1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A number system that uses only two digits, 0 and 1 is called the___________:
Octal number system
Binary number system
Decimal number system
Hexadecimal number system
2.
In which computers, the binary
flip flop:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Microcomputer
Personal computer
Digital computer
All of these
3.
A binary
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary number
Octal number
Decimal number
Hexadecimal number
4.
Which system is used to refer amount of things:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Number system
Number words
Number symbols
All of these
5.
_________are made with some part of body, usually the hands:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Number words
Number symbols
Number gestures
All of these
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
number are represented by a set of binary storage device such as
number can be converted into _________:
__________are marked or written down:
Number system
Number words
Number symbols
Number gestures
7.
A number symbol is called a ___________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Arabic numerals
Numerals
Both
None of these
8.
0,1,2 ,3 ,4,5,6 ,7,8 and 9 numerals are called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Arabic numerals
String numerals
Digit numerals
None of these
9.
How many system of arithmetic, which are often used in digital system:
a.
b.
c.
d.
5
6
3
4
10.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
11.
Which are the system of arithmetic, which are often used in digital system:
Binary digit
Decimal digit
Hexadecimal digit
Octal digit
All of these
In any system, there is an ordered set of symbols also known as___________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Digital
Digit
Both
None of these
12. Which is general has two parts in number system:
a.
b.
c.
Integer
Fraction
Both
d.
None of these
13. MSD stand for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Most significant digit
Many significant digit
Both a and b
None of these
14. LSD stand for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Less significant digit
Least significant digit
Loss significant digit
None of these
15. The _____ and ________ of a number is defined as the number of different digits which can occur in
each position in the system:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Base
Radix
Both
None of these
16. Which system has a base or radix of 10:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary digit
Hexadecimal digit
Decimal digit
Octal digit
17. Each of the ten decimal digits__________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 through 10
0 through 9
2 through 11
All of these
18. The binary
number system is also called a __________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Base one system
Base two system
Base system
Binary system
19. The two symbols 0 and 1 are known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bytes
Bits
Digit
All of these
In which counting, single digit are used for none and one:
Decimal counting
Octal counting
Hexadecimal counting
Binary counting
21. In which numeral every position has a value 2 times the value f the position to its right:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decimal
Octal
Hexadecimal
Binary
22. A binary number with 4 bits is called a_________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bit
Bytes
Nibble
None of these
23. A binary
a.
b.
c.
Bytes
Bits
Nibble
number with 8 bits is called as a___________:
d.
All of these
24. In which digit the value increases in power of two starting with 0 to left of the binary
decreases to the right of the binary point starting with power -1:
a.
b.
c.
d.
point and
Hexadecimal
Decimal
Binary
Octal
25. Which system is used in digital computers because all electrical and electronic circuits can be made
to respond to the states concept:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hexadecimal number
Binary number
Octal number
Decimal number
26. Which addition is performed in the same manner as decimal addition:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary
Decimal
Both
None of these
27. ______in all digital systems actually performs addition that can handle only two number at a time:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register
circuit
digital
All of these
28. Which machine can perform addition operation in less than 1 ms:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Digital machine
Electronic machine
Both
None of these
29. ________is the inverse operation of addition:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Addition
Multiply
Subtraction
Divide
30. ________of a number from another can be accomplished by adding the complement of the
subtrahend to the minuend:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Subtraction
Multiply
Divide
All of these
31. Complement the subtrahend by converting all __________and all __________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1’s to 0’s
0’s to 1’s
Both
None of these
32. Each device represent :
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 bit
2 bit
3 bit
4 bit
33. A 0 in the sign bit represents a _____________ and a 1 in the sign bit represents a ____________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Positive number
Negative number
Both
None of these
34. How many main sign number binary
a.
4
codes are used:
b.
c.
d.
5
3
6
35. Which are the types of binary
a.
b.
c.
d.
codes number:
Sign magnitude
1’s complement code
2’s complement code
All of these
36. How many types of addition in the 2’s complement system:
a.
b.
c.
d.
3
4
5
6
37.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
38.
Which are the types of addition in the 2’s complement system:
Both number positive
A Positive number and a smaller negative number
A negative number and a smaller positive number
Both number negative
All of these
How many important ideas to notice about these odometer readings:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
39.
a.
b.
c.
d.
40.
Which are the types of important ideas to notice about these odometer readings:
The MSB is the sign bit :0 for a +sign and 1 for a – sign
The negative number represent the 2’s complement of the positive number
Both
All of these
Which is an algorithm or techniques used to multiply two numbers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Addition algorithm
Subtraction algorithm
Multiplication algorithm
All of these
41. Which algorithm are used depending on the size of the numbers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Simple algorithm
Specific algorithm
Both
None of these
42. Which algorithm is named after Volker Strassen:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Strassen algorithm
Matrix algorithm
Both
None of these
43. Strassen algorithm was published in ___________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1967
1969
1987
1980
44. Which algorithm is used for matrix multiplication:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Simple algorithm
Specific algorithm
Strassen algorithm
Addition algorithm
45.
a.
b.
c.
d.
46.
a.
b.
c.
d.
47.
Which algorithm is a divided and conquer algorithm that is asymptotically faster:
Simple algorithm
Specific algorithm
Strassen algorithm
Addition algorithm
Which method required 8 multiplication and 4 addition:
Multiplication
Usual multiplication
Both
None of these
Which algorithm is a multiplication algorithm which multiplies two signed binary
complement notation:
numbers in 2’s
a.
b.
c.
d.
Usual multiplication
Booth’s multiplication
Both
None of these
48. Which algorithm includes repeated addition of two predetermined values A and S to a product P
and then performs a rightward arithmetic shift on P:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Booth’s algorithm
Usual algorithm
Multiplication algorithm
None of these
49. Which algorithm in mathematics expresses the outcome of the process of division of integers by
another:
a. Addition algorithm
b. Multiplication algorithm
c. Division algorithm
d. None of these
50.
Which algorithm is used to find GCD of two integers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multiplication algorithm
Division algorithm
Addition algorithm
Simple algorithm
51. Which algorithm is used as a general variant of a theorems, in the domain of integral numbers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Multiplication algorithm
Division algorithm
Addition algorithm
Simple algorithm
52. How many main approaches to algorithm for division:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
4
5
53. How many algorithm based on add/subtract and shift category:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
3
6
54. Which are the algorithm based on add/subtract and shift category:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Restoring division
Non-restoring division
SRT division
All of these
55.
a.
b.
c.
d.
56.
Several methods for converting a ___________:
Decimal number to a binary number
Binary number to a decimal number
Octal number to a decimal number
Hexadecimal number to a binary number
A popular method knows as double-dabble method also knows as _________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Divided-by-one method
Divided-by-two method
Both
None of these
57. Which method is used to convert a large decimal number into its binary equivalent:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Double dabble method
Divided-by-two-method
Both
None of these
58. In this method, the decimal number is _________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Repeatedly divided by 4
Repeatedly divided by 2
Repeatedly divided by 1
None of these
59. The conversion of decimal fraction to binary fraction may be accomplished by using ___________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Several techniques
Simple techniques
Both
None of these
60. Which system was used extensively by early mini computers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decimal number
Octal number
Hexadecimal number
Binary number
61. 3 bit binary
a.
b.
c.
d.
numbers can be represented by ____________:
Binary number
Decimal number
Hexadecimal number
Octal number
62. A number system that uses eight digits,0,1,2,3,4,5,6, and 7 is called an ________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary number system
Decimal number system
Octal number system
None of these
63. Which system each digit has a weight corresponding to its position:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hexadecimal number system
Binary number system
Decimal number system
Octal number system
64. Which odometer is a hypothetical device similar to the odometer of a car:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary
Decimal
Hexadecimal
Octal
65. An __________can be easily converted to its decimal equivalent by multiplying each octal digit by
positional weight:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary number
Octal number
Hexadecimal number
Decimal number
66. The simple procedure is to use ___________ :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary -triplet method
Decimal-triplet method
Octal-triplet method
All of these
67. Which system groups number by sixteen and power of sixteen:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary
Hexadecimal
Octal
None of these
68. Which number are used extensively in microprocessor work:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Octal
Hexadecimal
Both
None of these
69. Which number is formed from a binary number by grouping bits in groups of 4-bit each starting at
the binary point:
a.
b.
c.
Binary
Octal
Decimal
d.
Hexadecimal
70.
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
Which number system has a base of 16 :
Binary number system
Octal number system
Decimal number system
Hexadecimal number system
Counting in hex, each digit can be increment from__________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
0 to F
0 to G
0 to H
0 to J
72. Which number can be converted into binary
bits binary equivalent using the code:
a.
b.
c.
d.
numbers by converted each hexadecimal digit to 4
Binary number
Decimal number
Octal number
Hexadecimal number
73. One way to convert from decimal to hexadecimal is the _________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Double dabble method
Hex dabble method
Binary dabble method
All of these
74. Binary numbers can also be expressed in this same notation by _________representation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Floating point
Binary point
Decimal point
All of these
75. How many parts of floating point representation of a number consists:
a.
b.
4
2
c.
d.
3
5
76. The first part of floating point represents a signed fixed point number called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Exponent
Digit
Number
Mantissa
77. The second part of floating point designates the position of the decimal point and is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mantissa
Binomial
Octal
Exponent
78. The fixed point mantissa may be _______or__________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fraction
Integer
Both
None of these
79. The number of bit required to express_________ and _______ are determined by the accuracy
desired from the computing system :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Exponent
Mantissa
Both
None f these
80. Which part is not physically indicated in the register:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary
Decimal
Octal
None of these
e.
81. The exponent contains the decimal number :
a.
b.
c.
d.
+05
+03
+04
+07
82. The first or the integer part is known as________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Exponent
Integer
Binomial
None of these
83. How many bits of mantissa :
a.
b.
c.
d.
4
8
10
16
84. How many bit of exponent:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4
6
8
10
85. Which number is said to be normalized if the more significant position of the mantissa contains a
non zero digit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary point number
Mantissa point number
Floating point number
None of these
86. Which operation with floating point numbers are more complicated then arithmetic operation with
fixed point number :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Logical operation
Arithmetic operation
Both
None of these
1.
Which is an important data transfer technique :
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPU
DMA
CAD
None of these
2.
Which device can be thought of as transducers which can sense physical effects and convert them
into machine-tractable data:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Storage devices
Peripheral devices
Both
None
3.
Which devices are usually designed on the complex electromechanical principle:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Storage devices
Peripheral devices
Input devices
All of these
4.
Which disk is one of the important I/O devices and its most commonly used as permanent storage
devices in any processor:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hard disk
Optical disk
Magneto disk
Magneto Optical disk
5.
In storage devices PC have hard disk having capacities in the range of _____:
a.
b.
12GB to 15GB
15GB to 20GB
c.
d.
20GB to 80GB
80GB to 85GB
6.
Which disk is a 3.5-inch diskette with a capacity of 1.44MB:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Soft disk
Floppy disk
Both
None
7.
Which has a large storage capacity of 2 to8GB:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Magnetic tape
Magnetic disk
Soft disk
Floppy disk
8.
Which disk read the data by reflecting pulses of laser beams on the surface:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Magnetic disk
Soft disk
Floppy disk
Optical disk
9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10.
Data access time of optical disk varies from 200 to 350minutes with transfer rate of ________:
130KB/s to 400KB/s
130KB/s to 500KB/s
150KB/s to 600KB/s
150KB/s to 800KB/s
NAND type flash memory data storage devices integrated with a _______ interface:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ATM
LAN
USB
DBMS
11. Which disk is based on the same principle as the optical disk:
a.
b.
Optical disk
Magnetic disk
c.
d.
Magneto-optical disk
All of these
12. WAN stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Wide area network
Word area network
World area network
Window area network
13. The human-interactive I/O devices can be further categorized as____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Direct
Indirect
Both
None
14. I/O devices are categorized in 2 parts are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Character devices
Block devices
Numeral devices
Both a & b
15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
16.
UART stands for:
Universal asynchronization receiver/transmitter
Universal asynchronous receiver/transmitter
United asynchronous receiver/transmitter
Universal automatic receiver/transmitter
Which are following pointing devices:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Light pen
Joystick
Mouse
All of these
17.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Full form of LED:
Light emitting diode
Light encounter destination
Live emitting diode
None of these
18. In_______ mouse we use pair of LED:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Optical
Digital
Analog
All of these
19. ______is device that is designed for gaming purposes and based on principle of electricity:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Joy
Stick
Joystick
None of these
20. Joystick uses shaft potentiometers for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
X-Y DIRECTION
Only X direction
Only Y direction
All of these
21.
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.
Full form of ADC:
Analog to digital converter
Digital to analog converter
Accumulator digital converter
All of these
A system that enables computer to recognize human voice called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Voice system
Voice input system
Input system
None of these
23. 2 commonly used voice input systems are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Micro
Microphone
Voice recognition software
Both b & c
24. Optical scanner devices are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
MICR
OMR
OCR
All of these
25.
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
MICR stands for:
Magnetic ink character recognition
Magnetic initiate character recognition
Both a & b
None of these
_______technique is used in evaluating objective answer sheets:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Optical Mark Reader
Optical Marker Reader
Optical Marker Reading
All of these
27. _______technique help in banking sector:
a.
b.
c.
d.
OCR
OMR
MICR
None of these
28. ______camera records image, converts it into digital format via ADC and stores it on a frame
buffer:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Video
Without video
Audio
None of these
29. Sensors are______ type of devices:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interactive
Non-interactive
Interaction
Intermediate
30. Output devices commonly referred as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Terminals
Host
Receivers
Senders
31. Terminals classified in to 2 types are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hard copy
Soft copy
Both a & b
None of these
32. VDU stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Video display unit
Visual display unit
Visual data unit
None of these
33. A monitor consists of :
a.
b.
c.
d.
ARU
BRT
CRT
ARU
34.
a.
b.
c.
d.
35.
LCD stands for:
Liquid crystal display
Liquid catalog display
Liquid crystal data
Liquid code display
The size of monitor ranges from:
a.
b.
c.
d.
12-12 inch
12-21 inch
21-12 inch
21-11 inch
36.
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
Range of color depends on:
Number of bits code lines with each pixel
Number of bits associated with each pixel
Number of instructions associated with each pixel
Number of code associated with each pixel
Which parameter defines number of times electron beam scans screen in a second:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Refresh rate
Data transfer rate
Pitch rate
All of these
38. Refresh rate refresh screen up to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
30 Hz per frame
33 Hz per frame
44 Hz per frame
20 Hz per frame
39. Printer speed is ______pages per minute:
a.
b.
c.
d.
13
12
11
10
40. Printer is a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hardcopy
Softcopy
Both a & b
None of these
41. Laser printer is type of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Impact printer
Non-impact printer
Both a & b
None of these
42. ______printer print 120 to 200 characters per second:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dot-matrix
Laser
Line
None of these
43. In_______ printing, each character is printed on the paper by striking a pin or hammer against an
inked ribbon:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Non-impact printing
Impact printing
Both a & b
None of these
44. Dot matrix printer is 2 types is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Daisy wheels
Matrix printer
High quality matrix printer
Both a & c
45. In daisy wheel printer can print 40 character/second and bold characters are achieved by
overprinting the text:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Four times
Double
Once
Thrice
46.
_______printers spray tiny droplets of coloured inks on the paper and pattern depends on how
nozzle sprays the ink:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Inkjet printer
Laser printer
Daisy wheel
Dot matrix printer
47. Laser printer is a type of :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Impact printing
Non-impact printing
Both a & b
None of these
48. ______are used for printing big charts, drawings, maps and 3 dimensional illustrations specially for
architectural and designing purposes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Printers
Plotters
Speakers
Mouse
49.
a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
DAC stands for:
Digital to analog converter
Analog to digital converter
Only digital converter
Only analog converter
In text to speech, speech is synthesized using lookup table of______ and these clubbed together
to form_______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Phonemes, Words
Phonemes, Sentences
Character, Phonemes
Word, Character
51. ______interface is an entity that controls data transfer from external device, main memory and or
CPU registers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
I/O interface
CPU interface
Input interface
Output interface
52. The operating mode of I/O devices is_______ for different device:
a.
b.
c.
Same
Different
Optimum
d.
Medium
53. To resolve problems of I/O devices there is a special hardware component between CPU
and_______ to supervise and synchronize all input output transfers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Software
Hardware
Peripheral
None of these
54.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
55.
I/O modules are designed with aims to:
Achieve device independence
Handle errors
Speed up transfer of data
Handle deadlocks
Enable multi-user systems to use dedicated device
All of these
IDE is a_________ controller:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Disk
Floppy
Hard
None of these
56. In devices, controller is used for______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Buffering the data
Manipulate the data
Calculate the data
Input the data
57.
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
By which signal flow of traffic between internal and external devices is done:
Only control signal
Only timing signal
Control and timing signal
None of these
In devices 2 status reporting signals are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
BUSY
READY
Both a & b
None of these
59. I/O module must recognize a______ address for each peripheral it controls:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Long
Same
Unique
Bigger
60. Each interaction b/w CPU and I/O module involves:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bus arbitration
Bus revolution
Data bus
Control signals
61.
a.
b.
c.
d.
62.
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
Which are 4 types of commands received by an interface:
Control, status, data output, data input
Only data input
Control, flag, data output, address arbitration
Data input, data output, status bit, decoder
Two ways in which computer buses can communicate with memory in case of I/O devices by using:
Separate buses for memory and I/O device
Common bus for memory and I/O device
both a & b
none of these
There are 2 ways in which addressing can be done in memory and I/O device:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Isolated I/O
Memory-mapped I/O
Both a & b
None of these
64.
a.
b.
c.
d.
65.
Advantages of isolated I/O are:
Commonly usable
Small number of I/O instructions
Both a & b
None of these
In _______ addressing technique separate address space is used for both memory and I/O device:
a.
b.
c.
Memory-mapped I/O
Isolated I/O
Both a & b
d.
None of these
66. _______is a single address space for storing both memory and I/O devices:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory-mapped I/O
Isolated I/O
Separate I/O
Optimum I/O
67.
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
Following are the disadvantages of memory-mapped I/O are:
Valuable memory address space used up
I/O module register treated as memory addresses
Same machine intersection used to access both memory and I/O device
All of these
Who determine the address of I/O interface:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register select
Chip select
Both a & b
None of these
69. 2 control lines in I/O interface is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
RD, WR
RD,DATA
WR, DATA
RD, MEMORY
70. In I/O interface RS1 and RS0 are used for selecting:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory
Register
CPU
Buffer
71. If CPU and I/O interface share a common bus than transfer of data b/w 2 units is said to be:
a.
b.
c.
Synchronous
Asynchronous
Clock dependent
d.
Decoder independent
72. All the operations in a digital system are synchronized by a clock that is generated by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Clock
Pulse
Pulse generator
Bus
73.
a.
b.
c.
d.
74.
Asynchronous means:
Not in step with the elapse of address
Not in step with the elapse of control
Not in step with the elapse of data
Not in step with the elapse of time
________is a single control line that informs destination unit that a valid is available on the bus:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Strobe
Handshaking
Synchronous
Asynchronous
75.
a.
b.
c.
d.
76.
What is disadvantage of strobe scheme:
No surety that destination received data before source removes it
Destination unit transfer without knowing whether source placed data on data bus
Can’t said
Both a & b
In_______ technique has 1 or more control signal for acknowledgement that is used for intimation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Handshaking
Strobe
Both a & b
None of these
77. The keyboard has a__________ asynchronous transfer mode:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Parallel
Serial
Optimum
None
78. In _______transfer each bit is sent one after the another in a sequence of event and requires just
one line:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Serial
Parallel
Both a & b
None of these
79.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
80.
Modes of transfer b/w computer and I/O device are:
Programmed I/O
Interrupt-initiated I/O
DMA
Dedicated processor such as IOP and DCP
All of these
______operations are the results of I/O operations that are written in the computer program:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Programmed I/O
DMA
Handshaking
Strobe
81.
a.
b.
c.
d.
82.
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
_______is a dedicated processor that combines interface unit and DMA as one unit:
Input-Output Processor
Only input processor
Only output processor
None of these
______is a special purpose dedicated processor that is designed specially designed for data transfer
in network:
Data Processor
Data Communication Processor
DMA Processor
Interrupt Processor
______processor has to check continuously till device becomes ready for transferring the data:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrupt-initiated I/O
DMA
IOP
DCP
84. Interrupt-driven I/O data transfer technique is based on______ concept:
a.
b.
On demand processing
Off demand processing
c.
d.
Both a & b
None of these
85. Which technique helps processor to run a program concurrently with I/O operations:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrupt driven I/O
DMA
IOP
DCP
86. 3 types of exceptions are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrupts
Traps
System calls
All of these
87. Which exception is also called software interrupt:
a.
b.
c.
d.
88.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrupt
System calls
Traps
All of these
User programs interact with I/O devices through:
Operating system
Hardware
Cpu
Microprocessor
89. Which table handle store address of interrupt handling subroutine:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrupt vector table
Vector table
Symbol link table
None of these
90. Which technique is used that identifies the highest priority resource by means of software:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Daisy chaining
Polling
Priority
Chaining
91. ________interrupt establishes a priority over the various sources to determine which request
should be entertained first:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Priority interrupt
Polling
Daisy chaining
None of these
92. _____method is used to establish priority by serially connecting all devices that request an
interrupt:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Polling
Daisy chaining
Priority
None of these
93. In daisy chaining device 0 will pass signal only if it has:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrupt request
No interrupt request
Both a & b
None of these
94. VAD stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vector address
Symbol address
Link address
None of these
95. _______interrupt method uses a register whose bits are set separately by interrupt signal for each
device:
a. Parallel priority interrupt
b. Serial priority interrupt
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
96. ______register is used whose purpose is to control status of each interrupt request in parallel
priority interrupt:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mass
Mark
Make
Mask
97. The ANDed output of bits of interrupt register and mask register are set as input of:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Priority decoder
Priority encoder
Priority decoder
Multiplexer
98. Which 2 output bits of priority encoder are the part of vector address for each interrupt source in
parallel priority interrupt:
a.
b.
c.
d.
99.
A0 and A1
A0 and A2
A0 and A3
A1 and A2
What is the purpose
100.
of A0 and A1 output bits of priority encoder in parallel priority:
a. Tell data bus which device is to entertained and stored in VAD
b. Tell subroutine which device is to entertained and stored in VAD
c. Tell subroutine which device is to entertained and stored in SAD
d. Tell program which device is to entertained and stored in VAD
101.
When CPU invokes a subroutine it performs following functions:
a. Pushes updated PC content(return address) on stack
b. Loads PC with starting address of subroutine
c. Loads PC with starting address of ALU
d. Both a & b
102.
DMAC stands for:
a. Direct memory access controller
b. Direct memory accumulator controller
c. Direct memory access content
d. Direct main access controller
103.
IOP stands for:
a. Input output processor
104.
DCP stands for:
a. Data communication processor
105.
Which may be classified as a processor with the direct memory access capability that
communicates with I/O devices:
a.
b.
c.
d.
DCP
IOP
Both
None
106.
The processor that communicates with remote terminals like telephone or any other serial
communication media in serial fashion is called ______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.
DCP
IOP
Both
None
Instruction that are used for reading from memory by an IOP called _______:
Commands
Block diagram
Interrupt
None of these
Data communication with a remote device a special data communication is used_______:
Multiprocessor
Serial communication
DCP
IOP
109.
CRC stands for:
a. Cyclic redundancy check
110.
Which is used for synchronous data, PID is process ID, followed by message, CRC code and EOP
indicating end of block:
a.
b.
c.
d.
DCP
CRC
IOP
SYNC
111.
Which is commonly used in high –speed devices to realize full efficiency of communication link:
a. Transmission
b. Synchronous communication
c. Multiprocessor
d. All of these
112.
Multiprocessor use ________ than two CPUs assembled in single system unit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
a.
b.
c.
d.
One or More
Two or More
One or One
Two or Two
Which refers the execution of various software process concurrently:
Multiprocessor
Serial communication
DCP
IOP
Which is used for this and known as high speed buffer exist with almost each process?
Primary
RAM
Cache
None of these
115.
Data and instructions are accessed from local memory and global memory that is used by_____:
a. Internetworking facilities
b. Interconnection facilities
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
116.
Multiprocessor uses large caches but limited process that shares________
a. Memory bus
b. Single memory bus
c. Double memory bus
d. None of these
117.
Distributed are shares also referred to as tightly coupled and loosely coupled multiprocessor
respectively and hence called __________
a. Coupled multiprocessor
b. Shared multiprocessor
c. Distributed multiprocessor
d. None of these
118.
Which consist if a numbers of processor can be accessed among various shared memory
modules?
a. Coupled memory multiprocessor
b. Shared memory multiprocessor
c. Distributed memory multiprocessor
d. None of these
119.
Which keeps a number of processors in which virtual storage space is assigned for redundant
execution:
a. Coupled memory multiprocessor
b. Shared memory multiprocessor
c. Distributed memory multiprocessor
d. None of these
120.
The memory capacity in system is considered because the connecting processors are
used______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
121.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Network
Internet
Intranet
None of these
Intercrosses arbitration system for multiprocessor shares a _________:
Primary bus
Common bus
Domain bus
All of these
122.
Which is used to decentralize the decision to avail greater flexibility to the system that makes
processor or microprocessor in a very short:
a.
b.
c.
d.
123.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Arbitration
Centralized
Both a & b
None of these
Which is signal tells that an arbitration of the access bus is possible during interprocessing:
DBA
BAP
BNA
None of these
124.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which signal bus request :
BAP
BNA
BAL
DBA
125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
126.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which signal on the bus indicates that request from process arbitration is to be processed:
BAL
BREQ
BM4
DBA
Which signal is exchange information by bus:
BECH
BM4
BAL
All of these
127.
Which signal on bus applies +1 to the priority of resolution circuits of the arbitration designate
a new arbitration:
a.
b.
c.
d.
128.
a.
b.
c.
d.
BM4
BAL
BNA
DBA
Which signal create 3 lines of bus in which signals from the encoded number of processors:
BM1 to BM3
BAL
Both
None of these
129.
Which signal request the validation signal make active if its logic level is 0 and validate signals
from BM1 to BM3:
a.
b.
c.
d.
BAL
BM4
BNA
All of these
130.
Which signal represents synchronization signal decided by interprocess arbitration with a
certain delay or signal DMA:
a.
b.
c.
d.
131.
a.
b.
c.
d.
132.
a.
b.
c.
d.
133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
BAL
BNA
Both
None of these
In which condition only one process holds a resource at a given time:
Mutual exclusion
Hold and wait
Both
None of these
In which condition one process holds the allocated resources and other waits for it:
No preemption
Hold and wait
Mutual exclusion
All of these
In which condition resource is not removed from a process holding:
Synchronization problem
No preemption
Hold and wait
None of these
134.
In which condition busy waiting, programmer error, deadlock or circular wait occurs in
interprocessing:
a.
b.
c.
Synchronization problem
No preemption
Hold and wait
d.
135.
a.
b.
c.
d.
None of these
Mechanism can be referred to as adding a new facility to the system hence known as _______:
Process
Arbitration
Both a & b
None of these
136.
Which is a mechanism used by the OS to ensure a systematic sharing of resources amongst
concurrent resources:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Process synchronous
Process system
Process synchronization
All of these
137.
_________ is basically sequence of instructions with a clear indication of beginning and end for
updating shared variables
a.
b.
c.
d.
138.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Critical section
Entry section
Remainder section
All of these
Which provides a direct hardware support to mutual exclusion
Test-and-set(TS)
Swap instruction
Wait instruction
Signal instruction
139.
A process waiting to enter its critical section may have to wait for unduly_______:
a. Short time or may have to wait forever
b. Long time or may have to wait forever
c. Short time or may have to wait for long time
d. Long time or may have to wait for short time
140.
Which is a modified version of the TS instruction which is designed to remove busy- waiting:
a.
Swap instruction
b.
c.
d.
Wait instruction
Signal instruction
Both b & c
141.
PCB stands for:
a. Process control block
142.
____ gets activated whenever the process encounters a busy condition code:
a.
b.
c.
d.
143.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Wait instruction
Signal instruction
Both a & b
None of these
_____ are new and mutually exclusive operation:
Wait instruction
Signal instruction
Both a & b
None of these
144.
_______ gets activated whenever a process leaves the critical region and the flag is set to
false:
a.
b.
c.
d.
145.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Wait instruction
Signal instruction
Both a & b
None of these
Which represent an abstraction of many important ideas in mutual exclusion:
Process synchronous
Process system
Semaphores
All of these
146.
A semaphore is a ______ integer variable upon which two atomic operations wait and signal are
defined:
a. Negative integer
b. Non- Negative integer
c. Positive integer
d. None of these
147.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which operation is executed as soon as a process exits from a critical section:
Wait
Signal
Both a & b
None of these
148.
CCR stands for:
a. Conditional critical region
149.
________ is a control structure in a high-level programming language:
a.
b.
c.
d.
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPU
ALU
DDR
CCR
The exclusion between processes is ensured by a third semaphore called______:
Mutex
Mutual
Memory
All of these
151.
______ semaphore provides mutual exclusion for accesses to the buffer pool and is initialized
to the value:
a.
b.
c.
d.
152.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mutex
Mutual
Memory
All of these
Which processes access and manipulate the shared data concurrently:
Micro processes
Several processes
Both
None of these
153.
Which section is basically a sequence of instruction with a clear indication of beginning and end
for updating shared variables:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Racing section
Critical section
Both
None of these
154.
In which section only one process is allowed to access the shared variable and all other have to
wait:
a.
b.
c.
d.
155.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Critical section
Racing section
Entry section
Remainder section
Which are the problem of critical section:
Mutual exclusion
Progress
Bounded wait
All of these
156.
Which section refer to the code segment of a process that is executed when the process
intends to enter its critical section:
a.
b.
c.
d.
157.
a.
b.
c.
d.
158.
a.
Critical section
Entry section
Reminder section
None of these
Which section refer to the code segment where a shared resource is accessed by the process:
Reminder section
Entry section
Both
None of these
Which section is the remaining part of a process’s code:
Racing section
b.
c.
d.
Critical section
Entry section
Reminder section
159.
a.
b.
c.
d.
160.
a.
b.
c.
d.
161.
a.
b.
c.
d.
162.
a.
b.
c.
d.
How many conditions for controlling access to critical section:
2
4
3
5
Which instruction provides a direct hardware support to mutual exclusion:
SP instruction
TS instruction
Both
None of these
Which instruction also improves the efficiency of the system:
Swap instruction
TS instruction
Both
None of these
Which instruction allows only one concurrent process to enter the critical section:
RP instruction
SP instruction
TS instruction
None of these
163.
Which section problem can be solved simply in a uniprocessor environment if the we are able to
prevent the occurrence of interrupt during the modification of a shared variable:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Entry section
Critical section
Non-critical section
None of these
e.
164.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The problem of readers and writers was first formulated by ________:
P.J. Courtois
F.Heymans
D.L. Parnas
All of these
165.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which is a situation in which some process wait for each other’s actions indefinitely:
Operating system
Deadlock
Mutex
None of these
166.
a.
b.
c.
d.
_________system handles only deadlocks caused by sharing of resources in the system:
Operating system
Deadlock
Mutex
None of these
167.
a.
b.
c.
d.
168.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
169.
A deadlocks occurs when the how many conditions are met:
1
2
3
4
Which are the characteristics of deadlocks:
Mutual exclusion
Hold and wait
No pre-emption
Circular wait
All of these
RAG stands for:
a. Resource allocation graph
170.
How many events concerning RAG can occur in a system:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
171.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which are the events concerning RAG can occur in a system:
Request for a resource
Allocation of a resource
Release of resource
All of these
172.
a.
b.
c.
d.
How many methods for handling deadlocks:
1
2
3
4
173.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which are the method for handling deadlocks:
Deadlock prevention
Deadlock avoidance
Deadlock detection
All of these
174.
a.
b.
c.
d.
175.
a.
How many condition that should be met in order to produce a deadlock:
2
4
6
8
Which are the condition that should be met in order to produce a deadlock:
Mutual exclusion
b.
c.
d.
e.
Hold and Wait
No preemption
Circular wait
All of these
176.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In protocol each process can make a request only in an ________:
Increasing order
Decreasing order
Both a & b
None of these
177.
In protocol above mentioned ________protocol are used then the circular wait-condition can
not hold:
a.
b.
c.
d.
178.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
Which state refers to a state that is not safe not necessarily a deadlocked state:
Safe state
Unsafe state
Both a & b
None of these
179.
________ a direct arrow is drawn from the process to the resource rectangle to represent each
pending resource request:
a.
b.
c.
d.
TS
SP
CCR
RAG
180.
The attributes of a file are:
a. Name
b. Identifier
c. Types
d. Location
e. Size
f. Protection
g. Time, date and user identification
h. All of these
181.
The various file operation are:
a. Crating a file
b. Writing a file
c. Reading a file
d. Repositioning within a file
e. Deleting a file truncating a file
f. All of these
182.
Which operations are to be performed on a directory are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
183.
a.
b.
c.
d.
