VR CLASSES FOR JEE / MEDICAL
PHYSICS
1.

An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force F between the two is
1
(Where K 
)
4  0
(a)  K
2.
e2
rˆ
r3
K
e2 
r
r3
(c)
K
e 
r
r3
(d)
K
e2
rˆ
r2
Two point charges +2C and +6C repel each other with a force of 12 Newtons. If a charge of – 4C is given to each of these charges the force
now is
(a) Zero
3.
(b)
(b) 4 N (attractive)
Electric field intensity at a point at a distance 60 cm from charge is 2
(a)
8  10 11 C
(b)
8  10 11 C
(c) 12 N (attractive)
(d) 8 N (repulsive)
volt
then charge will be
metre
(c)
4  10 11 C
(d)
4  10 11 C
4.
In a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius r the electric field is
5.
If  is the charge per unit area on the surface of a conductor, then the electric field intensity at a point on the surface is
(a) Zero

(a) 
 0
(c)
6.



 0
(b) Non-zero constant
(c) Varies with r
(d ) Inversely varies with r

 normal to surface


(b)
 

 2
 0

 normal to surface



 tangential to surface


(d)
 

 2
 0

 ta ngential to surface


Electric field intensity at a point in between two parallel sheets with like charges of same surface charge densities ( ) is
(a)

2 0
(b)

0
(c) Zero
(d)
2
0
7.
The electric field due to cylindrical charge distribution of infinite length at a distance equal to its radius from its surface will be – ( 
linear charge density, R = radius of the cylinder)
2 K
K
K
3 K
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
R
R
2R
2R
8.
There is a solid dielectric sphere of radius ‘R’ having uniformly distributed charge. What is the relation between electric field ‘E’ inside the
sphere and radius of sphere ‘R’ is
9.
(a) E  R 2
10.
Electric field strength due to a point charge of 5 C at a distance of 80 cm from the charge is
(a) 8  104 N/C
(b) 7  104 N/C
(c) 5  104 N/C
11.
(b)
E  R 1
13.
1
R3
(d)
E  R2
(d) 4  104 N/C
(d) Mass of B increases
When 1019
electrons are removed from a neutral metal plate, the electric charge on it is
(a) – 1.6 C
(b) + 1.6 C
(c) 10+19 C
(d) 10–19 C
When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant k, the maximum force of attraction between two charges separated by a distance
(a) Decreases k times
14.
E
One metallic sphere A is given positive charge where as another identical metallic sphere B of exactly same mass as of A is given equal
amount of negative charge. Then
(a) Mass of A and mass of B still remain equal
(b) Mass of A increases
(c) Mass of B decreases
12.
(c)
(b) Remains unchanged
(c) Increases k times
(d) Increases k–1 times
Two infinite plane parallel sheets separated by a distance d have equal and opposite uniform charge densities . Electric field at a point
between the sheets is
(a) Zero
(c)

2 0
(b)

0
(d) Depend on the nature of the materials of the spheres
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15.
A hollow insulated conduction sphere is given a positive charge of 10 C. What will be the electric field at the centre of the sphere if its
radius is 2 metres
(a) Zero
(b) 5C m–2
(c) 20 C m–2
(d) 8 C m–2
16.
A body can be negatively charged by
(a) Giving excess of electrons to it
(b) Removing some electrons from it
(c) Giving some protons to it
(d) Removing some neutrons from it
17.
Three equal charges are placed on the three corners of a square. If the force between Q1 and Q 2 is F12 and that between Q1 and Q 3
is F13 , then the ratio of magnitudes
(a) 1/2
18.
(b)
F1 2
F1 3
2
(c)
1
2
(d)
2
The magnitude of electric field E in the annular region of a charged cylindrical capacitor
(a) Is same throughout
(b) Is higher near the outer cylinder than near the inner cylinder
(d) Varies as 1/r2, where r is the distance from the axis
(c) Varies as 1/r, where r is the distance from the axis
19.
A glass rod rubbed with silk is used to charge a gold leaf electroscope then charged electroscope is exposed to X-rays for a short period.
Then
(a) The divergence of leaves will not be affected
(b) The leaves will diverge further
(c) The leaves will collapse
(d) The leaves will melt
20.
A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. The electric field due to this charge distribution at the center of this cube will be
(a) q/b2
(b) q/2b2
(c) 32q/b2
(d) Zero
21.
The intensity of electric field, due to a uniformly charged infinite cylinder of radius R, at a distance r(> R) from its axis is proportional to
1
1
(a) r2
(b) r3
(c)
(d)
r2
r
22.
Two parallel plates have equal and opposite charge. When the space between them is evacuated, the electric field between the plates is
2  105 V/m. When the space is filled with dielectric, the electric field becomes 1  105 V/m. The dielectric constant of the dielectric
material
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
23.
Six charges, three positive and ;three negative of equal magnitude are to be placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon such that the
electric field at O is double the electric field when only one positive charge of same magnitude is placed at R. Which of the following
arrangements of charges is possible for P, Q, R, S, T and U respectively ?
Q
P
U
R
O
S
T
(a) +, –, +, –, –, +
24.
(b) +, –, +, –, +, –
(c) +, +, –, +, –, –
(d) –, +, +, –, +, –
Three charges – q1, + q2 and – q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The X-component of the force on – q1 is proportional to
Y
– q3
a

b
– q1
(a) q2 / b2 – (q3 / a2) sin
(b) q2 / b2 – (q3 / a2) cos
+q2
X
(c) q2 / b2 + (q3 / a2) sin
(d) q2 / b2 + (q3 / a2) cos
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25.
Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not experience any force. The value of
(a) 40G
26.
 0
(b)
G
4  0
(c)
G
(d)
q
is
m
4 0 G
A solid conducting sphere of radius a has a net positive charge 2Q . A conducting spherical shell of inner radius b and outer radius c is
concentric with the solid sphere and has a net charge Q . The surface charge density on the inner and outer surfaces of the spherical
shell will be
b
c
(a)

2Q
Q
,
4  b 2 4 c 2
(b)

Q
Q
,
4  b 2 4 c 2
(c)
0,
Q
4 c 2
(d) None of the above
27.
Two conducting solid spheres of radii R and 2R are given equal charges (+Q) each. When they are connected by a thin conducting wire,
the charges get redistributed. The ratio of charge Q1 on smaller sphere to charge Q2 on larger sphere becomes
Q1
Q1
Q1 1
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
1
2

Q2
Q2
Q2 2
28.
Electric charges of 1 C, – 1 C and 2 C are placed in air at the corners A, B and C respectively of an equilateral triangle ABC having


length of each side 10 cm. The resultant force on the charge at C is  0  10 7 Hm 1 
 4

29.
A solid metallic sphere has a charge + 3Q. Concentric with this sphere is a conducting spherical shell having charge – Q. The radius of the
sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is b(b > a). What is the electric field at a distance R(a  R  b ) from the centre
(a) 0.9 N
(a)
Q
2 0 R
(b) 1.8 N
(b)
3Q
2 0 R
(c) 2.7 N
(c)
3Q
4 0 R 2
(d) 3.6 N
(d)
4Q
4 0 R 2
30.
Two copper balls, each weighing 10 g are kept in air 10 cm apart. If one electron from every 106 atoms is transferred from one ball to the
other, the coulomb force between them is (atomic weight of copper is 63.5)
(a) 2.0  1010 N
(b) 2.0  104 N
(c) 2.0  107 N
(d) 2.0  106 N
31.
A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The magnitude of the electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from
its centre
(a) Increases as r increases for r < R (b)
Decreases as r increases for 0 < r < 
(c) Decreases as r increases for R < r < 
(d) In discontinuous at r = R
32.
Two infinitely long parallel wires having linear charge densities 1 and 2 respectively are placed at a distance of R metres. The force per

1 

unit length on either wire will be  k 
4  0 

2 
2 


(a) k 12 2
(b) k 1 2
(c) k 1 22
(d) k 1 2
R
R
R
R
33.
A point charge of 40 stat coulomb is placed 2 cm in front of an earthed metallic plane plate of large size. Then the force of attraction on
the point charge is
(a) 100 dynes
(b) 160 dynes
(c) 1600 dynes
(d) 400 dynes
34.
Two point charges are kept separated by 4 cm of air and 6 cm of a dielectric of relative permittivity 4. The equivalent dielectric separation
between them so far their coulombian interaction is conserved is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 16 cm
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35.
A regular polygon has n sides each of length l. Each corner of the polygon is at a distance r from the centre. Identical charges each equal
to q are placed at (n – 1) corners of the polygon. What is the electric field at the centre of the polygon
(a)
36.
n q
4  0 r 2
(b)
n q
4 0 l 2
(c)
39.
1 q
4 0 l 2
(d) 1.2 milligram on the pan of B
A long thin rod lies along the x-axis with one end at the origin. It has a uniform charge density  C/m. Assuming it to infinite in length the
electric field point x = – a on the x-axis will
(a)
38.
(d)
Two spheres A and B of gold (each of mass 1 kg.) are hung from two pans of a sensitive physical balance. If A is given 1 Faraday of positive
charge and B is given 1 F of negative charge, then to balance the balance we have to put a weight of (1F = 96500 C)
(a) 0.6  g on the pan of A
(b) 0.6  g on the pan of B
(c) 1.01 milligram on the pan of A
37.
1 q
4  0 r 2

 0 a
(b)

(c)
2 0 a
The charge on 500 cc of water due to protons will be
(a) 6.0  1027 C
(b) 2.67  107 C

4  0 a
(c) 6  1023 C
(d)
2
 0 a
(d) 1.67  1023 C
In the figure shown, if the linear charge density is , then the net electric field at O will be

+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
+
R
+
O
+
+
(a) Zero
40.
2k 
R
2 k
R
(d)
(b) = F/q0
(c) < F/q0
(d) Cannot be estimated
(c) 2
(b) 4
(d) 1
A conducting sphere of radius R, and carrying a charge q is joined to a conducting sphere of radius 2R, and carrying a charge – 2q. The
charge flowing between them will be
(a)
43.
(c)
Two point charges placed at a distances of 20 cm in air repel each other with a certain force. When a dielectric slab of thickness 8 cm and
dielectric constant K is introduced between these point charges, force of interaction becomes half of it’s previous value. Then K is
approximately
(a) 2
42.
k
R
A positively charged ball is supported on a rigid insulating stand. We wish to measure the electric field E at a point in the some horizontal
level as that of the hanging charge. To do so we put a positive test charge q0 and measure F/q0 than E at that point
(a) > F/q0
41.
(b)
+
q
3
(b)
2q
3
(c) q
(d)
4q
3
A hollow conducting sphere is placed in an electric field produced by a point charge placed at P as shown in figure. Let VA , VB , VC be the
potentials at points A, B and C respectively. Then
A
C
P
B
(a)
VC  VB
(b)
VB  VC
(c)
VA  VB
(d)
VA  VC
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44.
A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the centre of the shell. The electrostatic
potential at a point P a distance
(a)
45.
R
from the centre of the shell is
2
(q  Q) 2
4  0 R
(b)
2Q
(c)
4  0 R
2Q

4 0 R
2q
4 0 R
(d)
2Q
4 0 R

q
4 0 R
A charged oil drop is to be held stationary between two plates separated by a distance of 25 mm . If the mass of the drop is 5  10 15 kg
and the charge on it is 10 18 C , the potential to be applied between the two plates is ( g  10 ms 2 )
(a)
46.
(b)
125 V
(b)
(c)
1
4 0
Q
R
(d)
1
Q
4 0 r 2
(d) Electric field varies within the cube
Two spheres A and B of radius ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are at same electric potential. The ratio of the surface charge densities of A and B is
a
b
(b)
b
a
(c)
a2
(d)
b2
b2
a2
Electric potential at equatorial point of a small dipole with dipole moment p (At r, distance from the dipole) is
(b)
p
4  0 r
2
(c)
p
4  0 r
3
(d)
2p
4  0 r 3
The radius of a soap bubble whose potential is 16 V is doubled. The new potential of the bubble will be
(b) 4 V
(c) 8 V
(d) 16 V
A unit charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface. Work done in this process will be
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Optimum
The displacement o a charge Q in the electric field E  e 1 i  e 2 j  e 3 k is r  ai  bj. The work done is
(a) Q(ae 1  be 2 )
53.
4 0
Q
r
(c) Electric field is normal to the surface of the cube
(a) Zero
52.
1
(b) Electric potential within the cube is zero
(a) 2 V
51.
450 V
(a) Electric potential at the surface of the cube is zero
(a) Zero
50.
(d)
A cube of a metal is given a positive charge Q. For the above system, which of the following statements is true [MP PET 2001]
(a)
49.
2500 V
R
from its centre
3
(a) Zero
48.
(c)
A hollow conducting sphere of radius R has a charge (+Q) on its surface. What is the electric potential within the sphere at a distance
r
47.
1250 V
(b)
Q (ae 1 ) 2  (be 2 ) 2
(c)
Q(e 1  e 2 ) a 2  b 2
(d)
Q( e 12  e 22 ) (a  b)
Two electric charges 12 C and – 6 C are placed 20 cm apart in air. There will be a point P on the line joining these charges and outside
the region between them, at which the electric potential is zero. The distance of P from – 6 C charge is
(a) 0.10 m
54.
(b) 0.15 m
(c) 0.20 m
(d) 0.25 m
Two charges of 4 C each are placed at the corners A and B of an equilateral triangle of side length 0.2 m in air. The electric potential at C
 1
N m2
 9  10 9
 4
C2
0

is 
(a) 9  104 V




(b) 18  104 V
(c) 36  104 V
(d) 36  104 V
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55.
The figure given below shows two parallel equipotential surfaces A and B kept at a small distance r from each other A point charge of – q
coul is taken from the surface A to B. The amount of net work W done will be given by
A
(a)
56.
1
4  0
q
 
r
(b)
W 
1
4  0
 q 
 2
r 
B
(c)
W 
1
4  0
 q 
 2
r 
(d) Zero
Two metal spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged to the same potential. The ratio of charges on the spheres is
(a)
57.
W 
r
R1 : R 2
(b) R1 : R2
(c)
R12 : R 22
Electric charges of + 10C, +5C, – 3C and + 8C are placed at the corners of a square of side
(d)
R13 : R 23
2 m . The potential at the centre of the
square is
(a) 1.8 V
58.
(b) 8  10–14 N
(c) 8  109 N
(b)
1
4 0
(c)
1
4  0
(b) 10 V
q
d
(d)
1
.
2q
4  0 d 2
(d) 10/3 V
Below figures (1) and (2) represent lines of force. Which is correct statement
(2)
(a) Figure (1) represents magnetic lines of force
(b) Figure (2) represents magnetic lines of force
(c) Figure (1) represents electric line of force
(d) Both (1) and (2) represent magnetic line of force
At a certain distance from a point charge the electric field is 500 V/m and the potential is 3000 V. What is this distance
(a) 6 m
63.
.
(c) 4 V
(1)
62.
(d) 8  1014 N
A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The potential at a distance of 2 cm from the
centre of the sphere
(a) Zero
61.
(d) 1.8  104 V
Two unlike charges of magnitude q are separated by a distance 2d. The potential at a point midway between them is
(a) Zero
60.
(c) 1.8  105 V
An electron enters between two horizontal plates separated by 2 mm and having a p.d. of 1000 V. The force on electron is
(a) 8  10– 12 N
59.
(b) 1.8  106 V
(b) 12 m
(c) 36 m
(d) 144 m
Two plates are 2 cm apart, a potential difference of 10 volt is applied between them, the electric field between the plates is
(a) 20 N/C
(b) 500 N/C
(c) 5 N/C
(d) 250 N/C
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64.
10
 10 9 are placed at each of the four corners of a square of side 8 cm. The potential at the intersection of the diagonals is
Charges 
3
(a)
65.
66.
150 2 volt
(b) 1500
(c)
2 volt
900 2 volt
(d) 900 volt
Three charges 2q, – q, – q are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the centre of the triangle
(a) The field is zero but potential is non-zero
(b) The field is non-zero but potential is zero
(c) Both field and potential are zero
(d) Both field and potential are non-zero
The potential due to a infinite line charge XX at point A is 20 V and at point B is 50 V. Point A and C are situated on equipotential surface
then the work done in carrying an electron from
X
A
+
+
B
+
+
+
C
+
X
(a) A to B is 30 eV
(b) B to C is 30 eV
(c) A to C is – 30 eV
(d) A to B and from B to C is 30 eV
67.
An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform electric field E. If its dipole
moment is along the direction of the field, the force on it and its potential energy are respectively
(a) q.E and p.E
(b) Zero and minimum
(c) q.E and maximum
(d) 2q.E and minimum
68.
Shown below is a distribution of charges. The flux of electric field due to these charges through the surface S is
S
+q
+q
+q
(a)
69.
(b)
2q /  0
(c)
q / 0
(d) Zero
A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is
(a)
70.
3q /  0
4q
6(4 0 )
(b)
q
6(4 0 )
(c)
q
6(4 0 )
(d)
2q
6(4 0 )
If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is  1 and  2 , the electric charge inside the surface will be
(a)
(1   2 ) 0
(b)
( 2  1 ) 0
(c)
(1   2 ) /  0
(d)
( 2  1 ) /  0
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71.
q1 , q2 , q3 and q 4 are point charges located at points as shown in the figure and S is a spherical Gaussian surface of radius R. Which of
the following is true according to the Gauss’s law
S
q1
R
q4
q2
(a)
(c)
 q q q



2
3
(E1  E 2  E 3 ).d A  1
2 0
s
(b)
 (q  q  q  q )



2
3
4
(E1  E 2  E 3 ).d A  1
(d) None of the above


s
72.
s
0
0
(b) 1.3 V
(c) 13 V
(d) 130 V
The potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be maximum and minimum when the angles between the axis of the dipole and the
line joining the point to the dipole are respectively
(a) 90o and 180o
74.

 (q  q  q )



2
3
(E1  E 2  E 3 ).d A  1
The distance between H+ and Cl– ions in HCl molecule is 1.28Å. What will be the potential due to this dipole at a distance of 12Å on the
axis of dipole
(a) 0.13 V
73.
q3
(b) 0o and 90o
(c) 90o and 0o
(d) 0o and 180o




When an electric dipole p is placed in a uniform electric field E then at what angle between P and E the value of torque will be
maximum
(a) 90o
75.
(b) 0o
(b)
1
r
79.
r
3
(d)
1
r
(b) 1/r2
(c) 1/r3
(d) r2
(b) Highly polar
(c) Non-polar
(d) Anodes
(a) The net electric force on the dipole must be zero
(b) The net electric force on the dipole may be zero
(c) The torque on the dipole due to the field must be zero
(d) The torque on the dipole due to the field may be zero
Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming out of the cube will be
8e
0
(b)
16 e
0
(c)
e
0
(d) Zero
A cube of side l is placed in a uniform field E, where E  Eˆi . The net electric flux through the cube is
(a) Zero
81.
1
An electric dipole is placed in an electric field generated by a point charge
(a)
80.
(c)
Water is an excellent solvent because its molecules are
(a) Neutral
78.
2
The electric field at a distance ‘r’ from an electric dipole is proportional to
(a) 1/r
77.
(d) 45o
According to Gauss’s theorem, electric field of an infinitely long straight wire is proportional to
(a) r
76.
(c) 180o
(b)
l2 E
(c) 4l2E
(d) 6l2E
The distance between a proton and electron both having a charge 1.6  10–19 coulomb, of a hydrogen atom is 10 10 metre . The value of
intensity of electric field produced on electrons due to proton will be
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(a) 2.304  10–10 N/C
82.
84.
(d) 1.44  1011 N/C
(c) Will be perpendicular
(d) Are not related
 E.ds  0 . From this we can conclude that
(a) E is necessarily zero on the surface
(b) E is perpendicular to the surface at every point
(c) The total flux through the surface is zero
(d) The flux is only going out of the surface
An electric dipole when place in a uniform electric field E will have minimum potential energy, if the positive direction of dipole moment
makes the following angle with E
(b) /2
(c) Zero
(d) 3/2
A parallel plate capacitor carries a charge q. The distance between the plates is doubled by application of a force. The work done by the
force is
(a) Zero
86.
(b) Will be in opposite direction
For a given surface the Gauss’s law is stated as
(a) 
85.
(c) 16 V/m
The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a dipole and direction of the dipole
(a) Will be parallel
83.
PHYSICS
(b) 14.4 V/m
(b)
q2
C
(c)
q2
2C
(d)
q2
4C
A parallel plate capacitor of capacity C 0 is charged to a potential V0
(i) The energy stored in the capacitor when the battery is disconnected and the separation is doubled E1
(ii) The energy stored in the capacitor when the charging battery is kept connected and the separation between the capacitor plates is
doubled is E2 . Then E1 / E 2 value is
(a) 4
87.
32  10 32 joule
(c) 6
(d) 2
(b) Will decrease
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) May increase or decrease
(b) 16  10 32 joule
(c)
3.1  10 26 joule
(d)
4  10 10 joule
What fraction of the energy drawn from the charging battery is stored in a capacitor ?
(a) 100%
91.
(b) 4
The work done in placing a charge of 8  10 18 coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100 micro-farad is
(a)
90.
(d) ½
As shown in the figure, a very thin sheet of aluminium in placed in between the plates of the condenser. Then the capacity
(a) Will increase
89.
(c) 2
Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor becomes 4/3 times its original value if a dielectric slab of thickness t = d/2 is inserted between
the plates (d is the separation between the plates). The dielectric constant of the slab is
(a) 8
88.
(b) 3/2
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
Capacitance (in F) of a spherical conductor with radius 1 m is
(a)
1.1  10 10
(b) 10 6
(c)
9  10 9
(d) 10 5
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92.
Work done by an external agent in separating the parallel plate capacitor is
(a)
93.
CV
(b)
1 2
C V
2
(c)
1
CV 2
2
(d) None of these
A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 10 5 V / m between the plates. If the charge on the capacitor plate is 1C , the force on
each capacitor plate is
(a) 0.5 N
94.
(b) 0.05 N
(c) 0.005 N
(d) None of these
A conducting sphere of radius 10 cm is charged 10 C . Another uncharged sphere of radius 20 cm is allowed to touch it for some
time. After that if the spheres are separated, then surface density of charges on the spheres will be in the ratio of
(a) 1 : 4
95.
(b) Increases two times
(c) Increases four times
(d) Remain the same
(b) VN2/3
(c) V
(d) VN
A capacitor is used to store 24 watt hour of energy at 1200 volt. What should be the capacitance of the capacitor
(a)
98.
(d) 1 : 1
N identical spherical drops are charged to the same potential V . They are combine to form a bigger drop. The potential of the big drop
will be
(a) VN1/3
97.
(c) 2 : 1
If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is doubled then the capacitance
(a) Decreases two times
96.
(b) 1 : 3
120 mF
(b) 120 F
(c) 12 F
(d)
24 mF
Change Q on a capacitor varies with voltage V as shown in the figure, where Q is taken along the X-axis and V along the Y-axis. The area of
triangle OAB represents
Y
A
V
O
Q
99.
X
B
(a) Capacitance
(b) Capacitive reactance
(c) Magnetic field between the plates (d)
Energy stored in the capacitor
A solid conducting sphere of radius R 1 is surrounded by another concentric hollow conducting sphere or radius R 2 . The capacitance of
this assembly is proportional to
(a)
R 2  R1
R1 R 2
(b)
R 2  R1
R1 R 2
(c)
R1 R 2
R 2  R1
(d)
R1 R 2
R 2  R1
100. A condenser having a capacity 2.0 microfarad is charged to 200 volts and then the plates of the capacitor are connected to a resistance
wire. The heat produced in joules will be
(a)
4  10 4 Joule
(b)
4  1010 Joule
(c)
4  10 2 Joule
(d)
2  10 2 Joule
101. A metallic sheet is inserted between plates parallel to the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. The capacitance of the capacitor
(a) Increases
(b) Is independent of the position of the sheet
(c) Is maximum when the metal sheet is in the middle
(d) Is maximum when the metal sheet touches one of the capacitor plates
102. The capacity of parallel plate condenser depends on
(a) The type of metal used
(b) The thickness of plates
(c) The potential applied across the plates
(d) The separation between the plates
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103. A variable condenser is permanently connected to a 100 V battery. If the capacity is changed from 2 F to 10 F , then change in
energy is equal to
(a)
2  10 2 J
(b)
2 .5  10 2 J
(c)
3 .5  10 2 J
(d)
4  10 2 J
104. The capacity of a parallel plate capacitor with no dielectric substance but with a separation of 0.4 cm is 2 F . The separation is reduced
to half and it is filled with a dielectric substance of value 2.8. The final capacity of the capacitor is
(a) 11 . 2 F
(b) 15 . 6 F
(c) 19 . 2 F
(d)
22 . 4 F
105. The capacity o a condenser is 4  10–6 farad and its potential is 100 volt. The energy released on discharging it fully will be
(a) 0.02 joule
(b) 0.04 joule
(c) 0.025 joule
(d) 0.05 joule
106. When we touch the terminals of a high voltage capacitor, even after a high voltage has been cut off, then the capacitor has a tendency to
(a) Restore energy
(b) Discharge energy
(c) Affect dangerously
(d) Both (b) and (c)
107. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V. After disconnecting the battery, distance between the plates of the
capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result, the potential difference between the plates
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Becomes zero
(d) Does not change
108. A 10 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V battery. How much electrostatic energy is stored in the capacitor ?
(a)
1.25  10 8 J
(b)
2.5  10 7 J
(c)
3.5  10 5 J
(d)
4.5  10 2 J
109. When a dielectric material is introduced between the plates of a charged condenser, the electric field between the plates
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remain constant
(d) First ‘b’ then ‘a’
110. Two protons A and B are placed in space between plates of a parallel plate capacitor charged upto V volts (see fig.) Forces on protons are
FA and FB , then
+
–
+
–
+
+
+
(a)
FA  FB
(b)
FA  FB
A
B
–
–
–
(c)
FA  FB
(d) Nothing can be said
111. A condenser is charged and then battery is removed. A dielectric plate is put between the plates of condenser, then correct statement is
(a) Q constant, V and U decrease
(b)
(c) Q increases, V decreases, U increases
Q constant, V increases, U decreases
(d) None of these
112. 1000 small water drops each of radius r and charge q coalesce together to form one spherical drop. The potential of the big drop is larger
than that of the smaller drop by a factor of
(a) 1000
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 1
113. Two metal spheres of radii 1cm and 2cm are given charges of 10 2 C and 5  10 2 C respectively. If both spheres are joined by a metal wire,
then the final charge on the smaller spheres will be
(a)
2  10 2 C
(b)
4  10 2 C
(c)
3  10 2 C
(d)
4  10 2 C
114. A condenser is charged and then battery is removed. A dielectric plate is put between the plates of condenser, then correct statement is
(a) Q constant, V and U decrease
(b)
(c) Q increases, V decreases, U increases
Q constant, V increases, U decreases
(d) None of these
115. 1000 small water drops each of radius r and charge q coalesce together to form one spherical drop. The potential of the big drop is larger
than that of the smaller drop by a factor of
(a) 1000
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 1
116. Two metal spheres of radii 1cm and 2cm are given charges of 10 2 C and 5  10 2 C respectively. If both spheres are joined by a metal
wire, then the final charge on the smaller spheres will be
(a)
2  10 2 C
(b)
4  10 2 C
(c)
3  10 2 C
(d)
4  10 2 C
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117. A capacitor of capacity C has charge Q and stored energy is W. If the charge is increased to 2Q, the stored energy will be
(a) 2W
(b) W/2
(c) 4W
(d) W/4
118. 64 drops each having the capacity C and potential V are combined to form a big drop. If the charge on the small drop is q, then the charge
on the big drop will be
(a) 2q
(b) 4q
(c) 16q
(d) 64q
119. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is 5 F. When a glass plate is placed between the plates of the conductor, its potential becomes
1/8th of the original value. The value of dielectric constant will be
(a) 1.6
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 40
120. Which one statement is correct ? A parallel plate air condenser is connected with a battery. Its charge, potential, electric field and energy
are Q0, V0, E0 and U0 respectively. In order to fill the complete space between the plates a dielectric slab is inserted, the battery is still
connected. Now the corresponding values Q, V, E and U are in relation with the initially stated as
(a) Q > Q0
(b) V > V0
(c) E > E0
(d) U > U0
121. The capacity of a parallel plate air capacitor is 10 F and it is given a charge 40 C. the electrical energy stored in the capacitor in ergs is
(a) 80  106
(b) 800
(c) 8000
(d) 20000
122. There is an air filled 1 pF parallel plate capacitor. When the plate separation is doubled and the space is filled with wax, the capacitance
increases to 2 pF. The dielectric constant of wax is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
123. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart
by means of insulating handles, then
(a) The charge on the capacitor increases
(b) The voltage across the plates decreases
(c) The capacitance increases
(d) The electrostatics energy stored in the capacitor increases
124. An air capacitor is connected to a battery. The effect of filling the space between the plates with a dielectric is to increase
(a) The charge and the potential difference
(b) The potential difference and the electric field
(c) The electric field and the capacitance
(d) The charge and the capacitance
125. Between the plates of a parallel plate condenser there is 1 mm thick paper of dielectric constant 4. It is charged at 100 volt . The electric
field in volt/metre between the plates of the capacitor is
(a) 100
(b) 100000
(c) 25000
(d) 400000
126. A capacitor is kept connected to the battery and a dielectric slab is inserted between the plates. During this process
(a) No work is done
(b) Work is done at the cost of the energy already stored in the capacitor before the slab is inserted
(c) Work is done at the cost of the battery
(d) Work is done at the cost of both the capacitor and the battery
127. A capacitor with air as the dielectric is charged to a potential of 100 volts. If the space between the plates is now filled with a dielectric of
dielectric constant 10, the potential difference between the plates will be
(a) 1000 volts
(b) 100 volts
(c) 10 volts
(d) Zero
128. The distance between the circular plates of a parallel plate condenser 40 mm in diameter, in order to have same capacity as a sphere of
radius 1 metre is
(a) 0.01 mm
(b) 0.1 mm
(c) 1.0 mm
(d) 10 mm
129. Force acting upon a charged particle kept between the plates of a charged condenser is F. If one plate of the condenser is removed, then
the force acting on the same particle will become
(a) 0
(b) F/2
(c) F
(d) 2F
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130. Two metallic charged spheres whose radii are 20 cm and 10 cm respectively, have each 150 micro-coulomb positive charge. The common
potential after they are connected by a conducting wire is
(a) 9  106 volts
(b) 4.5  106 volts
(c) 1.8  107 volts
(d) 13.5  106 volt
131. A capacitor of capacity C is connected with a battery of potential V in parallel. The distance between its plates is reduced to half at once,
assuming that the charge remains the same. Then to charge to capacitance upto the potential V again, the energy given by the battery
will be
(a) CV2/4
(b) CV2/2
(c) 3CV2/4
(d) CV2
132. A current of 1 mA is flowing through a copper wire. How many electrons will pass a given point in one second
[e = 1.6  10–19 coulomb]
(a) 6.25  1019
(b) 6.25  1015
(c) 6.25  1031
(d) 6.25  109
133. The drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor is v when a current i is flowing in it. If both the radius and current are doubled, then drift
velocity will be
(a) v
(b)
v
2
(c)
v
4
(d)
v
8
134. Calculate the amount of charge flowing in 2 minutes in a wire of resistance 10  when a potential difference of 20 V is applied between
its ends
(a) 120 C
(b) 240 C
(c) 20 C
(d) 4C
(c) Number of free electrons
(d) Magnitude of the current
(c) Begins to excited
(d) Becomes
135. The drift velocity does not depend upon
(a) Cross-section of the wire
(b) Length of the wire
136. If an electric current is passed through nerve the man
(a) Begins to laugh
pain
(b) Begins to Weep
insensitive
137. For driving a current of 2A for 6 minute in a circuit 1000 J of work is to be done. The emf of source in the circuit is
(a) 1.38 V
(b) 13.8 V
(c) 83.3 V
(d) 8.3 V
138. A solenoid is at potential difference 60 V and current flows through it is 15 ampere, then the resistance of coil will be
(a) 4 
(b) 8 
(c) 0.25 
(d) 2 
139. If a power of 100 watt is being supplied across a potential difference of 200 V, current flowing is
(a) 2 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 20 A
140. In a conductor 4 coulombs of charge flows for 2 seconds. The value of electric current will be
(a) 4 volts
(b) 4 amperes
(c) 2 amperes
(d) 2 volts
141. 62.5  1018 electrons per second are flowing through a wire of area of cross-section 0.1 m2, the value of current flowing will be
(a) 1 A
(b) 0.1 A
(c) 10 A
(d) 0.11 A
142. When there is an electric current through a wire along its length, then as electric field must exist
(a) Out side the wire but normal to it (b)
Outside the wire but parallel to it
(c)
(d) Inside the wire but normal to it
Inside the wire but parallel to it
143. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are both doubled, then
(b) The resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(c) The resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(d) The resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
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144. The thermistor are usually made of
(a) Metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(b) Metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
(c) Metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity
(d) Semiconducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resistivity
145. A wire of length L is drawn such that it’s diameter is reduced to half of it’s original diameter. If the initial resistance of the wire were
10 . It’s new resistance would be
(a) 40 
(b) 80 
(c) 120 
(d) 160 
146. Fuse wire is a wire of
(a) High resistance and low melting point
(b) Low resistance and low melting point
(c) Low resistance and high melting point
(d) High resistance and high melting point
147. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in diameter the change in the resistance of
the wire will be
(a) 300 %
(b) 200 %
(c) 100 %
(d) 50 %
148. At ordinary temperatures, the electrical conductivity of semi-conductors in mho/meter is in the range
(a) 103 to 10–4
(b) 106 to 109
(c) 10–6 to 10–10
(d) 10–10 to 10–16
149. The resistance of a wire of length l is R. the wire is starched to increase its length to 4 l. The resistance of the wire will become
(a) 16 R
(b)
R
4
(c)
R
16
(d) 4R
150. We have two wires A and B of same mass and same material. The diameter of the wire A is half of that B. If the resistance of wire A is 24
ohm then the resistance of wire B will be
(a) 12 ohm
(b) 3.0 ohm
(c) 1.5 ohm
(d) None of these
151. A fuse wire with radius 1 mm blows at 1.5 ampere. The radius of the fuse wire of the same material to blow at 3 A will be
(a) 41/3 mm
(b) 31/4 mm
(c) 21/3 mm
(d) 31/2 mm
152. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The resistance of
(a) Each of these increases
(b) Each of these decreases
(c) Copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(d) Copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
153. A carbon resistance is having a following coding green, orange, black, gold. The resistance of resistor is
(a) 53  100  5%
(b) 53  101  5%
154. A wire of radius r has resistance R. If it is stretched to a radius of
(a)
9R
16
(b)
15 R
9
(b) 53  100  10%
(d) 53  10  10%
3r
, its resistance becomes
4
(c)
81 R
256
(d)
256 R
81
155. The resistance of a conductor increases with
(a) Increase in length
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Decrease in cross-section
(d) All of these
156. A uniform resistance wire of length L and diameter d has a resistance R. Another wire of same material has length 4L and diameter 2d,
the resistance will be
(a) 2R
(b) R
(c)
R
2
(d)
R
4
157. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and semiconductor
(a) Increases for both
(b) Decreases for both
(c) Increases, decreases
(d) Decreases for both
158. The resistance of an incandescent lamp is
(a) Greater when switched off
(b) Smaller when switched on
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(c) The same whether it is switched off or switched on
(d) None of these
159. A wire of length 100 cm is connected to a cell of emf 2 V and negligible internal resistance. The resistance of the wire is 3. The
additional resistance required to produce a potential drop of 1 milli volt per cm is
(a) 60 
(b) 47 
(c) 57 
(d) 35 
160. Which of the following does not obey Ohm’s law
[ (a) Copper
(b) Aluminium
(c) Diode-valve
(d) None of these
161. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recasted to half of its length, then the new resistance of the wire will be
(a) R/4
(b) R/2
(c) R
(d) 2R
162. The resistance of a wire is R. If the length of the wire is doubled by stretching, then the new resistance will be
(a) 2R
(b) 4R
(c) R
(d)
R
4
163. A uniform wire of resistance R is uniformly compressed along its length, until its radius becomes n times the original radius. New
resistance of the wire becomes
R
(a)
n4
(b)
R
n2
(c)
R
n
(d) nR
164. At what temperature will the resistance of a copper wire become three times its value at 0 oC ? (Temperature coefficient of resistance for
copper = 4  10–3 peroC)
(a) 400oC
(b) 450oC
(c) 500oC
(d) 550oC
165. The resistance of a conductor is 5 ohm at 50oC and 6 ohm at 100oC. Its resistance at 0oC is
(a) 1 ohm
(b) 2 ohm
(c) 3 ohm
(d) 4 ohm
166. The lead wires should have
(a) Larger diameter and low resistance
(b) Smaller diameter and high resistance
(c)
(d) Larger diameter and high resistance
Smaller diameter and low resistance
167. Identify the set in which all the three materials are good conductor of electricity
(a) Cu, Ag, Au
(b) Cu, Si, Diamond
(c) Cu, Hg, NaCl
(d) Cu, Ge, Hg
168. When a piece of aluminium wire finite length is drawn through a series of dies to reduce its diameter to half its original value, its
resistance will become
(a) Two times
169. The resistance of a coil is 4.2  at
(a) 6.5 C
(b) Four times
(c) Eight times
(d) Sixteen times
100oC
and the temperature coefficient of resistance of its material is 0.004/oC. Its resistance at 0oC is
(b) 5 
(c) 3 
(d) 4 
170. The resistivity of a wire depends on its
(a) Length
(b) Area of cross-section
(c) Shape
(d) Material
171. Two wires A and B of same material and same mass have radius 2 r and r. If resistance of wire A is 34 , then resistance of B will be
(a) 544 
(b) 272 
(c) 68 
(d) 17 
172. When a potential difference is applied across the ends of a linear metallic conductor
(a) The free electrons are accelerated continuously from the lower potential end to higher potential end
(b) The free electrons are accelerated continuously from the higher potential end to lower potential end
(c) The free electrons acquire a constant drift velocity from the lower potential end to the higher potential end
(d) The free electrons are set in motion from their position of rest
173. For a metallic wire, the ratio V/i (V = the applied potential difference, i = current flowing) is
(a) Independent of temperature
(b) Increases as the temperature rises
(c) Decreases as the temperature rises
(d) Increases or decreases as temperature rises, depending upon the metal
174. If the resistivity of a potentiometer wire be  and area of cross-section be A, then what will be potential gradient along the wire
(a)
iρ
A
(b)
i
A
(c)
iA

