PT4 CERTIFICATION EXAM
ANSWER KEY
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Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
PT4 Certification Exam – ANSWER KEY
Circle the best answer
1. Which attribute is characteristic of suppositories?
A. They crystallize at room temperature
B. Are meant to melt at body temperature Chapter 5, pg. 174
NAPRA 4, 5, 7, 9; CPTEA 5, 6, 7
C. Must be stored in the freezer
D. Must be stored in a dry cupboard away from light
2. Which disorder is associated with multiple sclerosis?
A. Loss or deficiency of dopamine
B. Deterioration of the myelin sheath Chapter 16, pg. 537 NAPRA 7;
CPTEA 6
C. Loss of neuronal synapses
D. The body’s immune system attacks and destroys the receptors that normally
receive neuronal impulses
3. Which auxiliary label is required on a prescription for an extended release
medication?
A. Take with food or milk
B. Do not crush or chew
Chapter 5, pg. 154
NAPRA 4, 5, 7;
CPTEA 5, 6
C. May cause photosensitivity
D. Do not drink alcohol
4. Which definition best describes antitussive medications?
A. A chemical that loosens and thins sputum so that it can be removed from the
respiratory tract
B. A medication that prevents or relieves coughing
Chapter 18, pg.
585, 597 NAPRA 2, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 6
C. Drug that reduces swelling of the mucous membranes by constricting dilated
blood vessels
D. Agent that breaks the bonds between the proteins responsible for mucus
build up
5. What is mydriasis?
A. Nearsightedness
B. Dilation of the pupil pg. 621
C. Contraction of the pupil
D. Farsightedness
May 8, 2009
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
Page 1
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
6. What activates the lacrimal glands when we cry?
A. Parasympathetic Nervous System pg. 626
B. Central Nervous System
C. Peripheral Nervous System
D. Somatic Nervous System
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
7. Which salivary gland is located just in front of the ear?
A. Sublingual
B. Submandibular
C. Parotid pg. 699
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
D. Carotid
8. Which component is the smallest unit of the nervous system?
A. Neurilemma
B. Neuron pg. 504
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. Myelin sheath
D. Synaptic vessels
9. Which system manages voluntary actions of the skeletal system?
A. Afferent
B. Efferent
C. Autonomic
D. Somatic pg. 504
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
10. What is the brand name for the combination drug containing levodopa and
carbidopa?
A. Prolopa
B. Requip
C. Stalevo
D. Sinemet pg. 500, 543
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
11. To which drug classification does the drug in question #11 belong?
Antiparkinson; Anticholinergic
pg. 500, 543 NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
12. Why is benzoic acid added to a medication?
A. To prevent fungal growth pg. 173 (Table 5-6)
NAPRA 4, 5, 7, 9; CPTEA 5, 6, 7
B. To adjust pH
C. To help the drug dissolve once it hits the GI system
D. To improve visual appeal
13. What is a reasonable number of breaths per minute for a child?
A. 80
B. 40
pg. 593
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. 10
D. 18
May 8, 2009
Page 2
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
14. Which substance would be used as the base ingredient for an ointment?
A. Gelatin
B. Petrolatum
pg. 161, 173 (Table 5-2) NAPRA 4, 5, 7, 9; CPTEA 5, 6, 7
C. Phenol
D. Starch
15. Which medical term is used to describe bundles of cell bodies within the PNS?
A. Axons
B. Synapses
C. Dendrites
D. Ganglions
pg. 504
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
16. Which part of the brain controls muscle function and balance?
A. Medulla Oblongata
B. Cerebellum
pg. 509
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. Midbrain
D. Thalamus
17. What separates the lungs from each other?
A. Mediastinum pg. 591
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. Pleura
C. Diaphragm
D. Heart
18. Which structure in the ear contains the vestibule, cochlea and semicircular canals?
A. Auditory canal
B. Bony labyrinth pg. 621, 647 NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. Auricle
D. Auditory ossicles
19. Which medication must be kept in the refrigerator?
A. timolol
B. dorzolamide
C. brinzolamide
D. trifluridine
pg. 635
NAPRA 6; CPTEA 6
May 8, 2009
Page 3
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
20. Which part of the small intestine is connected to the liver and the pancreas?
A. Cecum
B. Jejunum
C. Duodenum
pg. 701, 702 NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
D. Colon
21. What is the most common cause of conditions affecting the mouth?
A. Lack of good oral hygiene pg. 704
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. GERD
C. H. Pylori
D. E. Coli
22. Which medication might be used to treat the symptoms of multiple sclerosis?
A. donepezil
B. gabapentin
C. baclofen
pg. 519
NAPRA 2, 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 5, 6
D. primidone
23. Which medication is an example of a succinimide anticonvulsant?
A. Zarontin pg. 533
NAPRA 2, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
B. phenobarbital
C. Cerebyx
D. neostigmine
24. Which condition is described as a seizure disorder where some of the brain’s nerve
cells are hyperexcitable?