184.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Search for a file
Create a file
Delete a file
List a directory
Rename a file
Traverse the file system
All of these
Which memory is assembled between main memory and CPU:
Primary memory
Cache memory
Both a & b
None of these
Which is considered as semi-conductor memory , which is made up of static RAM:
Primary memory
Cache memory
Both a & b
None of these
185.
Which is one of the important I/O devices and is most commonly used as permanent storage
device in any processor:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Soft disk
Hard disk
Both a & b
None of these
186.
______ can read any printed character by comparing the pattern that is stored in the
computer:
a.
b.
c.
d.
SP
CCR
RAG
OCR
187.
Which system is a typical example of the readers and writers problem:
a. Airline reservation system
b. Airport reservation system
c. Both
d. None of these
188.
Which lock can arise when two processes wait for phone calls from one another:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Spine lock
Dead lock
Both
None of these
189.
Which lock is more serious than indefinite postponement or starvation because it affect more
than one job:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Deadlock
Spinelock
Both
None of these
1.
Which is a type of microprocessor that is designed with limited number of instructions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPU
RISC
ALU
MUX
2.
Which unit is a pipeline system helps in speeding up processing over a non pipeline system:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPU
RISC
ALU
MUX
3.
The group of binary
bits assigned to perform a specified operation is known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stack register
Control word
Both
None
4.
How many binary
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
7
14
28
5.
In control word three fields contain how many bits:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
6.
Three fields contains three bits each so one filed has how many bits in control word:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
5
6
7.
How is selects the register that receives the information from the output bus:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decoder
Encoder
MUX
All of these
8.
A bus organization for seven _____register:
selection inputs in the control word:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ALU
RISC
CPU
MUX
9.
How many source register propagate through the multiplexers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
10. How many bits of OPR select one of the operations in the ALU:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
4
5
11. five bits of OPR select one of the operation in the ____ in control register:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPU
RISC
ALU
MUX
12. The OPR field has how many bits:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
4
5
13. In stack organization the insertion operation is known as ____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pop
Push
Both
None
14. In stack organization the deletion operation is known as ____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pop
Push
Both
None
15. A stack in a digital computer is a part of the_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ALU
CPU
Memory unit
None of these
16. In stack organization address register is known as the:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory stack
Stack pointer
Push operation
Pop operation
17. In register stack a stack can be organized by a ______number of register:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infinite number
Finite number
Both
None
18. Which operation are done by increment or decrement the stack pointer:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Push
Pop
Both
None
19. In register stack a stack can be a finite number of_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Control word
Memory word
Transfer word
All of these
20. The stack pointer contains the address of the word that is currently on____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Top of the stack
Down of the stack
Top and Down both
None
21. In register stack items are removed from the stack by using the ____operation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Push
Pop
Both
None
22. Which register holds the item that is to be written into the stack or read out of the stack:
a.
b.
c.
d.
SR
IR
RR
DR
23. In register stack the top item is read from the stack into:
a.
b.
c.
d.
SR
IR
RR
DR
24. In conversion to reverse polish notation the ____and____ operations are performed at the end:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Add and subtract
Subtract and multiplication
Multiplication and subtract
All of these
25. RPN stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reverse polish notation
Read polish notation
Random polish notation
None of these
26. Instruction formats contains the memory address of the______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory data
Main memory
CPU
ALU
27. In instruction formats instruction is represent by a________ of bits:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sequence
Parallel
Both
None
28. In instruction formats the information required by the ______ for execution:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ALU
CPU
RISC
DATA
29. The operation is specified by a binary code known as the_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Operand code
Opcode
Source code
All of these
30. Which are contains one or more register that may be referenced by machine instruction:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input
Output
CPU
ALU
31. Memory –mapped ___is used this is just another memory address:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input
Output
Both
None
32. Which operation use one operand or unary operations:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Arithmetic
Logical
Both
None
33.
a.
b.
c.
d.
34.
a.
b.
c.
d.
35.
3-Address format can be represented as :
dst<-[src1][src2]
dst ->[src1][src2]
dst<->[src1][src2]
All of these
2- Address format can be represented as:
dst ->[dst]*[src]
dst<-[dst]*[src]
dst<->[dst]*[src]
All of these
In 1-address format how many address is used both as source as well as destination:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
36. The stack pointer is maintained in a____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data
Register
Address
None of these
37. ___ mode of addressing is a form of implied addressing:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stack
Array
Queue
Binary
38. Stack uses RPN to solve ______expression:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Logical
Arithmetic
Both
None
39. In the RPN scheme the numbers and operators are listed__________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
One after another
One before another
Another after one
Another before one
40. In addressing modes instruction has primarily how many components:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
41. EA stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Effective add
Effective absolute
Effective address
End address
42. In which addressing the operand is actually present in instruction:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
None of these
43. In which addressing the simplest addressing mode where an operand is fetched from memory
is_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
None of these
44. which addressing is a way of direct addressing:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
None of these
45. In which mode the main memory location holds the EA of the operand:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
Indirect addressing
46. Which addressing is an extremely influential way of addressing:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Displacement addressing
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
47. In the base –register addressing the register reference may be _____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Implicit
Explicit
Both
None
48. In post –indexing the indexing is performed_____
a.
b.
c.
d.
Before the indirection
After the indirection
Same time indirection
All of these
49. In post-indexing the contents of the address field are used to access a memory location containing
a___ address:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
None of these
50. In pre –indexing the indexing is performed_____
a.
b.
c.
d.
Before the indirection
After the indirection
Same time indirection
All of these
51.
a.
b.
c.
d.
52.
The final addressing mode that we consider is______:
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
Stack addressing
In data transfer manipulation designing as instruction set for a system is a complex_____ :
a.
b.
c.
d.
Art
System
Computer
None of these
53. Which addressing is an extremely influential way of addressing:
a.
b.
c.
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
d.
Displacement addressing
54.
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
Which addressing offset can be the content of PC and also can be negative:
Relative addressing
Immediate addressing
Direct addressing
Register addressing
The length of instruction set depends on:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data size
Memory size
Both
None
56. In length instruction some programs wants a complex instruction set containing more instruction,
more addressing modes and greater address rang, as in case of_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
RISC
CISC
Both
None
57. In length instruction other programs on the other hand, want a small and fixed-size instruction set
that contains only a limited number of opcodes, as in case of_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
RISC
CISC
Both
None
58.
a.
b.
c.
d.
59.
The instruction set can have variable-length instruction format primarily due to:
Varying number of operands
Varying length of opcodes in some CPU
Both
None
An instruction code must specify the address of the____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Opecode
Operand
Both
None
60. A simple ____ differs widely from a Turing machine:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CISC
RISC
CPU
ALU
61. How many types of basically Data manipulation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
e.
62.
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
a.
b.
c.
d.
64.
Which is data manipulation types are:
Arithmetic instruction
Shift instruction
Logical and bit manipulation instructions
All of these
Arithmetic instruction are used to perform operation on:
Numerical data
Non-numerical data
Both
None
How many basic arithmetic operation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
65. which are arithmetic operation are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Addition
Subtraction
Multiplication
Division
All of these
None of these
66.
a.
b.
c.
d.
67.
a.
b.
c.
d.
68.
In which instruction are used to perform Boolean operation on non-numerical data:
Logical and bit manipulation
Shift manipulation
Circular manipulation
None of these
Which operation is used to shift the content of an operand to one or more bits to provide necessary
variation:
Logical and bit manipulation
Shift manipulation
Circular manipulation
None of these
________is just like a circular array:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data
Register
ALU
CPU
69. Which control refers to the track of the address of instructions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data control
Register control
Program control
None of these
70. In program control the instruction is set for the statement in a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Parallel
Sequence
Both
None
71. How many types of unconditional jumps used in program control are follows:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
72. Which are unconditional jumps used in program control are follows:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Short jump
Near jump
Far jump
All of these
73. Which instruction is used in program control and used to decrement CX and conditional jump:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Loop
Shift manipulation
Circular manipulation
None of these
74. Which is always considered as short jumps:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Conditional jump
Short jump
Near jump
Far jump
75. Who change the address in the program counter and cause the flow of control to be altered:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Shift manipulation
Circular manipulation
Program control instruction
All of these
76. Which is the common program control instructions are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Branch
Jump
Call a subroutine
Return
All of these
None of these
77. Which is a type of microprocessor that is designed with limited number of instructions:
a.
CISC
b.
c.
d.
RISC
Both
None
78. SMP Stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
System multiprocessor
Symmetric multiprocessor
Both
None
79. UMA stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Uniform memory access
Unit memory access
Both
None
80.
a.
b.
c.
d.
81.
a.
b.
c.
d.
82.
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
NUMA stands for:
Number Uniform memory access
Not Uniform memory access
Non Uniform memory access
All of these
SIMD stands for:
System instruction multiple data
Single instruction multiple data
Symmetric instruction multiple data
Scale instruction multiple data
MIMD stands for:
Multiple input multiple data
Memory input multiple data
Multiple instruction multiple data
Memory instruction multiple data
HLL stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
High level languages
High level line
High level logic
High level limit
84. Which is a method of decomposing a sequential process into sub operations:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pipeline
CISC
RISC
Database
85. How many types of array processor:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
86. Which are the types of array processor:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Attached array processor
SIMD array processor
Both
None
87. Which are the application of vector processing:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
Weather forecasting
Artificial intelligence
Experts system
Images processing
Seismology
Gene mapping
Aerodynamics
All of these
None of these
88. Which types of jump keeps a 2_byte instruction that holds the range from- 128to127 bytes in the
memory location:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Far jump
Near jump
Short jump
All of these
89. Which types of register holds a single vector containing at least two read ports and one write
ports:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data system
Data base
Memory
Vector register
90. Parallel computing means doing several takes simultaneously thus improving the performance of
the________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data system
Computer system
Memory
Vector register
91. Which is used to speed-up the processing:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pipeline
Vector processing
Both
None
92. Which processor is a peripheral device attached to a computer so that the performance of a
computer can be improved for numerical computations:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Attached array processor
SIMD array processor
Both
None
93. Which processor has a single instruction multiple data stream organization that manipulates the
common instruction by means of multiple functional units:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Attached array processor
SIMD array processor
Both
None
94. Which carry is similar to rotate without carry operations:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rotate carry
Rotate through carry
Both
None
95. In the case of a left arithmetic shift , zeros are Shifted to the ______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Left
Right
Up
Down
96.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In the case of a right arithmetic shift the sign bit values are shifted to the_____:
Left
Right
Up
Down
Computer System Architecture MCQ 03
1.
_______is the first step in the evolution of programming languages:
a.
b.
c.
d.
machine language
assembly language
code language
none of these
2.
Mnemonic refers to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Instructions
Code
Symbolic codes
Assembler
3.
Mnemonic represent:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Operation codes
Strings
Address
None of these
4.
To represent addresses in assembly language we use:
a.
b.
c.
d.
String characters
Arrays
Structure
Enum
5.
a.
b.
c.
d.
6.
Assembler works to convert assembly language program into machine language :
Before the computer can execute it
After the computer can execute it
In between execution
All of these
________generation computers use assembly language:
a.
b.
c.
d.
First generation
Third generation
second generation
fourth generation
7.
Assembly language program is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Object program
Source program
Oriented program
All of these
8.
To invoke assembler following command are given at command line:
a.
b.
c.
d.
$ hello.s -o hello.o
$as hello.s –o o
$ as hello –o hello.o
$ as hello.s –o hello.o
9.
By whom address of external function in the assembly source file supplied by ______ when
activated:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Assembler
Linker
Machine
Code
10. An______ -o option is used for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input file
External file
Output file
None of these
11. The assembler translates ismorphically______ mapping from mnemonic in these statements to
machine instructions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1:1
2:1
3:3
4:1
12. Assembler works in______ phases:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
3
2
4
13. The assembler in first pass reads the program to collect symbols defined with offsets in a
table_______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hash table
Symbol table
Both a& b
None of these
14. In second pass, assembler creates _______in binary format for every instruction in program and
then refers to the symbol table to giving every symbol an______ relating the segment.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Code and program
Program and instruction
Code and offset
All of these
15. which of the 2 files are created by the assembler:
a.
b.
c.
d.
List and object file
Link and object file
Both a & b
None of these
16. In which code is object file is coded:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Link code
Decimal code
Assembly code
Binary code
17. which type of errors are detected by the assembler:
a.
b.
c.
d.
syntax error
logical error
run time error
none of these
18.
a.
b.
c.
d.
19.
a.
b.
c.
d.
20.
MOVE AX BX in this LINES OF CODE what type of error is declared:
Undeclared identifier MOVE
undeclared identifier AX
Accept as a command
Not look in symbol table
In given lines of code MOV AX,BL have different type of operands according to assembler for 8086
architecture these identifiers must be of:
Different type only in byte
Same type either in word or byte
Both a & b
None of these
What type of errors are not detected by assemblers:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Syntax error
Run time error
Logical error
All of these
21. ______serves as the purpose of documentation only:
a.
b.
c.
d.
List
object
link
code
22. An assembler is a utility program that performs:
a. Isometric translation
b. Isomorphic translation
c. Isochoric translation
d. None of these
23. Assemblers are of 2 types:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1 pass
2 pass
both a & b
none of these
24. CP/CMS assembly language was written in ________assembler:
a.
b.
c.
d.
S/340
S-350
S/320
S/360
25. ASM-H widely used _____assembler:
a.
b.
c.
d.
S/370
S/380
S/390
S/360
26. Assembler is a_______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interpreter
Translator
Exchanger
None of these
27. A_______ processor controls repetitious writing of sequence:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Macro
Micro
Nano
All of these
28. IBM-360 type language is example which supporting______ language:
a.
b.
Micro
Macro
c.
d.
Both a & b
None of these
29. _________ is attached to using macro instruction definition:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Name
Definition
Identifier
All of these
30. END of macro definition by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
NAME
MEND
DATA
MEMORY
31. Process of replacing the sequence of lines of codes is known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Expanding die macro
Expanding tri macro
Tetra macro
None of these
32. A program that links several programs is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Linker
Loader
Translator
None of these
33. _______address is not assigned by linker:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Absolute
Relative
Both a & b
None of these
34. ________address is provided by linker to modules linked together that starting from______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Absolute and 0
Relative and 0
Relative and 1
Relative and 3
35. A linker is also known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binder
Linkage editor
Both a & b
None of these
36. Loading is _______ with the task of storage management of operating system and mostly preformed
after assembly:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bound
Expanded
Overlaps
All of these
37. _______contain library program have to be indicated to the loader:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Externally defined
Internally defined
Executable file
All of these
38. It is the task of the ________to locate externally defined symbols in programs, load them in to
memory by placing their _______of symbols in calling program:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Loader and name
Linker and values
Linker and name
Loader and values
39. Linker creates a link file containing binary codes and also produces_______ containing address
information on linked files:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Link map
Map table
Symbol map
None of these
40. how many types of entities contained by assembler to handle program:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4
2
3
5
41. which of the following are types of assembler entities:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Absolute entities
Relative entities
Object program
All of these
42. ________have addresses where instructions are stored along with address of working storage:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relative entities
Absolute entities
Both a & b
None of these
43. Absolute entities are __________whom value signify storage locations that are independent of
resulting machine code:
a. Numeric constants
b. String constants
c. Fixed addresses
d. Operation codes
e. All of these
44. A module contains machine code with specification on______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relative addresses
Absolute addresses
Object program
None of these
45. After actual locations for main storage are known, a ______adjusts relative addresses to these
actual locations:
a.
b.
c.
Relocating loader
Locating loader
Default loader
d.
None of these
46. If there is a module from single source-language only that does not contain any external references,
it doesn’t need a linker to load it and is loaded______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Indirectly
Directly
Extending
None of these
47. Modern assemblers for RISC based architectures make optimization of instruction scheduling to
make use of CPU _______efficiently:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pipeline
Without pipeline
Both a & b
None of these
48.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
49.
which are of the following modern assemblers:
MIPS
Sun SPARC
HP PA-RISC
x86(x64)
all of these
How many types of loop control structures in C language:
a.
b.
c.
d.
4
5
2
3
50. Types of loop control statements are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
For loop
While loop
Do-while loop
All of these
51. <Initial value> is_______ which initializes the value of variable:
a.
b.
Assignment expression
Condition value
c.
d.
Increment/decrement
None of these
52. The format “%8d” is used to print_______ values in a line:
a.
b.
c.
d.
11
10
9
12
53. <Condition> is a _________expression which will have value true or false:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Relational
Logical
Both a & b
None of these
54. <Increment> is the________ value of variable which will be added every time:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Increment
Decrement
Expanding
None of these
55. _______is the statement block of for loop lies inside block of another for loop:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nested for loop
Nested while loop
Nested do-while loop
None of these
56.
a.
b.
c.
d.
57.
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.
SPARC stands for:
Scalable programmer architecture
Scalable processor architecture
Scalable point architecture
None of these
Full form of MIPS assembler is:
Microprocessor without interlocked pipeline stage
Microprocessor with interlocked pipeline stage
Both a & b
None of these
_______ statement block is executed atleast once for any value of the condition:
a.
b.
c.
d.
For statement
Do-while statement
While statement
None of these
59. _______statement is an unconditional transfer of control statement:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Goto
Continue
Switch
All of these
60. In Goto statement the place to which control is transferred is identified by a statement______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Label
Display
Break
None of these
61. The continue statement is used to transfer the control to the________ of a statement block in a
loop:
a.
b.
c.
d.
End
Beginning
Middle
None of these
62. The__________ statement is used to transfer the control to the end of statement block in a loop:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Continue
Break
Switch
Goto
63. ________function is used to transfer the control to end of a program which uses one argument( )
and takes value is zero for_______ termination and non-zero for _______termination:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Exit( ),normal, abnormal
Break, normal, abnormal
Both a & b
None of these
64. To design a program it requires_______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Program specification
Code specification
Instruction specification
Problem specification
65.
a.
b.
c.
d.
66.
Testing helps to ensure _______of the program for use within a system:
Quality, accuracy and except
Quality, accuracy and acceptance
Design, assurance and acceptance
Quality, accuracy and development
An unstructured program uses a ________ approach to solve problems:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Linear
Top down
Both a & b
None of these
67. In a complex program, the ______overlaps:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Branching
Condition
Both a & b
None of these
68. How many structures structured programs are written:
a.
b.
c.
d.
3
2
1
6
69. following are structured programs written in simple structures:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sequence
Selection
Iteration
All of these
70. Iteration also called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Repetition
Straight
Selection
Sequence
71. In ________instructions are followed one after the other in the preset order in which they appear
within program:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sequence
Selection
Break
Iteration
72. _______means that one of two alternative sequences of instruction is chosen based on logical
condition:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Sequence
Selection
Repetition
None of these
73. _________is sequence of instructions is executed and repeated any no. of times in loop until logical
condition is true:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Iteration
Repetition
Both a & b
None of these
74. A ________is a small program tested separately before combining with final program:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Module
Block
selection
none of these
75. _______uses various symbols to represent function within program and is _______representation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Flowchart, pictorial
Algorithm, pictorial
Pictorial, flowchart
None of these
76. ______Avoid crossing flow lines:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Flowchart
Algorithm
Both a & b
None of these
77. A flow chart is drawn from top to bottom and_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Right to left
Only right
Left to right
Only left
78. Flowchart that exceed page should be properly linked using ________to portions of flowchart on
different pages:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Connectors
Interconnections
Connections
None of these
79. ________is useful to prepare detailed program documentation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Flowchart
Algorithm
Both a & b
None of these
80. Pseudo means:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Imitation
Imitate
In imitation
None of these
81. Preparing the pseudocode requires _______time than drawing flowchart:
a.
Less
b.
c.
d.
More
Optimum
None of these
82. There is _____standard for preparing pseudocode instructions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
No
4
2
6
83. ______are used to translate high level language instructions to a machine code:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Translators
Interpreters
Compilers
None of these
84. The compiler _______translate a program code with any syntax error:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Can
Cannot
Without
None of these
85. Before checking the program for errors in translating code into machine language the high level
language code is loaded into_________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register
Memory
Data
CPU
86. After compilation of the program ,the operating system of computer activates:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Loader
Linker
Compiler
None of these
87. The linker has utilities needed for ________within the translated program:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input
Output
Processing
All of these
88. Flowchart is a_______ representation of an algorithm:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Symbolic
Diagrammatic
Both a & b
None of these
89. In flow chart symbols the _______operation represents the direction of flow:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Connector
Looping
Arrows
Decision making
90. Which register is memory pointer:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Program counter
Instruction register
Stack pointer
Source index
91. How many approaches are used to design control unit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
3
4
5
92. Which are the following approaches used to design control unit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hardwired control
Microprogrammed control
Both a & b
None of these
93. Cache memory is located between main memory and_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPU
Memory
Both a & b
None of these
e.
94. _______arrow represents the value obtained by evaluating right side expression/variable to the left
side variable:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Forth
Inbetween
Back
None of these
95. A ________ is written as separate unit, apart from main and called whenever necessary:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Subroutine
Code
Block
None of these
96. _______uses the stack to store return address of subroutine:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPU
Microprocessor
register
memory
97. A subroutine is implemented with 2 associated instructions:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CALL
RETURN
Both a & b
None of these
98. Call instruction is written in the ______program:
a.
b.
Main
Procedures
c.
d.
Program
Memory
99. Return instruction is written in_______ to written to main program:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Subroutine
Main program
Both a & b
None of these
100.
When subroutine is called contents of program counter is location address of
_______instruction following call instruction is stored on ________and program execution is
transferred to______ address:
a. Non executable, pointer and subroutine
b. Executable, Stack and Main program
c.
Executable, Queue and Subroutine
d. Executable, Stack and Subroutine
101.
A subroutine called by another subroutine is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nested
For loop
Break
Continue
102.
The extent nesting in subroutine is limited only by:
a. Number of available Stack locations
b. Number of available Addressing locations
c. Number of available CPU locations
d. Number of available Memory locations
103.
Which are of the following instructions of hardware subroutines:
a.
b.
c.
d.
104.
a.
b.
c.
d.
SCAL
SXIT
Both a & b
None of these
Importance in local variable and index registers in subroutine does_____:
Alter
Not alter
Both a & b
None of these
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Markers in subroutine cannot be accepted as limits whereas this markers stands for:
Top of stack
Bottom of stack
Middle of stack
All of these
106.
Subroutines are placed in identical section to caller so that SCAL and SXIT _______overpass
divison limits:
a.
b.
c.
d.
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Don’t
Does
Cross
By
_________subroutine declaration come after procedure announcement:
Global
Local
Both a & b
None of these
108.
subroutines are invoked by using their________ in a subroutine call statement and replacing
formal parameters with________ parameters:
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
a.
b.
Identifier and formal
Identifier and actual
Expression and arguments
None of these
Parameters can be stacked by ________just as with procedures:
Asterisk(*)
Arrow
Line
Pipeline
The subroutines are determined by functioning of ________instructions:
SCAL and SXIT
only SCAL
c.
d.
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
a.
b.
c.
d.
only SXIT
none of these
Call is________ subroutine call:
Conditional
Unconditional
Both a & b
None of these
A flag is a _________that keep track of a changing condition during computer run:
Memory
Register
Controller
None of these
When a subroutine is ________the parameters are loaded onto the stack and SCAL is executed:
Executed
Invoked
Ended
Started
Subroutine is called _______:
In Same program
In external program
Both a & b
None of these
115.
If internal subroutine is called global data is used to pass values defining parameters between
_________program and defined _______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Main and subroutine
Local and subroutine
Global and subroutine
Global and main
116.
In what type of subroutine actual parameters are passed through the main program to formal
parameters in the related subroutine:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Internal
External
Both a & b
None of these
117.
By defining the _________register as last in first out stack the sequence can handle nested
subroutines:
a.
b.
c.
d.
S
J
R
T
118.
The ______stack can be 4-word memory addressed by 2 bits from an up/down counter known
as the stack pointer:
a.
b.
c.
d.
FIFO
PIPO
SISO
LIFO
119.
getchar :: IO char in this given function what is indicated by IO char:
a. when getchar is invoked it returns a character
b. when getchar is executed it returns a character
c. both a & b
d. none of these
120.
If we define putchar function in putchar :: char -> IO ( ) syntax than character input as an
argument and returns_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Useful value
Get output
Get no output
None of these
121.
The front panel display provides lights as green LED represent _____ and red LED represent
_____for device programmer who writes input/output basic:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Busy and Error
Error and Busy
Busy and Busy
Error and Error
122.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The input data for processing uses the standard input device which by default is a ________:
Mouse
Scanner
Keyboard
Monitor
123.
The processed data is sent for output to standard ________device which by default is
computer screen:
a.
b.
c.
d.
124.
a.
b.
c.
d.
125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
126.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input
Output
Both a & b
None of these
Each instruction is executed by set of micro operations termed as:
Micro instructions
Mini instructions
Both a & b
None of these
For each micro operation the control unit generates set of______ signals:
Control
Address
Data
None of these
Sequence of microinstructions is termed as micro program or________:
Hardware
Software
Firmware
None of these
127.
The micro program is an ________written in microcode and stored in firmware which is also
referred as___________:
a. Interpreter and control memory
b. Translator and control store
c. Translator and control memory
d. Interpreter and Translator
128.
a.
b.
c.
d.
129.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Compared to hardware, firmware is ________to design micro programmed organization:
Difficult
Easier
Both a& b
None of these
Compared to software, firmware is _______to write:
Easier
Difficult
Mediator
Optimum
130.
_________program converts machine instructions into control signals:
a. Control memory program
b. Control store program
c. Both a & b
d. Only memory
131.
who coined the term micro program in 1951:
a.
b.
c.
d.
T.V. Wilkes
M.V. Wilkes
S.V. Wilkes
D.V. Wilkes
132.
what is full form of EDSAC:
a. Electronic delay source accumulator calculator
b. Electronic delay storage automatic code
c. Electronic destination source automatic calculator
d. Electronic delay storage automatic calculator
133.
Who led to development of read –only magnetic core matrix for use in control unit of small
computer at IBM’s laboratory:
a.
b.
c.
d.
John Fairclough’s
Johnyfairclough
Mr. Redcliff
M.V. Wilkes
134.
From1961-1964 John fairclough’s research played an important role to pursue full range of
compatible computers as system:
a.
System/360
b.
c.
d.
135.
a.
b.
c.
d.
System/460
System/560
System/780
Each microinstructions cycle is made of 2 parts:
Fetch
Execute
Code
Both a & b
136.
One of use of microprogramming to implement ________ of processor in Intel 80x86 and
Motorola 680x0 processors whose instruction set are evolved from 360 original:
a.
b.
c.
d.
137.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Control structure
Without control
Control unit
Only control
The function of these microinstructions is to issue the micro orders to______:
CPU
Memory
Register
Accumulator
138.
Micro-orders generate the_______ address of operand and execute instruction and prepare for
fetching next instruction from the main memory:
a.
b.
c.
d.
139.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Physical
Effective
Logical
all of above
Which of the following 2 task are performed to execute an instruction by MCU:
Microinstruction execution
Microinstruction sequencing
Both a & b
None of these
140.
What is the purpose of microinstruction executions:
a. Generate a control signal
b. Generate a control signal to compile
c. Generate a control signal to execute
d. All of these
141.
Which microinstruction provide next instruction from control memory:
a. Microinstruction execution
b. Microinstruction Buffer
c. Microinstruction decoder
d. Microinstruction Sequencing
142.
Which are the following components of microprogramed units to implement control process:
a. Instruction register
b. Microinstruction address generation
c. Control store microprogram memory
d. Microinstruction Buffer
e. Microinstruction decoder
f. All of these
143.
Microcodes are stored as firmware in _______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
144.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory chips
Registers
accumulators
none of these
A control memory is______ stored in some area of memory:
Control instruction
Memory instruction
Register instruction
None of these
145.
A computer having writable control memory is known as_________:
a. Static micro programmable
b. Dynamic micro programmable
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
146.
The control memory contains a set of words where each word is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Microinstruction
Program
Sets
All of these
147.
During program execution content of main memory undergo changes and, but control memory
has______ microprogram:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Static
Dynamic
Compile time
Fixed
148.
What happens if computer is started :
a. It executes “CPU” microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions stored in ROM
b. It executes “code” microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions stored in ROM
c. It executes “boot” microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions stored in ROM
d. It executes “strap loader” microprogram which is sequence of microinstructions stored in ROM
149.
Control memory is part of ______ that has addressable storage registers and used as temporary
storage for data:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ROM
RAM
CPU
Memory
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
151.
a.
b.
c.
d.
152.
a.
b.
c.
d.
153.
How many modes the address in control memory are divided:
2
3
5
7
which of the following is interrupt mode:
Task mode
Executive mode
Both a & b
None of these
Mode of addresses in control memory are:
Executive mode
Task mode
Both a & b
None of these
Addresses in control memory is made by____ for each register group:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Address select logic
Data select logic
Control select logic
All of these
154.
a.
b.
c.
d.
155.
a.
b.
c.
d.
There are how many register groups in control memory:
3
5
6
8
What type of circuit is used by control memory to interconnect registers:
Data routing circuit
Address routing circuit
Control routing circuit
None of the these
156.
Which memory is used to copy instructions or data currently used by CPU:
a. Main memory
b. Secondary memory
c. Cache memory
d. None of these
157.
a.
b.
c.
d.
158.
a.
b.
c.
d.
159.
Copy of instruction in cache memory is known as:
Execution cache
Data cache
Instruction cache
All of these
Copy of data in cache memory is called:
Data cache
Execution cache
Address cache
Control cache
What are 2 advantages of cache memory:
a. Reduction of average access time for CPU memory
b. Reduction of bandwidth of available memory of CPU
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
160.
On what method search in cache memory used by the system:
a.
b.
c.
d.
161.
a.
b.
c.
d.
162.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cache directing
Cache mapping
Cache controlling
Cache invalidation
______process starts when a cpu with cache refers to a memory:
Main memory
External memory
Cache
All of these
When cache process starts hit and miss rate defines in cache directory:
during search reads
during search writes
during replace writes
during finding writes
163.
In cache memory hit rate indicates:
a. Data from requested address is not available
b. Data from requested address is available
c. Control from requested address is available
d. Address from requested address is not available
164.
In cache memory miss rate indicates:
a. Availability of requested data
b. Availability of requested address
c. Non-Availability of requested data
d. Non-Availability of requested address
165.
Which 3 areas are used by cache process:
a. Search, updating, invalidation
b. Write, updating, invalidation
c. Search, read, updating
d. Invalidation, updating, requesting
166.
Updating writes to cache data and also to _______:
a.
b.
Directories
Memory
c.
d.
167.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Registers
Folders
Invalidation writes only to_____ and erases previously residing address in memory:
Folders
Memory
Directory
Files
168.
_______machine instruction creates branching to some specified location in main memory if
result of last ALU operation is Zero or Zero flag is set:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Branch on One
Branch on Three
Branch on Nine
Branch on Zero
169.
Full form of CAR:
a. Control address register
b. Content address register
c. Condition accumulator resource
d. Code address register
170.
Two types of microinstructions are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
171.
a.
b.
c.
d.
172.
a.
b.
c.
Branching
Non-branching
Both a & b
None of these
Which are 3 ways to determine address of next micro instruction to be executed:
Next sequential address
Branching
Interrupt testing
All of these
Branching can be________:
Conditional
Unconditional
Both a & b
d.
173.
a.
b.
c.
d.
None of these
In which branching condition is tested which is determined by status bit of ALU:
Unconditional
Conditional
Both a & b
None of these
174.
a.
b.
c.
d.
175.
a.
b.
c.
d.
176.
a.
b.
c.
d.
177.
a.
b.
c.
d.
which branch is achieved by fixing status bit that output of multiplexer is always one:
Unconditional
Conditional
Looping
All of these
Which register is used to store addresses of control memory from where instruction is fetched:
MAR
BAR
CAR
DAR
Control ROM is the control memory that holds:
Control words
Memory words
Multiplexers
Decoders
Opcode is the machine instruction obtained from decoding instruction stored in:
Stack pointer
Address pointer
Instruction register
Incrementer
178.
Branch logic determines which should be adopted to select the next______ value among
possibilities:
a.
b.
c.
d.
CAR
GAR
HAR
TAR
179.
a.
b.
c.
d.
________ generates CAR+1 as possibility of next CAR value:
Decrementer
Incrementer
Postfix
Prefix
180.
a.
b.
c.
d.
________used to hold return address for operations of subroutine call branch:
TBR
HDR
SDR
SBR
181.
Which of following 2 types of computer system considered by micro programmed unit:
a. Micro level computers
b. Machine level computers
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
182.
Following are the components of micro programmed control unit:
a. Subroutine register
b. Control address register
c. Memory Of 128 words with 20 bits per words
d. All of these
183.
Various machine level components are:
a. Address register
b. Program counter
c. Data register
d. Accumulator register
e. Memory of 2K,16 bits/word RAM
f. Multiplexers
g. All of these
184.
Data transfers are done using:
a. Multiplexer switching
b. Demultiplexer switching
c. Adder switching
d. Subtractor switching
185.
PC can be loaded from_____:
a.
BR
b.
c.
d.
CR
AR
TR
186.
Which functions are performed by CU:
a. Data exchange b/w CPU and memory or I/O modules
b. External operations
c. Internal operations inside CPU
d. Both a & c
187.
