Questions of Pathological Physiology 2nd year Physiotherapy (foreign students)
to graded credit
The Test allow students to comprehensively and conveniently assess and review their
knowledge of a particular basic science, in this instance Pathophysiology. Each question
is accompanied by four answers and only one answer is correct.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
The major immunoglobulin class in normal adult human serum:
The predominant antibody found in a primary immune response
Found on the surface of mast cells
A major component of mucosal secretions
Can cross the placenta
Which of the following cells are important in an innate immune response to
extracellular bakteria?
7. Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages?
8. Compared with a healthy individual, lymph nodes from a patient with a deficienty in
B cells would have
9. A newborn infected with group B streptococci would produce and secrete antibody of
which of the following class[es]?
10. Eosinophils are associated with the defense against infections caused by
11. To determine whether a fetus acquired an infection in utero, antigen-specific antibody
of which of the following class should be measured?
12. During an immune response, antibodies are made against different structures [usually
proteins] on an infectious agent. These structures are referred to as
13. Enhances phagocytosis of bakteria by opsonization
14. Mediates cytolysis
15. Binds to antibody to activate the classical pathway
16. A patient with a predisposition for infections Neisseria bacteria may have a deficiency
in
17. Which of the following complement component deficiencies is associated with
individuals with frequent pyogenic bacterial infections?
18. A person with an abnormality in which of the following early complement
components would most likely have the most serious clinical manifestations?
19. Toxic shock syndrome toxin 1 is produced by some strains of Staphylococcus aureus
and is thought to be responsible for the clinical manifestations of disease by this
organism. This toxin is referred to as a superantigen because it can
20. Antiviral activity of antibody includes all of the following EXCEPT
21. During the course of an immune response to microbes, macrophages can cause
damage to adjacent tissue by the release of all of the following EXCEPT
22. Goodpasture`s syndrome
23. Serum sickness associated with the condition described
24. Tuberculin reaction associated with the condition described
25. Poison ivy associated with the condition described
26. Anaphylactic reaction after bee sting associated with the condition described
27. Hemolytic disease of the newborn associated with the condition described
28. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis associated with the condition described
29. A patient with recurrent yeast infections and the incapacity to control viral infections
may indicate a deficiency in
30. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function - promotes the proliferation of T
and B lymphocytes – listed
31. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – promotes various biologic actions
associated with inflammation – listed
32. The cytokine that best fits the activity or function – activates macrophages and NK
[natural killer] – listed
33. For the mediator of acute inflammation participate is true
34. Inflammation is associated with systemic signs and symptoms EXCEPT:
35. For the T-Cell disorders (DiGeorge Syndrome) is typical
36. IgA deficiency is a disorder in:
37. Passive immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?
38. Active immunity – which from those lettered answers is not correct?
39. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type I (Atopic,
Anaphylactic)?
40. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type II (Cytotoxic,
Cytolytic)?
41. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type III (Immune
complex)?
42. We know 4 types of hypersensitivity. What is characteristic for Type IV (Delayed
Hypersensitivity)?
43. If a person with blood group type A receives (by error) blood group type B, the
resulting signs and symptoms include
44. Acute bacterial infections of the bone characteristically show all of the following
EXCEPT
45. Infective endocarditis frequently occurs in injection drug users. The valve most often
involved is
46. The pathogenesis of bacterial diarrhea involves all of the following EXCEPT
47. The endogenous mediators of sepsis include all of the following EXCEPT
48. The principal CD lymphocyte affected in HIV and AIDS is
49. The destruction of CD4 lymphocytes in HIV and AIDS involves all of the following
EXCEPT
50. Typically HIV progresses from the onset of infection to evidence of
immunosuppression over what period of time?
51. A patient who has the autosomal dominant gene for type I osteogenesis imperfecta
has blue scleras and slightly reduced height, whereas his brother has multiple
fractures and deformities. This is an example of
52. Your patient has an autosomal dominantly inherited disease. The patient and his
grandfather show evidence of disease, but the patient`s father is asymptomatic. This is
an example of
53. Two patients have the same eye color. They have the same
54. Cystic fibrosis
55. Which of the following conditions is known to be multifactorial in etiology and not
due to a single gene disorder?
56. In the case of a dominant allele
57. All are true of human chromosomes EXCEPT
58. All are true of Down`s syndrome EXCEPT
59. Most children with Down`s syndrome are
60. Regarding life expectancy in Down`s syndrome
61. All are true of phenylketonuria [PKU] EXCEPT
62. The neurologic deficits of phenylketonuria [PKU] are due to
63. The different genetic forms of phenylketonuria [PKU] illustrate two different
pathophysiologic mechanisms by which inborn errors of metabolism cause disease.