(d) iA
175. A wire of 50 cm long and 1 mm2 in cross-sectional area carries a current 4A when connected to a 2V battery. The resistivity of the wire is
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PHYSICS
(b) 5  10–7 m
(c) 4  10–6 m
(d) 1  10–6 m
176. A metal wire of specific resistance 64  10–6 cm and length 198 cm has resistance of 7 . The radius of the wire will be
(a) 2.4 cm
(b) 0.24 cm
(c) 0.024 cm
(d) 24 cm
177. Two wires of the same material are given. The first wire is twice as long as the second and has twice the diameter of the second. The
resistance of the first will be
(a) Twice of the second
(b) Half of the second
(c) Equal to the second
(d) Four times of the second
178. There is a current of 1.344 amp in a copper wire whose area of cross-section normal to the length of the wire is 1 mm2. If the number of
free electrons per cm3 is 8.4  1022, then the drift velocity would be
(a) 1.0 mm/sec
(b) 1.0 m/sec
(c) 0.1 mm/sec
(d) 0.01 mm/sec
179. A battery of 6 volts is connected to the terminals of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance of the order 100 . The
difference of potential between two points separated by 50 cm on the wire will be
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 2 V
(d) 3 V
180. The resistance of 20 cm long wire is 5 ohm. The wire is stretched to a uniform wire of 40 cm length. The resistance now will be (in ohms)
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 200
181. A minimum resistance is to be prepared from a copper wire, its length and diameter should be
(a) l and d
(b) 2l and d
(c) l/2 and 2d
(d) 2l and d/2
182. The specific resistance of a wire is , its volume is 3m3 and its resistance is 3 ohms, then its length will be
(a)
1
(b)

3
(c)
ρ
1

3
(d)

1
3
183. Value of resistance shown in the figure is
(a) 1500 mega ohms
Green
Grey
(b) 150 mega ohms
(c) 15000 mega ohms
(d) 15 mega ohms
Brown
184. Read the following statements carefully
Y : The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature
Z : In a conducting solid, rate of collisions between free electrons and ions increases with increases of temperature
Select the correct statements (s) from the following
(a) Y is true but Z is false
(b) Y is false but Z is true
(c) Both Y and Z are true
(d) Y is true and Z is the correct reason for Y
185. The figure shows three cylindrical copper conductors along with their face areas and lengths. Rank them according to the current through
them greatest first. When the same potential difference V is applied across their length
1.5L
L
(i)
(iii)
(ii)
A/2
A/2
A
(a) (i)>(ii)>(iii)
L/2
(b) (i)<(ii)<(iii)
(c) (ii)>(iii)>(i)
(d) (i)>(iii)>(ii)
186. A wire has a resistance of 6 . It is cut into two parts and both half values are connected in parallel. The new resistance is
An electric current is passed through a circuit containing two wires of the same material, connected in parallel. If the lengths and radii of
the wires are in the ratio of
4
2
and , then the ratio of the currents passing through the wires will be
3
3
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(a) 8/9
(b) 1/3
(c) 3
(d) 2
187. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is
(a) 4 A
2
6V
(b) 2 A
6
(c) 1 A
3
1.5
(d) 6 A
188. Resistances n, each of r ohm, when connected in parallel give an equivalent resistance of R ohm. If these resistances were connected in
series, the combination would have a resistance in ohms, equal to
(a)
R /n
(b) nR
(c)
n2 R
(d)
R / n2
189. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The current, i, in the circuit will be
i
(a)
1 / 3A
(b) 1 A
3
(c) 1.5 A
(d)
3
3V
2A
3
190. In a Wheatstone’s bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R, the equivalent
resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is
(a)
R
2
(b) R
(c) 2R
(d)
R
4
191. The equivalent resistance of the following diagram between A and B is
(a)
2

4
3
3
(b) 9
(c) 6 
(d) None of these
B
3
A
3
3
192. Two wires of the same dimensions but resistivities 1 and 2 are connected in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is
(a)
1   2
(b)
ρ1  ρ 2
2
(c)
1  2
(d)
2(1   2 )
193. The potential difference between point A and B is
(a)
20
V
7
(b)
40
V
7
(c)
10
V
7
8
A
6
4
B
3
E = 10 V
(d) 0
194. Three resistors are connected to form the sides of a triangle ABC, the resistance of the sides AB, BC and CA are 40 ohms; 60 ohms and 100
ohms respectively. The effective resistance between the points A and B in ohms will be
(a) 32
(b) 64
(c) 50
(d) 200
195. In the circuit shown below, what is the value of unknown resistance R so that the total resistance between P and Q is also equal to R
10 
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(a) 3 
(b)
39 
(c)
69 Ω
(d) 10 
196. A uniform wire of resistance 9  is cut into 3 equal parts. They are connected in the form of equilateral triangle ABC. A cell of emf 2V and
negligible internal resistance is connected across B and C. Potential difference across AB is
(a) 1V
(b) 2 V
(c) 3 V
(d) 0.5 V
R5
i
R1
R3
R6
R2
R4
197. In the given circuit it is observed that the current i is independent of the value of the resistance R6. Then the resistance values must satisfy
(a) R1R2R5 = R3R4R6
(b)
1
1
1
1



R 5 R 6 R1  R 2 R 3  R 4
(c) R1R4 = R2R3
(d) R1R3 = R2R4
198. Two resistance wires on joining in parallel, the resultant resistance is
6
.
5
One of the wire breaks. The effective
resistance is 2 . The resistance of the brokes wire was
(a)
3

5
(b) 2 
(c)
6

5
(d) 3 
199. AB is a wire of uniform resistance. The galvanometer G shows no current when the length AC = 20 cm and CB  80 cm . The resistance
R is equal to
R
80
(a) 2 
(b) 8 
(c) 20 
G
A
(d) 40 
B
C
200. In the following figure potential difference between A and B is
(a) 0
10
(b) 5 volt
(c)
10 volt
A
30 V
10
(d) 15 volt
10
B
201. In the circuit shown in figure, the current drawn from the battery is 4 A. If 10  resistor is replaced by 20  resistor, the current further
drawn from the circuit will be
3
1
(a) 1 A
10
(b) 2 A
4A
7
21
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(c) 3 A
(d) 0 A
202. In the following figure current flowing through BD is
B
30
(a) 0
G
A
(b) 0.033 A
(c) 0.066 A
30
C
30
(d) None of these
30
D
2V
203. The resistors of resistances 2 , 4  and 8  are connected in parallel, then the equivalent resistance of the combination will be
(a)
8

7
(b)
7

8
(c)
7

4
4

9
(d)
204. Two resistance r1 and r2 (r1 < r2) are connected in parallel. Their equivalent resistance R is
205. Three resistances R, 2 R and 3 R are connected in parallel to a battery. Then
(a) The current through each resistance is same
(b) The potential drop across resistance 2R is maximum
(c) The heat developed in resistance 3R is maximum
(d) The heat developed in resistance R is maximum
206. Two wires of equal diameters of resistivity 1, 2 and length x1, x2 respectively are joined in series. The equivalent resistivity is
(a)
ρ1 x 1  ρ 2 x 2
x1  x 2
(b)
1 x 1   2 x 2
(c)
x1  x 2
1 x 2   2 x 2
1 x 1   2 x 2
(d)
x1  x 2
x1  x 2
207. 10 wires (same length, same area, same material) are connected in parallel and each has 1  resistance, then the equivalent, resistance
will be
(a) 10 
(b) 1 
(c) 0.1 
(d) 0.001 
208. A wire of resistance R is cut into ‘n’ equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the combination
will be
(a) nR
(b)
R
n
(c)
n
R
R
n2
(d)
209. What is the current (i) in the circuit as shown in figure
(a) 2 A
i
R2 = 2
(b) 1.2 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 0.5 A
3V
R1 = 2
R3 = 2
R4 = 2
210. In the given figure, when galvanometer shows no deflection, the current (in ampere) flowing through 5  resistance will be
B
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.9
(d) 1.5
20
10
A
C
2
5
10
D
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211. There is no current in 2  resistance, then the equivalent resistance of the given circuit is
(a) 10 
(b)
30

10
(c)
13

7
(d)
7

13
212. A copper wire of resistance R is cut into ten parts of equal length. Two pieces each are joined in series and then five such combinations
are joined in parallel. The new combination will have a resistance
(a) R
(b)
R
4
(c)
R
5
(d)
R
25
(d)
r
5
213. A student has 10 resistors of resistance ‘r’. The minimum resistance made by him from given resistors is
(a) 10 r
(b)
r
10
(c)
r
100
214. In the figure give below, the current passing through 6  resistor is
6
(a) 0.40 amp
(b) 0.48 amp
(c)
0.72 amp
1.2
4
(d) 0.90 amp
215. A uniform wire of 16  resistance is made into the form of a square. Two opposite corners of the square are connected by a wire of
resistance 16 . The effective resistance between the other two opposite corners is
(a) 32 
(b) 16 
(c) 8 
(d) 4 
216. A resistor of 0.5  is connected to another resistor in parallel combination to get an equivalent resistance of 0.1 . The resistance of the
second resistor is
(a) 8 
(b)
1

8
(c) 0.6 
(d) 0.2 
217. Four wires AB, BC, CD, DA of resistance 4 ohm each and a fifth wire BD of resistance 8 ohm are joined to form a rectangle ABCD of which
BD is a diagonal. The effective resistance between the points A and B is
(a) 24 ohm
(b) 16 ohm
(c)
4
ohm
3
(d)
8
ohm
3
218. n equal resistors are first connected in series and then connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the maximum to the minimum
resistance
(a) n
(b)
1
n
2
(c) n2
(d)
1
n
219. Four resistances are connected in a circuit in the given figure. The electric current flowing through 4 ohm and 6 ohm resistance is
respectively
(a) 2 amp and 4 amp
4
6
4
6
(b) 1 amp and 2 amp
(c) 1 amp and 1 amp
(d) 2 amp and 2 amp
20 V
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220. The potential difference between points A and B of adjoining figure is
(a)
2
V
3
(b)
8
V
9
(c)
4
V
3
A
B
5
5
2V
5
5
5
5
D
(d) 2 V
C
221. Resistances of 6 ohm each are connected in the manner shown in adjoining figure. With the current 0.5 ampere as shown in figure, the
potential difference VP – VQ is
(a) 3.6 V
6 6
6
(b) 6.0 V
0.5 A
P
(c) 3.0 V
Q
6
6
6
(d) 7.2 V
222. The current from the battery in circuit diagram shown is
2
(a) 1 A
7
A
15 V
(b) 2 A
6
1
0.5
(c) 1.5 A
(d) 3 A
B
8
10
223. In the given figure, when key k is opened, the reading of the ammeter A will be
(a) 50 A
+
(b) 2 A
–
10 V
5
(c) 0.5 A
A
E
10
A
(d)
9
D
A
B
4
C
K
224. Two resistors are connected (a) in series (b) in parallel. The equivalent resistance in the two cases are 9 ohm and 2 ohm respectively. Then
the resistances of the component resistors are
(a) 2 ohm and 7 ohm
(b) 3 ohm and 6 ohm
(c) 3 ohm and 9 ohm
(d) 5 ohm and 4 ohm
225. If the equivalent resistance between the points A and B in the following circuit is 5 , then the value of R will
R
(a) 5 
(b) 7 
(c) 9 
(d) 11 
R
A
B
R
R
R
R
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226. A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminals of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance of 100 ohm. The difference
of potential between two points on the wire separated by a distance of 50 cm will be
(a) 1 volt
(b) 1.5 volt
(c) 2 volt
(d) 3 volt
227. n cells each of emf E and internal resistance r send the same current through an external resistance R, whether the cells are connected in
series or in parallel. The
(a) R = nr
(b) R = r
(c) r = nR
(d) R = n/R
228. In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the diode is 0.5 V, the current will be
0.5 V
(a) 3.4 mA
(b) 2 mA
8V
2.2 K
(c) 2.5 mA
(d) 3 mA
229. The potential difference between the terminals of a cell in open circuit is 2.2 volts. With resistance of 5 ohm across the terminals of a cell,
the terminal potential difference is 1.8 volt. The internal resistance of the cell is
(a)
10
ohm
9
(b)
9
ohm
10
(c)
12
ohm
7
(d)
7
ohm
12
230. By a cell a current of 0.9 A flows through 2 ohm resistor and 0.3 A through 7 ohm resistor. The internal resistance of the cell is
(a) 0.5 
(b) 1.0 
(c) 1.2 
(d) 2.0 
231. In the circuit, the potential difference across PQ will be nearest to
100 
(a) 9.6 V
(b) 6.6 V
48 V
(c) 4.8 V
100 
(d) 3.2 V
80 
20 
Q
P
232. A cell of emf E is connected with an external resistance R, then p.d. across cell is V. The internal resistance of cell will be
(a)
( E  V )R
E
(b)
(E  V)R
V
(c)
(V  E)R
V
(d)
(V  E)R
E
233. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance 0.5 ohm is connected across a variable resistance R. The value of R for which the power
delivered in it is maximum is given by
(a) 0.5 ohm
(b) 1.0 ohm
(c) 2.0 ohm
(d) 0.25 ohm
234. Two identical cells send the same current in 2  resistance, whether connected in series or in parallel. The internal resistance of the cell
should be
(a) 1 
(b) 2 
(c)
1

2
(d) 2.5 
235. There are three voltmeters of the same range but of resistances 10000 , 8000  and 4000  respectively. The best voltmeter among
these is the one whose resistance is
(a) 10000 
(b) 8000 
(c) 4000 
(d) None of these
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236. If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter the we must connect with the ammeter a
(a) Low resistance in parallel
(c)
(b) High resistance in parallel
High resistance in series
(d) Low resistance in series
237. A battery has emf 4 V and internal resistance r. When this battery is connected to an external resistance of 2 ohms, a current of 1 amp,
flows in the circuit. How much current will flow if the terminals of the battery are connected directly
(a) 1 amp
(b) 2 amp
(c) 4 amp
(d) Infinite
238. The current in the given circuit is
10
5V
(a) 0.1 A
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 0.3 A
(d) 0.4 A
2V
20
239. The internal resistance of a cell of emf 12 V is 5  10–2 . It is connected across an unknown resistance. Voltage across the cell, when a
current of 60 A is drawn from it, is
(a) 15 V
(b) 12 V
(c) 9 V
(d) 6 V
240. The internal resistance of a cell is the resistance of
(a) Electrodes of the cell
(b) Vessel of the cell
(c) Electrolyte used in the cell
(d) Material used in the cell
241. Two cells each of emf E and internal resistance r are connected parallel across a resistor R. The power dissipated in the resistor is
maximum if
(a) R = r
(b) R = 2r
(c)
R
3r
2
(d)
R 
r
2
242. A current of 2.0 amp passes through a cell of emf 1.5 volts having internal resistance of 0.15 ohm. The potential difference measured in,
volts across both the ends of cell will be
(a) 1.35
(b) 1.50
(c) 1.00
(d) 1.20
243. If six identical cells each having an emf of 6 V are connected in parallel, the emf of the combination is
(a) 1 V
(b) 36 V
(c)
1
V
6
(d) 6 V
244. Two non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel. Consider the following sets :
(i)
The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the emf
(ii) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either of the two internal resistance
(a) Both (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong
(c) (ii) is correct but (i) is wrong
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
245. A storage cell is charged by 5 amp d.c. for 18 hours. Its strength after charging will be
(a) 18 AH
(b) 5 AH
(c) 90 AH
(d) 15 AH
246. In the shown circuit if key K is closed then what is the potential difference across A and B
(a) 50 V
20 V
K
(b) 45 V
(c) 30 V
(d) 20 V
A
B
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247. Six identical cells of emf E and internal resistance r are connected in parallel, then the net emf and internal resistance of the combination
will be
(a) 6E : 6r
(b)
E,
r
6
(c) E, 6r
(d)
E r
,
6 6
248. When cells are arranged in parallel
(a) The current capacity decreases
(b) The current capacity increases
(c) The emf increases
(d) The emf decreases
249. The number of dry cells, each of emf 1.5 volt and internal resistance 0.5 ohm that must be joined in series with a resistance of 20 ohm so
as to send a current of 0.6 ampere through the circuit is
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
250. The electromotive force of a primary cell is 2 volts. When it is short-circuited it gives a current of 4 amperes. Its internal resistance in
ohms is
(a) 0.5
(b) 5.0
(c) 2.0
(d) 8.0
251. Emf of a cell is 1.25 V and its internal resistance is 2 . Number of such cells are connected in series with a resistance of 30 , so that
current in the circuit is 0.5 A is
(a) 30
(b) 60
(c) 45
(d) 20
252. A torch battery consisting of two cells of 1.45 volts and an internal resistance 0.15 , each cell sending currents through the filament of
the lamps having resistance 1.5 ohms. The value of current will be
(a) 16.11 amp
(b) 1.611 amp
(c) 0.1611 amp
(d) 2.6 amp
253. A cell of emf 1.5 V having a finite internal resistance is connected to a load resistance of 2 . For maximum power transfer the internal
resistance of the cell should be
(a) 4 ohm
(b) 0.5 ohm
(c) 2 ohm
(d) None of these
254. Two cells of equal emf and of internal resistances r1 and r2(r1 > r2) are connected in series. On connecting this combination to an external
resistance R, it is observed that the p.d. across the first cell becomes zero. The value of R will be
(a) r1 + r2
(b) r1 – r2
(c)
r1  r2
2
(d)
r1  r2
2
255. It is easier to start a car engine on a hot day than a cold day. This is because internal resistance of the car battery
(a) Decreases with rise in temperature
(b) Increases with rise in temperature
(c) Decreases with fall in temperature
(d) Non of the above
256. 36 identical cell each having emf 1.5 volt and internal resistance 0.5  are connected in series with an external resistance of 12 . If 8
cells are wrongly connected then current through the circuit will be
(a) 0.5 A
(b) 1 A
(c) 2 A
(d)
4A
257. Kirchoff’s first and second laws in the electricity are the laws respectively of
(a) Energy and Momentum conservation
(b) Momentum and charge conservation
(c) Mass and charge conservation
(d) Charge and energy conservation
258. The value of current i, in a section of complicated network is
2A
(a) 1.3 A
1.3 A
(b) 2 A
(c) 1 A
(d) 1.7 A
i
1A
259. In the circuit shown in figure
2
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(a) Current passing through 2  resistance is zero
(b) Current passing through 4  resistance is 5 A
(c) Current passing through 5  resistance is 4 A
(d) All of the above
260. Four identical batteries, each of emf E and internal resistance r are connected in series to form a closed loop, as shown in figure. Current
through each battery and potential difference across each battery are respectively
4E
Amp and 0 volt
r
(a)
E
d
(b) 0 Amp and E volt
E
r
2E
Amp and 0 volt
r
E
Amp and 0 volt
r
(c)
(d)
r
c
r
i
E
E
a
r
b
261. In the following circuit in steady state. Potential difference across capacitor will be
10
(a) 2.5 V
1V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 1 V
1.5V
C
2.5V
20
(d) 0 V
262. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is B. It is then bent
into a circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil will be
(a)
(b)
2n B
n2 B
(c)
(d)
nB
2 n 2 B.
263. The magnetic field due to a current carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a distance of 4 cm from the centre is
54 T . What will be its value at the centre of the loop
(a)
125 T
(b)
150 T
(c)
250 T
(d)
75 T
264. A circular coil of radius R carries an electric current. The magnetic field due the coil at a point on the axis of the coil located at a distance r
from the centre of the coil, such that r >> R, varies as
(b) 1 / r 3 / 2
(a) 1/r
(c)
1 / r2
(d) 1 / r 3
265. The magnetic field due to a straight conductor of uniform cross section of radius a and carrying a steady current is represented by
(a)
B
(b)
a
B
(c)
r
B
(d)
r
B
r
a
a
r
a
266. A current flows in a conductor from east to west. The direction of the magnetic field at a point above the conductor is
(a) Towards west
(b) Towards east
267. The earth’s magnetic field at a given point is 0 .5  10
(c) Towards south
5
Wb m
2
(d) Towards north
. This field is to be annulled by magnetic induction at the centre of a
circular conducting loop of radius 5.0 cm. The current required to be flown in the loop is nearly
(a) 0.2 A
(b) 0.4 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 40 A
(b) Magnetic flux
(c) Intensity of magnetic flux
(d) Magnetic potential
268. Which is a vector quantity
(a) Flux density
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269. A long straight wire carrying of 30A is placed in an external uniform magnetic field of induction 4  10 4 T . The magnetic field is acting
parallel to the direction of current. The magnitude of the resultant magnetic induction in Tesla at a point 2.0 cm.
is ( 0
(a)
 4   10
7
away from the wire
H /m
10 4
(b)
3  10 4
(c)
5  10 4
(d)
6  10 4
270. Two similar coils are kept mutually perpendicular such that the centre coincide. At the centre, find the ratio of the magnetic field due to
one coil the resultant magnetic field. By both coils, if the same current is flown
(a)
1: 2
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d)
3 :1
271. A wire in the form of a circular loop of one turn carrying a current produces a magnetic field B at the centre. If the same wire is looped
into a coil of two turns and carries the same current, the new value of magnetic induction at the centre is
(a) 5 B
(b) 3 B
(c) 2 B
(d) 4 B
272. A circular loop of radius R, carrying current i, lies in XY-plane with its centre at origin. The total magnetic flux through X-Y plane is
(a) Directly proportional to R
(b) Directly proportional to i
273. An arc of a circle of radius R subtends and angle
(a)
0i
2R
(b)
(c) Inversely proportional to i

