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EXAM STUDY GUIDE – S.W. 150/02 Stewart Fall 2010
Multiple Choice Questions:
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 1
1-1. The mythology of autonomous practice refers to:
a) the shortage of private practice jobs in the social work labor market.
b) the idea that most medical professionals practice as sole practitioners.
c) the assumption by social work practitioners that their clients are relatively insulated from
external policies.
d) None of the above.
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 3
Competency: Professional Identity
1-2. Dependency occurs when:
a) An individual is not adequately fulfilling a role.
b) Social institutions are not providing adequate supports to enable the individual to fulfill a role.
c) Both of the above.
d) Neither of the above.
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 4
Competency: Professional Identity
1-3. When an individual is doing everything necessary to fulfill a role and the appropriate social
institutions are functioning
well enough to support the person's role performance we have:
a) Interdependence.
b) Dependency.
c) Social justice.
d) Economic justice.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 4
Competency: Professional Identity
1-4. Which is not considered a type of macropractice?
a) Planning.
b) Counseling.
c) Policy.
d) Administration.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 5
Competency: Policy Practice
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1-5. Macropractice has been called:
a) Wholesale social work practice.
b) Working to effect social change.
c) Dealing with the cause of a social problem.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:5-6
Competency: Policy Practice
1-6. Individualism as used by the authors means:
a) People deserve the majority of the credit for any success they experience.
b) People deserve most of the blame for any failures they experience.
c) That micropractice is more socially acceptable than macropractice.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 6
Competency: Critical Thinking
1-7. In Abraham Flexner's 1915 assessment, social work met this standard of being professional:
a) Demonstrated communicable techniques.
b) Derived from science and learning.
c) Altruistic.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:8
Competency: Professional Identity
1-8. Social work responded to Flexner's critique by:
a) Focusing on social casework.
b) Organizing the American Association of Professional Schools of Social Work.
c) Rejecting social legislation and settlement house work as part of the social work curriculum.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 9
Competency: Professional Identity
1-9. The market-based model of professional practice relies on:
a) A historical example of private medical practice that is no longer dominant.
b) An anti-corporate and anti-bureaucratic perspective.
c) Validation by the attraction of customers in a business model.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:11
Competency: Critical Thinking
1-10. The three systems that comprise the policy-based professional model are:
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a) Family system.
b) Economic system.
c) Legal system.
d) None of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:12
Competency: Policy Practice
1-11. Proletarianization refers to:
a) An anti-bureaucratic bias.
b) A Marxist theory of history in which capitalism that strips all workers of control over their
work.
c) A shift in authority from the professional to the office.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 13
Competency: Critical Thinking
1-12. Studies of organizations do not support proletarianization because:
a) Professionals are recognized under U.S. labor law as a special group.
b) Professionals are subject to supervision by other professionals.
c) Both of the above.
d) Neither of the above.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:13
Competency: Professional Identity
1-13. The strengths of the policy-based professional model include:
a) Acceptance of difficult-to-define functions as part of social work practice.
b) Acceptance of social work practice within an organizational context.
c) Acceptance of systemic influences on human behavior.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:14
Difficulty: 2
Competency: Policy Practice
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 2
2-1. In a philosophical sense, social policy may mean:
a) the opposite of rugged individualism.
b) increasing government involvement in social life and the pursuit of greater equality, equity,
and social justice.
c) both a and b.
d) neither a nor b.
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Answer: C
Page Ref.:21-22
Competency: Policy Practice
2-2. The continuing struggle of humanity for equality is an best described as an example of:
a) social policy.
b) social welfare policy.
c) public policy.
d) none of the above.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 22
Competency: Policy Practice
2-3. Libraries, parks and recreation, tax codes, and family law are examples of:
a) social policy, but not social welfare policy.
b) social welfare policy, but not social policy.
c) both social policy and social welfare policy.
d) none of the above.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 22
Competency: Policy Practice
2-4. The Educational Policy and Accreditation Standards understand the knowledge base of
policy practice to include:
a) the history and current structures of social policies and services.
b) the role of policy in service delivery.
c) the role of practice in policy development.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:23
Competency: Policy Practice
2-5. The four basic policy practice skills are:
a) critical thinking, active listening, empathy, and acceptance.
b) analytic skills, political skills, interactional skills, and value-clarifying skills.
c) problem definition, compromise, negotiation, and debate.
d) none of the above.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 23
Competency: Policy Practice
2-6. What helps explain the significant role of the private sector in American social welfare
policy?
a) Social welfare services grew out of the activities of the private sector.
b) Government was reluctant to assume responsibility for social welfare.
c) The social work profession resulted from the policies of the private sector.
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d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 23-24
Competency: Practice Contexts
2-7. Which best describes the contemporary opinion of for profit organizations in social welfare
service delivery?
a) They are frowned upon as unfit partners for government.
b) They are disparaged as unfair competition for scarce resources.
c) They are seen as a business role models.
d) None of the above.
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 24
Competency: Practice Contexts
2-8. Which most accurately describes the evolving roles of public and private sectors in the
delivery of social welfare
services?
a) The majority of the funds for social services is private.
b) The majority of the funds for social services is public.
c) The majority of the funds for social services are paid by clients as fee-for-service.
d) None of the above.
Answer: B
Page Ref.:20
Competency: Practice Contexts
2-9. Which sectors provide the most macrolevel polices?
a) Public and private nonprofit.
b) Private nonprofit and private for profit.
c) Public and private for profit.
d) None of the above.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 25
Competency: Practice Contexts
2-10. Which level of policy is most likely to be described as a "basic framework" for the
provision of services?
a) Macrolevel.
b) Mezzolevel.
c) Microlevel.
d) None of the above. The basic framework is a public policy concept.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:25
Competency: Policy Practice
2-11. Which level of policy is most likely to be described as "actual service" to clients?