These are
64. Sickle cell anemia
65. Cell as a part of a multicellular organism, needs to communicate with one another.
Coordination of growth, cell division, and the functions of various tissues and organic
systems are accomplished by principal means of communication EXCEPT
66. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the PROPHASE?
67. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the METAPHASE?
68. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the ANAPHASE?
69. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the TELOPHASE?
70. We know six stages of mitotic cell division. How is defined the CYTOKINESIS?
71. Which of those sentences is correct?
72. Which of those sentences is correct?
73. Which of those sentences is correct?
74. Necrotic cells demonstrate typical changes EXCEPT
75. Apoptosis
76. Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent during which of the following stages of
human evolution?
77. Chromosomal analysis reveals a 47, XYY karyotype. Which of the following
descriptions best fits this abnormality?
78. Metabolic disease may include all of the following signs and symptoms EXCEPT
79. Initial tests that may help to diagnose an inborn error of metabolism include all the
following EXCEPT
80. During endocytosis, low-density lipoprotein [LDL] is dissociated from its receptor in
the:
81. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome
82. Individuals with Turner syndrome
83. For the malignant tumors fit following characteristics EXCEPT
84. Hyaline cartilage, which is the most common form of cartilage
85. In long bone development, hypertrophied chondrocytes are the source of:
86. Patients with Cushing`s syndrome often show osteoporotic changes. Which of the
following characteristic is involved in the etiology of osteoporosis induced by
Cushing`s syndrome?
87. What is the length of the sarcomere?
88. Which of the following statements is true for the cardiac muscle?
89. The cells responsible for the entry of human immunodeficiency virus [HIV] into the
CNS are:
90. Regeneration of axons
91. The blood cell that is a precursor to microglia, Kupffer cells, and Langerhans cells is:
92. Distribution of blood to specific organs is regulated predominantly by:
93. Atherosclerosis is usually initiated by:
94. Which of the following is found in the plasma:
95. In the human fetus, the predominant site of hematopoiesis during gestational months
5 to 9 is the:
96. Anaphylactic shock is primarily due to the action of:
97. The bronchioles do not collapse during exhalation because they are:
98. Asthma is a consequence of the release of histamine and heparin from:
99. Which of the following occurs after exposure to ultraviolet [UV] radiation?
100.
Decreased cytocrine secretion of melanin
101.
A 42-year-old man has generalized lymphadenopathy, without fever or night
sweats. His total white blood cell [WBC] count is elevated to 50,000, with small
mature-appearing lymphocytes. A diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL]
is ascertained. All of the following are typical characteristics of CLL EXCEPT
102.
The etiology of chronic lymphocytic leukemia [CLL] is
103.
Which of the following factors complexes with factor VIII, which is activated
to factors VIIIa when released from the complex?
104.
Which of the following factors is/are dependent on vitamin K for synthesis?
105.
Which of the following causes of anemia is NOT associated with larger than
normal red cells [macrocytosis]?
106.
Which of the following causes of an elevated hemoglobin concentration in the
blood is characterized by a LOW level of erythropoietin in the blood?
107.
Which of the following causes of an increase in the neutrophil count in the
blood is NOT associated with an absolute increase in the number of circulating
polymorphonuclear neutrophil leukocytes?
108.
In a typical case of iron deficiency, which of the following molecular forms
that contains or can bind to iron, increases in the patient`s serum?
109.
Which of the following is NOT an accurate statement pertaining to pernicious
anemia?
110.
Which of the following statements related to circulating erythrocytes [red cells]
is untrue?
111.
Which of the following statements concerning the relationship of the neutrophil
polymorphonuclear leukocyte [PMN] to infection with bacterial pathogens is
incorrect?
112.
For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia
only” select a lettered answer:
113.
For the question “If the item is associated with chronic myelocytic leukemia
only” select a lettered answer:
114.
For the question “If the item is associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia
and with chronic myelocytic leukemia only” select a lettered answer:
115.
Thrombocytopenia is most commonly produced by processes that reduce the
survival of circulating platelets significantly below the normal average life span of 10
days. Which of the following statements about thrombocytopenia is true?
116.
Acceleration of the destruction of platelets is owing to
117.
Which of the following factors is not contributing to abnormal clotting in blood
vessels [thrombosis]?
118.
In the adult, the best place to sample for cells of this lineage would be
119.
