SAMPLE PAPER FOR CLASS IX
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Examination is divided into two Section, Paper-01 and Paper-02
2. Paper-01 (Mental Ability) contains 20 Questions (1-20); time allotted for Paper-01 would
be 30 minutes.
3. Paper-02 (Mathematics + Physics + Chemistry + Biology) contains 80 questions, 30
Questions from Mathematics (21 - 50), 20 questions from Physics (51-70), 20 questions from
Chemistry (71-90), 10 questions from Biology (91-100).
4. The OMR sheet given in the examination hall is the Answer Sheet.
5. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic
gadgets in any form is not allowed.
6. Do not forget to mention your roll number neatly and clearly in the blank space provided in
the answer sheet.
7. Each Question carries 4 marks. 1 mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. So attempt
each question carefully.
8. No rough sheets will be provided by the invigilators. All the rough work is to be done in the
blank space provided in the question paper.
9. In case of any dispute, the answer filled in the OMR sheet available with the institute shall
be final.
NAME OF THE CANDIDATE:………………………………………………
CLASS:…………………………………………………………………………
REGISTRATION NO…………………………………………………………
1
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SAMPLE PAPER FOR TALENT REWARD EXAMINATION - 2012
CLASS-IX
PAPER-01(MENTAL ABILITY)
Q.1.
Two candles of the same height are lighted at the same time. The first is consumed in 4
hours and the second in 3 hours. Assuming that each candle burns at a constant rate, in
how many hours after being lighted was the first candle twice the height of the second?
3
1
a)
hr
b)
1 2hr
4
c)
Q.2.
Q.3.
Q.4.
Q.5.
Q.6.
2hr
2
d)
1 5 ℎ𝑟
Mohan was born on February 29 in the year 1960. How many birthdays will be
celebrated up to 1976 February?
a)
16
c)
4
b)
8
d)
5
I go to North then turn right, then right again and then left. In which direction, I am going
now?
a)
East
c)
North
b)
West
d)
South
Which number would replace question mark in the series 7,12,19,? 39
a)
29
c)
26
b)
28
d)
24
If cloud is called white, white is called rain, rain is called green, green is called air, air is
called blue, blue is called water, where will the birds fly?
a)
Air
c)
White
b)
Cloud
d)
Blue
In the following question, arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur
in the dictionary and then choose the correct sequence.
1.
Select
2.
Seldom
3.
Send
4.
Selfish
5.
Seller
a)
1,2,3,4,5,3
c)
2,1,4,5,3
b)
2,1,5,4,3,
d)
2,5,4,1,3
Q.7. In the series, 6,4,1,2,2,8,7,4,2,1,5,3,8,6,2,1,7,1,4,1,3,2,8,6 how many pairs of
successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
a)
4
c)
6
b)
5
d)
7
Q.8. If ‘x’ stands for ‘addition’ ‘<’ for ‘subtraction’, ‘+’ stands for ‘division’,’>’ for ‘Multiplication’
‘-‘ stands for ‘equal to’ , ÷ stands for ‘greater than’ and = stands for ‘less than’, which of
the following is true?
a)
3×2<4÷ 16 >2÷4
c)
3×4>2-9+3<3
b)
5>2+2=10<4×8
d)
5×3<7÷8+4× 1
Q.9. How many independent meaningful words can be formed by using the letters of the
word GODOWN, using each letter only once, without altering the order of the letters?
a)
Four
c)
Three
b)
Two
d)
Seven
Q.10. Bittoo who is a male member is 11th in a queue which has 45 people. The number of
gents in the queue is double the number of ladies. If 5 men are in front of Bittoo, how
many ladies are behind him ?
a)
10
c)
8
b)
9
d)
7
Q.11.
If BARS = 10 and BEERT = 10, DEEZ will be?
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a) 15
b) 12
c) 14
d) 10
Q.12. A man is facing south. He turns 135º in the anticlockwise direction and then 180º in the
clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
a)
North-East
c)
South-East
b)
North-West
d)
South-West
Q.13. Kanta was born on Saturday 22ndMarch 1982. On what day of the week she was the 14
years 7months and 8 days of age?
a)
Sunday
c)
Wednesday
b)
Tuesday
d)
Monday
Q.14. In a group of children, each child gives a gift to every other. If the number of gifts is 90,
how many children are there?
