Review Practice Test
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1. The atomic mass of an element listed in the periodic table is the
a. relative atomic mass of the most abundant radioactive isotope.
b. average atomic mass.
c. relative atomic mass of the most abundant isotope.
d. mass number of the least abundant isotope.
2. An atom is electrically neutral because
a. neutrons balance the protons and electrons.
b. nuclear forces stabilize the charges.
c. the numbers of protons and neutrons are equal.
d. the numbers of protons and electrons are equal.
3. The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is its
a. Avogadro number.
c. average atomic mass.
b. atomic number.
d. mass number.
4. A nuclear particle that has about the same mass as a proton, but with no electrical charge, is called a(n)
a. neutron.
c. isotope.
b. nuclide.
d. electron.
5. How many protons, neutrons and electrons are in Zr +2?
a. 40, 40 and 40
c. 40, 51 and 40
b. 40, 51 and 42
d. 40, 51 and 38
6. Phosphorus-33 (atomic number 15) contains
a. 18 neutrons.
c. 33 protons.
b. 18 protons.
d. 33 neutrons.
7. An ____________ is an electrically charged atom.
a. atom
c. molecule
b. ion
d. isotope
8. Neon-22 contains 12 neutrons. It also contains
a. 22 electrons.
c. 10 protons.
b. 22 protons.
d. 12 protons.
9. An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is
a. 14.
c. 40.
b. 27.
d. 13.
10. The nucleus of an atom has all of the following characteristics except that it
a. contains nearly all of the atom's mass.
c. contains nearly all of the atom's volume.
b. is very dense.
d. is positively charged.
11. The atomic number of oxygen, 8, indicates that there are eight
a. oxygen nuclides.
b. protons in the nucleus of an oxygen atom.
c. energy levels in the oxygen atom's nucleus.
d. neutrons outside the oxygen atom's nucleus.
12. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different
a. principal chemical properties.
c. numbers of protons.
b. masses.
d. numbers of electrons.
13. Atoms of the same element can differ in
____ 14.
____ 15.
____ 16.
____ 17.
____ 18.
____ 19.
____ 20.
____ 21.
a. chemical properties.
c. atomic number.
b. number of protons and electrons.
d. mass number.
The electron notation for aluminum is
a. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 2d1.
b. 1s2 2s2 2p9.
c. 1s2 2s2 2p3 3s2 3p3 3d1.
d. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1.
The element with electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2 is
a. C
c. Si
b. Mg
d. S
According to the quantum theory of an atom, in an orbital
a. electrons cannot be found.
b. an electron's position cannot be known precisely.
c. an electron has no energy.
d. electrons travel around the nucleus on paths of specific radii.
The distance between two successive peaks on adjacent waves is its
a. wavelength.
c. quantum number.
b. frequency.
d. velocity.
Bohr's theory helped explain why
a. most of the mass of the atom is in the nucleus.
b. electrons have negative charge.
c. excited hydrogen gas gives off certain colors of light.
d. atoms combine to form molecules.
The change of an atom from an excited state to the ground state always results in
a. an increase in electron energy.
b. release of visible light.
c. absorption of energy.
d. emission of electromagnetic radiation.
What color light will be emitted by a hydrogen atom when an electron transitions from n=5 to n=2?
a. Green
c. Red
b. Violet
d. Blue
A student doing a flame test in a lab records the following data. When an unknown compound is burned the
student observes a violet flame. Which element is most likely in the unknown compound?
Flame Lab Data
Element Color Flame
Lithium
Red
Calcium
Orange
Copper
Green
Potassium Violet
a. Potassium
c. Copper
b. Lithium
d. Calcium
____ 22. If electrons in an atom have the lowest possible energies, the atom is in the
a. radiation-emitting state.
c. excited state.
b. inert state.
d. ground state.
____ 23. The Bohr model of the atom was an attempt to explain hydrogen's
a. line-emission spectrum.
c. mass.
b. flammability.
d. density.
____ 24. According to the Bohr model of the atom, the single electron of a hydrogen atom circles the nucleus
a. in one fixed orbit at all times.
b. in specific, allowed orbits.
c. counterclockwise.
d. at any of an infinite number of distances, depending on its energy.
____ 25. A horizontal row of blocks in the periodic table is called a(n)
a. octet.
c. family.
b. period.
d. group.