Which are internal operations inside CPU:
a. Data transfer b/w registers
b. Instructing ALU to operate data
c. Regulation of other internal operations
d. All of these
188.
How many paths taken by movement of data in CU:
a.
b.
c.
d.
189.
a.
b.
c.
d.
190.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3
4
5
2
2 data paths in CU are:
Internal data paths
External data paths
Both a & b
None of these
_______is the data paths link CPU registers with memory or I/O modules:
External data paths
Internal data paths
Boreal data paths
Exchange data paths
191.
______is data paths there is movement of data from one register to another or b/w ALU and a
register:
a.
b.
c.
d.
External
Boreal
Internal
Exchange
192.
Which is the input of control unit:
a. Master clock signal
b. Instruction register
c. Flags
d. Control signals from bus
e. All of these
193.
If _______flag is set then control unit issues control signals that causes program counter to be
incremented by 1:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Zero
One
Three
Eight
194.
Which control unit is implemented as combinational circuit in the hardware:
a. Microprogrammed control unit
b. Hardwired control unit
c. Blockprogrammed control unit
d. Macroprogrammed control unit
195.
Microprograms are usually stored in:
a.
b.
c.
d.
196.
a.
b.
c.
d.
197.
a.
b.
c.
d.
198.
a.
ROM
RAM
SAM
SAN
Among them which is the faster control unit:
Hardwired
Microprogrammed
Both a & b
None of these
For CISC architecture_______ controllers are better:
Microprogrammed
Hardwired
Betterwired
None of these
Full form of FSM is:
Finite state machine
b.
c.
d.
199.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fix state machine
Fun source metal
All of these
Rules of FSM are encoded in:
ROM
Random logic
Programmable logic array
All of these
200.
In RISC architecture access to registers is made as a block and register file in a particular
register can be selected by using:
a.
b.
c.
d.
201.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
202.
a.
b.
c.
d.
203.
a.
b.
c.
Multiplexer
Decoder
Subtractor
Adder
Outputs of instruction/data path in CU are:
Reg R/W
Load/Reg-Reg
ALU function select
Load control
Read control
IR Latch
JUMP/Branch/Next PC
All of these
One last bit of control output is for control of_______ state:
Minor
Major
Mixer
None of these
Following are 4 major states for ‘load’ are:
Fetch
Decode
Memory
d.
e.
Write back
All of these
204.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Jump has 3 major states are:
Fetch
Decode
Complete
All of these
205.
a.
b.
c.
d.
________ state keeps track of position related to execution of an instruction:
Major
Minor
Both a & b
None of these
206.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An instruction always starts with state___:
1
2
3
0
207.
Decoding of an instruction in RISC architecture means decision on working of control unit for:
a. Remainder of instructions
b. Divisor of instructions
c. Dividend of instructions
d. None of these
208.
Which control is used during starting of instruction cycle:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Write
Read
R/W
None of these
209.
________function select takes op code in IR translating to function of ALU and it may be
compact binary code or one line per ALU:
a.
b.
c.
ALU
CPU
Memory
d.
Cache
210.
a.
b.
c.
d.
________is dependent on instruction type in CU:
Jump
Branch
NextPC
All of these
211.
__________dependent on instruction and major state and also comes in starting of data fetch
state as well as write back stage in CU:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register read
Register write
Register R/W
All of these
212.
a.
b.
c.
d.
_______dependence over op-code in CU:
Load register
Load Reg/Reg
Only Load
None of these
213.
Full form of PLA in CU:
a. Progrmmable Logic Array
b. Programs Load Array
c. Programmable Logic Accumulator
d. all of these
214.
Which are tasks for execution of CU or MCU:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Microinstruction execution
Microinstruction sequencing
Both a & b
None of these
215.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Branching is implemented by depending on output of:
CD
RG
CC
CR
216.
Who determine under what conditions the branching will occur and when:
a. By combination of CD and BT
b. By combination of CD and BR
c. By combination of CD and CR
d. By combination of TD and BR
217.
The character U is used to indicate:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Undefined transfers
Unfair transfers
Unconditional transfers
All of these
218.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which field is used to requests for branching:
DR
CR
TR
BR
219.
a.
b.
c.
d.
220.
which field is used to determine what type of transfer occurs:
CR
SR
BR
MR
Source statements consist of 5fields in microinstruction source code are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Lable
Micro-ops
CD-spec
BR-spec
Address
All of these
Computer System Architecture MCQ 02
1.
_____ is a command given to a computer to perform a specified operation on some given data:
a.
b.
c.
d.
An instruction
Command
Code
None of these
2.
An instruction is guided by_____ to perform work according:
a.
b.
c.
d.
PC
ALU
Both a and b
CPU
3.
Two important fields of an instruction are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Opcode
Operand
Only a
Both a & b
4.
Each operation has its _____ opcode:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unique
Two
Three
Four
5.
which are of these examples of Intel 8086 opcodes:
a.
b.
MOV
ADD
c.
d.
SUB
All of these
6.
a.
b.
c.
d.
7.
_______specify where to get the source and destination operands for the operation specified by
the _______:
Operand fields and opcode
Opcode and operand
Source and destination
Cpu and memory
The source/destination of operands can be the_______ or one of the general-purpose register:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory
One
both
None of these
8.
The complete set of op-codes for a particular microprocessor defines the______ set for that
processor:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Code
Function
Module
Instruction
9.
Which is the method by which instructions are selected for execution:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Instruction selection
Selection control
Instruction sequencing
All of these
10. The simplest method of controlling sequence of instruction execution is to have each instruction
explicitly specify:
a. The address of next instruction to be run
b. Address of previous instruction
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
11. As the instruction length increases ________ of instruction addresses in all the instruction
is_______:
a. Implicit inclusion
b. Implicit and disadvantageous
c. Explicit and disadvantageous
d. Explicit and disadvantageous
12. ______is the sequence of operations performed by CPU in processing an instruction:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Execute cycle
Fetch cycle
Decode
Instruction cycle
13. The time required to complete one instruction is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fetch time
Execution time
Control time
All of these
14. _____is the step during which a new instruction is read from the memory:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Decode
Fetch
Execute
None of these
15. ________is the step during which the operations specified by the instruction are executed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Execute
Decode
Both a& b
None of these
16. Decode is the step during which instruction is______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Initialized
Incremented
Decoded
Both b & c
17. The instruction fetch operation is initiated by loading the contents of program counter into
the______ and sends_____ request to memory:
a. Memory register and read
b. Memory register and write
c. Data register and read
d. Address register and read
18. The contents of the program counter is the _______ of the instruction to be run:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data
Address
Counter
None of these
19. The instruction read from memory is then placed in the_______ and contents of program counter
is______ so that it contains the address of_______ instruction in the program:
a. Program counter, incremented and next
b. Instruction register, incremented and previous
c. Instruction register, incremented and next
d. Address register, decremented and next
20. Execution of instruction specified by instruction to perform:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Operation
Operands
Both a & b
None of these
21. _______ is a symbolic representation of discrete elements of information:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data
Code
Address
Control
22. Group of binary bits(0&1) is known as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary code
Digit code
Symbolic representation
None of these
23. A group of 4 binary bits is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Nibble
Byte
Decimal
Digit
24. BCD uses binary number system to specify decimal numbers:
a.
1-10
b.
c.
d.
1-9
0-9
0-10
25. The ______ are assigned according to the position occupied by digits:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Volume
Weight
Mass
All of these
26. what is the BCD for a decimal number 559:
a.
b.
c.
d.
[0101 0101 1001]BCD
[0101 0001 1010]
[0101 1001 1001]
[1001 1010 0101]
27. ________are the codes that represent alphabetic characters, punctuation marks and other special
characters:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Alphanumeric codes
ASCII codes
EBCDIC codes
All of these
28.
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
Abbreviation ASCII stands for:
American standard code for information interchange
Abbreviation standard code for information interchange
Both
None of these
How many bit of ASCII code:
a.
b.
c.
d.
6
7
5
8
30. Which code used in transferring coded information from keyboards and to computer display and
printers:
a.
ASCII
b.
c.
d.
EBCDIC
Both
None of these
31. Which code used to represent numbers, letters, punctuation marks as well as control characters:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ASCII
EBCDIC
Both
None of these
32.
a.
b.
c.
d.
33.
abbreviation EBCDIC stand for:
Extended binary coded decimal interchange code
External binary coded decimal interchange code
Extra binary coded decimal interchange code
None of these
How many bit of EBCDIC code:
a.
b.
c.
d.
7
8
5
9
34. Which code the decimal digits are represented by the 8421 BCD code preceded by 1111:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ASCII
EBCDIC
Both
None of these
35. _________ has the property that corrupting or garbling a code word will likely produce a bit string
that is not a code word:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Error deleting codes
Error detecting codes
Error string codes
None of these
36. Which is method used most simple and commonly:
a.
b.
Parity check method
Error detecting method
c.
d.
Both
None of these
37. Which is the method of parity:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Even parity method
Odd parity method
Both
None of these
38. The ability of a code to detect single errors can be stated in term of the _________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Concept of distance
Even parity
Odd parity
None of these
39. The first n bit of a code word called __________ may be any of the 2 n n- bit string minimum error
bit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Information bits
String bits
Error bits
All of these
40. A code in which the total number of 1s in a valid (n+1) bit code word is even, this is called an
__________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Even parity code
Odd parity code
Both
None of these
41. A code in which the total number of 1s in a valid (n+1)bit code word is odd and this code is called
an__________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Error detecting code
Even parity code
Odd parity code
None of these
42. a code is simply a subset of the vertices of the _____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
n bit
n cube
n single
n double
43.
a.
b.
c.
d.
44.
a.
b.
c.
d.
45.
Which method is used to detect double errors and pinpoint erroneous bits:
Even parity method
Odd parity method
Check sum method
All of these
A code that is used to correct error is called an _________:
Error detecting code
Error correcting code
Both
None of these
A received ___________with a bit error will be closer to the originally transmitted code word than
to any other code word:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Code word
Non code word
Decoding
All of these
46. Which code word was originally transmitted to produce a received word is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Non code word
Code word
Decoding
None of these
47.
a.
b.
c.
d.
48.
The hardware that does this is an ________:
Error detecting decoder
Error correcting decoder
Both
None of these
Hamming codes was developed in __________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1953
1950
1945
1956
49. ____________ between two code words is defined as the number of bits that must be changed for
one code to another:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hamming codes
Hamming distance
Both
None of these
50. It is actually a method for constructing codes with a minimum distance of ____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
3
5
51. The bit position in a ___________ can be numbered from 1 through 2 i-1:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hamming code word
Hamming distance word
Both
None of these
52. Each check bit is grouped with the information bits as specified by a____________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Parity check code
Parity check matrix
Parity check bit
All of these
53. The pattern of groups that have odd parity called the _________must match one of the of columns
in the parity check matrix:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Syndrome
Dynodes
Both
None of these
54. Which are designed to interpret a specified number of instruction code:
a.
b.
Programmer
Processors
c.
d.
Instruction
Opcode
55. Which code is a string of binary digits:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Op code
Instruction code
Parity code
Operand code
56. The list of specific instruction supported by the CPU is termed as its ____________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Instruction code
Parity set
Instruction set
None of these
57. __________is divided into a number of fields and is represented as a sequence of bits:
a.
b.
c.
d.
instruction
instruction set
instruction code
parity code
58. Which unit is necessary for the execution of instruction:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Timing
Control
Both
None of these
59. Which unit provide status , timing and control signal:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Timing and control unit
Memory unit
Chace unit
None of these
60. Which unit acts as the brain of the computer which control other peripherals and interfaces:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory unit
Cache unit
Timing and control unit
None of these
61. It contains the ____________stack for PC storage during subroutine calls and input/output
interrupt services:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Seven- level hardware
Eight- level hardware
One- level hardware
Three- level hardware
62. Which unit works as an interface between the processor and all the memories on chip or off- chip:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Timing unit
Control unit
Memory control unit
All of these
63. The maximum clock frequency is_______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
45 MHZ
50 MHZ
52 MHZ
68 MHZ
64. ________ is given an instruction in machine language this instruction is fetched from the memory by
the CPU to execute:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ALU
CPU
MU
All of these
65. Which cycle refers to the time period during which one instruction is fetched and executed by the
CPU:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fetch cycle
Instruction cycle
Decode cycle
Execute cycle
66. How many stages of instruction cycle:
a.
b.
c.
d.
5
6
4
7
67. Which are stages of instruction cycle:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Fetch
Decode
Execute
Derive effective address of the instruction
All of these
68.
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
Which instruction are 32 bits long , with extra 16 bits:
Memory reference instruction
Memory reference format
Both
None of these
Which is addressed by sign extending the 16-bit displacement to 32-bit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory address
Effective memory address
Both a and b
None of these
70.
a.
b.
c.
d.
71.
Which are instruction in which two machine cycle are required:
Instruction cycle
Memory reference instruction
Both
None of these
Which instruction are used in multithreaded parallel processor architecture:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory reference instruction
Memory reference format
Both
None of these
72. Which instruction are arranged as per the protocols of memory reference format of the input file
in a simple ASCII sequence of integers between the range 0 to 99 separated by spaces without
formatted text and symbols:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory reference instruction
Memory reference format
Both
None of these
73. ____________ is an external hardware event which causes the CPU to interrupt the current
instruction sequence:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Input interrupt
Output interrupt
Both
None of these
74.
a.
b.
c.
d.
75.
ISR stand for:
Interrupt save routine
Interrupt service routine
Input stages routine
All of these
Which interrupt services save all the register and flags:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Save interrupt
Input/output interrupt
Service interrupt
All of these
76. IRET stand for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Interrupt enter
Interrupt return
Interrupt delete
None of these
77.
a.
b.
c.
d.
78.
a.
b.
c.
d.
79.
Which are benefit of input/output interrupt:
It is an external analogy to exceptions
The processor initiates and perform all I/O operation
The data is transferred into the memory through interrupt handler
All of these
Which are the not causes of the interrupt:
In any single device
In processor poll devices
It is an external analogy to exception
None of these
Which are the causes of the interrupt:
a.
b.
c.
d.
80.
a.
b.
c.
d.
81.
In any single device
In processor poll devices
In a device whose ID number is stored on the address bus
All of these
Which are the functioning of I/O interrupt:
The processor organizes all the I/O operation for smooth functioning
After completing the I/O operation the device interrupt the processor
Both
None of these
_________with which computers perform is way beyond human capabilities:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Speed
Accuracy
Storage
Versatility
82. _________ of a computer is consistently:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Speed
Accuracy
Storage
Versatility
83. GIGO stand for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Garbage-in-garbage-out
Garbage-in garbage-occur
Both
None of these
84. How many basic operations of versatility:
a.
b.
c.
d.
5
6
4
7
85.
a.
b.
c.
d.
86.
Which are the operation of versatility:
exchange of information with the outside world via I/O device
Transfer of data internally with in the central processing unit
Performs of the basic arithmetic operations
All of these
____________ of information in a human brain and a computer happens differently:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Intelligence
Storage
Versatility
Diligence
87. Which are the basic operation for converting:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Inputting
Storing
Processing
Outputting
Controlling
All of these
88. The control unit and arithmetic logic unit are know as the ___________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Central program unit
Central processing unit
Central primary unit
None of these
89. Which unit is comparable to the central nervous system in the human body:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Output unit
Control unit
Input unit
All of these
90. ___________ of the primary memory of the computer is limited:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Storage capacity
Magnetic disk
Both
None of these
91. Information is handled in the computer by _________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Electrical digit
Electrical component
Electronic bit
None of these
92. 0 and 1 are know as ___________:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Byte
Bit
Digits
Component
93. 0 and 1 abbreviation for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Binary digit
Octal digit
Both
None of these
94. How many bit of nibble group:
a.
b.
c.
d.
5
4
7
8
95. How many bit of bytes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
3
4
6
8
96. Which is the most important component of a digit computer that interprets the instruction and
processes the data contained in computer programs:
a.
b.
c.
MU
ALU
CPU
d. PC
97. Which part work as a the brain of the computer and performs most of the calculation:
a.
b.
c.
MU
PC
ALU
d.
CPU
98. Which is the main function of the computer:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Execute of programs
Execution of programs
Both
None of these
99. How many major component make up the CPU:
a.
b.
c.
d.
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
102.
4
3
6
8
Which register holds the current instruction to be executed:
Instruction register
Program register
Control register
None of these
Which register holds the next instruction to be executed:
Instruction register
Program register
Program control register
None of these
Each instruction is also accompanied by a___________:
a. Microprocessor
b. Microcode
c. Both
d. None of these
103.
Which are microcomputers commonly used for commercial data processing, desktop publishing
and engineering application:
a.
b.
c.
Digital computer
Personal computer
Both
d. None of these
104.
Which microprocessor has the control unit, memory unit and arithmetic and logic unit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pentium IV processor
Pentium V processor
Pentium III processor
None of these
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Clock speed
Motorola
Cyrix
None of these
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which microprocessor is available with a clock speed of 1.6 GHZ:
Pentium III
Pentium II
Pentium IV
All of these
107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The processing speed of a computer depends on the __________of the system:
Which processor are used in the most personal computer:
Intel corporation’s Pentium
Motorola corporation’s
Both
None of these
Computer System Architecture MCQ 01
1.
RTL stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Random transfer language
Register transfer language
Arithmetic transfer language
All of these
2.
Which operations are used for addition, subtraction, increment, decrement and complement
function:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bus
Memory transfer
Arithmetic operation
All of these
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
5.
Which language is termed as the symbolic depiction used for indicating the series:
Random transfer language
Register transfer language
Arithmetic transfer language
All of these
The method of writing symbol to indicate a provided computational process is called as a:
Programming language
Random transfer language
Register transfer language
Arithmetic transfer language
In which transfer the computer register are indicated in capital letters for depicting its function:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory transfer
Register transfer
Bus transfer
None of these
6.
The register that includes the address of the memory unit is termed as the ____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
MAR
PC
IR
None of these
7.
The register for the program counter is signified as_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
MAR
PC
IR
None of these
8.
In register transfer the instruction register as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
MAR
PC
IR
None of these
9.
In register transfer the processor register as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
MAR
PC
IR
RI
10. How many types of micro operations:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
6
8
11. Which are the operation that a computer performs on data that put in register:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register transfer
Arithmetic
Logical
All of these
12. Which micro operations carry information from one register to another:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register transfer
Arithmetic
Logical
All of these
13. Micro operation is shown as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
R1->R2
R1<-R2
Both
None
14. In memory transfer location address is supplied by____ that puts this on address bus:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ALU
CPU
MAR
MDR
15. How many types of memory transfer operation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
16. Operation of memory transfer are:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Read
Write
Both
None
17. In memory read the operation puts memory address on to a register known as :
a.
b.
c.
d.
PC
ALU
MAR
All of these
18. Which operation puts memory address in memory address register and data in DR:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Memory read
Memory write
Both
None
19. Arithmetic operation are carried by such micro operation on stored numeric data available in_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register
Data
Both
None
20. In arithmetic operation numbers of register and the circuits for addition at _____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
ALU
MAR
Both
None
21. Which operation are implemented using a binary counter or combinational circuit:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register transfer
Arithmetic
Logical
All of these
22.
a.
b.
c.
d.
23.
Which operation are binary type, and are performed on bits string that is placed in register:
Logical micro operation
Arithmetic micro operation
Both
None
A micro operation every bit of a register is a:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Constant
Variable
Both
None
24.
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.
Which operation is extremely useful in serial transfer of data:
Logical micro operation
Arithmetic micro operation
Shift micro operation
None of these
Which language specifies a digital system which uses specified notation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Register transfer
Arithmetic
Logical
All of these
26.
a.
b.
c.
d.
27.
IR stands for:
Input representation
Intermediate representation
Both
None
HDL stands for:
a.
b.
c.
d.
28.
a.
b.
c.
d.
29.
Human description language
Hardware description language
Hardware description land
None of these
VPCC stands for:
Variable portable C compiler
Very portable C compiler
Both
None
In register transfer which system is a sequential logic system in which flip-flops and gates are
constructed:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Digital system
Register
Data
None
30. High level language C supports register transfer technique for______ application:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Executing
Compiling
Both
None
31. A counter is incremented by one and memory unit is considered as a collection of _______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transfer register
Storage register
RTL
All of these
32. Which is the straight forward register transfer the data from register to another register
temporarily:
a. Digital system
b. Register
c. Data
d. Register transfer operations
33. In organization of a digital system register transfer of any digital system therefore it is called:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Digital system
Register
Data
Register transfer level
34. The binary information of source register chosen by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Demultiplexer
Multiplexer
Both
None
35. Which control transfer passes the function via control______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Logic
Operation
Circuit
All of these
36. Register are assumed to use positive-edge-triggered _____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Flip-flop
Logics
Circuit
Operation
37.
a.
b.
c.
d.
38.
a.
b.
c.
d.
39.
IDE stands for:
Input device electronics
Integrated device electronic
Both
None
ATA stands for:
Advance technology attachment
Advance teach attachment
Both
None
The memory bus is also referred as______:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data bus
Address bus
Memory bus
All of these
40. How many parts of memory bus:
a.
b.
c.
2
3
5
d.
6
41. A three state gate defined as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Analog circuit
Analog fundamentals
Both a&b
Digital circuit
42. In 3 state gate two states act as signals equal to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Logic 0
Logic 1
None of these
Both a & b
43. In 3 state gate third position termed as high impedance state which acts as:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Open circuit
Close circuit
None of these
All of above
44. In every transfer, selection of register by bus is decided by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Control signal
No signal
All signal
All of above
45. every bit of register has:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2 common line
3 common line
1 common line
none of these
46. DDR2 stands for:
a.
Double data rate 2
b.
c.
d.
Data double rate 2
Dynamic data rate 2
Dynamic double rate 2
47.
a.
b.
c.
d.
48.
SDRAM stands for:
System dynamic random access memory
Synchronous dynamic random access memory
Both
None
Which is referred as a sequential circuit which contains the number of register as per the protocol:
a.
b.
c.
d.
RTL
RAM
MAR
All of these
49.
a.
b.
c.
d.
50.
Which operation refer bitwise manipulation of contents of register:
Logical micro operation
Arithmetic micro operation
Shift micro operation
None of these
Which symbol will be used to denote an micro operation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
(^)
(v)
Both
None
51. which symbol will be denote an AND micro operation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
(^)
(v)
Both
None
52.
a.
b.
c.
d.
53.
Which operation are associated with serial transfer of data:
Logical micro operation
Arithmetic micro operation
Shift micro operation
None of these
The bits are shifted and the first flip-flop receives its binary information from the_____:
a.
b.
Serial output
Serial input
c.
d.
Both
None
54. How many types of shift micro operation:
a.
b.
c.
d.
2
4
6
8
55. Which shift is a shift micro operation which is used to shift a signed binary number to the left or
right:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Logical
Arithmetic
Both
None of these
56. which shift is used for signed binary number:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Logical
Arithmetic
Both
None of these
57. Arithmetic left shift is used to multiply a signed number by_____:
a.
b.
c.
d.
One
Two
Three
All of these
58. The variable of_______ correspond to hardware register:
a.
b.
c.
d.
RAM
RTL
ALU
MAR
59. In which shift is used to divide a signed number by two:
a.
Logical right-shift
b.
c.
d.
60.
Arithmetic right shift
Logical left shift
Arithmetic left shift
How evolved in register transfer language and where:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
Chirsfraser 1980
J.davidson 1980
Chirsfraser 1920
J.davidson 1920
A and B
B and C
C and D
Data Communication And Networks 05
1.
Which protocol was based on the specification called the Ethernet
a.
b.
c.
d.
IEEE 802.3
CSMA/CD
Both a & b
None of these
2.
MAC(Medium Access Control)sub layer is between the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Physical layer
Data Link layer
Both a & b
None of these
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
5.
Depending on the transmission media used, the Ethernet can be classified into following categories
are
Thick Ethernet or 10base5
Cheaper Net or Thin Net(10base2)
Star LAN(10baseT)
Optical Fibre CSMA/CD LAN (10baseF)
All of these
The characteristics of the Thick Ethernet cable are
Provides connectivity to max of 1024 stations
Cable supports a max distance of 500meters
Max distance covered by a network using Thick Ethernet is 2.5Km
Max no of stations supported by the Ethernet is 1024
All of these
A 10 Mbps cable is like a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Blue hose
Yellow hose
Black hose
None of these
6.
All stations in a Thick Ethernet is connected to a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Twisted pair cable
Coaxial cable
CSMA/CD
Transceiver
7.
A group of stations connected to a cable forms a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Repeater
Transceiver
Segments
Groups
8.
Which device is used to link two network segments, which are separated by a long distance
a.
b.
c.
d.
Repeater
Transceiver
Segments
Groups
9.
Each cable is connected to a Ethernet cable through a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Repeater
Transceiver
Segments
Groups
10. A repeater consists of _______ transceiver
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
e.
11. The functions performed by physical layer are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Encoding the data
Medium access
Data encapsulation
Both a & b
12. The functions performed by logical layer are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Data encapsulation
Link management
Medium access
Both a & b
e.
13. The computer or station is connected to a Ethernet card, Ethernet card consists of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Station interface
Data packet generator
A link management unit
All of these
14. The output of a Ethernet card is connected to the data encoder/decoder, which in turn is
connected to the transmission cable through a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Repeater
Transceiver
Segments
Groups
15.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
16.
The IEEE802.3 Ethernet frame format are
Preamble-7byte
Start of frame-1byte
Destination address-6byte
Source address-6byte
Length-2byte
Information field-46to 1500bytes
Frame check sequencer-4byte
All of these
The local area networks that do not require the capabilities of complete Ethernet system, the
IEEE802.3 standard committee has created a new standard called
a.
b.
c.
d.
Thin net
Star LAN
Optical fibre CSMA/CD
None of these
17.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
18.
The characteristics of thin net or cheaper net is
Max distance is up to 200meters
Max no of nodes is 30
Max stations per network is 1024
Node spacing is 0.5meters
Cable diameter is 0.25inches
BNC-T-connector is used to connect cables and N-series connector
All of these
The third variation of IEEE802.3 standard was a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Thin net
Star LAN
Optical fibre CSMA/CD
None of these
19. The characteristics of Star LAN are
a. It operates data rate up to 1Mbps
b. The configuration contains up to 5 upward levels of hubs
c.
d.
e.
f.
20.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
21.
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.
Twisted pair cable already used in telephone lines for transmission media
Each group of stations is connected to a local hub
The hubs are connected in the form of tree
All of these
The characteristics of optical fibre CSMA/CD LAN are
Good immunity to the electromagnetic interference
Low loss of power
High bandwidth
Less weight
High transmission security
All of these
The optical fibre version of CSMA/CD LAN has a no of advantage than the
Coaxial cable version of Ethernet
Twisted cable version of Ethernet
Both a & b
None of these
A token ring is a ring topology created by IBM in
a.
b.
c.
d.
1960
1990
1970
1980
e.
23. A stream of data is called a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Token
Frame
Token Ring
None of these
24. A central hub called _______ is used to connect each station in a star type of topology
a.
b.
c.
d.
MSAU(Multi Station Access Unit )
CSAU
SSAU
None of these
25.
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.
a.
The advantage of Token ring mechanism is
It prevents collision by ensuring that only one station at a time is transmitting
Ensures delivery of frame
Both a & b
None of these
Which uses electromechanical relays to make the physical star into a logical ring
b.
c.
d.
e.
MSAU(Multi Station Access Unit )
CSAU
SSAU
None of these
27.
a.
b.
c.
d.
28.
NAUN stands for
Nearest Active Upstream Neighbour
Network Active Upstream Neighbour
Network administrator Upstream Neighbour
None of these
IBM token ring products were available with speeds of
a.
b.
c.
d.
4Mbps
16Mbps
Both a & b
None of these
e.
29. High-Speed Token Ring(HSTR) technology is also available with speed of
a.
b.
c.
d.
100Mbps
1Gbps
Both a & b
None of these
30. The frame format of a token ring in a ring topology is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
j.
k.
Preamble
Start Delimiter
Frame Control
Destination Address
Source Address
Date
FCS
End Delimiter
Frame status
All of these
31. In a token ring , stations are connected to a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Physical ring
Logical ring
Both a & b
None of these
32. How many modes a ring interface can operate
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
33. A ring interface can operate different modes
a.
Listen mode
b.
c.
d.
Talk mode
Both a & b
None of these
34. In physical layer of token ring , signal speed of this media is
a.
b.
c.
d.
1Mbps
4Mbps
Both a & b
None of these
35. IBM released a token ring version that can operate at a speed of ______
a.
b.
c.
d.
4Mbps
6Mbps
8Mbps
16Mbps
36.
a.
b.
c.
d.
37.
Differential_______ encoding schema is used for encoding the digital data
Manchester
Multi programming
Multi processor
None of these
The MAC sub layer is on the____ of the physical layer
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bottom
Mid
Top
None of these
38. When there is no traffic on the ring______ token circulates continuously until some station grabs it
a.
b.
c.
d.
3-byte
5-byte
7-byte
9-byte
39. The length of the frame_________________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Short
Long
May be long or short
None of these
40. The maximum time a station is permitted to hold the token is known as________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Token time
Token holding time
Token ring
None of these
41.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
42.
The IEEE802.5 token frame format are
Start of frame and end of frame
Access control
Frame control
Source address and destination address
Checksum
All of these
The token ring management activities are
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Monitor stations
Ring initialization
Lost tokens
Orphan frames
All of these
43. The stations crashed after transmitting a short frame form
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Monitor stations
Ring initialization
Lost tokens
Orphan frames
All of these
44.
a.
b.
c.
d.
45.
The FDDI network stands for
Fibre Distributed Data Incorporation
Fibre Distributed Data Institute
Fibre Distributed Data Interface
Fibre Distributed Dual Incorporation
The FDDI network is a
a.
b.
c.
d.
High-speed
High-bandwidth
Both a & b
None of these
46. The FDDI network is based on the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Physical transmission
Optical transmission
Logical transmission
None of these
e.
47.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
The characteristics of FDDI network are
It transport data at a rate of 100Mbps
It can support up to 500stations on a single network
This network is used for connecting high-end computers
Rapid transfer of large amount of data
FDDI network consists of two counter-rotating rings
It was designed to run through fibre cables or copper media
g.
h.
i.
It was based on ring topology with token passing
It helps and support extend the capabilities of older LANs , such as Ethernet and token ring
It provides a reliable infrastructure for businesses ,moving even mission-critical applications to
networks
j. Easier to maintain
k. Compatible to standard-based components and various operating systems
l.
All of these
48. The ANSI began working on the FDDI-standard in
a.
b.
c.
d.
1980
1981
1982
1983
49. The FDDI specification was released in
a.
b.
c.
d.
1982
1983
1984
1986
50. The most key elements of FDDI was defined in
a.
b.
c.
d.
1986
1982
1985
1989
51. The FDDI considered as a _______ of IEEE802.5standard
a.
b.
c.
d.
Predecessor
Successor
Tool
None of these
e.
52. FDDI network comprises 2 bottom layer in ISOs OSI model namely
a.
b.
c.
d.
Physical layer
Data link layer
Both a & b
None of these
e.
53. The physical layers are
a.
b.
c.
d.
PMD
PHY
Both a & b
None of these
e.
54.
a.
b.
c.
d.
55.
a.
b.
c.
d.
56.
The ANTC stands for
Advanced Network Test Center
American National Test Center
American National Token Center
None of these
The word EANTC stands for
European ANTC
Easily ANTC
Efficient ANTC
None of these
The FDDI is
a.
b.
c.
d.
More than LAN
Less than WAN
Less than LAN
Both a & b
57. The FDDI network can easily be added to network topologies such as
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ethernet
Token ring
Both a & b
None of these
58.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
59.
a.
b.
c.
d.
60.
The FDDI supports four different types of cables as
Multimode fibre optic cable
Single mode fibre optic cable
Unshielded twisted-pair copper wiring
Shielded twisted-pair copper wiring
All of these
The PMD stands for
Physical Medium Dependent
Physical Medium Distance
Physical Media Dependent
Permitting Medium Dependent
For optical fibre media , which PMD is used
a.
b.
c.
d.
TP-PMD
Fibre PMD
Both a & b
None of these
e.
61. For copper media , which PMD is used
a.
b.
c.
d.
TP-PMD
Fibre PMD
Both a & b
None of these
e.
62.
a.
b.
c.
d.
63.
Other two significant PMD are
SMF-PMD(Single Mode Fibre-PMD)
LCF-PMD(Low Cost Fibre-PMD)
Both a & b
None of these
The fibre PMD-ANSI X3T9.5/48 describes the physical layer that uses
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fibre components
Optical components
Both a & b
None of these
64.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
65.
a.
b.
c.
d.
66.
The characteristics and parameters of the optical fibre cable allowed for FDDI are
Wavelength of light(normal is 1300nm)
Attenuation and bandwidth
Max bit error rate
Dispersion of optical media
Numerical aperture(normal is 0.275)
Intensity of light
Jitter of pulse
Allowed power between two stations
All of these
The PHY are
Data link layer protocol
Physical layer protocol
Network protocol
None of these
The micrometer graded index fibre are
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
62.5/125
85/125
50/125
100/140
All of these
67. The max number of PHYs pre FDDI are
a.
b.
c.
d.
200
500
1000
1800
e.