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Epilepsy
pg. 529
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Parkinson’s disease
25. What qualities do antidiarrheal agents possess?
A. Anti-inflammatory, analgesic
B. Laxative, moistening
C. Stimulant, osmotic
D. Adsorbent, protectant
pg. 712
NAPRA 2, 7; CPTEA 3, 6
26. Which type of medication is meant to be dissolved in the mouth?
A. Troches pg. 156
NAPRA 4, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
B. Emulsions
C. Elixirs
D. Caplets
May 8, 2009
Page 4
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
27. Why are some medications available in Act-o-vials?
A. Allows the medication to be used more than once
B. Easiest way to manufacture single dose vials
C. Allows the medication to have a longer shelf life
NAPRA 6; CPTEA 6
C. Ensures sterility of the drug
pg. 163
28. Where in the pharmacy should latanoprost be stored?
A. At room temperature
B. In the refrigerator
pg. 174 (Table 5-8)
NAPRA 6; CPTEA 6
C. In the freezer
D. On a drug shelf
29. Which aspect is a component of the communication process?
A. Body language
B. Listening
C. Writing
D. All of the above
pg. 86-89
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 2
30. Which statement provides an accurate description of a dendrite?
A. Part of a neuron that branches out to bring impulses to the cell body
pg. 499 NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. Motor neurons that control voluntary actions of the skeletal muscles
C. Part of the nerve cell that conducts impulses away from a cell body
D. A barrier formed due to special characteristics of capillaries which prevent
certain chemicals from moving to the brain
31. Which part of the brain is responsible for functions such as thirst, hunger and heart
rate?
A. Pons
B. Medulla Oblongata
C. Hypothalamus pg. 509
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
D. Cerebellum
32. Which definition would best describe an expectorant?
A. Agent that loosens and thins sputum so that it can be removed from the
respiratory tract
pg. 585
NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
B. Medication that prevents or relieves coughing
C. Drug that reduces swelling of the mucous membranes by constricting dilated
blood vessels
D. Agent that breaks the bonds between the proteins responsible for mucus
build up
May 8, 2009
Page 5
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
33. Which condition is a type of COPD?
A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Chronic Bronchitis pg. 610
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
34. Which action takes place when a person sneezes?
A. Ciliary action
B. Cough reflex
C. Peristaltic motion of the bronchioles
D. All of the above
pg. 593
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
35. Which system responds to stressful situations such as “fight or flight”?
A. Afferent system
B. Somatic system
C. Sympathetic system
pg. 514
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
D. Parasympathetic system
36. What is the generic name for Lioresal?
A. chlorzoxazone
B. cyclobenzaprine
C. baclofen
pg. 519 NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
D. orphenadrine
37. Which medication is not administered by inhalation?
A. montelukast
pg. 609
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
B. Serevent
C. ipratropium
D. Ventolin
38. What is the most common type of glaucoma?
A. Angle Closure
B. Progressive
C. Open Angle
pg. 638 (Box 19-3)
D. Acute Congestive
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
39. What is the brand name for trifluridine?
A. Herplex
B. Viroptic
pg. 635
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
C. Acular
D. Betoptic
May 8, 2009
Page 6
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
40. Which condition is an infection of the middle ear?
A. Otitis media
pg. 650
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Ototoxicity
D. Cycolplegia
41. What is the meaning of the term emesis?
A. Inflammation of the appendix
B. Vomiting
pg. 721
C. Hyperacidity
D. Frequent, watery, loose stools
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
42. What is the best definition of the term “communication”?
A. Capability or proficiency to perform a function
B. Ability to express oneself in a way that can be readily understood
pg. 85
NAPRA 2, 5, 7; CPTEA 2, 3
C. Values and morals that are used within a profession
D. Conforming to the right principles of conduct
43. What is meant by ‘parenteral administration”?
A. Medication delivered by injection
pg. 167 NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. Medication placed between the gums and cheek
C. Medication absorbed through the sweat glands, hair follicles and pores of the
skin
D. Inhaled medication
44. What is contained in a spansule?
A. Liquid
B. Dry powder
C. Small pellets or beads
D. Gel
pg. 173 (Table 5-7) NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
45. What is the generic name for Norflex?
A. chlorzoxazone
B. cyclobenzaprine
C. methocarbamol
D. orphenadrine
pg. 520
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
46. Which chemical substances include sugars, glycogen, starches and cellulose with
only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen molecules?