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a) Macrolevel.
b) Mezzolevel.
c) Microlevel.
d) All of the above because they all involve a client focus.
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 26
Competency: Policy Practice
2-12. When a social work practitioner exercises a high degree of discretion in the provision of
social services, this is most
likely to be an example of what level of practice?
a) Macrolevel.
b) Mezzolevel.
c) Microlevel.
d) None of the above.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:26
Competency: Policy Practice
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 3
3-1. Identify the best description of academic social science research and applied policy research.
a) Doctoral level
b) Published in accessible sources
c) Rigorously researched
d) All of the above
Answer: D
Page Ref.:34
Competency: Policy Practice
3-2. Identify the best description of practitioner policy analysis.
a) Masters or doctoral level research
b) Published in-house
c) Lowest level of sophistication
d) Policy research is tangential to their primary professional role.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:34
Competency: Policy Practice
3-3. What are the four types of descriptive policy analysis?
a) Content, choice, comparative, and historical.
b) Survey, qualitative, quantitative, and mixed methods.
c) Neither of the above.
d) Both of the above.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:36
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Competency: Policy Practice
3-4. Universal allocation of social welfare benefits is characterized by:
a) categorical eligibility.
b) the creation of a right to the benefit.
c) group membership.
d) none of the above.
Answer: B
Page Ref.:37
Competency: Policy Practice
3-5. Which type of benefit is the most ethical as measured by the degree of self-determination it
promotes with the client?
a) Cash benefits.
b) In-kind benefits.
c) Vouchers.
d) All types of benefits equally promote self-determination.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:38-39
Competency: Ethical Practice
3-6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a centralized delivery system for social
welfare benefits?
a) Bureaucratic.
b) Competitive.
c) Cooperative.
d) Convenient.
Answer: B
Page Ref.:41
Competency: Critical Thinking
3-97 Which statement is most true of "contracting out" services by public agencies?
a) Contracting out is a fairly recent means of funding social welfare services.
b) Contracting out rarely if ever involves participation by private, for profit organizations.
c) Contracting out almost always improves the delivery of social welfare services.
d) None of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:42
Competency: Practice Context
3-8. In theory, which statement is most true of organizational accountability for social welfare
services?
a) Public agencies are accountable to the general public.
b) Private, nonprofit agencies are accountable to their board of directors.
c) Private, for profit agencies are accountable to the clients they serve.
d) All of the above.
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Answer: D
Page Ref.:40-41
Competency: Practice Context
3-9. George W. Bush's faith based initiative:
a) was approved by Congress and became federal law in 1996.
b) was based on the claim that faith can accomplish what secular programs cannot accomplish.
c) upheld long-standing federal opposition to proselytizing and nondiscriminatory hiring
practices.
d) was aimed at funneling federal dollars to large religious organizations.
Answer: B
Page Ref.:43
Competency: Practice Contexts
3-10. In a logical evaluation, a policy's internal rigor and consistency is assessed by looking at
the:
a) internal consistency of the policy's multiple goals.
b) consistency between a policy's goal and the means of achieving the goal.
c) difference between intended and unintended consequences.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:46-47
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
3-11. The two parts to a quantitative evaluation are:
a) effectiveness (outcome) and efficiency (cost-effectiveness) evaluations.
b) quality and quantity evaluations.
c) statistical and narrative evaluations.
d) program and project evaluations.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 47
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
3-12. As a science, policy analysis is limited due to:
a) the limited analytical capacities of human beings.
b) conflicts between intergroup values and ethics.
c) resource limitations for conducting research.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:50
Competency: Critical Thinking
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 4
4-1. Which is not an example of an essential skill of analysis and critical judgment in historical
analysis?
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a) The development of hypotheses or guiding questions.
b) Systematic gathering and analysis of evidence to understand relationships between factors.
c) The discovery of patterns or the creation of principles to explain these relationships.
d) Control of rival hypotheses in an experimental context.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:58
Competency: Critical Thinking
4-2. Which of the following is not a conclusion drawn from Geoffrey Guest’s study of poverty
relief?
a) The 19th century humanitarian impulse appeared unchanged from the 18th century.
b) Householders who boarded paupers did so reluctantly.
c) Public support for paupers did not vary despite their place of residence.
d) Economic considerations seem to have always played a more important role than
humanitarian impulses in relief
systems for the poor.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:58-59
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-3. Geoffrey Guest’s research on colonial poor relief illustrates these aspects of historical policy
analysis:
a) Historical policy analysis is dependent on primary source documents.
b) Conclusions drawn by historians, in the absence of primary source documents, may be faulty.
c) Both a and b.
d) Neither a nor b.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:58
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-4. Eve Smith’s study of early 20th century orphanages concluded that past children’s
institutions would not be appropriate
models for contemporary children institutions because:
a) Early 20th century orphanages primarily served children of poor single mothers who remained
actively involved in
decisions affecting their children.
b) Early 20th century orphanages primarily served children on a temporary basis.
c) Early 20th century orphanages served few children with high levels of emotional and physical
problems.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:59-60
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-5. The best historical policy analysis relies upon:
a) Primary data sources.
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b) Secondary data sources.
c) Both a and b.
d) Neither a nor b.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:61-62
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-6. The first step in a historical policy analysis is:
a) The formation of a hypothesis or guiding framework.
b) Gathering evidence.
c) Evaluating and interpreting evidence.
d) Determining what the evidence means.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:62-63
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-7. Important questions for the historical policy analyst to ask of the sources do not include:
a) What do other historians say about the document?
b) Is the source authentic?
c) What was the condition of the witness of the event?
d) What was the intent of the document in question?
