Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
1) The specific term for the process of erythrocyte production is
2) The percentage of total cellular protein of a mature of
erythrocyte is
3) RBC chaperon molecules influence all of the following except
A) Cell division
B) Apoptosis
C) Heme development
D) Transcription
4) Transport of oxygen to the tissues and carbon from the tissues is
accomplished by
5) The primary source of erythropoietin in the unborn is
6) All of the following characteristics of erythropoietin are
accurate except
A) Glycoprotein hormone
B) Can cross the placental barrier between the mother and the fetus
C) First human heme hematopoietic growth factor to be identified
D) The gene growth for erythropoietin is located on chromosome 5
7) The predominant effect of erythropoietin is on
8) Erythropoietin interacts with ____ and thrombocytopoiesisstimulating factor to promote the production of
megakaryocytes.
A) IL-3
B) IL-1
C) GM-CSF
D) All of the above
Questions 9 and 10 Once a stem cell differentiates into the erythroid
cell line, an RBC matures through the nucleated cell stages in
__(9)__ to __(10)__ .
Questions 11 and 12 Most human stem cells are in the __(11)__
phase or __(12)__ phase of the cell cycle.
13) If regulated cessation of cell division preceding erythroblast
enucleation is interrupted, ____ develops.
14) One of the supravital stains is
Questions 15 and 16 After enucleation, normally a reticulocyte
remains in the bone marrow for __(15)__ days and in the
circulatory blood for about __(16)__.
Questions 17 and 18 In newborn infants, the reticulocyte ranges
from __(17)__ % to __(18)__ %.
19) When the RBC mass falls, it indicates ____ .
A) Decreased erythropoiesis
B) Shortened RBC life span
C) Hemoglobin deficiency
D) Both A and B
20) An elevated reticulocyte count is experienced when ____.
Erythropoiesis
95%
C
Heme + globin molecule
Liver
D
Committed erythroid cells
D
9. 4 days
10. 5 days
11. G0
12. G1
Macrocytic
New methylene blue
15. 2–3 days
16. 1 day
17. 2.5
18. 6.5
D
The body is trying to
maintain homeostasis
1
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
Questions 21 and 22 A premature baby has a __ (21)__ reticulocyde
count during the first 6 weeks of life with a(n) __(22)__
reticulocyde count later.
23) Stress reticulocytes remain in the circulatory blood for ____.
24) A condition of tissue hypoxia produces
Questions 25 and 26 In megaloblastic RBC maturation, DNA
synthesis is impaired and __(25)__ maturation lags behind
__(26)__ maturation.
Questions 27 and 28 ln megaloblastic anemia, impaired ability to
synthesize DNA results in __(27)__ and __(28)__.
29) Iron can be stored as
30) Hepcidin
A) Is secreted by the liver
B) Controls plasma iron concentration
C) Inhibits iron export by ferroportin
D) All of the above
31) Deviation from a normal mature appearance of an erythrocyte
can include a variation in ____.
A) Size
B) Shape
C) Kinds of inclusions
D) Both A and B
32) A macrocytic RBC is ____µm in size.
33) Macrocytosis is the result of _____________.
A) Depressed erythropoiesis
B) A defect in nuclear maturation
C) Increased erythropoietic stimulation
D) Both B and C
34) A microcytic RBC is ____µm in size.
35) Microcytosis is associated with ____.
21. Decreased
22. Increased
2 days
An increase in RBC
production
25. Nuclear
26. Cytoplasmic
27. Prolonged interphase
28. Delayed mitotic
division
Ferritin
D
D)
> 8.2
D)
<6.2
Decreased hemoglobin
synthesis
36) If a “blister cell” RBC ruptures, the cell fragments are called __. Schistocytes
37) Elliptocytes are associated with disorders such as _____.
Hereditary defect
38) Elliptocytes represent a _______ defect.
Loss of membrane
integrity
39) Spherocytes
D)
A) Occur as the ratio of surface area of RBC to volume of cell
contents
B) Occur because of loss of cell membrane
C) Exhibit premature cell destruction
D) All of the above
40) If a patient has thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, his or her Schistocytes
peripheral blood smear exhibits ___.
2
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
41) Stomatocytes result from an ____.