A. Lipids
B. Carbohydrates
pg. 695
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. Amino acids
D. Proteins
May 8, 2009
Page 7
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
47. What is the generic name for Prevacid?
A. esomeprazole
B. rabeprazole
C. lansoprazole pg. 708
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
D. omeprazole
48. What is the medical term for the muscle at the base of the chest cavity?
A. Diaphragm
pg. 591
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. Pleura
C. Epiglottis
D. Cilia
49. When dealing with suspensions it is important to do which of the following?
A. Shake well
pg. 160
NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
B. Keep refrigerated
C. Float the container in water
D. Store at room temperature
50. What is the meaning of the term tachypnea?
A. Laboured or difficult breathing
B. Slow breathing
C. Rapid breathing
pg. 593 (Table 18-1)
D. Shallow, inadequate breathing
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
51. What can happen if a severe asthma attack is left untreated?
A. Choking
B. Cyanosis
C. Suffocation
pg. 606
NAPRA 2, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 6
D. Apnea
52. What is the generic name for Rifadin?
A. pyrazinamide
B. ethambutol
C. isoniazid
D. rifampin
pg. 614, 615 NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 6
53. Which product could be taken for a bout of traveller’s diarrhea caused by foreign
bacteria?
A. Colace
B. Dulcolax
C. Pepto-Bismol
pg. 713 NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
D. None of the above
May 8, 2009
Page 8
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
54. Which medication is a corticosteroid agent?
A. Accolate
B. Atrovent
C. Ventolin
D. FloVent
pg. 586, 609 NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
55. Which structure in the eye contains the rods and the cones?
A. Lens
B. Cornea
C. Sclera
D. Retina
pg. 626
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
56. What is the function of the bronchioles?
A. Provide a pathway for oxygen to reach the alveoli
pg. 590 NAPRA
7; CPTEA 6
B. Move airborne particles upward where they can be swallowed
C. Close off the trachea automatically when swallowing
D. Reduce friction between the lungs and the chest wall
57. What is the brand name for the ophthalmic preparation containing diclofenac?
A. Acular
B. Voltaren
pg. 622, 630
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
C. Maxidex
D. Betoptic S
58. Which auxiliary label should accompany a prescription of Lioresal?
A. Urine may change color
B. Avoid alcohol
C. May cause dizziness or drowsiness
pg. 619
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 5, 6
D. Do not crush or chew
59. Which inherited condition results from impaired cone cell functions?
A. Blindness
B. Glaucoma
C. Color blindness
pg. 643
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
D. Conjunctivitis
60. What medical term is used to describe ringing or buzzing within the ears?
A. Otitis media
B. Swimmer’s ear
C. Keratitis
D. Tinnitus
pg. 653
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
May 8, 2009
Page 9
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
61. Which medication has a limit of 3-weeks maximum use?
A. baclofen
B. orphenadrine
C. cyclobenzaprine
pg. 520
NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
D. methocarbamol
62. Which neurotransmitter is found only in the CNS?
A. acetylcholine
B. epinephrine
C. norepinephrine
D. dopamine
pg. 504 (Table 16-1)
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
63. Which drug class has antiinflammatory properties thus lessening constriction of the
bronchial tubes?
A. Xanthine Bronchodilators
B. Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists
C. Sympathomimetics
D. Corticosteroids
pg. 607
NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 6, 3
64. Which drug can be used for both ophthalmic and otic conditions?
A. Cortisporin otic
B. Azopt
C. Cerumenex
D. Tobrex
pg. 634, 653
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
Match the following ophthalmic trade names on the left with the generic names on the
right and indicate your answer using an alphabetical letter.
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 5, 6
Brand
Generic
G
65.
Aricept
pg. 501, 536
A.
rocuronium
C
66.
Mirapex
pg. 500, 544
B.
phenytoin
I
67.
Robaxin
pg. 500, 520
C.
pramipexole
B
68.