68.
a.
b.
c.
d.
69.
a.
The DAS stands for
Dual Access Station
Dual Attachment Station
Data Access Station
Data Attachment Station
SAS stands for
Single Access Station
b.
c.
d.
70.
Single Attachment Station
Single Attached Station
None of these
Which standard is applied in the LLC(Logical Link Control) layer
a.
b.
c.
d.
IEEE802.5
IEEE802.2
IEEE802.6
IEEE802.4
71.
a.
b.
c.
d.
72.
The MAC layer specifies how to handle
Synchronous data traffic
Asynchronous Data traffic
Both a & b
None of these
IEEE802.2 standard works on ______________ modes
a.
b.
c.
d.
Connectionless
Connection-oriented
Both a & b
None of these
73. If the received data is damaged or lost, the destination machine to retransmit the data known as
_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
SNAP
ARQ
LLC
MAC
74.
a.
b.
c.
d.
75.
a.
b.
c.
d.
76.
ARQ stands for
Array Repeat Request
Automatic Repeat Request
Automatic Request Repeat
Acknowledgement Repeat Request
SNAP stands for
Subnetwork Access Package
Subnetwork Access Packet
Structured Access Protocol
Subnetwork Access Protocol
LLC header contains _______ additional eight-bit address fields known as service access points or
SAPs to request SNAP service
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
77. PDU stands for
a. Packet Device Unit
b. Protocol Device Unit
c. Protocol Data Unit
d. Protocol Data Universal
78. IEEE802.3 Ethernet has become one of the most used ________
a.
b.
c.
d.
WAN media
LAN media
MAN media
None of these
79. Around 1984, DIX(a consortium of Digital, Intel and Xerox) and IEEE created standards for Ethernet,
which are popularly known as the ________
a. IEEE802.3
b. IEEE802.1
c. IEEE802.2
d. IEEE802.3
80. Which another group took the responsibility for developing medium access protocols
a.
b.
c.
d.
DLMAC
ARQ
LAN
SNAP
81.
a.
b.
c.
82.
a.
b.
c.
d.
83.
Ethernet is the ______ expensive high-speed LAN alternative
More
Least
None of these
Ethernet transmits and receives data at a speed of ___________
5 million bits per second
10 million bits per second
15 million bits per second
20 million bits per second
In Ethernet, Data is transferred between wiring closets using either a __________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Heavy coaxial cable
Thick net
Fibre optic cable
All of these
e.
84. Ethernet was first designed and installed by Xerox Corporation at its Palo Alto Research
Center(PARC) in the mid _________________
a.
b.
c.
d.
1960s
1970s
1980s
1965s
85. In 1980, ____________ came out with a joint specification which has become the de facto standard
a.
b.
DEC
Intel
c.
d.
Xerox
All of these
86. Ethernet frames travel at the data link layer of the OSI model and must be a minimum of ________
a.
b.
c.
d.
32bytes
64bytes
128bytes
256bytes
87. Ethernet frames travel at the data link layer of the OSI model and must be a maximum of ________
a.
b.
c.
d.
1515bytes
1516bytes
1517bytes
1518bytes
88.
a.
b.
c.
d.
89.
a.
b.
c.
d.
90.
FCS stands for
Frame Check System
Frame Check Sequence
Frame Cyclic Sequence
Frame Checksum Sequence
Ethernet IEEE802.3 frame description of each field in ___________________
Preamble (P)
Start Frame Delimiter (SFD)
Destination Address
All of these
The need for devising a mechanism to avoid such deadlocks, some of the important methods are
listed below:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
CSMA/CD
CSMA/CA
Token passing
Polling
All of these
91. _________ cable is used widely as a backbone technology
a.
b.
c.
d.
TV
Fibre
Fibre optic cable
None of these
e.
92. Which are used to connect LANs and LAN segments in a campus environment
a.
b.
Microwave
Infrared systems
c.
d.
Both a & b
None of these
93. The advantages of coaxial cable include high bandwidth in the range of ________ and more, better
error performance and lack of severe distance limitation
a.
b.
c.
d.
200MHz
300MHz
400MHz
500MHz
94. The disadvantage of coaxial cable have been mitigated to a _______ through the development of
new coaxial designs
a.
b.
c.
d.
Small extent
Large extent
Either large or small
None of these
e.
95. Which uses traditional thick baseband coaxial cable in a bus topology to connect multiple
computers, this single line transmission is called a Segment
a. 10Base2(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
b. 10Base5(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
c. 10Base2(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
d. 10Base5(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
96. A coaxial cable _______ in diameter known as thick coaxial cable is used as a transmission line
a.
b.
c.
d.
5mm
10mm
15mm
20mm
97. A transceiver is used to connect a ____________________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Coaxial cable
Terminals
Transmitter
Both a & b
98. A transceiver cable also referred to as an __________ cable and is used to connect a transceiver
and the NIC
a.
b.
c.
d.
ALU
AUI(Attachment Unit Interface)
LAN
MAN
99. In 10Base5(Thick Net/ Yellow Ethernet) the maximum length of this cable is ______, up to 100
transceivers can be connected to each segment
a.
b.
c.
d.
40 metres
45 metres
50 metres
55 metres
100.
In 10Base5(Thick Net/ Yellow Ethernet) the minimum allowable distance between transceivers
is _______
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.5 metres
2.5 metres
3.5 metres
4.5 metres
e.
101.
10Base stands for ___________
a. 10Mbps
b. Baseband transmission system
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
102.
The 5 of 10Base5 signify a maximum of _________ segment length
a.
b.
c.
d.
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
50- metre
500- metre
5000- metre
550- metre
The 5 of 10Base5 segment may be extended up to ______ by using repeaters
500 metres
1000 metres
1500 metres
2000 metres
104.
Which uses thinner baseband coaxial cable in a bus topology so that multiple computers can be
connected to a single transmission line
a. 10Base2(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
b. 10Base5(Thick Net/Yellow Ethernet)
c. 10Base2(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
d. 10Base5(Thin Net/Black Ethernet)
105.
In 10Base2(Thin Net/Black Ethernet) a coaxial cable of thinner gauge of _______ in diameter
a.
b.
c.
d.
5mm
10mm
15mm
20mm
106.
The thinner cable is less costly to acquire and deploy, although its performance is less in terms
of transmission distance because of its cost it is sometimes called ___________
a.
b.
Chaplet
Cheapnet
c.
None of these
107.
10Base2 signifies in the same manner as 10Base5 except 2 is signified here as _______
maximum segment length(actually 185 metres)
a.
b.
c.
d.
100 metres
200 metres
250 metres
300 metres
108.
BNC stands for
a. Bayonet Neil Connection
b. Bayonet Neil Connector
c. Bayonet Neil Connectionless
d. Bayonet Network Connection
109.
Which is used to connect a cable and terminals or terminators
a.
b.
c.
d.
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
BNC
T-connector
Both a & b
None of these
Only up to ______ per segment can be connected to a T-connector
10 nodes
20 nodes
30 nodes
40 nodes
The minimum allowable distance is ____ between consecutive connections
0.2 metres
0.5 metres
1.5 metres
2.5 metres
112.
UTP stands for
a. Universal Twisted Pair
b. Unshielded Twisted Pair
c. Universal Transmission Pair
d. Unique Twisted Pair
113.
STP stands for
a.
b.
c.
d.
114.
a.
System Twisted Pair
Shielded Twisted Pair
System Twisted Panel
Subscriber Twisted Protocol
UTP has been proved to perform at very high data rates _____ over short distances
50Mbps
b.
c.
d.
100Mbps
150Mbps
200Mbps
115.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10BASET(twisted pair Ethernet) uses _______________
Cat 3
Cat 4
5 UTP
All of these
116.
Ethernet Specifications
Transmission speed
Transmission
medium
Maximum segment
length
Maximum
node/segment
Minimum length
between node
Repeaters/Series
Maximum network
length
117.
a.
b.
c.
d.
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.
10Base5
10Mbps
Coaxial cable
10Base2
10Mbps
Coaxial cable
10BaseT
10Mbps
UTP Cat 3,4,5
500 metre
185 metre
100 metre
100
30
-
2.5 metre
2.5 metre
-
4
2500 metre
4
925 metre
4
500 metre
The two general types of token passing schemes are
Token ring
Token bus
Both a & b
None of these
A DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus) provides service over cable interface for
LAN
MAN
WAN
All of these
e.
119.
The DQDB supports _______ based on cell switching technology similar to Asynchronous
Transfer Mode(ATM)
a.
b.
c.
d.
120.
Data
Voice
Video transmission
All of these
The Asynchronous Transfer Mode(ATM) is an _________ for cell relay
a. ITU-TSS(International Telecommunication Union-Telecommunication Standardization Sector)
b. TIU-ESS
c. PTU-DSS
d. None of these
121.
The ATM networks are
a. Connection-less service
b. Connection oriented service
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
122.
The ATM cell has a fixed length of
a.
b.
c.
d.
123.
a.
b.
c.
d.
124.
a.
b.
c.
d.
125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
126.
a.
b.
c.
d.
127.
a.
b.
c.
d.
51bytes
62bytes
53bytes
63bytes
The cell is broken into the two main sections called
Header
Payload
Both a & b
None of these
Which sections of cell carries the actual information(voice, data or video)
Header
Payload(48bytes)
Both a & b
None of these
Which sections of cell is the addressing mechanism
Header(5bytes)
Payload(48bytes)
Both a & b
None of these
The disadvantage of DQDB is to have
Fluctuating data rate
High bandwidth
High susceptibility to error
Fixed bandwidth distribution
The frame format of DQDB are
Header
ST(Segment Type)
MID(Message Identifier)
Information
e.
f.
g.
LEN(Data Length)
CRC(Cyclic Redundancy Check)
All of these
128.
GPS stands for
a. Global Partition System
b. General Partition System
c. Global Positioning System
d. General Positioning System
129.
Which satellite communication involve a satellite relay station that is launched into a
geostationary, geosynchronous, or geostatic orbit
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
130.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Temporary
Contemporary
Permanent
None of these
The contemporary satellite communication launched into a
Geostationary orbit
Geosynchronous orbit
Geostatic orbit
All of these
131.
The contemporary satellite communication are called
a. Geostationary satellite
b. Geostatic satellite
c. Geosynchronous satellite
d. All of these
132.
In case of satellite communication two different frequencies are used as carrier frequency to
avoid interference b/w incoming and outgoing signals are
a. Uplink frequency
b. Downlink frequency
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
133.
Which frequency is used to transmit signal from the earth station to satellite
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
134.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Uplink frequency
Downlink frequency
Broadcast
None of these
Which frequency is used to transmit signal from the satellite to earth station
Uplink frequency
Downlink frequency
Broadcast
None of these
e.
135.
In which manner, satellite can serve a point-to-multipoint network requirement through a
single uplink station and multiple downlink stations
a.
b.
c.
d.
Uplink frequency
Downlink frequency
Broadcast
None of these
136.
The general properties of satellite communication______________
a. Each signal travel 36,000 km in each direction
b. The cost of satellite communication is quite high
c. Security must be imposed through encryption
d. Satellite provides increment in bandwidth
e. Satellite provides extensive error detection and correction capabilities
f. All of these
137.
TDMA stands for
a. Time Division Multiplexing Access
b. Time Dynamically Multiple Access
c. Time Division Multiple Access
d. Time Division Multiple Assigning
138.
The most commonly used satellite access schemes are
a. TDM/TDMA
b. Fixed assigned TDMA
c. Slotted ALOHA
d. Dynamic reservation
e. All of these
139.
The VSAT stands for
a. Very Small Accessing Terminal
b. Very Small Access Topology
c. Very Small Aperture Terminal
d. None of these
140.
The VSAT technology is based on the
a. Wired satellite technology
b. Wireless satellite technology
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
141.
The VSAT networks offer value added satellite based services capable of supporting the
a. Internet
b. Data
c. Satellite based video
d. Audio LAN
e. Voice or fax communication
f. Provide powerful, dependable, private and public network comm n solutions
g. All of these
142.
The VSAT system operates in two different bands named
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ku-band
C-band
Both a & b
None of these
e.
143.
a.
b.
c.
d.
144.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
145.
a.
b.
c.
d.
146.
a.
b.
c.
d.
147.
a.
b.
c.
d.
148.
a.
b.
c.
d.
149.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The VSAT system operates under C-band frequency are
5.925to 6.425 GHz
3.700to 4.200GHz
Both a & b
None of these
The VSAT system operates under Ext-Cbandfrequency are
6.725 to 7.025GHz
4.500 to 4.800GHz
Both a & b
None of these
The VSAT system operates under Ku-Band 1 frequency are
4.000 to 14.500GHz
10.950 to 11.700GHz
Both a & b
None of these
The Ku-band networks are commonly used in
Europe and North America
Asia and Africa
Latin America
Both a & b
The C-band networks are commonly used in
Europe and North America
Asia and Africa
Latin America
Both b & c
Which band of frequencies require the large VSAT antenna
Ku-band
C-band
Both a & b
None of these
Which band of frequencies require the smaller VSAT antenna
Ku-band
C-band
Both a & b
None of these
e.
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The components of VSAT network are
Master earth station
Remote earth station
Satellite
All of these
151.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The first component-master earth station is also known as
Central hub station
Central satellite
Backbone
All of these
152.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The master earth station has a large _______ meter antenna
3
6
5
4
153.
The hub earth station consists of
a. Radio frequency(RF)
b. Intermediate frequency(IF)
c. Base-band equipment
d. All of these
154.
The RF equipment consists of the following sub-systems are
a. Antenna
b. Low noise amplifier(LNA)
c. Down converter, up converter
d. High-power amplifier
e. All of these
155.
The IF and base-band equipment consists of
a. IF combiner/divider
b. Modulator and demodulator
c. Customer equipment interface
d. Processing equipments
e. All of these
156.
The customer equipment interface unit provides the interface to the
a. Customer host equipment
b. Protocol emulation
c. Both a & b
d. None of these
157.
The remote earth station of VSAT comprises of
a.
b.
c.
d.
Outdoor unit(ODU)
Indoor unit(IDU)
Inter-facility link(IFL)
All of these
158.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The outdoor unit is generally installed in the
Ground
Indoor unit
Both a & b
None of these
159.
The VSAT outdoor unit consists of
a. Standard 1.8 meter offset feed antenna
b. Solid-state amplifier(SSPA)
c. Low Noise Amplifier(LNA)
d. Feed horn
e. All of these
160.
The indoor unit functions as a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Amplifier
Modem
PCs
None of these
Data Communication And Networks 04
1.
The device used for splits data into frames and then combines frames into data in
frame relay is termed as
2.
3.
4.
a.
FRAD(Frame Relay And Disassembly)
b.
Framing
c.
Both a & b
d.
Slipping Window Protocol
The Error controls involves
a.
Sequencing of control frame
b.
Sending of control frame
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
During communication, a channel that is noisy may causes
a.
Loss of bits from a frame
b.
Flips of bits
c.
Complete disappearance of frames
d.
Introduction of new bits in the frame
e.
All of these
The data link layer encapsulates each packet in a frame by adding
a.
Header
b.
Trailer
c.
Both a & b
d.
5.
None of these
The Frame format of framing are
a.
DLCI-10bits
b.
EA-2location(First one is fixed at 0 and second at 1)
c.
DE-1 is set for the part that can be discarded first when congestion occurs
d.
Data size-vary up to 4096bytes
e.
All of these
6.
Which is a simple data link protocol based on certain ideal assumptions to explain
the working of the data link layer
7.
8.
a.
Stop ARQ
b.
Wait ARQ
c.
Go back-N ARQ
d.
Both a & b
The assumptions of Stop and Wait ARQ are as
a.
Infinite buffer size
b.
Half Duplex
c.
Does not produce any error
d.
Network layers are always ready
e.
All of these
The protocol based on the assumption are called
a.
Elementary data link protocol
b.
Data link protocol
c.
Sliding Window Protocol
d.
HDLC
9.
The basic objective of computer communication in a network environment is to
send an infinitely long message from the ____________
10.
11.
a.
Source node to the source node
b.
Destination node to the destination node
c.
Source node to the destination node
d.
None of these
In stop and wait protocol
a.
Sequence number are required
b.
Sequence number are not required
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The stop and wait protocol is
a.
easy to Implement
b.
Does not call for congestion
c.
Both a & b
d.
12.
None of these
The disadvantage of stop and wait protocol is
a.
Error free communication channel does not exist
b.
Acknowledgement may get lost
c.
Deadlock situation may occur
d.
All of these
13.
Which protocol enables the source machine to possess more than one outstanding
frame at a time by using buffers
14.
a.
Stop ARQ
b.
Wait ARQ
c.
Go back-N ARQ
d.
Both a & b
The Go back-N ARQ overcomes the problem of
a.
PAR
b.
PER
c.
PRA
d.
DAR
15.
Another important issue in the design if the data link is to control the rate of data
transmission between _____________
16.
17.
a.
Source and destination host
b.
Two source and destination host
c.
Three source and destination host
d.
None of these
Which one is the important protocol used by the data link layer
a.
Sliding protocol
b.
Sliding Window protocol
c.
Stop sliding approach
d.
None of these
The sender keeps a list o consecutive sequence numbers is known as
a.
Window
b.
Sending window
c.
Stop and wait ARQ
d.
Sliding window
18.
Which protocol is for data transmission and is bi-directional, used in the data link
layer that corresponds to layer 2 of OSI model
a.
Sending window
b.
Sliding window protocol
c.
Stop and wait ARQ
d.
Sliding window
19.
Sliding window protocol keeps record of frame sequences sent and acknowledged
when communication takes place between ____________
20.
a.
Users
b.
Two users
c.
More users
d.
None of these
Sliding window protocol is also used by most of the _______________________
a.
Connection oriented protocols
b.
Connection oriented network protocols
c.
Connection network protocols
d.
None of these
21.
Which is used by many users to establish their home PC to the Internet via a phoneline connection
a.
FTP
b.
PPP
c.
OSI
d.
PAR
e.
22.
Sliding window protocol works on _________ in which there is simultaneous twoway communication
a.
no duplex
b.
half duplex
c.
full duplex
d.
single duplex
e.
23.
Sliding window protocol makes use of two types of frames namely
a.
Data frame
b.
Acknowledgement frame
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
24.
Another improvement is done over this ‘stop and wait’ type protocol by use of
________
a.
Back
b.
Piggybacking
c.
Piggy
d.
None of these
25.
A technique in which acknowledgement is temporarily delayed and then hooked
onto next outgoing frame is known as
a.
26.
27.
28.
29.
b.
Back
c.
Piggybacking
d.
Piggy
e.
None of these
RTT stands for
a.
Robin time taken
b.
Round trip time
c.
Round time trip
d.
Round time trip
The variants of sliding window protocol are
a.
Go back n
b.
Selective repeat
c.
Selective reject
d.
All of these
The sliding window protocol employs ___________
a.
A wait approach
b.
A stop approach
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
HDLC is a __________ synchronous data link layer protocol
a.
Bit-oriented
b.
Byte-oriented
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
30.
31.
32.
HDLC provides
a.
Switched protocol
b.
Non- Switched protocol
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
HDLC is a superset of ___________
a.
ADCCP
b.
SDLC
c.
ISO
d.
OSI
HDLC also has a subset of ______________
a.
ADCCP
b.
SDLC
c.
ISO
d.
FRAD
33.
Which is another subset of HDLC that finds use in packet switched networks of ITUTS X.25
34.
35.
a.
ADCCP
b.
SDLC
c.
LAP-B(Link Access Protocol-Balanced)
d.
None of these
In HDLC three types of stations are specified by the data link layer
a.
Primary Station
b.
Secondary Station
c.
Combined Station
d.
All of these
HDLC works on three different types of configurations namely
a.
Balanced configurations
b.
Unbalanced configurations
c.
Symmetrical configurations
d.
All of these
36.
Frames of secondary station are known as _________ are sent only on request by
the primary station
a.
Response
b.
Responses frame
37.
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which is a unit of data transmission
a.
Frame
b.
Stop and wait ARQ
c.
HDLC
d.
Frame relay
38.
A configuration has at least two combined stations in which every station has equal
and complimentary responsibility known as __________________
39.
a.
Balanced configurations
b.
Unbalanced configurations
c.
Symmetrical configurations
d.
None of these
Balanced configurations find use only in the such cases as given below
a.
Operation: Full or half duplex
b.
Network: Point to Point
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
40.
A configuration has one primary station and at least one secondary station , and it
exists as one station exercises control over other stations known as ________
41.
a.
Balanced configurations
b.
Unbalanced configurations
c.
Symmetrical configurations
d.
None of these
Symmetrical configurations comprises of _________________________
a.
Two independent
b.
Unbalanced stations
c.
Connected point to point
d.
All of these
e.
42.
Logically, every station is considered as __________ stations
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
e.
43.
The protocol and data are totally independent, this property known as
____________
44.
45.
46.
a.
Transmission
b.
Transparency
c.
Transparent
d.
Transport
In HDLC, problems like _______________ do not occur
a.
Data loss
b.
Data duplication
c.
Data corruption
d.
All of these
How many modes of operations are defined for the HDLC protocol
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
Three modes of operations are defined for the HDLC protocol
a.
Normal Response Mode(NRM)
b.
Asynchronous Response Mode(ARM)
c.
Synchronous Balanced Mode(ABM)
d.
All of these
47.
In primary station initializes links for controlling the data flow between
___________
48.
49.
a.
Primary and secondary stations
b.
Error control
c.
Logical disconnection of the second stations
d.
All of these
The ABM mode is suitable only to __________ environment
a.
Point
b.
Point-to-point
c.
First-to-end-point
d.
None of these
In the HDLC protocol, frame consists of __________
a.
Three fields
b.
Four fields
c.
Five fields
d.
Six fields
e.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
A special eight-bit sequence ________ is referred to as a flag
a.
01111111
b.
01111110
c.
11101110
d.
11101110
In the HDLC protocol, every frame consists of __________ with a flag
a.
Starts
b.
End
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
A 8-bit address is used when the total number of stations exceeds _______
a.
64
b.
128
c.
256
d.
None of these
Data can be arbitrarily ______
a.
Long
b.
Empty
c.
Full
d.
Both a & b
The HDLC procedure uses a flag synchronous system, these are
a.
Bit order of transmission (information frame)
b.
Bit order of transmission (supervisor frame)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
FCS (frame check sequence) is a _______ sequence for error control
a.
4bit
b.
16bit
c.
32bit
d.
64bit
56.
57.
The disadvantage of SLIP are as follows
a.
No error check function is available
b.
Protocols other than IP cannot be used
c.
No function is available to authenticate link level connections
d.
No function is available to detect loops
e.
All of these
PPP has several advantages over non-standard protocol such as
a.
SLIP
b.
X.25
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
58.
PPP was designed to work with layer 3 network layer protocols including
___________
59.
60.
a.
IP
b.
IPX
c.
Apple talk
d.
All of these
PPP can connect computers using _________
a.
Serial cable, phone line
b.
Trunk line, cellular telephone
c.
Specialized radio links
d.
Fiber optic links
e.
All of these
Most dial-up access to Internet is accomplished by using _____
a.
HDLC
b.
PPP
c.
IP
d.
IPX
61.
RAS has an important role in the proliferation of Internet based services in the form
of _________________
a.
VoIP
b.
Data over IP
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
62.
Which is opening new challenges in the development of RAS where VoIP enabled
RAS are the need of time
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
a.
Voice convergence
b.
Data convergence
c.
Voice and data convergence
d.
None of these
Remote access is possible through an __________________
a.
Internet service provider
b.
Dial up connection through desktop
c.
Notebook over regular telephone lines
d.
Dedicated line
e.
All of these
A remote access server also known as ____________________
a.
Communication
b.
Communication server
c.
Layer
d.
None of these
RAS technology can be divided into two segments _________
a.
Enterprise
b.
Infrastructure
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
VPN stands for
a.
Virtual Public networking
b.
Virtual private networking
c.
Virtual package networking
d.
Virtual packet networking
PPP provides three principal components
a.
Encapsulating datagrams
b.
Establishment, configurations and testing
c.
Establishment and configurations
d.
All of these
PPP is able to function across any _______ interface
a.
DTE
b.
DCE
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
69.
PPP may include
a.
RS232C
b.
RS-423
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
70.
In PPP, the default maximum length of the information field is ________
a.
1000bytes
b.
1500bytes
c.
2000bytes
d.
2500bytes
e.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
The protocols that are differentiate PPP from HDLC are the
a.
Link Control Protocol(LCP)
b.
Network Control Protocol(NCP)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
For terminate PPP ,the four steps are
a.
Link establishment
b.
Link configuration negotiation
c.
Configuration acknowledgement frame
d.
Configuration terminates
e.
All of these
The LCP can terminates the link at any time is done by
a.
Request to the user
b.
Not Request to the user
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The termination of link may happen
a.
Due to physical event
b.
Due to logical event
c.
Due to window event
d.
None of these
The three classes of LCP frames are
a.
Link establishment frame
b.
Link termination frame
c.
Link maintenance frame
d.
All of these
76.
The NCP phase in PPP link connection process is used for establishing and
configuring different network layer protocols such as
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
a.
IP
b.
IPX
c.
AppleTalk
d.
All of these
In NCP, The link traffic consists of any possible combination of
a.
NCP
b.
LCP
c.
Network-layer protocol packets
d.
All of these
The IP control Protocol(IPCP) is the
a.
IP-specific LCP protocol
b.
IP-specific NCP protocol
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
If the calling peer has an IP address, it tells the
a.
Called peer What it is
b.
The called peer can assign the caller one from a pool of addresses
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
If the calling peer does not have an IP address, it tells the
a.
Called peer What it is
b.
The called peer can assign the caller one from a pool of addresses
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The authentication process involves transmission of password information between
a.
RADIUS server
b.
RAS(Remote Access Server)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
82.
The Authentication transaction used between a Remote access user and RAS can be
divided into two categories are
a.
PAP(Password Authentication Protocol)
b.
CHAP(Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
83.
The digest is a
a.
One-way encryption
b.
Two- way encryption
c.
Three- way encryption
d.
Four- way encryption
84.
The technology which is useful for creating Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) has
been developed by
a.
85.
86.
are
87.
88.
89.
Microsoft Corporation
b.
U.S. Robotics
c.
Several remote access vendor companies, known as PPTP forum
d.
All of these
PPTP means
a.
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol
b.
Point-to-Point Termination Protocol
c.
Private-to-Private termination protocol
d.
Private-to-Private Tunneling Protocol
The PPTP is used to ensure that message transmitted from one VPN node to another
a.
Not secure
b.
Secure
c.
Networks
d.
IPX
What is the extension of PPTP
a.
PPP
b.
RAS
c.
L2TP(Layer Two Tunneling Protocol)
d.
None of these
The two main components that make up L2TP are the
a.
L2TP Access Concentrator(LAC)
b.
L2TP Network Server(LNS)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
A user connects to NAS through
a.
ADSL
b.
Dialup POTS
c.
ISDN
d.
Other service
e.
All of these
90.
Which is a platform on which Internet service providers(ISP) and other service
providers enables their user to access the various internet based services
a.
RAS
b.
TCP
c.
ARQ
d.
SLIP
Data Communication And Networks 03
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
ISO stands for
a.
International Organization for Standardization
b.
Internet Organization for Standardization
c.
International Organization Standardization
d.
International for Organization Standardization
The main principle of layered architecture is
a.
Separation of responsibility
b.
Addition of responsibility
c.
Subtraction of responsibility
d.
None of these
Which type of network operating system in Novell Netware
a.
Client
b.
Server
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
How many layers a Novell Netware protocol stack uses
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
6
TCP/IP model is the _______ , which is used in the OSI model
a.
Oldest protocol
b.
Not so old protocol
c.
Newly established protocol
d.
None of these
In layered architecture, each layer is responsible for a ________ amount of work
a.
Infinite
b.
Finite
c.
Large
d.
None of these
7.
Layering the communications process means breaking down the communication
process into______ and _____ to handle interdependent categories
8.
a.
Smaller
b.
Easier
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The convention and rules used in such communications are collectively known as
a.
Peer
b.
Layer protocol
c.
Network
d.
None of these
9.
The entities comprising the corresponding layers on different computers are called
________ which communicate by using layer protocol
a.
Peer
b.
Layer protocol
c.
Network
d.
None of these
e.
10.
11.
OSI has two meanings refers to
a.
OSI basic reference model
b.
Protocol that are authorized by ISO
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Network is the term used for a group of
a.
protocols
b.
layers
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
12.
The groups of layers provides information to allows _________, which correctly
obeys the appropriate protocol
a.
Hardware implementation
b.
Software implementation
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
13.
Which are never form a part of the architecture because they are not visible from
the outside
a.
Interface specification
b.
Implementation details
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
14.
The information exchanged between two computers is physically carried by means
of _________ with the help of certain coding method
15.
16.
a.
Electronics signal
b.
Electrical signal
c.
Physical signal
d.
Physical circuits
For two computers to reliably exchange data, they must have a
a.
compatible implementation of encoding
b.
interpreting data carrying electrical signals
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Transmission media deals with the types of medium used , which is dictated by the
a.
Desirable bandwidth
b.
Immunity to noise
c.
Attenuation properties
d.
All of these
e.
17.
The data communication process allocates memory resources, commonly known
as___________ for the sake of transmission and reception of data
a.
Communication buffers
b.
Communication media
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
omputer must be capable of distinguishing between information
Carrying signal and mere noise
19.
20.
21.
a.
Error control
b.
Logical channels
c.
Routing
d.
All of these
In error control, this corruption could be in the form of ________________
a.
Noise
b.
Electromagnetic interference
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Protocols should provide at least ______ logical channels per connection
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
Data exchange can take place between any _____ workstations
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
22.
Depending on the nature of the involved application in layered architecture, the
dialog type may be
23.
24.
the
a.
Duplex
b.
Half duplex
c.
Simplex mode
d.
All of these
The session recovery can be achieved by providing a
a.
Checkpoint
b.
Check mechanism
c.
Character encoding
d.
Terminal emulation
The check pointing circumvent session recovery requirement by retransmitting only
a.
Affected files
b.
Saving time
c.
Bandwidth
d.
All of these
e.
25.
Some good examples of presentation problems are the existing
incompatibilities between the__________ standard of character encoding
a.
ASCII
b.
EBCDIC
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
26.
27.
28.
This is the entities in the same layers but on different computers
a.
Peer entities
b.
Entities
c.
Service provider
d.
SAP
Which function of the layer provides certain services
a.
Peer entities
b.
Entities
c.
Service provider
d.
SAP
Which function of the layer uses certain services
a.
Peer entities
b.
Entities
c.
Service provider
d.
Service user
29.
Which is the point from where services can be accessed .each point is the unique
address
a.
Peer entities
b.
Entities
c.
Service provider
d.
SAP
30. Which are the active elements such as processes, IO chips in every layers
31.
32.
a.
Peer entities
b.
Entities
c.
Service provider
d.
SAP
Which is the reliable connectionless service with acknowledgement
a.
Registered E-mail
b.
Junk E-mail
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which is the unreliable connectionless service without acknowledgement
a.
Registered E-mail
b.
Junk E-mail
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
33.
In which model, Request-reply command is example of connectionless service
a.
Client-server model
b.
User model
c.
Server model
d.
None of these
34.
Which service is specified by a set of primitives available to a service user
to interact with the service provider
35.
a.
connection-oriented
b.
connectionless
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which are parameters to define conditions
a.
Protocol
b.
Primitives
c.
Confirmed service
d.
SAP
36.
A confirmed services is defined with a
a.
Request
b.
Confirm
c.
Response
d.
Indication
e.
Primitives
f.
All of these
g.
37.
38.
The Service primitives are the part of
a.
Protocol
b.
Primitives
c.
Confirmed service
d.
SAP
An unconfirmed is defined with a
a.
Request
b.
Indication
c.
Confirm
d.
Response
e.
Both a & b
f.
All of these
39.
Which are the distinct concepts and are important to release connections between
sender and receiver
a.
Services
b.
Protocol
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
40.
41.
Which is provided to the upper layer by an immediate lower layer
a.
Protocol to service
b.
Service to protocol
c.
Service primitives
d.
None of these
The characteristic of each layer are as
a.
Name
b.
Content
c.
Function
d.
Total no of layers depend on type of network
e.
All of these
f.
42.
The basic function of each single layer is to provides service to the
a.
Layer of the top
b.
Layer of the bottom
c.
Layer above it
d.
Layer below it
43.
________ the protocol can make communication between the two either difficult or
impossible
44.
45.
a.
Breaching
b.
Branching
c.
Broaching
d.
Brunching
The network architecture can be termed as a
a.
Set of layers
b.
Set of protocols
c.
Set of machines
d.
Both a & b
The hectic task of designing the whole network can be distributed in the
a.
Smaller
b.
Easier
c.
Simpler design problems
d.
All of these
46.
Which is the computers from the same manufacturer it was not possible to run
both_______ solution and _______ simultaneously
a.
IBM
b.
DEC
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
47.
ISO-OSI reference model these could only be run one at a time by the
end__________
48.
a.
1969s
b.
1971s
c.
1970s
d.
1972s
Which is a reliable connection-oriented service has two subparts
a.
Message sequences
b.
Byte streams
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
49.