A) Increase in calcium ions
B) Increase in sodium ions in RBC cytoplasm
C) Increase in potassium ions in RBC cytoplasm
D) Both B and C
42) Target cells may
A) Result from excessive ration of membrane lipid to cell volume
B) Be related to a defect of maldistribution of hemoglobin
C) Occur as an artifact
D) All of the above
43) Hypochromia is commonly reported when the central pallor is
____ of an RBC’s diameter.
44) A reticulocyte ______.
A) Is equivalent to Wright-Giemsa–stained polychromatophilic
RBCs
B) Requires a supravital stain to be visible as thread-like netting
C) Is observable with Wright-Giemsa stain
D) Both A and B
45) Howell-Jolly bodies are observed in patients who have ___.
46) Pappenheimer bodies
47) Cabot rings are considered to be
48) Cabot rings can be seen in patients suffering from
A) Lead poisoning
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Hemolytic anemia
D) Both A and B
49) Microspherocytes are associated with
A) Storage phenomenon in recipients of a blood transfusion
B) Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)
C) Genetic disorders
D) Both A and B
50) Basophilic stippling
51) Howell-Jolly bodies are most frequently seen in ______.
52) Increased polychromatophilia is associated with
53) Hypochromia is associated with
D)
D)
>1/3
D)
Had their spleen removed
Represent aggregates of
mitochondria, ribosomes,
and iron particles
Microtubules from a
mitotic spindle
D)
D)
Represents granules of
RNA and ribosomes
Mature anuclear RBCs
Rapid blood regeneration
Deficient hemoglobin
content in RBCs
3
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
Fill in the table below with the correct staining results.
A= positive stain results
B=negative stain results
Staining Characteristics
Inclusion
Supravital
Wright-Giemsa
stain
stain
Basophilic stippling
54)
55)
Cabot rings
56)
57)
Howell-Jolly bodies
58)
59)
Polychromatophilia
60)
61)
Reticulocytes
62)
63)
Pappenheimer bodies
64)
65)
Heinz bodies
66)
NEG/POS
67) Dilutional anemia may occur in patients who are
68) In accelerated RBC destruction,
A) Hemolysis occurs
B) The bone marrow cannot keep up with the RBC loss
C) Excess amounts of iron are lost
D) Both A and B
69) Dyspnea means
Fill in the algorithm for anemia testing.
Clinical signs and symptoms: weakness, fatigue
↓
CBC with differential, _____(70)_____, ____(71)________
↓
Hemoglobin decreased < 13.0 g/dL male
Decreased < 12.0g/dL female
↓
CLASSIFICATION
Low MCV, MCHC N=MCV, MCHC
High MCV
_____72_____
____73____
____74___
75) Based on the categories of the pathophysiological basis of
anemia, select a representative example of an anemia of
impaired production.
A) Thalassemia
B) Iron deficiency
C) Anemia of chronic disorders
D) Both B and C
76) A major laboratory manifestation of anemia is
A) Decreased PCV
B) Decreased hemoglobin
C) Decreased RBC count
D) All of the above
54. A
55. A
56. B
57. A
58. A
59. A
60. B
61. A
62. A
63. B
64. A
65. A
66. A
Pregnant
D
To have difficulty
breathing
70. RBC indices
71. Reticulocyte
72. Iron deficiency
73. Anemia of chronic
disorders/inflammation
74. Vitamin B12
deficiency
D
D
4
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
77) When observing RBC morphology, the best area of the slide to
examine is
78) When observing blood morphology, if evaluating WBC relative
concentration, there should be 1 WBC for every ___RBCs.
79) When observing blood morphology, if evaluating platelet
concentration, there should be 1 platelet for every ___RBCs.
Match the Characteristics and Numerical Grading Scale.
80) 14. 0
81) 15. 1+
82) 16. 2+
83) 17. 3+
84) 18. 4+
Match the Descriptive Term with the Numerical Scale.