Answer: A
Page Ref.:64
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-8. Which of the following is not an example of a common error in historical interpretation?
a) Cross-cultural errors and Presentism.
b) Generalizing beyond the facts.
c) Reducing a multitude of historical factors into a single explanation.
d) Use of statistical analyses.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:64-66
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-9. Charles Murray’s Losing Ground has not been criticized for:
a) Generalizing beyond the facts.
b) Reducing all the diversity of history to one thing.
c) Presentism.
d) Making errors in the analysis of data.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:65-66
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-10. Historical policy analysis cannot provide:
a) Neat formulas for avoiding past mistakes with clear descriptions of what caused certain
events.
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b) Suggestions from past failures and successes of what might work today.
c) An awareness of the importance of social, political, and economic factors in policy issues.
d) An understanding of where we’ve been in order to understand where we are today.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:68
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-11. One indication the quality of a historical policy analysis is:
a) The complexity of the factors considered.
b) The simplicity of the solutions provided.
c) Both a and b.
d) Neither a nor b.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:68
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
4-12. The Benton Park Crisis Center example suggests that it is difficult to combine:
a) Innovation and standardization.
b) Volunteer and professional help.
c) A focus on client need and a cheerful staff.
d) Casualness and regulations.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:68-70
Competency: Practice Contexts
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 5
5-1. Why do sociologists claim that objective conditions are not sufficient explanations of how
social problems are defined?
a) People disagree in their assessment of objective conditions.
b) Social problems are socially constructed.
c) Both A and B.
d) Neither A nor B.
Answer: B
Page Ref.:76
Competency: Critical Thinking
5-2. What is the best explanation for the difference between a primary and a derivative problem?
a) A primary problem has a genetic cause; a derivative problem is behavioral.
b) A primary problem impacts the majority of people; a derivative problem only impacts a
minority.
c) A primary problem is usually addressed by a social welfare policy; a derivative problem is
not.
d) A primary problem is the cause; a derivative problem is the consequence.
Answer: D
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Page Ref.:76
Competency: Critical Thinking
5-3. Which correctly identifies the sequence of steps in a social/economic analysis?
a) Economics, goals, facts, theories, values, hypotheses, boundaries, and problem.
b) Values, theories, hypotheses, boundaries, problem, facts, goals, and economics.
c) Boundaries, problem, facts, theories, values, goals, hypotheses, and economics.
d) Problem, facts, goals, boundaries, theories, values, hypotheses, and economics.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:74-87
Competency: Research Based Practice
5-4. Rational choice assumes that people:
a) Are purposive and goal oriented.
b) Have hierarchically ordered preferences.
c) Make rational cost/benefit calculations.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 78
Competency: Human Behavior
5-5. Less eligibility refers to:
a) A principle of social service delivery that limits eligibility to those who most need services.
b) A principle of financial assistance policy that restricts welfare benefits in comparison to the
least comfortable
working person.
c) Both A and B.
d) Neither A nor B.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 81
Competency: Human Rights & Justice
5-6. Freedom understood as freedom from excessive and arbitrary external restraint and has
resulted in:
a) A tendency to think of rights rather than of duties.
b) A suspicion of established authority.
c) A distrust of government.
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 82
Competency: Human Rights & Justice
5-7. American individualism, in the broadest terms, means:
a) Acceptance of state imposed restrictions.
b) Impatience with restraints upon economic activity.
c) Support for individual rebellion against his/her social group.
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d) All of the above.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 82
Competency: Human Rights & Justice
5-8. Legislation to resolve racism, sexism, and other prejudices is best explained by:
a) A conflict of values.
b) An economic cost/benefit analysis.
c) The Minimax principle.
d) Rational choice theory.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 84
Competency: Critical Thinking
5-9. Which of the following values is consistent with providing help for the poor?
a) Humanitarian Mores
b) Achievement and Success
c) Individualism
d) Activity and Work
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 80
Competency: Human Rights & Justice
5-10. Which of the questions below is central to resource allocation amid scarcity?
a) Do the policy measures we support work?
b) How much benefit is obtained by a given expenditure?
c) Are resources divided fairly?
d) All of the above.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 88
Competency: Human Rights & Justice
5-11. Which of the following is not included in an economic analysis of a social welfare policy?
a) The macroeconomic ramifications of the policy.
b) Identification of funding mechanisms to support the policy.
c) An assessment of the impact of the policy on the behavior of individuals.
d) The opportunity costs associated with implementing the policy.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 88-89
Competency: Research Based Practice
5-12. Economic analysis of social welfare policy cannot:
a) Compare the costs associated with alternative policy proposals.
b) Estimate the benefits of alternative policy proposals.
c) Explain the behavior of one individual at a specific point in time.
d) Predict the policy’s impact on behavior in the aggregate.
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Answer: C
Page Ref.: 90-91
Competency: Human Behavior
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 6
6-1. Stakeholders are:
a) social workers that operate solely in the political arena.
b) all the actors interested in and potentially affected by a policy.
c) individuals that utilize a specific social program.
d) None of the above.
Answer: B
Page ref.:97
Competency: Diversity in Practice
6-2. The major theories in policy making are:
a) pluralism, public choice, and elitism.
b) legitmization, rational decision making, and public choice.
c) pluralism, incrementalism, and rational decision making.
d) None of the above
Answer: A
Page ref. 99
Competency: Critical Thinking
6-3. Pluralism is:
a) still a major approach to policy study in the United States.
b) is a policy making model established by Robert Dahl, Nelson Polsby, and others.
c) assumes a “marketplace of ideas” where individuals can participate decision making through
membership in organized
groups.
d) all of the above
Answer: D
Page ref.: 100
Competency: Critical Thinking
6-4. A critique of the Pluralism model is:
a) not every voice makes it to the debate.
b) that social work professionals cannot participate due to conflict of interest.
c) often large institutions dominate interest representation and member based interest groups
have little voice or
representation.
