limitations 1.12.3

CLIMB, CRUISE & DESCENT

1. Maximum angle climbs are normally used for obstacle clearance, or to reach a specified

altitude/flight level in a minimum distance. Its value varies with gross weight. __GREEN DOT__ speed approximates the maximum angle climb speed.

REF: PH 2e.3.3

2. The word "HEAVY" used with the radio call sign is required within terminal facilities (i.e., approach/departure control or tower, ground, etc.) and on initial contact with a U.S. facility when

entering from ICAO airspace, true or false.

REF: FOM 1.6.7

3. During an international flight, you have to divert to an unplanned foreign location with Federal Air

Marshals (FAMs) onboard. At the time of the diversion, you should coordinate with the _current_

_ATC_ _facility_. In addition, you need to contact the OCC and communicate the diversion facts and that FAMs are onboard. When landing, you must also notify the ATC facility that FAMs are onboard the aircraft. Reference: FOM 5.5.8

4. Maximum rate climb speed is normally used to reach a specified altitude/flight level in a minimum

time. The maximum rate climb speed is ___250 KIAS/.78M____.

REF: PH 2e.3.3

5. On the Engine Fire Panel, what activates the AGENT 1 pb & AGENT 2 pb? When the flight crew pops the ENG FIRE pb for the associated engine.

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REF: A-330 Controls & Indicators manual (kept on the flight deck) 7-26.1.1

6. On the APU Fire Panel, what activates the AGENT pb? When the pilot pops the APU FIRE pb

REF: A-330 Controls & Indicators manual (kept on the flight deck) 7-26.1.2

7. An engine failure driftdown terrain analysis is performed on all filed routes when terrain along and within five statute miles either side of the route exceeds 6,000 feet. If the aircraft cannot maintain

terrain clearance along the route, it must _ proceed to an enroute alternate airport _ provided in the

Body/Scratchpad of the flight release. Reference: FOM 12.9

 Calculation Process: An analysis is performed when terrain along and within five statute miles

(sm) either side of the route exceeds 6,000 ft. The system verifies terrain clearance capability ahead and behind the aircraft in the event of engine failure.

 Terrain Clearance – Method 1 Level Off: The system first determines if the aircraft can driftdown and maintain a positive slope clearing all terrain along and within five sm either side of the route by at least 1,000 ft. If so, no diversion airports and no dispatcher action are required.

 Driftdown - Method 2 Driftdown Alternates: If the aircraft cannot maintain terrain clearance while continuing or returning along the route of flight, it must proceed to an enroute alternate airport. The point at which the failure becomes terrain critical is called a decision point.

Diversion airports are required when there are two or more decision points. The aircraft must driftdown clearing all terrain by at least 2,000 feet, then proceed to the enroute airport, clearing all terrain by at least 1,000 feet. The direct route to the enroute airport is analyzed within five sm on either side of the route.

 Climb or Descent. If the driftdown program detects limiting terrain during the climb or descent phase, it will generate a message on the flight plan advising the crew that terrain clearance is the captain’s responsibility, and to refer to appropriate charts.

8. Periodic system checks are required throughout the flight. Perform a check approximately every hour associated with the closest flight plan waypoint. One recommended method is to perform a _

HEFOE (Hydraulic, Electric, Fuel, Oxygen, Engine) check.

REF: PH 2e.8.3

9. In flight, you notice an intermittent malfunction that cleared itself. You also remember this

malfunction has been written up in the FDML _2_ or more times (excluding this occurrence) in the past

_10_ days. When entering this discrepancy into the FDML, you cannot make an _INFO_-_ONLY_ write- up. Reference: FOM 8.3.5

10. Use _6_ bells to notify the flight attendants when an emergency could require an evacuation. Use

_2_ bells to notify the flight attendants when a precautionary landing situation exists. Reference: FOM

1.6.12

11. (True or False) Engine parameters are automatically recorded via the ACARS. Should the ACARS or any applicable equipment be inoperative, manual entry of engine parameters is required.

REF: PH 2e.8.7

12 .A mechanical discrepancy occurs in-flight. Does the MEL apply? No Should the Captain notify OCC?