at the centre. It carries a current i. The magnetic field at the centre will be
2
0i
8R
(c)
0i
4R
(d)
2 0 i
5R
(c)

  i dl  rˆ
dB  0
4 r 3
(d)

  i dl  r
dB  0
4 r 2
274. The vector form of Biot-Savart law for a current carrying element is
(a)
  idl sin 
dB  0
4
r2
(b)
(d) Zero

  i dl  rˆ
dB  0
4 r 2
275. Two long straight wires are set parallel to each other. Each carries a current in the same direction and the separation between them is 2r.
The intensity of the magnetic field midway between them is
(a)
276.
0i / r
(b)
4 0i / r
0i / 4 r
(c) Zero
(d)
(c) None of these
(d) Both of these
A magnetic field can be produced by
(a) A moving charge
(b) A changing electric field
277. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying current of 2A is
(a)
0 . 5  10 5 T
(b)
1 . 25  10 4 T
(c)
3  10 5 T
(d)
4  10 5 T
278. A long straight wire carries a current of  amp. The magnetic field due to it will be 5  10 5 Weber / m 2 at what distance from the wire
[0 = permeability of air]
(a)
10 4  0 metre
(b)
10 4
0
metre
(c)
10 6  0 metre
(d)
10 6
0
metre
279. On connecting a battery to the two corners of a diagonal of a square conductor frame of side a, the magnitude of the magnetic field at
the centre will be
(a) Zero
(b)
0
a
(c)
2 0
a
(d)
40i
a
280. A closely wound flat circular coil of 25 turns of wire has diameter of 10 cm and carries a current of 4 ampere. Determine the flux density
at the centre of a coil
(a)
1 . 679  10 5 Tesla
(b)
2 .028  10 4 Tesla
(c)
1 . 257  10 3 Tesla
(d) 1 . 512  10 6 Tesla
281. A current of 2 amp, flows in a long, straight wire of radius 2 mm. The intensity of magnetic field at the axis of the wire is
(a)
 0



  10 3 Tesla

(b)
 0

 2

  10 3 Tesla

(c)
 2 0

 

  10 3 Tesla

(d) Zero
282. 1A current flows through an infinitely long straight wire. The magnetic field produced at a point 1 metres away from it is
(a)
2  10 3 Tesla
(b)
2
Tesla
10
(c)
2  10 7 Tesla
(d)
2  10 6 Tesla
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283. A circular loop has a radius of 5 cm and it is carrying a current of 0.1 amp. It magnetic moment is
(a)
1.32  10 4 amp - m 2
(b)
2.62  10 4 amp - m 2
(c)
5.25  10 4 amp - m 2
(d)
7.85  10 4 amp - m 2
(d)
0
 il sin 
4
284. Which of the following gives the value of magnetic field according to ‘Biot-Savart’s law’
(a)
il sin 
r
(b)
2
 0 il sin 
4
r
(c)
 0 il sin 
4
r2
285. A circular loop of radius 0.0157 m carries a current of 2.0 amp. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is
(0  4   10 7 weber / amp  m )
(a)
1 .57  10 5 weber / m 2
(b)
8 . 0  10 5 weber / m 2
(c)
2 . 5  10 5 weber / m 2
(d)
3 . 14  10 5 weber / m 2
286. A and B are two concentric circular conductors of centre O and carrying currents i1 and i2 as shown in the figure. The ratio of their radii is
1 : 2 and ratio of the flux densities at O due to A and B is 1 : 3. The value of i1 / i2 will be
B
(a) 1/6
A
(b) 1/4
r2
(c) 1/2
O
r1
i1
(d) 1/3
i2
287. A long straight wire carries an electric current of 2A. The magnetic induction at a perpendicular distance of 5m from the wire is
(a) 4  10 8 T
(b)
8  10 8 T
(c)
12  10 8 T
(d) 16  10 8 T
288. The magnetic field in a straight current carrying conductor wire is
(a) Upward to downward
(b) Downward to upward
(c) All around
(d) In a circular path
(c) Magnetic field only
(d) Electric
289. A current carrying wire in the neighbourhood produces
(a) No field
fields
(b) Electric field only
and
magnetic
290. The magnetic induction in air at a point 1 cm away from a long wire that carries a current of 1A, will be
(a)
1  10 5 T
(b)
2  10 5 T
(c)
3  10 5 T
(d)
4  10 5 T
291. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of magnetic induction B with distance r from a long wire carrying current
B
B
(a)
B
B
(b)
(c)
r
(d)
r
r
r
292. Magnetic field due to 0.1A current flowing through a circular coil of radius 0.1 m and 1000 turns at the centre of the coil is]
(a)
2  10 1 T
(b)
4 . 31  10 2 T
(c)
6 . 28  10 4 T
(d)
9 . 81  10 4 T
293. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1A is replaced by another wire of 1 mm diameter carrying the same current. The
strength of magnetic field far away is
(a) Twice the earlier value
(b) Half of the earlier value
(c) Quarter of its earlier value
(d) Unchanged
294. A straight wire of length ( 2 ) metre is carrying a current of 2A and the magnetic field due to it is measured at a point distant 1 cm from it.
If the wire is to be bent into a circle and is to carry the same current as before, the ratio of the magnetic field at its centre to that
obtained in the first case would be
(a) 50 : 1
(b) 1 : 50
(c) 100 : 1
(d) 1 : 100
295. Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are perpendicular to each other and carry currents i1 and i2 . The magnitude of the magnetic
induction at a point P at a distance a from the point O in a direction perpendicular to the plane ACBD is
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(a)
0
(i1  i2 )
2a
(b)
0
(i1  i2 )
2a
PHYSICS
(c)
0
2a
(i12  i22 )1 / 2
(d)
0 i1i2
2a (i1  i2 )
296. Two concentric circular coils of ten turns each are situated in the same plane. Their radii are 20 and 40 cm and they carry respectively 0.2
and 0.3 ampere current in opposite direction. The magnetic field in weber/m2 at the centre is
(a)
35
0
4
(b)
0
80
(c)
7
0
80
(d)
5
0
4
297. A circular coil ‘A’ has a radius R and the current flowing through it is i. Another circular coil ‘B’ has a radius 2R and if 2i is the current
flowing through it, then the magnetic fields at the centre of the circular coil are in the ratio of (i.e. BA to BB)
(a) 4 : 1
(b) 2 : 1
298. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the X-axis from X  
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 1 : 1
a
a
to X 
and carries a steady current i. The magnetic field due to
2
2
the section PQ at a point X = + a will be
(a) Proportional to a
(b) Proportional to a 2
(c) Proportional to
1
a
(d) Equal to zero
299. A straight wire and a circular loop both carrying currents are in the same vertical plane. There is no contact between the two at the point
A. If B1 and B 2 are magnetic fields due to i1 and i2 respectively at the point C, the centre of the loop, then the total field at C is
(a) Zero
i2
(b)
(B1  B 2 ) or (B 2  B1 )
(c)
(B1  B 2 ) perpendicular to the plane of the loop towards us
C
i1
(d) (B1  B 2 ) perpendicular to the plane of the loop away from us
A
300. Two mutually perpendicular wires are placed along X-axis and Y-axis. They carry currents i1 and i2 respectively. The locus of the points for
zero magnetic induction in the magnetic field produced by them is
(a)
y  (i1 / i2 )x
(b)
y  (i1i2 )x
(c)
y  (i2 / i1 )x
(d)
y  x /(i1i2 )
301. The field normal to the plane of a coil of n turns and radius r which carries a current i is measured on the axis of the coil at a small
distance h from the centre of the coil. This is smaller than the field at the centre by the fraction
(a)
3 h2
2 r2
(b)
2 h2
3 r2
(c)
3 r2
2 h2
(d)
2 r2
3 h2
302. Two infinitely long insulated wires are kept perpendicular to each other. They carry currents i1 = 2 A. and i2 = 1.5 A. Find the direction and
magnitude of magnetic field produced at P
(a)
303.
2  10  5
i2
N
,
Am
3cm
N
,
Am
(b)
2  10
5
(c)
10  5
N
,
Am
(d)
10 5
N
,
Am
i1
P
4cm
A pair of stationary and infinitely long bent wires are placed in the XY plane as shown in the figure. The wire carrying a current of 1.0 ampere each
as shown. The segments L and M are along X- axis, the segments P and Q are parallel to Y- axis such that OS = OR = 0.02m. The direction and
magnitude of magnetic induction at the origin is
(a)
10  4
Wb
m2
(b)
10  5
Wb
m2
i
L
R
i
M
O
S
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4
(c)
2  10
(d)
2  10  5
Wb
m2
Wb
m2
304. Two similar coils of radius R and number of turns N are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The currents
flowing in them are i and i 3 respectively. The resultant magnetic induction at the centre will be (in Wb / m 2 )
(a)
 0 Ni
2R
 0 Ni
(b)
R
(c)
3 0
Ni
2R
(d)
5
 0 Ni
2R
305. Two concentric coil carry the same current in opposite directions. The diameter of the outer coil in twice as compared to the inner coil. If
at its centre, the smaller coil produces a magnetic field of 2T, then the magnetic field at the common centre is
(a) 4T
(b) 3 T
(c) 2T
(d) 1 T
306. If the ratio of magnetic fields at two points in a definite direction due to current carrying straight conductor is 3/4, then the ratio of the
distances of these points from the conductor will be
(a)
2/ 3
(b)
4 /3
(c)
(d)
3/4
3/2
307. Current is flowing through a conducting hollow pipe whose area of cross-section is shown in the figure. Magnetic induction will be
zero at
R
(a) Points P, Q and R
(b) Point R but not at P and Q
P
(c) Point Q but not at P and R
Q
(d) Point P but not at Q and R
308. In the figure, shown the magnetic induction at the centre of the arc due to the current in portion AB will be
(a)
0i
(b)
0i
(c)
0i
r
r
2r
A
O
B
C
D
4r
(d) Zero
309. Eight wires cut the page perpendicularly at the points shown. Each wire carries current i0 . Odd currents are out of the page and even
currents into the page. The line integral
(a)
0i0
(b)
2 0 i0
 B. dl along the loop is
3
4
6
1
(c) 0
(d)
5
8
2
7
3 0 i0
310. Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same materials and same length form a square in the three different ways P, Q and R as
shown in fig with current connection shown, the magnetic field at the centre of the square is zero in cases
P
(a) In P only
(b) In P and Q only
R
Q
(c) In Q and R only
(d)
P and R only
311. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is
halved, the new value of the magnetic field is
(a) B
(b) 2B
(c) 4B
(d) B/2
312. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current of 2.5 amp. The magnetic field at its centre is
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[0  4  10 7 weber / m 2 ] 
(a)
3.14  10 2 Wb / m 2
(b)
6.28  10 2 Wb / m 2
9.42  10 2 Wb / m 2
(c)
(d) 12 .56  10 2 Wb / m 2
313. A long solenoid of length L has a mean diameter D. it has n layers of windings of N turns each. If it carries a current I, the magnetic field at
its centre will be
(a) Proportional to D
(b) Inversely proportional to D
(c) Independent of D
(d) Proportional to L
314. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current, the produced magnetic field will be
(a) Inside the pipe only
(b) Outside the pipe only
(c) Both inside and outside the pipe only
(d) Neither inside nor outside the pipe only
315. In a current carrying long solenoid, the field produced does not depend upon
(a) Number of turns per unit length
(b) Current flowing
(c) Radius of the solenoid
(d) All of the above
316. A long copper tube of inner radius R carries a current i, the magnetic field B inside the tube is
(a)
0 i
2R
(b)
0 i
4 R
0i
(c)
(d) Zero
2R
317. A long solenoid has 800 turns per metre length of solenoid. A current of 1.6 A flows through it. The magnetic induction at the end of the
solenoid on its axis is
(a)
16  10 4 Tesla
(b)
8  10 4 Tesla
32  10 4 Tesla
(c)
4  10 4 Tesla
(d)
318. A solenoid 1.5 meter and 4.0 cm in diameter possesses 10 turns/ cm. A current of 5.0 A is flowing through it. Calculate the magnetic
induction
(i) Inside and
(a) 2 
(ii) At one end on the axis of solenoid respectively
10–3
319. A current of
T,  
10–3
T
(b)   10–3 T, 2  10–3 T
(c) 2  10–3 T, 2  10–3 T
(d)   10–3 T,   10–3 T
1
A is flowing through a toroid. It has 1000 number of turn per meter then value of magnetic field (in wb/m2) along its axis
4
is
(a) 10–2
(b) 10–3
(c) 10–4
(d) 10–7
320. Mean radius of a toroid is 10 cm and number of turns are 500. If current flowing through it is 0.1 A then value of magnetic induction (in
Tesla) for toroid
(a) 10–2
(b) 10–5
(c) 10–3
(d) 10–4
321. Which formula does not show the Ampere's circuital law
(a)
 B. dl   i
0
(b)
W
  0 i
m
 H.dl  i
(c)
 H.dl   i
(d)
0
322. A long thin hollow metallic cylinder of radius 'R' has a current i ampere. The magnetic induction 'B'-away from the axis at a distance r from
the axis varies as shown in
B
(a)
B
(b)
B
B
(c)
(d)
B
2
r
r
r
r
at the ends
when
carrying
the
same
current
i.
When
the
coils
are
joined
together
to
form
a
long
coil
of
twice
the
length
of
X
or
Y
and
the
x=0 x=R
x=0 x=R
x=0 x=R
x=0 x=R
current i is sent through the coil, the flux density in the middle is given by
323. In the given figure, the coils X and Y have same number of turns and length. Each has a flux density B in the middle and a flux density
(a) 0
(b)
X
Y
B
2
(c) 2B
i
i
(d) B
324. A proton and an -particle, moving with the same velocity, enter into a uniform magnetic field, acting normal to the plane of their
motion. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths described by the proton and -particle is
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(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 1 : 16
(d) 4 : 1

325. A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v describes a circular path of radius R when subjected to a uniform transverse
magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field when the particle completes one full circle is
(a)
BQv 2 R
(b)
 Mv 2

 R


 2 R


(c) Zero
(d)
BQ 2  R
326. An electron is travelling along the x-direction. It encounters a magnetic field in the y-direction. Its subsequent motion will be
(a) Straight line along the x-direction (b)
A circle in the xz-plane
(c) A circle in the yz-plane
(d) A circle in the xy-plane
327. An electron having charge 1 .6  10 19 C and mass 9  10 31 kg is moving with 4  10 6 ms–1 speed in a magnetic field 2  10 1 Tesla in a
circular orbit. The force acting on electron and the radius of the circular orbit will be
(a)
12 .8  10 13 N , 1 . 1  10 4 m
(b) 1 .28  10 13 N , 1 . 1  10 3 m
(c)
1 . 28  10 14 N , 1 . 1  10 4 m
(d) 1 . 28  10 13 N , 1 . 1  10 4 m
328. Two ions having masses in the ratio 1 : 1 and charges 1 : 2 are projected into uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the field with
speeds in the ratio 2 : 3. The ratio of the radii of circular paths along which the two particles move is
(a) 4 : 3
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
329. A charged particle is at rest in the region where magnetic field and electric field are parallel. The particle will move in a
(a) Straight line
(b) Circle
(c) Ellipse
(d) None of these
330. An electron and a proton have equal kinetic energies. They enter in a magnetic field perpendicularly then
(a) Both will follow a circular path with same radius
(b) Both will follow a helical path
(c) Both will follow a parabolic path
(d) All the statements are false
331. A charge 'q' moves in a region where electric field and magnetic field both exist, then force on it is

(a)

q (v B)

(b)


q E  q (B  v )

(c)


q B  q (E  v )
(d)
q E  q(v  B)
332. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can emit
(i)
Electrons
(ii) Protons
(iii) He2+
(iv) Neutrons
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) iv
(d) ii, iii
The emission at the instant can be
(a) i, ii, iii
333. Which particles will have minimum frequency of revolution when projected with the same velocity perpendicular to a magnetic field
(a) Li+
(b) Electron
(d) He+
(c) Proton
334. Mixed He+ and O2+ ions (mass of He+ = 4 amu and that of O2+ = 16 amu) beam passes a region of constant perpendicular magnetic field. If
kinetic energy of all the ions is same then
(a) He+ ions will be deflected more than those of O2+
(b) He+ ions will be deflected less than those of O2+
(c) All the ions will be deflected equally
(d) No ions will be deflected
335. If cathode rays are projected at right angles to a magnetic field, their trajectory is
(a) Ellipse
(b) Circle
(c) Parabola
(d) None of these
336. When a charged particle enters in uniform magnetic field. Its kinetic energy
(a) Remains constant
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) Becomes zero
337. Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB respectively and having the same charge are moving in a plane. A uniform magnetic field
exists perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the particles are vA and vB respectively and the trajectories are as shown in the figure.
Then









 A





(b) mA vA > mB vB








(c) mA< mB and vA < vB
















(a) mA vA < mB vB
B
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(d) mA= mB and vA = vB
338. A particle of mass 0.6 g and having charge of 25 nC is moving horizontally with a uniform velocity 1 .2  10 4 ms 1 in a uniform magnetic
field, then the value of the magnetic induction is (g = 10 ms–2)
(a) Zero
(b) 10 T
(c) 20 T
(d) 200 T
339. A straight conductor carries a current of 5A. An electron travelling with a speed of 5  10 6 ms 1 parallel to the wire at a distance of 0.1
m from the conductor, experiences a force of
(a)
8  10 20 N
(b)
3 .2  10 19 N
(c)
(d) 1 .6  10 19 N
8  10 18 N
340. Cyclotron frequency does not depend upon
(a) Radius
(b) Velocity
(c) Magnetic induction
(d) None of these
(b) Neutrons
(c) Positive ions
(d)
341. Cyclotron is used to accelerate
(a) Electrons
342. A proton moving with a velocity 3  10 ms
5
1
enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle of
curvature of the path will be (e/m for proton = 108 C/kg)
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 0.02 cm
30o
(c) 1.25 cm
Negative ions
with the field. The radius of
(d) 2 cm
343. A proton moving with a velocity, 2 .5  10 7 m / s , enters a magnetic field of intensity 2.5 T making an angle 30o with the magnetic field.
The force on the proton is
(a)
3  10 12 N
(b)
5  10 12 N
(c)
6  10 12 N
(d)
9  10 12 N
344. An electron (charge q coulomb) enters a magnetic field of H weber/m2 with a velocity of v m/s in the same direction as that of the field.
The force on the electron is
(a) Hqv Newtons in the direction of the magnetic field
(b) Hqv dynes in the direction of the magnetic field
(c) Hqv Newtons at right angles to the direction of the magnetic field
(d) Zero
345. A charge of 1 C is moving in a magnetic field of 0.5 Tesla with a velocity of 10 m/sec. Force experienced is
(a) 5 N
(b) 10 N
(c) 0.5 N
(d) 0 N
346. An electron moving towards the east enters a magnetic field directed towards the north. The force on the electron will be directed
(a) Vertically upward
(b) Vertically downward
(c) Towards the west
(d) Towards the south
347. An electron (mass  9 .0  10 31 kg and charge  1 .6  10 19 Coulomb) is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic field of
1 .0  10 4 weber / m 2 . Its period of revolution is
(a)
3 . 5  10 7 second
(b)
7 . 0  10 7 second
(c)
1 . 05  10 6 second
(d)
2 .1  10 6 second
348. A charge q is moving in a magnetic field then the magnetic force does not depend upon
(a) Charge
(b) Mass
(c) Velocity
(d) Magnetic field
349. A charged particle moves in uniform magnetic field. The velocity of the particle at some instant makes an acute angle with the magnetic
field. The path of the particle will be
(a) A straight line
(b) A circle
(c) A helix with uniform pitch
(d) A helix with non-uniform pitch
350. Cathode rays and canal rays produced in a certain discharge tube are deflected in the same direction, if
(a) A magnetic field is applied normally
(b) An electric field is applied normally
(c) An electric field is applied tangentially
(d) A magnetic field is applied tangentially
351. An electron is accelerated by a potential difference of 12000 volts. It then enters a uniform magnetic field of 10 3 T applied
perpendicular to the path of electron. Find the radius of path
Given mass of electron  9  10 31 kg and charge on electron  1 .6  10 19 C
(a) 36.7 m
(b) 36.7 cm
(c) 3.67 m
(d) 3.67 cm
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352. A particle of charge q and mass m moving with a velocity v along the x -axis enters the region x  0 with uniform magnetic field B
along the kˆ direction. The particle will penetrate in this region in the x -direction upto a distance d equal to
(a) Zero
(b)
mv
qB
(c)
2mv
qB
(d) Infinity
353. A proton, a deuteron and an   particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If
rp , rd and r denote respectively the radii of the trajectories of these particles, then
(a)
r  rp  rd
(b)
r  rd  rp
(c)
r  rd  rp
(d)
rp  rd  r
354. Two particles X and Y having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same potential difference, enter a region of uniform
magnetic field and describes circular path of radius R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of mass of X to that of Y is
(a)
 R1

R
 2




1/2
(b)
R2
R1
(c)
 R1

R
 2




2
(d)
R1
R2
355. A proton and an electron both moving with the same velocity v enter into a region of magnetic field directed perpendicular to the
velocity of the particles. They will now move in circular orbits such that
(a) Their time periods will be same
(b) The time period for proton will be higher
(c) The time period for electron will be higher
(d) Their orbital radii will be same
356. If electron velocity is 2ˆi  3 ˆj and it is subjected to magnetic field of 4 kˆ , then its
(a) Speed will change
(b) Path will change
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
2
357. An ion of specific charge 5  10 C / kg enters in transverse magnetic field of intensity 4  10 Tesla with velocity of 2  10 5 m / sec .
7
Radius of its circular path will be
(a) 5 cm
(b) 15 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 30 cm
coulomb moving along the x̂ -direction with a velocity 10 m / s experiences a force of 10 10 Newton in ŷ direction due to magnetic field, then the minimum magnetic field is
358. If a particle of charge 10
12
5
(a)
6 . 25  10 3 Tesla in ẑ -direction
(b)
10 15 Tesla in ẑ -direction
(c)
6 . 25  10 3 Tesla in ẑ -direction
(d)
10 3 Tesla in ẑ -direction
359. A deutron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The
kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with the same B is
(a) 25 keV
360.
(b) 50 keV
(c) 200 keV
(d) 100 keV




A proton with velocity v enters a region of uniform magnetic induction B , with v perpendicular to B and describes a circle of radius R.