a)
10
c)
8
b)
11
d)
9
Q.15. If a = 10 (110) 12 and b = 15 (185) 13 then what will come in place of ‘?’. C = ? (158) 14
a)
15
c)
12
b)
20
d)
8
Q.16. 77, 78, 77, 81, 73, ? , 55
a)
80
c)
71
b)
89
d)
82
Q.17. If 4 2@ 3 = 6, 18 6@ 4 = 12, then what will be the value to 24 3 @7?
a)
21
c)
72
b)
27
d)
56
Q.18. T is the son of P. S is the son of Q. T is married to R. R is Q's daughter. How is S
related to T ?
a)
Father in law
c)
Brother
b)
Brother in law
d)
uncle
Q.19. If you are 15th in a queue starting from extreme end, how many persons are there in the
queue?
a)
30
c)
28
b)
31
d)
29
Q.20. Find the month which is different from the others.
a)
April
c)
July
b)
May
d)
September
MATHEMATICS SECTION
Q.21. The radius and slant height of a cone are in the ratio of 4:7. If its curved surface area is
792cm2, then its radius is equal to (𝑢𝑠𝑒 𝜋 =
a) 11cm
b) 12cm
22
)
7
c) 13cm
d)
14cm
Q.22. ABCD is a parallelogram. A circle passes through points A, B & C and cuts the side CD
produced in E then:
a) AE >AD
D
b) AE =AD
E
C
c) AE<AD
A
d) AE =AB
B
Q.23. Find the angle between the hour-hand and minute-hand of a watch at 8:45AM.
a) 00
c) 5½0
b) 3½0
d) 7½0
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Q.24. Tickets numbered from 1 to 20 are mixed up and a ticket is drawn at random. The
probability that the drawn ticket has a number multiple of 3 or 7 is :
a)
b)
1
15
1
2
2
5
7
20
c)
d)
Q.25. The volume of a sphere of radius r is equal to volume of a right circular cone of the base of
radius r. The height of the cone is :
a) r
c) 3r
b) 2r
d) 4r
Q.26. The adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 4 cm and 9 cm. The ratio of its altitudes is
a) 16:81
c) 2:3
b) 9:4
d) 3:2
Q.27. In a ΔABC, AD bisects the BAC. The sides AB, BD and DC will be in descending order
with respects to their lengths are :
A
a)
DC > AB > BD
b)
AB > BD >DC
0
X0 X
c)
BD > AB > CD
d)
AB > DC > BD
500
B
400
D
C
Q.28. The area of a parallelogram is ‘p’ cm2 and its height is ‘q’ cm. A second parallelogram
has equal area but its base is ‘r’ cm more than that of the first. An expression in terms of
p, q and r for the height h of the second parallelogram is :
a) pq/(qr + q)
c) q2/(q2 +pr)
2
2
2
b) P /(p +q )
d) Pq/(p + qr)
Q.29. In the adjoining figure ABCD is a ॥
gm
whose diagonals interest at O. A line segment XOY
is drawn to meet AB and CD at X and Y respectively, then which is true for the shaded
triangles :
Y
C
D
a) ΔXOB  ΔDOY
b) OX = OY
c) ar. (ΔXOB) = ar. (ΔDOY)
d) all of these
A
B
X
Q.30. In the figure O is the centre of large circle and C is the centre of small circle. If the area of
the small circle is A, the shaded part has an area :
a) 8A
b) 6A
C
O
c) 4A
d) 3A
Q.31. In a set of observations x1, x2, x3, x4……….xn with frequencies f1, f2, f3…….fn respectively.
If d1 represents the deviations of assumed mean ‘a’ from the individual observation, then
f1d1 is equal to :
a) f1x1 - a
c) ( f1x1 - a)
b) f1(a - x)
d) f1(x1 - a)
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Q.32. The marks obtained out of 50, by 100 students on a test are given in the frequency table
The mode is:
Marks
Frequency
15
04
20
08
22
11
24
20
25
23
30
17
33
13
38
3
45
1
a) 24
c) 30
b) 45
d) 25
Q.33. In the adjoining figure, the circle of radius r =6cm, having centre O, OPOA, then the
value of PR is :
C
a) 6cm
Q
P
b) >6cm
c) <6cm
O
R A
d) None of these
Q.34. If volume of a cylinder is V. If the radius of the cylinder is doubled and its height halved.