Dilantin
pg. 500, 531
D.
pyridostigmine
A
69.
Zemuron
pg. 500, 549
E.
ethosuximide
D
70.
Mestinon
pg. 501, 523
F.
galantamine
J
71.
Cerebyx
pg. 500
G.
donepezil
E
72.
Zarontin
pg. 500, 533
H.
neostigmine
F
73.
Reminyl
pg. 501, 536
I.
methocarbamol
H
74.
Prostigmin
pg. 501, 523
J.
fosphenytoin
May 8, 2009
Page 10
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
75. What is the name of the enzyme found in saliva that initiates the chemical break
down of food?
A. peptidase
B. amylase
pg. 699
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. lipase
D. maltase
76. What is the shortest section of the intestinal tract?
A. Rectum
pg. 702
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. Colon
C. Cecum
D. Ileum
77. What is the brand name for the drug combination, diphenoxylate and atropine?
A. Lomotil
pg. 713
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
B. Colace
C. Ovol
D. Dulcolax
78. What is the advantage of using medicated powders in some situations?
A. Can be sprayed similar to liquid dosage form
B. Keep the area as dry as possible
C. Can be spread over a wide area if necessary
D. All of the above
pg. 162
NAPRA 2, 5, 7, 9; CPTEA 3, 5, 6
79. Which statement provides an appropriate definition of “working ethically within the
pharmacy”?
A. Doing what is right for the patient
pg. 84
NAPRA 1; CPTEA 1
B. Doing what is right for you
C. Judging the patient
D. Refusing to perform tasks that would go against your particular beliefs
80. Which definition best describes a nerve terminal?
A. End portion of the neuron where nerve impulses cause chemicals to be
released
pg. 499
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
B. Part of the nerve cell that conducts impulses away from a cell body
C. Part of a neuron that branches out to bring impulses to the cell body
D. Main part of a neuron from which axons and dendrites extend
May 8, 2009
Page 11
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
81. What is the difference between pastes and other topical medications?
A. Have an alcohol base
B. Are less viscous than creams
C. Have an ability to absorb skin secretions
pg. 161
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
D. Are faster acting than lotions and ointments
82. What are the main components of the CNS?
A. Somatic and Autonomic Nervous System
B. Thalamus and Hypothalamus
C. Brain and Spinal Cord
pg. 507
D. Efferent and Afferent Systems
NAPRA 7, CPTEA 6
83. Which action is stimulated by acetylcholine?
A. Inhibits pain perception
B. Excites skeletal & GI muscles
pg. 504 (Table 16-1)
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. Helps to inhibit involuntary movement
D. Increases heart rate
84. Which condition involves symptoms where a person is unable to defecate and their
stools are hard and dry?
A. Diarrhea
B. Constipation
pg. 713
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
C. Hemorrhoids
D. Emesis
85. Which class of medication most often requires a prescription because of their effect
on the chemoreceptor trigger zone?
A. Antiemetics
pg. 722
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 6
B. Antiflatulents
C. Bulk Forming Laxatives
D. Antidiarrheals
86. Which abbreviation does not indicate that the medication is released over a long
period of time?
A. CD
B. CRT
C. XL
D. AS
pg. 154
NAPRA 2, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 6
May 8, 2009
Page 12
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
87. Which of the following is a characteristic of Mannitol?
A. Melts at body temperature
B. Must be stored in the fridge
C. Is stored in the freezer and thawed before use
D. Crystallizes at room temperature
pg. 174 (Table 5-8)
NAPRA 6, 7; CPTEA 6, 7
88. Which part of the brain controls respiration, cardiac rate, the force of the heart’s
contractions and dilation of the blood vessels?
A. Cerebrum
B. Hypothalamus
C. Medulla Oblongata
pg. 509
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
D. Thalamus
89. What is the purpose of adding parabens to a particular product?
A. Improves taste
B. Increases shelf life
pg. 173 (Table 5-6) NAPRA 2, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
C. Adjust the pH
D. Prevents fungal growth
90. What is the term given to drugs that mimic the sympathetic system?
A. Adrenergics
pg. 516
NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 6
B. Cholinergics
C. Direct Acting Agents
D. Beta-Blockers
91. What might a hard gelatin capsule contain?
A. Another capsule or tablet
pg. 173 NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 6
B. Gel
C. Liquid
D. Paste
92. Which medication would be used specifically to treat multiple sclerosis and not the
symptoms associated with the disease?