Yes

REF: PH 2e.8.12 and FOM 16b.2.15

Time permitting, when at or above 10,000 feet, the captain will update the aircraft FDML and advise OCC of mechanical discrepancies via ACARS message or VHF radio relay through an Operations frequency.

• Note •

MEL does not apply. Refer to appropriate source (e.g., QRH, ECAM, FOM, PH, etc.).

13. When opening the flight deck door, someone must be in control of the door _at all times_ and that person must be able to immediately close it if necessary. The amount of time the flightdeck door is

open is directly related to the security of the flightdeck and should be limited to _3_ seconds or less.

Reference: FOM 5.4.2

14. What is the maximum flap extension altitude? 20,000 feet

REF: PH 1.3.1

15. During extended high altitude operations, especially in the cold winter months, it is possible to

experience cold fuel temperatures. What is the Minimum Fuel Temperature for JET A? -40 °C

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REF: PH 1.6.2

16. If cruising at FL 350 and the one and only other pilot has to leave the flight deck to go the

bathroom, the remaining pilot must _don oxygen mask_ when the departing pilot leaves his/her

station. If a rapid decompression should occur, the time of useful consciousness is approximately _15_ to 30 seconds. Reference: PH 2e.8.2 and FOM Training Manual 11.4.4

17. Where does the fuel come from that supplies the APU? The trim tank transfer line.

REF: A-330 Training Manual (at home cd) or found on the HUB, 7-49.1.3

During APU operation, either the FWD APU pump or the AFT APU pump (depending on the status of the trim line) runs continuously. The ECB controls fuel flow to the APU.

18. When climbing, at what altitude does the APU Bleed Valve automatically close? 25,000’

REF: A-330 Training Manual (at home cd) or found on the HUB, 7-49.1.4

It is automatically closed climbing through 25,000’, and allowed to re-open descending through 23,000′.

19. What is the normal power source for FADEC inflight? Its own alternator.


The system has its own alternator rendering it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 rpm is above a set value.

If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches over to aircraft electrical power.

20. In the event of a trim tank forward transfer pump failure, do not select the trim tank forward when

the pitch attitude is above 3 degrees. Why? To avoid inadvertent fuel aft transfer.


21. Is there any operational situation in which it would be necessary to reset a tripped fuel boost pump

or fuel indicating system circuit breaker? No

REF: PH Limitations 1.14.1

22. What happens when the INNER TK SPLIT P/B is pressed? ON: The valve closes and the inner tank is split in two parts (300, guarded)

REF: A-330 Training Manual 7-28.2.1

INNER TK SPLIT L (or R) pb (guarded)

Off: The emergency isolation valve (inner tank division) is open. The inner tank is used as a single tank.

ON: The valve closes and the inner tank is split in two parts. In case of tank damage the fuel from either inner tank division may be used. The ON light illuminates amber.

SHUT Illuminates blue when the valve is shut.

23. IDG cooling is accomplished by _fuel_, and supplemented by engine fan air as necessary.


Fuel from the low pressure pump, and at low RPM, return fuel from the Fuel Metering Unit (FMU), passes through the IDG heat exchanger. The fuel return valve is controlled by the FADEC, which regulates IDG temperature through the FMU and through control of the IDG fan air shut off valve.

24. Descending through 18,000 feet, the PF calls for the Descent-Approach Checklist and the PM does

what 3 things before accomplishing it? • SEAT BELTS – ON, • ECAM – Checked, • MCDU - Set

REF: PH 2e.14.2

25. What happens if during flight the Autothrust is turned off with the pb on the FCU? The thrust lock function is activated with the thrust levers in the CL detent (MCT detent with one engine out).


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26. During "Thrust Lock", a single chime sounds and the Master Caution light flashes every five

seconds. When do the warnings cease? When the thrust levers are moved out of the CL detent (or MCT detent with one engine out)


APPROACH

1. If the estimated fuel on board at landing is anticipated to be below a 30 minute supply, what actions

are required of the flight crew? b a.

Ask ATC for vectors to the nearest suitable airport, and inform dispatcher of your diversion. b.

Declare an emergency due to low fuel. c.

Slow the aircraft to save fuel, and advise ATC that your TAS will be off more than 5 knots from you filed TAS. d.

Make a Minimum Fuel advisory.