If an   particle enters this region with the same velocity v , it describes a circle of radius
]
(a) R/2
(b)
2 R
(c) 2 R
(d) 4 R
361. A 2MeV proton is moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 2.5 Tesla. The force on the proton is
(a)
2 .5  10 10 N
(b)
7.6  10 11 N
(c)
2 .5  10 11 N
(d)
7.8  10 12 N
362. A beam of protons enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla with a velocity of 4  10 5 m / sec at an angle of 600 to the field. The
radius of the helical path taken by the beam is
(a) 6 mm
(b) 12 mm
]
(c) 18 mm
(d) 24 mm
363. A proton, a deuteron and an  -particle enter a uniform magnetic field normally and the radii of their circular paths are same. The ratio
of their kinetic energies is
(a) 2 : 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 2 : 1
(d) 2 : 1 : 2
364. A cyclotron in which the flux density is 1.57 T is employed to accelerate protons. How rapidly should the electric field between the dees
be reversed
(a)
4 .8  10 8 cycles / sec
(b)
2 . 5  10 7 cycles / sec
(c)
4 . 8  10 6 cycles / sec
(d)
8 .4  10 8 cycles / sec
365. There is a magnetic field acting in a plane perpendicular to this sheet of paper, downward into the paper as shown in the figure. Particles
in vacuum move in the plane of the paper from left to right. The path indicated by the arrow could be travelled by






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



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(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
(d) Alpha particle
366. A neutron, a proton, an electron and an -particle enter a region of uniform magnetic field with equal velocities. The magnetic field is
perpendicular directed into the paper. The tracks of particles are labelled in fig. The electron follows track
(a) A
(b) B

B 

C



















A
D
(c) C








(d) D








367. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(a) Direction of the particle remains unchanged
(b) Acceleration remains unchanged
(c) Velocity remains unchanged
(d) Speed of the particle remains unchanged
368. A particle with a specific charge s is fired with a speed v towards a wall at a distance d, perpendicular to the wall. What minimum
magnetic field must exist in this region for the particle not to hit the wall
(a) v/sd
(b) 2v/sd
(c) v/2sd
(d) v/4sd
369. A beam of protons is moving horizontally towards you. As it approaches, it passes through a magnetic field directed downward. The beam
deflects
(a) To your left side
(b) To your right side
(c) Does not deflect
(d) Nothing can be said
370. A charged particle is whirled in a horizontal circle by attaching it to a string fixed at one point. If a magnetic field is switched on in the
vertical direction, the tension in the string
(a) Will increase
(b) Will decrease
(c) Will remain the same
(d) May increase or decrease
371. A charged particle entering a magnetic field from outside in a direction perpendicular to the field
(a) Can never complete one rotation inside the field
(b) May or may not complete one rotation in the field depending on its angle of entry into the field
(c) Will always complete exactly half of a rotation before leaving the field
(d) May follow a helical path depending on its angle of entry into the field
372. If a positively charged particle is moving as shown in the figure, then it will get deflected due to magnetic field towards
(a) + x-direction
Y
(b) + y-direction
B
(c) – x-direction
q
O
(d) + z-direction
v
X
373. A charged particle, having charge q1 accelerated through a potential difference V enter a perpendicular magnetic field in which it
experiences a force F . If V is increased to 5 V , the particle will experience a force
(a) F
(b) 5F
(c)
F
5
(d)
5F
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374. Particles 1, 2 and 3 are moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field, then particle




























2






(a) 1 is positively charged and particle 3 is negatively charged
(b) 1 is negatively charged and particle 3 is positively charged
1
(c) 1 is negatively charged and particle 2 is neutral
(d) 1 and 3 are positively charged and particle 2 is neutral
3
375. A proton and an  -particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicular with the same speed. If proton takes 20  seconds to make 5
revolutions, then the periodic time for the  -particle would be
(a)
5  sec
(b)
8  sec
(c)
10  sec
(d) 16  sec
376. Doubly ionised oxygen atoms (O 2  ) and singly-ionised lithium atoms (Li ) are traveling with the same speed, perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field. The relative atomic masses of oxygen ad lithium are 16 and 7 respectively. The ratio
(a) 16 : 7
(b) 8 : 7
(c) 7 : 8
radius of O 2  orbit
is
radius of Li  orbit
(d) 7 : 16
377. Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying currents are arranged as shown in the figure. The wire C which carries a current of 5.0 amp
is so placed that it experiences no force. The distance of wire C from wire D is then
D
(a) 9 cm
15A
(b) 7 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d)
x
3 cm
C
B
5A
10A
15–x
15cm
378. Three long straight wires A, B and C are carrying currents as shown ion figure. Then the resultant force on B is directed…
A
(a) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and inward
1A
(b) Perpendicular to the plane of paper and outward
B
C
2A
3A
(c) Towards C
d
(d) Towards A
d
379. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry current i1 and i2 in the same direction. They exert a force F on each other. Now the
current in one of them is increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of the
force between them is
(a)

2F
3
(b)
F
3
(c) – 2F
(d)

F
3
380. Two parallel beams of positrons moving in the same direction will
(a) Repel each other
(b) Will not interact with each other
(c) Attract each other
(d) Be deflected normal to the plane containing the two beams
381. When two wires have current in same direction then force is
(a) Attractive
(b) Repulsive
(c) Both
(d)
Can't be determined
382. The current is flowing in opposite directions under magnetic field in two long parallel wires then
(a) Both the wires will attract each other
(b) Both the wires will repell each other
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(c) Both the wires will move perpendicular to each other
(d) None of these
383. A rectangular loop carrying a current i1 is situated near a long straight wire carrying a steady current i2 . The wire is parallel to one of the
sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop as shown in the figure. Then the current loop will
i2
(a) Move away from the wire
i1
(b) Move towards the wire
(c)
Remain stationary
(d) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire
384. Two parallel conductors A and B of equal lengths carry currents i and 10 i, respectively, in the same direction. Then
(a) A and B will repel each other with same force
(b) A and B will attract each other with same force
(c)
(d) A and B will attract each other with different forces
A will attract each B, but B will repel A
385. Two thin and parallel wires are placed at a distance b and i current is flowing through each of the wires. The magnitude of the force
exerted on the unit length of wire due to another wire will be
(a)
 i2 / b 2
(b)
 0 i 2 / 2b
(c)
 0 i / 2b
 0 i / 2b 2
(d)
386. 1.2 amp current is flowing in a wire of 0.3 m length, It is placed perpendicular to the magnetic field (identical to 2T). The force acting on
the wire will be
(a) 1N
(b) 0.72 N
(c) 0
(d)
2N
(c) Remains same
(d)
None of these
387. If a current is passed through a spring then the spring will
(a) Expand
(b) Compress
388. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table. Loop A carries a current which increases with time. In response, the loop B
(a) Is attracted by the loop A
(b) Is repelled by the loop A
(c) Remains stationary
(d)
None of the above
389. Two long straight parallel conductors separated by a distance of 0.5 m carry currents of 5A and 8A in the same direction. The force per
unit length experienced by each other is
(a)
1 . 6  10 5 N (attractive)
(b) 1 . 6  10 5 N (repulsive)
(c)
16  10 5 N (attractive)
(d) 16  10 5 N (repulsive)
390. One ampere is that current flowing in two infinite long parallel wires placed at a distance on one meter produces between them a force
of
(a) 1 N/m
(b)
2  10 7 N/m
(c)
2  10 7 N/m
3  10 7 N/m
(d)
391. A and B are two conductors carrying a current i in the same direction. x and y are two electron beams moving in the same direction
(a) There will be repulsion between A and B, attraction between x and y
A
(b) There will be attraction between A and B, repulsion between x and y
B
(c)
x
There will be repulsion between A and B and also x and y
(d) There will be attraction between A and B and also x and y
y
392. A, B and C are parallel conductors of equal length carrying currents i, i and 2i respectively. Distance between A and B is x. Distance
between B and C is also x. F1 is the force exerted by B on A. F2 is the force exerted by C on A. Choose the correct answer
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(a)
F1  2F2
(b)
F2  2F1
(c)
F1  F2
(d)
F1  F2
PHYSICS
A
B
C
i
i
2i
x
(15 – x)
393. If a wire of length 1 metre placed in uniform magnetic field 1.5 Tesla at angle 30° with magnetic field, the current in a wire 10 amp then
force on a wire will be
(a) 7.5 N
(b) 1.5 N
(c) 0.5 N
(d)
2.5 N
394. An arbitrary shaped closed coil is made of a wire of a length L and a current i ampere is flowing in it. If the plane of the coil is
perpendicular to magnetic field B, the force on the coil is
(a) Zero
(b) iBL
(c) 2iBL
(d)
1
iBL
2
395. Two long parallel copper wires carry currents of 5A each in opposite directions. If the wires are separated by a distance of 0.5 m, then the
force between the two wires is
(a)
10 5 N , attractive
(b)
10 5 N , repulsive
2  10 5 , attractive
(c)
(d)
2  10 5 , repulsive
396. A stream of electrons is projected horizontally to the right. A straight conductor carrying a current is supported parallel to electron
stream and above it. If the current in the conductor is from left to right. then what will be the effect on electron stream
(a) The electron stream will be pulled upward
(b) The electron stream will be pulled downward
(c)
(d) The electron beam will be speeded up towards the right
The electron stream will be retarted
397. Force per unit length acting at one end of each of the two parallel wires, carrying current i each, kept distance r apart is
(a)
 0 i2
4 r
(b)
 0 2 i2
4 r
0 (2i)2
4 r
(c)
(d)
 0 i2
4 4 r
398. If two streams of protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they
(a) Do not exert any force on each other
(b) Repel each other
(c) Attract each other
(d) Get rotated to be perpendicular to each other
399. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0 such that B0 is perpendicular to the
plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop is
(a)
irB0
(b)
2irB0
(c) Zero
(d)
irB0
400. Two very long, straight and parallel wires carry steady currents i and – i respectively. The distance between the wires is d. At a certain
instant of time, a point charge q is at a point equidistant from the two wires in the plane of the wires. Its instantaneous velocity v is
perpendicular to this plane. The magnitude of the force due to the magnetic field acting in the charge at this instant is
(a)
 0 iqv
2d
(b)
 0 iqv
d
(c)
2 0 iqv
d
(d)
0
401. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The
magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is
(a) 2.4 N
(b) 1.2 N
(c) 3.0 N
(d)
2.0 N
402. A current of 5 ampere is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 metres. A force of 7.5 N acts on it when it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2
Tesla. The angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the current is
(a)
30 o
(b)
45 o
(c)
60 o
(d)
90 o
403. Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying currents are arranged as shown in the figure. The wire C which carries a current of 5.0 amp
is so placed that it experiences no force. The distance of wire C from wire D is then
D
(a) 9 cm
15A
C
B
5A
10A
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(b) 7 cm
(c)
5 cm
(d)
3 cm
404. Through two parallel wires A and B, 10 and 2 ampere of currents are passed respectively in opposite direction. If the wire A is infinitely
long and the length of the wire B is 2 m, the force on the conductor B, which is situated at 10 cm distance from A will be
(a)
8  10 5 N
(b)
4  10 7 N
4  10 5 N
(c)
(d)
4  10 7 N
405. Two straight parallel wires, both carrying 10 ampere in the same direction attract each other with a force of 1  10 3 N . If both currents
are doubled, The force of attraction will be
(a)
1  10 3 N
(b)
2  10 3 N
4  10 3 N
(c)
(d)
0 . 25  10 3 N
406. Two long wires are hanging freely. They are joined first in parallel and then in series and then are connected with a battery. In both cases,
which type of force acts between the two wires
(a) Attraction force when in parallel and repulsion force when in series
(b) Repulsion force when in parallel and attraction force when in series
(c)
Repulsion force in both cases
(d) Attraction force in both cases
407. A power line lies along the East-West direction and carries a current of 10 ampere. The force per metre due to the earth's magnetic field
of 10 4 Tesla is
(a)
10 5 N
(b)
10 4 N
(c)
10 3 N
(d)
10 2 N
408. Two circular coils mounted parallel to each other on the same axis carry steady currents. If an observer between the coils reports that
one coil is carrying a clockwise current i1, while the other is carrying a counter clockwise current i2, between the two coils, then there is
(a) A steady repulsive force
(b) Zero force
(c) A repulsive force
(d) A steady attractive force
409. A conductor PQ, carrying a current i is placed perpendicular to a long conductor xy carrying a current i. The direction of force on PQ will
be
(a) Towards right
(b) Towards left
(c)
Y
Upwards
(d) Downwards
i
P
Q
i
l
X
410. A long vertical straight conductor (not shown) is placed at O in figure, carries an inward current of 5A. A small straight wire X of length
0.03 m is placed along the tangent to the circle of centre O and radius 0.1m as shown. If X carries a current of 2A, The force on X in N is
(a)
9  10 7
(b)
6  10 7
(c)
Zero
(d)
3  10 7
O
2A
411. Two long wires AB and CD carry currents i1 and i2 in the directions shown
i1
(a) Force on wire AB is towards left
A
(b) Force on wire AB is towards right
D
C
i2
B
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(c)
Torque on wire AB is clockwise
(d) Torque on wire AB is anticlockwise
412. A triangular loop of side l caries a current i. It is placed in a magnetic field B such that the plane of the loop is in the direction of B. The
torque on the loop is
(a) Zero
(b)
(c)
iBl
3 22
iB l
2
3
iBl 2
4
(d)
413. The force between two parallel conductors, each of length 50 m and distant 20 cm apart, is 1 N. If the current in one conductor is
double that in another one, then their values will respectively be
(a) 100 A and 200 A
(b) 50 A and 400 A
(c) 10 A and 30 A
(d) 5 A and 25 A
414. Two parallel conductors are suspended horizontally by light strings of length 75 cm. The mass of each conductor is 40 gm/metre. When
current is not passed through them, the distance between them is 0.5 cm but when same amount of current is passed through them, the
distance between them becomes 1.5 cm. The current and its direction will be
(a) 10 A in same direction
(b) 10 A in opposite direction
(c) 14 A in same direction
(d) 14 A in opposite direction
415. In the figure X and Y are two long straight conductors each carrying a current of 2A. The force on each conductor is F. When the current in
each is changed to 1A and reversed in direction, the force on each is now
X
(a) F/4 and unchanged direction
2A
(b) F/2 and reversed direction
2A
(c) F/2 and unchanged direction
(d) F/4 and reversed direction
Y
416. A circular wire ABC and a straight conductor ADC are carrying current i and are kept in the magnetic field B then considering points A and
C
(a) Force as per ABC is more than ADC
(b) Force as per ABC is less than ADC
(c) Force as per ABC is equal to that as per ADC
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
×
A
i

B
D
C
(d) Any of (a) or (b) or (c)
417. Alternating current can not be measured by dc ammeter because
(a) Average value of current for complete cycle is zero
(b) ac changes direction
(c) ac can not pass through dc ammeter
(d) dc Ammeter will get damaged
418. The peak value of an ac emf E given by E = E0 cos t is 10 V and its frequency is 50Hz. At a time t 
1
S , the instantaneous value of
600
emf is
(a) 10 V
(b)
5 3V
(c) 5V
(d) 1 V
419. A lamp consumes only 50% of peak power in an ac circuit. What is the phase difference between the applied voltage and the circuit
current
(a)

6
(b)

3
(c)

4
(d)

2
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420. For high frequency, a capacitor offers
(a) More reactance
(b) Less reactance
(c) Zero reactance
(d) Infinite reactance
421. The power loss in an ac circuit will be minimum, when
(a) Resistance is high, inductance is high
(b) Resistance is high, inductance is low
(c) Resistance is low, inductance is low
(d) Resistance is low, inductance is high
422. An ac source is rated at 220 V, 50 Hz. The time taken for voltage to change from its peak value to zero is
(a) 50 sec
(b) 0.02 sec
(c) 5 sec
(d) 5×10–3 sec
423. The r.m.s. value of an ac of 50 Hz is 10 amp. The time taken by the alternating current in reaching from zero to maximum value and the
peak value will be
(a)
2  10 2 sec and 14 .14 amp
(b)
1  10 2 sec and 7 . 07 amp
(c)
5  10 3 sec and 7 . 07 amp
(d)
5  10 3 sec and 14 .14 amp
424. The ratio of peak value and r.m.s. value of an alternating current is
(a) 1
(b)
1
2
(c)
2
(d)
1/ 2
425. An alternating voltage is represented as E  20 sin 300 t. The average value of voltage over one cycle will be
(a) Zero
(b) 10 volt
(c)
20 2 volt
(d)
20
volt
2
426. If an ac main supply is given to be 220V. What would be the average e.m.f. during a positive half cycle
(a) 198V
(b) 386V
427. The inductive reactance of an inductor of
(a)
50

ohm
(b)

50
(c) 256V
(d) None of these
1
henry at 50 Hz frequency is

ohm
(c) 100 ohm
(d) 50 ohm
428. The frequency of an alternating voltage is 50 cycles/sec and its amplitude is 120 V. Then the r.m.s. value of voltage is
(a) 101.3 V
(b) 84.8 V
(c) 70.7 V
(d) 56.5 V
429. An ac supply gives 30 V r.m.s. which passes through a 10  resistance. The power dissipated in it is
(a)
90 2W
(b) 90 W
(c)
45 2W
(d) 45 W
430. The reactance of a coil when used in the domestic ac power supply (220 volts. 50 cycles per second) is 50 ohms. The inductance of the coil
is nearly
(a) 2.2 henry
(b) 0.22 henry
(c) 1.6 henry
(d) 0.16 henry
431. The capacity of a pure capacitor is 1 farad. In dc circuits, its effective resistance will be
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) 1 ohm
(d) 1/2 ohm
432. If instantaneous current is given by i  4 cos( t   ) amperes, then the r.m.s. value of current is
(a) 4 amperes
(b)
2 2 amperes
(c)
4 2 amperes
(d) Zero amperes
433. The potential difference V across the current i flowing through an instrument in an ac circuit of frequency f are given by V  5 cos t
volts and i  2 sin t amperes (where   2 f ) . The power dissipated in the instrument is
(a) Zero
(b) 10 watt
(c) 5 watt
(d) 2.5 watt
434. In an ac circuit with voltage V and current i, the power dissipated is
(a) Vi
(b)
1
Vi
2
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(c)
(d) Depends on the phase between V and i
Vi
2

435. In an ac circuit, the instantaneous values of e.m.f. and current are e  200 sin 314 t volt and i  sin  314 t 

power consumed in watt is
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 50

 amp . The average
3
(d) 25
436. An electric lamp is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz supply. Then the peak value of voltage is
(a) 210 V
(b) 211 V
(c) 311 V
(d) 320 V
437. The voltage of domestic ac is 220 volt. What does this represent
(a) Mean voltage
(b) Peak voltage
(c) Root mean voltage
(d) Root mean square voltage

 flows in an ac circuit across which an ac potential of E  E0 sin  t has been applied, then the
2

power consumption P in the circuit will be
;

438. If a current i given by i0 sin   t 
E0 i0
(a) P 
2
(b)
P  2 E0i0
E0 i0
2
P
(c)
(d)
P0
439. What will be the phase difference between virtual voltage and virtual current, when the current in the circuit is wattless
(a)
90 o
(b)
45 o
(c)
180 o
(d)
60 o
440. An alternating current is given by the equation i  i1 cos t  i2 sin t. The r.m.s. current is given by
1
(a)
2
(i1  i2 )
1
(b)
2
(i1  i2 ) 2
(c)
1
2
(i12  i22 )1 / 2
(d)
1 2 2 1/2
(i1  i2 )
2
441. In general in an alternating current circuit
(a) Average value of current is zero (b)
Average value of square of current is zero
(c) Average power dissipation is zero
(d) Phase difference between voltage and current is zero
442. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V  240 sin 120 t, where t is in seconds. The frequency and r.m.s. voltage are
(a) 60 Hz and 240 V
(b) 19 Hz and 120 V
(c) 19 Hz and 170 V
(d) 754 Hz and 70 V
443. The ratio of the mean value over half cycle to the r.m.s. value of an ac is
(a)
2: 
(b)
2 2 :
2 :
(d)
(c) 480 V
(d)
(c)
2 :1
444. An ac voltage e  240 sin 2  50  t has a peak-to-peak value of
(a) 240 V
(b)
240 2 V
240 / 2 V
445. The time required for a 50 Hz alternating current to increase from zero to 70.7% of its peak value is
(a) 2.5 ms
(b) 10 ms
(c) 20 ms
(d) 14.14 ms
446. An ac circuit draws 5A at 160 V and the power consumption is 600 W. Then the power factor is
(a) 1
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.50
(d) Zero
447. What is the equation of an alternating current of frequency 60 Hz and r.m.s. value 10 A ? Given that current i = 0 at t = 0
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(a) i = 10 sin (120 t)
(b) i = 10 cos (120 t)
(c)
i  10 2 sin(120 t)
(d)
i  10 2 cos(120 t)
448. Indicate the correct statements
(1) 50 Hz ac changes its direction 100 times in a second
(2) A 200 V, 60 W bulb can withstand upto 281V dc
(3) In ac circuits voltage across an element may greater than supply
(4) To increase the frequency of ac number of poles should be increased
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 3, 4, 1
(d) All
449. If instantaneous value of current is i  10 sin (314 t) A then the average current for the half cycle will be
(a) 10 A
(b) 7.07 A
(c) 6.37 A
(d) 3.53 A
450. The voltage of an ac source varies with time according to the equation V = 120 sin 100t cos(100 t) then
(a) The peak voltage of the source is 120 volts
(c) The peak voltage of the source is
120
2
volts
451. An ac source is of 120 volts – 60 Hz. the value of the voltage after
(a) 84.8 volts
(b) 42.4 volts
(b) The peak voltage of the source is 60 volts
(d) The frequency of the source is 50 Hz
1
sec from the start will be
720
(c) 106.8 volts
(d) 20.2 volts
452. The phase difference between the alternating current and voltage represented by the following equation i  i0 sin  t ,


E  E0 cos   t   , will be
3

(a)

3
(b)
4
3
(c)

2
(d)

6
453. What should be the value of capacitive reactance for a capacitance of 10 –6 farad while the angular frequency of alternating current
becomes 106 rad/sec
(a) 2 
(b) 1 
(c) 100 
(d) 10 
454. The reactance of a capacitor is X1 for frequency n1 and X2 for frequency n2 then X1 : X2 is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) n1 : n2
(c) n2 : n1
(d)
n12 : n22
455. By how much percentage the impedance be increased in an ac circuit keeping the resistance constant so that the power factor changes
from
1
1
to
2
4
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 50%
(d) 25%
(c)
(d)
456. If the r.m.s. value of ac is irms then peak to peak value is
(a)
2 irms . / 2
(b)
irms / 2
2 2 irms
2 irms
457. In an LCR series ac circuit, the voltage across each of the components, L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage across the LC combination will be
(a) 100 V
(b)
50 2 V
(c) 50 V
(d) 0 V (zero)
458. In a LCR circuit capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed
from L to
(a) L/2
(b) 2 L
(c) 4 L
(d) L/4
(c) air and iron
(d) None of these
459. Radio frequency choke uses core of
(a) Air
(b) Iron
460. In LR circuit, resistance is 8 and inductive reactance is 6, then impedance is
(a) 2
(b) 14
(c) 4
(d) 10
461. The current in LCR series circuit will be maximum when  is
(a) As large as possible
(b) Equal to natural frequency of LCR system
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(c)
1
LC
(d)
LC
462. A coil has L = 0.04 H and R = 12. When it is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz supply the current flowing through the coil, in amperes is
(a) 10.7
(b) 11.7
(c) 14.78
(d) 12.7
463. In a ac circuit of capacitance the current from potential is
(a) Forward
(b) Backward
(c) Both are in the same phase (d) None of these
464. There is a 5  resistance in an ac circuit. Inductance of 0.1 H is connected with it in series. if equation of ac e.m.f. is 5 sin 50 t then the
phase difference between current and e.m.f. is
(a)

2
(b)

6
(c)

4
(d) 0
465. A coil of 200  resistance and 1.0 H inductance is connected to an ac source of frequency 200 / 2Hz . Phase angle between potential
and current will be
(a)
30 o
(b)
90 o
(c)
45 o
(d)
0o
466. A 280 ohm electric bulb is connected to 200 V electric line. The peak value of current in the bulb will be
(a) About one ampere
(b) Zero
(c) About two ampere
(d) About four ampere
467. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10 ohm and an inductance of 2.0 henry. If an ac voltage of 120 volt and frequency of 60 Hz is
applied to this circuit, the current in the circuit would be nearly
(a) 0.32 amp
(b) 0.16 amp
(c) 0.48 amp
(d) 0.80 amp
468. The power factor of an ac circuit having resistance (R) and inductance (L) connected in series and an angular velocity  is
]
(a)
R / L
(b)
R /(R   L )
2
2 2 1/ 2
469. Reactance of a capacitor of capacitance C F for ac frequency
(a)
50 F
(b)
25 F
(c)
400

L / R
(d)
R /(R   L )
(d)
75 F
2
2 2 1/ 2
Hz is 25 . The value C is
(c)
100 F
470. A circuit has resistance of 11  an inductive reactance of 25  and a capacitate reactance of 18. It is connected to an ac source of 260 V
and 50 Hz. The current through the circuit (in amperes) is
(a) 11
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 20
471. In a circuit, the current lags behind the voltage by a phase difference of  / 2 . The circuit contains which of the following
(a) Only R
(b) Only L
(c) Only C
(d) R and C
472. In the circuit shown in fig. neglecting source resistance the voltmeter and ammeter reading will respectively will be
V
(a) 0V, 3A
(b) 150 V, 3A
A
(c) 150 V, 6A
R = 30
XL = 25
XC = 25
240 V
(d) 0V, 8A
473. A resistance of 40 ohm and an inductance of 95.5 millihenry are connected in series in a 50 cycle/sec ac circuit. The impedance of this
combination is very nearly
(a) 30 ohm
(b) 40 ohm
(c) 50 ohm
(d) 60 ohm
474. In an ac circuit, the power factor
(a) Is zero when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only
(b) Is unity when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only
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(c) Is zero when the circuit contains an ideal inductance only
(d) Is unity when the circuit contains an ideal inductance only
475. The value of the current through an inductance of 1H and of negligible resistance, when connected through an ac source of 200 V and 50
Hz is
(a) 0.637 A
(b) 1.637 A
(c) 2.637 A
(d) 3.637 A
476. An inductance L having a resistance R is connected to an alternating source of angular frequency  . The quality factor (Q) of the
inductance is
(a)
R
L
1/2
(b)
 R 


 L 
(c)
 L 


 R 
2
(d)
L
R
477. In an ac circuit the reactance of a coil is 3 times its resistance, the phase difference between the voltage across the coil to the current
through the coil will be
(a)
 /3
(b)
 /2
(c)
 /4
(d)
 /6
(c)
XL  0
(d)
XC  0
478. Power factor is maximum in an LCR circuit when
(a)
X L  XC
(b)
R0
479. A coil of inductance L has an inductive reactance of X L in an A.C circuit in which the effective current is i. The coil is made from a
superconducting material and has no resistance. The rate at which power is dissipated in the coil is
(a) 0
(b)
(c)
LX L
i2 X L
(d)
LX L2
480. The phase difference between the current and voltage at resonance in RLC series circuit is
(a) 0
(b)

2
(c)
(d) – 

481. Which of the following plots may represent the reactance of a series LC combination
a
Reactance
(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
c
b
Frequency
d
(d) d
482. A series ac circuit consist of an inductor and a capacitor. The inductance and capacitance is respectively 1 henry and 25 F. If the current
is maximum in circuit then angular frequency will be
(a) 200
(b) 100

483. An alternating e.m.f. of frequency   

(c) 50
(d) 200/2

 is applied to a series LCR circuit. For this frequency of the applied e.m.f.
2 LC 
1
(a) The circuit is at resonance and its impedance is made up only of a reactive part
(b) The current in the circuit is in phase with the applied e.m.f. and the voltage across R equals this applied e.m.f.
(c) The sum of the p.d.'s across the inductance and capacitance equals the applied e.m.f. which is 180 o ahead of phase of the current in
the circuit
(d) The quality factor of the circuit is  L / R or 1 /  CR and this is a measure of the voltage magnification (produced by the circuit at
resonance) as well as the sharpness of resonance of the circuit
484. In a series LCR circuit, resistance R  10  and the impedance Z  20  . The phase difference between the current and the voltage is
(a)
30 o
(b)
45 o
(c)
60 o
(d)
90 o
485. The average power dissipated in a pure inductor of inductance L when an ac current is passing through it, is (Inductance of the coil = L
and current i )
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(a)
1 2
Li
2
(b)
1 2
Li
4
(c) 2Li2
(d) Zero
486. In an ac circuit, a resistance of R ohm is connected in series with an inductance L. If phase angle between voltage and current be 45 o , the
value of inductive reactance will be
(a)
R
4
R
2
(b)
(c) R
(d) Cannot be found with the given data
487. In an ac circuit, the potential difference across an inductance and resistance joined in series are respectively 16 V and 20 V. The total
potential difference across the circuit is
(a) 20.0 V
(b) 25.6 V
(c) 31.9 V
(d) 53.5 V
488. A 220 V, 50 Hz ac source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 H and a resistance of 20 ohm in series. What is the current in the circuit
(a) 10 A
(b) 5 A
(c) 33.3 A
(d) 3.33 A
489. The phase angle between e.m.f. and current in LCR series ac circuit is
(a) 0 to  / 2
(b)  / 4
(c)  / 2
(d) 
490. For series LCR circuit, wrong statement is
(a) Applied e.m.f. and potential difference across resistance are in same phase
(b) Applied e.m.f. and potential difference at inductor coil have phase difference of  / 2
(c) Potential difference at capacitor and inductor have phase difference of  / 2
(d) Potential difference across resistance and capacitor have phase difference of  / 2
491. A 20 volts ac is applied to a circuit consisting of a resistance and a coil with negligible resistance. If the voltage across the resistance is 12
V, the voltage across the coil is
(a) 16 volts
(b) 10 volts
(c) 8 volts
(d) 6 volts
492. An e.m.f. E  4 cos (1000 t) volt is applied to an LR-circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4 ohms. The amplitude of current in the
circuit is
(a)
4
A
(b) 1.0 A
(c)
7
4
A
7
(d) 0.8 A
 0 .4 
 henry and the value of R is 30 ohm. If in the circuit, an alternating e.m.f. of 200 volt at 50
  
493. In a LR circuit, the value of L is 
cycles per sec is connected the impedance of the circuit and current will be
(a) 11.4 , 17.5 A
(b) 30.7 , 6.5 A
(c) 40.4 , 5 A
(d) 50 , 4A
494. The resonant frequency of a circuit is f. If the capacitance is made 4 times the initial values, then the resonant frequency will become
(a) f / 2
(b) 2f
(c) f
(d) f / 4
495. In a series LCR circuit, operated with an ac of angular frequency  , the total impedance is
(a)
[R 2  (L  C )2 ]1 / 2
(b)
2
 2 
1  
R   L 
 