d) Both a and c
Answer D
Page ref.: 100
Competency: Diversity in Practice
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6-5. The model of policy development where people on the lower rungs of society are viewed as
powerless is referred to as:
a) Pluralist
b) Capitalist
c) Elitist
d) Analytical
Answer: C
Page ref.: 101
Competency: Critical Thinking, Diversity in Practice
6-6. Rational decision making, incrementalism, and conflict theory are examples of
a) Policy development models
b) Policy analysis models
c) Political analysis theories
d) None of the above
Answer: A
Page ref.: 102:
Competence: Critical Thinking
6-7. Charles Lindblom describes policy change as:
a) “ a nice neat package”
b) “an untidy process”
c) “ a democratic endeavor”
d) “ the right of every individual”
Answer: B
Page ref: 103
Competency: Critical Thinking
6-8. A criticism of the rational decision making model claims that
a) It is rarely possible for decision makers to review all policy alternatives and research their
costs, benefits, and “fit” with social goals
b) It does not take into account the policy makers’ influence in the political arena
c) People are generally reluctant to implement major changes quickly
d) Both a and c
Answer: D
Page ref.: 103
Competency: Critical Thinking
6-9. Conflict theory:
a) Stresses the existence of conflicts and contradictions that are built into society.
b) Suggests that change may come in violent or nonviolent forms.
c) Is widely discussed in all social policy books
d) All of the above
Answer: D
Page ref.: 103
Competency: Critical Thinking
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6-10. In the legitimization phase:
a) A proposed policy receives further refinement and definition, largely through negotiation and
compromise.
b) A problem is clearly defined and a policy to address the problem begins to be formulated.
c) A proposed policy is considered legitimate and becomes enacted.
d) A problem is judged on its legitimacy and impact on society.
Answer A
Page Ref.: 111
Competency: Critical Thinking
6-11. Secondary legislation
a) Occurs during rational decision making when a compromise must be reached in order to
implement a policy.
b) Is a critical phase of problem definition.
c) Is an administrative process that occurs during policy implementation.
d) None of the above.
Answer: C
Page ref.: 112
Competency: Critical Thinking
6-12. Martha Deitrick argues that policy implementation:
a) Can be fairly swift and easy to incorporate into existing structures if there is enough agency
staff.
b) Often includes sweeping changes that are implemented too quickly and are often resisted by
the affected population.
c) Is often problematic due to policy maker’s lack of attention to agency characteristics such as
budget, staff size, and other agency resources that impact the administration of a policy.
d) Both a and b.
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 112
Competency: Diversity in Practice
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 7
7-1. The mothers’ pension program and later the ADC program were never intended to support:
a) Widowed mothers
b) Young mothers
c) Deserted mothers
d) Unwed mothers
Answer: D
Page Ref. 122-123
Competency: Human Rights and Justice
7-2. A short lived strategy that was based on the idea that “blocked opportunities” were the main
cause of unemployment was:
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a) Social Service Strategy
b) Institutional Strategy
c) Child Support Strategy
d) Human Capital Strategy
Answer: B
Page Ref.124
Competency: Human Rights and Justice
7-3. The total number of TANF recipients in 2006 represented roughly what percentage of the
population?
a) 25%
b) 5%
c) 2%
d) 12%
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 129
Competency: Critical Thinking
7-4. In the onion metaphor the middle layer of people consist of:
a) People that receive assistance for two to eight years, and are on-and-off again users of the
public welfare system.
b) People that enter the system due to a discrete event, and use the system for two or fewer years.
c) People that have serious physical and emotional impairment and functional self sufficiency is
not a realistic objective.
d) People who are systems dependant and receive assistance for eight or more years.
Answer: A
Page Ref. 133
Competency: Human Rights and Justice
7-5. Public Assistance programs like TANF encompass roughly what percentage of federal
government spending?
a) 60%
b) 35%
c) 10%
d) 1%
Answer: D
Page Ref. 138
Competency: Critical Thinking
7-6. Research on macroeconomic analyses of public assistance conclude that:
a) Public assistance generates a major burden on the economy.
b) Public assistance budgets fluctuate wildly dependent upon economic business cycles.
c) Public assistance constitutes such a small portion of the economy as to have minimal effect on
the economy.
d) The cost of public assistance is increasing at a rapid rate and must be stabilized.
Answer: C
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Page Ref.: 140
Competency: Critical Thinking
7-7. Welfare benefits are calculated based on level of need, and the state sets a percentage of this
amount that is usually around:
a) 95% of the minimum amount a family needs to survive.
b) 65% of the minimum amount a family needs to survive.
c) 100% of the minimum amount a family needs to survive.
d) 50% of the minimum amount a family needs to survive.
Answer: D
Page Ref. 142
Competency: Critical Thinking
7-8. Evaluations of welfare-to-work programs such as WIN and JOBS have concluded that:
a) While these programs have generated positive results, the gains have been very slight.
b) These programs have generated positive results across the board and have proven very
effective at increasing self-sufficiency.
c) Welfare-to-work programs have proven so ineffective that they have for the most part been
discontinued.
d) Welfare-to-work programs’ results have not been studied enough to come to any conclusion
regarding their effectiveness.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 145
Competency: Critical Thinking
7-9. TANF diversion programs consist of:
a) Offering reduced benefit payments but compensating with enrollment into job training or
higher education.
b) Requiring potential recipients to pass a series of tests to confirm their eligibility for the
program.
c) Sanctioning recipients for failing to comply to the program rules.
d) Offering one-time cash payment or requiring a potential recipient to look for work of a
specified period before becoming eligible.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 147-148
Competency: Critical Thinking
7-10. Empirical evidence demonstrates a clear relationship between:
a) Willingness to work and job availability
b) Level of education and level of income
c) Willingness to participate in training programs and job availability
d) Level of income and location of residence
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 149
Competency: Critical Thinking
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7-11. One explanation for the initial dramatic decline in welfare rolls after the passage of
PRWORA is:
a) The threat of time limits scared a large number of welfare recipients into the work force.
b) Added incentives from the departments of labor and transportation made maintaining jobs
possible.
c) At the time the bill was passed the economy was strong and the labor market could easily
absorb a work force with limited job skills.
d) Additional funds for social supports for former public assistance recipients was made
available, providing wider opportunities for continuing education and job placement.