Which is similar to postal system where every message contains the complete
destination address and is mapped through the system, free of all the others
a.
Connection-oriented services
b.
Connectionless services
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
50.
The various types of services provided by the interface to the layers above them
are listed as follows
51.
52.
a.
Connection-oriented services
b.
Connectionless services
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The connectionless services can be further sub-divided into many categories
a.
Unreliable datagram
b.
Acknowledged datagram
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Unreliable connectionless service can be also termed as
a.
Datagram service
b.
Data service
c.
Byte stream service
d.
None of these
53.
By the end of _________, the Open System Interconnection model was developed
by the International Organization for Standardization to break the barrier
54.
55.
56.
a.
1980
b.
1970
c.
1990
d.
1960
The first and the lowest layer is called the ___________________________
a.
Physical layer
b.
Supporting rules for low-level signaling
c.
Hardware implementation
d.
All of these
The seventh and the highest layer is the application layer that deals with the
a.
User interface
b.
Applications
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In moving from layer one to layer seven, the level of abstraction ________
a.
Increases
b.
Decreases
c.
May be increases or decreases
d.
None of these
e.
57.
58.
The first layer deals with the actual ____________
a.
Hardware of networks
b.
The specific methods of sending bits from one device to another
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The second layer also deals with ________________
a.
Signaling
b.
Hardware
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
59.
The transport layer is the one, which links the communication process to this
_________________
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
a.
Hardware-oriented protocol
b.
Software-oriented protocol
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which is collectively known as a protocol data unit(PDU)
a.
Data
b.
Header
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The seventh layer does not deal with __________ concepts very much
a.
Hardware
b.
Even operating system
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The basic philosophy of the seven-layer model is that each layer may be defined
a.
Dependently of every other layer
b.
Independently of every other layer
c.
Dependent on same layer
d.
None of these
The seven layers of the OSI model are categorized into ________ groupings
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
The lower layers are layers
a.
1,2,3
b.
1,2,3,4
c.
1,2,3,4,5
d.
2,3,4,5,6
The upper layers are layers
a.
5,6
b.
5,7
c.
6,7
d.
5,6,7
66.
The lower layers are implemented by using ______________ with the incidence of
hardware ‘reducing’ to software from layer 1 to layer 4
a.
Software
b.
Hardware
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
67.
68.
The upper layers are not expected to know anything about ____________
a.
Networking
b.
Network addresses
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The bottom four layers take the responsibility of _________________
a.
Networking
b.
Network addresses
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
69.
The OSI interface is a process of communication between adjacent layers in which
data is passed between
70.
a.
Layer n
b.
Layer n-1
c.
Layer n+1
d.
All of these
The layers 3 and 4 interface are used by protocol to _____________
a.
Pass control
b.
Pass Data information
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
71.
This refers to communication up and down the protocol stack every time any data is
sent received across the network
a.
Vertical communication
b.
Horizontal communication
c.
Protocols
d.
OSI interfaces
72.
Which is a communication process running at a particular layer on one host machine
can accomplish logical communication with a similar process running at the same layer on
another host machine
a.
Vertical communication
b.
Horizontal communication
c.
Protocols
d.
OSI interfaces
73.
Which OSI model supports the interconnection of different implementations of
various autonomous layers
a.
Modularity
b.
Inter-layer interactions
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
74.
The functions of the OSI layer model are
1
2
Layers
Physical
Data link
3
Network
4
Transport
5
Session
Functions
It moves bits between devices by using media
It tends to assemble packets into bytes and bytes into frames
and provides access to media by using MAC address
It is responsible for providing logical addressing which
routers use for path determination and routing
It provides reliable or unreliable delivery and performs error
correction before retransmit. It is also responsible for endto-end connection
It aims to keep different applications data separately and
6
Presentation
7
Application
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
provides dialog control
It provides rules to present data, handle processing like
encryption, compression and translation services
It aims to provide a user interface like file, print, message,
database and application services
A number of transmission media exist, some of them are
a.
Open wire circuits
b.
Twisted pair cables
c.
Coaxial cables
d.
Fiber optic cables
e.
Wireless
f.
All of these
The physical layer specifies the representation of each bit as a
a.
Voltage
b.
Current
c.
Phase or frequency
d.
All of these
The physical layer uses four types of bit signaling approaches these are
a.
RZ(return to zero) by using pulse signaling
b.
NRZ(non return to zero) transmission by using level signaling
c.
Manchester encoding by using phase signaling
d.
NRZ-I(non return to zero-invertive) by using bandwidth
e.
All of these
What are the two types of systems that are used to provide timing signal
a.
Asynchronous communications
b.
Synchronous communications
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The timing signal identifies the boundaries between the
a.
Bytes
b.
Bits
c.
Gigabyte
d.
Megabyte
80.
Which bit stream is to be transmitted with the objective that when the sending side
sends _____ bit
a.
1
b.
0
c.
1,0
d.
None of these
81.
Which bit stream is to be transmitted with the objective that when the received by
the receiving side as 1 bit, not as ___ bit
a.
1
b.
0
c.
1,0
d.
None of these
82.
It defines the electrical and mechanical aspects of interfacing to a physical medium
for transmitting data ________________________________
83.
a.
As well as setting up
b.
Maintaining
c.
Disconnecting physical links
d.
All of these
The functions of the physical layer are
a.
Describing hardware specifications
b.
Encoding and signaling
c.
Data transmission and reception
d.
All of these
84.
The physical layer supports various encoding and signaling functions to convert
data, from bit stream to frame and vice versa, to send across the network
85.
86.
a.
Describing hardware specifications
b.
Encoding and signaling
c.
Data transmission and reception
d.
None of these
What is an example of a physical layer definition
a.
RS-323C/D
b.
RS-232C/D
c.
RS-233C/D
d.
RS-322C/D
Examples of data link layers are
a.
HDLC
b.
Ethernet
c.
Both a & b
d.
87.
88.
as
89.
90.
91.
None of these
The functions of the data link layer are
a.
Logical Link control(LLC)
b.
Media Access Control(MAC)
c.
Data framing
d.
Addressing
e.
Error detection and handling
f.
All of these
The data link layer also deals with the issue of addressing what is popularly known
a.
Hardware
b.
Address
c.
MAC address
d.
All of these
Some of the examples of MAC are
a.
CSMA/CD for Ethernet
b.
Token passing for the Token Ring network
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The functions of the Network layer are
a.
Logical addressing
b.
Routing
c.
Datagram encapsulation
d.
Fragmentation and reassembly
e.
All of these
The routing of network layer may be
a.
Static
b.
Dynamic
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
92.
The network layer uses which service for delivering packets across the network
a.
Connection-oriented
b.
Connectionless service
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
93.
In broadcast network ,the routing problem is ________, so the network layer is
often thin or even nonexistent
a.
Complex
b.
Simple
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
94.
The transport layer provides the necessary function to enable communication
between _____________ processes on different computers
a.
Software application
b.
Hardware application
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
95.
The transport layer accepts data from the ______ and splits it up into smaller units
so that it can be passed to the network layer
96.
97.
a.
Network layer
b.
Session layer
c.
Presentation layer
d.
Physical layer
Which protocol uses the transport layer
a.
FTP
b.
TFTP
c.
HTTP
d.
TCP/IP
The functions of transport layer are
a.
Process-level addressing
b.
Multiplexing and de-multiplexing
c.
Segmentation, packaging and reassembly
d.
Connection establishment , management and termination
e.
Acknowledgements and retransmission
f.
Flow control
g.
All of these
98.
The session layer is responsible for _______________ the dialogues between
communicating applications
a.
Establishing
b.
Maintaining
c.
Arbitrating
d.
All of these
e.
99. The session layer provides enhanced useful services in some applications such as
100.
a.
Remote login
b.
Remote file transfer
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Some examples of APIs are
a.
NetBIOS
b.
TCP/IP sockets
c.
Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs)
d.
All of these
101.
Which enable an application to complete specified high level communications over
the network successfully and easily with the help of a standardized set of services
a.
RPCs
b.
APIs
c.
d.
102.
103.
TCP/IP
All of these
The data link layer is also known as
a.
Link layer
b.
Data layer
c.
Open layer
d.
None of these
Some example of data link layers are
a.
HDLC
b.
Ethernet
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
104.
Which provides link to many wireless and wired local area networking (LAN) like
Ethernet ,FDDI, IEEE802.11 etc to function
105.
106.
a.
Physical layer
b.
Data link layer
c.
Transport layer
d.
Presentation layer
Which layer is responsible for the reliable transfer of data across the physical link
a.
Physical layer
b.
Data link layer
c.
Transport layer
d.
Presentation layer
The responsibility of data link layer include functions such as
a.
Data flow control
b.
Breaking the input data
c.
Frame formatting
d.
Transmission of the frame sequence
e.
Error detection
f.
Link management
g.
All of these
107.
Which layer performs functions relative to the syntax and semantics of the
information transmitted
108.
a.
Physical layer
b.
Data link layer
c.
Transport layer
d.
Presentation layer
The types of data handling issue that presentation layer provides are as follows
a.
Translation
b.
Compression
c.
Encryption
d.
All of these
109.
In translation, different types of computers like _____________in an Inter-network
have many distinct characteristics and represent data in different ways
a.
PCs
110.
111.
112.
113.
b.
Macintoshes
c.
UNIX systems
d.
AS/400 servers
e.
All of these
Which layer allows the user to use the network
a.
Physical layer
b.
Data link layer
c.
Application layer
d.
Presentation layer
The application layer provides network-based services to the user are
a.
Distributed database
b.
Electronic mail
c.
Resource sharing
d.
File transfer
e.
Remote file access
f.
Network management
g.
All of these
Which layer provides user interface to communicate with a computer
a.
Physical layer
b.
Application layer
c.
Transport layer
d.
Presentation layer
The most popular application layer protocols are
a.
HTTP, FTP
b.
SMTP, DHCP
c.
NFS, Telnet
d.
SNMP, POP3
e.
NNTP, IRC
f.
All of these
114.
Which model is considered the oldest protocol of all computer networks like the
ARPANET and its successor, the Internet
a.
TCP/IP Reference model
b.
SMTP model
c.
Telnet model
d.
NNTP model
e.
115.
Most users rely on ______ for the purpose of file transfers, electronic mail(e-mail)
and remote login services
a.
TCP/IP
b.
SMTP
c.
DHCP
d.
NFS
e.
116.
117.
118.
119.
How many layers TCP/IP model has
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
TCP/IP layer specifies the __________ layer
a.
Physical layer
b.
Application layer
c.
Transport layer
d.
Presentation layer
TCP/IP defines a four-layer model consisting of the
a.
Internet layer
b.
Transport layer
c.
Application layer
d.
Network interface layer
e.
All of these
TCP/IP architecture is based on the three sets of interdependent processes are
a.
Application-specific processes
b.
Host-specific processes
c.
Network-specific processes
d.
All of these
120.
Which TCP/IP standards define protocols for TCP/IP networks for layer two
implementation to fill the gap between the network layer and the physical layer
a.
Serial Line Internet Protocol(SLIP)
121.
122.
123.
124.
b.
Point-to-Point Protocol(PPP)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The Internet layer of the TCP/IP matches with the which layer of the OSI model
a.
Network layer
b.
Physical layer
c.
Session layer
d.
Data link layer
The Packet format and protocol at internet layer is called
a.
Network protocol
b.
Internet protocol
c.
OSI protocol
d.
None of these
Which protocols are found in a Internet Layer of TCP/IP model
a.
IP
b.
ICMP
c.
RIP
d.
BGP
e.
All of these
Which protocols are found in a Network interface Layer of TCP/IP model
a.
Ethernet
b.
FDDI
c.
Token Ring
d.
All of these
e.
125.
126.
Which protocols are found in a Transport Layer of TCP/IP model
a.
TCP
b.
UDP
c.
FDDI
d.
Both a & b
Which protocols are found in a Application Layer of TCP/IP model
a.
FTP
b.
TFTP
127.
c.
SMTP
d.
NFS
e.
TELNET
f.
SNMP
g.
All of these
h.
None of these
The UDP Protocols are
a.
Reliable
b.
Connection-oriented
c.
Connectionless
d.
Unreliable
i. Both a & b
ii. Both c & d
iii. None of these
128.
129.
130.
Which protocols are found in the application layer
a.
Numerous
b.
UDP
c.
TCP
d.
IP
Which other function include __________________and identification of port number
a.
Sequence control
b.
Error recovery and control
c.
Flow control
d.
All of these
TCP layer is a
a.
Service
b.
Connection type service
c.
Connectionless type service
d.
None of these
131.
The basic functions of application layer are _____________ that wish to
communicate with one another
a.
To identify the source machine
b.
To identify the destination machine
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
132.
133.
The Internet has definite standards for FTP that connects to a
a.
Remote machine
b.
Sends an arbitrary file
c.
Fetches an arbitrary file
d.
All of these
FTP addresses the
a.
Issues of authentication
b.
Listing of directory contents
c.
ASCII or binary files
d.
All of these
134.
Another aspect of the application layer is to __________ ,this application is called
telnet
135.
a.
Login remotely
b.
Logout
c.
Remotely
d.
None of these
TCP connection with another location and then pass keystrokes from the _______
a.
Remote host to local host
b.
Local host to remote host
c.
remote host to remote host
d.
Local host to Local host
136.
Similarly, there are many other applications such as NNTP enabling communication
between a ___________
137.
a.
News server
b.
News client
c.
Web(HTTP)-based protocol for communication on the WWW
d.
All of these
FTP is among the oldest protocols used in the_____
a.
Internet
b.
Web
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
138.
Which is a file server access protocol that enables a user to transfer files between
two hosts
a.
SMTP
b.
TCP
c.
FTP
d.
NNTP
139.
FTP is widely available on almost all-browsers indicating that all computing
platforms, including _________
140.
a.
DOS
b.
OS/2
c.
UNIX and up to the mainframe level have this service available
d.
All of these
Which dose not require any familiarity with the remote operating system
a.
SMTP
b.
TCP
c.
FTP
d.
NNTP
e.
141.
142.
Modern FTP servers known as _______
a.
TCPD
b.
FTPD
c.
SMTD
d.
CTPD
FTPD support two different TCP connections namely_______
a.
Control connection
b.
Data connection
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
143.
144.
Which is invoked for the entire duration of transfer of file or FTP session
a.
Control connection
b.
Data connection
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which connection is establish as and when it is required
a.
Control connection
b.
Data connection
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
145.
The main function of data connection is to facilitate transfer of file and directory
to and from the________
146.
a.
Clients at the server’s request
b.
Clients at the client’s request
c.
Server at the server’s request
d.
Server at the client’s request
TFTP stands for
a.
Transfer file trivial protocol
b.
Transfer file transfer protocol
c.
Trivial file trivial protocol
d.
Trivial file transfer protocol
147.
Which is also an internet service intended for the transfer of files from one
computer to another over a network
148.
149.
150.
a.
TFTP
b.
FTP
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
TFTP does not provide _____________
a.
Password protection
b.
User directory capability
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
TFTP is simpler than the ___________ but less capable
a.
FTP
b.
SMTP
c.
NNTP
d.
FTPD
Which is one of the most popular network services
a.
Electronic message
b.
Electronic mail
c.
Electric mail
d.
None of these
e.
151.
152.
153.
Electronic mail works like an
a.
Post mail
b.
Postal mail
c.
Post card
d.
None of these
E-mail has two parts namely
a.
User agent
b.
Message Transfer agent
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
MTA stands for
a.
Message Transmission Agent
b.
Machine Transfer Agent
c.
Message Transfer Agent
d.
Mobile Transfer Agent
154.
Which is a software package that transports the message created by a user to
destination mailboxes possibly on remote machines
155.
a.
User agent
b.
MTA
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The MTA has to perform more complex jobs than other applications
a.
MTA distinguishes between local and remote recipients
b.
MTA needs to deliver copies of a message to several machines
c.
MTA allows mixing of text, voice appending documents, files and video in a
message
d.
MTA handles temporary failures when a destination machine is temporarily
unavailable
e.
156.
157.
All of these
In MTA, e-mail address consist of the following components
a.
Mailbox names
b.
Symbolic names
c.
Group names(mail exploders)
d.
All of these
Which is the user interface to the mail system
158.
a.
User agent
b.
MTA
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which refers to the name of a service rather than a specific user
a.
Mailbox names
b.
Symbolic names
c.
Group names(mail exploders)
d.
All of these
159.
Which refers to an alias for a set of recipients, that consults an internal database to
specify the mail addresses
a.
Mailbox names
b.
Symbolic names
c.
Group names(mail exploders)
d.
All of these
160.
There are a number of e-mail packages available. Some of them are free like
____________________, while some are paid
a.
Google mail
b.
Yahoo mail
c.
Hotmail
d.
All of these
161.
In MTA, all of them are also not alike but most of the e-mail software have common
basic functionality these are
162.
a.
Send and receive mail messages
b.
Save your messages in a file
c.
Print mail messages
d.
Forward a mail message to other recipients
e.
Reply to mail messages
f.
Attach a file to a mail message
g.
All of these
E-mail address has three parts
a.
A user identity or name
b.
An ‘at’ sign(@)
c.
The domain name, which basically specifies the address of the user’s mail
server
d.
163.
All of these
SMTP is the ________ standard for an electronic mail service provider
a.
dee facto
b.
de facto
164.
165.
166.
167.
168.
c.
de fact
d.
none of these
SMTP uses ______ transport for the reliably delivery of mail messages
a.
FTP
b.
TCP
c.
MTA
d.
FTPD
The SMTP server also allows _____
a.
NNTP
b.
Telnet service
c.
FTPD
d.
none of these
SMTP can be considered as a complement of ______
a.
UUDP
b.
UUCP
c.
UCCP
d.
UCPD
SMTP commands consist of human-readable __________
a.
EBCDIC strings
b.
ASCII strings
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
MIME stands for
a.
Multipurpose Internet Machine Extensions
b.
Multiprogramming Internet Machine Extensions
c.
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
d.
Multipurpose Internet Mail Exchange
169.
________ standards were used to encode binary files for transfer through SMTP,
which has now become a standard with its varied version
a.
FTPD
b.
FTP
c.
MIME
d.
UUCP
e.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
POP3 stands for
a.
Postal Office Protocol
b.
Post Office Protocol
c.
Post Office Program
d.
Posting of Protocol
IMAP stands for
a.
Internet Machine Access Protocol
b.
Internet Message Access Protocol
c.
Internet Multipurpose Access Protocol
d.
Inkjet Message Access Protocol
Which one is a push kind of protocol
a.
SMTP
b.
POP3
c.
IMAP
d.
All of these
Which one is a pull kind of protocol
a.
SMTP
b.
POP3
c.
IMAP
d.
Both b & c
Telnet can also be used to connect other ports serving as _____________
a.
User-defined services
b.
Well-known services
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
175.
Telnet works as a _____________ model where it establishes a virtual connection
by using the TCP transport protocol
a.
User-defined
b.
Well-known
c.
Client-server
d.
All of these
e.
176.
The Telnet program requires two arguments
a.
The name of a computer on which the server runs
177.
b.
The protocol port number of the server
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
______________ to support centralized terminal management can support
a.
Transfer binary data
b.
Support byte macros
c.
Emulate graphics terminals
d.
Convey information
e.
All of these
178.
Telnet service is unique in the manner that is ___________ like other TCP/IP
services
179.
a.
Platform-specific
b.
Not platform-specific
c.
Platform-service
d.
None of these
0Some of the Telnet commands are as follows
Interrupt Process(IP)
Abort output(AO)
Are You there(AYT)
Erase character(EC)
Erase line(EL)
Synchronize
Break
It terminates the running program
It refers to discarding of any buffered output
This command allows a client to send an out-of-band query to
verify whether the remote end is still there
It refers to the erasing of the previous character
It deletes the entire current line
It clears the data path to the remote party
It is equivalent to the BREAK or ATTENTION key
180.
Novell NetWare is a ___________ network operating system that was created by
Novell, Inc
181.
182.
a.
Client type
b.
Server type
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Novell NetWare uses a protocol stack having _____
a.
3 layers
b.
4 layers
c.
5 layers
d.
6 layers
IPX stands for
a.
Internet Packet Exchange
b.
Inter-network Packet Exchange
c.
Inter-network Protocol Exchange
d.
Internet Package Exchange
183.
_______ is a networking protocol used by the Novell NetWare operating systems for
performing connectionless communication
184.
185.
a.
NVT
b.
IPX
c.
IP
d.
FTP
The rise 1985 saw the rise of Novell NetWare when _____________ were launched
a.
NetWare 286 2.0a
b.
Intel 80,286 16-bit processor
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Two methods of operation were supported by NetWare 286 2.x namely are
a.
Dedicated
b.
Non-dedicated
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
186.
Beginning with NetWare 3.x, assistance for _____ protected mode was included,
removing the 16MB memory limit of NetWare 286
a.
16-bit
b.
32-bit
c.
64-bit
d.
128-bit
187.
Which managed all functions and was activated at startup or at the time of
requirement
188.
a.
NLM(NetWare Loadable Module)
b.
FTP
c.
SMTP
d.
FTPD
A set of protocols used in the communication network can be termed as
a.
Protocol
b.
Protocol stack
c.
Protocol layer
d.
None of these
e.
189.
According to RFC 1122 the TCP/IP consists of ________
a.
2 layers
b.
3 layers
c.
4 layers
d.
5 layers
e.
190.
The lowest layers of the TCP/IP establishes communication with
a.
Upper layer
b.
Physical media
c.
Next layer
d.
Protocol
191.
When data travels downwards from upper the layer in TCP/IP, each upper layer
attaches a
a.
Footer
b.
Header
c.
Standard
d.
None of these
e.
192.
After the transmission of data in bit form to another machine it travels upward,
____________ the header till data reaches the application layer
a.
Stripping in
b.
Stripping off
c.
Tackling off
d.
Tackling in
e.
193.
194.
In which year, Netware directory service were added to the Netware version 4
a.
1993
b.
1996
c.
1998
d.
2001
In which year. Version 4.11 was launched by Novell
195.
196.
a.
1993
b.
1996
c.
1998
d.
2001
In which year, NetWare5 was launched in October
a.
1993
b.
1996
c.
1998
d.
2001
In which year, NetWare6 was launched
a.
1993
b.
1996
c.
1998
d.
2001
e.
197.
Every protocol with a certain from of contact is known as
a.
Protocol stack
b.
Protocol suite
c.
Stack
d.
Suite
198.
Which is a file server access protocol that enables a user to transfer file between
two hosts, across the network or Internet using TCP
a.
FTPD
b.
FTP
c.
Telnet
d.
PPP
199.
Which is a remote terminal protocol that enables a user at one location to
establish a TCP connection with another location
a.
FTPD
b.
FTP
c.
Telnet
d.
PPP
200.
Which protocol is used by network computers operating system for sending error
messages
a.
b.
c.
d.
FTPD
FTP
Telnet
ICMP
Data Communication And Networks 02
1.
A computer network permits sharing of
a.
Resources
b.
Information
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
2.
The first operational computer network in the world was the _________ for the
United States Department of Defense
a.
ARPANET
b.
ERNET
c.
SKYNET
d.
DARPANET
e.
3.
ATM stands for
a.
Automatic taller machine
b.
Automated teller machine
c.
Automatic transfer machine
d.
Automated transfer machine
4.
_______ is the technology that connects the machines and people within a site in a
small area
a.
LAN
b.
MAN
c.
WAN
d.
None of these
5.
______ is a network that covers geographic areas that are larger, such as districts
or cities
a.
LAN
b.
MAN
c.
WAN
d.
None of these
e.
6.
7.
______ is a network that this technology connects sites that are in diverse locations
a.
LAN
b.
MAN
c.
WAN
d.
None of these
______ is a collection of point-to-point links that may form a circle
a.
LAN
b.
MAN
c.
WAN
d.
Ring topology
8.
______ refers to tone signals used for various control purposes via the telephone
network
9.
10.
a.
SMS
b.
DTMF
c.
GSM
d.
None of these
LAN is a network that is restricted to a relatively
a.
Small area
b.
Large area
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The components used by LANs can be categorized into
a.
Hardware
b.
Cabling protocols
c.
Standards
d.
All of these
e.
11.
The various LAN protocols are
a.
Ethernet
b.
Token ring
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
12.
The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers established a project named
IEEE project 802 during the year _____
13.
14.
____
15.
a.
1990
b.
1970
c.
1980
d.
1960
In 1985, the committee issued a set of ___ standards
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
ISO revised these standards and reintroduced them as ISO 8802 standards during
a.
1977
b.
1987
c.
1997
d.
1999
The following are the important standards proposed by IEEE
a.
IEEE 802.1- overview and relationship among the various IEEE standards
b.
IEEE 802.3 or CSMA/CD bus
c.
IEEE 802.4 or token bus
d.
IEEE 802.5 or token ring
e.
IEEE 802.6 or MAN protocol
f.
All of these
16.
When compared with the OSI reference model, the IEEE standard contains the
following layers:
a.
Physical layer
b.
Medium access control(MAC) equivalent to the lower part of the OSI data
link layer
c.
Logical link layer(LAC) equivalent to the upper part of the data link layer
d.
Network layer, the OSI network layer, that performs some of the higher
order layer functions
e.
17.
All of these
The 802.2 compatible interfaces provide two major types of services, which are
a.
Unacknowledged
b.
Connectionless
18.
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The ________ follows the ring topology
a.
IBM of LAN
b.
LAN of IBM
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
19.
In a token ring, the stations are connected to the __________
a.
Logical ring
b.
Physical ring
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
20.
21.
22.
23.
A _________ preamble is used to synchronize the receiver’s clock
a.
Four-byte
b.
Three-byte
c.
Two-byte
d.
One-byte
Start of frame and end of frame are used to _______ the frame boundaries
a.
Mark
b.
Modify
c.
Delete
d.
Find
Frame control is also used to specify the ________
a.
Frame technique
b.
Frame type
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The destination address and source address field is similar to
a.
IEEE 802.3 or CSMA/CD bus
b.
IEEE 802.4 or token bus
c.
IEEE 802.5 or token ring
d.
IEEE 802.6 or MAN protocol
24.
25.
26.
27.
Info field is used to ________
a.
Send messages
b.
Send data
c.
Delete data
d.
Create data
The maximum length of this field is _______ when the address is _______
a.
8182 & 2 bits
b.
8182 & 2 bytes
c.
8182 & 4 bits
d.
8182 & 4 bytes
The maximum length of this field is _______ when the address is _______
a.
8174 bytes & 6 bits
b.
8174 bytes & 6 bytes
c.
8174 bytes & 8 bytes
d.
8174 bits & 6 bytes
Check sum is used for
a.
Error correction
b.
Error detection
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
28.
29.
Solicit-successor frame contains the address of the
a.
Sending station
b.
Successor
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Government agencies and local libraries often use a MAN to connect to private
a.
Industries
b.
Citizens
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
30.
The geographical limit of a MAN may
31.
32.
33.
34.
a.
Not span a city
b.
Span a city
c.
Either span or not
d.
None of these
In MAN, different LANs are connected through a local _______
a.
Telephone exchange
b.
Computer wires
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Some of the widely used protocols for MAN are
a.
RS-232
b.
X.25
c.
Frame relay
d.
Asynchronous transfer mode(ATM)
e.
ISDN
f.
OC-3lines(155 Mbps)
g.
ADSL(asymmetric digital subscriber line)
h.
All of the above
MAN stands for
a.
Machine area network
b.
Metropolitan area network
c.
Metropolitan asynchronous network
d.
Machine asynchronous network
WAN technologies function at the lower three layers of the OSI reference model
a.
Physical layer
b.
Data link layer
c.
Network layer
d.
All of these
e.
35.
WAN also uses switching technology provided by ____________
a.
Local exchange
b.
Long distance carrier
c.
Both a & b
d.
Small distance carrier
36.
Packet switching technologies such as _____________ are used to implement WAN
along with statistical multiplexing
37.
a.
ATM
b.
Frame relay
c.
Switched multimeagabit data service
d.
X.25
e.
All of these
MAN uses only a
a.
Long exchange
b.
Local carrier
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
38.
In MAN, a network is accomplished using components
a.
Hardware
b.
Protocols
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
39.
40.
In MAN, a network is accomplished using basic components
a.
Hardware
b.
Protocols(software)
c.
Applications(useful software)
d.
All of the above
The Internet(internetworking) ha become a potent tool for
a.
Education
b.
Productivity
c.
Enlightenment
d.
All of these
41.
The Government of India had set up ERNET in ______ to provide TCP/IP connections
for education and research communities in India
a.
1976
b.
1986
c.
1996
d.
1999
42.
The liberalized policies encouraged many private players like
a.
DISHNET
b.
JAINTV
c.
Mantra online
d.
All of these
43.
The other government organizations like _______________ to enter this field to
bring the Internet to common people
a.
NIC
b.
VSNL
c.
MTNL
d.
All of the above
e.
44.
The major network infrastructure available in the country has two types of WAN
a.
Terrestrial WAN
b.
VSAT WAN
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
45.
Following are different options for setting up the Intranet, education portal or ecommerce, etc………….
46.
47.
a.
Leased line
b.
Dial Up connection
c.
VSAT
d.
Radio link
e.
All of the above
The networks can be broadly divided into three categories namely
a.
LAN for a single building
b.
MAN- single city
c.
WAN-country, continent and planet
d.
All of the above
The host to terminal connection is a conventional type of connection between
a.
Main frame
b.
Dumb terminals
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
48.
49.
TC means
a.
Terminal Computer
b.
Terminal Controller
c.
Technical Computer
d.
None of these
A collection of interconnected networks is known as
a.
Internetwork
b.
Internet
c.
Network
d.
None of these
e.
50.
The type of packet format supported by X.25 are as follows
a.
Control packet
b.
Data packet
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
51.
A terminal controller may be used to integrate two or more terminals for
connection with a
52.
53.
a.
Low speed line
b.
High speed line
c.
Single WAN line
d.
Both a & b
ISDN stands for
a.
Integrated Service Digital Network
b.
Interaction System Digital Network
c.
Inexpensive System Digital Network
d.
None of these
For LAN to LAN connection, which are mainly used
a.
ISDN
b.
Leased Line
c.
Frame relay
d.
All of these
e.
54.
Which function allows selection of the appropriate route based on IP header
information and sends packets through this route
a.
Forwarding function
b.
Filtering function
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
55.
Which function allows dumping of invalid packets for a specific network instead of
forwarding
56.
57.
58.
a.
Forwarding function
b.
Filtering function
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Routing in the same network may be termed as
a.
Local routing
b.
Static routing
c.
Dynamic routing
d.
Distributing routing
The routing table possessed by a router includes
a.
Combination of destination address
b.
Next hops that corresponds to that address
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
If there is a fixed route information to each router, is called
a.
Fixed routing
b.
Dynamic routing
c.
Both a & b
d.
Distributed routing
59.
If routing information is automatically updated by routers when changes are made
to the network configuration are called
a.
b.
Fixed routing
c.
Dynamic routing
d.
Both a & b
e.
Distributed routing
60.
The processing required to transferring a packet from the source host to the
destination host or to the relaying router are called
a.
Fixed routing
b.
Dynamic routing
c.
Local routing
d.
Distributed routing
e.
61.
ARP stands for
a.
Address Resolution Protocol
b.
Address Routing Protocol
c.
Address Routing Packet
d.
Address Routing Program
62.
If two or more routers are connected to the same subnet, the network
administration determines which of the routers the messages should be sent to.. to
eliminate this problem._____ are used
a.
MAC messages
b.
ICMP messages
c.
INDP messages
d.
IMCP messages
e.
63.
If two or more routers are available in distributed routing, which route should
be selected
64.
65.
a.
High possible cost
b.
Least possible cost
c.
Link cost
d.
Both b & c
If there is no any specific intention, the cost for a single link is usually set at ___
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
Multi-path routing can be achieved in
a.
Distance-vector type
b.
Link-state type
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
66.
If there are two or more routes to reach the same destination at the same cost,
which method is applicable to determine how to select this route
67.
a.
Round robin method
b.
Random selection method
c.
Mixed method
d.
All of these
The Mixed method remains _________ for the amount of processing required
a.
Effective
b.
Ineffective
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
68.
A set of networks interconnected by routers within a specific area using the same
routing protocol is called
69.
70.
71.
72.
a.
Domain
b.
Backbone
c.
Inter-domain router
d.
All of these
A network composed of inter-domain router is called
a.
Domain
b.
Backbone
c.
Inter-domain router
d.
All of these
A router within a specific domain is called
a.
Domain
b.
Backbone
c.
Inter-domain router
d.
All of these
Two or more domains may be further combined to form a
a.
Domain
b.
Backbone
c.
Inter-domain router
d.
Higher-order domain
Each domain is also called
a.
Operation domain
b.
Backbone
c.
Inter-domain
d.
All of these
e.
73.
Routing protocol in such an internet system can be broadly divided into two types
named
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
a.
Intra- domain routing
b.
Inter- domain routing
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
To communication between two or more domains, which are used
a.
Intra- domain routing
b.
Inter- domain routing
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Some Intra-domain protocols are
a.
RIP(Routing Information Protocol)
b.
OSPF(Open Shortest Path First)
c.
IS-IS(Intermediate System to Intermediate System )
d.