85) 19. 0
86) 20. 1+
87) 21. 2+
88) 22. 3+
89) 23. 4+
90) A bone marrow examination can reveal
#91-96: True or False: Supplementary laboratory workup for
anemia can include:
91) Culture of bone marrow
92) Sickle cell testing
93) Vitamin B12 assay
94) Fecal occult blood screening
95) Absolute WBC count
96) Fetal hemoglobin (Hb F)
97) The causes of anemia include
A. blood loss
B. impaired red cell production
C. accelerated red cell destruction
D. all of the above.
98) The clinical signs and symptoms of anemia can result from
A. diminished delivery of oxygen to the tissues
B. lowered hemoglobin concentration
C. increased blood volume
D. both A and B
99) What is a significant laboratory finding in anemia?
100) If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape
using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from
normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be
RBC barely overlapping
500–1,000
5–10
80. Normal appearance or
slight variation
81. More than occasional
numbers of abnormal
RBCs
82. Only small amount of
abnormality
83. Severe increase in
abnormal RBCs
84. Most severe state of
RBC abnormality
85. Normal
86. Few
87. Moderately increased
88. Many
89. Marked or marked
increase
Myeloid:erythroid ratio
F
T
T
T
F
T
D
D
Decreased hemoglobin
3+
5
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
101) Anemias can be categorized into
A. hemolytic types
B. blood loss types
C. impaired production types
D. all of the above
Following four statements T/F for this statement:
Acute blood loss produces ___.
102) Iron deficiency in a day
103) Blood volume disruption
104) An increased WBC count
105) An increased platelet count
Following four statements T/F:
Chronic blood loss is characterized by ___.
106) Blood volume disruption
107) Increased reticulocyte count
108) Increased WBC count
109) Increased platelet count
110) A loss of 20%–30% of blood volume represents _____mL.
Following four statements match the percentage of blood
volume loss with the respective symptoms.
111) 10%–20%
112) 20%–30%
113)
30%–40%
114) 40%–50%
115) A noticeable anemia does not develop until _____.
116) The reason that hemoglobin levels decrease in an acute
bleed is
117)
Severe acute bleeding can be fatal because of ___.
118)
The earliest hematological change in acute blood loss is
Questions 119-121: In an otherwise healthy person, increased
reticulocytes begin to reach circulation in _(119)___ to _(120)__
after acute blood loss and reach a maximum approximately
_(121)___ later.
Questions 122–123 It takes _(122)___ to _(123)__ for the WBC
count to return to normal after a significant acute blood loss.
It can take from ____(124)___hours to __(125)___ hours after an
acute blood loss to recognize the full extent of the blood loss.
D
F
T
T
T
F
T
F
F
1,000–1,500
Few or no symptoms
Asymptomatic (at
rest/recumbent), upright
position—hypotension
Recumbent—thirst,
shortness of breath
Irreversible shock
Storage iron is depleted
As the result of fluids
from tissues moving into
the circulating blood
Collapse of the circulatory
system
Transient decrease of
platelets
119. 72 hours
120. 5 days
121. 10 days
122.
123.
124.
125.
2 days
4 days
48
72
6
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
Case: A 60-year-old woman is seen in the clinic. She complains of
extreme fatigue and difficulty in breathing. Laboratory data are
Hemoglobin: 8.7 g/dL
Hematocrit: 25.5%
White cell count: 4.0 ×109/L
White cell differential:
Neutrophils: 65%
Lymphocytes: 31%
Monocytes: 4%
Red cell count: 1.97 × 1012/L
Platelet count: 134 × 109/L
Reticulocyte count: 0.3%
126) How would you classify this anemia in the above patient?
127) The most probable type of anemia in the above patient is
Case: A 90-year-old man is seen for an annual physical
examination. He complains of shortness of breath on exertion and is
often tired. His stool is black. Laboratory data are
Hemoglobin: 8.2 g/dL
Hematocrit: 30%
White cell count: 4.2 × 109/L
White cell differential:
Neutrophils: 60%
Lymphocytes: 31%
Monocytes: 7%
Eosinophils: 2%
Basophils: 0%
Red cell count: 4.0 × 1012/L
Platelet count: 300 × 109/L
Reticulocyte count: 1.2%
Stool occult blood: Positive
128) The most probable type of blood loss seen in the above
patient is
129) The anemia seen in the above patient is most likely caused
by what?
Acute blood loss
Iron deficiency anemia
Chronic
Blood loss from
gastrointestinal bleeding
7
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
Case: An 18-year-old woman has a 2-month history of difficulty in
breathing and extreme fatigue. She has been on a “fad” diet for the
past 6 months.