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 151-152
Competency: Human Rights and Justice
7-12. The authors conclude that on the issue of poverty and the need for public assistance:
a) Both poverty and public assistance are social conditions rather than social problems.
b) Poverty is a problem that can be fixed if we as a society work hard enough.
c) When the economy becomes strong enough there will be no poverty.
d) The welfare system is a problem and cannot be used to fix the problem of poverty.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 153
Competency: Human Rights and Justice
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 8
8-1. What groups were excluded from Title II of the original Social Security Act of 1935?
a) No one was excluded
b) Domestic servants, government employees, farm laborers and nonprofit workers
c) Those who already had pensions in place
d) Government employees, clergy, stock brokers.
Answer: B
Page Ref.:159
Competency: Policy Practice
8-2. Under the Social Security Act of 1935 the Social Security Board was responsible for:
a) Administering old age assistance
b) Convening each quarter to track the progress of the program and propose adjustments and new
guidelines if needed.
c) Approval of state program plans for unemployment insurance, old-age assistance, and aid to
children
d) Administering old age assistance, orphanages and rest homes for the elderly
Answer: C
Page Ref.:159
Competency: Policy Practice
8-3. Why is the Social Security Act considered a “political marvel”?
a) It is one of the very few non-stigmatized government programs
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b) It was the first broad based government program that included all races
c) The program was passed quickly and received overwhelming bipartisan support
d) None of the above
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 161
Competency: Policy Practice
8-4. Assisting people based on their actual needs is referred to as:
a) Social equity
b) Social security
c) Social insurance
d) Social adequacy
Answer: D
Page Ref.:163
Competency: Practice Contexts
8-5. The Social Security crisis that occurred in the 1980’s was generated when:
a) Deficit spending occurred because incoming tax revenues were not enough to cover the
required benefit payments
b) Benefit payments threatened to exceed the incoming tax revenues
c) The bulk of Social Security funds were misspent on the Iran-Contra conflict.
d) There were not enough contributing workers to sustain the program.
Answer: B
Page Ref.:167
Competency: Policy Practice
8-6. Since the development of Social Security women have not received as many benefits as men
because:
a) Women’s lower salaries meant lower contributions to the system and lower benefits than men.
b) Due to child rearing and homemaking activities, women have more sporadic work histories,
equating to lower paid
income and lower contributions to the system,
c) Widows and divorced women were expected to have lower expenses than men, therefore
received lower benefits
from their husband’s social security checks.
d) All of the above
Answer: D
Page Ref.:168-169
Competency: Human Rights & Justice, Ethical Practice
8-7. AFDC is categorized as what type of entitlement?
a) Earned income entitlement.
b) Deserving poor entitlement.
c) Income based entitlement.
d) Earned entitlement.
Answer: C
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Page Ref.:171
Competency: Policy Practice, Practice Contexts
8-8. During his first term in office George W. Bush proposed reforming the Social Security
system by:
a) Offering personal investment accounts to those contributors under 55 years if age to invest up
to four percent of their contributions.
b) Rolling over the entire social security system into personal investment accounts beginning in
2009
c) Dissolving the social security system as it is known today and creating a private investment
for the same funds.
d) Reforming the social security system and allowing contributors to choose between a
traditional social security contribution and payout or an investment option rollover.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 173
Competency: Policy Practice
8-9. With reference to the proposed Social Security reform during the George W. Bush
administration retirees or near retirees polled considered the idea of investing their social
security contributions in the stock market:
a) A good idea.
b) A disadvantage as the stock market was not thriving
c) Too risky
d) Too costly to be effective.
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 174
Competency: Policy Practice, Practice Contexts
8-10. The Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (PBGC) is:
a) A large 401K investment firm
b) A federal agency responsible for guaranteeing pensions
c) A private investment firm contracted by the U.S. government
d) A lobbying firm looking out for the elderly populations interests.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 178
Competency: Policy Practice
8-11. Many employees receive health insurance through their employers. This standard benefit
is:
a) Being rolled over into a new government run universal health care program.
b) A federal requirement for all corporate firms with over 100 employees.
c) Being rapidly phased out of many of companies.
d) Being transitioned into a federally funded health care program with corporate matching.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:179
Competency: Policy Practice, Human Rights & Justice
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8-12. Social Security old age insurance has significantly diminished poverty among what group?
a) Elderly women
b) Elderly men
c) Elderly couples
d) New retirees
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 180
Competency: Practice Contexts
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 9
9-1. When a Managed Care Organization is contracted by a private employer or public entity, the
MCO in turn contracts health care providers and pre-pays them a flat fee for services rendered
during a given period of time. This system is known as:
a. Capital payment system
b. Capitulation
c. Capitation
d. An HMO system
Answer: C
Page Ref.:187
Competency: Research Based Practice
9-2. When a provider requires approval from an insurer before delivering a service this is known
as a:
a. Utilization review
b. Preauthorization review
c. Primary review
d. Beneficiary review
Answer: B
Page Ref.188:
Competency: Research Based Practice
9-3. Based on Managed Care Organization terminology “behavioral health care” encompasses:
a. Mental health care and substance abuse
b. Substance abuse and chronic reliance on welfare
c. Mental health care and elder care
d. Private plan mental health care and public sector mental health care
Answer: A
Page Ref.188:
Competency: Research Based Practice
9-4. According to the text, examples of common complaints of the MCO system among both
private social work practitioners
and agency social workers is:
a. Low pay and long hours
b. Excessive paperwork and the need for frequent authorizations
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c. Significantly less time with clients and few pay raises
d. Rigid quality control requirements and excessive paperwork
Answer: B
Page Ref.:192-194
Competency: Research Based Practice
9-5. Most states did not feel the urge to shift their health care services to MCO’s until:
a. The exploding health care costs of the 1980’s and 90’s The rising population on Medicaid and
similar public programs made providing care too costly
b. There was a federal initiative pushing the states in that direction
c. The passage of the federal waiver system
d. Both a and c
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 196
Competency: Research Based Practice
9-6. In response to criticisms of MCOs, there has been a shift in their internal research to focus
on :
a. Cost and access to care measurements
b. Utilization patterns and quality of treatment
c. Quality of treatment
d. Cost and patient satisfaction
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 200
Competency: Research Based Practice
9-7. Adequate attention to the needs of those with severe and chronic mental illness, coverage for
community based services, and effective grievance and appeal procedures are:
a. Issues that MCOs have placed as top priorities in the services they provide.