A. Zarontin
B. Neurontin
C. Aricept
D. Betaseron
pg. 538-539 NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
93. How is the drug absorbed when taking a sublingual or buccal tablet?
A. Chewed and quickly and absorbed within the stomach
B. Through the oral mucosa
pg. 165
NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
C. Bypasses the stomach and is absorbed in the small intestine
D. Released slowly through the GI tract
May 8, 2009
Page 13
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
94. Which drug has been developed specifically to treat amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A. Avonex
B. Rilutek
pg. 545
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
C. Aricept
D. Dantrium
95. Once penicillin has been reconstituted how should it be stored?
A. At room temperature
B. In a cool, dark cupboard
C. In the refrigerator
pg. 174 (Table 5-8)
NAPRA 4, 5, 6, 7, 9; CPTEA 5, 6
D. In an amber container
97. Why would an injectable form of epinephrine be used?
A. To stop premature labour
B. To treat acute muscle pain and bedtime leg cramps
C. To treat low blood pressure, heart attacks and shock pg. 517 NAPRA 2,
5, 7; CPTEA 3, 5, 6
D. To treat status epilepticus
Match the following OTC GI drug trade names on the left with the generic names on the
right and indicate your answer using an alphabetical letter. Identify drug classification in
the middle. NAPRA 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
Brand
F
98.
E
Generic
pg. 695,
707
99.
H2 Receptor
Antagonist
A. Mg hydroxide
100. Imodium AD
pg. 695
713
101.
Antidiarrheal
B.
psyllium
A
102. Milk of
Magnesia
pg. 695,
706, 715
103. Antacid or Laxative
C.
dimenhydrinate
C
104. Gravol
pg. 723,
drug
cards
105. Anticholinergic or
Antiemetic
D. famotidine
B
106. Metamucil
pg. 695,
715
107. Laxative;
Anticonstipation
E.
loperamide
D
108. Pepcid AC
pg. 695,
708
109. H2 Receptor
Antagonist
F.
ranitidine
May 8, 2009
Zantac 75
Drug Classification
Page 14
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
110. Which substance secreted by the mucous membranes of the stomach is
essential for the absorption of vitamin B12?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lipase
Intrinsic factor
Pepsin
Peptidase
pg. 699
NAPRA 7; CPTEA 6
111.
Which medication will be found in the refrigerator but may also be kept at room
temperature for up to one month?
A. penicillin
B. vaccines
C. insulin
pg. 174 (Table 5-8)
NAPRA 6; CPTEA 6
D. metronidazole IV
112.
Which of the following is an OTC medication used to treat allergic rhinitis?
A. Nasonex
B. Afrin
C. Rhinocort
pg. 604, drug cards NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 5, 6
D. Flonase
Match the following ophthalmic trade names on the left with the generic names on the
right and indicate your answer using an alphabetical letter.
NAPRA 4, 5, 7; CPTEA 3, 5, 6
Brand
Generic
E
113. Garamycin
pg. 622, 632
A.
ketoprofen
D
114. Xalatan
pg. 622, 642
B.
travoprost
A
115. Acular
pg. 622, 630
C.
betaxolol
F
116. Trusopt
pg. 622, 640
D.
latanoprost
B
117. Travatan
pg. 622
E.
gentamicin
C
118. Betoptic
pg. 622, 639
F.
dorzolamide
Match the following body system word parts to the correct definition.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
D
E
C
B
A
May 8, 2009
___ cyan/o
___ -pnea
___ oophor/o
___ -plasty
___ poly-
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
many
repair
ovaries
blue
breathing
Page 15
Module PT4 Certification Exam
ANSWER KEY
Chapter 5, pg. 174-179
Expand the following abbreviations.
124.
125.
126.
NICU
EKG
HTN
_____________________________
_____________________________
_____________________________
Chapter 5, pg. 175
Look at the following list of abbreviations. If the appear on the ISMP Error-Prone
Abbreviation List rewrite them correctly on the space provided. If they are correct write
correct on the space provided.
127.
128.
129.
zidovudine
units
correct
AZT
U/u
t.i.d.
130. every other day
q.o.d.
131. correct
100,000 units
132. at bedtime
q.h.s.
133. right eye
OD
NAPRA 7.3; CPTEA 4, 5
______________________________
______________________________
______________________________
______________________________
______________________________
______________________________
______________________________
Chapter 5, pg. 147-150
May 8, 2009
Page 16