All of these
________ are the algorithms are available to update contents of routing tables
a.
Distance-Vector Protocol
b.
Link-State Protocol
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Distance vector protocols are
a.
RIP
b.
IGRP(Interior Gateway Routing Protocol )
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
RIP stands for
a.
Routing Information Protocol
b.
Routing Intra Protocol
c.
d.
79.
80.
Route Intermediate Protocol
Resolution Information Protocol
The Link state protocol are
a.
OSPF(Open Shortest Path First)
b.
IS-IS(Intermediate System to Intermediate System)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In link state protocol, the load on router will be
a.
Small
b.
Large
c.
Medium
d.
None of these
e.
81.
For large load on router, the processing is
a.
Complex
b.
Simple
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
82.
Which protocol are used in link state type routing protocol developed for use in
large scale network
83.
84.
a.
OSPF(Open Shortest Path First)
b.
IS-IS(Intermediate System to Intermediate System)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The common part of OSPF packet format is
a.
Packet type
b.
Packet length
c.
Router ID
d.
Area ID
e.
Authentication type
f.
Authentication data
g.
Version
h.
Checksum
i.
Individual information part
j.
All of these
The router may be classified into three types named
85.
86.
87.
a.
Domain border router
b.
Internal router
c.
Area border router
d.
All of these
OSPF is a hierarchical routing composed of
a.
Intra-area routing
b.
Inter-area routing
c.
Inter-domain routing
d.
All of these
The word SLIP stands for
a.
Serial Line IP
b.
Standard Line IP
c.
Serial Link IP
d.
Standard Link IP
The word PPP stands for
a.
Point to Point Protocol
b.
Packet to Packet Protocol
c.
Point to Packet Protocol
d.
Packet to Point Protocol
88.
________ is used mainly for connection between LANs that are remotely located
from one another
a.
SLIP
b.
PPP
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
89.
_________ is used for connection between routers or equipment that must be
highly reliable
90.
a.
SLIP
b.
PPP
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The wireless LANs offers the obvious advantage of
a.
Avoidance of cabling cost
b.
Provide LAN capabilities in temporary quarters
91.
92.
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The bandwidth of wireless radio LAN is
a.
24Mbps
b.
2 Mbps
c.
4 Mbps
d.
8 Mbps
The frequency range of wireless LAN is
a.
900 MHz bands
b.
2GHz bands
c.
5 GHz bands
d.
All of these
93.
A hub antennae is located at a _________ from where line-of-sight can be
established with the various terminal antennae.
94.
95.
96.
97.
a.
Highest point
b.
Lowest point
c.
Central point
d.
None of these
The effective throughput is more in the range of _________ per hub
a.
1 to 2 Mbps
b.
2 to 3 Mbps
c.
3 to 4 Mbps
d.
4 to 5 Mbps
PDA stands for
a.
Personal Device Assistant
b.
Pointer Description Assistant
c.
Personal Digital Assistant
d.
Personal Description Analog
USB stands for
a.
University System Bus
b.
Universal System Board
c.
University System Board
d.
University Serial Bus
_______ are wireless network standard with a data rate of only 2Mbps
98.
a.
IEEE802.11a
b.
IEEE802.11b
c.
IEEE803.11a
d.
IEEE803.11b
_______ are wireless network standard with a data rate of only11Mbps
a.
IEEE802.11a
b.
IEEE802.11b
c.
IEEE803.11a
d.
IEEE803.11b
99.
IEEE802.11a and IEEE802.11b have a distance limitation up to _____ from the
access point router
100.
101.
a.
1000feet
b.
100feet
c.
101feet
d.
110feet
IEEE802.11a and IEEE802.11b uses _____ band
a.
1.4GHz
b.
2.4GHz
c.
3.4GHz
d.
4.4GHz
________ technology allows speeds up to 54Mbps
a.
IEEE802.11g
b.
IEEE803.11a
c.
IEEE803.11b
d.
IEEE802.11a
e.
102.
________ allows the movement of device with or without user
a.
User mobility
b.
Device portability
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
103.
A user can access to the same or similar telecommunication services at different
places
a.
User mobility
b.
Device portability
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
104.
A number of mobile and wireless device are
a.
Sensor
b.
Mobile-phone
c.
PDA
d.
Embedded controller
e.
Pager
f.
Palmtop
g.
Notebook
h.
All of these
i.
105.
The availability of _________ made the wireless communication popular among the
masses.
106.
107.
108.
a.
Low cost microprocessor
b.
Digital switching
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Cellular radio has another popular names as
a.
Cellular mobile
b.
Cellular phone
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Radio is basically a device, which has
a.
Receiver
b.
Transmitter
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Wireless communication can be carried out
109.
a.
Use of radio
b.
Without using radio
c.
Both a & b
d.
Without use of video
The term radio may be defined as consisting of ______________ of the signal
a.
Modulation
b.
Radiation
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
110.
A transmitter and an antenna are used to ____________ the modulated signal
within radio spectrum
a.
Modulate
b.
Radiate
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
111.
In telephone system as we know that a voice with bandwidth of approximately ____
modulates the current of a telephone line
a.
2kHz
b.
3 kHz
c.
4 kHz
d.
5 kHz
112.
Wireless ca be defined as the ____________________ by means of high frequency
electrical waves without a connecting wire
113.
a.
Radio transmission
b.
Reception of signals
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The frequency of a cell may be ________ after the interference zone
a.
Reused
b.
Used
c.
Not be used
d.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
Not be reused
PSTN stands for
a.
Public Switched Transport Network
b.
Public System Transport Network
c.
Public System Transfer Network
d.
Public Switched Telephone Network
The radii of a cell may vary from ___________ in a building to a city
a.
One of meters to tens of kilometers
b.
Tens of meters to tens of kilometers
c.
Hundreds of meters to tens of kilometers
d.
Hundreds of meters to hundreds of kilometers
The shape of cell mat not be a ___________ and depends up on the environment
a.
Hexagon
b.
Circle
c.
Pentagon
d.
Both a & b
SDM stands for
a.
System Division Multiple
b.
System Division Multiplexing
c.
Space Division Multiplexing
d.
System Double Multiplexing
Frequencies for communication may vary from very high frequency to ________
a.
Medium range
b.
Microwave range
c.
Digital range
d.
None of these
e.
119.
120.
The signal may be analog or digital with _______
a.
Amplitude
b.
Frequency
c.
Phase modulation
d.
All of these
The multiplexing and access techniques are
a.
SDM(Space Division Multiplexing)
b.
FDM(Frequency Division Multiplexing)
c.
TDM(Time Division Multiplexing)
121.
122.
123.
d.
CDM(Code Division Multiplexing)
e.
All of these
The advantages of mobile communication may be looked into
a.
Higher capacity
b.
Higher number of users
c.
Less transmission power needed
d.
More robust
e.
Decentralized base station deals with interference
f.
Transmission area
g.
All of these
The disadvantages of mobile communication are
a.
Fixed network needed for the base stations
b.
Handover(changing from one cell to another) necessary
c.
Interference with other cells such as co-channel, adjacent-channel
d.
All of these
The important issues on wireless communication are
a.
Cell sizing
b.
Frequency reuse planning
c.
Channel allocation strategies
d.
All of these
124.
In the beginning around 1980, analog cellular telephone systems were developing in
___________
125.
126.
a.
USA
b.
UK
c.
Europe
d.
Japan
The proposed system was expected to meet certain as mentioned as
a.
Good subjective speech quality
b.
Low terminal and service cost
c.
Support for international terminals
d.
Spectral efficiency
e.
ISDN compatibility
f.
All of these
ETSI stands for
a.
European Telecommunication Standards Institute
b.
European Telephone Standards Institute
c.
European Telecommunication Systems Institute
d.
European Telecom Standards Institute
127.
GSM(Global System for Mobile Communication) is a _______ digital mobile
telephones standard using a combination Time Division Multiple Access(TDMA) and
FDMA(Frequency Division Multiple Access)
a.
First generation
b.
Second generation
c.
Third generation
d.
None of these
e.
128.
GSM provides only _______ data connection
a.
8.6kbps
b.
9.6kbps
c.
7.6kbps
d.
8.8kbps
129.
The uplink and downlink frequencies for GSM are different and therefore a channel
has a pair of frequencies _______ apart
130.
a.
70MHz
b.
80MHz
c.
90MHz
d.
60MHz
The separation between uplink and downlink frequencies are called
a.
Duplex distance
b.
Double distance
c.
Triplex distance
d.
None of these
131.
In a channel the separation between adjacent carrier frequencies is known as
channel separation which is _______ in case of GSM
132.
a.
100kHz
b.
200 kHz
c.
300 kHz
d.
400 kHz
The services supported by GSM are
a.
Telephony
b.
Fax and SMS
133.
134.
135.
136.
c.
Call forwarding
d.
Caller ID
e.
Call waiting
f.
All of these
GSM supports data at rates up to 9.6kbps on
a.
POTS(Plain Old Telephone Service)
b.
ISDN
c.
Packet Switched Public Data Networks
d.
Circuit Switched Public Data Networks
e.
All of these
The access methods and protocols for GSM may be from
a.
X.25
b.
X.32
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
There are basic types of services offered through GSM are
a.
Telephony or teleservices
b.
Data or bearer services
c.
Supplementary services
d.
All of these
The supplementary services are used to enhance the features of
a.
Bearer
b.
Teleservices
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
137.
Dual tone signals are used for various control purposes via the
a.
Telephone network
b.
Different from dual pulses
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
138.
SMS(Short Message Service) is a message consisting of a maximum of ______
alphanumeric characters
a.
150
b.
160
c.
170
d.
180
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
GSM supports ______ Group 3 facsimile
a.
CCIIT
b.
CCITT
c.
CCCIT
d.
CCTTI
Call forwarding is a ________________
a.
Telephony or teleservices
b.
Data or bearer services
c.
Supplementary services
d.
All of these
The other services of call forwarding are
a.
Cell broadcast, voice mail, fax mail
b.
Barring of outgoing and incoming calls conditionally
c.
Call hold, call waiting, conferencing
d.
Closed user groups
e.
All of these
GSM consists of many subsystems, such as the
a.
Mobile station(MS)
b.
Base station subsystem(BSS)
c.
Network and Switching subsystem(NSS)
d.
Operation subsystem(OSS)
e.
All of these
Which forms a radio subsystem
a.
Mobile station
b.
Base station subsystem
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
144.
The generic GSM network architecture which is composed of three subsystem
are__________
a.
Radio subsystem (RSS)
b.
Network and switching subsystem
c.
Operation subsystem
d.
All of these
145.
The RSS is basically consisting of radio specific equipment such as ____________ to
control the radio link
a.
Mobile station(MS)
b.
Base station subsystem(BSS)
c.
Both a & b
d.
146.
147.
148.
149.
None of these
The chief components of RSS are
a.
BSS
b.
Cellular layout
c.
Base station controller(BSC)
d.
All of these
SIM stands for
a.
System Identity Module
b.
Subscriber Identity Module
c.
Subscriber Identity Modem
d.
Subscriber Input Modem
MS contains a SIM card in the form of a very _______ inside the equipment
a.
Large chip
b.
Small chip
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Cell site is defined as the location where _______________ are placed
a.
Base station
b.
Antennas
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
150.
151.
Cells are the basic constituents of a cellular layouts with ________
a.
Cell sites
b.
Cell systems
c.
Cell forwarding
d.
None of these
A cell is simply represented by simple ____________
a.
Pentagon
b.
Hexagon
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
152.
The size of cells in case of GSM and Personal Communication Service(PCS) are much
smaller in the range of _______
153.
154.
155.
a.
5Kms
b.
10Kms
c.
15Kms
d.
20Kms
The portions covered by the antenna are called
a.
Portions
b.
Sectors
c.
Cell sector
d.
None of these
The BTS or Base Transceiver Station is also called
a.
RBS
b.
PCS
c.
GSM
d.
SIM
BTS are housed with all radio equipments such as
a.
Antennas
b.
Signal processors
c.
Amplifiers
d.
All of these
e.
156.
157.
Base station may also be placed near center of cell and known as
a.
Excited cell
b.
Center excited cell
c.
Center cell
d.
None of these
The actual cell is the _____ hexagon, with the towers at the corners
a.
Red
b.
Blue
c.
Red and blue
d.
None of these
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
Antenna always transmits inward to each cell and area served depends on
a.
Topography
b.
Population
c.
Traffic
d.
All of these
Network and switching subsystem is composed of the ________________
a.
Mobile Services Switching Center(MSC)
b.
Home Location Register(HLR)
c.
Visitor Location Register(VLR)
d.
All of these
The mobile stations(MS) communicates only via the
a.
BTS
b.
BSS
c.
BSC
d.
Um
A BTS is connected to a mobile station via the
a.
BTS
b.
BSS
c.
Abis interface with BSC
d.
Um interface
e.
Both c & d
The Um interface basically consists of _________ for wireless transmission
a.
FDMA
b.
TDMA
c.
CDMA
d.
All of these
163.
The FDMA involves the division up to the maximum of _______
bandwidth into 124 carrier frequencies spaced 200 kHz apart
a.
25MHz
b.
35MHz
c.
24MHz
d.
20MHz
164.
The FDMA channel are further divided in time with a burst period of approximately
_______ using a TDMA technique
a.
0.277ms
b.
0.377ms
c.
0.477ms
d.
0.577ms
165.
The eight burst period are grouped into a TDMA frame which forms the basic unit
for definition of
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
a.
Physical channel
b.
Logical channel
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
One _______ is one burst period per TDMA frame
a.
Physical channel
b.
Logical channel
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The more channel increases the
a.
GSM
b.
No of base station
c.
No of mobile station
d.
Transmitter power
The more channel decreases the
a.
GSM
b.
No of base station
c.
No of mobile station
d.
Transmitter power
The other popular name for MSC(Mobile Switching Center ) is
a.
BS(Base Station)
b.
MS(Mobile Switch)
c.
MTSO(Mobile Telecommunication Switching Office)
d.
Both b & c
MSC is connected to a ____________ at one end
a.
Mobile station
b.
Base station
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
c.
Transmitter station
d.
None of these
MSC is connected to a ____________ at other end
a.
MSCs
b.
PSTN
c.
ISDN
d.
None of these
MSCs acts as a __________
a.
Switching
b.
Local Switching exchange
c.
Remote Switching exchange
d.
None of these
The MSC also provides all the functionality such as
a.
Registration
b.
Handover
c.
Authentication
d.
Location updating
e.
Call routing to a roaming subscriber
f.
All of these
The MSC provided to establish link with other fixed networks termed as
a.
Local MSC
b.
Router MSC
c.
Gateway MSC
d.
Remote MSC
The main task of MSC are entrusted upon as
a.
Interworking function(IWF)
b.
Mobility management operations
c.
Data service unit(DSU)
d.
SS7
e.
All of these
Name the two chief databases
a.
Home location register(HLR)
b.
Visitor location register(VLR)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
177.
Which has its main task as associated with MSC
a.
Home location register
b.
Visitor location register
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
178.
IMEI stands for
a.
International mobile equipment identity
b.
International mobile equipment information
c.
Interworking mobile equipment information
d.
Interworking management equipment information
179.
Subscriber’s all administrative information along with the current location in GSM
network including in database of HLR are
a.
IMEI number
b.
Directory number
c.
Current city
d.
Last visited area
e.
The class of service subscriber
f.
All of these
180.
HLR keeps the ____________ of each mobile that belongs to the MSC to which it is
interacting
a.
Last location
b.
First location
c.
Current location
d.
None of these
181.
HLR performs the functions such as _____________ to subscribers at their current
locations by using user profile information
182.
a.
Delivery of calls
b.
Information and messages
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
HLR maintains user information in the form of
a.
Static information
b.
Dynamic information
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
183.
The static information is the
a.
International Mobile Subscriber Identity
b.
Service subscription information authentication key
c.
Account status
d.
All of these
184.
The dynamic information is the _________ area of the mobile subscriber which is
the identity of the currently serving VLR
185.
a.
Last location
b.
First location
c.
Current location
d.
None of these
The HLR handles SS7 transactions with both
a.
MSCs
b.
VLR nodes
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
186.
VLR main tasks are association with
a.
MSC
b.
IMSI
c.
TMSI
d.
Roaming
e.
All of these
187.
In nutshell we can say that both the ___________work together to provide local
connections as well as roaming outside the local service area
a.
HLR
b.
VLR
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
188.
The operations and Maintenance Center oversees the all important
for__________
a.
Proper operation
b.
Setup of the network
c.
Provides Telecommunication Management Network(TMN)
d.
All of these
189.
Operation Subsystem also provides interface NSS via O-Interface that may be
__________
a.
X.25 interface
b.
X.32 interface
c.
X.23 interface
d.
None of these
e.
190.
Authentications Center(AuC) is used for
a.
Authentication
b.
Security by generating authentication algorithms
c.
Cryptographic codes
d.
All of these
191.
AuC is responsible for maintaining all data needed to authenticate a call and to
encrypt __________________
192.
193.
194.
a.
Voice traffic
b.
Signaling messages
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
EIR stands for
a.
Equipment Identification Register
b.
Equipment Identification Remote
c.
Equipment Information Remote
d.
Equipment Information Register
EIR fulfills the ______________ requirement of GSM
a.
Security
b.
Authentication
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
SIM card has a secret key for ________________ over the radio channel
a.
Authentication
b.
Encryption
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
195.
GSM network checks the __________________ of a mobile device through EIR
database
a.
Type
b.
Serial number
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
196.
197.
EIR maintains a database of ______________
a.
Manufacturing devices
b.
Malfunctioning devices
c.
Functioning devices
d.
None of these
Um is the link between a
a.
Mobile station
b.
Base station
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
198.
GSM 900 operates on a frequency range of _________ for uplink
a.
890-910MHz
b.
890-915MHz.
c.
890-901MHz
d.
890-911MHz
e.
199.
200.
201.
GSM 900 operates on a frequency range of _________ for downlink
a.
935-960MHz
b.
940-970MHz
c.
945-950MHz
d.
925-960MHz
FDM is used to ___________ the available frequency band in GSM
a.
Addition
b.
Divide
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The GSM has many burst types such as
202.
203.
a.
Normal burst
b.
Access burst
c.
Synchronization burst
d.
Frequency correction burst
e.
Dummy burst
f.
All of these
The normal burst period lasts
a.
Approximately 577ms or 15/26ms
b.
Approximately 572ms
c.
Approximately 567ms
d.
Approximately 578ms
Which is provided to avoid overlap with other burst
a.
Frequency space
b.
Guard space
c.
Information space
d.
Bandwidth space
204.
Which is a dedicated time slots within a data or bit stream which repeats after a
certain period of time
205.
206.
a.
Frequency
b.
Amplitude
c.
Channel
d.
Normal burst
The channel can be further divided into
a.
Dedicated channel
b.
Common channel
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Both the dedicated and common channel are allocated to a
a.
Base station
b.
Mobile station
c.
Mobile switch
d.
All of these
e.
207.
When a slot repeated every 4.615ms constitute a _______ channel which can be
split into several logical channel
208.
209.
210.
211.
a.
Logical
b.
Physical
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
TDMA is used to split carrier frequency of 200kHz into_______ time slots
a.
4
b.
8
c.
16
d.
24
GSM 900 has _____ physical full duplex channels
a.
125
b.
124
c.
248
d.
247
GSM 900 has _____ physical half duplex channels
a.
125
b.
124
c.
248
d.
247
Time slot is also known as
a.
Logical channel
b.
Physical channel
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
212.
A Traffic Channel(TCH) is defined for speech and data at a rates of
a.
9.6kb/s
b.
4.8kb/s
c.
2.4kb/s
d.
All of these
e.
213.
The length of 24 TDMA frames are kept
214.
a.
120ms
b.
130ms
c.
150ms
d.
160ms
How many frames are included for traffic in 26TDMA frames
a.
1
b.
24
c.
25
d.
16
215.
How many frames are included for Slow Associated Control Channel(SACCH) in
26TDMA frames
216.
217.
a.
1
b.
24
c.
25
d.
16
How many frames are included for currently unused in 26TDMA frames
a.
1
b.
24
c.
25
d.
16
Which are basically used to control the logical channels
a.
CCHs
b.
TCH
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
218.
Depending upon the task performed by the Control Channels(CCHs),they are
categorized in
219.
a.
Broadcast Control Channels(BCCH)
b.
Common Control Channels(CCCH)
c.
Dedicated Control Channels(DCCH)
d.
All of these
The different control channel are accessed by
220.
to MS
a.
Idle mode
b.
Dedicated mode mobile
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which is a unidirectional downlink point to multi-point signaling channel from BTS
a.
BCCH
b.
CCCH
c.
DCCH
d.
All of these
221.
Which is bi-directional point to multi-point signaling channel that exchanges the
signaling information for network access management and transport information regarding
connection setup between MS and BTS
a.
b.
BCCH
c.
CCCH
d.
DCCH
e.
All of these
f.
222.
Which is bidirectional and are multiplexed on a standard channel for registration,
location updating and authentication in order to set up a call or TCH
a.
BCCH
b.
CCCH
c.
DCCH
d.
All of these
223.
GSM specifies a multiplexing scheme to integrate several frames where a periodic
pattern of 26 slots occurs in all TDM frames with a TCH , the combination of these frames
are called
a.
Multiframe
b.
Traffic-multiframe
c.
Multiprogramming
d.
None of these
224.
Out of 26 frames, 24 are used for traffic, one is used for the __________ and one is
currently unused
a.
SACCH(Slow Associated Control Channel)
225.
226.
227.
228.
b.
FACCH(Fast Associated Control Channel)
c.
BCCH
d.
CCCH
GSM is already mentioned that the duration of one TDMA frame is
a.
4.516ms
b.
4.615ms
c.
4.156ms
d.
4.165ms
Control multiframe comprises of 51 TDMA frame with a duration of ________
a.
234.5ms
b.
233.5ms
c.
235.4ms
d.
235.3ms
2048 superframes constitute a ________
a.
hyperframe
b.
lowerframe
c.
strongerframe
d.
none of these
GSM has three functional layers
a.
Physical layer
b.
Data link layer
c.
Layer three in correspondence with OSI model
d.
All of these
229.
In OSI model, the lower three layers usually terminate in the ______ but it is not
true in case of GSM
230.
a.
Another node
b.
Same node
c.
Two nodes
d.
None of these
In protocols, the RR part of layer three is spread over the
a.
MS
b.
BTS
c.
BSC
d.
MSC
e.
All of these
231.
Physical layer is the ___________ which provides transfer of bit streams over the
physical radio links through Uminterface
232.
a.
Lowest layer
b.
Highest layer
c.
First layer
d.
None of these
Physical layer handles all radio specific functions such as ________________
a.
Creation of bursts
b.
Multiplexing of bursts into TDMA frame
c.
Synchronization with BTS
d.
Channel coding, error detection and correction
e.
Quality control on the downlink
f.
All of these
233.
The digital modulation and security related issues such as encryption of digital data
are carried over the radio interface between ____________
a.
MS
b.
BTS
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
234.
The communication on Abis interface between _____ and BSC is established by using
the standard LAPD
a.
MS
b.
BTS
c.
MTS
d.
None of these
235.
A reliable data link service is provided between _________ through Message
Transfer Part of SS7
a.
BSC
b.
MSC
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
236.
The layer three chiefly comprises of _____________
a.
RR(radio resource management)
b.
MM(Mobility management)
c.
CM(call control management)
d.
237.
All of these
What are the functions of mobility management
a.
Location update
b.
Authentication
c.
Temporary Mobile Subscriber Identity
d.
Reallocation
e.
All of these
f.
238.
CM performs
a.
Establishment
b.
Maintenance
c.
Termination of a circuit-switched call
d.
All of these
e.
239.
240.
CM performs other supporting
a.
Supplementary service(SS)
b.
Short Message Service(SMS)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The radio resource management sublayer terminates at the
a.
BSC
b.
BSS
c.
MSC
d.
MTS
241.
The radio resource management is used to establish physical connections over the
call-related signaling and traffic channels between the ______________
a.
BSC
b.
BSS
c.
MS
d.
Both b & c
242.
The RR layer is the part of RR layer is implemented in the BTS to provide functions
between the ___________
a.
BTS
243.
b.
BSC
c.
MSC
d.
Both a & b
The __________ is also responsibility of the layers
a.
Handover
b.
Handoff
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
244.
Which uses signal strength measurements and cell congestion information to
determine when a handoff should occur
245.
HLRs
246.
247.
248.
a.
MSC
b.
BSS
c.
BSC
d.
Both a & b
Handoff notifications are sent to respective ____ which in turn forward them to
a.
VLRs
b.
VLCs
c.
VCDs
d.
LCDs
The mobility management sublayer on the _____ of the RR is terminated at the MSC
a.
Low
b.
Top
c.
Center
d.
First
MM is used to
a.
Establish
b.
Maintain
c.
Release connections between the MS a
d.
The network MSC
e.
All of these
The Communication Management protocol controls __________ call establishment
249.
250.
a.
first-to-end
b.
end-to-end
c.
end-to-first
d.
first-to-first
CM protocols are used in GSM network, these are
a.
Transaction Capabilities Application Part(TCAP) protocol
b.
Mobile Application Part(MAP) protocol
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
MAP is used between _________in the form of query and response messages
a.
MSC
b.
VLR
c.
HLR
d.
AuC
e.
All of these
251.
____________ Together with the MSC. Provide the call routing and roaming
capabilities of GSM where a subscriber can roam nationally and even internationally
252.
253.
254.
a.
HLR
b.
VLR
c.
CLR
d.
Both a & b
MSISDN stands for
a.
Mobile Subscriber ISDN Number
b.
Mobile Station ISDN Number
c.
Mobile Switching ISDN Number
d.
Mobile Standard ISDN Number
Which number caller used to reach a mobile subscriber
a.
MSISDN number
b.
IMSI number
c.
TMSI number
d.
MSRN
MSISDN number consists of
a.
Country code(such as 91 for India)
b.
National subscriber destination code
c.
Subscriber number
d.
All of these
255.
256.
257.
MS
258.
Which number of MSISDN is the address of the GSM provider
a.
Country code(such as 91 for India)
b.
National subscriber destination code
c.
Subscriber number
d.
All of these
Which is a unique identification number allocated to each mobile subscriber
a.
MSISDN Number
b.
IMSI Number
c.
TMSI Number
d.
MSRN
It sits inside SIM card, which can be carried out anywhere and can be used in any
a.
MSISDN Number
b.
IMSI Number
c.
TMSI Number
d.
MSRN
The IMSI number consists of
a.
MCC(Mobile Country Code consisting of three digits)
b.
MNC(Mobile Network Code consisting of two digits)
c.
MSIN(Mobile Subscriber Identity Number consisting of ten digits)
d.
All of these
259.
Which is used in the place of the IMSI for the definite identification and addressing
of the mobile station
a.
MSISDN Number
b.
IMSI Number
c.
TMSI Number
d.
MSRN
260.
In TMSI nobody can determine the identity of the subscriber by listening to the
__________
a.
Video channel
b.
Radio channel
c.
Audio channel
d.
None of these
e.
261.
GSM used the _______ byte TMSI for local subscriber identification
a.
2
b.
4
c.
6
d.
8
262.
Which is a temporary location-dependent ISDN number assigned by the locally
responsible VLR to each mobile station in its area
263.
264.
a.
MSISDN Number
b.
IMSI Number
c.
TMSI Number
d.
MSRN
The MSRN consists of
a.
VCC(Visitor country code)
b.
VNDC(Visitor national destination code)
c.
The identification of the current MSC along with the subscriber number(SN)
d.
All of these
GSM call may be classified into two types namely
a.
MTC(Mobile Terminated Call)
b.
MOC(Mobile Originated Call)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
265.
___________ becomes necessary when mobile moves from area of one BSC into
another area of the same or into another BSC
266.
a.
Handoff
b.
Handover
c.
Haddon
d.
Handwork
Handover involves a number of procedures depending upon the location are
a.
Intra-cell handover
b.
Inter-cell, intra-BSC handover
c.
Inter-BSC, intra-MSC handover
d.
Inter MSC handover
e.
All of these
267.
Which involve the transfer of connections from one channel to another channel on
the same BTS
a.
Intra-cell handover
b.
Inter-cell, intra-BSC handover
c.
Inter-BSC, intra-MSC handover
d.
Inter MSC handover
268.
Which involve the transfer of the connection from one BTS to another BTS on the
same BSC
a.
Intra-cell handover
b.
Inter-cell, intra-BSC handover
c.
Inter-BSC, intra-MSC handover
d.
Inter MSC handover
269.
The connections is transferred between BTS belonging to two different BSCs within
one MSC is called
a.
Intra-cell handover
b.
Inter-cell, intra-BSC handover
c.
Inter-BSC, intra-MSC handover
d.
Inter MSC handover
270.
Which involve the transfer of a connection to a BTS between two cells within
another MSC
271.
272.
273.
274.
a.
Intra-cell handover
b.
Inter-cell, intra-BSC handover
c.
Inter-BSC, intra-MSC handover
d.
Inter MSC handover
A collection of interconnected networks is known as
a.
Internet
b.
Internetwork
c.
Network
d.
Internetworking
The process of interconnecting different network is called
a.
Internet
b.
Internetwork
c.
Network
d.
Internetworking
The internetworking protocol is known as
a.
SMTP
b.
PPP
c.
TCP/IP
d.
NNTP
The Network element that connects individual network is known as
a.
Gateway
b.
Router
c.
TCP/IP
d.
Both a & b
275.
If single computer network is divided into segments and router are added between
them it forms an
a.
Internet
b.
Internetwork
c.
Network
d.
Internetworking
276.
Which was used as original term for an internetwork which meant a method for
connecting networks with disparate technologies
277.
278.
279.
280.
a.
Catenet
b.
Bridge
c.
PANs
d.
Novell netware
The computer network are of different types…some are
a.
PANs(Personal Area Networks)
b.
Novell Netware
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The word Internet and internet are
a.
Different
b.
Same
c.
Dependent on each other
d.
None of these
Which signifies the specific network model
a.
internet
b.
Internet
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which means generic interconnection of networks
a.
internet
b.
Internet
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
281.
282.
283.
284.
Which protocol provides a reliable data transfer
a.
TCP
b.
UDP
c.
IP
d.
Both a & b
Which protocol provides a unreliable data transfer
a.
TCP
b.
UDP
c.
IP
d.
Both a & b
Every computer has a unique address called
a.
IP
b.
UDP
c.
TCP
d.
None of these
The IP address lies between
a.
0 to 245
b.
0 to 254
c.
0 to 255
d.
0 to 265
e.
285.
DHCP stands for
a.
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
b.
Digital Host Communication Provider
c.
Digital Host Communication Protocol
d.
Dynamic Host Configuration Provider
286.
__________ is used for every computer needs one protocol stack for communicating
on the Internet
a.
Protocol stack
b.
Protocol
c.
Transmission protocol
d.
None of these
287.
Which protocol layer uses the protocols are WWW, HTTP, FTP, SMTP, e-mail etc
a.
Application Layer Protocol
b.
Transport Layer Protocol
c.
Internet Layer Protocol
d.
Hardware Layer
288.
Which protocol uses TCP routes to an application on a computer by use of a port
number
289.
a.
Application Layer Protocol
b.
Transport Layer Protocol
c.
Internet Layer Protocol
d.
Hardware Layer
Which protocol moves IP packets to a specific computer by use of an IP address
a.
Application Layer Protocol
b.
Transport Layer Protocol
c.
Internet Layer Protocol
d.
Hardware Layer
290.
Which contains network interface cards, modems for phones or wireless lines for
converting binary packet data to network signals and vice versa
291.
292.
293.
a.
Application Layer Protocol
b.
Transport Layer Protocol
c.
Internet Layer Protocol
d.
Hardware Layer
Hardware layer handle raw
a.
Bytes of data
b.
Bits of data
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Where is the TCP layer is situated in the application layer in the protocol stack
a.
Below
b.
Top
c.
Center
d.
None of these
TCP uses port number to route correct application on the ___________
a.
Source computer
b.
Destination computer
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
294.
TCP is __________ in nature
a.
Textual
b.
Not textual
c.
None of these
d.
295.
296.
297.
298.
299.
300.
TCP also contains a ___ checksum
a.
16bit
b.
16byte
c.
32bit
d.
32byte
What is the port number of the HTTP
a.
80
b.
25
c.
23
d.
20/21
What is the port number of the SMTP
a.
25
b.
23
c.
20/21
d.
27960
What is the port number of the Telnet
a.
25
b.
23
c.
20/21
d.
27960
What is the port number of the FTP
a.
25
b.
23
c.
20/21
d.
27960
What is the port number of the Quake III Arena
301.
a.
25
b.
23
c.
20/21
d.
27960
TCP is ______________
a.
Connection-oriented
b.
Reliable
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
302.
IP is ___________
a.
Connectionless
b.
Unreliable
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
303.
IP does not ensure movement of a packet to its destination and have no knowledge
of __________
a.
Port numbers
b.
Connections
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
304.
IP packets ________ arrive in the order in which it is sent
a.
May
b.
May not
c.
May or may not
d.
None of these
e.
305.
SMDS stands for
a.
Switched Multiple Data Services
b.
Switched Multimegabit Data Services
c.