The volume would be :
a) V/2
c) 2V
b) V
d) 4V
Q.35. The point (3,0) lies on
a) +ve x-axis
c) -ve X –axis
b) +ve Y-axis
d) -ve Y-axis
Q.36. The A.M. of the values x1, x2 …….xn is 𝑋̅ then ∑𝑛𝑖=𝑙 𝑥1 − 𝑥̅ is :
a) Greater than zero
c) Equal to zero
b) Less than zero
d) May be positive, negative or zero
Q.37. The chord of the larger of two concentric circles is tangent to the smaller circle and has
length “a” the area enclosed between the concentric circles is:
a) 𝜋 a2
b) 𝜋 a2 /2
c) 𝜋 a2 /4
d) Cannot be determined from given date
Q.38. A regular decagon (10 sides) is inscribed in a circle. The angle that each side of the
decagon subtends at the centre is
a) 1000
c) 360
0
b) 42
d) 240
Q.39. Two chimneys 18 m and 13 m high stand upright in a ground. If their feet are 12 m apart,
then the distance between their tops is
a) 5m
c) 13m
b) 31m
d) 18m
Q.40. Ratio of volumes of two cylinders with equal radii are
a) R:r
c) R2:r2
b) H:h
d) None
Q.41. A cylindrical vessel contains 49.896 liters of liquid. Cost of painting its CSA at 2 paise/sq
cm is Rs. 95.04. then its total surface is:
a) 5742 cm2
c) 5724 cm2
2
b) 7524 cm
d) None
Q.42. Ratio of volumes of two cones with same radii is
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Q.43.
Q.44.
Q.45.
Q.46.
a) H1:h2
c) S1:s2
b) R1:r2
d) None
The radius of a sphere is increased by p%. its surface area is increases by
a) P%
c) (2P+P2/100)%
2
b) P %
d) P2/2 %
The mean of first six multiples of 4 is:
a) 13.5
c) 14
b) 14.5
d) 16
The two sides of a triangle are 7 and 10 units. Which of the following length can be the
length of the third side?
a) 19 units
c) 13 units
b) 17 units
d) 3 units
A card is drawn from a packet of 100 cards numbered 1 to 100.the drawing a number
which is a square is
1
1
a)
c)
10
9
100
Q.47.
Q.48.
Q.49.
Q.50.
100
2
100
b)
d)
A circle has
a) 10 sides
c) 3000 sides
b) 20 sides
d) Infinity sides
A sphere and a cube are of the same height. The ratio of their volume is
a) 3:4
c) 21:11
b) 4:3
d) 11:21
The mean of x, x+3, x+6, x+6, x+9 and x+12 is
a) X+6
c) X+9
b) X+1
d) X+12
The probability for a randomly selected number out of 1,2,3, 4, ….. 25 to be a prime
number
2
a)
b)
25
23
25
10
25
c)
d) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑠𝑒
CHEMISTRY SECTION
Q.51. Name the experiment which established the quantum number of electric charge :
a) Rutherford’s - particles scattering experiment
b) Coulomb’s experiment
c) Thomson’s experiment
d) Millikan’s oil drop experiment
Q.52. Which is not a chemical change
a) Freezing of water
c) Burning of paper
b) Rusting of iron
d) Digestion of food
23
Q.53. What is the mass of 3.011×10 molecules of nitrogen gas?
a) 2.8g
c) 28g
b) 14g
d) 1.4g
Q.54. Laughing gas is
a) N2O
c) NH3
b) SO2
d) PH30
Q.55. Evaporation of liquid takes place
a) At its boiling point
c) Below its boiling point
b) Above its boiling point
d) Above and at its boiling point
Q.56. The mass of a proton is approximately equal :
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Q.57.
Q.58.
Q.59.
Q.60.
Q.61.
Q.62.
Q.63.
Q.64.
Q.65.
Q.66.
Q.67.
Q.68.
Q.69.
a) 1836 times of mass of an electron
b) 1836 times of mass of neutron
c) 103 times of positron
d) None of the above
In the nuclear reaction 105𝐵 + 42𝐻𝑒 137𝑁 + 10𝑥, what would be the missing particle x :
a) Proton
c) Electron
b) Neutron
d) Deuteron
Water gas has the following composition :
a) CO + H2
c) CO2 + H2 + CH4
b) CO + H2O
d) CH4 + N2 + CO2
How many gram atoms are present in 256 g O2?
a) 16
c) 14
b) 32
d) 36
How many gram atoms are present in 60 g of carbon?
a) 6
c) 16
b) 10
d) 5
A hydro carbon contains 90% of carbon and 10% hydrogen. The empirical formula of the
compound is :
a) C2H5
c) C3H4
b) C3H2
d) CH3
Sulphur molecule exists as S8. How many moles of sulphur are present in 25.6 grams are
of Sulphur.
a) 0.01
c) 0.02
b) 0.1
d) 0.2
Calculate the number of moles of zinc in 23.3 g.