b. Improvements to the MCO system that mental health advocates demand.
c. What most employers are looking for when choosing an MCO.
d. Requirements in order for an MCO to be a registered and contracted provider of mental health
care.
Answer: B
Page Ref: .203
Competency: Research Based Practice, Human Rights & Justice
9-8. Some major concerns social workers have with MCOs and the way they operate are:
a. Discouraging professionals from forming organized groups, and lack of discretion
b. Placing the bottom line above the client’s well being, and price fixing for services
c. Ability to ensure client confidentiality, and restriction on determining type and length of
treatment.
d. Excessive paperwork in order to provide services, and a fiscal focus rather than a client focus.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:204
Competency: Professional Identity
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9-9. In the Robshaw example, some of the tactics for achieving a sound health care system she
suggested were:
a. Organizing boycotts of the MCO system and pressuring legislators to fall into line with her
plan.
b. Lobbying against the state plan to shift to a managed care program for Medicaid clients, and
using advocacy groups to influence state legislators.
c. Outline good and detailed contracts between the state and MCO and organize boycotts if the
MCO fails to comply
d. Include consumers and advocates at the planning table, and outline good and binding contracts
between the state and MCO.
Answer: D
Page Ref.:206
Competency: Professional Identity
9-10. It is possible in a world that is becoming increasingly more reliant on communications and
information devices that such devices could be used in therapeutic ways. Some possible
therapeutic uses include:
a. Organizing your day, and using a GPS tracking device to track the location of clients
b. Using chat rooms to located like minded individuals that validate fears or anxieties and setting
alarms on cell phones that call the individual’s therapist during times of crisis.
c. Programming palm pilots or other similar devices to offer coping skills to their users as needed
and clients using chat rooms to share their experiences without leaving the comfort and security
of their home.
d. Using cell phone headsets to disguise the symptom of talking to oneself and using the Internet
to get back at perceived enemies.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:208-209
Competency: Research Based Practice
9-11. A very common reason veterans do not get the mental health treatments they need is :
a. The lack of federal budget for such support and treatment
b. The fact that veterans and active soldiers will often not ask for help or treatment when they
need or desire it.
c. There are not enough mental health professionals working for the military, and advanced
appointments are needed in order to see a counselor.
d. The military deems extensive social and mental services for veterans as unnecessary.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 210-211
Competency: Research Based Practice, Human Rights & Justice
9-12. The easy access to firearms, an overburdened campus counseling staff, and strict
confidentiality of patient records are all:
a. Factors that could contribute to college students not getting the mental health treatment they
need and harming themselves and / or others.
25 | P a g e
b. Factors that are being addressed by the higher education system so that no student will be able
to “slip through the cracks” of the system”.
c. The sole responsibility of the government to remedy so that warning signs can be addressed
and future tragedies can be avoided.
d. Issues that the NASW is lobbying to remedy through a series of reforms.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:211--212
Competency: Research Based Practice, Human Rights and Justice
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 10
10-1. Failure to fulfill major role obligations at work, school, or home, recurrent legal problems
such as arrests for substance abuse related to disorderly conduct are all:
a. Signs of substance use
b. Criteria for substance abuse
c. Signs of illicit drug abuse
d. Criteria of sleep deprivation
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 219
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-2. Some symptoms of substance abuse on family dynamics are:
a. Trouble sleeping, ignoring obligations, and homelessness
b. Loss of job productivity, feelings of isolation and domestic violence
c. Homelessness, domestic violence and high risk behavior by adolescence
d. Acting out by adolescence, related criminal justice system costs, and homelessness
Answer: C
Page Ref.:220
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-3. The public’s attitude toward drug and alcohol used shifted in ______due to:
a. 1905, due to the wide use Coca-Cola and the concern that it contained cocaine, though in small
doses.
b. Early 1800s due to research showing that the average male colonist consumed around six
gallons of alcohol per year.
c. The late 1800s due to the influx of Chinese immigrants and their routine use of opium.
d. The mid 1800s due to the changing context of alcohol and drug use, with the urban poor and
native Americans becoming known for heavy drinking, and being criticized by society for their
actions.
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 221
Competency: Ethical Practice
10-4. The Pure Food and Drug Act and the Harrison Narcotic Act had the effect of:
a. Shifting the control of drugs and alcohol from physicians to the police
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b. Generating the Speakeasy movement
c. Cutting national health costs related to drug and alcohol abuse.
d. Effectively prohibiting physicians from writing prescriptions.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:222
Competency: Ethical Practice
10-5. The effects of Reagan’s block grant system on drug and alcohol treatment and prevention
were:
a. Transferred the responsibility of drug and alcohol treatment and prevention to the states and
increased federal funding for these services.
b. Transferred the responsibility of drug and alcohol treatment and prevention to the state level
and decreased federal funding for these services.
c. Transferred the responsibility of drug and alcohol treatment and prevention to the local level
and relied heavily on community based organizations for these services.
d. Transferred the responsibility of drug and alcohol treatment and prevention to the state level,
and relied heavily on community based organizations for these services.