The granules that develop during differentiation of this cell type contain:
120.
Human blood, if fresh, centrifuged in the presence of an anticoagulant such as
heparin to obtain a hematocrit, the resulting fractions are:
121.
Thrombocytopenia is a reduction in the number of circulating blood platelets.
Which of the following would most likely occur in thrombocytopenia?
122.
Erythrocytes may have abnormal shapes and sizes in certain diseases. In iron
deficiency you would expect to see:
123.
After loss or damage to the endothelium of a blood vessel, platelets carry out
one of the following functions. Which one is it?
124.
Cells that increase in number during an allergic reaction are:
125.
Specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:
126.
Non-specific phagocytosis of bacteria is typical for the:
127.
Major component of pus is
128.
Structure and granular content similar to that of mast cells is typical for
129.
End product of protein catabolism in the blood is
130.
End product of red blood cell destruction in the blood is
131.
All of the following are typical waste products in the blood EXCEPT
132.
Anemia is defined
133.
All of the following are typical characteristic for aplastic anemia EXCEPT
134.
Laboratory features for the anemia resulting from a deficiency of either B12 or
folates are NOT:
135.
Which of the following sentences is correct?
136.
Sickle cell anemia
137.
Acute blood loss anemia may present after trauma
138.
For the pernicious anemia is valid:
139.
For the iron deficiency anemia is valid
140.
For the relative polycythemia is valid
141.
For the absolute polycythemia vera is valid
142.
For the secondary polycythemia is valid
143.
Blood smear in folate deficiency anemia is:
144.
Blood smear in relative polycythemia is:
145.
Jaundice it is the typical symptom during
146.
In the case of Hematochezia or melena excreta contains blood in
147.
In the case of Hematemesis excreta contains blood in
148.
All of the following are the causes of the coagulation disorders with prolonged
bleeding from nasal or oral mucosa, deep tissue hematomas, spontaneous hematuria
EXCEPT
149.
Rh incompatibility
150.
All of the following are etiology and pathogenesis of an insufficient quantity of
platelets (fewer than 50,000/mm2) EXCEPT
151.
Which one of the following ECG components varies with heart rate?
152.
Which of the following cardiac parameters does not increase during
pregnancy?
153.
Which of the following does NOT occur during diastole?
154.
Which of the following is NOT a component of cardiac output?
155.
For the complex or wave form on the ECG tracing to be accepted
156.
A normal frontal plane QRS axis is
157.
Which of the following associations is correct?
158.
For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following
description: A normal individual whose stroke volume increases as preload increases
is curve
159.
For the Frank-Starling curve, match the appropriate curve with the following
description: A patient in congestive heart failure due to systolic dysfunction is curve
160.
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral
valve opens
161.
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Mitral
wave closes
162.
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic
valve opens
163.
Identify the points on the normal left ventricular pressure volume loop: Aortic
valve closes
164.
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following
action potential in a normal ventricle: Influx of sodium ions
165.
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following
action potential in a normal ventricle: May involve chloride ion movement
166.
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following
action potential in a normal ventricle: Rapid potassium exit
167.
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following
action potential in a normal ventricle: Resting state
168.
Mach the appropriate electrolyte flux with the correct phase of the following
action potential in a normal ventricle: Mediated via slow calcium channels
169.
Which of the following arterial pulse waveforms is consistent with severe left
ventricular impairment?
170.
Which of the following arteriole pulse waveforms is consistent with aortic
stenosis?
171.
Which of the following conditions is NOT consistent with a hypokinetic
arterial pulse?
172.
Which of the following statements is FALSE of a reversed splitting of the first
heart sounds?
173.
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The first
heart sound – S1:
174.
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The second
heart sound – S2:
175.
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The third
heart sound – S3:
176.
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: The fourth
heart sound – S4:
177.
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description: Opening
snap:
178.
Match the following heart sounds with the appropriate description:
Midsystolic click:
179.
The onset of the QRS complex on surface ACG corresponds to which action
potential phase?
180.
The isoelectric ST segment on surface ECG corresponds to which action
potential phase?
181.
The T wave on the surface ECG corresponds to which action potential phase?
182.
Which is present when no atrial impulse conducts to the ventricles?
183.
Which ot he following AV blocks is characterized by progressive PR interval
prolongation prior to loss of AV conduction?
184.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding left ventricular ejection fraction?
185.
Which of the following is the correct sequence for myocardial depolarization?
186.
Which ECG leads represent the inferior cardiac wall?
187.
Which of the following produces a diastolic murmur?
188.