C   


1/2
(c)
2
 2 
1  
R   L 
 
C   


1 / 2
(d)
2

1  

(R  )2   L  
 
C   


1/2
496. In the circuit given below. What will be reading of the voltmeter
(a) 300 V
(b) 900 V
V
100V
100V
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(c) 200 V
(d) 400 V
497. The voltage across a pure inductor is represented by the following diagram. Which one of the following diagrams will represent the
current
V
t
i
i
(a)
i
(b)
i
(c)
(d)
t
t
t
t
498. An LCR circuit contains R  50 , L  1 mH and C  0 .1F . The impedance of the circuit will be minimum for a frequency of
(a)
10 5 1
s
2
(b)
10 6 1
s
2
(c)
2  10 5 s 1
(d)
2  10 6 s 1
499. An alternating current source of frequency 100 Hz is joined is a combination of a resistance, a capacitance and a coil in series. The
potential difference across the coil, the resistance and the capacitor is 46, 8 and 40 volt respectively. The electromotive force of
alternating current source in volt is
(a) 94
(b) 14
(c) 10
(d) 76
500. A 10 ohm resistance, 5 mH coil and 10 F capacitor are joined in series. When a suitable frequency alternating current source is joined to
this combination, the circuit resonates. If the resistance is halved, the resonance frequency
(a) In halved
(b) In doubled
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) In quadrupled
501. The power factor of LCR circuit at resonance is
(a) 0.707
(b) 1
(c) Zero
(d) 0.5
502. In pure inductive circuit, the curves between frequency f and reciprocal of inductive reactance 1/XL is
(a)
1
(b)
XL
1
(c)
XL
f
1
(d)
XL
f
1
XL
f
f
503. A magnet NS is suspended from a spring and while it oscillates, the magnet moves in and out of the coil C. The coil is connected to a
galvanometer G. Then, as the magnet oscillates
N
S
(a) G shows deflection to the left and right but the amplitude steadily decreases
(b) G shows no deflection
(c) G shows deflection on one side
(d) G shows deflection to the left and right with constant amplitude
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504. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount  in a time t . Then the total quantity of electric charge Q
that passes any point in the circuit during the time t is represented by
(a)
Q

t
Q  R
(b)

t
(c)
Q
1 

R t
(d)
Q

R
505. The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in webers, is given by the equations  = 3t2 + 4t + 9. Then the magnitude of induced e.m.f. at t = 2
second will be
(a) 2 volt
(b) 4 volt
(c) 8 volt
(d) 16 volt
506. The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by   5 t  100 t  300 , the emf induced in the coil at t = 2 second is
3
(a) – 40 V
(b) 40 V
(c) 140 V
(d) 300 V
507. The magnetic flux linked with a vector area A in a uniform magnetic field B is
(a)
B A
(b) AB
(c)
B A
(d)
B
A
508. The magnetic flux linked with a circuit of resistance 100 ohm increases from 10 to 60 webers. The amount of induced charge that flows in
the circuit is (in coulomb)
(a) 0.5
(b) 5
(c) 50
(d) 100
509. The formula for induced e.m.f. in a coil due to change in magnetic flux through the coil is (here A = area of the coil, B = magnetic field)
(a)
e  A
dB
dt
e   B.
(b)
dA
dt
(c)
e 
d
( A.B)
dt
(d)
e
d
( A  B)
dt
510. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of
(a) Energy
(b) Energy and magnetic field
(c) Charge
(d) Magnetic field
511. In a coil of area 20 cm2 and 10 turns with magnetic field directed perpendicular to the plane changing at the rate of 10 4 T/s. The resistance
of the coil is 20 . The current in the coil will be
(a) 10 A
512. A coil having an area of 2
(b) 20 A
m2
(c) 0.5 A
placed in a magnetic field which changes from 1 to 4
(d) 1.0 A
weber/m2
in 2 seconds. The e.m.f. induced in the coil
will be
(a) 4 volt
(b) 3 volt
(c) 2 volt
(d) 1 volt
513. If a coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a non-uniform magnetic field, then
(a) An emf is induced in the coil
(b)
(c) Neither emf nor current is induced
A current is induced in the coil
(d) Both emf and current is induced
514. Initially plane of coil is parallel to the uniform magnetic field B. In time t it becomes perpendicular to magnetic field, then charge flows in
it depend on this time as
(a)  t
(b)  l/t
(c)  (t)0
(d)  (t)2
515. A coil of area 100 cm2 has 500 turns. Magnetic field of 0.1 weber/metre2 is perpendicular to the coil. The field is reduced to zero in 0.1
second. The induced emf in the coil is
(a) 1 V
(b) 5 V
(c) 50 V
(d) Zero
(b) Weber
(c) Weber per m
(d) Weber per m4
516. S.I. unit of magnetic flux is
(a) Weber m–2
517. A coil of 100 turns and area 5 square cm is placed in a magnetic field B = 0.2 T. The normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 60o
with the direction of the magnetic field. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is
(a) 5 × 10–3 Wb
(b) 5 × 10–5 Wb
(c) 10–2 Wb
(d) 10–4 Wb
518. A coil of 40  resistance has 100 turns and radius 6 mm is connected to ammeter of resistance of 160 ohms. Coil is placed perpendicular
to the magnetic field. When coil is taken out of the field, 32 C charge flows through it. The intensity of magnetic field will be
(a) 6.55 T
(b) 5.66 T
(c) 0.655 T
(d) 0.566 T
519. A coil of copper having 1000 turns is placed in a magnetic field (B = 4 × 10–5) perpendicular to its plane. The cross-sectional area of the coil is
0.05 m2. If it turns through 180o in 0.01 second, then the EMF induced in the coil is
(a) 0.4 V
(b) 0.2 V
(c) 0.04 V
(d) 4 V
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520. The instantaneous magnetic flux  in a circuit is   4 t  4 t  1 . The total resistance of the circuit is 10 . At t 
2
current in the circuit is
(a) 0
(b) 0.2 A
(c) 0.4 A
1
s , the induced
2
(d) 0.8 A
521. A thin circular ring of area A is held perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of induction B. A small cut is made in the ring and a
galvanometer is connected across the ends such that the total resistance of the circuit is R. When the ring is suddenly squeezed to zero
area, the charge flowing through the galvanometer is
(a)
BR
A
(b)
AB
R
(c) ABR
B2 A
R2
(d)
522. As shown in the figure, a magnet is moved with a fast speed towards a coil at rest. Due to this induced e.m.f., induced charge and induced
current in the coil is e.q. and i respectively. If the speed of the magnet is doubled, the incorrect statement is
(a) e increases
S
N
(b) i increases
(c) q increases
G
(d) q remain same
523. A uniform electric field E exists between the plates A and B and a uniform magnetic field B exists between the plates C and D. A
rectangular coil X moves with a constant speed between AB and CD with its plane parallel to the plates. An emf is induced in the coil
when it
(a) Enters and leaves AB
A
C
Uniform E
Uniform B
B
D
(b) Enters and leaves CD
(c) Moves completely with in CD
(d) Enters and leaves both AB and CD
524. To induce an e.m.f. in a coil, the linking magnetic flux
(a) Must decrease
(b) Can either increase or decrease
(c) Must remain constant
(d) Must increase
525. A magnetic field of 2  10 2 Tesla acts at right angles to a coil of area 100 cm 2 with 50 turns. The average emf induced in the coil is 0.1
V, when it is removed from the field in time t. The value of t is
(a) 0.1 second
(b) 0.01 second
(c) 1 second
(d) 20 second
526. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated about its axis, then
(a) A current will be induced in a coil (b)
No current will be induced in a coil
(c) Only an e.m.f. will be induced in the coil
(d) An e.m.f. and a current both will be induced in the coil
527. A cube ABCDEFGH with side a is lying in a uniform magnetic field B with its face BEFC normal to it as shown in the figure. The flux
emanating out of the face ABCD will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
G

2 Ba 2

 Ba 2

 Ba 2
F

D
H

B
C
E
B
A
(d) 0
B
528. The flux passing through a coil having the number of turns 40 is 6  10 4 weber. If in 0.02 second, the flux decreases by 75%, then the
induced emf will be
(a) 0.9 V
(b) 0.3 V
(c) 3 V
(d) 6 V
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529. The magnetic field normal to a coil of 40 turns and area 3 cm2 is B = (250 – 0.6t) millitesla. The emf induced in the coil will be
(a) 1.8  V
(b) 3.6 V
(c) 5.4  V
(d) 7.2  V
530. A long straight wire lies along the axis of a straight solenoid as shown in figure the wire carries a current i = i0 sin  t. The induced emf in
solenoid is
(a) e0 sin  t
Wire
(b) e0 cos  t
(c) Zero
(d) e0
531. When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal cylinder fixed with its axis vertical, the final acceleration of the magnet is
(a) Equal to g
(b) Less than g but finite
(c) Greater than g
(d) Equal to zero
(b) Conservation of momentum
(c) Conservation of energy
(d) Conservation of mass
532. Lenz’s law is based on
(a) Conservation of charge
533. A magnet is dropped down an infinitely long vertical copper tube
(a) The magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity and ultimately acquires a constant terminal velocity
(b) The magnet moves with continuously decreasing velocity and ultimately comes to rest
(c) The magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity but constant acceleration
(d) The magnet moves with continuously increasing velocity and acceleration
534. An aluminium ring B faces an electromagnet A. The current i through A can be altered
A
B
(a) Whether i increases or decreases B will not experience any force
(b) If i decrease, A will repel B
(c) If i increase, A will attract B
i+ –
(d) If i increases, A will repel B
535. Lenz’s law is expressed by the following formula (here e = induced e.m.f.,  = magnetic flux in one turn and N = number of
turns)
(a)
e  
dN
dt
(b)
e  N
d
dt
(c)
e
d  
 
dt  N 
(d)
eN
d
dt
536. When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current
(a) Is a constant and is in the direction of the inducing current
(b) Is a constant and is opposite to the direction of the inducing current
(c) Increases with time and is in the direction of inducing current
(d) Increases with time and is opposite to the direction of inducing current
537. A metallic ring is attached with the wall of a room. When the north pole of a magnet is bought near to it, the induced current in the ring
will be
(a) First clockwise then anticlockwise (b)
In clockwise direction
(c) In anticlockwise direction
(d) First anticlockwise then clockwise
538. Two circular, similar, coaxial loops carry equal currents in the same direction. If the loops are brought nearer, what will happen
(a) Current will increase in each loop (b)
Current will decrease in each loop
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(c) Current will remain same in each loop
(d) Current will increase in one and decrease in the other
539. The current flows in a circuit as shown below. If a second circuit is brought near the first circuit then the current in the second circuit will
be
(a) Clock wise
Obser
ver
(b) Anti clock wise
2
1
R
(c) Depending on the value of Rc
+
(d) None of the above
–
G
540. The two loops shown in the figure have their planes parallel to each other. A clockwise current flows in the loop x as viewed from x
towards y. The two coils will repel each other if the current in the loop x is
x
y
(a) Increasing
(b) Decreasing
(c) Constant
(d) None of the above cases
541. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and increases with time. The
induced current in the inner loop then is
(a) Clockwise
(b) Zero
(c) Counterclockwise
(d) In a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop radii
542. As shown in the figure, when key K is closed, the direction induced current in B will be
(a) Clockwise and momentary
(b) Anti-clockwise and momentary
B
(c) Clockwise and continuous
+
(d) Anti-clockwise and continuous
–
E K
A
543. When a sheet of metal is placed in a magnetic field, which changes from zero to a maximum value, induced currents are set up in the
direction as shown in the diagram. What is the direction of the magnetic field
N
(a) Into the plane of paper
(b) East to west
E
W
(c) Out of the plane of paper
(d) North to south
S
544. Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is placed on a frictionless track, the axis of the ring
being along the axis of the solenoid. As the switch is closed, the ring will
(a) Remain stationary
(b) Move towards the solenoid
(c) Move away from the solenoid
(d) Move towards the solenoid or away from it depending on which terminal (positive or
negative) of the battery is connected to the left end of the solenoid
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545. A square loop PQRS is carried away from a current carrying long straight conducting wire CD (figure). The direction of induced current in
the loop will be
D
P
Q
S
R
(a) Anticlockwise
(b) Clockwise
(c) Some times clockwise sometimes anticlockwise
C
(d) Current will not be induced
546. A coil having n turns and resistance R  is connected with a galvanometer of resistance 4 R . This combination is moved in time t
seconds from a magnetic field W1 weber to W2 weber. The induced current in the circuit is
(a)

W2  W1 
Rnt
(b)

n W2  W1 
5 Rt
(c)

W 2
 W1 
5 Rnt
(d)
n W2  W1 
Rt

547. A horizontal straight conductor (otherwise placed in a closed circuit) along east-west direction falls under gravity; then there is
(a) No induced e.m.f. along the length
(b) No induced current along the length
(c) An induced current from west to east
(d) An induced current from east to west
548. The wing span of an aeroplane is 20 metre. It is flying in a field, where the vertical component of magnetic field of earth is 5  10–5 Tesla, with
velocity 360 km/hr. The potential difference produced between the blades will be
(a) 0.10 V
(b) 0.15 V
(c) 0.20 V
(d) 0.30 V
549. A metal rod of length 2 m is rotating about it's one end with an angular velocity of 100 rad/sec in a plane perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field of 0.3 T. The potential difference between the ends of the rod is
(a) 30 V
(b) 40 V
(c) 60 V
(d) 600 V
550. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A
magnetic induction B constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The current
induced in the loop is
(a)
Blv
clockwise
R
(b)
Blv
anticlockwise
R
(c)
B

















2 Blv
anticlockwise
R

A
 
C

v
B



D

(d) Zero
551. A conducting square loop of side l and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A
magnetic induction B constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane at the loop exists everywhere with half the
loop outside the field, as shown in figure. The induced e.m.f. is






(b) RvB



(c) vBl/R



(d) vBl







(a) Zero
B
l
v
552. A coil of N turns and mean cross-sectional area A is rotating with uniform angular velocity  about an axis at right angle to uniform
magnetic field B. The induced e.m.f. E in the coil will be
(a) NBA sint
(b) NB  sint
(c) NB/A sint
(d) NBA  sint

553. A conducting rod of length 2l is rotating with constant angular speed  about its perpendicular bisector. A uniform magnetic field B
exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The e.m.f., induced between two ends of the rod is
(a) Bl2

B
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(b)
1
B l 2
2
(c)
1
B l 2
8
(d) Zero
554. Two rails of a railway track insulated from each other and the ground are connected to a milli voltmeter. What is the reading of voltmeter
when a train travels with a speed of 180 km/hr along the track. Given that the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2 × 10 –4
weber/m2 and the rails are separated by 1 metre
(a) 10–2 volt
(b) 10–4 volt
(c) 10–3 volt
(d) 1 volt
555. A 10 m long copper wire while remaining in the east-west horizontal direction is falling down with a speed of 5.0 m/s. If the horizontal
component of the earth’s magnetic field = 0.3 × 10–4 weber/m2, the e.m.f. developed between the ends of the wire is
(a) 0.15 volt
(b) 1.5 volt
(c) 0.15 milli volt
(d) 1.5 milli volt
556. A wire of length 1 m is moving at a speed of 2 ms–1 perpendicular to its length and a homogeneous magnetic field of 0.5 T. The ends of
the wire are joined to a circuit of resistance 6 . The rate at which work is being done to keep the wire moving at constant speed is
(a)
1
W
12
(b)
1
W
6
(c)
1
W
3
(d) 1 W
557. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The wire AB is slid on the fixed rails with a constant velocity. If the wire AB is replaced by
semicircular wire, the magnitude of the induced current will




A


(a) Increase

B


v
(b) Remain the same




(c) Decrease




B
(d) Increase or decrease depending on whether the semicircle bulges towards the resistance or away from it
558. A straight line conductor of length 0.4 m is moved with a speed of 7 m/sec perpendicular to a magnetic field of intensity 0.9 weber/m2.
The induced e.m.f. across the conductor is
(a) 5.04 V
(b) 1.26 V
(c) 2.52 V
(d) 25.2 V
559. A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its length. A constant uniform magnetic field exists in space in a
direction perpendicular to the rod as well as its velocity. Select the correct statements from the following
(a) The entire rod is at the same electric potential
(b) There is an electric field in the rod
(c) The electric potential is highest at the centre
(d) The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod and increases towards its ends
560. A conducting rod AB moves parallel to X-axis (fig) in a uniform magnetic field, pointing in the positive z-direction. The end A of the rod
gets positively charged is this statement true
(a) Yes
Y

B

(b) No


(c) Not defined


(d) Any answer is right


O

A

v


X
561. There is an aerial 1 m long in a car. It is moving from east to west with a velocity 100 km/hr. If the horizontal component of earth's
magnetic field is 0.18  10–4 weber/m2, the induced e.m.f. is nearly
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(a) 0.50 mV
(b) 0.25 mV
562. Order of e/m ratio of proton,  -particle and electron is
(a) e  p  
(b) p    e
563. A cathode emits 1 .8  10
(c) 0.75 mV
(c)
e   p
(d) 1 mV
(d) None of these
14
electrons per second, when heated. When 400V is applied to anode all the emitted electrons reach the
anode. The charge on electron is 1 .6  10 19 C . The maximum anode current is
(a) 2 .7 A
(b) 29 A
(c) 72 A
(d) 29 mA
564. An electron is accelerated through a pd of 45.5 volt. The velocity acquired by it is (in ms-1)......
(a)
4  10 6
(b)
4  10 4
(c)
10 6
(d) zero
4 . 8  10 19 stat coulomb
(c)
1.76  10 11 coulomb/kg
(d) 1.76  10 11 coulomb/kg
565. The specific charge of an electron is
(a)
1 . 6  10 19 coulomb
(b)
566. The colour of the positive column in a gas discharge tube depends on
(a) The type of glass used to construct the tube
(b) The gas in the tube
(c) The applied voltage
(d) The material of the cathode
567. Cathode rays are produced when the pressure is of the order of
(a) 2 cm of Hg
(b) 0.1 cm of Hg
(c) 0.01 mm of Hg
(d) 1 m of Hg
568. Which of the following is not the property of a cathode ray
(a) It casts shadow
(b) It produces heating effect
(c) It produces flurosence
(d) It does not deflect in electric field
569. In Milikan's experiment, an oil drop having charge q gets stationary on applying a potential difference V in between two plates separated
by a distance 'd'. The weight of the drop is
(a) qVd
(b)

q
d
V
(c)
q
Vd
(d)
q
V
d

570. In Thomson mass spectrograph E  B then the velocity of electron beam will be
(a)

E

B
(b)
 
EB
(c)

B

E
(d)
E2
B2
571. Which is not true with respect to the cathode rays
(a) A stream of electrons
(b) Charged particles
(c) Move with speed same as that of light
(d) Can be deflected by magnetic fields
572. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 200 volts. If e/m for the electron be 1 .6  10 11 coulomb/kg. the velocity
acquired by the electron will be
(a)
8  10 6 m / s
(b)
8  10 5 m / s
(c)
5.9  10 6 m / s
(d)
5.9  10 5 m / s
573. If the speed of electron is 5  10 5 m / s . How long does one electron take to traverse 1m
(a)
1  10 6 s
(b)
2  10 6 s
(c)
2  10 5 s
(d) 1  10 5 s
574. A metal plate gets heated, when cathode rays strike against, it due to
(a) Kinetic energy of cathode rays
(b) Potential energy of cathode rays
(c) Linear velocity of cathode rays
(d) Angular velocity of cathode rays
575. In Milikan's oil drop experiment, a charged drop falls with terminal velocity V. If an electric field E is applied in vertically upward direction
then it starts moving in upward direction with terminal velocity 2V. If magnitude of electric field is decreased to
E
, then terminal
2
velocity will become
(a)
V
2
(b) V
(c)
3V
2
(d) 2V
576. The current conduction in a discharged tube is due to
(a) Electrons only
(b) +ve ions and electrons
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(c) – ve ions and electrons
(d) + ve ions, – ve ions and electrons
577. Cathode rays and canal rays produced in a certain discharge tube are deflected in the same direction if
(a) A magnetic field is applied normally
(b) An electric field is applied normally
(c) An electric field is applied tangentially
(d) A magnetic field is applied tangentially
578. Cathode rays enter into a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of the field. In the magnetic field their path will be
(a) Straight line
(b) Circle
(c) Parabolic
(d) Ellipse
579. Electric field and magnetic field in Thomson mass spectrograph are applied
(a) Simultaneously, perpendicular
(b) Perpendicular but not simultaneously
(c) Parallel but not simultaneously
(d) Parallel simultaneously
580. The discovery of positive rays helped in the discovery of
(a) Proton
(b) Isotopes
(d)  -particle
(c) Electron
581. The ratio of momenta of an electron and  -particle which are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100 V is
(a) 1
2m e
m
(b)
me
m
(c)
me
2m 
(d)
582. In Millikan oil drop experiment, a charged drop of mass 1.8  10 14 kg is stationary between its plates. The distance between its plates is
0.90 cm and potential difference is 2.0 kilo volts. The number of electrons on the drop is
(a) 500
(b) 50
(c) 5
(d) 0
583. The expected energy of the electrons at absolute zero is called
(a) Fermi energy
(b) Emission energy
(c) Work function
(d) Potential energy
584. K.E. of emitted cathode rays is dependent on
(a) Only voltage
(b) Only work function
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It does not depend upon any physical quantity
585. In a discharge tube at 0.02 mm, there is a formation of
(a) FDS
(b) CDS
(c) Both space
(d) None of these
586. A narrow electron beam passes undeviated through an electric field E  3  10 volt / m and an overlapping magnetic field
4
B  2  10 3 Weber / m 2 . The electron motion, electric field and magnetic field are mutually perpendicular. The speed of the electrons
is
(a) 60 m/s
(b)
10 .3  10 7 m / s
(c)
1.5  10 7 m / s
(d)
0.67  10 7 m / s
587. An oxide coated filament is useful in vacuum tubes because essentially
(a) It has high melting point
(b) It can withstand high temperatures
(c) It has good mechanical strength
(d) I can emit electrons at relatively lower temperatures
588. Gases begin to conduct electricity at low pressure because
(a) At low pressure, gases turn to plasma
(b) Colliding electrons can acquire higher kinetic energy due to increased mean free path leading to ionisation of atoms
(c) Atoms break up into electrons and protons
(d) The electrons in atoms can move freely at low pressure
589. When the speed of electrons increases, then the value of its specific charge
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Increases upto some velocity and then begins to decrease
590. Cathode rays moving with same velocity v describe an approximate cirular path of radius r metre in an electric field of strength x
volt/metre. If the speed of the cathode rays is doubled to 2v, the value of electric field needed so that the rays describe the same
approximate circular path (volt / metre) is
(a) 2x
(b) 3x
(c) 4x
(d) 6x
591. Cathode rays are similar to visible light rays in that
(a) They both can be deflected by electric and magnetic fields
(b) They both have a definite magnitude of wavelength
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(c) They both can ionise a gas through which they pass
(d) They both can expose a photographic plate
592. In Thomson's experiment if the value of q/m is the same for all positive ions striking the photographic plate, then the trace would be
(a) Straight line
(b) Parabolic
(c) Circular
(d) Elliptical
593. The cathode rays have particle nature because of the fact that
(a) They can propagate in vacuum
(b) They are deflected by electric and magnetic fields
(c) They produced fluorescence
(d) They cast shadows
594. When cathode rays (tube voltage ~ 10 kV) collide with the anode of high atomic weight then we get
(a) Positive rays
(b) X-rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) Canal rays
595. To produce positive rays the pressure in a discharge tube should be
(a) Total vacuum
(b) 10 3 to 10 4 atmospheric pressure
(c) One atmospheric pressure
(d) 10 3 to 10 4 mm
596. Cathode-ray tube is a part of
(a) Compound microscope
(b) A radio receiver
(c) A television set
(d) A van de Graaf generator
597. In a region of space cathode rays move along +ve Z-axis and a uniform magnetic field is applied along X-axis. If cathode rays pass
undeviated, the direction of electric field will be along
Y
(a) – ve X-axis
(b) +ve Y-axis
Cathode rays
Z
(c) – ve Y-axis
(d) +ve Z-axis
X

B
598. A beam of electron whose kinetic energy is E emerges from a thin foil window at the end of an accelerator tube. There is a metal plate at
a distance d from this window and at right angles to the direction of the emerging beam. The electron beam is prevented from hitting the
plate P, if a magnetic field B is applied, which must be
(a)
B
2mE
, into the page (b)
e 2d 2
B
2mE
, out of the page
e 2d 2
(c)
B
2mE
, into the page (d)
ed
 2mE 
B
, out of the
 ed 
page
599. In Thomson's experiment for determining e/m, the potential difference between the cathode and the anode (in the accelerating column)
is the same as that between the deflecting plates (in the region of crossed fields). If the potential difference is doubled, by what factor
should the magnetic field be increased to ensure that the electron beam remains undeflected
(a)
2
(b) 2
(c)
(d) 4
2 2
600. In Thomson's experiment helium He and He exhibit parabolas. The equation of parabola for He is z 2  12 Y , then for He 4 the
3
4
3
equation will be
(a)
Z 2  16 Y
(b)
Z 2  12 Y
(c)
Z2  4Y
(d)
Z 2  9Y
601. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their De-Broglie wavelength will be
(a)
(m p / me )1 / 2
(b)
mt / m p
(c)
m p / mt
(d) 1
602. An electron and proton have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Then the kinetic energy of the electron is
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) Equal to the kinetic energy of the proton
(d) Greater than the kinetic energy of the proton
603. For moving ball of cricket, the correct statement about de-Broglie wavelength is
(a) It is not applicable for such big particle
(b)
h
2mE
(c)
h
2mE
(d)
h
2mE
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604. Photon and electron are given same energy (10 20 J ) . Wavelength associated with photon and electron are  Ph and  el then correct
statement will be
(a)
 Ph  el
(b)
 Ph  el
(c)
 Ph  el
(c)
3 . 5  10 11 m
(d)
el
C
Ph
605. Wavelength associated with an electron of kinetic energy 54 eV is
(a)
1 .66  10 10 m
(b)
2 . 6  10 9 m
606. The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de-Broglie wavelengths from 10
(a) Four times the initial energy
(b)
(c) Equal to the initial energy
(d) None of the above
10
m to 0 . 5  10 10 m will be
Thrice the initial energy
(d) Twice the initial energy
607. If the K.E. of an electron, a proton a neutron and an  -particle is identical, the maximum de-Broglie wavelength will be for
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c)
 -particle
(d) Neutron
608. Light of wavelength  strikes a photo-sensitive surface and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E. If the kinetic energy is to be
increased to 2E, the wavelength must be changed to  ' where
(a)
' 

2
(b)
 '  2
(c)

 '  
(d)
'  
7.2  10 5
(d)
7.2  10 6
2
609. The de-Brogile wavelength of electron is 10Å, then its velocity in m/sec will be
(a)
7.2  10 5
(b)
72  10 4
(c)
610. An electron of mass m, accelerated through a potential difference V has de-Brogile wavelength  . De-Broglie wavelength associated with
a proton of mass M accelerated through same potential difference, will be
(a)
m 

M

(b)
M

m 

(c)

m
M
(d)
 Mm
611. The accelerating voltage of an electron gun is 50,000 volts. de-Broglie wavelength of the electron will be
(a) 0.55Å
(b) 0.055 Å
(c) 0.077 Å
(d) 0.095 Å
612. The wavelength of x-ray photon is 0.01 Å, then its momentum in Kg m/s is
(a)
6 . 63  10 22
(b)
6 . 63  10 24
(c)
6 . 63  10 46
(d)
6 . 63  10 32
613. An proton moving with the velocity of 6.6  10 5 m / sec has a de-Broglie wavelength given by
(a)
6  10 2 Å
(b)
6  10 3 Å
(c) 1 Å
(d) 2 Å
614. A particle which has zero rest mass and non-zero energy and momentum must travel with a speed
(a) Equal to c, the speed of light in vacuum
(b) Greater then c
(c) Less then c
(d) Tending to infinity
615. The wavelengths of a photon, an electron and uranium atom are identical. Which of then will have highest energy
(a) Photon
(b) Electron
(c) Uranium nucleus
(d) Depends on wavelength and property of particles.
616. If E1 , E 2 and E 3 are the respective kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha particle and a proton each having the same De-Broglie
wavelength then
(a)
E1  E3  E 2
(b)
E 2  E3  E1
(c)
E1  E 2  E3
(d)
E1  E 2  E3
617. Momentum of a photon of electro - magnetic radiation radiation is 3 .3  10 29 kg-m-s-1. Then frequency of related waves is
(a)
3 . 0  10 3 Hz
(b)
6 . 0  10 2 Hz
(c)
7.5  10 12 Hz
(d) 1 . 5  10 13 Hz
618. The energy of electron with de-Broglie wavelength of 10 10 m, is (in eV)
(a) 13.6
(b) 12.27
(c) 1.227
(d) 150.5
619. If there is an increase in linear dimensions of the object, the associated de-Broglie wavelength
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
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(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Depends on the density of object
620. Which of the following figure represents the variation of particle momentum and the associated De-Broglie wavelength
(a)
p
(b)
p