Physical examination revealed no enlargement of the spleen or
liver. Laboratory data are
Hemoglobin: 6.0 g/dL
Hematocrit: 18%
White cell count: 3.3 × 109/L
White cell differential:
Neutrophils: 10%
Lymphocytes: 80%
Monocytes: 10%
Red cell count: 2.00 × 1012/L
Platelet count: 13.0 × 109/L
Reticulocyte count: 0.6%
130) This patient’s difficulty in breathing and extreme tiredness
are most directly due to
131) The most probable type of anemia seen in this patient is
132) Aplastic anemia is a ____ anemia.
133) The major form of aplastic anemia is
134) What is not an iatrogenic agent related to inducing aplastic
anemia?
135) An infectious agent not currently implicated in inducing
aplastic anemia is
136) Aplastic anemia is more common in ____ than in other
geographic areas.
137) Activated cytotoxic T lymphocytes play a major role in
tissue damage in aplastic anemia partially because of the
secretion of ____.
A) Antibodies
B) IFN-α (alpha)
C) TNF
D) Both A and B
138) A possible specific marker of aplastic anemia is
139) The signs and symptoms of aplastic anemia include
A) Bleeding from thrombocytopenia
B) Infection from neutropenia
C) Manifestation of anemia
D) All of the above
140) The highest rate of malignant diseases or late clonal
hematological disease seen in long-term survivors of aplastic
anemia is
Low hemoglobin
Iron deficiency anemia
Hypoproliferative
Idiopathic
Cobalamin
Chicken pox
The Far East
D
An increased number of
CO4 + lymphocytes
D
Myelodysplastic
syndromes (MDS) and
Acute myelogenous
leukemia (AML)
8
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
141) If only one cell line is affected in aplastic anemia, it is the
142) . A diagnosis of severe aplastic anemia is made when at
least ____ of the three peripheral blood cell line values fall
below critical levels.
143) A critical value for platelet counts is
144) In aplastic anemia, the RDW is usually ____ in
nontransfused patients.
145) In aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia is typically ____.
146) In aplastic anemia, red blood cells are usually ____.
147) The prognosis for treated aplastic anemia patients is
148) Aplastic anemia patients treated with a combined protocol
have an estimate overall 5-year survival of ____.
149) Approximately 25%–30% of the cases of aplastic anemia in
children is
150) Diamond-Blackfan anemia is also known as
151)
The defect in Diamond-Blackfan anemia is
152) The overall long-term survival for Diamond-Blackfan
anemia patients is approximately ____%
153) In Diamond-Blackfan anemia, the defect appears to be in
the ____-committed progenitor cells.
154) The classic diagnostic criteria for DBA include
155)
DBA is characterized by ____.
156)
Fanconi anemia is expressed ____ in males and/than in
females.
157) A distinctive hematological characteristic of Fanconi
anemia is
158) The treatment of choice in Fanconi anemia is
159) Familial aplastic anemia is a subset of
160) Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood is characterized by
A) Moderate normocydic
B) Severe normocytic
C) Severe reticulocytopenia
D) All of the above
161) Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia is classified into ____
different types.
162) About one third of anemias in the elderly are due to ____.
A) Blood loss
B) Folate deficiency
C) B12 deficiency
D) All of the above
Red blood cells
Two
<20 x 109 per liter
Normal
Present
Normocytic,
monochromic
Poor
60%–90%
Fanconi anemia
Congenital hypoplastic
anemia
Related to a defect in
structural ribosomal
protein S19
65
Erythroid
Anemia prior to first
birthday
Progressive refractory
anemia
Twice as often
Progressive pancytopenia
Bone marrow transplant
Fanconi anemia
D
Four
D
9
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
163) In unexplained cases of iron deficiency anemia,
autoimmune gastritis represents ___ % to ___ % of cases.
164) In adults, the prevalence of anemias rises rapidly after age
165) Operational iron
A) Consists of iron used for oxygen binding
B) Is iron found in the heme portion of hemoglobin
C) Is iron found in the heme portion of myoglobin
D) All of the above
Breast milk contains about __(166)__ to __(167)__ mg of iron/liter.
168) Following the oral intake of iron, it is reduced by stomach
secretions to the _____ state.