Reference: FOM 10.4

Emergency Fuel Advisory: Declare emergency fuel to ATC and report fuel remaining in minutes if:

 the estimated fuel on board at landing is below 30 minutes (plus fuel to alternate if required) or

 the projected fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing.

An ASAP/Event Report is required.

2. While being vectored to final the F/O requests flaps 1. The Captain checks the airspeed and selects flaps 1. A status message appears that has previously been discussed. How does the PM handle this

situation? State “No change.”

REF: PH 2f.1.2.

3. (True or False) During approach preparation, default values are left unchanged on the PERF GO-

AROUND page.

REF: PH 2e.9.2.

4. For proficiency purposes, a visual approach may be flown without the autopilot or FD. The

autothrust may also be disengaged, if pre-briefed, under what conditions? In day VMC conditions.

REF: PH 2f.2.6

5. When below 1,000 feet RA, the speed parameters for a "Stabilized Approach" are a speed above VLS,

no less than Target -5 and no greater than Target +__10__kts. allowing for transitory conditions.

REF: PH: 2f.1.2

6. In VMC conditions, an approach does not have to be stabilized by 500 feet RA as long as clearance

for landing has been received, true or false?

REF: PH 2f.1.2.

7. There are two similar yet different notes on approach plates regarding special certification or special

authorization required. For special certification, these special approach minima are flown as _coupled_ approaches to decision altitude or initiation of a missed approach, unless visual contact with the runway environment allows safe continuation. If the approach is flown to the standard minima, a

coupled approach is _not_ required. For special authorization, if an approach note contains “SPECIAL

AIRCREW & AIRCRAFT AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED”, you cannot fly the approach unless it is

authorized in the _Airport_ _Advisory_ _Pages_. Reference: FOM 2.6.2

8. If the auto callout feature is not working during approach, what must be accomplished? The PM is required to make these callouts

REF: PH 2f.3.2.

9. What is the minimum height for use of the autopilot during an ILS Approach (non-autoland). 160 feet AGL (U)

REF: PH 1.10.1

10. Fuel transfers from the outer to the inner tanks by gravity when the trim tank has been emptied and either wing inner tank fuel quantity drops to about _ 7,700_ pounds.


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11. When the flaps are at 2, 3, or Full or when the landing gear is down, FADEC's Approach Idle mode is

activated. What is the purpose of Approach Idle? Allows the engine to accelerate rapidly from idle to

TOGA thrust.


GO AROUND & LANDING

1. (True or False) During a go-around, the aircraft will climb to the FCU altitude and will not comply with lower altitude restrictions. If a crossing altitude restriction is present on the missed approach which is below the missed approach altitude, the crossing altitude must be set in the FCU altitude window.

REF: PH 2g.2.2

2. Can go-arounds initiated below 1000 AFE use either TOGA or CLIMB thrust? No

REF: PH 2g.2.3

3. Maximum reverse thrust should not be used below __70__ knots. Idle reverse is permitted until the aircraft is stopped.


4. (True or False) Unless a missed approach was initiated by ATC, the pilot will include the reason for the missed approach to ATC.

REF: PH 2g.8.1

5. If a missed approach is executed prior to reaching the missed approach point (MAP) or DH, continue

the instrument procedure to the MAP at an altitude __at__ or ___above___ the MDA/DDA or DH before executing the turn.

REF: PH 2g.8.1

6. When at minimums on an approach with the runway insight, can a pilot continue to a landing if the

reported visibility is still less than the required visibility? No

REF: PH 2g.9.2

7. When a go-around is initiated, what annunciation must be verified on the FMA? MAN TOGA - SRS -

GA TRK

REF: PH 2g.3

8. If during a CAT II/III approach, the required airborne or ground equipment becomes inoperative, a manual landing may not be executed on the approach, even if CAT I conditions or better exist and the

required CAT I equipment is operational, true or false?

REF: PH 2g.8.1

9. Unless unusual conditions dictate otherwise, the thrust levers should be at IDLE prior to starting the

flare at approximately __20__to__30__ feet.

REF: PH 2g.12.2

10. Both thrust levers must be at idle for full __ ground spoiler __ deployment.

REF: PH 2g.12.2.