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 225
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-6. Under the Clinton administration a system of drug courts was created, these courts were
designed to:
a. Combine intensive probation, mandatory drug testing and treatment as alternative punishment
for first time drug offenders.
b. Combine intensive probation, mandatory drug testing and community service as alternative
punishment for any drug offenders.
c. Combine intensive treatment, mandatory drug testing and community service as alternative
punishment for drug offenders.
d. Combine intensive treatment, mandatory drug testing and follow up drug counseling as
alternative punishment for first time drug offenders.
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 226
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-7. The two major views regarding drug and alcohol use are:
a. The view of use as a person self medicating to escape environmental circumstances and
stresses and the view of use as allowable as a right of individual choice.
b. The view of use as criminal behavior and the view of use as a result of being raised in a house
with a parent or family member who misused drugs or alcohol.
c. The view of use as a criminal behavior and the view of use as an illness or response to certain
environmental circumstances.
d. The view of use as a moral or personal failing, and the view of use as criminal behavior
Answer: C
Page Ref.:227
Competency: Critical Thinking
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10-8. Large distilleries and breweries, associated advertising groups, companies and farms that
produce drugs, dealers and traffickers are all:
a. Subject to extra law enforcement investigations with less regulations on search and seizure
b. Targets of the moral majority
c. Rejected by the mainstream churches
d. Major stakeholders involved in substance abuse issues
Answer: D
Page Ref.:229
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-9. Approximately what percentage of the population uses illicit drugs before going to work?
a. 10%
b. 5%
c. 3%
d. 7%
Answer: C
Page Ref.:230
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-10. The dual diagnosis of substance abuse and mental health is also referred to as:
a. Dual morbidity
b. Double trouble
c. Concurrance
d. Comorbidity
Answer: D
Page Ref.:231
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-11. A bureaucratic organizational problem that adds to the failure to recognize and effectively
treat dually diagnosed clients is:
a. Federal divisions of mental health drug addiction and alcohol abuse fields, which is often
mirrored at the state level.
b. The lumping of drug addiction, alcohol abuse and mental health under one roof at a federal
level, without mechanisms for cross field communications about dually diagnosed clients.
c. Federal mandate to use separate treatment facilities for each type of problem.
d. Federal mandate that all states must use the same organizational divisions between mental
health, drug addiction and alcohol abuse fields.
Answer: A
Page Ref.:232
Competency: Critical Thinking
10-12. Some responses to the increasing numbers of dually diagnosed clients have been:
a. Hospitalization and drug regimens
b. Putting patients on cycled hospitalizations and using different treatment centers
c. Treating one condition while completely ignoring the other condition, and using separate
treatment centers for each condition.
28 | P a g e
d. Agreeing to treat all conditions present but requiring separate treatment centers to handle each
condition.
Answer: C
Page Ref.:232
Competency: Critical Thinking
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 11
11-1. An approach aimed at reducing the number of children removed from their families and
placed in foster care that has been enthusiastically supported and is now the dominant service of
choice is:
a. Family reunification
b. Family preservation
c. Family services
d. Child protective services
Answer: B
Page Ref.:238
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
11-2. The two major developments that shifted the public’s attitude toward the rights of children
were:
a. The change of children in the economy, and the creation of children’s services
b. A shift in family law providing greater protection to children and increased need for children
in the workplace.
c. Increased need for children in the workplace, and the creation of children’s services
d. The change of children in the economy, and the shift in family providing greater protection to
children
Answer: D
Page Ref.:240
Competency: Practice Contexts
11-3. The surge of child abuse cases in the 1950’s was due largely to:
a. Advances in the medical profession that allowed doctors to better identify traumatic injuries
and their probable causes.
b. A new reporting system instituted by the CWLA that encouraged people to report suspected
cases of child abuse or neglect.
c. A new policy instituted by law enforcement that required all professionals to report suspected
cases of child abuse or neglect.
d. A shift in public perception on what constituted child “abuse”
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 243
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
11-4. The technique used by the Children’s Aid Society to get homeless children off the streets
involved:
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a. Taking children off the street, and placing them in urban families in the same general area
where they were found.
b. Gathering homeless children off the street and placing them with relatives other than their
parents.
c. Gathering homeless children off the streets and placing them with rural farm families
d. Taking children off the street and sending them to vocational schools in rural areas
Answer: C
Page Ref.:245
Competency: Engage, Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
11-5. According to extensive research on the issue, the source of all child welfare problems is:
a. Lack of parenting
b. Poverty
c. Malnutrition
d. Maltreatment
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 252
Competency: Research Based Practice
11-6. When the government steps into family life as the ultimate parental authority this is
referred to as:
a. Parentus maximus
b. Big brother
c. Parentae govermetus
d. Parens patriae
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 253
Competency: Practice Contexts
11-7. Under the Child Abuse Preservation and Treatment Act the courts can waive the
requirement of “reasonable efforts” to preserve the family before parental rights are terminated
if:
a. The parent is on probation
b. One or both parents have been in jail two or more times
c. Parental rights of the parent to a sibling have been involuntary terminated
d. The parents have been found unfit by the courts
Answer: C
Page Ref.:257
Competency: Human Rights & Justice
11-8. If family preservation does not produce cost savings or reduced use of the foster care
system some possible results could be:
a. Loss of support and enthusiasm from policy makers and added credibility to critics of the
policy
b. Critics will get to choose an alternate policy and family preservation will be considered a
failure at all levels.