169) Gastric secretions make iron available from hemoglobin
containing meat because of its _____.
170) When iron stores are depleted, serum ferritin concentrations
____.
171) In which stage of iron deficiency anemia are clinical signs
present?
172) Which stage of iron deficiency anemia has decreased bone
marrow stores?
173) In which stage of iron deficiency anemia is the hemoglobin
level normal in the circulating blood?
174) A hematology assay indicative of early stage 2 iron
deficiency anemia is
175) Select the alternate term for “pronormoblast.”
176) Select the alternate term for “rubricyte.”
177)
Select the alternate term for “metarubricyte.”
178) The lowest average normal hemoglobin level in children 6
to 12 years old is ____ g/dL.
179) The percentage of Hgb F at birth is ____ percent.
180) A useful tool to distinguish ACD/AOI from IDA is
181)
AOI (ACD) is characterized by
182) True or False? A characteristic associated with AOI is
inadequate production of EPO in response to anemia.
183) True or False? A characteristic associated with AOI is
impaired release of iron.
184) True or False? A characteristic associated with AOI is RBC
life span mildly shortened.
185) True or False? A characteristic associated with AOI is
attenuation in production of several proinflammatory cytokines.
186) True or False? A characteristic associated with AOI is that
CRP is not a surrogate marker.
20–27
50
D
166. 0.5
167. 1.0
Ferrous
Low (acidic) pH
Lower
Stage 3
Stage 1
Stage 2
Reticulocyte hemoglobin
content
Rubriblast
Polychromatophilic
normoblast
Orthochromic normoblast
13.5
55–90
Soluble transferrin
receptor
Increased hepcidin
production
False
True
True
False
False
10
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
187) A one third to one quarter decrease of patients with AOI
display
188) Bone marrow iron stores are ____ in AOI.
189) Comparative differences between IDA and AOI (ACD) are
____ ferritin in IDA.
190) Comparative differences between IDA and AOI (ACD) are
____ ferritin in AOI (ACD).
191) Megaloblastic anemia can be classified as:
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Cobalamin deficiency
C) Folic acid deficiency
D) All of the above
192) Red blood cells in megaloblastic anemia have:
Microcytic, hypochromia
193) Impaired maturation in megaloblastic anemia results in:
A) Thrombocytopenia
B) Neutrophilic hypersegmentation
C) Megakaryocyte fragments and giant platelets
D) All of the above
194) A genetic predisposition to pernicious anemia is significant
in:
195) Megaloblastic dyspoiesis occurs when:
D
196) The body requires about ___µg of vitamin B12 daily.
197) Storage amounts of folic acid would last about ___ weeks.
198) Absorption of folic acid can be challenged by
A) Oral contraceptives
B) Alcohol consumption
C) Some leukemia treatment drugs
D) All of the above
199) Medications that can contribute to vitamin B12 deficiency
include:
200) The pathological lesion associated with autoimmune
gastritis appears to be directed toward:
201) The development of autoimmune gastritis is associated with
202) The degree to which symptoms of pernicious anemia are
present ________correlated with the degree of anemia.
203) The most common megaloblastic anemia is
204) The typical mean corpuscular volume (MCV) in pernicious
anemia is ___fL.
The reticulocyte count in a treated pernicious anemia patient
(without IF antibody) can increase to peak levels of _(205)___% in
_(206)__ days.
Either increased or normal
Decreased
Normal or increased
D
An increased nuclear size
First-degree female
relatives
A deficiency of cobalamin
or folates exists
5
12–16
D
H2 receptor antagonists
Gastric parietal cells
T lymphocytes
May not be
Pernicious anemia
Over 95
205. 25
206. 5–8
11
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
207) In the bone marrow of a patient with pernicious anemia, the
red blood cells typically display:
A) Hypocellular changes
B) Small red blood cell precursors
C) Nuclear:cytoplasmic (N:C) asynchrony
D) Increased N:C
208) In the bone marrow of a patient with pernicious anemia,
white blood cells (granulocytes) typically display
A) N:C dissociation
B) Decreased overall size
C) Increased overall size
D) Both A and C
209) In follow-up megaloblastic anemia testing, a patient with a
B12 level >400 pg/mL with neurologic symptoms should be
tested for:
A successful response to treatment with vitamin B12 begins within
_(210)__hours in the bone marrow; the peripheral blood red blood
cell count begins to increase in _(211)___days.