a) 0.37 moles
c) 0.5 moles
b) 0.35 moles
d) 0.53 moles
Elements having 7 electrons in the valence shell are called:
a) Halogens
c) Alkali metals
b) Chalcogens
d) Alkaline earths
Which of the following has zero electron affirnity?
a) Oxygen
c) Fluorine
b) Nitrogen
d) Neon
If in forming a compound AB, an electron is transferred from an atom A to B then:
a) A is divalent
b) B is oxidized and A is reduced
c) The compound AB is electrovalent
d) A and B are covalently bonded
Bond length decreases with:
a) Increase in the size of the atom
b) Increase in the number of bonds between the atoms
c) Decrease in the number of bonds between the atoms
d) Decrease in the bond angle
The firmness with which an electron is held by an atom is a measure of its
a) Electronegativity
c) ionization potential
b) Ionic character
d) metallic character
Which of the following has no units?
a) Ionization potential
b) Electron affinity
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c) Electro negativity
d) None of these
Q.70. Which of the following fundamental particles is not deflected by a magnetic field?
a) Proton
c) Positron
b) Neutron
d) Electron
PHYSICS SECTION
Q.71. A ball of mass 1.5 kg is dropped from a tower 40m high. (1.) What is its speed when it has
covered 20m? (2) What is its speed when it hits the ground?
a) 20m/s, 40√2𝑚/𝑠
c) 20m/s, 30√2𝑚/𝑠
b) 15m/s, 20√2𝑚/𝑠
d) 30m/s, 50√2𝑚/𝑠
Q.72. A boy throws a ball upwards and the ball after travelling in air hits the ground some
distance away from the boy. The path followed by the ball is :
a) a straight line
c) a parabola
b) two sides of a triangle
d) an ellipse
Q.73. A room has floor dimensions of 5m and 4m and height of 5m, if the density of air be
1.2kg/m3 weight of air the room would be : (g=10m/s2)
a) 120kg
c) 1200kg
b) 120N
d) 1200N
Q.74. A Block has weights 15N in ari, 12N in water and 13N in a liquid respectively. The relative
density (specific gravity) of the liquid is :
a) 1/3
c) 3/5
b) 2/3
d) 4/5
Q.75. Swimming is possible on account of :
a) Ist law of motion
c) IIIrd law of motion
b) IInd law of motion
d) None of the above
Q.76. A particles moves along the x-axis in such a way that its co-ordinate(x) varies with time (t)
according to the expression x=2-5t +6t2 meter. The initial velocity of the particle is :
a) -5ms-1
c) 6ms-1
b) -3ms-1
d) 3m s-1
Q.77. Sun is about 330 times heavier and about 100 times bigger I size than the earth. But
mean density of earth is more than of sun. the ratio of their mean densities (ds:de) will be
Q.78.
Q.79.
Q.80.
Q.81.
c) 330:1
a) 3.3× 10-4:1
d) 1:330
b) 1: 3.3 × 10-4
An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit with a speed equal to half the magnitude
of escape velocity from the earth. The height of the satellite from the surface of the earth
is:
a) 640 km
c) 64 km
b) 6400 km
d) 6.6 km
The heart of a man pumps 4 liters of blood per minute at a pressure of 130 mm of
mercury. If the density of mercury is 13.6 gcm-3, then calculate the power of the heart.
a) 1.144 w
c) 1.155 w
b) 2.145 w
d) 3.155 w
A light body and a heavy body have same kinetic energy. Which one will have a greater
momentum?
a) Lighter body
c) Both bodies have same
b) Heavier body
momentum
d) None of the above
The momentum of a body is doubled. What is the percentage increase in kinetic energy?
a) 500%
c) 200%
b) 300%
d) 600%
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Q.82. A body falling from a height of 10 m rebounds from a hard floor. It loses 20% of energy
impact. What is the height to which it would rise after the impact?
a) 7m
c) 8m
b) 5m
d) 6m
Q.83. Two masses, one n time as heavy as the other, have equal kinetic energy. What is the
ratio of their momentum?
c) 1: n
a) 1:√𝑛
d) N:1
b) √𝑛 ∶ 1
Q.84. The momentum of a body is numerically equal to the kinetic energy of the body. What is
the velocity of the body?