Loss of P waves on surface ECG is consistent with
189.
Cardiac output is the product of
190.
Which of the following is NOT true regarding right ventricular hypertrophy?
191.
All of the following are risk factors commonly associated with thrombosis
EXCEPT
192.
All of the following are risk factors commonly associated with atherosclerosis
EXCEPT
193.
Substances that don’t increase blood pressure are
194.
Effects of high systemic blood pressure are
195.
Secondary hypertension refers to high blood pressure of known causes
EXCEPT
196.
Left-sided heart failure
197.
Right-sided heart failure
198.
Activation of sympathetic nervous system in the heard
199.
Systemic congestion during right ventricular failure is due to
200.
Pulmonary congestion during left ventricular failure is due to
201.
All of the following are features of primary pulmonary hypertension. EXCEPT
one.
202.
The following are common causes of transudative pleural effusion EXCEPT
203.
Obstructive airway defect is characterized on pulmonary function testing by
204.
Which of the following is NOT a cause of bronchiectasis?
205.
Which is NOT the risk factor for pulmonary thromboembolism?
206.
Risk factors for the development of obstructive sleep apnea does NOT include
207.
The causes of hemoptysis include all of the following EXCEPT
208.
The bronchioles do not collapse during exhalation because they are
209.
The smallest active functional unit (including conduction and air exchange) of
the lungs is
210.
The lung cells known as “congestive heart failure cells” are:
211.
Surfactant is accurately described by which of the following statements?
212.
Asthma is a consequence of the release of histamine and heparin from
213.
Emphysema is a common occurrence in persons deficient in alpha1-antitrypsin
and in those who smoke. Which of the following may occur in emphysema?
214.
The changes in the respiratory system during aging process include all of the
following EXCEPT
215.
Which of the following definitions of lung volume is correct?
216.
Which of the following definitions of lung capacities is correct?
217.
Perfusion in the pulmonary
218.
Factor shifting oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left is
219.
Factor shifting oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right is
220.
Hypoventilation
221.
Hyperventilation
222.
Hypoxic hypoxia occurs when
223.
Circulatory hypoxia occurs when
224.
Histotoxic hypoxia occurs when
225.
Anemic hypoxia occurs when
226.
All of the following are causes of acute respiratory failure in neuromuscular
diseases EXCEPT
227.
All of the following are causes of acute respiratory failure in pulmonary
parenchyma diseases EXCEPT
228.
The pathophysiologic mechanism of pulmonary hypertension includes
229.
All of the following are factors predisposing to pulmonary embolism ECXEPT
230.
Asthma is defined as a lung disease characterized by
231.
The functional assessment of the pulmonary function and signs are: VC (vital
capacity) decreased, FEV1 fall to the 60%, respiratory rate increased, pulse/min
normal and/or increased and/or decreased, breathlessness at rest. This correspond to
232.
The diagnosis of asthma attack is based on all of the following suggestions
EXCEPT
233.
The immunohistopathologic features of asthma include
234.
The clinical manifestation in the patient with chronic bronchitis (Type B: “blue
bloater”) is
235.
The clinical manifestation in the patient with emphysema is
236.
Emphysema is
237.
Spirogram for restrictive lung disease is
238.
Spirogram for obstructive lung disease is
239.
Pathophysiologic changes in diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis include all
of the following EXCEPT
240.
Laboratory values for patient with respiratory acidosis (acute asthma episode)
are
241.
Laboratory values for patient with respiratory acidosis (emphysema) are
242.
Laboratory values for patient with respiratory alkalosis (pulmonary embolism)
are
243.
Common causes of respiratory alkalosis include all of the following EXCEPT
244.
Common causes of respiratory acidosis include all of the following EXCEPT
245.
Pneumothorax
246.
Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are
247.
Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are
248.
Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are
249.
Respiratory responses to changes in carbonic and metabolic acids are
250.
Respiratory acidosis
251.
Which finding is not common in acute glomerulonephritis?
252.
Which finding is fairly specific for chronic renal failure?
253.
A high fractional excretion of sodium is typically found in
254.
In chronic renal failure, which of the following is not typical finding?
255.
Which of the following describes bone abnormalities is patients with chronic
renal failure?
256.
Which of the following is useful in retarding progression of renal failure?
257.
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized by the following
EXCEPT
258.
Which of the following is not a finding typical of nephrotic syndrome?
259.
When vomiting the laboratory findings show
260.
For the chronic obstructive pulmonary disease the laboratory findings show
261.
For the diarrhea the laboratory findings show
262.
For the respiratory arrest the laboratory findings show
263.