Switched Multiple Double Services
d.
Switched Multiple Data Subscriber
306.
SMDS is a packet switched, high speed, connectionless public data service that
extends
307.
308.
309.
310.
a.
Local Area Network
b.
Metropolitan Area Network
c.
Wide Area Network
d.
All of these
In SMDS, the service follows
a.
IEEE 802.6 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
b.
IEEE 802.5 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
c.
IEEE 802.4 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
d.
IEEE 803.6 DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
The SMDS is defined for MAN under_______ standard
a.
IEEE 802.5
b.
IEEE 802.4
c.
IEEE 802.6
d.
IEEE 802.2
SMDS is capable of variety of technologies including
a.
DQDB(Distributed Queue Dual Bus)
b.
Broadband ISDN(B-ISDN)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
North American implementation uses DQDB with DS1 at a data rate of
a.
1.5Mbit/s
b.
45Mbits/s
c.
1.6Mbit/s
d.
46Mbit/s
e.
311.
312.
North American implementation uses DQDB with DS3 at a data rate of
a.
1.5Mbit/s
b.
45Mbits/s
c.
1.6Mbit/s
d.
46Mbit/s
SMDS network also planned to link B-ISDN and SONET OC3 with a data rate of
a.
1.5Mbit/s
b.
45Mbits/s
c.
155Mbit/s
d.
313.
314.
1.9Mbit/s
SMDS is a
a.
Data service
b.
Telephone service
c.
Frame service
d.
Video service
SMDS is a
a.
Technology
b.
Protocol
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
315.
316.
317.
318.
319.
The word CPE means
a.
Customer Premises Equipment
b.
Computer Premises Equipment
c.
Customer Packet Equipment
d.
Customer Protocol Equipment
The SMDS is designed to handle
a.
Continuous traffic
b.
Finite traffic
c.
Bursty traffic
d.
All of these
The telephone service is designed to handle
a.
Continuous traffic
b.
Finite traffic
c.
Bursty traffic
d.
All of these
In SMDS , the telephone number consists of
a.
Country code
b.
Area code
c.
Subscriber code
d.
All of these
The SMDS can serve
a.
Only area
b.
Only nationally
c.
Internationally
d.
None of these
e.
320.
Address of source and destination in SMDS both consists of 4 bit code followed by a
telephone no of max.
a.
12 decimal digits
b.
16 decimal digits
c.
15 decimal digits
d.
20 decimal digits
e.
321.
322.
The SMDS is similar to which transfer mode
a.
Synchronous transfer mode
b.
Asynchronous transfer mode
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
SMDS make use of cell relay with _______ per cell
a.
53 octets
b.
56 octets
c.
58 octets
d.
55 octets
e.
323.
324.
325.
The data unit of SMDS can encapsulate frames of
a.
IEEE802.3
b.
IEEE802.5
c.
FDDI
d.
All of these
SMDS make use of
a.
Copper
b.
Fiber media
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In SMDS, with a tick every 10msec user can send_________ on the average
326.
a.
100,000 bytes/sec
b.
10,000 bytes/sec
c.
100,0000 bytes/sec
d.
100,000,00 bytes/sec
Which means the network can expand with minimal investment
a.
SNMP
b.
Scalability
c.
Screening
d.
Simple
e.
327.
Which is a network protocol that is based on UDP and is a component of the
component of the Internet Protocol Suite, defined by IETF(Internet Engineering Task Force)
a.
SNMP
b.
Scalability
c.
Screening
d.
Multicasting
e.
328.
329.
330.
The user can have access to high speed lines ______ connected to MAN
a.
32Mbits/s
b.
33Mbits/s
c.
34Mbits/s
d.
35Mbits/s
The user can having access capacity of ______ connected to MAN
a.
151Mbits/s
b.
152Mbits/s
c.
154Mbits/s
d.
155Mbits/s
The backbones of MAN has working data rate of ________
a.
139Mbits/s
b.
140Mbits/s
c.
155Mbits/s
d.
134Mbits/s
331.
332.
333.
334.
335.
User is charged for maximum rate of __________ bandwidth
a.
34Mbits/s
b.
4Mbits/s
c.
10Mbits/s
d.
16Mbits/s
e.
25Mbits/s
f.
Except (a) all are answers
SMDS was primarily used for connecting
a.
LAN
b.
MAN
c.
WAN
d.
PAN
In SMDS, MAN interconnect
a.
Ethernet
b.
Token ring networks
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
SMDS networks have many underlying devices for supporting high-speed service are
a.
Subscriber network interface(SNI)
b.
Carrier equipment
c.
Customer Premises Equipment (CPE)
d.
All of these
CPE may be devices such as
a.
PCs(Personal computers)
b.
Intermediate nodes
c.
Terminals
d.
All of these
e.
336.
Which are intermediate nodes provided by SMDS carrier
a.
Multiplexers
b.
Modems
c.
Routers
d.
All of these
337.
338.
339.
340.
341.
342.
343.
PDUs contain
a.
Source address
b.
Destination address
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Addressing in SMDS has provision for
a.
Group addressing
b.
Security features
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In SMDS, there are two useful security features, namely
a.
Source address validation
b.
Address screening
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
CCITT stands for
a.
Consultative Committee International for Telegraphy and Telephony
b.
International Consultative Committee for Telegraphy and Telephony
c.
International Consultative Committee for Telephony and Telegraphy
d.
Consultative Committee International for Telephony and Telegraphy
X.25, it was developed for computer connections used for
a.
Timesharing connection
b.
Terminal connection
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
X.25 provides a virtual high-quality digital network at
a.
Low cost
b.
High cost
c.
Medium cost
d.
All of these
Which is another useful characteristics of X.25
a.
Speed
b.
Matching
c.
Speed matching
d.
344.
None of these
In X.25 DTEs are not required to use the same line speed because of the
a.
Store
b.
Forward nature of packet switching
c.
Excellent flow control
d.
All of these
345.
In X.25, A host connected at 56kbps and communicating with numerous remote
sites can be linked with cheaper______ lines
346.
347.
a.
18.2kbps
b.
19.2kbps
c.
20.2kbps
d.
22.2kbps
In X.25 defines the protocols from
a.
Layer 2 to Layer 3
b.
Layer 1 to Layer 2
c.
Layer 1 to Layer 3
d.
Layer 3 to Layer 2
Based on X.25 rules, how many logical channel can be set on a single physical line
a.
256
b.
16
c.
4096
d.
2556
e.
348.
349.
To enable control of 4096 logical channels in X.25, there are ____ channel groups
a.
256
b.
16
c.
4096
d.
2556
Each logical channel group is divided into ____ logical channels
a.
256
b.
16
c.
4096
d.
2556
350.
351.
352.
353.
354.
The channel grouping in X.25 are known as
a.
Logical channel group number(LCGN)
b.
Logical channel number(LCN)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
X.25 is a
a.
Protocol
b.
Data service
c.
Telephone service
d.
Technology
X.25 protocol was recommended by CCITT in
a.
1975
b.
1976
c.
1977
d.
1978
X.25 protocol exchanged the data control information between
a.
A node
b.
A user device
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The user device and node are properly referred to as
a.
DTE
b.
DCE
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
355.
A terminal of 1.2kbit/s can communicate with host computer at _______ through
the packet switched network
356.
X.25
a.
9600bits/s
b.
8600bits/s
c.
7600bits/s
d.
6600bits/s
The transmission speed of sender should be ___________ as that of receiver in the
357.
358.
359.
a.
Same
b.
Different
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
X.25 make use of _______ service
a.
Connectionless
b.
Connection-oriented
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
PAD stands for
a.
Packet Assembly and Disassembly
b.
Procedure Assembly and Disassembly
c.
Permanent Assembly and Disassembly
d.
Package Assembly and Disassembly
X.25 supports two types of packet format named
a.
Control packet
b.
Data packet
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
360.
361.
362.
A X.25 packet make up the ______ of an HDLC frame
a.
Frame field
b.
Data field
c.
Information field
d.
Both b and c are same
Maximum packet sizes in X.25 vary from
a.
64bytes to 128bytes
b.
64bytes to 4096 bytes
c.
64bytes to 256bytes
d.
32bytes to 64bytes
A X.25 protocol use
a.
Store and forward method
b.
Stop and wait method
c.
Store and stop method
d.
363.
364.
365.
366.
None of these
The advantage of X.25 are
a.
Was developed to recover errors
b.
PCs
Packet switching eases compatibility problems in communications between
c.
Packet switching cannot waste bandwidth
d.
All of these
Frame relay constitutes of the OSI _____ layer
a.
First
b.
Second
c.
Third
d.
Fourth
Logical channels are identified by a number referred by
a.
DLCI(Data Link Connection Identifier)
b.
VLCI(Very Large Connection Identifier)
c.
HDLC(High Level Data Link Control )
d.
QLLC
DLCI can have a value between
a.
0 and 1025
b.
0 and 125
c.
0 and 256
d.
0 and 1023
e.
367.
The device which splits data into frames as well as combines frames into data is
referred as
a.
FRAD(Frame relay and Disassembly)
b.
FDLC
c.
HDLC
d.
DLCI
368.
Frame relay indicates network congestion using two flags namely ________ bits in
data frames
369.
to as
a.
Forward Explicit Congestion Notification(FECN)
b.
Backward Explicit Congestion Notification(BECN)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Cell relay is data transmission services that uses transmission technology referred
a.
ATM(Asynchronous Transfer Mode)
370.
371.
372.
373.
374.
375.
b.
BTM
c.
STM
d.
DTM
The data transmission is a fixed length of data known as
a.
Cell
b.
Frame
c.
Relay
d.
Cell relay
Advantages of cell relay are
a.
High-speed transmission
b.
Multiplexing transmission
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Disadvantages of cell relay are
a.
Cell discarding occurs with congestion
b.
High cost
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The cell relay protocol corresponds to first ____ layer of OSI
a.
One
b.
Two
c.
Three
d.
Four
The part that corresponds to second layer, that is, data link layer is referred to as
a.
DLC layer
b.
ATM layer
c.
STM layer
d.
Protocol layer
In cell relay these logical channels are represented as
a.
Virtual Channels(VCs)
b.
Virtual Paths(VPs)
c.
Both a & b
d.
376.
377.
378.
379.
380.
None of these
A VC is a virtual channel composed of
a.
Frames
b.
Cells
c.
Relay
d.
Protocol
VP is a bundle of
a.
VCs
b.
VCM
c.
VCI
d.
VIP
Identifiers are called ___________________ are used to identify VPS and VCs
a.
VCIs
b.
VIPs
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In cell relay communication performed between
a.
Two VP
b.
Two VC
c.
VP and VC
d.
VP and VCI
ATM is an
a.
International Telecommunication
b.
International Telecommunication-Union
c.
International Telecommunication Union-Telecommunication
Standardization Sector(ITU-T)
d.
381.
382.
International Telecommunication Union-Telecommunication
ATM networks are
a.
Connectionless
b.
Interconnected
c.
Connection oriented
d.
None of these
In today ATM, separate networks are used to carry _________ information mostly
383.
384.
385.
386.
387.
388.
a.
Voice
b.
Video
c.
Data
d.
All of these
Data traffic in ATM tend to be
a.
Continuous
b.
Bursty
c.
Discontinuous
d.
None of these
ATM cell has a fixed length of __________
a.
52bytes
b.
53bytes
c.
54bytes
d.
55bytes
Which is a portion carries the actual information
a.
Payload(48bytes)
b.
Payment
c.
Payroll
d.
None of these
The purpose of ATM is to provide
a.
High speed
b.
Low-delay multiplexing
c.
Switching networks
d.
All of these
ATM is specifically designed as ________ technology for voice, video, and data
a.
Single
b.
Double
c.
Multiple
d.
None of these
ATM can support
a.
Different speeds
b.
Traffic types
c.
Quality of service attached to applications
d.
389.
390.
All of these
ATM cells coming from a user are guaranteed delivery at the other end with a
a.
High probability
b.
Low delay
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The characteristics of ATM are as follows
a.
The transport speeds of most ATM applications are most often 155Mbps and
622Mbps
b.
ATM is a flexible service made possible by the size of the packets (cells).
c.
The small cell size allows a variety of applications to run on ATM networks
including voice, video and data
d.
391.
392.
All of these
Narrow band ISDN provides for the following services
a.
Circuit-switched voice
b.
Circuit-switched data
c.
Low-speed packet
d.
High-speed packet
e.
All of these
The cell relay is considered to be the __________ of the future
a.
Transmission service
b.
Transport service
c.
Transfer service
d.
None of these
393.
ISDN is a group of __________ standards relating to digital transmission across
conventional copper wire telephone lines, as also other media
394.
less
a.
CCITT
b.
ITU
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Narrow band ISDN is a digital service where the transport speeds are ______ (T1) or
a.
1.533Mbps
b.
1.544Mbps
c.
1.555Mbps
d.
1.552Mbps
395.
The range of speeds for the broadband ISDN services usually range from ______ to
the Gigabit range
396.
a.
24Mbs
b.
25Mbs
c.
26Mbs
d.
27Mbs
BRA stands for
a.
Basic Rate Access
b.
Basic Random Assembly
c.
Bit Rate Assembly
d.
Bursty Rate Assembly
e.
397.
398.
399.
BRA affords an ISDN user with simultaneous access to two _____ data channels
a.
32kbps
b.
64kbps
c.
128kbps
d.
256kbps
The ISDN Internetworking Equipment devices are
a.
Terminal Adapters(TAs)
b.
ISDN Bridges
c.
ISDN Routers
d.
All of these
Advantages of ISDN internetworking are
a.
Quality
b.
Economy
c.
Availability
d.
All of these
e.
400.
ISDN connections mat be seen as very _______ digital conduits
a.
High rate-of-error
b.
Low rate-of-error
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
401.
402.
403.
at
404.
405.
406.
Each channel in BRA is referred to as
a.
A-channel
b.
B-channel
c.
C-channel
d.
F-channel
The B-channel is capable of carrying both
a.
Voice
b.
Data
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The Another channel in BRA(Basic Rate Access) is referred as D-channel Functions
a.
12Kbps
b.
14Kbps
c.
16Kbps
d.
18Kbps
The D-channel in BRA is used for sending and receiving signal between
a.
User devices
b.
ISDN
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The total transmission rate of BRA workout to a combined total of
a.
144kbit/s
b.
145kbit/s
c.
146kbit/s
d.
147kbit/s
BRA is also known as ____________, as per CCITT
a.
I.430
b.
I.420
c.
I.440
d.
I.450
407.
Which service provide up to thirty independent 64kbps B channels and a separate
64kbps D channel to carried the signaling
408.
a.
Basic rate access
b.
Primary rate access
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Primary rate access is also known as __________, as per CCITT
a.
I.420
b.
I.421
c.
I.422
d.
I.423
409.
The CCITT eventually was reformed in to the group which is now called the
________
410.
411.
a.
ITU-T
b.
UIT-T
c.
TIU-T
d.
TUI-T
The two standards ISDN connectors are
a.
RJ-45 type plug and socket uses unshielded twisted pair cable
b.
One for accessing primary rate ISDN through a coaxial cable
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
ISDN can be accessed as per CCITT by using two service called
a.
BRI(Basic Rate Interface)
b.
PRI(Primary Rate Interface)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
412.
BRI includes ______ B channels and ________ D channel
a.
One , two
b.
Two, three
c.
Two, one(may be written as 2B+D)
d.
Three, two
413.
BRI providing data transmission speed of
a.
62kbps
b.
63kbps
c.
64kbps
d.
65kbps
414.
PRI is popularly referred to as ____________ due to the number of channels as per
CCITT
415.
a.
20+D
b.
30+D
c.
40+D
d.
50+D
PRI can carry up to 30 independent, ________ lines of data or voice channels
a.
b.
c.
d.
62kbps
63kbps
64kbps
65kbps
Data Communication And Networks 01
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Data can be either
a.
Images
b.
Numbers
c.
Words
d.
All of these
The word ‘Data’ is derived from
a.
Latin
b.
Contextual
c.
DB
d.
None of these
How many types of data are
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
The types of data are
a.
Qualitative
b.
Quantitative
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Data are taken as ________ level of abstraction
a.
Highest
b.
Middle
c.
Lowest
d.
None of these
Information are taken as ________ level of abstraction
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
a.
Highest
b.
Middle
c.
Lowest
d.
None of these
Knowledge are taken as ________ level of abstraction
a.
Highest
b.
Middle
c.
Lowest
d.
None of these
The quantitative data is expressed in
a.
Numerical form
b.
Non-numerical form
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The qualitative data is expressed in
a.
Numerical form
b.
Non-numerical form
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The qualitative data may be
a.
Things
b.
Words
c.
Text
d.
None of these
Which type of data is hard, rigorous, credible and scientific
a.
Qualitative data
b.
Quantitative data
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which data are rich, poor, tall, short, good, bad, better
13.
14.
a.
Qualitative data
b.
Quantitative data
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Data type is thought of as a set of
a.
Values
b.
Operations on values
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Data type as defined in programming language are
a.
Integers
b.
Floating-point numbers
c.
Characters
d.
Alphanumeric strings
e.
All of these
15.
The smallest addressable unit of data is defined as a group of ___ bits is known as
a byte:
16.
a.
4
b.
8
c.
16
d.
32
The unit processed by machine code instructions is called a _______
a.
Word
b.
Number
c.
Bit
d.
Byte
17.
The machine code unit may be _________ depending on the computer
architecture:
a.
8 bit or 16 bit
b.
16 bit or 32 bit
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
c.
32 bit or 64 bit
d.
64bit or 128 bit
In a 32-bit word it can represent unsigned integer values ranging from
a.
0 to 232 -1
b.
-231 to 231-1
c.
0 to 264 -1
d.
0 to 231 -1
In a 32-bit word it can represent signed integer values ranging from
a.
0 to 232 -1
b.
-231 to 231-1
c.
231 to 264 -1
d.
0 to 231 -1
A signal is an
a.
Electric current
b.
Electromagnetic field
c.
Electronic current
d.
Both a & b
A signal is used to convey data from
a.
One place to another place
b.
One system to another system
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In case of PSTN, signaling between
a.
A telephone user
b.
The telephone network
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
23.
A channel is defined as a path between
24.
The path of channel may be
a.
Physical
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
b.
Logical
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The path of channel may be
a.
Hard wired
b.
Wireless
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Noise of channel noise___________ the quality of information and data
a.
Upgrades
b.
Degrades
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In channel , the information may not be
a.
Reproduced
b.
Reach the receiver at all
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In channel noise, data by affecting communications and files of all types including
a.
Images
b.
Audio
c.
Text
d.
Programs
e.
Telemetry
f.
All of these
Information and data may be treated as a signal in either
a.
Electrical form
b.
Electromagnetic form
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The noise may be classified as ______________ based upon the sources
a.
Internal
b.
External
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
31.
The noise generated because of electricity or atmospheric disturbances is of the
order of
a.
300kHz
b.
300MHz
c.
300GHz
d.
300Hz
32.
The noise generated which is lower than the high frequency range of ____ and may
have more interface with the signal of information:
a.
300MHz
b.
300kHz
c.
300GHz
d.
300Hz
33.
External noise is generally picked up from electrical appliances existing
____________________
34.
35.
36.
a.
In the vicinity
b.
From the atmosphere
c.
From electrical transformers
d.
Also from outer space
e.
All of these
Internal noise is generated in the
a.
Channels
b.
Receivers
c.
Transmitter
d.
Both a & b
Internal noise is less dependent on frequency, but has a significant effect at:
a.
Higher frequency
b.
Low frequency
c.
Middle frequency
d.
No frequency
External noise has _______ effect on higher frequencies
a.
More
b.
Less
37.
38.
c.
No
d.
None of these
Internal noise is fairly low in case of
a.
Digital signal processing
b.
Fiber optics technology
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Noise is measured in terms of the signal to noise ratio
a.
S/N
b.
SNR
c.
S/M
d.
39.
Both a & b
The unit of noise is
a.
decibels
b.
Hertz
c.
Micron
d.
bits per second
e.
40.
____________ defined as the size of the range of frequencies that can be
transmitted through a channel
a.
Channel Bandwidth
b.
Channel Data Transmission Rate
c.
Channel noise
d.
Channel capacity
41.
In other words channel bandwidth may be define it as the volume of information
per unit time that a _____________________
42.
a.
Computer
b.
Person
c.
Transmission medium can handle
d.
All of these
Channel Bandwidth is measured in
a.
decibels
b.
Hertz
43.
44.
c.
Micron
d.
bits per second
Bandwidth is expressed as data speed in ___________ digital systems:
a.
decibels
b.
Hertz
c.
Micron
d.
bits per second
In analog systems, bandwidth is expressed as the difference between the
a.
Highest frequency
b.
Lowest frequency
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
45.
__________ is determined by the maximum number of bits that can be transmitted
per unit time through the physical medium:
46.
47.
48.
a.
Channel Bandwidth
b.
Channel Data Transmission Rate
c.
Channel noise
d.
Channel capacity
Channel Data Transmission Rate is measured in
a.
decibels
b.
Hertz
c.
Micron
d.
bits per second
Which gave the maximum data rate of a noiseless channel
a.
H.Nyquist in 1924
b.
H.Nyquist in 1934
c.
Peter Sain in 1932
d.
None of these
Channel latency depends on the
a.
Signal propagation speed
b.
Media characteristics
c.
Transmission distance
d.
All of these
49.
_____________ is the amount of time that is needed for the information to
propagate from the source to destination through the channel:
a.
b.
Propagation time
c.
Channel Latency
d.
Channel Utilization
e.
Both a & b
50.
Throughput may be defined as the number of _______________ through a data
communication system over a period of time:
51.
52.
53.
a.
bits
b.
characters
c.
blocks passing
d.
All of these
___________ may be defined as range of frequencies assigned to a channel
a.
Bandwidth
b.
Channel noise
c.
Bit rate
d.
Channel latency
Higher the Bandwidth,________ will be the data transmission rate or throughput
a.
More
b.
Less
c.
Medium
d.
None of these
In transmission of a signal, the range of carrier frequencies depends on the
a.
Nature of medium
b.
Requirement of the applications supported
c.
Nature of distance
d.
Both a & b
54.
________ may be defined as the range of frequencies being supported by a
particular transmission medium
55.
a.
Frequency
b.
Frequency spectrum
c.
Carrier frequency
d.
None of these
The actual range of frequencies supporting a given communication is known as
a.
Baud rate
56.
b.
Pass band
c.
Band data
d.
Pass
Higher frequency signal offers _________ bandwidth
a.
Lesser
b.
Greater
c.
Medium
d.
None of these
57.
________ refers to the minimum or maximum spatial separation between devices
over a link, in the context of a complete, end to end circuit
a.
Bandwidth
b.
Channel
c.
Distance
d.
None of these
58.
_________ is the rate over network speed which is used to detect errors while
transmitting data
59.
a.
Bit rate
b.
Data rate
c.
Baud rate
d.
Pass band
What is the frequency range of gamma and cosmic rays
a.
>1008GHz
b.
<1018GHz
c.
>1018GHz
d.
<1008GHz
60.
The most popular method for detecting errors in bit rate is ________ a parity bit
alongside the data bit for a character
61.
a.
Deleting
b.
Inserting
c.
Modifying
d.
Updating
TDM means
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
a.
Total division multiplex
b.
Time division modem
c.
Time detect modem
d.
Time division multiplex
FEC means
a.
Formal Error Checking
b.
Forward Error Checking
c.
Forward Error Character
d.
Formal Error Character
The net bit rate is also known as
a.
Pass bit rate
b.
Data bit rate
c.
Useful bit rate
d.
Network bit rate
The incorrect bit rate is also known as
a.
Data bit rate
b.
Useful bit rate
c.
Network bit rate
d.
Parity bit
The example of net bit rate are
a.
TDM
b.
FEC
c.
Framing Bit
d.
All of these
The speed of connection of bit rate is determined by
a.
TDM
b.
FEC
c.
Framing Bit
d.
All of these
The FEC is also refers to
a.
Logical layer net bit rate
b.
Physical layer net bit rate
c.
Prefix layer net bit rate
d.
None of these
The size of the multimedia file is the product of _______
a.
Bit rate in bytes
b.
Bit rate in kilobytes
c.
Bit rate in gigabytes
d.
69.
None of these
The size of the multimedia file is the length of recording in seconds divided by:
a.
4
b.
8
c.
12
d.
16
e.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
The fundamentals of Bit rate:
a.
The sample uses different number of bits
b.
The data is encoded by different number of bits
c.
The material is sampled at different frequencies
d.
The information is digitally compressed by different algorithms
e.
All of these
The bit rate is __________ for a specific network
a.
Fixed
b.
Uniform
c.
Fixed and Uniform
d.
None of these
The gross bit rate is the number of bits transmitted
a.
per second by an ideal transmitter
b.
per second by an ideal transistor
c.
per min by an ideal transmitter
d.
per min by an ideal transistor
The bit rate could be as high as
a.
1Gbit/s
b.
1Mbit/s
c.
1Mbyte/s
d.
1Gbyte/s
Bit rate is used to calculate the speed of time to access the network
a.
Without getting error frames
b.
Getting error frames
c.
Without getting error format
d.
Getting error format
Bit rate is always ________ to the baud rate
a.
Equal
b.
More
76.
c.
Equal or more
d.
None of these
Baud rate determines the bandwidth required to transmit the ______
a.
Signal
b.
Data
c.
Symbol
d.
None of these
77.
Lesser bandwidth is required to move these signal units with _____ bits for an
efficient system
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
a.
Less
b.
Large
c.
Equal
d.
None of these
A character set was designed by
a.
Jean-Maurice-Emile Baudot in 1874
b.
Jean-Maurice-Emile Baudot in 1885
c.
John-Maurice-Emile Baudot in 1864
d.
John-Merry-Emile Baudot in 1894
Character set system was implemented using keyboard having ____
a.
8-key
b.
6-key
c.
5-key
d.
9-key
Who modified system using keyboard using 5-key
a.
Donald Murray in 1901
b.
Donald Merry in 1902
c.
Donald Duck in 1904
d.
Donald Murray in 1902
Donald Murray modification took a shape as
a.
International Telegraph Alphabet 1
b.
International Telephone Alphabet 1
c.
International Television Alphabet 1
d.
International Telegram Alphabet 1
International Telegraph Alphabet 1 was further developed to
a.
ITA 1
83.
84.
b.
ITA 2
c.
ITA 3
d.
ITA 4
In character code system, a 5-bit code is
a.
00011
b.
00101
c.
00010
d.
10101
A 5-bit code is signified a
a.
Line Feed
b.
Light Feed
c.
Line Format
d.
None of these
85.
The basic idea behind coding was really workable if number of characters it had to
handle do not require more than
86.
87.
88.
a.
8 characters
b.
16 characters
c.
32 characters
d.
64 characters
For covering all the characters of alphabet with special
a.
Characters
b.
Punctuation marks
c.
Other control characters
d.
Other coding technique was needed
e.
All of these
Encoding is done for data
a.
Inside computer
b.
Outside computer
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The following data techniques are used
a.
Binary Coded Decimal(BCD)
b.
Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code(EBCDIC)
c.
American Standard Code for Information Interchange(ASCII)
89.
d.
Unicode
e.
Manchester Code
f.
Differential Manchester Encoding(DME)
g.
Return to Zero(RZ)
h.
Non Return to Zero(NRZ)
i.
Non Return to Zero Invertive(NRZ-I)
j.
MLT-3
k.
4B/5B
l.
5B/6B
m.
All of these
Unicode Examples are
a.
UTF-7
b.
UTF-8
c.
UTF-16
d.
UTF-32
e.
UTF-EBCDIC
f.
All of these
90.
Binary Coded Decimal system makes use of a series of _____ to represent a decimal
number
a.
4
b.
8
c.
16
d.
32
e.
91.
92.
93.
Nibble is known as series of ____
a.
8 bits
b.
4 bits
c.
16 bits
d.
32 bits
Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code is developed by
a.
Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1964
b.
Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1974
c.
Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1962
d.
Parallel to ASCII, IBM in 1964
EBCDIC is a coding system that uses
a.
8 bit
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
b.
4 bit
c.
16 bit
d.
32 bit
A byte in EBCDIC system of coding contained ___ nibbles
a.
3
b.
4
c.
2
d.
6
First nibble is known as
a.
Zone
b.
Digit
c.
Byte
d.
Bit
Second nibble is known as
a.
Zone
b.
Digit
c.
Byte
d.
Bit
First nibble represents category to which the __________
a.
Characters belong
b.
Integers belong
c.
String belong
d.
None of these
ASCII is a ___ bit coding for representing characters of English alphabets
a.
64 bit
b.
7 bit
c.
16 bit
d.
32 bit
e.
99.
ASCII was published in
a.
1964
b.
1965
100.
c.
1963
d.
1966
Unicode was developed by
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unicode Consortium
Unique Consortium
Unicode Constant
None of these
101.
Unicode is appeared in
a.
b.
c.
d.
1992
1991
1993
1994
102.
103.
The first version of Unicode
a.
Unicode 1.0
b.
Unicode 2.0
c.
Unicode 3.0
d.
None of these
Unicode version 5.0 appeared in
a.
2005
b.
2006
c.
2007
d.
2004
104.
In Unicode there were codes for representing characters and their basic graphical
representation are known as
105.
106.
a.
Graphical
b.
Graphemes
c.
Graphs
d.
None of these
The first 256 code points belong to __________ for conversion to Roman Text
a.
ISO 5589-1
b.
ISO 5569-1
c.
ISO 5579-1
d.
ISO 5559-1
Unicode mapping methods are of two types, namely are
107.
range
108.
109.
a.
UTF(Unicode Transformation Format)
b.
UCS(Unicode Character Set)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Every communication channel has a ________ which is defined as the frequency
a.
Channel
b.
Bandwidth
c.
Carrier
d.
Data rate
The bandwidth is a _________ property of a transmission medium
a.
Physical
b.
Logical
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
A telephone wire has bandwidth of ______ for short distance
a.
1M
b.
2M
c.
3M
d.
4M
110.
Data rate that can be achieved using a channel depends on the _____________ of a
channel
111.
112.
a.
Frequency
b.
Bandwidth
c.
Data rate
d.
Capacity
The undesirable waveform is known as
a.
Anti-Aliasing
b.
Aliasing
c.
Channel
d.
Bandwidth
The word PCM stands for
a.
Primary code mapping
b.
Pulse code modulation
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
c.
Primary channel modulation
d.
None of these
How many way to communicate, display, store or manipulate information
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
The way to communicate, display, store or manipulate information are
a.
Analog
b.
Digital
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The analog form of electronic communication represents the information in
a.
Continuous electromagnetic wave form
b.
Discrete form
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The digital form of electronic communication represents the information in
a.
Continuous electromagnetic wave form
b.
Discrete form
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The word AM stands for
a.
Analog Modulation
b.
Analog Manipulation
c.
Amplitude Modulation
d.
118.
119.
AnalogModeling
The word FM stands for
a.
Frequency Modulation
b.
Fourier Manipulation
c.
Frequency Manipulation
d.
Frequency Modeling
The bandwidth of voice grade channel is approximately
a.
4000Hz
b.
5000Hz
c.
6000Hz
d.
3000Hz
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
The bandwidth of CATV video channel is approximately
a.
2MHz
b.
4MHz
c.
6MHz
d.
8MHz
The advantages of FM over AM are
a.
Improved signal to noise ratio(about 25dB)
b.
Less radiated power
c.
Well defined service areas for given transmitter power
d.
Smaller geographical interference between neighboring stations
e.
All of these
The disadvantages of FM are
a.
Much more bandwidth(as much as 20 times as much)
b.
More Complicated receiver
c.
More complicated transmitter
d.
All of these
Computer are________ in nature
a.
Analog
b.
Digital
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
SS7 means
a.
Signal Source7
b.
Signaling source7
c.
Signaling system7
d.
Signal system7
SS7 is a
a.
System
b.
Source
c.
Protocol
d.
None of these
The PSTN provides a _________ path between the destination and source
a.
Logical
b.
Physical
c.
Both a & b
d.
127.
128.
129.
None of these
The functions of SS7 are
a.
Controlling network
b.
Set up and tear down the call
c.
Handles the routines decision
d.
All of these
SS7 uses voice switches known as
a.
SSWs(Service Switching websites)
b.
SSPs(Service Switching Points)
c.
SSNs(Service Switching Networks)
d.
SSDs(Service Switching Data)
SSPs uses Query Service Control Point (SCP) database using Packet switches called
a.
Signal Transfer Points(STPs)
b.
SSWs(Service Switching websites)
c.
SSPs(Service Switching Points)
d.
SSNs(Service Switching Networks)
130.
_____________ refers to correct detection by receiving equipment at the
beginning and end of data that was sent from sending equipment
131.
a.
Asynchronous
b.
Synchronous
c.
Synchronization
d.
None of these
Synchronous systems can be classified into three categories:
a.
Asynchronous systems
b.
Character synchronous systems
c.
Flag Synchronous systems
d.
All of these
132.
Asynchronous transmission is a _________ method of transmission in which a sign
bit is added to the beginning:
133.
a.
Start
b.
Stop
c.
Start-stop
d.
None of these
Manchester is also known as
a.
MPE(Manchester Phase Encoding)
b.
MPD(Manchester Phase Data)
c.