1
1
a) √2 units
c) √3 units
b) 2 units
d) √3 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
Q.85. A force of 5 N acts on an object, the displacement is perpendicular to the direction of the
force. Calculate the work done.
a) 5 J
c) 100 J
b) 1J
d) None of these
Q.86. Find the time period of a wave whose frequency is 400 MHz?
a) 0.0012 s
c) 0.0015 s
b) 0.0025 s
d) 0.0010 s
Q.87. The time period of a sound wave travelling in a medium is T. At a given instance (t=0) a
particular region in the medium has minimum density. The density of this region will be
minimum again at:
a) t = T
c) t=T/3
b) t = T/2
d) t=T/4
Q.88. Action reacts forces:
a) Act on the same body
c) Act along different lines
b) Act on different bodies
d) Act in the same direction.
Q.89. Which of the following is an elastic wave?
a) Sound waves
c) x- rays
b) Light waves
d) radio waves
Q.90. If you go increasing the stretching force on a wire in a guitar, its frequency:
a) Increases
c) Remains unchanged
b) Decreases
d) None of the above
Biology section
Q.91. Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
a) Duck billed platypus
c) Whale
b) Kangaroo
d) Pigeon
Q.92. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the taxonomic hierarchy?
a) Division, order, family, class
c) Family, division, order, class
b) Division, class, order, family
d) Class, order, family, division
Q.93. Which life process is classified as autotrophic in some organisms and heterotrophic in
others?
a) Hormonal regulation
c) Anaerobic respiration
b) Nutrition
d) Transport
Q.94. The bacterium responsible for peptic ulcers is:
a) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Helicobacter pylori
b) Streptococcus pneumonia
d) Nisseria
Q.95. Acnes is caused by:
a) Bacteria
c) Protozoa
b) Fungus
d) Virus
Q.96. Dengue is caused by
a) Fungi
c) Virus
b) Bacteria
d) protozoa
Q.97. Bhopal gas tragedy struck in the year 1984 due to the leakage of:
a) Methyl-iso- cyanate
b) Nitrous oxide
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c) Methane
d) Carbon monoxide
Q.98. What is the main source of water pollution in india?
a) Municipal sewage
c) Both A & B
b) Industrial discharge
d) None of these
Q.99. What minerals are found in the runoff from agricultural land and untreated sewage
effluents that are responsible for eutrophication of water bodies?
a) Phosphorous and carbon
b) Nitrogen and phosphorous
c) Potassium and arsenic
d) Iron and manganese
Q.100. Plants whose seeds have one seed leaf are:
a) Monocots
c) Ferns
b) Dicots
d) Moss
ANSWER KEY
Question No.
Correct option
Question No.
Correct option
Question No.
Correct option
Question No.
Correct option
Q.1.
Q.6.
Q.11.
Q.16.
Q.21.
Q.26.
Q.31.
Q.36.
Q.41.
Q.46.
Q.51.
Q.56.
Q.61.
Q.66.
Q.71.
Q.76.
Q.81.
Q.86.
Q.91.
Q.96.
D
C
D
D
B
B
D
C
B
A
B
A
C
C
A
D
B
B
A
C
Q.2.
Q.7.
Q.12.
Q.17.
Q.22.
Q.27.
Q.32.
Q.37.
Q.42.
Q.47.
Q.52.
Q.57.
Q.62.
Q.67.
Q.72.
Q.77.
Q.82.
Q.87.
Q.92.
Q.97.
C
C
D
D
B
D
D
D
A
D
A
B
B
D
B
A
C
A
B
A
Q.3.
Q.8.
Q.13.
Q.18.
Q.23.
Q.28.
Q.33.
Q.38.
Q.43.
Q.48.
Q.53.
Q.58.
Q.63.
Q.68.
Q.73.
Q.78.
Q.83.
Q.88.
Q.93.
Q.98.
A
B
A
B
B
D
C
C
C
D
B
B
C
C
D
B
B
B
B
C
Q.4.
Q.9.
Q.14.
Q.19.
Q.24.
Q.29.
Q.34.
Q.39.
Q.44.
Q.49.
Q.54.
Q.59.
Q.64.
Q.69.
Q.74.
Q.79.
Q.84.
Q.89.
Q.94.
Q.99.
B
D
A
D
C
D
C
C
C
B
A
A
A
D
D
C
B
A
C
B
10
Question No.
Q.5.
Q.10.
Q.15.
Q.20.
Q.25.
Q.30.
Q.35.
Q.40.
Q.45.
Q.50.
Q.55.
Q.60.
Q.65.
Q.70.
Q.75.
Q.80.
Q.85.
Q.90.
Q.95.
Q.100.
Correct option
D
A
C
A
D
D
A
B
C
C
C
D
D
B
D
B
D
A
A
A
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Visit us at: http//:www.vineetcoachings.com