____ 26. Elements in a group or column in the periodic table can be expected to have similar
a. atomic numbers.
c. numbers of neutrons.
b. atomic masses.
d. properties.
____ 27. What are the elements with atomic numbers from 58 to 71 called?
a. the alkali metals
c. the noble gases
b. the actinides
d. the lanthanides
____ 28. What are the radioactive elements with atomic numbers from 90 to 103 called?
a. the noble gases
c. the lanthanides
b. the rare-earth elements
d. the actinides
____ 29. Argon, krypton, and xenon are
a. actinides.
c. noble gases.
b. lanthanides.
d. alkaline earth metals.
____ 30. The most reactive group of the nonmetals is the
a. lanthanides.
c. noble gases.
b. transition elements.
d. halogens.
____ 31. The most characteristic property of the noble gases is that they
a. have low boiling points.
b. are largely unreactive.
c. are radioactive.
d. are gases at ordinary temperatures.
____ 32. Hydrogen is placed separately from other elements in the periodic table because it
a. is a gas.
b. has many unique properties.
c. has atomic number one.
d. does not exist as a free element in nature.
____ 33. The group of soft, silvery, reactive metals, all of which have one electron in an s orbital, is known as the
a. transition metals.
c. alkali metals.
b. alkaline-earth metals.
d. metalloids.
____ 34. Compared to the alkali metals, the alkaline-earth metals
a. are less dense.
b. combine more readily with nonmetals.
c. have lower melting points.
d. are less reactive.
____ 35. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is the atom's
a. electronegativity.
c. ionization energy.
b. electron energy.
d. electron affinity.
____ 36. A measure of the ability of an atom in a chemical compound to attract electrons from another atom in the
compound is called
a. electron affinity.
c. electron configuration.
b. electronegativity.
d. ionization potential.
____ 37. The element that has the greatest electronegativity is
a. oxygen.
c. fluorine.
b. sodium.
d. chlorine.
____ 38. Elements to the right side of the periodic table (p-block elements) have properties most associated with
a. metalloids.
c. nonmetals.
b. gases.
d. metals.
____ 39. Within a group of elements, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius
a. decreases regularly.
b. varies unpredictably.
c. remains approximately constant.
d. increases.
____ 40. The attraction an atom has for electrons when it is in a chemical bond is called ________.
a. ionization energy
c. electron attraction
b. atomic radii
d. electronegativity
____ 41. In a row in the periodic table, as the atomic number increases, the atomic radius generally
a. becomes immeasurable.
c. remains constant.
b. decreases.
d. increases.
____ 42. What does the 4 in
represent?
a. the mass number
c. the number of protons
b. the atomic number
d. the number of neutrons
____ 43. What does the 218 in polonium-218 represent?
a. the mass number
c. the mass defect
b. the atomic number
d. the neutron number
____ 44. Reactions that affect the nucleus of an atom are called
a. fusions.
c. radioactive decays.
b. fissions.
d. nuclear reactions.
____ 45. Balance the following equation:
a.
+ ____
c.
b.
____ 46. Balance the following equation:
a.
d.

+
c.
b.
____ 47. Balance the following equation:
a.
b.
____ 48. Balance the following equation:
a.
b.
+ ____
d.
+ ____
+
c.
d.
____ +
c.
d.
____ 49. Which of the following forms of radiation has the greatest penetrating power?
a. alpha particles
c. gamma rays
b. beta particles
d. positrons
____ 50. Alpha particles are
a. electrons.
c. electromagnetic waves.
b. helium nuclei.
d. neutrons.
____ 51. Beta particles are
a. electrons.
c. electromagnetic waves.
b. helium nuclei.
d. neutrons.
____ 52. Gamma rays are
a. electrons.
c. electromagnetic waves.
b. helium nuclei.
d. neutrons.
____ 53. Which of the following is the symbol for an alpha particle?
a.
c.
b.
d.
____ 54. Which of the following is the nuclear symbol for a beta particle?
a.
c.
b.
d.
____ 55. The half-life of an isotope is the time required for half the nuclei in a sample to
a. undergo radioactive decay.
c. undergo nuclear fusion.
b. undergo nuclear fission.
d. react chemically.