MPN(Manchester Phase Network)
d.
MPW(Manchester Phase Website)
134.
135.
Manchester coding is used in telecommunication by
a.
Encoding standard 802.3
b.
Ethernet standard 802.3
c.
Ethernet standard 805.3
d.
Encoding standard 805.3
For 10Mbps Ethernet carrier frequency is
a.
20MHz
b.
15MHz
c.
10MHz
d.
5MHz
e.
136.
137.
138.
139.
The another name of DME(Differential Manchester Encoding)
a.
CDP(Conditioned Diphase Encoding)
b.
MPE(Manchester Phase Encoding)
c.
SSWs(Service Switching websites)
d.
SSPs(Service Switching Points)
In DME, logical values are indicated by _______________ of transitions
a.
Absence
b.
Presence
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In RZ, zero between each bit signifies a _____________
a.
Rest Condition
b.
Neutral Point
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The NRZ-pulses contain ____ energy in comparison to that of a RZ code
a.
less
b.
more
c.
either less or more
d.
none of these
140.
141.
NRZ has no ___ state
a.
Rest
b.
Zero
c.
Neutral
d.
None of these
MLT-3 is an encoding scheme in which ____ voltage levels are used
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
142.
Due to four transitions the maximum fundamental frequency requirement is
reduced to ____
143.
144.
145.
146.
a.
One-fourth of the baud rate
b.
One-third of the baud rate
c.
One-half of the baud rate
d.
None of these
Who specified the committee scheme of coding
a.
ANSI X3T9.7
b.
ANSI X5T9.6
c.
ANSI X3T9.5
d.
ANSI X6T9.5
FDDI uses ANSI X3T9.5 for obtaining 100Mbps from a signal of ______
a.
32.25MHz
b.
31.25MHz
c.
31.24MHz
d.
32.26MHz
4B/5B encoding scheme is also known as
a.
Block coding
b.
Bit coding
c.
Byte coding
d.
Block character
In 4B/5B scheme, we need a 125MHz clock for a signal of
a.
1000MHz
b.
100MHz
c.
10MHz
d.
99MHz
147.
The 5B/6B scheme encodes the scrambled 5-bit data pattern into predetermined
_____ bit symbol
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
a.
5
b.
4
c.
6
d.
3
Modulation is the technique used to translate
a.
Information from source to destination
b.
Low frequency to higher frequency
c.
Source to higher frequency
d.
Low frequency to destination
The low frequency signal are
a.
Audio
b.
Video
c.
Music
d.
Data
e.
All of these
The modulation/demodulation is a
a.
Linear process
b.
Non-linear process
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In character synchronous system ,_______ are added
a.
Special character
b.
Start bit
c.
Stop bit
d.
None of these
Special character are called
a.
STN
b.
SYN
c.
SBN
d.
SRN
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
The character string of the SYN character is
a.
01001111
b.
10001110
c.
00010110
d.
00110011
The character synchronous system receives _______ as one character
a.
2bit
b.
4bit
c.
8bit
d.
16bit
In the 4B/5B we need a 125MHz clock for a signal of
a.
100MHz
b.
10MHz
c.
1000MHz
d.
10000MHz
5B/6B creates a data pattern that is placed with equal numbers of
a.
1
b.
0
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
How many encoding techniques we used today
a.
10
b.
100
c.
1000
d.
10000
158.
Modulation is the technique used to translate low-frequency(base-band) signals like
__________ to a higher frequency
a.
Audio
b.
Music
c.
Video
d.
Data
e.
All of these
159.
Modulation/ demodulation is a non linear process where two different sinusoids are
_________
160.
a.
Addition
b.
Subtraction
c.
Multiplied
d.
Division
Angular frequency id defined as _______ the frequency of carrier signal
a.
Once
b.
Twice
c.
Thrice
d.
None of these
161.
The frequencies that comprise the message (base band) are translated into a
_________ range of frequencies
a.
Lower
b.
Higher
c.
Zero
d.
None of these
162.
Modulation also reduces the size of antenna for higher frequencies with ________
frequency
163.
164.
a.
Lower
b.
Greater
c.
Middle
d.
None of these
The non-linearity results in several ___________ harmonics
a.
Even
b.
Odd
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Harmonics are the _________ of the frequency, that is the message frequency
a.
Addition
b.
Subtraction
c.
Multiply
d.
165.
166.
signal
167.
Division
The carrier frequency may be a ___________
a.
Radio wave
b.
Light wave
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The amplitude of carrier frequency ________ in accordance with the modulated
a.
Can not change
b.
Change
c.
Either change or not
d.
None of these
The frequency of the carrier ___________and we get a complex wave
a.
does not changed
b.
Change
c.
Either change or not
d.
None of these
168.
For demodulation, it needs the carrier frequency to be generated or derived at the
receiving location known as
169.
170.
171.
a.
DSB-SC
b.
DBS-CS
c.
BDS-SC
d.
BSD-CS
The full form of DSB-SC
a.
Direct Side Band-Suppressed Carrier
b.
Direct Side Base-Suppressed Carrier
c.
Double Side Band-Suppressed Carrier
d.
Double Slide Band-Suppressed Carrier
One more kind of analog modulation is called
a.
Vestigial side band modulation
b.
Vestigial side base modulation
c.
Vestigial slide band modulation
d.
Vestigial slide base modulation
Pulse code modulation is a method by which an audio signals are represented as
a.
Direct data
172.
173.
noise
b.
Digital data
c.
Device data
d.
None of these
Pulse Code Modulation(PCM) requires bandwidth of ________
a.
32Kbps
b.
64Kbps
c.
128Kbps
d.
256Kbps
PCM is a coding scheme used in digital communication because of _____ sensitive to
a.
Less
b.
Middle
c.
High
d.
None of these
174.
In digital signal the main source of noise is ___________, which introduces as the
finite number of quantization levels during the conversion to PCM code
175.
176.
a.
Quantization noise
b.
Equalization noise
c.
Digital noise
d.
None of these
The main parameters in determining the quality of a PCM system are the
a.
Dynamic range
b.
Signal-to-Noise Ratio(SNR)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The maximum error occurs between the
a.
Original level
b.
Quantized level
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
177.
The maximum error occurs when the original level falls exactly halfway between
______ quantized levels
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
1
178.
179.
The dynamic range is the ratio of the
a.
Largest possible signal magnitude
b.
Smallest possible signal magnitude
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
For a six bits system the dynamic range will be approximately equal to ___
a.
34dB
b.
36dB
c.
40dB
d.
38dB
180.
In dynamic range, the largest voltage amplitude is _______ the smallest voltage
amplitude
181.
182.
183.
184.
a.
32times
b.
64times
c.
125times
d.
256times
The disadvantages associated with the Delta Modulation PCM is
a.
Slope overload
b.
Granular noise
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Communication channels like ____________ are usually analog media
a.
Telephone lines
b.
Television lines
c.
Digital lines
d.
None of these
Which is a bandwidth-limited channel
a.
Digital media
b.
Analog media
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
In the case of telephone lines, the usable bandwidth falls in the range of _______
a.
300Hz to 3000Hz
b.
300Hz to 3300Hz
c.
30Hz to 3300Hz
d.
33Hz to 3300Hz
185.
186.
187.
188.
Digital information signals have the shape of pulse and represented by
a.
0
b.
1
c.
both a & b
d.
none of these
The following types of modulation are used in modems
a.
ASK-Amplitude Shift Keying
b.
FSK-Frequency Shifted Keying
c.
PSK-Phase Shift Keying
d.
DPSK-Differential Phase Shift Keying
e.
BPSK-Binary Phase Shift Keying
f.
QPSK-Quadrature Phase Shifted Keying
g.
QAM- Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
h.
All of these
The main advantage of this technique, it is easy to such
a.
Signals
b.
Also to detect them
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Telephone lines limit amplitude changes to some _________ changes per second
a.
3000
b.
3300
c.
3100
d.
3330
189.
In the Frequency Shift keying, the frequency of the carrier signal is changed
according to the data
a.
Modulation
b.
Data
c.
Signals
d.
None of these
190.
In the Phase Shift Keying method a sine wave is transmitted and the phase of the
sine wave carries the ______
a.
Analog data
b.
Digital data
c.
Signal data
d.
191.
192.
193.
194.
None of these
For a 0, a __ degrees phase sine wave is transmitted
a.
0
b.
45
c.
90
d.
180
For a 1, a __ degrees phase sine wave is transmitted
a.
0
b.
45
c.
90
d.
180
A sub method of the phase modulation is
a.
Differential phase modulation
b.
Direct phase modulation
c.
Double phase modulation
d.
None of these
Differential phase modulation technique is also called
a.
Amplitude Shift Keying
b.
Phase Shift Keying
c.
Frequency Shift Keying
d.
None of these
195.
In the differential phase shift keying, For a 0 the modem shifts the phase of each
succeeding signal in a certain number of degrees
a.
0
b.
45
c.
90
d.
180
196.
In the differential phase shift keying, For a 1 the modem shifts the phase of each
succeeding signal and a different certain number of degrees
a.
0
b.
90
c.
180
d.
270
197.
In binary phase shift keying, the case of 4 different phase shifts, where each symbol
represents ____, the modulation technique is called quadrature PSK(QPSK)
a.
2 bits
b.
4 bits
c.
8 bits
d.
16 bits
198.
In binary phase shift keying, the case of 8 different phase shifts, where each symbol
represents ____, the modulation technique is called
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
a.
QPSK
b.
8PSK
c.
8QAM
d.
8FSK
Binary Phase Shift Keying is measured in
a.
Decibel
b.
Baud
c.
Hertz
d.
bits per second
In QPSK, the four angle are usually out of phase by
a.
0
b.
45
c.
90
d.
180
The AM is considered as a
a.
Linear process
b.
Non-linear process
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The FM is considered as a
a.
Linear process
b.
Non-linear process
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The phase modulation is similar to the
204.
a.
Amplitude Modulation
b.
Frequency Modulation
c.
Angle Modulation
d.
Pulse Code Modulation
In PM, ________ of the carrier wave changes
a.
Frequency
b.
Phase
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
205.
PCM requires bandwidth of
a.
21Kbps
b.
24Kbps
c.
64Kbps
d.
65Kbps
206.
In data communication using computers ,________ signal are normally converted
into PCM
a.
Analog
b.
Digital
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
207.
The PCM is a coding scheme used in __________ communication because of less
sensitive to noise
a.
Analog
b.
Digital
c.
Both a &b
d.
None of these
208.
________ is a process where multiple analog message signals or digital data streams
are combined into one medium over a shared medium
a.
Multiplexing
b.
Modulation
c.
Encoding technique
d.
De-multiplexing
209.
The various ways to multiplex are
a.
b.
Frequency Division Multiplexing(FDM)
Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)
c.
Code Division Multiplexing(CDM)
d.
Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)
e.
All of these
210.
In which , Multiple channels are combined onto a single aggregate signal for
transmission
211.
a.
Frequency Division Multiplexing(FDM)
b.
Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)
c.
Code Division Multiplexing(CDM)
d.
Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)
In FDM , channels are separated in the aggregate by their
a.
Bandwidth
b.
Signal
c.
Frequency
d.
None of these
212.
_________ was the foremost multiplexing scheme to have the benefits of wide
scale network deployment and till today, such systems are still in use and are used with
analog transmission
a.
b.
213.
Frequency Division Multiplexing(FDM)
Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)
c.
Code Division Multiplexing(CDM)
d.
Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)
The two alternative technologies of multiplexing for digital sources are
a.
b.
Frequency Division Multiplexing(FDM)
Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)
c.
Code Division Multiplexing(CDM)
d.
Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)
e.
Both b & c
f.
Both a & b
g.
Both c & d
214.
_______ provides a means for merging data from the varied sources into a single
channel to support communication over a microwave system , satellite system or a
telephone lines
a.
b.
215.
Frequency Division Multiplexing(FDM)
Time Division Multiplexing(TDM)
c.
Code Division Multiplexing(CDM)
d.
Wavelength Division Multiplexing(WDM)
The TDM are implemented in two ways are
a.
Synchronous TDM
b.
Asynchronous TDM
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
216.
In which type of TDM , a single channel is divided into time slots and each
transmitting device is assigned for least one of the time slots for its transmission
217.
218.
a.
Synchronous TDM
b.
Asynchronous TDM
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The Asynchronous TDM is properly known as
a.
Statistical TDM
b.
Static TDM
c.
Dynamic TDM
d.
None of these
Which ways of Multiplex are more flexible
a.
FDM
b.
TDM
c.
CDM
d.
None of these
219.
In which way of multiplex ,the whole amount for a certain amount of time is
provided to the user and all user uses the same frequency but at different time
220.
221.
a.
FDM
b.
TDM
c.
CDM
d.
None of these
To overcome the inefficiency of standard TDM, a technique known as
a.
CDM
b.
FDM
c.
STDM
d.
CDMA
The word UHF means
a.
Ultra -High –Form
b.
Ultra –Half-Form
c.
Ultra- High-Frequency
d.
Ultra-Half-Frequency
222.
________ may be defined as the form of multiplexing where the transmitter
encodes the signal using a pseudo random sequence
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
a.
CDM
b.
FDM
c.
STDM
d.
CDMA
The number of different frequency per bit are called
a.
Bit rate
b.
Data rate
c.
Baud rate
d.
Chip rate
If one or more bits are transmitted at the same frequency are called
a.
Frequency doping
b.
Frequency hopping
c.
Frequency hoping
d.
Frequency hipping
The main disadvantage of CDM is
a.
Protection from interference
b.
Tapping as only the sender know the spreading code
c.
Tapping as only the receiver know the spreading code
d.
All of these
The Code Division Multiple Access(CDMA) was widely introduced in
a.
1963
b.
1989
c.
1979
d.
1958
In CDMA system ,all user transmit in the ______ bandwidth simultaneously
a.
Different
b.
Same
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
228.
The spread spectrum technology of CDMA is ___________ than TDMA
a.
More secure
b.
Provides higher transmission quality
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
229.
230.
A CDMA call starts with a standard rate of ___________ bits per second
a.
9500
b.
9200
c.
9300
d.
9600
The code used with the signal for spreading have
a.
Low cross-correlation values
b.
Unique to every user
c.
Higher transmission quality
d.
Both a & b
231.
In spread spectrum technique, a receiver is only capable of selecting the desired
signal if it has the knowledge about the code of the intended
232.
a.
Receiver
b.
Transmitter
c.
Both a & b
d.
Signal
The major advantage of spread spectrum technique may be enumerated as
a.
Low power spectral density
b.
Interference limited operation
c.
Privacy due to unknown random codes
d.
Reduction of multi path affects
e.
All of these
233.
The word FHSS stands for
a.
frequency hopping spread spectrum
b.
file hopping spread spectrum
c.
file hiding spread spectrum
d.
frequency hopping special spectrum
234.
235.
The word DSSS stands for
a.
digital sequence spread spectrum
b.
direct sequence spread spectrum
c.
digital sequence special spectrum
d.
direct signal spread spectrum
The pattern of switching from one channel to another channel is known as
a.
Hipping
b.
Hyping
c.
Harping
d.
Hopping
236.
________ is best known spread spectrum technique in which a pseudo random noise
code multiples the signal
a.
FHSS
b.
FCSS
c.
DSSS
d.
DHSS
237.
A pseudo random noise code is a sequence of chips valued________ with noise-like
properties
a.
-1 and1(polar)
b.
0 and 1(non-polar)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
238.
________ time is the time spent on a channel with certain frequency
a.
FDM
b.
Dwell
c.
Dowel
d.
Dowry
e.
239.
FHSS includes_______ technology
a.
FDM
b.
TDM
c.
CDM
d.
Both a & b
e.
240.
Individual channels are
a.
Data
b.
Audio
c.
Video or their combination
d.
All of these
241.
__________ a multi-channel system in which a number of individuals channels are
multiplexed for transmission
242.
243.
a.
System
b.
Carrier
c.
Carrier system
d.
None of these
T-carrier signaling scheme was developed by
a.
Bell Laboratory
b.
Hell Laboratory
c.
Dull Laboratory
d.
None of these
T1 standards is widely used in
244.
245.
246.
a.
Japan
b.
North America
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
T-carrier was digital signal 1, DS1 or DS-1 which is known as
a.
T1
b.
E1
c.
DS0
d.
DS1
DS-1 conveys the meaning of
a.
Direct Service-Level 1
b.
Digital Service-Level 1
c.
Double Service-Level 1
d.
Digital Slide-Level 1
E1 signifies another carrier system that finds use outside
247.
248.
249.
a.
North America
b.
Japan
c.
South Korea
d.
All of these
A DS1 circuit comprises ________ , each of 8 bits
a.
24 channels
b.
26 channels
c.
28 channels
d.
30 channels
24 channels are also called
a.
Timeslots
b.
DS0
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
DS0 channel is a ______ that is multiplexed
a.
68Kbit/s
b.
64Kbit/s
c.
62Kbit/s
d.
70Kbit/s
250.
DS1 is full-duplex circuit in which the circuit does concurrent transmission and
reception at a data rate of ___
a.
1.533Mbit/s
b.
1.544Mbit/s
c.
1.566Mbit/s
d.
1.555Mbit/s
251.
By sampling each 8-bit frame for 8000 times per second, total bandwidth achieved
is ________
252.
a.
1.537Kbit/s
b.
1.536Kbit/s
c.
1.538Kbit/s
d.
1.539Kbit/s
Framing schemes are of two types:
a.
Super Frame(SF)
253.
254.
255.
256.
257.
b.
Extended Super Frame(ESF)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Framing channel has been divided into two each with ______ in Super Frame
a.
2Kbit/s
b.
3Kbit/s
c.
4Kbit/s
d.
6Kbit/s
There are _____ contiguous frames of 193-bit each in a Super Frame
a.
10
b.
12
c.
14
d.
16
There are _____ contiguous frames of 193-bit each in a Extended Super Frame
a.
20
b.
22
c.
24
d.
26
Framing channel has been divided into two each with _______ in Super frame
a.
2Kbit/s
b.
4Kbit/s
c.
6Kbit/s
d.
8Kbit/s
One is used for alignment of ________
a.
Terminal frame
b.
Signaling frame
c.
Super frame
d.
Switching frame
e.
258.
Second is used for alignment of ________
a.
Terminal frame
b.
Signaling frame
c.
Super frame
d.
Switching frame
e.
259.
Alignment of terminal is carried out with frames having _______ in the super frame
a.
Even-number
b.
Odd-number
c.
Prime-number
d.
None of these
260.
A frame having _________ in the super frame is used for signaling alignment of
frame
261.
262.
263.
264.
a.
Even-number
b.
Odd-number
c.
Prime-number
d.
None of these
T1 is recognized by its original ______ line rate
a.
1.566Mbit/s
b.
1.544Mbit/s
c.
1.555Mbit/s
d.
1.533Mbit/s
T1 used the encoding technique _______
a.
AMI
b.
LAN
c.
DS1
d.
CEPT
AMI means
a.
Analog Memory Interchange
b.
Alternate Memory Interchange
c.
Alternate Mark Inversion
d.
Analog Mark Interchange
AMI requires less
a.
Bandwidth
b.
Signal
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
265.
CEPT means
a.
Conference European of Postal Telecommunications
b.
European Conference of Postal and Telecommunications
c.
European Control of Postal Telecommunications
d.
None of these
266.
CEPT after ten years of launch of T1 system used _____ for framing known as
European E1
267.
268.
a.
2bits
b.
4bits
c.
8bits
d.
16bits
An E1 carrier carries digital information at ______
a.
2.084Mbps
b.
2.048Mbps
c.
2.044Mbps
d.
2.088Mbps
An E1 circuit has been divided into ____ time slots
a.
30
b.
32
c.
34
d.
36
269.
32 time slots implements an individual communication channel supporting a bit rate
of ________
270.
271.
zones
a.
60Kbps
b.
62Kbps
c.
64Kbps
d.
66Kbps
An E1 frame has a total of _________
a.
128bits
b.
256bits
c.
64bits
d.
192bits
Which is used to exchange information over the E1 carriers that connect remote
a.
Protocols Frame Relay
b.
Cell Relay
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
272.
CEPT revised and improved the technology adopted by
a.
T-carrier system
b.
E-carrier system
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
273.
Which was taken by International Telecommunications Union Telecommunication
Standardization Sector(ITU-T)
274.
275.
a.
T-carrier system
b.
E-carrier system
c.
E1 system
d.
T1 system
ITU-T finds wide use all over the world except three nations namely
a.
UK, USA, Japan
b.
USA, Canada, Japan
c.
Japan, America, USA
d.
Japan, America, Canada
PDH means
a.
Plesiochronous Digital Hierarchy
b.
Plasma Digital Hierarchy
c.
Pointer Double Hard disk
d.
Plasma Double Hierarchy
276.
In 32 timeslots of E1, only ___ are used two of these are used for framing and
signalling call setup
a.
277.
20
b.
15
c.
30
d.
40
High quality of call is ensured since transmission takes place with a constant
a.
Latency
278.
279.
b.
Capacity
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Another timeslot is reserved for signalling purposes
a.
TS16
b.
TS15
c.
TS14
d.
TS13
Which is controlled some standard protocols in the field of telecommunications
a.
Teardown
b.
Call setup
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
280.
E1 is different from earlier T-carrier systems since all ___ of every sampling are
available for every call
281.
282.
283.
a.
4bits
b.
8bits
c.
16bits
d.
32bits
There are two general categories of transmission media
a.
Bounded(guided) media
b.
Unbounded(unguided) media
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
__________ are bounded media
a.
Twisted pair
b.
Coaxial cable
c.
Fibre optic cables
d.
All of these
________ are known as unbounded transmission
a.
microwave and satellite transmission
b.
both travel through the air
c.
which has no boundaries
d.
all of these
284.
285.
Wireless transmission systems do not make use of a
a.
Physical conductor
b.
Guide to bind the signal
c.
Logical conductor
d.
Both a & b
Energy travels through the air rather than
a.
Copper
b.
Glass
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
The transmission systems addressed under this category include
a.
Microwave
b.
Satellite
c.
Infrared
d.
All of the above
Which are used in radio transmission in one form or another
a.
Radio
b.
TV
c.
Cellular phones
d.
All of these
_______ is the one example of long distance communication
a.
Satellite signal
b.
Satellite relay
c.
Analog signal
d.
Digital signal
The RF(Radio Frequency) is divided in different ranges starting from
a.
Very low frequency(VLF)
b.
Extremely high frequency(EHF)
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Two transmitters cannot share the same frequency band because of
a.
Mutual interference
291.
292.
b.
Band usage is regulated
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
PDAs means
a.
Personal Digital Assistants
b.
Personal Double Assistants
c.
Personal Digital Analogs
d.
Power Digital Assistants
ADSL means
a.
Analogs Digital Subscriber Lines
b.
Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Lines
c.
Assistants Digital Subscriber Lines
d.
Asymmetric Digital Subscriber language
293.
A pair of copper wires twisted together and wrapped with a plastic coating as a
twisted pair and which has a diameter of ____:
294.
a.
0.2-0.6
b.
0.4-0.7
c.
0.2-0.8
d.
0.4-0.8
______ are the substances used for insulation purposes
a.
Teflon(r)
b.
Flouropolymer resin
c.
Polyvinyl chloride
d.
Polyethylene
e.
All of these
f.
295.
In modem data rate is restricted to approximately____:
a.
24Kbps
b.
28Kbps
c.
30Kbps
d.
32Kbps
e.
296.
_______ was first used in telephone system by Alexander Graham Bell
a.
Copper medium
b.
Copper signal
c.
Copper set up
d.
None of these
e.
297.
The unshielded twisted pair states the link between the end in the communication
closet and the outlet which is further restricted to
298.
299.
300.
301.
302.
a.
60metres
b.
90metres
c.
100metres
d.
190metres
A UTP cable contains __________ twisted pairs
a.
2 to 240
b.
2 to 4200
c.
2 to 2400
d.
None of these
The major disadvantage of UTP is
a.
Bandwidth is lower
b.
Bandwidth is higher
c.
Bandwidth is limited
d.
Bandwidth is dynamic
STP stands for
a.
Shielded twisted pair
b.
Signal transmission pair
c.
Shielding twisted process
d.
Shielded transmission pair
150Ohms STP contains ________IBM connector or RJ45
a.
1 pair
b.
2 pairs
c.
3 pairs
d.
4 pairs
100Ohm UTP contains _________ and 8-pin modular connector(ISDN)
a.
2 pairs
b.
3 pairs
c.
4 pairs
d.
5 pairs
303.
304.
305.
306.
307.
308.
309.
________ contains multi-mode fibre
a.
52.5/125
b.
72.5/125
c.
62.5/125
d.
82.5/125
What are the biggest advantage of UTP
a.
Flexibility
b.
Cost-effective media
c.
Usability of both data communication and voice
d.
All of these
LED means
a.
Light Emitting Device
b.
Light Emitting Diode
c.
Light Exchange Device
d.
Light Exchange Diode
The effective capacity of coaxial cable depends on the
a.
Spacing of amplifiers
b.
The length of the circuit
c.
The gauge of the centre conductor
d.
Other intermediate devices
e.
All of these
LANs function over coaxial cable to the __________ specifications
a.
10BASE5
b.
10BASE2
c.
10BASET
d.
All of these
Coaxial cables are of two types
a.
Baseband
b.
Broadband
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The gauge of coaxial cable is _____ than the twisted pair
a.
Thicker
b.
Thinner
c.
Heavy
d.
Bulky
310.
Traditional coaxial cable is quite ________ of which Ethernet LAN 10Base5 is an
example
311.
312.
a.
Thick
b.
Heavy
c.
Bulky
d.
All of these
Twin axial cables contains _____ such configurations within a single cable sheath
a.
2
b.
3
c.
4
d.
5
The mechanical protections cover the _________
a.
Secondary buffer coating
b.
Primary buffer coating
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
313.
The bandwidth is typically ________ over a length of one kilometer of fibre
expressed as ‘MHz-Km’
a.
10 to 20
b.
20 to 30
c.
30 to 40
d.
40 to 50
314.
In which multimode fibre, light is refracted by an increasing amount as it moves
away from the core
315.
316.
a.
Single mode fibre
b.
Step index multimode fibre
c.
Graded index multimode fibre
d.
All of these
The actual bandwidth of graded index multimode fibre depends on
a.
How well a particular fibre’s index profile minimizes model dispersion
b.
The wavelength of light launched into the fibre
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The typical bandwidth of graded index multimode fibre range from
a.
100MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km
317.
318.
319.
320.
321.
322.
323.
b.
200 MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km
c.
300 MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km
d.
150 MHz-Km to over 1GHz-Km
Which multimode fibre has a thinner inner core
a.
Single mode fibre/ Monomode fibre
b.
Step index multimode fibre
c.
Graded index multimode fibre
d.
All of these
In which multimode fibre , different wavelength of light travel at a different speeds
a.
Single mode fibre
b.
Step index multimode fibre
c.
Graded index multimode fibre
d.
All of these
The single mode fibers have the
a.
Very broadest bandwidth
b.
Lowest cost
c.
Lowest attenuation of any optical fibre
d.
All of these
The advantage of single mode fibre are
a.
Small size and light weight
b.
Large bandwidth
c.
Flexibility and high strength
d.
Secure against signal leakage and interference
e.
No short circuit problems
f.
All of these
The fibre optic systems consists of a
a.
Light sources
b.
Cables
c.
Light detectors
d.
All of these
In a fiber optic system, ______ are opto-electric devices
a.
Repeater
b.
EMI
c.
RMI
d.
RFI
EMI/RFI means
a.
Electro Magnetic Interference / Radio Frequency Interference
b.
Electronics Magnetic Interference/Redundancy Frequency Interference
c.
Electro Minute Intrinsically/ Radio Fibre Interference
d.
None of these
324.
Monomode fibre optic systems routinely are capable of transmitting signal over
distances in excess of
325.
326.
a.
250Km
b.
350Km
c.
225Km
d.
325Km
CAD means
a.
Computer aided distribution
b.
Computer application design
c.
Computer aided design
d.
None of these
Bounded Media Comparison Chart
Media
Twisted pair cable
Coaxial
cable
comparison to twisted)
Optical fibre cable
Advantages
Disadvantage
Inexpensive,
well Sensitive to noise, short
established , easy to add distances,
limited
nodes
bandwidth, security hazard
because of easy interception
(in High
bandwidth,
long Physical dimensions, noise
distances
immunity security is better
in pair cable
Very High bandwidth, long Connections, cost
distances, noise immunity,
high security, small size
327.
In data communication the signal has to travel through the transmission media that
may be
328.
a.
Wired
b.
Wireless
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
There exist three causes of impairment in transmission errors
a.
Attenuation
b.
Distortion
c.
Noise
d.
All of these
329.
___________ is the loss of the signal power while traversing a transmission media
including electronic circuitry
330.
331.
332.
333.
a.
Attenuation
b.
Distortion
c.
Noise
d.
None of these
Attenuation is measured in terms of
a.
Hertz
b.
Micro
c.
decibel
d.
Kilometer
Distortion is calculated as the ratio of the
a.
Signal at two different points
b.
Relative power of two signals at the same point
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
A negative value of decibel indicates _______ of signal strength
a.
Loss
b.
Gain
c.
Either loss or gain
d.
None of these
A positive value of decibel indicates _______ of signal strength
a.
Loss
b.
Gain
c.
Either loss or gain
d.
None of these
e.
334.
335.
The attenuation includes a number of factors like
a.
Transmitting and receiving antennas
b.
Transmitter powers
c.
Modulation techniques
d.
Frequency of the transmission
e.
Atmospheric conditions
f.
All of these
Distortion is proportional to the square of the _________
a.
Atmospheric conditions
b.
Modulation techniques
c.
Operating frequency
d.
Operating system
336.
Equalizing devices are ________ at intermediate points to keep the shape of the
signal intact
337.
a.
Created
b.
Inserted
c.
Modified
d.
Deleted
Data processing and transmission systems experience errors due to several reasons
a.
Electrostatic interference can be caused from circuits or machines lying
close by
b.
Inductance and capacitance, loss in transmission due to leakages, impulses
from static in the atmosphere, etc, lead to distortion
338.
c.
Resistance to current in a cable can be caused due to attenuation
d.
All of these
The main constraints are due to the physical medium that produces
a.
Noise
b.
Distortion
c.
Attenuation
d.
Dropouts
e.
All of these
339.
The digital signals do not suffer from ___________ but they are susceptible to
dropouts
340.
341.
342.
a.
Noise
b.
Distortion
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The use of several parity bits are
a.
Help to detect any error
b.
Find if any bits are inverted
c.
They should be re-inverted so that the original data is restored
d.
All of these
SECDEC means
a.
Single error correction, double error detection
b.
Single exchange correction, double exchange detection
c.
Single error code, double error detection
d.
Single error character, double error detection
The types of errors are
a.
Single Bit Errors
b.
Burst Errors
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
343.
344.
345.
346.
A transmission cable has
a.
Inductance
b.
Capacitance
c.
Resistance
d.
All of these
The inductance and capacitance tends to
a.
Causes the amplitude of the signal to reduce
b.
Distort the shape of a signal
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The resistance tends to
a.
Causes the amplitude of the signal to reduce and therefore loss of power
b.
Distort the shape of a signal
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
Which type of error corrupt the single bits of transmission
a.
Burst errors
b.
Single bit errors
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
e.
347.
348.
Which type of error corrupt the multiple bits of transmission
a.
Burst errors
b.
Single bit errors
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
ENQ means
a.
Enquiry
b.
Encryptions
349.
350.
351.
352.
353.
c.
Enquire
d.
None of these
BER stands for
a.
Byte Enquiry Rate
b.
Bit Error Rate
c.
Burst Enquiry resistance
d.
Burst Error Rate
NAK means
a.
None Acknowledge
b.
Noise Acknowledge
c.
Negative Acknowledgement
d.
Network Acknowledgement
The No of bits that get affected in burst errors depends upon the
a.
Duration of the noise
b.
Transmission time of the no of bits of the transmitted packet
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these
The redundant bit enables
a.
correction of errors
b.
detection of errors
c.
Redundancy check
d.
All of these
The types of redundancy processes are
a.
Parity check
b.
Cyclic redundancy check
c.
Checksum
d.
All of these
e.
354.
__________ is the technique of providing a data string that is added to information
packets used to detect errors in data packets
a.
CRC
b.
Parity check
c.
Checksum
d.
All of these
e.
355.
356.
357.
358.
359.
Which redundancy process can detect the more than 95 per cent of all errors
a.
CRC
b.
Parity check
c.
Checksum
d.
All of these
CRC means
a.
Circuit Redundancy Check
b.
Cyclic Redundancy Check
c.
Checksum Rail Check
d.
None of these
The Two-dimensional parity check method can not
a.
Correct the errors
b.
Detect the errors
c.
Correct and detect the errors
d.
None of these
When signal amplitude degrades along a transmission medium , this is called
a.
Signal attenuation
b.
Signal bandwidth
c.
Frequency
d.
Data rate
The CRC is validated by using _______ conditions
a.
1
b.
2
c.
3
d.
4
360.
The two conditions of CRC are
a.
It should possess exactly one bit less than the divisor
b.
When CRC is appended to the end of the data stream
c.
Both a & b
d.
None of these