In a successful response to treatment with vitamin B12, the
microhematocrit begins to increase in _____(212); the
microhematocrit will normalize within _____(213).
A successful response to vitamin B12 in pernicious anemia typically
displays an increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV) for the first
_(214)__ days and reaches the normal reference range in __(215)__
days.
216) Most neurologic symptoms in pernicious anemia show
maximum improvement in _____ months of initiation of
therapy.
217) The term megaloblastic refers to:
Nuclear:cytoplasmic
(N:C) asynchrony
D
Serum methylmalonic
acid (MMA) and
homocysteine
210. 8–12
211. 2–3
212. 1 week
213. 4–8 weeks
214. 3–4
215. 25–78
6
Abnormal marrow red
blood cell precursor
development + altered
DNA synthesis
218) Comparing megaloblastic anemias to iron deficiency anemia Increased
and anemia of chronic diseases, serum iron levels are
_________ in megaloblastic anemias.
219) Because of a prolonged premitotic interval, many cells
Serum lactic
never undergo mitosis; this produces extremely increased ____. dehydrogenase (LDH)
levels
220) The common denominator in hemolytic anemia is
D
A) Increased red blood cell destruction
B) Trapping of red blood cells in sinuses of spleen or liver
C) Decreased average normal life span of red blood cells
D) All of the above
12
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
Match the following red blood cell membrane alteration
characteristics.
221) Inherited hemolytic disorders
222) Acquired hemolytic disorders
223) Inherited hemolytic disorders may affect
A) Basic membrane structure
B) Red blood cell enzymes
C) Hemoglobin molecules within red blood cells
D) All of the above
224) A factor related to the ability of red blood cells to deform
and subsequently return to their original biconcave disc shape is
A) Structural and functional integrity of the membrane skeleton
B) Cytoplasmic viscosity
C) Cell surface area to volume ratio
D) All of the above
225) The major integral membrane protein that regulates
exchanges and facilitates transfer of CO2 from tissues to lungs
is
226) The major connecting protein linking the membrane
skeleton to the membrane bilayer is
227) Mutations in any of the genes coding for the major
membrane proteins can
A) Alter amount or function of expressed proteins
B) Compromise integrity of the membrane
C) Contribute to abnormal red blood cell morphology
D) All of the above
228) Inherited abnormalities in the skeletal protein network of the
red blood cell membrane can produce
A) Decreased membrane stability
B) Decreased cell flexibility
C) Deviation from normal discoid shape
D) All of the above
Match the characteristics with the form of hemolysis.
229) Intravascular
230) Extravascular
Match the following disorders with the appropriate category of
defect
231) Hereditary elliptocytosis
232) Methemoglobin reductase
233) Rh null disease
221. Intrinsic
222. Extrinsic
D
D
RBC band 3
Ankyrin
D
D
229. Activation of
complement by IgM or
IgG
230. Cell-mediated
phagocytosis of IgM- or
IgG-coated RBCs
231. Structural membrane
defect
232. RBC enzyme defect
233. Structural membrane
defect
13
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
Match the red blood cell (RBC) appearance with the appropriate
description.
234) Spherocyte
235) Elliptocyte
236) Stomatocyte
237) Acanthocyte
238) A hemolytic incident in nonblack patients with G6PD
deficiency can be precipitated by ingestion of
239) Methemoglobin is
A) Oxidized hemoglobin from the ferrous to ferric state
B) Manifested physically as cyanosis
C) Found in a low concentration in normal individuals
D) All of the above
Match an agent or condition associated with acquired hemolytic
anemia.
240) Immune mechanism
241) Physical agent
242) Chemicals, drugs, venoms
243) Most of the normal destruction of senescent red blood cells is
__________.
244) Select the appropriate characteristics for warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (AIHA). The optimal temperature of
reactivity is _____º C.
245) Select the appropriate characteristics for warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (AIHA). Associated class of immunoglobulin
is ____.
246) Select the appropriate characteristics for warm autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (AIHA). Site of hemolysis
247) Select the appropriate characteristics for cold autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (AIHA). The optimal temperature of
reactivity is _____º C.