(c)
p

(d)
p


621. On applying a potential difference of V volt on a proton, a wave of  wavelength is obtained. The voltage applied to an  -particle to
produce the same wavelength will be (in volts)
(a) V
(b) V/5
(c) V/8
(d) 2V
(c) Probability waves
(d) Transverse waves
622. Matter waves are
(a) Electromagnetic waves
(b) Longitudinal waves
623. Two sand grains, one of diameter 0.5 mm and the other of diameter 1.0 mm are moving with the same momentum, then the deBroglie wavelength of the first is
(a) Greater than that of the second
(b) Less than that of the second
(c) Equal to that of the second
(d) Double incomparison to that of the second
624. An atom when undergoing a transition from an excited state to the ground state emits a photon of wavelength 1Å. Then, the recoil
energy of the atom will be (assume mass of the atom = 40 amu)
(a) 3.3  10–20 J
(b) 1.3  10–20 J
(c) 3.3  10–22 J
(d) 6.6  10–24 J
(c) Uncertainty
(d) All of the above
625. The electron micro-scope works on the principle of
(a) Particle theory
(b) Matter wave concept
626. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving in the nth Bohr orbit of radius r Å will be
(a) nr Å
(b)
r
Å
n
(c)
2r
Å
n
(d) 2n Å
627. If the energy of a particle is reduced to half then the percentage increase in the de-Broglie wavelength is about
(a) 41%
(b) 50%
(c) 29%
(d) 100%
628. The velocity of an electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is 2.2  106 m/s. The De-Broglie wavelength associated with a muon in
the ground state of a muonic hydrogen will be (m = 207 me)
(a) 1.6 Å
(b) 0.16 Å
(c) 0.016 Å
(d) 0.0016 Å
629. If the momentum of an electron is changed by p, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by 0.50%. The initial
momentum of the electron will be
(a)
p
200
(b)
p
199
(c)
199 p
(d) 400 p
630. An electron and a photon have same wavelength. It p is the momentum of electron and E the energy of photon. The magnitude of p/E in
S.I. unit is
(a) 3.0  108
(b) 3.33  10–9
(c) 9.1  10–31
(d) 6.64  10–34
631. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photo electrons from a metal Vs the
frequency, of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope
(a) Depends on the nature of the metal used
(b) Depends on the intensity of the radiation
(c) Depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(d) Is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation
632. The energy of incident photons corresponding to maximum wavelength of visible light is
(a) 3.2 eV
(b) 7 eV
(c) 1.55 eV
(d) 1 eV
633. If the work function of potassium is 2eV, then its photoelectric threshold wavelength is
(a) 310 nm
(b) 620 nm
(c) 6200 nm
(d) 3100 nm
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634. Threshold wavelength for metal is 5200 Å. The photoelectrons will be ejected if it is irradiated by light from
(a) 50 watt infrared lamp
(b) 1 watt infrared lamp
(c) 50 watt ultraviolet lamp
(d) 0.5 watt infrared lamp
635. The dual nature of light is exhibited by
(a) Diffraction and photoelectric effect
(b) Diffraction and reflection
(c) Refraction and interference
(d) Photo electric effect
636. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a photo-sensitive surface for three different radiations. Let Ia , Ib
and Ic be the intensities and fa , fb and fc be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively.
(a)
fa  fb and la  lb
(b)
fa  fc and la  lc
(c)
fa  fb and la  lb
(d)
fa  fb and lb  lc
Photo current
O
Anode potential
637. A photon of energy 4 eV is incident on a metal surface whose work function is 2 eV. The minimum reverse potential to be applied for
stopping the emission of electrons is
(a) 2 V
(b) 4V
(c) 6V
(d) 8V
638. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of
Frequency
Frequency
(d)
Kinetic energy
(c)
Kinetic energy
(b)
Kinetic energy
(a)
Kinetic energy
incident radiation is
Frequency
Frequency
639. Consider the two following statements A and B and identify the correct choice given in the answers
(A) In photovoltaic cells the photoelectric current produced is not proportional to the intensity of incident light.
(B) In gas filled photoemissive cells the velocity of photoelectrons depends on the wavelength of the incident radiation
(a) Both A and B are true
(b) Both A and B are false
(c) A is true but B is false
(d) A is false B is true
640. There are n1 photons of frequency  1 in a beam of light. In an equally energetic beam, there are n 2 photons of frequency  2 . Then the
correct relation is
(a)
n1
1
n2
(b)
n1

 1
n2
2
(c)
n1

 2
n2
1
(d)
n1
2
 12
n2
2
641. Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f 2 . If the velocities of the photo electrons (of mass m) coming out are
respectively v 1 and v 2 , then
(a)
 2h

v 1  v 2   ( f1  f2 )
m

1/2
(b)
v 12  v 22 
2h
( f1  f2 )
m
(c)
 2h

v1  v 2   ( f1  f2 )
m

1/2
(d) None of these
642. The frequency and work function of an incident photon are  and  0 . If  0 is the threshold frequency then necessary condition for the
emission of photo electron is
(a)    0
(b)  
0
2
(c)
  0
(d) None of these
643. Light of frequency  is incident on a substance of threshold frequency  0 ( 0   ) . The energy of the emitted photoelectron will be
(a)
h(   0 )
(b) h/
(c)
he (  0 )
(d)
h /o
644. In a photoelectric effect experiment the slope of the graph between the stopping potential and the incident frequency will be
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(a) 1
(b) 0.5
(c)
10 15
(d) 10 34
645. Ultraviolet radiation of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface (work function 4.2 eV). The kinetic energy in joules of the fastest electron
emitted is approximately
(a)
3 . 2  10 21
(b)
3 . 2  10 19
(c)
3 . 2  10 17
(d)
3 . 2  10 15
646. In photoelectric emission the number of electrons ejected per second
(a) Is proportional to the intensity of light
(b) Is proportional to the wavelength of light
(c) Is proportional to the frequency of light
(d) Is proportional to the work function of metal
647. When ultraviolet rays are incident on metal plate, then photoelectric effect does not occurs. It occurs by the incidence of
(a) X-rays
(b) Radio wave
(c) Infrared rays
(d) Green house effect
648. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric effect of a metal is 6500Å. The work function of the metal is approximately
(a) 2 eV
(b) 1 eV
(c) 0.1 eV
(d) 3 eV
649. Which of the following statements is correct
(a) The stopping potential increases with increasing intensity of incident light
(b) The photocurrent increases with increasing intensity of light
(c) The photocurrent is proportional to applied voltage
(d) The current in a photocell increases with increasing frequency of light
650. A caesium photocell with a steady potential difference of 60 V across is illuminated by a bright point source of light 50 cm away. When
the same light is placed 1 m away the photoelectrons emitted from the cell
(a) Are one quarter as numerous
(b) Are half as numerous
(c) Each carry one quarter of their previous momentum
(d) Each carry one quarter of their previous energy
651. A radio transmitter radiates 1 kW power at a wavelength 198.6 m. How many photons does it emit per second
(a)
10 10
(b)
10 20
(c)
10 30
(d) 10 40
652. Photon of 5.5 eV energy fall on the surface of the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy 4.0 eV. The stopping voltage
required for these electrons are
(a) 5.5 V
(b) 1.5 V
(c) 9.5 V
(d) 4.0 V
12
653. Energy of photon whose frequency is 10 MHz will be
(a)
4 . 14  10 3 keV
(b)
4 . 14  10 2 eV
(c)
4 .14  10 3 MeV
(d)
4 . 14  10 3 eV
654. If a photon has velocity c and frequency , then which of following represents its wavelength
(a)
hc
E
(b)
h
c
(c)
h
c2
(d) h
655. Light of frequency 4 0 is incident on the metal of the threshold frequency  0 . The maximum kinetic energy of
the emitted photoelectrons is
(a) 3h 0
(b) 2h 0
(c)
3
h 0
2
(d)
1
h 0
2
656. When a metallic surface is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength  , then the potential difference
required to stop the ejection of electrons is 3V0 . When the same surface is illuminated by the light of
wavelength 2  , then the potential difference required to stop the ejection of electrons is V0 . Then for
photoelectric effect, the threshold wavelength for the metal surface will be
(a) 6 
(b)
4
3
(c) 4 
(d) 8 
657. According to photon theory of light which of the following physical quantities associated with a photon do not / does not change as it
collides with an electron in vacuum
(a) Energy and momentum
(b) Speed and momentum
(c) Speed only
(d) Energy only
(c) Photon rest mass is zero
(d) None of these
658. Which of the following is incorrect statement regarding photon
(a) Photon exerts no pressure
(b) Photon energy is hv
659. Light of frequency  is incident on a certain photoelectric substance with threshold frequency  0 . The work function for the substance is
(a) h
(b)
h 0
(c)
h(   0 )
(d)
h(   0 )
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660. Photons of energy 6 eV are incident on a metal surface whose work function is 4 eV. The minimum kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons will be
(a) 0 eV
(b) 1 eV
(c) 2 eV
(d) 10 eV
661. For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy E k of the emitted photoelectrons is plotted against the frequency  of the
incident photons as shown in the figure. The slope of the curve gives
Ek
(a) Charge of the electron
(b) Work function of the metal
(c) Planck's constant
(d)
Ratio of the Planck’s constant to electronic charge

662. If intensity of incident light is increased in PEE then which of the following is true
(a) Maximum K. E. of ejected electron will increase
(b) Work function will remain unchanged
(c) Stopping potential will decrease
(d) Maximum K.E. of ejected electron will decrease
663. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A) : The number of electrons emitted in the photoelectric effect depend upon the intensity of incident photon.
Reason (R) : The ejection of electrons from a metallic surface is not possible until frequency of incident photons is not more than
threshold frequency. Of these statements
(a) Both A and B are true and the R is a correct explanation of the A
(b) Both A and R are true but the R is not a correct explanation of the A
(c) A is true but the R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
(e) A is false but the R is true
664. The stopping potential V for photoelectric emission from a metal surface is plotted along Y-axis and frequency  of incident light along Xaxis. A straight line is obtained as shown. Planck's constant is given by
Y
(a) Slope of the line
V
(b) Product of slope on the line and charge on the electron
0
(c) Product of intercept along Y-axis and mass of the electron
X

(d) Product of Slope and mass of electron
665. Which of the following shows particle nature of light
(a) Refraction
(b) Interference
(c) Polarization
(d) Photoelectric effect
666. With the increase in the no. of incident photons
(a) Photoelectric current increases
(b) Kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases
(c) Photoelectric current decreases
(d) Kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases
667. The frequency of a photon having energy 100 eV is (h  6.610 34 J  sec)
(a)
2 . 42  10 26 Hz
(b)
2 . 42  10 16 Hz
(c)
2 . 42  10 12 Hz
(d)
2 . 42  10 9 Hz
668. Consider the following statements
Assertion (A) : Photo emission from a photosensitive surface is possible only if the incident radiation has a frequency above threshold
frequency.
Reason (R) : Unless h  W , the work function (W) of photo-sensitive surface, no photo emission is possible.
Of these statements
(a) Both A and B are true and the R is a correct explanation of the A
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(b) Both A and R are true but the R is not a correct explanation of the A
(c) A is true but the R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
(e) A is false but the R is true
669. Which light when falling on a metal will emit photo electrons
(a) Ultra-violet radiation
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) Radiowaves
(d) Microwaves
670. Two radiation containing photons of energy twice and five times the work function of a metal are incident successively on the metal
surface. The ratio of the maximum velocities of the emitted electrons in the two cases will be
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
671. If a photo cell is used for light of wavelength 4000 Å and if Na and Cu are used as cathode whose work function are 2eV and 4eV
respectively then which will be better for cathode
(a) Na
(b) Cu
(c) Both
(d) None of these
672. Energy required to remove an electron from an aluminium surface is 4.2 eV. If light of wavelength 2000Å falls on the surface, the velocity
of fastest electron ejected from the surface is
(a)
2.5  10 7 m / s
(b)
8.4  10 5 m / s
(c)
6.7  10 6 m / s
(d)
8.4  10 4 m / s
673. If in a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of incident radiation is reduced from 6000 Å to 4000 Å, then
(a) Stopping potential will decrease
(b) Stopping potential will increase
(c) Kinetic energy of emitted electrons will decrease
(d) The value of work function will decrease
674. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of wavelength  incident on the surface of a metal of work function  , is where h
= Planck's constant, m = mass of electron and c = speed of light
(a)
 2(hc   ) 


m


1/2
2(hc   )
m
(b)
(c)
 2(hc   ) 


m


1/2
(d)
 2(h    ) 


m


1/2
675. Light of wavelength 5000Å falls on a sensitive plate with photoelectric work function of 1.9 eV. The kinetic energy of the photoelectron
emitted will be
(a) 0.58 eV
(b) 2.48 eV
(c) 1.24 eV
(d) 1.16 eV
676. If mean wavelength of light radiated by 100 W lamp is 5000 Å, then number of photons radiated per second are
(a)
3  10 23
(b)
2 . 5  10 22
(c)
2 . 5  10 20
(d)
5  10 17
677. When an inert gas is filled in the place vacuum in a photocell, then
(a) Photoelectric current is decreased
(b) Photoelectric current is increased
(c) Photoelectric current remains the same
(d) Decrease or increase in photoelectric current does no depend upon the gas filled
678. Energy conversion in a photoelectric cell takes place from
(a) Chemical to electrical
(b) Magnetic to electrical
(c) Optical to electrical
(d) Mechanical to electrical
679. When light of wavelength is 2537Å made incident on the copper surface, then the stopping potential is 0.24 volt. The threshold frequency
of copper
(a)
1 . 124  10 15 Hz
(b)
1 .414  10 14 Hz
(c)
2 .248  10 15 Hz
(d) None of the above
680. An image of the sun is formed by a lens of focal length of 30 cm on the metal surface of a photoelectric cell and a photoelectric current i is
produced. The lens forming the image is then replaced by another of the same diameter but of focal length 15 cm. The photoelectric
current in this case is
(a)
i
2
(b) i
(c) 2i
(d) 4i
681. Work function of a metal is 2.1 eV. Which of the waves of the following wavelengths will be able to emit photoelectrons from its surface
(a) 4000 Å, 7500 Å
(b) 5500 Å, 6000 Å
(c) 4000 Å, 6000 Å
(d) None of these
682. Stopping potential for photoelectrons
(a) Does not depend on the frequency of the incident light
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(b) Does not depend upon the nature of the cathode material
(c) Depends on both the frequency of the incident light and nature of the cathode material
(d) Depends upon the intensity of the incident light
683. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric experiment is doubled the stopping potential will
(a) Be doubled
(b) Be halved
(c) Become more than double
(d) Become less then double
684. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric effect. Light of wavelength A falls on plate A and B falls on plate B.  A  2B . The
maximum K.E. of the photoelectron is K A and K B respectively. Which one of the following statements is true
(a)
2K A  K B
(b)
K A  2K B
(c)
K A  KB / 2
(d)
K A  2K B
685. When light of wavelength 300 nm (nanometer) falls on a photoelectric emitter, photoelctrons are liberated. For another emitter,
however light of 600 nm wavelength is sufficient for creating photoemission. What is the ratio of the work functions of the two emitters
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
686. The kinetic energy of most energetic electrons emitted from a metallic surface is doubled when the wavelength  of the incident
radiation is changed from 400 nm to 310 nm. The work function of the metal is
(a) 0.9 eV
(b) 1.7 eV
(c) 2.2 eV
(d) 3.1 eV
687. Photo cell is a device to
(a) Store photons
(b) Measure light intensity
(c) Convert photon energy into mechanical energy
(d) Store electrical energy for replacing storage batteries
688. The stopping potential as a function of the frequency of the incident radiation is plotted for two different photoelectric surfaces A and B.
The graphs show that work function of A is
A
B
V
(a) Greater than that of B
(b) Smaller than that of B
(c) Equal to that of B
(d) No inference can be drawn about their work functions from the given graphs

689. The UV photon is incident on a metal of photoelectric work function 2 eV and produces a photoelectron of energy 2 eV. The wavelength
associated with the photon is
(a) 3100 Å
(b) 6200 Å
(c) 9300 Å
(d) 4900 Å
690. Photoelectric work function of a metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength 3000 Å falls on it. The photoelectrons come out with velocity
(a)
10 ms 1
(b)
10 3 ms 1
(c)
10 4 ms 1
(d) 10 6 ms 1
691. Threshold frequency for a metal is 10 15 Hz , when the light of 4000 Å wavelength incident on it, then choose the correct statement
(a) Photoelectric effect will not happen
(b) Photoelectrons will be emitted with zero velocity
3
(c) Photoelectrons will be emitted with the velocity of 10 m/sec.
m/sec.
(d) Photoelectrons will be emitted with the velocity of 10 5
692. The work function for tungsten and sodium are 4.5 eV and 2.3 eV respectively. If the threshold wavelength  for sodium is 5460 Å, the
value of  for tungsten is
(a) 5893 Å
(b) 10683 Å
(c) 2791 Å
(d) 528 Å
693. A radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 880 kHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons emitted per second are
(a)
1.72  10 31
(b)
1327  10 34
(c)
13 .27  10 34
(d)
0.075  10 34
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694. A and B are two light sources. Intensity of source A is more than that of B and frequency of source B is more than that of A. The current
obtained for the photocell is
(a) More for source A
(b) More for source B
(c) Same for both the sources
(d) Nothing can be said
695. Which of the following statement is not related to photon
(a) Its energy does not depends on frequency
(b) Its energy depends on frequency
(c) It moves always with the velocity of light
(d) Its wave is electromagnetic
696. In an experiment on photoelectric effect the frequency f of the incident light is plotted against the stopping potential V0 . The work
function of the photoelectric surface is given by (e is electronic charge)
Y
(a) OB  e in eV
V0
O
(b) OB in volt
(c) OA in eV
A
0

X
B
(d) The slope of the line AB
697. When the photons of energy h fall on a photo-sensitive surface (work function h0) electrons are emitted from the metallic surface. This
is known as photoelectric effect. The electron coming out of the surface have a kinetic energy. Then it is possible to state that
(a) All ejected electrons have the same K.E. equal to h  h 0
(b) The ejected electrons have a distribution of kinetic energy, the most energetic one have kinetic energy equal to h  h 0
(c) The most energetic ejected electrons have kinetic energy equal to h
(d) The kinetic energy of the most energetic ejected electrons is h 0
698. Monochromatic light, incident on a metal surface emits photoelectrons whose energies range from zero to 2.5 eV. What will be the
minimum energy of incident photon if the energy required to release the tightly bound electron is 4.2eV
(a) 1.6 eV
(b) 1.6 eV to 6.8 eV
(c) 6.8 eV
699. The eye can detect 5  10 Photons/ m  sec of green light (  5000 Å) , while ear can detect 10
4
2
(d) > 6.8 eV
13
watt/m 2 . As a power electron,
which is more sensitive and by what factor
(a) Eye is more sensitive and by a factor of 5.00
(b) Ear is more sensitive by a factor of 5.00
(c) Both are equally sensitive
(d) Eye is more sensitive by a factor of 10 1
700. When light of intensity 1 W / m 2 and wave length 5  10 7 m is incident on a surface, it is completely absorbed by the surface. If 100
photons emit one electron and area of the surface is 1cm 2 , then the photoelectric current will be
(a) 2 mA
(b) 0.4 A
(c) 4.0 mA
701. The X-ray can not be diffracted by means of an ordinary grating due to
(a) Large wavelength
(b) High speed
(d) 4 A
]
(c) Short wavelength
(d) All of these
(c) Wood
(d) Water
702. X-ray will travel minimum distance in
(a) Air
(b) Iron
703. The minimum wavelength of X-ray emitted by X-rays tube is 0.4125 Å. The accelerating voltage is
(a) 30 kV
(b) 50 kV
(c) 80 kV
(d) 60 kV
704. Characteristic X-rays are produced due to
(a) Transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with target atoms
(b) Transition of electrons from higher to lower electronic orbits in an atom
(c) Heating of the target
(d) Transfer of energy in collision of electrons with atoms in the target
705. X-rays when incident on a metal
(a) Exert a force on it
(b) Transfer energy to it
(c) Transfer pressure to it
(d) All of the above
706. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by electrons accelerated by a potential difference of V volts is equal to
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(a)
eV
hc
(b)
eh
cV
(c)
hc
eV
(d)
cV
eh
707. An X-ray machine is working at a high voltage. The spectrum of the X-rays emitted will
(a) Be a single wavelength
(b) Extend from 0 to  wavelength
(c) Extend from a minimum to  wavelength
(d) Extend from 0 to a maximum wavelength
708. What is the difference between soft and hard X-rays
(a) Velocity
(b) Intensity
(c) Frequency
(d) Polarization
709. X-rays are produced due to
(a) Break up of molecules
(b) Change in atomic energy level
(c) Change in nuclear energy level
(d) Radioactive disintegration
710. The essential distinction between X-rays and  -rays is that
(a)  -rays have smaller wavelength than X-rays
(b)  -rays emanate from nucleus while X-rays emanate from outer part of the atom
(c)  -rays have grater ionizing power than X-rays
(d)  -rays are more penetrating than X-rays
711. X-ray beam can be deflected by
(a) Magnetic field
(b) Electric field
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
712. For the production of characteristic K , X-ray, the electron transition is
(a)
n  2 to n  1
(b)
n  3 to n  2
(c)
n  3 to n  1
(d)
n  4 to n  1
713. When X rays pass through a strong uniform magnetic field, then they
(a) Do not get deflected at all
(b) Get deflected in the direction of the field
(c) Get deflected in the direction opposite to the field
(d) Get deflected in the direction perpendicular to the field
714. If the potential difference applied across X-ray tube is V volts, then approximately minimum wavelength of the emitted X-rays will be
(a)
1227
Å
V
(b)
1240
Å
V
(c)
2400
Å
V
(d)
12400
Å
V
(d)
h
eV
715. If V be the accelerating voltage, then the maximum frequency of continuous X-rays is given by
(a)
eh
V
(b)
hV
e
(c)
eV
h
716. A metal block is exposed to beams of X-ray of different wavelength X-rays of which wavelength penetrate most
(a) 2Å
(b) 4Å
(c) 6Å
(d) 8Å
717. An X-ray tube operates on 30 kV. What is the minimum wavelength emitted ? (h = 6.6  10 –34 Js, e = 1.6  10–19 coulomb, c = 3 
10 8 ms–1)
(a) 0.133 Å
718. Bragg’s law for X-rays is
(a) d sin  = 2n
(b) 0.4 Å
(b)
2d sin   n
(c) 1.2 Å
(c)
n sin   2d
(d) 6.6 Å
(d) None of these
719. Intensity of X-rays depends upon the number of
(a) Electrons
(b) Protons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Positrons
720. In an X-ray tube electrons bombarding the target produce X-rays of minimum wavelength 1 Å. What must be the energy of bombarding
electrons
(a) 13375 eV
(b) 12375 eV
(c) 14375 eV
(d) 15375 eV
721. For production of characteristic K  X-rays, the electron transition is
(a)
n  2 to n  1
(b)
n  3 to n  2
(c)
n  3 to n  1
(d)
n  4 to n  2
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722. Penetrating power of X-rays does not depend on
(a) Wavelength
(b) Energy
(c) Potential difference
(d) Current in the filament
723. The intensity of X-rays from a coolidge tube is plotted against wavelength as shown in the figure. The minimum wavelength found is c
and the wavelength of the K line is k . As the accelerating voltage is increased
(a)
(K  C ) increases
(b)
( K  C ) decreases
(c)
 K increases
(d)
 K decreases
I
C
K

724. Penetrating power of X-rays can be increased by
(a) Increasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
(b) Decreasing the potential difference between anode and cathode
(c) Increasing the cathode filament current
(d) Decreasing the cathode filament current
725. In an X-ray tube the intensity of the emitted X-ray beam is increased by
(a) Increasing the filament current
(b) Decreasing the filament current
(c) Increasing the target potential
(d) Decreasing the target potential
726. X-rays are
(a) Stream of electrons
(b) Stream of positively charged particles
(c) Electromagnetic radiations
(d) Stream of uncharged particles
727. For the structural analysis of crystals, X-rays are used because
(a) X-rays have wavelength of the order of interatomic spacing
(b) X-rays are highly penetrating radiations
(c) Wavelength of X-rays is of the order of nuclear size
(d) X-rays are coherent radiations
728. Electrons with energy 80 keV are incident on the tungsten target of an X-ray tube. K shell electrons of tungsten have – 72.5 keV energy. Xrays emitted by the tube contain only
(a) A continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of ~ 0.155Å
(b) A continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung] with all wavelengths
(c) The characteristic X-rays spectrum of tungsten
(d) A continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of ~ 0.155Å and the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten
729. The wavelength of most energetic X-rays emitted when a metal target is bombarded by 40 keV electrons, is approximately
(h = 6.62  10–34 J-sec; 1eV = 1.6  10–19 J; c = 3  108 m/s)
(a) 300 Å
(b) 10 Å
(c) 4 Å
(d) 0.31 Å
730. Consider the following two statements A and B and identify the correct choice in the given answer
A : The characteristic X-ray spectrum depends on the nature of the material of the target.
B : The short wavelength limit of continuous X-ray spectrum varies inversely with the potential difference applied to the X-rays tube
(a) A is true and B is false
(b) A is false and B is true
(c) Both A and B are true
(d) Both A and B are false
731. The energy of an X ray photon of wavelength 1.65 Å is (h  6 .6  10 34 J-sec , c  3  10 8 ms 1 , 1eV  1.6  10 19 J )
(a)
3.5 keV
(b) 5.5 keV
(c) 7.5 keV
(d) 9.5 keV
732. The X-ray beam coming from an X-ray tube will be
(a) Monochromatic
(b) Having all wavelengths smaller than a certain maximum wavelength
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(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum wavelength
(d) Having all wavelengths lying between a minimum and a maximum wavelength
733. Molybdenum is used as a target element for production of X-rays because it is
(a) A heavy element and can easily absorb high velocity electrons
(b) A heavy element with a high melting point
(c) An element having high thermal conductivity
(d) Heavy and can easily deflect electrons
734. Ka characteristic X-ray refers to the transition
(a) n = 2 to n = 1
(b) n = 3 to n = 2
(c) n = 3 to n = 1
(d) n = 4 to n = 2
735. What kV potential is to be applied on X-ray tube so that minimum wavelength of emitted X-rays may be 1Å (h = 6.625  10–34 J-sec)
(a) 12.42 kV
(b) 12.84 kV
(c) 11.98 kV
(d) 10.78 kV
736. X-rays are not obtainable from H-atom because
(a) It is a gas
(b) It is very light
(c) The difference in energy levels of H-atom is very small
(d) The difference in energy levels of H-atoms is very large
737. Energy of X-rays is about
(a) 8 eV
(b) 80 eV
(c) 800 eV
(d) 8000 eV
738. The continuous X-rays spectrum produced by an X-ray machine at constant voltage has
(a) A maximum wavelength
(b) A minimum wavelength
(c) A single wavelength
(d) A minimum frequency
739. X-ray beam of intensity I0 passes through an absorption plate of thickness d. If absorption coefficient of material of plate is , the correct
statement regarding the transmitted intensity I of X-ray is
(a)
I  I0 (1  e  d )
(b)
I  I0 e  d
(c)
I  I0 (1  e   / d )
(d)
I  I0 e   / d
740. X-rays are produced in X-ray tube operating at a given accelerating voltage. The wavelength of the continuous X-rays has values from
(a) 0 to 
(b) min to , where min  0
(c) 0 to max , where max  
(d)
min to max , where 0  min  max  
741. The emission of K a X-rays from tungsten is at a wavelength of 0.021nm. The energy difference between the K and L energy levels will be
approximately
(a) 0.51 MeV
(b) 1.2 MeV
(c) 59 KeV
(d) 13.6 eV
742. Compton effect shows that
(a) X-rays are waves
]
(b) X-rays have high energy
(c) X-rays can penetrate matter (d) Photons have momentum
743. The wavelength of K X-rays produced by an X-ray tube is 0.76Å. The atomic number of the anode material of the tube is
(a) 20
(b) 60
(c) 40
(d) 80
744. X-ray astronomy
(a) Orbiting the earth because X-rays are almost completely absorbed by the atmosphere
(b) Is very much possible through the use of appropriate telescopes kept on the earth because the atmosphere is almost completely
transparant to X-rays
(c) Is possible both with satellites and on the earth because the atmosphere does not affect X-rays at all
(d) Is not possible at all because X-rays have a very short wavelength
745. An X-ray tube with a copper target emits Cu K line of wavelength 1.50 Å. What should be the minimum voltage through which electrons
are to be accelerated to produce this wavelength of X rays (h = 6.63 10–34 J-sec, c = 3  108 m/s)
(a) 8280 V
(b) 828 V
(c) 82800 V
(d) 8.28 V
746. An X-ray tube is operating at 50 kV and 20 mA. The target material of the tube has a mass of 1.0 kg and specific heat 495 Jkg –1 oC. One
percent of the supplied electric power is converted into X-rays and the entire remaining energy goes into heating the target. Then
(1) A suitable target material must have a high melting temperature
(2) A suitable target material must have low thermal conductivity
(3) The average rate of rise of temperature of target would be 2oC/s
(4) The minimum wavelength of the X-rays emitted is about 0.25  1010 m
(a) 1, 3, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) None of these
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747. In X-ray spectrum wavelength  of line K depends on atomic number Z as
(a)
  Z2
(b)
  (Z  1)2
(c)