30 | P a g e
c. Critics and supporters will condemn family preservation and foster care will return to be the
policy of preference
d. Family preservation will be discredited and foster care and adoption will be evaluated to
decide which will be the dominant policy
Answer: A
Page Ref: 258
Competency: Practice Contexts
11-9. One motivation for the close evaluation of the family preservation policy is because the
policy involves:
a. Using a lot of social resources and has the potential to be costly
b. Careful monitoring of child welfare resources due to policy regulations
c. Leaving the child in a potentially harmful situation
d. Putting social workers in a potentially harmful situation
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 259
Competency: Practice Contexts
11-10. What is the primary measure by which the effectiveness of family preservation is
measured by?
a. Cost efficiency
b. Popularity
c. Practicality
d. Placement prevention
Answer: D
Page Ref.:260
Competency: Practice Contexts
11-11. The reform movement in the child welfare arena that combines elements from family
preservation and foster care is
referred to as:
a. Kinship care
b. Extended family unification
c. Kinship fostering
d. Relative preservation
Answer: A
Page Ref.:262
Competency: Practice Contexts
11-12. Family preservation does not refer to one specific program or approach, it refers to:
a. Fundamental shift in the way that child welfare services are handled and processed
b. Support of specific cost effective child welfare programs and methods.
c. A philosophy that emphasizes the biological family’s importance to human beings, and
supports policies, practices, and programs that recognize and preserve family unity.
d. The desire to modify all existing child welfare services to become acutely focused on keeping
biological families together.
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Answer: C
Page Ref.: 263
Competency: Practice Contexts
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 12
12-1. When developing measurement tools to gauge the level of achievement of project’s goals,
key people to include in this development process would be:
a. Clients and others who use or have used the program’s services
b. Agency director, key staff, and anyone else who played a significant role in setting the
program’s goals
c. All the major agencies and service providers that work directly with the agency being
evaluated
d. All significant donors or funding agencies that are contributing to the daily operation of the
program
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 271
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-2. Obtaining knowledge about what clients were experiencing before the program (the one
that is being evaluated) was enacted is referred to as a:
a. Jumping off point
b. Starting position
c. Control position
d. Baseline
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 272
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-3. When conducting a program evaluation, one method of measuring outcomes would be to
interview clients and agency workers about their thoughts on the effectiveness of the program
being evaluated. This measurement method is an example of:
a. Data collection
b. Statistical approach
c. Qualitative approach
d. Quantitative approach
Answer: C
Page Ref.: 272
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate, Research Based Practice
12-4. The “cut-off point”, or the subjective point beyond which negotiating parties are unwilling
to go is referred to as:
a. Status quo point
b. Realistic level of aspiration
c. Utility point
d. Resistance point
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Answer: D
Page Ref.:274
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-5. Acting as if the object under negotiation is no longer of great interest to you, pretending
you could take it or leave it, is an example of:
a. Motivational withdrawal
b. Resistance point
c. Motivational creation
d. Demand withdrawal
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 275
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-6. Long speeches where each party emphasizes their demands, makes a show of their
conviction and presents impossible demands, occurs during:
a. Attitudinal structuring
b. The preconference stage
c. Distributive bargaining
d. The conference stage
Answer: D
Page Ref.: 277
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-7. The type of negotiation that is geared toward honesty and cooperation and does not include
“dirty tricks” is referred to as:
a. Up and up negotiation
b. On the level negotiation
c. Principled negotiation
d. Social negotiation
Answer: C
Page Ref.:278
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-8. A very important detail that must be worked out before all parties can sit down to negotiate
is:
a. Seating arrangements
b. What to wear
c. What type of refreshments to provide
d. If the negotiation should be catered
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 279
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-9. The use of integrative bargaining, relationship skills, and problem solving skills are critical
components of:
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a. The Preconference stage
b. The negotiation stage
c. The Conference stage
d. The Post-conference stage
Answer: D
Page Ref.:281
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
12-10. Attempting to influence the position of a decision maker through planned, goal directed
process is known as:
a. Badgering
b. Nagging
c. Lobbying
d. Cow-towing
Answer: C
Page Ref.:285
Competency: Policy Practice
12-11. Legislators rely on lobbyists as:
a. Gophers, to go get information for them and run errands
b. Valuable sources of information on complex issues with which legislators may be unfamiliar
c. Their daily dose of pestering before arriving at the office
d. A constant source of sweet talking to try to get their own way on issues
Answer: B
Page Ref.: 286
Competency: Policy Practice
12-12. Organizations that collect and distribute voluntary contributions from special interest
groups to further political goals of
the groups is are called:
a. Political Action Committees
b. Social Interest Organizations
c. Lobbying Action Groups
d. Political Lobbying Committees
Answer: A
Page Ref.: 287
Competency: Engage Assess, Intervene, Evaluate
TEST QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 13
13-1. The driving force behind all policy reforms is:
a. The desire to improve people’s lives
b. To strengthen politicians’ positions on policy reform
c. Price reduction / cost control
d. To provide more benefits to underserved populations
Answer: C
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Page Ref.:291
Competency: Critical Thinking
13-2. The text states that all social welfare policies are driven by two, more or less, compatible
motives, these are:
a. Greed and protectionism
b. Compassion and protection
c. Protection and altruism
d. Work ethic and individualism
Answer: B
Page Ref.:292
Competency: Ethical Practice
13-3. Legislators and policymakers generally have a good grasp of the reality of social welfare
problems, this is largely due to:
a. Reading several newspapers each day
b. The political grapevine
c. Networking with other policymakers
d. Utilizing consultants, social scientists, think tanks and government bureaus for information
Answer: D
Page Ref.:293
Competency: Critical Thinking
13-4. In a job placement program, admitting people who have relatively high education levels,
recent work experience, and few problems is an example of:
a. Stacking the deck
b. Creaming
c. Buttering
d. Fudging
Answer: B
Page Ref.:293-294
Competency: Critical Thinking
13-5. The text states that the problem with a holistic approach to policies is that:
a. A holistic approach would cost so much and be so complex as to be impractical to implement
b. A holistic approach is not as thorough or exacting as a multifaceted systems approach
c. A holistic approach targets too few populations
d. A holistic approach would not effectively address each individual’s core issues
Answer: A
Page Ref.:295
Competency: Critical Thinking