248) Select the appropriate characteristics for cold autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (AIHA). Associated class of immunoglobulin
is ____.
249) Select the appropriate characteristics for cold autoimmune
hemolytic anemia (AIHA). Site of hemolysis
250) One of the most common monogenic diseases of man is ____.
A) Sickle cell disease
B) β-Thalassemia
C) Iron deficiency anemia
D) Both A and B
251) It is estimated that __% of the world population carries a
globin-gene mutation.
234. round, ball-shape
with no central pallor
235. an oval shape
236. named for the Greek
word meaning mouth or
mouth-like
237. irregularly shaped
membrane with a ragged
appearance
Fava beans and Quinine
D
240. Paroxysmal nocturnal
hemoglobinuria
241. Severe burns
242. Naphthalene
Extravascular
37
IgG
Extravascular
4
IgM
Intravascular
D
7
14
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
252) The Eastern Mediterranean and/or Middle East regions with
the highest number of patients with abnormal hemoglobin are
253) A defect in the rate of synthesis of globin chain is
254) Hemoglobinopathies ____have a hemolytic manifestation.
255) Approximately ___% of patients with hemoglobinopathy
demonstrate decreased RBC survival.
256) In order to be a sickle cell carrier,
A) At least one parent must be a carrier of the trait
B) Both parents could be carriers of the trait
C) One parent could have normal hemoglobin (A/A) genes
D) All of the above
257) Sickle cell anemia is the ____form of sickle cell disease.
258) Sickle cell carrier state confers a selective advantage to
patients with
259) Hemoglobin S polymers form when a state of
_________occurs.
260) Sickle red blood cells ________return to a normal discoid
shape if oxygen is received.
261) Vascular occlusion in sickle cell anemia can cause
A) Stroke
B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Loss of pulmonary and renal function
D) All of the above
262) The most common cause of death in children with sickle cell
disease is
263) In patients with SS hemoglobin, a cause of erythropoietic
suppression can be
264) Sickled RBCs appear in peripheral blood
265) Sickle cell patients with a chronic hemolytic state can exhibit
an uncorrected reticulocyte count of ___.
266) The mode of action of the drug, hydroxyurea, for the treatment
of sickle cell anemia
A) Stimulates the production of hemoglobin F
B) Selectively kills cells in the bone marrow
C) Has no known effect on gene expression
D) Both A and B
267) The goal of novel therapies can include
A) RBC hydration
B) Increased availability of nitric oxide
C) anti-inflammatory effects
D) All of the above
268) A patient with sickle cell anemia has ____ of hemoglobin S.
269) An outstanding characteristic seen in peripheral blood smears
of patients with hemoglobinopathies is
Cyprus and Bahrain
Thalassemia
May
25
D
Homozygous
P. faciparum
Deoxygenation
Can
D
Infection
Megaloblastic
erythropoiesis
Only in periods of acute
crisis
12%–25%
D
D
80%–98%
Targeting
15
Hematology TB Flashcards Unit 2
270) Patients with sickle cell trait (A/S) have ____ of hemoglobin
S.
271) The life expectancy of patients with A/S is _____ than that of
persons
with Hb A.
272) Very likely abnormalities associated with sickle cell trait
include
30%–40%
273) One of the most frequent hemoglobinopathies is
274) The incidence of Hg E thalassemia approaches ___% in many
regions of Southeast Asia.
275) Homozygous B-thal patients usually manifest symptoms
276) In B-thal, hemoglobin electrophoresis demonstrates
277) Second tier testing for thalassemia is
Hb E–β-thalassemia
60
Most cases of β-thalassemia are caused by __(278)__ but the major
cause of α-thalassemia is __(279) ___.
278)
A) Mutations at termination of a gene producing a long globin
chain
B) Total or partial depletion of a globin gene
C) Nonsense mutations
D) All of the above
279)
A) Mutations at termination of a gene producing a long globin
chain
B) Total or partial depletion of a globin gene
C) Nonsense mutations
D) Deletion of one or both α globin genes
About the same as
Splenic infarction at
altitudes > 10,000 ft
In infancy
None or decreased Hg A
Molecular diagnostic
testing
278. D
279. D
16