For the Addison`s disease which type of hyponatremia is typical?
264.
For the nephrotic syndrome which type of hyponatremia is typical?
265.
For the hypothyroidism which type of hyponatremia is typical?
266.
Changes in the glomerular filtration barrier in diabetes mellitus result in
267.
Impermeability to water despite the presence of ADH is in
268.
Site of countercurrent multiplier is
269.
Site of action of aldosteron is
270.
Capillaries involved in maintenance of hyperosmotic medulla is
271.
Following statements regarding the percentage of total body water at all ages
are correct EXCEPT
272.
Extracellular fluid volume deficit
273.
Clinical manifestation of extracellular fluid volume (ECV) deficit is
274.
All of the following causes of extracellular fluid volume (ECV) excess are
correct EXCEPT
275.
Clinical manifestations during extracellular fluid volume (ECV) excess are
276.
A serum sodium concentration below the lower limit of normal range indicates
hyponatremia. This is called
277.
Pathogenesis of hyponatremia.includes
278.
Without water supply increases osmolality of the extracellular fluid, thirst and
oliguria which correspond to
279.
Hypokalemia indicates a decreased potassium concentration in the extracellular
fluid.
280.
For the hypocalcemia one of the following statement is correct. Which one is
it?
281.
The clinical symptoms during decreases of the extracelullar water may be all
of the following EXCEPT
282.
The clinical symptoms during increases of the extracelullar water may be all
of the following EXCEPT
283.
The clinical symptoms during increases of the extracelullar calcium level may
be all of the following EXCEPT
284.
The function of the nefron segment - glomerulus is that
285.
The function of the nefron segment – proximal convoluted tubule is that
286.
The function of the nefron segment – descending Henle´s loop is that
287.
The function of the nefron segment – ascending Henle´s loop is that
288.
The function of the nefron segment – collecting tubule is that
289.
For proteinuria suit following causes EXCEPT
290.
For glycosuria suit following causes EXCEPT
291.
Nephrotic syndrome as a collection of symptoms may be characterized by
292.
Nephrotic syndrome as a collection of symptoms may be characterized by
293.
The prerenal acute renal failure manifests by
294.
The intrarenal acute renal failure is present
295.
The postrenal acute renal failure is present
296.
Oliguria is urinary output less than
297.
Anuria is urinary output less than
298.
The cause of prerenal (decreased renal perfusion) acute renal failure may be all
of the following EXCEPT
299.
The cause of postrenal (obstruction) acute renal failure may be all of the
following EXCEPT
300.
The cause of intrarenal (damage of the nephron) acute renal failure may be all
of the following EXCEPT
301.
All the following may present with hematemesis EXCEPT
302.
Bleeding peptic ulcer disease may NOT present with
303.
Hepatitis C infection can be transmitted in all of the following manners
EXCEPT by
304.
Symptoms of acute pancreatitis may include
305.
The ideology of acute pancreatitis includes all of the following EXCEPT
306.
The most common location for a gastric ulcer is the
307.
All of the following are consistent with the diagnosis of malabsorption
EXCEPT
308.
Causes of malabsorption include all of the following EXCEPT
309.
All of the following are potential consequences of chronic hepatitis B or C
infection EXCEPT
310.
Serum alkaline phosphatase is NOT elevated in the disease of
311.
In patients with alcohol-induced liver disease, all of the following are
indicators of poor prognosis EXCEPT
312.
The primary source of bilirubin is
313.
Enteroendocrine cells secrete their products by
314.
Which of the following processes is involved in lipid absorption and processed
by the enterocytes?
315.
As saliva passes through the duct system, which of the following changes
occurs?
316.
The primary regulator of salivary secretion is
317.
Which of the following represents a major function of epithelial cells lining the
small intestine?
318.
Functions of hepatocytes include which of the following?
319.
In saliva, IgA is complexed with
320.
The diagram below shows the relationship between the esophagus, stomach,
and duodenum. Match each description with the appropriate lettered site. The region
in which the majority of parietal cells are found
321.
The diagram below shows the relationship between the esophagus, stomach,
and duodenum. Match each description with the appropriate lettered site. The region
in which Brunner´s glands are found
322.
The diagram below shows the relationship between the esophagus, stomach,
and duodenum. Match each description with the appropriate lettered site. The side of
glands with deep pits that produce mucus and a hormone that stimulates parietal cell
HCl production
323.
Match each function with the appropriate cell type – secretion of pepsinogen
concerns
324.
Match each function with the appropriate cell type – secretion of gastrin
concerns
325.