1
(Z  1)
(d)

1
(Z  1)2
748. The energy of a photon of characteristic X-ray from a Coolidge tube comes from
(a) The kinetic energy of the striking electron
(b) The kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target
(c) The kinetic energy of the ions of the target
(d) An electronic transition of the target atom
749. The figure represents the observed intensity of X-rays emitted by an X-ray tube as a function of wavelength. The sharp peaks A and B
denote
A
B
Intensity
(a) Band spectrum
(b) Continuous spectrum
(c) Characteristic radiations
(d) White radiations
O
Wave length
750. When a beam of accelerated electron hits a target a continuous X-ray spectrum is emitted from the target. Which of the following
wavelength is absent in the X-ray spectrum. If the X-ray in operating at 40,000 volts
(a) 0.25 Å
(b) 0.5 Å
(c) 1.5 Å
(d) 1.0 Å
751. Absorption of X-ray is maximum in which of the following different sheets
(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Beryllium
(d) Lead
752. Which of the following is accompanied by the characteristic X-ray emission
(a) -particle emission
(b) Electron emission
(c) Positron emission
(d) K-electron capture
753. A potential difference of 42,000 volts is used in an X-ray tube to accelerate electrons. The maximum frequency of the X-radiations
produced is (1 eV = 1.6  10–19 J and h = 6.63  10–34 J-sec)
(a) 1019 Hz
(b) 1018 Hz
(c) 1016 Hz
(d) 1020 Hz
754. A direct X-ray photograph of the intestines is not generally taken by the radiologists because
(a) Intestines would burst on exposure to X-rays
(b) The X-rays would not pass thruogh the intestines
(c) The X-rays will pass through the intestines without causing a good shadow for any useful diagnosis
(d) A very small exposure of X-rays causes cancer in the intestines
755. If  1 and 2 are the wavelengths of characteristic X-rays and gamma rays respectively, then the relation between them is
(a)
1 
1
2
(b)
1  2
(c)
1  2
(d)
1  2
756. The binding energy of the innermost electron in tungsten is 40 keV. To produce characteristic X-rays using a tungsten target in an
X-ray tube the potential difference V between the cathode and the anticathode should be
(a) V < 40 kV
(b) V  40 kV
(c) V > 40 kV
(d) V > / < 40 kV
757. The wavelength of K-line in copper is 1.54 Å. The ionisatin energy of K electron in copper in Joule is
(a) 11.2  10–27
(b) 12.9  10–16
(c) 1.7  10–15
(d) 10  10–16
758. The characteristic X-ray radiation is emitted when
(a) The electrons are accelerated to a fixed energy
(b) The source of electrons emits a monenergetic beam
(c) The bombarding electrons knock out electrons from the inner shell of the target atoms and one of the outer electrons falls into this vacancy
(d) The valence electrons in the target atom are removed as a result of the collision
759. In radio-theraphy, X-rays are used to
(a) Detect bone fractures
(b) Treat cancer by controlled exposure
(c) Detect heart diseases
(d) Detect fault in radio receiving circuits
760. In obtaining an X-ray photograph of our hand, we use the principle of
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(a) Shadow photography
(b) Image formation by an optical system
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Positive rays
761. X-rays are not used for radar purpose because
(a) They are not reflected by the target
(b) They are not electromagnetic waves
(c) They are completely absorbed by the air
(d) They sometimes damage the target
762. The wavelength of K line for an element of atomic number 43 is  . Then the wavelength of K line for an element of atomic number
29 is
(a)
43

29
(b)
42

28
(c)
9

4
4

9
(d)
763. Let  ,   and  denote the wavelengths of the X-rays of the K , K  and L lines in the characteristic X-rays for a metal
(a)
     
(b)
     
(c)
1


1


1

1
(d)


1


1

764. In a Coolidge tube, the potential difference across the tube is 20 kV, and 10 mA current flows through the voltage supply. Only 0.5% of
the energy carried by the electrons striking the target is converted into X-rays. The X-ray beam carries a power of
(a) 0.1 W
(b) 1 W
(c) 2 W
(d) 10 W
765. A semiconductor is formed by
(a) Co-ordinate
(b) Covalent bonds
(c) Electro-valent bonds
(d) Metallic bonds
(b) Proton
(c) Neutron
(d) Electron
766. A hole carries a charge equal to
(a) Zero
767. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 77 K, the resistance of
(a) Each of them increases
(b) Each of them decreases
(c) Copper decreases and germanium increases
(d) Copper increases and germanium decreases
768. When germanium is doped with phosphorus, the doped material has
(a) Excess positive charge
(b) Excess negative charge
(c) More negative current carriers
(d) More positive current carriers
769. Partially filled electron between forbidden gap is
(a) Conductor
(b) Insulator
(c) Semiconductor
(d) All of the above
770. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity () of a semiconductor is represented by
(a)
(b)
P
O
(c)
P
O
T
(d)
P
O
T
P
O
T
T
771. In extrinsic P and N-type, semiconductor materials, the ratio of the impurity atoms to the pure semiconductor atoms is about
(a) 1
(b)
10 1
(c)
10 4
(d) 10 7
772. Which of the energy band diagrams shown in the figure corresponds to that of a semiconductor
CB
(a)
CB
(b)
(c)
VB
CB
Eg>>KT
(d)
VB
CB
Eg=KT
VB
VB
773. In a P-type semiconductor
(a) Current is mainly carried by holes (b)
Current is mainly carried by electrons
(c) The material is always positively charged
(d) Doping is done by pentavalent material
774. At ordinary temperatures, the electrical conductivity of semi conductors in mho/metre is in the range
(a)
10 3 to 10 4
(b)
10 6 to 10 9
(c)
10 6 to 10 10
(d) 10 10 to 10 16
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775. When phosphorus and antimony are mixed in germaniun, then
(a) P-type semiconductor is formed
(b) N-type semiconductor is formed
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
776. To a germanium sample, traces of gallium are added as an impurity. The resultant sample would behave like
(a) A conductor
(b) A P-type semiconductor
(c) An N-type semiconductor
(d) An insulator
(b) Pentavalent elements
(c) In both the above
(d) None of these
777. Donor type impurity is found in
(a) Trivalent elements
778. The difference in the variation of resistance with temperature in a metal and a semiconductor arises essentially due to the difference in
the
(a) Variation of scattering mechanism with temperature
(b) Crystal structure
(c) Variation of the number of charge carriers with temperature
(d) Type of bonding
779. A piece of semiconductor is connected in series in an electric circuit. On increasing the temperature, the current in the circuit will
(a) Decrease
(b) Remain unchanged
(c) Increase
(d) Stop flowing
780. When a semiconductor is heated, its resistance
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Nothing is definite
781. In a semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is 8  10 / cm and that of the holes is 5  10 / cm . The semiconductor is
14
(a) P-type
(b) N-type
3
12
(c) Intrinsic
3
(d) PNP-type
782. In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature, number of electrons and holes are
(a) Equal
(b) Zero
(c) Unequal
(d) Infinite
(c) Oxygen
(d) Germanium
783. To obtain P-type Si semiconductor, we need to dope pure Si with
(a) Aluminium
(b) Phosphorous
784. When the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor is due to the breaking of its covalent bonds, then the semiconductor is said to be
785. A boy sitting on the topmost berth in the compartment of a train which is just going to stop on a railway station, drops an apple aiming at
the open hand of his brother sitting vertically below his hands at a distance of about 2 meter. The apple will fall
(a) Precisely on the hand of his brother
(b) Slightly away from the hand of his brother in the direction of motion of the train
(c) Slightly away from the hand of his brother in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of the train
(d) None of the above
786. A body of mass 10 kg is sliding on a frictionless surface with a velocity of 2 ms 1 . The force required to keep it moving with a same
velocity is
(a) 10 N
(b) 5 N
(c) 2.5 N
(d) Zero
787. A closed compartment containing gas is moving with some acceleration in horizontal direction. Neglect the effect of gravity. Then the
pressure in the compartment is
(a) Same everywhere
(b) Lower in front side
(c) Lower in rear side
(d) Lower in upper side
788. A cork and a metal bob are connected by a string as shown in the figure. If the beaker is given an acceleration towards left then the cork
will be thrown towards
Cork
bob
(a) Right
(b) Left
(c) Upwards
(d) Downwards
789. A body of mass 2 kg is moving with a velocity 8 m/s on a smooth surface. If it is to be brought to rest in 4 seconds, then the force to be
applied is
(a) 8 N
(b) 4 N
(c) 2 N
(d) 1 N
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790. A 30 gm bullet initially travelling at 120 m/s penetrates 12 cm into a wooden block. The average resistance exerted by the wooden block
is
(a) 2850N
(b) 2200 N
(c) 2000N
(d) 1800 N
791. A force of 100 dynes acts on mass of 5 gm for 10 sec. The velocity produced is
(a) 2 cm/sec
(b) 20 cm/sec
(c) 200 cm/sec
(d) 2000 cm/sec
792. A force of 5 N acts on a body of weight 9.8 N. What is the acceleration produced in m / sec 2
(a) 49.00
(b) 5.00
793. At a place where the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m sec
(c) 1.46
2
(d) 0.51
a force of 5 kg-wt acts on a body of mass 10 kg initially at rest. The velocity
of the body after 4 second is
(a)
5 m sec 1
(b)
10 m sec 1
(c)
20 m sec 1
(d)
5 0 m sec 1
794. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 gm moving at a rate of 20 m/s. If the catching process be completed in 0.1s, then the force of
the blow exerted by the ball on the hands of the player is
(a) 0.3 N
(b) 30 N
(c) 300 N
(d) 3000 N
795. Gravels are dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of 0.5 kg/sec. The extra force required in newtons to keep the belt moving at 2 m/sec
is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 0.5
(c) Third law of motion
(d) Newton’s
796. Swimming is possible on account of
(a) First law of motion
gravitation
(b) Second law of motion
law
of
797. On stationary sail-boat, air is blown at the sails from a fan attached to the boat. The boat will
(a) Remain stationary
(b) Spin around
(c) Move in a direction opposite to that in which air is blown
(d) Move in the direction in which the air is blown
798. A book is lying on an inclined plane having inclination to the horizontal  o . What is the angle between the weight of the book and the
reaction of the plane on the book
(a) 0o
(b)  o
(c) 180o –  o
(d) 180o
799. A cannon after firing recoils due to
(a) Conservation of energy
(b) Backward thrust of gases produced
(c) Newton’s third law of motion
(d) Newton’s first law of motion
800. Newton’s third law of motion leads to the law of conservation of
(a) Angular momentum
(b) Energy
(c) Mass
(d) Momentum
801. When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force
(a) He exerts on the wagon
(b) The wagon exerts on him
(c) He exerts on the ground
(d) The ground exerts on him
802. The action and reaction forces referred to in Newton’s third law of motion
(a) Must act on the same body
(b) Must act on different bodies
(c) Need not be equal in magnitude but must have the same line of action
(d) Must be equal in magnitude but need not have the same line of action
803. Mass of a person sitting in a lift is 50 kg. If lift is coming down with a constant acceleration of 10 m / sec 2 . Then the reading of spring
balance will be (g  10 m / sec 2 )
(a) 0
(b) 1000N
(c) 100 N
(d) 10 N
804. A boy whose mass is 50 kg stands on a spring balance inside a lift. The lift starts to ascend with an acceleration of 2ms 2 . The reading of
the machine or balance (g  10 ms 2 ) is
(a)
50 kg
(b) Zero
(c)
49 kg
(d)
60 kg
805. If rope of lift breaks suddenly, the tension exerted by the surface of lift (a = acceleration of lift)
(a) mg
(b)
m (g  a)
(c)
m (g  a)
(d) 0
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806. The apparent weight of the body, when it is travelling upwards with an acceleration of 2m / s 2 and mass is 10 kg, will be
(a) 198 N
(b) 164 N
(c) 140 N
(d) 118 N
807. If the tension in the cable of 1000 kg elevator is 1000 kg weight, the elevator
(a) Is accelerating upwards
(b) Is accelerating downwards
(c) May be at rest or accelerating
(d) May be at rest or in uniform motion
808. A body of mass 4 kg weighs 4.8 kg when suspended in a moving lift. The acceleration of the lift is
(a)
9 .80 ms 2 downwards
(b)
9 .80 ms 2 upwards
(c)
1 .96 ms 2 downwards
(d) 1 .96 ms 2 upwards
809. A boy having a mass equal to 40 kilograms is standing in an elevator. The force felt by the feet of the boy will be greatest when the
elevator (g  9.8 metres / sec 2 )
(a) Stand still
(b) Moves downward at a constant velocity of 4 metres / sec
(c) Accelerates downward with an acceleration equal to 4 metres / sec 2
(d) Accelerates upward with an acceleration equal to 4 metres / sec 
810. If a body of mass m is carried by a lift moving with an upward acceleration a, then the forces acting on the body are (i) the reaction R on
the floor of the lift upwards (ii) the weight mg of the body acting vertically downwards. The equation of motion will be given by
(a) R = mg – ma
(b) R = mg + ma
(c) R = ma – mg
(d) R = mg  ma
811. An 80 kg man stands on a spring balance in an elevator. When it starts to move, the scale reads 700 N. What is the acceleration of the
elevator (g  10 m / s 2 )
(a)
1 .25 m / s 2 downwards
(b)
2.0 m / s 2 upwards
(c)
2.0 m / s  downwards
(d) 1 .25 m / s 2 upwards
812. Two masses of 5 kg and 10 kg are connected to a pulley as shown. What will be the acceleration of the system (g  acceleration due to
gravity)
5kg
10kg
(a)
g
(b)
g
2
(c)
g
3
(d)
g
4
813. Two masses of 4 kg and 5 kg are connected by a string passing through a frictionless pulley and are kept on a frictionless table as shown
in the figure. The acceleration of 5 kg mass is
4 kg
5 kg
(a)
49 m / s 2
(b)
5.44 m / s 2
(c)
19 .5 m / s 2
(d)
2.72 m / s 2
814. As shown in figure a monkey of 20 g mass is holding a light rope that passes over a frictionless pulley. A bunch of bananas of the same
mass is tied to the other end of rope. In order to get access to the branch the monkey starts climbing the rope. The distance between the
monkey and the bananas is
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(a) Decreasing
(b) Increasing
(c) Unchanged
(d) Nothing can be stated
815. A mass m 1 hanging at the end string, draws a mass m 2 along the surface of a smooth table if the mass on the table be doubled the
tension in string becomes, 1.5 times then m1 / m 2 is
m2
m1
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
816. In the figure at the free end a force F is applied to keep the suspended mass of 18 kg at rest
F
18 kg
(a) 180 N
(b) 90 N
(c) 60 N
(d) 30 N
817. As shown in the figure, two equal masses each of 2 kg are suspended from a spring balance. The reading of the spring balance will be
2kg
2kg
(a) Zero
(b) 2 kg
(c) 4 kg
(d) Between zero and 2 kg
818. Two masses 2 kg and 3 kg are attached to the end of the string passed over a pulley fixed at the top. The tension and acceleration are
(a)
7g g
;
8 8
(b)
21 g g
;
8 8
(c)
21 g g
;
8 5
(d)
12 g g
;
5 5
819. A 2 kg block is lying on a smooth table which is connected to a body of mass 1 kg by a string which passes through a pulley. The 1 kg mass
is hanging vertically. The acceleration of block and tension in the string will be
(a)
3.27 m / s 2 , 6.54 N
(b)
4.38 m / s 2 , 6.54 N
(c)
3.27 m / s 2 ,9.86 N
(d)
4.38 m / s 2 , 9.86 N
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820. A light string passes over a frictionless pulley. To one of its ends a mass of 6 kg is attached. To its other end a mass of 10 kg is attached
(see figure). The tension in the thread will be
6kg
10kg
(a) 24.5 N
(b) 2.45 N
(c) 79 N
(d) 73.5 N
821. Two masses M 1 and M 2 are attached to the ends of string which passes over the pulley attached to the top of a double inclined plane.
The angles of inclination of the inclined planes are  and . See fig answer the following questions. Take g  10 ms 2
m1
m2


If M 1  M 2 and  = , what is the acceleration of the system
(a) Zero
(b)
2.5 ms 2
(c)
5 ms 2
(d) 10 ms 2
822. In the above problem (58), if M1  M 2  5 kg and  =  = 30o, what is the tension in the string
(a) 100 N
(b)
50 N
(c) 25 N
(d) 12.5 N
823. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a force of 5 N. If the work done is 25 joules, the angle which the
force makes with the direction of motion of the body is
(a)
0o
(b)
30 o
(c)
60 o
(d) 90 o
824. A particle moves from position r1  3ˆi  2ˆj  6kˆ to position r2  14ˆi  13 ˆj  9kˆ under the action of force 4ˆi  ˆj  3kˆ N . The work done
will be
(a) 100 J
(b) 50 J
(c) 200 J
(d) 75 J
825. The work done on a body does not depend upon
(a) Force applied
(b) Displacement
(c) Initial velocity of the body
(d) Angle at which force is inclined to the displacement.
826. The adjoining diagram shows the velocity versus time plot for, a particle. The work done by the force on the particle is positive from
(a) A to B
v
B
C
(b) B to C
D
(c) C to D
(d) D to E
A
E
t
827. The length of the sides of a rectangular hexahedron are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 . It is placed on a horizontal surface. The body is in the
position of maximum stability when the length of the sides placed on the surface are in ratio
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 3
(d) In all positions stability is same
828. In which of the following is no work done by the force
(a) A man carrying a bucket of water, walking on a level road with a uniform velocity
(b) A drop of rain falling vertically with a constant velocity
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(c) A man whirling a stone tied to a string in a circle with a constant speed
(d) A man walking up on a staircase
829. If the linear momentum is increased by 50%, the kinetic energy will increase by
(a) 50%
(b) 100 %
(c) 125%
(d) 25%
830. Two masses of 1 gm and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitudes of their linear momenta is
(a)
(b)
4 :1
(c)
2 :1
(d) 1 : 16
1: 2
831. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times of its initial value, then new momentum will
(a) Becomes twice its initial value
(b) Become three times its initial value
(c) Become four times its initial value
(d) Remains constant
832. A bomb of 12 kg explodes into two pieces of masses 4 kg and 8 kg. The velocity of 8kg mass is 6 m/sec. The kinetic energy of the other
mass is
(a) 48 J
(b) 32 J
(c) 24 J
(d) 288 J
833. The kinetic energy of a body is numerically equal to thrice the momentum of the body. The velocity of the body is
(a) 2 units
(b) 3 units
(c) 6 units
(d) 9 units
834. A particle is dropped from a height h. A constant horizontal velocity is given to the particle. Taking g to be constant every where, kinetic
energy E of the particle w. r. t. time t is correctly shown in
E
(a)
E
(b)
E
(c)
E
(d)
t 3.6 m apart in 1 . 8  10 4 s. The kinetict energy of the neutron is
835. A neutron moving with at constant speed passes two points
(a)
2 . 1  10 3 eV
(b) 2.1 eV
(c) 21 eV
(d)
t
2 . 1  10 3 eV
836. A body initially at rest explodes suddenly into three equal parts. The momenta of two parts are pˆi and 2 pˆj and their kinetic energies
are E1 and E 2 respectively. If the momentum and kinetic energy of the third part are p 3 and E 3 respectively, then the ratio
(a)
4
5
(b)
3
5
(c)
2
5
(d)
E2
is
E3
1
5
837. A particle, initially at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface, is acted upon by a horizontal force which is constant in size and direction. A
graph is plotted of the work done on the particle W, against the speed of the particle, v. If there are no other horizontal forces acting on
the particle the graph would look like
(a)
W
W
W
(b)
W
(c)
(d)
V
V
V
V
838. Two stationary nuclei A and B are emitting  particles of same kinetic energy. The mass of A is greater then that of B, then the ratio of
kinetic energies of nucleus A and nucleus B is
(a) Unity
(b) More than unity
(c) Less then unity
(d) Answer is not possible
839. Where will be the centre of mass on combining two masses m and M (M>m)
(a) Towards m
(b) Towards M
(c) Between m and M
(d) Anywhere
840. Two objects of masses 200 gm and 500gm possess velocities 10 î m/s and 3ˆi  5 ˆj m/s respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass
in m/s is
(a)
5ˆi  25 ˆj
(b)
5ˆ
i  25 ˆj
7
(c)
25 ˆ
5ˆi 
j
7
(d)
25 ˆi 
5ˆ
j
7
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841. In the HCl molecule, the separation between the nuclei of the two atoms is about 1.27 Å (1 Å = 10–10 m). The approximate location of the
centre of mass of the molecule from hydrogen is (assuming the chlorine atom to be about 35.5 times massive as hydrogen)
(a) 1 Å
(b) 2.5 Å
(c) 1.24 Å
(d) 1.5 Å
842. Four particle of masses m, 2m, 3m and 4m are arranged at the corners of a parallelogram with each side equal to a and one of the angle
between two adjacent sides is 60o. The parallelogram lies in the x-y plane with mass m at the origin and 4m on the x-axis. The centre of
mass of the arrangement will be located at
(a)
 3


a, 0 .95 a 
 2



(b)