11. When the main gear touch down on landing, IDLE REVERSE thrust is immediately selected. When

can maximum reverse thrust be selected? When REV green is indicated in the E/WD, select maximum reverse thrust consistent with runway conditions and modulate reverse thrust as required.

REF: PH 2g.12.7

12. If conducting an autoland with one engine inoperative, the use of the remaining thrust reverser is permitted providing_ not more than idle reverse thrust is used __and crosswind component is not more than 15 knots .

REF: PH 2g.12.7

13. Use of the autobrake system is a normal procedure for landing with a crosswind component greater

than 10 knots. Yes

REF: PH 2g.12.8.

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Use of the autobrake system, if available, in MED or LOW is normal procedure for:

• All landings on wet and slippery runways

• When landing rollout distance is limited

• When aircraft configuration requires use of higher than normal approach speeds

• A crosswind component greater than 10 knots

• All CAT II/III landings

14. If conducting an approach to an autoland on a CAT II/III runway when the weather is greater than

800/2, crews must advise approach control of the autoland. Why? To ensure that the ILS critical zone is free of obstructions.

REF: PH 2g.12.11.

15. When landing, after reverse thrust is initiated, can a decision be made to discontinue the landing

and go around? No

REF: PH 2g.16.1.

16. If a touchdown in the first one third of the available landing distance (but in no case greater than

3000 feet down the runway) is not assured, what must happen? A rejected landing must be executed.

REF: 2g.17.6

17. What is the minimum runway length for LAHSO? 7,000 feet

REF: PH 1.3.1

18. The nosewheel steering tiller should not be used above how many knots? Normal taxi speeds (30 knots).

REF: PH 2g.12.6

19. On landing rollout, the PM still calls out "60 knots," true or false?

REF: PH 2g.13.

20. After landing, a radio call to the station while taxiing inbound is _not_ _normally_ _necessary_ unless gate verification is required. Do not call prior to receipt of the ATC taxi clearance and completing the after landing flow. Reference: PH 2h.4.2

PARKING & POSTFLIGHT

1. To give maintenance an early alert, when at or above _10,000_ feet, report any in-flight

discrepancies as soon as possible using the ACARS _MTC_ function. Briefly describe the nature of the problem. You can expect maintenance to reply to the ACARS; however, if no response is received,

crews should call _MOC_ upon arrival at the gate. Reference: FOM 2.4.2

2. Upon gate arrival, during the F/Os "Shutdown Flow", the residual groundspeed check is normally accomplished; however, it is possible the check would need to be completed when taxi delays are

incurred longer than __2__ minutes?

REF: A-330 Training Manual (at home cd) or found on the HUB, 2H.7

3. After landing, the trigger for the Captain calling "FLAPS UP" is the aircraft clearing the active

runway. True

REF: PH 2h.2.2.

4. If the OAT is greater than 38C/100F, the F/O should place the FLAPS Lever in the __1__ detent during taxi and at the gate.

REF: PH 2h.3.3

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5. If a decision is made to single engine taxi to the gate, run the engines at IDLE for approximately three (3) minutes before shutting down engine #2.

REF: PH 2h.4.3

6. Prior to selecting ENG 2 MASTER-OFF when single engine taxiing, the F/O will verbally communicate

with the Captain to ensure no __brake__ or _steering__ inputs are being made.

REF: PH 2h.4.3

7. If the APU was required prior to shutting down engines, when would the APU bleed be selected ON?

Just before or after engine shutdown to prevent engine exhaust fumes from entering the air conditioning

REF: PH 2h.6.3

8. When performing the "SECURE CHECKLIST", if the APU is left running, the APU BAT must remain ON

to ensure __ fire protection.

REF: PH 2h.10.1

9. If an autoland was conducted, log this fact by entering the "AUTOLAND" on the last page of the

ACARS postflight report, true or false? (and successful)

REF: PH 2h.9.4.

10. If at a non-maintenance station, the pilot will advise _MOC_ through the _controlling_ _dispatcher_ if any open discrepancy exists in the FDML. Reference: FOM 2.9.6

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A330 2009 – 2010 Systems and Procedures Validation Q&A

Systems and Procedures Validation Q & A

AIRBUS A330

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A330 2009 – 2010 Systems and Procedures Validation Q&A

Systems and Procedures Validation Q & A

AIRBUS A330

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