Match each function with the appropriate cell type – regulation of intestinal
flora concerns
326.
Match each function with the appropriate cell type – sampling of antigens from
the intestinal lumen concerns
327.
Match each function with the appropriate cell type – secretion of gastric
intrinsic factor concerns
328.
For the gastrin math the correct suggestion
329.
For the secretin match the correct suggestion
330.
Diarhea is
331.
Helicobacter pylori has a key role in stimulating
332.
Postgastrectomy (dumping) syndrome include
333.
The main components of bile are
334.
Conditions predisposing to acute pancreatitis may be all of the following
EXCEPT
335.
Jaundice results from impaired
336.
During liver disease, when hepatic encephalopathy is the typical symptom - the
pathophysiological mechanism of this symptom is
337.
During liver disease when jaundice is the typical symptom - the
pathophysiological mechanism of this symptom is
338.
For the portal hypertension all of the following suggestions are correct.
EXCEPT
339.
Cirrhosis represents the irreversible end stage of many different impairments.
Symptoms of cirrhosis may be all of the following EXCEPT
340.
Which of the following is a response of the body to starvation?
341.
Deficiency of Vitamin C has for effect
342.
Deficiency of Vitamin D has for effect
343.
Deficiency of Vitamin B12 has for effect
344.
Deficiency of Vitamin K has for effect
345.
Deficiency of Vitamin E has for effect
346.
Role of proteins (amino acids and albumin) in wound healing is to
347.
Role of carbohydrates (glucose) in wound healing is to
348.
Role of fats (essential fatty acids) in wound healing is to
349.
Role of vitamins in wound healing is to
350.
Role of minerals in wound healing is to
351.
For the necrotic cell death does not correspond one of proposed lettered
answers. Which one is it?
352.
Apoptotic cell death
353.
Which one of the following chemical substances is not active even without
physiological stimulators and can not thus trigger mitosis, independent of
physiological growth factors
354.
For the development of tumor cells are typical:
355.
For the development of inflammation are typical:
356.
For the development of Type III hypersensitivity are typical:
357.
For the development of autoimmune diseases are typical:
358.
Local reactions in the acute inflammation does not usually include
359.
Hyperpnoe is
360.
Eupnea is
361.
Apnea is
362.
Dyspnea is
363.
The „barrel chest“ is typical in
364.
Effects of hyperoxia are all for the following EXCEPT
365.
If people drink sea-water, they suffer from following clinical symptom:
366.
If people drink a “clean” water [without minerals], they suffer from following
clinical symptom:
367.
All of the following symptoms are typical for hyperkalemia EXCEPT
368.
All of the following symptoms are typical for hypokalemia EXCEPT
369.
If the patient has dg. hypercalcemia,
370.
Hypocalcemia can be result of
371.
Long-term reduction in bone mass independent on different categories (i.e. age,
race, and sex) under standard values is defined as
372.
When the mineralization of the bone matrix [osteoid] or of the growth plate is
disturbed, it is the manifesting symptom of
373.
What is the clinical state resulting from reduced bone mass? Effects of this
disorder include skeletal pain even at rest, and lower arm or femoral neck fracture.
374.
The clinical symptom of the portal hypertension is
375.
In phenylketonuria
376.
Uric acid is the end-product of
377.
The result of chronically elevated uric acid/urate concentration in plasma is all
of the following EXCEPT
378.
In 40 year old women diagnostic is no menstrual bleeding- amenorrhea. All of
the following causes are typical EXCEPT
379.
In estrogen deficiency in women the
380.
In progesteron deficiency in women the
381.
In estrogens excess in women the clinical symptom is
382.
In progesteron excess in women the clinical symptom is
383.
The sex of an individual can be defined on the basis of the chromosomal set.
Klinefelter`s syndrome is
384.
The leukotrienes causes
385.
Vascular occlusion as the cause of ischemia in medulla oblongata has for
effect:
386.
Vascular occlusion anterior choroid as the cause of ischemia in basal ganglia
has for effect:
387.
Vascular occlusion anterior cerebral as the cause of ischemia in cortex cerebri
has for effect all of the following EXCEPT
388.
The illness is characterized by delusions, hallucination, socially inacceptable
behavior and/or inadequate association [so-called positive symptoms]. The disease is
389.
Transcortical motor aphasia is caused by lesion in the anterior inferior frontal
lobe near the Broca speech center.
390.
Sensory transcortical aphasia occurs after a lesion in the parietal-temporal
association cortex near the Wernicke speech center.
391.