 0 .95 a, 3 a 


4


(c)
 3a a 
, 

 4 2
(d)
 a 3a 
 ,

2 4 
843. A system consists of 3 particles each of mass m and located at (1, 1) (2, 2) (3, 3). The co-ordinate of the centre of mass are
(a) (6, 6)
(b) (3, 3)
(c) (2, 2)
(d) (1, 1)
844. If a bomb is thrown at a certain angle with the horizontal and after exploding on the way the different fragments move in different
directions then the centre of mass
(a) Would move along the same parabolic path
(b) Would move along a horizontal path
(c) Would move along a vertical line
(d) None of these
845. Four identical spheres each of mass m are placed at the corners of square of side 2metre. Taking the point of intersection of the diagonals
as the origin, the co-ordinates of the centre of mass are
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (1, 1)
(c) (– 1, 1)
(d) (1, – 1)
846. In rotational motion of a rigid body, all particle move with
(a) Same linear and angular velocity
(b) Same linear and different angular velocity
(c) With different linear velocities and same angular velocities
velocities
847. The angular speed of a fly–wheel making 120 revolution/minute is
(a)  rad/sec
(b) 2 rad/sec
(d) With different linear velocities and different angular
(c) 4 rad/sec
848. A flywheel gains a speed of 540 r.p.m. in 6 sec. Its angular acceleration will be
(a) 3 rad/sec2
(b) 9 rad/sec2
(c) 18 rad/sec2
(d) 42 rad/sec
(d) 54 rad/sec2
849. A car is moving at a speed of 72 km/hr. the diameter of its wheels is 0.5 m. If the wheels are stopped in 20 rotations by applying brakes,
then angular retardation produced by the brakes is
(a) – 25.5 rad/s2
(b) – 29.5 rad/s2
(c) – 33.5 rad/s2
(d) – 45.5 rad/s2
850. A wheel is rotating at 900 r.p.m. about its axis. When the power is cut-off, it comes to rest in 1 minute. The angular retardation in
radian/s2 is
(a)
 2
(b)  4
(c)
 6
(d)  8
851. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a ring are released from top of an inclined plane (frictionless) so that they slide down the plane. Then
maximum acceleration down the plane is for (no rolling)
(a) Solid sphere
(b) hollow sphere
(c) Ring
(d) All same
852. A solid sphere (mass 2 M) and a thin hollow spherical shell (mass M) both of the same size, roll down an inclined plane, then
(a) Solid sphere will reach the bottom first
(b) Hollow spherical shell will reach the bottom first
(c) Both will reach at the same time
(d) None of these
853. A hollow cylinder and a solid cylinder having the same mass and same diameter are released from rest simultaneously from the top of an
inclined plane. Which will reach the bottom first
(a) The solid cylinder
(b) The hollow cylinder
(c) Both will reach the bottom together
(d) The greater density
854. The speed of a homogeneous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h, from rest without sliding, is
(a)
10
gh
7
(b)
gh
(c)
6
gh
5
(d)
4
gh
3
855. A solid cylinder rolls down an inclined plane from a height h. At any moment the ratio of rotational kinetic energy to the total kinetic
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(a) 1 : 2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 1 : 1
o
856. An inclined plane makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal. A solid sphere rolling down this inclined plane from rest without slipping
has a linear acceleration equal to
g
(a)
(b)
3
2g
3
(c)
5g
7
(d)
5g
14
857. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane without slipping. The speed of its centre of mass when it reaches the
bottom is
(a)
2 gh
(b)
4
gh
3
(c)
3
gh
4
(d)
4
g
h
858. Solid cylinders of radii r1 , r2 and r3 roll down an inclined plane from the same place simultaneously. If r1  r2  r3 , which one would
reach the bottom first
(a) Cylinder of radius r1
(b) Cylinder of radius r2
(c) Cylinder of radius r3
(d) All the three cylinders simultaneously
859. A solid cylinder of radius R and mass M, rolls down on inclined plane without slipping and reaches the bottom with a speed v. The speed
would be less than v if we use
(a) A cylinder of same mass but of smaller radius
(b) A cylinder of same mass but of larger radius
(c) A cylinder of same radius but of smaller mass
(d) A hollow cylinder of same mass and same radius
860. A body starts rolling down an inclined plane of length L and height h. This body reaches the bottom of the plane in time t. The relation
between L and t is
(a)
tL
(b)
t 1/ L
(c)
t  L2
(d)
t
1
L2
861. A hollow cylinder is rolling on an inclined plane, inclined at an angle of 30 o to the horizontal. Its speed after travelling a distance of 10 m
will be
(a) 49 m/sec
(b) 0.7 m/sec
(c) 7 m/sec
(d) Zero
862. A solid sphere, a solid cylinder, a disc and a ring are rolling down an inclined plane. Which of these bodies will reach the bottom
simultaneously
(a) Solid sphere and solid cylinder
(b) Solid cylinder and disc
(c) Disc and ring
(d) Solid sphere and ring
863. A ball of radius 11 cm and mass 8 kg rolls from rest down a ramp of length 2m. The ramp is inclined at 35 o to the horizontal. When the
ball reaches the bottom, its velocity is (sin 35o = 0.57)
(a) 2 m/s
(b) 5 m/s
(c) 4 m/s
(d) 6 m/s
864. From an inclined plane a sphere, a disc, a ring and a shell are rolled without slipping. The order of their reaching at the base will be
(a) Ring, shell, disc, sphere
(b) Shell, sphere, disc, ring
(c) Sphere, disc, shell, ring
(d) Ring, sphere, disc, shell
865. A solid cylinder 30 cm in diameter at the top of an inclined plane 2.0 m high is released and rolls down the incline without loss of energy
due to friction. Its linear speed at the bottom is
(a) 5.29 m/sec
(b) 4.1 × 103 m/sec
(c) 51 m/sec
(d) 51 cm/sec
866. A cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls on an inclined plane. The gain in kinetic energy is
(a)
1
Mv 2
2
(b)
1
I 2
2
(c)
3
Mv 2
4
(d)
3
I 2
4
867. A disc of radius R is rolling down an inclined plane whose angle of inclination is  , Its acceleration would be
(a)
5
g sin 
7
(b)
2
g sin 
3
(c)
1
g sin 
2
(d)
3
g sin 
5
868. A solid cylinder (i) rolls down (ii) slides down an inclined plane. The ratio of the accelerations in these conditions is
(a) 3 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c)
3 :
2
(d)
2: 3
869. The acceleration of a body rolling down on an inclined plane does not depend upon
(a) Angle of inclination of the plane (b)
Length of plane
(c) Acceleration due to gravity of earth
(d) Radius of gyration of body
870. A ring, a solid sphere, a disc and a solid cylinder of same radii roll down an inclined plane, which would reach the bottom in the last
(a) Ring
(b) Disc
(c) Solid sphere
(d) Solid cylinder
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871. The force of gravitation is
(a) Repulsive
(b) Electrostatic
(c) Conservative
(d)
Non - conservative
(d)
Is reduced to a quarter
872. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational attraction between them
(a) Is doubled
(b) Becomes four times
(c) Is reduced to half
873. A mass M is split into two parts, m and M – m, which are then separated by a certain distance. What ratio of m/M maximizes the
gravitational force between the two parts
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/4
(d)
1/5
874. Three particles each of mass m are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle. The centre of the triangle is at a distance x from
either corner. If a mass M be placed at the centre, what will be the net gravitational force on it
(a) Zero
(b)
3GMm / x 2
(c)
2GMm / x 2
(d)
GMm / x 2
875. Two identical spheres are placed in contact with each other. The force of gravitation between the spheres will be proportiona l to
(R = radius of each sphere)
(b) R2
(a) R
(c) R4
(d) None of these
876. If R is the radius of the earth and g the acceleration due to gravity on the earth's surface, the mean density of the earth is
4G / 3 gR
(a)
(b)
3R / 4 gG
(c)
3 g / 4RG
(d)
Rg / 12 G
877. A mass 'm' is taken to a planet whose mass is equal to half that of earth and radius is four times that of earth. The mass of the body on
this planet will be
(a) m / 2
(b) m / 8
(c) m / 4
(d)
m
878. The diameters of two planets are in the ratio 4 : 1 and their mean densities in the ratio 1: 2. The acceleration due to gravity on the planets
will be in ratio
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 2 : 1
(d)
4:1
879. The acceleration due to gravity on the moon is only one sixth that of earth. If the earth and moon are assumed to have the same density,
the ratio of the radii of moon and earth will be
1
6
(a)
(b)
1
(6)1 / 3
1
36
(c)
1
(6)2. / 3
(d)
880. There are two bodies of masses 100 kg and 10000 kg separated by a distance 1m. At what distance from the smaller body, the intensity
of gravitational field will be zero
1
m
9
(a)
(b)
1
m
10
(c)
1
m
11
10
m
11
(d)
881. Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the variation of the gravitational field (F) with the distance (r) from the centre of a
spherical shell of mass M and radius a
I
(a)
(b)
r =a
I
(c)
r =a
r
I
r
(d)
r =a
I
r
r =a
r
r=R
r
882. The curve depicting the dependence of intensity of gravitational field on the distance r from the centre of the earth is
I
I
(a)
I
(b)
O
r=R
O
r
I
(c)
(d)
O
r=R
r
O
r=R
r
883. A thin spherical shell of mass M and radius R has a small hole. A particle of mass m is released at the mouth of the hole. Then
(a) The particle will execute simple harmonic motion inside the shell
m
R
M
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(b) The particle will oscillate inside the small, but the oscillations are not simple harmonic
(c) The particle will not oscillate, but the speed of the particle will go on increasing
(d)
None of these
884. The escape velocity of a planet having mass 6 times and radius 2 times as that of earth is
(a)
3 Ve
(b)
3 Ve
(c)
2 Ve
(d)
2 Ve
(d)
m 1
(d)
4 times
885. The escape velocity of a particle of mass m varies as
(a)
m2
(b) m
(c)
m0
886. How many times is escape velocity (v e ) , of orbital velocity (v 0 ) for a satellite revolving near earth
(a)
2 times
(b)
2 times
(c)
3 times
887. The orbital velocity of a satellite at a height h above the surface of earth is v. The value of escape velocity from the same location is given
by
(a)
2v
(b) v
(c)
v
2
v
2
(d)
888. How much energy will be necessary for making a body of 500 kg escape from the earth [g  9 .8 m / s 2 , radius of earth  6 .4  10 6 m ]
(a) About 9 . 8  10 6 J
(b) About 6 . 4  10 8 J
(c) About 3 .1  10 10 J
(d) About 27 . 4  10 12 J
889. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11 .2 km / s . If the earth’s mass increases to twice its present value and the
radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity would become
(a)
5.6 km / s
(b) 11 .2 km / s (remain unchanged)
(c)
22 .4 km / s
(d)
44 .8 km / s
890. A rocket is launched with velocity 10 km/s. If radius of earth is R, then maximum height attained by it will be
(a) 2R
(b) 3R
(c) 4R
(d) 5R
891. A missile is launched with a velocity less then the escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential energy is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) May be positive or negative depending upon its initial velocity
892.
v e and v p denotes the escape velocity from the earth and another planet having twice the radius and the same mean density as the
earth. Then
(a) v e  v p
(b)
ve  v p / 2
(c)
ve  2v p
(d)
ve  v p / 4
893. The magnitude of the potential energy per unit mass of the object at the surface of earth is E. Then the escape velocity of the object is
(a)
2E
(b)
4E2
(c)
E
(d)
E/2
894. Escape velocity of a body of 1 kg mass on a planet is 100 m/sec. Gravitational potential energy of the body at the planet is
(a) – 5000 J
(b) – 1000 J
(c) – 2400 J
(d)
5000 J
R
from the earth’s surface where R is earth’s radius. If g is acceleration due to gravity at the
5
earth’s surface, the increase in potential energy is
4
5
6
mgh
mgh
mgh
(a) mgh
(b)
(c)
(d)
5
6
7
895. A body of mass m rises to a height h 
896. The work done is bringing three particles each of mass 10 g from large distances to the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm.
(a)
1  10 13 J
(b)
2  10 13 J
(c)
4  10 11 J
(d) 1  10 11 J
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897. The potential energy due to gravitational field of earth will be maximum at
(a) Infinite distance
(b) The poles of earth
(c) The centre of earth
(d) The equator of earth
898. Reaction of weightlessness in a satellite is
(a) Zero gravity
(b) Centre of mass
(c) Zero reaction force by satellite surface
(d) None of these
899. A body suspended from a spring balance is placed in a satellite. Reading in balance is W1 when the satellite moves in an orbit of radius R.
Reading in balance is W2 when the satellite moves in an orbit of radius 2 R . Then
(a)
W1  W2
(b)
W1  W2
(c)
W1  W2
(d)
W1  2W2
900. An astronaut feels weightlessness because
(a) Gravity is zero there
(b) Atmosphere is not there
(c) Energy is zero in the chamber of a rocket
(d) The fictitious force in rotating frame of reference cancels the effect or weight
901. Inside a satellite orbiting very close to the earth’s surface, water does not fall out of a glass when it is inverted. Which of the following is
the best explanation for this
(a) The earth does not exert any force on the water
(b) The earth’s force of a attraction on the water is exactly balanced by the force created by the satellites motion
(c) The water and the glass have the same acceleration, equal to g, towards the centre of the earth, and hence there is no relative
motion between them
(d) The gravitational attraction between the glass and the water balances the earth’s attraction on the water
902. To overcome the effect of weightlessness in an artificial satellite
(a) The satellite is rotated its axis with compartment of astronaut at the centre of the satellite
(b) The satellite is shaped like a wheel
(c) The satellite is rotated around and around till weightlessness disappears
(d) The compartment of astronaut is kept on the periphery of rotating wheel like satellite
903. Which of the following astronomer first proposed that sun is static and earth rounds sun
(a) Copernicus
(b) Kepler
(c) Galilio
(d) None
904. The period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T, the period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 4R is
(a) 4 T
(b) T / 4
(c) 8 T
(d) T / 8
905. Kepler’s second law is based on
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Special theory of relativity
(d)
Conservation of angular momentum
906. Two planets at mean distance d 1 and d 2 from the sun and their frequencies are n1 and n 2 respectively then
(a)
n12 d 12  n 2 d 22
(b)
n 22 d 23  n12 d 13
(c)
n1 d 12  n 2 d 22
(d)
n12 d 1  n 22 d 2
907. Earth needs one year to complete one revolution round the sun. If the distance between sun and earth is doubled then the period of
revolution of earth will become
(a)
2 2 yrs
(b)
8 yrs
(c)
1
yrs
2
(d)
1 yrs
908. The eccentricity of earth’s orbit is 0.0167. The ratio of its maximum speed in its orbit to its minimum speed is
(a) 2.507
(b) 1.033
(c) 8.324
(d) 1.000
909. For a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit of semi – major and semi – minor axes a and b, respectively, and period T
(A) The torque acting on the planet about the sun is non – zero
(B) The angular momentum of the planet about the sun is constant
(C) The areal velocity is ab / T
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(D) The planet moves with a constant speed around the sun
(a) A, B
(b) B, C
(c) C, D
(d) D, A
910. A planet moves in an elliptical orbit around one of the foci. The ratio of maximum velocity v max and minimum velocity v min in terms of
eccentricity e of the ellipse is given by
(a)
1e
1e
e 1
e 1
(b)
(c)
1e
1e
(d)
e
e 1
911. The satellites S 1 and S 2 describe circular orbits of radii r and 2r respectively around a planet. If the orbital angular velocity of S 1 is  ,
that of S 2 is
(a)

(b)  2
2 2
(c)

2
(d)
 2
3
912. Mercury does not wet glass, wood or iron because
(a) Cohesive force is less than adhesive force
(c) Angle of contact is less than 90
(b) Cohesive force is greater than adhesive force
o
(d) Cohesive force is equal to adhesive force
913. The force of cohesion is
(a) Maximum in solids
(b) Maximum in liquid
(c) Same in different matters (d) Maximum in gases
914. What enables us to write on the black board with chalk
(a) Gravity
(b) Cohesion
(c) Adhesion
(d) None of the above
915. Intermolecular forces decrease rapidly as the distance between the molecules increases and do so much more
(a) Slowly than demanded by the inverse square law of the distance
(b) Rapidly than anticipated through the inverse square law of the distance
(c) According to inverse square law
(d) It actually remains the same for all the distances
916. The spherical shape of rain-drop is due to
(a) Density of the liquid
(b) Surface tension
(c) Atmospheric pressure
(d) Gravity
917. At which of the following temperatures, the value of surface tension of water is minimum
(a)
4o C
(b)
25 o C
(c)
50 o C
(d)
75 o C
918. Force necessary to pull a circular plate of 5cm radius from water surface for which surface tension is 75 dynes/cm, is
(a) 30 dynes
(b) 60 dynes
(c) 750 dynes
(d) 750 dynes
919. A square frame of side L is dipped in a liquid. On taking it out, a membrane is formed. If the surface tension of the liquid is T, the force
acting on the frame will be
(a) 2TL
(b) 4TL
(c) 8TL
(d) 10TL
920. Ball pen and fountain pen depend respectively upon the principle of
(a) Surface tension and viscosity
(b) Surface tension and gravity
(c) Gravitation and surface tension (d)
Surface tension and surface tension
921. Which graph represents the variation of surface tension with temperature over small temperature ranges for water
(a)
(b)
S.T.
Temp
(c)
S.T.
Temp
(d)
S.T.
S.T.
Temp
Temp
922. The material of a wire has a density of 1.4 g per cm3. If it is not wetted by a liquid of surface tension 44 dyne per cm, then the maximum
radius of the wire which can float on the surface of the liquid is
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(a)
1
cm
7
(b) 0.7 cm
(c)
10
cm
14
10
cm
28
(d)
923. A water drop of 0.05cm3 is squeezed between two glass plates and spreads into area of 40cm2. If the surface tension of water is 70
dyne/cm then the normal force required to separate the glass plates from each other will be
(a) 90 N
(b) 45 N
(c) 22.5 N
(d) 450 N
924. The main difference between a stretched membrane and the liquid surface is
(a) The liquid surface has a tendency to contract but the stretched membrane does not
(b) The surface tension does not depend on area but on the tension of the stretched membrane does
(c) The surface tension increases with increases in area
(d) Surface tension increases irregularly with temperature
925. On bisecting a soap bubble along a diameter, the force due to surface tension on any of its half part will be
(a) 4RT
(b)
4 R
T
(c)
T
4 R
2T
R
(d)
926. The addition of soap changes the surface tension of water to  1 and that of sugar changes it to  2 . Then
(a)
1   2
(b)
1   2
(c)
1   2
(d) It is not possible to predict the above
927. A hollow disc of aluminum whose external and internal radii are R and r respectively, is floating on the surface of a liquid whose surface
tension is T. The maximum weight of disc can be
(a) 2 (R + r) T
(b) 2 (R – r) T
(c) 4 (R + r) T
(d) 4 (R – r) T
928. 8000 identical water drops are combined to form a big drop. Then the ratio of the final surface energy to the initial surface energy of all
the drops together is
(a) 1 : 10
(b) 1 : 15
(c) 1 : 20
(d) 1 : 25
929. 8 mercury drops coalesce to form one mercury drop, the energy changes by a factor of
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
930. Which of the following statements are true in case when two water drops coalesce and make a bigger drop
(a) Energy is released
(b) Energy is absorbed
(c) The surface area of the bigger drop is greater than the sum of the surface areas of both the drops
(d) The surface area of the bigger drop is smaller than the sum of the surface areas of both the drops
931. An oil drop of radius 1cm is sprayed into 1000 small equal drops of same radius. If the surface tension of oil drop is 50 dyne/cm then the
work done is
(a) 18 ergs
(b) 180 ergs
(c) 1800 ergs
(d) 18000 ergs
932. If work W is done in blowing a bubble of radius R from a soap solution, then the work done in blowing a bubble of radius 2R from the
same solution is
(a) W/2
(b) 2W
(c) 4W
1
W
3
(d)
2
(d)
N0
933. A liquid drop of radius R is broken up into N small droplets. The work done is proportional to
(a) N
(b)
N2/3
(c)
N1 / 3
934. The work done in increasing the volume of a soap bubble of radius R and surface tension T by 700% will be
(a)
8R 2T
(b)
24 R 2T
(c)
48R 2T
(d)
8R 2T 2 / 3
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935. 1000 drops of water all of same size join together to form a single drop and the energy released raises the temperature of the drop. Given
that T is the surface tension of water, r the radius of each small drop,  the density of liquid, J the mechanical equivalent of heat. What is
the rise in the temperature
(a) T/Jr
(b) 10T/Jr
(c) 100T/Jr
(d) None of these
936. Two bubbles A and B (A > B) are joined through a narrow tube. Then
(a) The size of A will increase
(b) The size of B will increase
(c) The size of B will increase until the pressure equals
(d) None of these
937. Excess pressure of one soap bubble is four times more than the other. Then the ratio of volume of first bubble to another one is
(a) 1 : 64
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 64 : 1
(d) 1 : 2
938. The pressure of air in a soap bubble of 0.7cm diameter is 8mm of water above the pressure outside. The surface tension of the soap
solution is
(a) 100 dyne/cm
(b) 68.66 dyne/cm
(c) 137 dyne/cm
(d) 150 dyne/cm
939. An air bubble of radius r in water is at a depth h below the water surface at some instant. If P is atmospheric pressure, d and T are density
and surface tension of water respectively, the pressure inside the bubble will be
(a)
P  h dg 
4T
r
P  h dg 
(b)
2T
r
(c)
P  h dg 
2T
r
(d)
P  h dg 
4T
r
940. A soap bubble is very slowly blown at the end of a glass tube by a mechanical pump which supplies a fixed volume of air every minute
whatever the pressure against which it is pumping. The excess pressure P inside the bubble varies with time as shown by which graph
P
P
(a)
P
(b)
P
(c)
(d)
t
t
t
t
941. A liquid does not wet the sides of a solid, if the angle of contact is
(b) Obtuse (More than 90o)
(a) Zero
(c) Acute (Less than 90o)
(d) 90o0
(c) Plane
(d) Uncertain
942. The meniscus of mercury in the capillary tube is
(a) Convex
(b) Concave
943. The angle of contact between glass and mercury is
(a)
0o
(b)
30 o
(c)
90 o
(d) 135 o
944. When the temperature is increased the angle of contact of a liquid
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) First increases and then decreases
945. For those liquids which do not wet the solid surface, the ratio of cohesive force and adhesive force will be
(a) Greater than
1
2
(b) Greater than
2
(c) Lesser than
1
2
(d) Lesser than
2
946. The water proofing agent makes an angle of contact
(a) From acute angle to obtuse angle
(b) From obtuse angle to acute angle
(c) From obtuse angle to right angle
(d) From acute angle to right angle
947. A glass plate is partly dipped vertically in the mercury and the angle of contact is measured. If the plate is inclined, then the angle of
contact will
(a) Increase
(b) Remain unchanged
(c) Increase or decrease
(d) Decrease
948. The surface tension for pure water in a capillary tube experiment is
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g
2 hr
PHYSICS
(b)
2
hrg
(c)
rg
2h
(d)
hrg
2
949. If capillary experiment is performed in vacuum then for a liquid there
(a) It will rise
(b) Will remain same
(c) It will fall
(d) Rise to the top
950. A surface tension experiment with a capillary tube in water is repeated in an artificial satellite. Which is revolving around the earth, water
will rise in the capillary tube upto a height of
(a) 0.1 m
(c) 0.98 m
(b) 0.2 m
(d) Full length of the capillary tube
951. When a capillary is dipped in water, water rises to a height h. If the length of the capillary is made less than h, then
(a) The water will come out
(c) The water will not rise
(b) The water will not come out
(d) The water will rise but less than height of capillary
952. A long cylindrical glass vessel has a small hole of radius ‘r’ at its bottom. The depth to which the vessel can be lowered vertically in the
deep water bath (surface tension T) without any water entering inside is
(a) 4T/rg
(b) 3T/rg
(c) 2T/rg
(d) T/rg
953. Water rises to a height of 10cm in capillary tube and mercury falls to a depth of 3.112cm in the same capillary tube. If the density of
mercury is 13.6 and the angle of contact for mercury is 135 o , the ratio of surface tension of water and mercury is
(a) 1 : 0.15
(b) 1 : 3
(c) 1 : 6
(d) 1.5 : 1
954. Water can rise to a height h in a capillary tube lowered vertically into water. If the height of tube above the surface of water be l and l
< h, then water will rise in the capillary to a height
(a) h
(b) l
(c) l – h
(d) l + h
955. The height upto which water will rise in a capillary tube will be
(a) Maximum when water temperature is 4 o C
(b) Maximum when water temperature is 0 o C
(c) Minimum when water temperature is 4 o C
(d) Same at all temperatures
956. The exact expression for surface tension of liquid which rises up in the capillary tube is
(a)
T  rhdg / 2
(b)
T  rhdg / 2 cos 
(c)
T 
r(h  r / 3)dg
2
(d)
T 
r(h  r / 3)dg
2 cos 
957. If a wax coated capillary tube is dipped in water, then water in it will
(a) Rise up
(c) Sometimes rise and sometimes fall
(b) Depress
(d) Rise up and come out as a fountain
958. Capillaries made from various materials but having the same bore are dipped in the same liquid, then
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Liquid will not rise in any of them
Liquid will rise in all upto same height
Liquid will not rise in all upto same height
Liquid will rise in all and height of liquid columns will be inversely proportional to the density of material used
959. A straight capillary tube is immersed in water and the water rises to 5cm. If the capillary is bent as shown in figure then the height of
water column will be
(a) 5cm
h
(b) Less than 5cm
(c) Greater than 5cm
(d) 4 cos 
960. Water rises in a capillary tube through a height h. If the tube is inclined to the liquid surface at 30 o , the liquid will rise in the tube upto its
length equal to
h
(a)
2
(b) h
(c) 2h
(d) 4h
961. If a water drop is kept between two glass plates, then its shape is
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(a)
(b)
(c)
(d) None of these
962. When two soap bubbles of radius r1 and r2 (r2  r1 ) coalesce, the radius of curvature of common surface is
(a)
r2  r1
(b)
r2  r1
r1r2
(c)
r1r2
r2  r1
(d)
r2  r1
963. Two soap bubbles of radius 1cm and 2cm coalesce to form a single drop under isothermal conditions. The total energy possessed by them
if surface tension is 30 dyne cm–1, will be
(a) 400  ergs
(b) 600  ergs
(c) 1000  ergs
(d) 1200  ergs
(c)
(d)
964. In the above question, the radius of the bigger drop will be
(a)
3 cm
(b)
5 cm
7 cm
8 cm
965. In a U-tube the radii of two columns are respectively r1 and r2 and if a liquid of density d filled in it has level difference of h then the
surface tension of the liquid is
(a)
T
hdg
r2  r1
(b)
T 
(r2  r1 )hdg
2
(c)
T 
(r1  r2 )hdg
2
(d)
T
hdg (r1r2 )
2 r2  r1
r1
r2
h
966. The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid does not depend on
(a) Acceleration due to gravity
(b)
(c) Area of the bottom surface
Height of the liquid column
(d) Nature of the liquid
967. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface. Its radius doubles. If atmospheric pressure is equal to that of column
of water height H, then the depth of lake is
(a) H
(b) 2H
(c) 7H
(d) 8H
968. The volume of an air bubble becomes three times as it rises from the bottom of a lake to its surface. Assuming atmospheric pressure to
be 75 cm of Hg and the density of water to be 1/10 of the density of mercury, the depth of the lake is
(a) 5 m
(b) 10 m
(c) 15 m
(d) 20 m
969. The value of g at a place decreases by 2%. The barometric height of mercury
970.
(a) Increases by 2%
(b) Decreases by 2%
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases
Two stretched membranes of area 2 cm2 and 3 cm2 are placed in a liquid at the same depth. The ratio of pressures on them is
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 2 : 3
(d) 22 : 32
(c) 3 : 2
971. Three identical vessels are filled to the same height with three different liquids A, B and C ( A   B   C ) . The pressure at the base will
be
(a) Equal in all vessels
(b) Maximum in vessel A
(c) Maximum in vessel B
(d) Maximum in vessel C
972. Three identical vessels are filled with equal masses of three different liquids A, B and C ( A   B   C ) . The pressure at the base will
be
(a) Equal in all vessels
(b) Maximum in vessel A
(c) Maximum in vessel B
(d) Maximum in vessel C
973. A barometer kept in a stationary elevator reads 76 cm. If the elevator starts accelerating up the reading will be
(a) Zero
(b) Equal to 76 cm
(c) More than 76 cm
(d) Less than 76 cm
974. A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with water and is accelerated horizontally with an acceleration a towards right. Pressure is
(i) maximum at, and (ii) minimum at
A
D
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B
C
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(a) (i) B (ii) D
(b) (i) C (ii) D
(c) (i) B (ii) C
(d) (i) B (ii) A
975. A beaker containing a liquid is kept inside a big closed jar. If the air inside the jar is continuously pumped out, the pressure in the liquid
near the bottom of the liquid will
(a) Increases
increase
(b) Decreases
(c) Remain constant
(d) First
decrease
and
then
976. A barometer tube reads 76 cm of mercury. If the tube is gradually inclined at an angle of 60o with vertical, keeping the open end
immersed in the mercury reservoir, the length of the mercury column will be
(a) 152 cm
(b) 76 cm
(c) 38 cm
(d)
38 3 cm
977. A ring shaped tube contains two ideal gases with equal masses and molar masses M1  32 and M 2  28 . The gases are separated by
one fixed partition and another movable stopper S which can move freely without friction inside the ring. The angle  in degrees is
M1 M2
(a) 192

(b) 291
(c) 129
S
(d) 219
978. The height to which a cylindrical vessel be filled with a homogeneous liquid, to make the average force with which the liquid presses the
side of the vessel equal to the force exerted by the liquid on the bottom of the vessel, is equal to
(a) Half of the radius of the vessel
(b) Radius of the vessel
(c) One-fourth of the radius of the vessel
(d) Three-fourth of the radius of the vessel
979. A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross section contains mercury in both sides of its arms. A glycerin (density = 1.3 g/cm3) column of
(a) 10.4 cm
(b) 8.2 cm
Glycerine
length 10 cm is introduced into one of its arms. Oil of density 0.8 gm/cm3 is poured into the other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil
and glycerin are in the same horizontal level. Find the length of the oil column, Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3
Oil
h
10 cm
(c) 7.2 cm
(d) 9.6 cm
Mercury
980. There are two identical small holes of area of cross-section a on the opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid of density  . The
difference in height between the holes is h. Tank is resting on a smooth horizontal surface. Horizontal force which will has to be applied
on the tank to keep it in equilibrium is
(a) gh a
(b)
2 gh
a
(c)
2 agh
h
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gh
a
981. Two communicating vessels contain mercury. The diameter of one vessel is n times larger than the diameter of the other. A column of
water of height h is poured into the left vessel. The mercury level will rise in the right-hand vessel (s = relative density of mercury and 
= density of water) by
(a)
n 2h
(n  1)2 s
(b)
h
(n 2  1) s
(c)
h
(n  1)2 s
(d)
h
n2s
Water
h
Mercury
982. A triangular lamina of area A and height h is immersed in a liquid of density  in a vertical plane with its base on the surface of the liquid.
The thrust on the lamina is
(a)
1
A gh
2
(b)
1
A gh
3
(c)
1
A gh
6
(d)
2
A gh
3
983. Pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and the walls of the containing vessel. This
law was first formulated by
(a) Bernoulli
(b) Archimedes
984. A piston of cross-section area 100
(c) Boyle
cm2
is used in a hydraulic press to exert a force of
the other piston which supports an object having a mass 2000 kg. is
(a) 100 cm2
(b) 109cm2
(d) Pascal
107
dynes on the water. The cross-sectional area of
(c) 2 × 104cm2
(d) 2 × 1010cm2
985. A block of steel of size 5 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm is weighed in water. If the relative density of steel is 7, its apparent weight is
(a) 6 × 5 × 5 × 5 gf
(b) 4 × 4 × 4 × 7 gf
(c) 5 × 5 × 5 × 7 gf
(d) 4 × 4 × 4 × 6 gf
986. A body is just floating on the surface of a liquid. The density of the body is same as that of the liquid. The body is slightly pushed down.
What will happen to the body
(a) It will slowly come back to its earlier position
(b) It will remain submerged, where it is left
(c) It will sink
(d) It will come out violently
987. A uniform rod of density  is placed in a wide tank containing a liquid of density 0 (0  ) . The depth of liquid in the tank is half the
length of the rod. The rod is in equilibrium, with its lower end resting on the bottom of the tank. In this position the rod makes an angle
 with the horizontal
(a)
sin  
1
2
0 / 
(b)
sin  
1 0
.
2 
(c)
sin    / 0
(d)
sin   0 / 
988. A cork is submerged in water by a spring attached to the bottom of a bowl. When the bowl is kept in an elevator moving with
acceleration downwards, the length of spring
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged
(d) None of these
989. A cubical block of wood 10 cm on a side floats at the interface between oil and water with its lower surface horizontal and 4 cm below the
interface. The density of oil is 0 .6 gcm 1 . The mass of block is
(b) 607 g
(c) 760 g
Block
(a) 706 g
6 cm
4 cm
(d) 670 g
990. A solid sphere of density  ( > 1) times lighter than water is suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its base as shown in fig. If the
mass of the sphere is m then the tension in the string is given by
(a)
 1 

 mg
  
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(b) mg
mg
(c)
 1
(d)
(  1) mg
991. A spherical ball of radius r and relative density 0.5 is floating in equilibrium in water with half of it immersed in water. The work done in
pushing the ball down so that whole of it is just immersed in water is : (where  is the density of water)
(a)
5
r 4 g
12
(b)
0 . 5 rg
(c)
4 3
r g
3
(d)
2 4
r g
3
992. A hollow sphere of volume V is floating on water surface with half immersed in it. What should be the minimum volume of water poured
inside the sphere so that the sphere now sinks into the water
(a)
(b)
V/2
V/3
(c)
V/4
(d) V
993. A rectangular block is 5 cm × 5 cm × 10cm in size. The block is floating in water with 5 cm side vertical. If it floats with 10 cm side vertical,
what change will occur in the level of water?
(a) No change
(b) It will rise
(c) It will fall
994. A ball whose density is 0.4 ×
(a) 9 cm
(d) It may rise or fall depending on the density of block
103
kg/m3
falls into water from a height of 9 cm . To what depth does the ball sink
(b) 6 cm
995. Two solids A and B float in water. It is observed that A floats with
(c) 4.5 cm
(d) 2.25 cm
1
1
of its body immersed in water and B floats with
of its volume
2
4
above the water level. The ratio of the density of A to that of B is
(a) 4 : 3
(b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 1 : 2
996. A boat carrying steel balls is floating on the surface of water in a tank. If the balls are thrown into the tank one by one, how will it affect
the level of water
(a) It will remain unchanged (b) It will rise
(c) It will fall
(d) First it will first rise and then fall
997. Two pieces of metal when immersed in a liquid have equal upthrust on them; then
(a) Both pieces must have equal weights
(b) Both pieces must have equal densities
(c) Both pieces must have equal volumes
(d) Both are floating to the same depth
998. A wooden cylinder floats vertically in water with half of its length immersed. The density of wood is
(a) Equal of that of water
(b) Half the density of water
(c) Double the density of water
(d) The question is incomplete
999. If W be the weight of a body of density  in vacuum then its apparent weight in air of density  is
(a)
W

(b)


W   1



(c)
W


(d)


W 1  


1000. A block of ice floats on a liquid of density 1.2in a beaker then level of liquid when ice completely melt
(a) Remains same
(b) rises
(c) Lowers
(d) (A), (B) or (c)
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