Subcortical aphasia occurs due to lesions in the region of the basal ganglia and
the thalamus.
392.
Anomic aphasia is the result of a lesion in the temporal lobe in the region of the
medial and inferior gyrus.
393.
In global aphasia both sensory and motor centers are damaged. It means that:
394.
Open- eyed adult (awake) is under EEG examination. Which waves are
predominant?
395.
In adults who closed their eyes is predominantly of EEG
396.
In adults who sleep is predominantly of EEG
397.
All of the following clinical symptoms occur during hyperthermia EXCEPT
398.
Obesity is not a risk factor for
399.
Leptin is
400.
The coagulation system is made up from numerous factors. Select one correct
lettered answer.
401.
Hyperthyroidism in a patient who moved from an iodine-deficient area to an
iodine-sufficient area. Select one lettered answer.
402.
Thyrotoxicosis and uniformly increased radioactive iodine uptake in the
thyroid without thyrotropin receptor antibodies. Select one lettered answer.
403.
Pretibial myxedema. Select one lettered answer.
404.
Infiltration of orbital soft tissue and extraocular muscles with lymphocytes,
mucopolysaccharides, and fluid. Select one lettered answer.
405.
What is the most common cause of goiter in developing nations? Select one
lettered answer.
406.
What is the cause of endemic goiter? Select one lettered answer.
407.
What inhibits conversion of T4 to T3. Select one lettered answer.
408.
In which case occur high levels of thyroidal peroxidase antibody? Select one
lettered answer.
409.
What indicate elevated TSH, normal free T4, and no recent illnesses? Select
one lettered answer.
410.
What indicate normal TSH, normal T4, and low T3? Select one lettered answer.
411.
What indicate low TSH, high T4, and high T3? Select one lettered answer.
412.
What indicate normal TSH, high T4, and high T3? Select one lettered answer.
413.
Low TSH and high T3. Select the one best lettered option.
414.
What indicate markedly tender gland, low radioiodine uptake, and
thyrotoxicosis? Select one lettered answer.
415.
Thyrotoxicosis with a patchy pattern but normal amount of radioiodine uptake.
Select one lettered answer.
416.
What indicate diffusely enlarged gland with uniform and increased radioiodine
uptake? Select one lettered answer.
417.
Untreated acromegaly results in decreased life expectancy for the following
reasons EXCEPT
418.
A 30-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of amenorrhea. Your
initial evaluation should include measurement of
419.
A 26-old woman has been amenorrheic for 21/2 months. Your first choice for
diagnostic evaluation is
420.
Patients with pituitary macroadenoma present most commonly with
421.
Which of the following organs is not a major estrogen-dependent tissue in
women?
422.
Which of the following organs does not require androgens for proper growth in
males?
423.
Which of these hormones is also produced in significant amounts outside of the
gonads?
424.
A 22-year-old female marathon runner has had amenorrhea for 8 months.
There has been no weight change, and her serum pregnancy test is negative. Her
menarche was at 13 years of age, and she had monthly menses until 8 months ago.
Physical exam shows a women who is 66 inches tall, weighs 90 pounds, and is
otherwise fully normal. Why douse she have amenorrhea?
425.
A 28-year-old woman has had 2 days of abdominal pain and a positive
pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She reports no dysuria.
She reports a history of two episodes of pelvic inflammatory disease. Which of these
is the most likely cause of the abdominal pain?
426.
How does pregnancy increase the risk of diabetes mellitus?
427.
Which of these hormones blocks milk production during pregnancy?
428.
Which of the following causes of male infertility is not caused by androgen
deficiency?
429.
A 52-year-old woman is having hot flashes. You suspect menopause. Which of
the findings below would confirm your diagnosis?
430.
Which of the following organs does ovarian estrogen production have a
stimulatory effect on?
431.
Which of the following is not stimulated by LH?
432.
Which of the following is not stimulated by FSH?
433.
Which of the following hormones in excess causes male infertility?
434.
Which of the following significant actions is initiated by estrogen?
435.
Which of the following significant actions initiated by progesterone?
436.
Which of the following significant actions initiated by follicle-stimulating
hormone?
437.
Which of the following significant actions initiated by luteinizing-hormone?
438.
Metrorrhagia is
439.
Hypomenorrhea is
440.
Oligomenorrhea is
441.
Dysmenorrhea is
442.
Features of acromegaly include all of the following EXCEPT
443.
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is present with
444.
Lack of Antidiuretic hormone is manifested by
445.
Manifestations of hypothyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT
446.
Manifestations of hyperthyroidism include all of the following EXCEPT
447.
Exophthalmos means
448.
Hyperfunction of one part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis results in
conditions characterized by hypercorticalism. Among common clinical manifestations
belong:
449.
For the diabetic ketoacidosis are typical
450.
For the hyperosmolar hyperglycemic non-ketonic diabetic coma are typical
451.
What indicates high-frequency fine tremor (may be difficult to see grossly)?
Match one lettered answer.
452.
Resting tremor that lessens with intentional movement. Match one lettered
answer.
453.
Tremor that lessens with consumption of small amounts of alcohol. Match one
lettered answer.
454.
Muscle weakness can be demonstrated in patients with all of the following
disorders EXCEPT
455.
A 75-year-old man with concerns over developing dementia problems is
brought to your office by his son. Previously, the patient had been well but was forced
to retire from his job a few months ago due to worsening arthritis symptoms limiting
his mobility. He has been a widower for 4 months and lives alone. His family is
worried about his safety in view of these changes. The likely cause of this dementia
picture is
456.
In myasthenia gravis, the antibody to the acetylcholine receptor acts via all the
following mechanisms EXCEPT
457.
Excitatory neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and glutamate
458.
Weakness is caused by impaired neuromuscular transmission in all the
following disorders EXCEPT
459.
Cerebellar disease causes all the following clinical symptoms EXCEPT
460.
Pain and paresthesias [such as a burning or tingling sensation] in both feet and
lower legs of a patient who has been diabetic for 15 years. Match the symptom
description to the nerve disorder.
461.
Pain and paresthesia over the lateral/anterior thigh of a moderately obese
factory worker who stands for long periods time. Match the symptom description to
the nerve disorder.
462.
Impaired pain and temperature sensation in one leg and impaired
proprioception and vibration sense in the opposite leg of a patient who was stabbed in
the back during a fight. Match the symptom description to the nerve disorder.
463.
Pain and weakness in the lower back, radiating down the posterolateral thigh
and lower leg of a patient who has worked for many years as a stevedore. Match the
symptom description to the nerve disorder.
464.
An amenorrheic 35-year-old woman with galactorrhea is found to have a large
prolactin-secreting pituitary tumor compressing her optic chiasm. Which visual
disturbance does she have?
465.
Subjective sensation of noise in the ear. Match the hearing disorder involved.
466.
Failure of arousal (coma) may be caused by all the following EXCEPT
467.
How is called the inability to understand speech or to perform meaningful
speech. Match the disorder to its definition.
468.
How is called the inability to retrieve from memory or to use previously
learned words appropriately. Match the disorder to its definition.
469.
How is called the blunted and apathetic affect caused by frontal lobe damage.
Match the disorder to its definition.
470.
How is called the inability to read printed words. Match the disorder to its
definition.
471.
How is called the inability to perform previously learned motor functions.
Match the disorder to its definition.
472.
All of the following have been identified as factors in the pathophysiology of
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) EXCEPT
473.
Which cerebral artery is blocked in an ischemic stroke that occurs with the
following symptoms: aphasia, right hemiparesis, and right arm numbness?
474.
Myasthenia gravis
475.
The pseudomyasthenic syndrome
476.
For the death of alfa-motoneurons all the following clinical symptoms are
correct EXCEPT
477.
Creatine
478.
For the muscular dystrophies all the following clinical symptoms are correct
EXCEPT
479.
If the motor cortex or the internal capsule is damaged [e.g. bleeding] the results
are
480.
Babinski reflex is
481.
For Parkinson`s disease all the following are correct EXCEPT
482.
The result of striatal neurons destruction is
483.
Hypotonia, nystagmus, scanning speech, stumbling gait, ataxia and disturbed
balance are clinical manifestation of
484.
Phantom pain is
485.
In myopia
486.
For the astigmatism is correct that
487.
If the pressure in the intraocular increases, that is sign of
488.
In hyperopia
489.
In regular astigmatism
490.
The high intraocular pressure irreversibly damages
491.
Lesion in the temporal part of retina of the left eye causes
492.
If the optic nerve of the left eye is interrupted
493.
Complete lesion of the optic tract of the left eye results
494.
Interruption of the pathway in the optic chiasm especially affects the crossing
fibers, the consequences are manifested by
495.
Homonymous anopsia results from
496.
For the Broca`s aphasia is valid
497.
For the Wernicke`s aphasia is valid
498.
For the Alzheimer`s disease all the following are correct EXCEPT
499.
Depression
500.
For insomnia disorders all the following are correct EXCEPT