____ 56. How many half-lives are required for three-fourths of the nuclei of one isotope in a sample to decay?
a.
c. 2
b.
d. 3
____ 57. What is the half-life of an isotope if 125 g of a 500 g sample of the isotope remain after 3.0 years?
a. 1.5 years
c. 3.5 years
b. 2.5 years
d. 4.5 years
____ 58. Which of the following generally have the lowest penetrating ability?
a. alpha particles
c. gamma rays
b. beta particles
d. All have the same penetrating ability.
____ 59. Which of the illustrations below represents a fission reaction?
____ 60.
____ 61.
____ 62.
____ 63.
____ 64.
____ 65.
____ 66.
____ 67.
a. A
c. C
b. B
d. D
The electrons involved in the formation of a chemical bond are called
a. dipoles.
c. Lewis electrons.
b. s electrons.
d. valence electrons.
If two covalently bonded atoms are identical, the bond is
a. nonpolar covalent.
c. dipole covalent.
b. polar covalent.
d. coordinate covalent.
When atoms share electrons, the electrical attraction of an atom for the shared electrons is called the atom's
a. electron affinity.
c. resonance.
b. electronegativity.
d. hybridization.
If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called
a. nonpolar.
c. ionic.
b. polar.
d. dipolar.
What are shared in a covalent bond?
a. ions
c. electrons
b. Lewis structures
d. dipoles
The B—F bond in BF3 (electronegativity for B is 2.0; electronegativity for F is 4.0) is
a. polar covalent.
c. nonpolar covalent.
b. ionic.
d. metallic.
The electron configuration of nitrogen is 1s2 2s2 2p3. How many more electrons does nitrogen need to satisfy
the octet rule?
a. 1
c. 5
b. 3
d. 8
What group of elements satisfies the octet rule without forming compounds?
a. halogen
c. alkali metal
b. noble gas
d. alkaline-earth metal
____ 68. In metals, the valence electrons
a. are attached to particular positive ions.
c. are immobile.
b. are shared by all of the atoms.
d. form covalent bonds.
____ 69. According to VSEPR theory, an AB2 molecule is
a. trigonal-planar.
c. linear.
b. tetrahedral.
d. octahedral.
____ 70. According to VSEPR theory, the shape of an AB3 molecule is
a. trigonal-planar.
c. linear.
b. tetrahedral.
d. bent.
____ 71. According to VSEPR theory, the structure of the ammonia molecule, NH3, is
a. trigonal-planar.
c. trigonal-pyramidal.
b. bent.
d. tetrahedral.
____ 72. Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the hydrogen chloride molecule, HCl.
a. tetrahedral
c. bent
b. linear
d. trigonal-planar
____ 73. Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the carbon tetraiodide molecule, CI4.
a. tetrahedral
c. bent
b. linear
d. trigonal-planar
____ 74. Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of carbon dioxide, CO2.
a. tetrahedral
c. bent
b. linear
d. octahedral
____ 75. Compared with molecular bonds, the strength of intermolecular forces is
a. weaker.
c. about the same.
b. stronger.
d. too variable to compare.
____ 76. The following molecules contain polar bonds. The only polar molecule is
a. CCl4.
c. NH3.
b. CO2.
d. CH4.
____ 77. Which compound would have intermolecular forces due to london dispersion
a. CO2
c. NH3
b. HCl
d. H2O
____ 78. What is the formula for zinc fluoride?
a. ZnF
c. Zn2F
b. ZnF2
d. Zn2F3
____ 79. What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions?
a. CaCl
c. CaCl3
b. Ca2Cl
d. CaCl2
____ 80. What is the formula for the compound formed by lead(II) ions and chromate ions?
a. PbCrO4
c. Pb2(CrO4)3
b. Pb2CrO4
d. Pb(CrO4)2
____ 81. Name the compound Ni(ClO3)2.
a. nickel(II) chlorate
c. nickel(II) chlorite
b. nickel(II) chloride
d. nickel(II) peroxide
____ 82. Name the compound Zn3(PO4)2.
a. zinc potassium oxide
c. zinc phosphate
b. trizinc polyoxide
d. zinc phosphite
____ 83. Name the compound KClO3.
a. potassium chloride
c. potassium chlorate
b. potassium trioxychlorite
d. hypochlorite
____ 84. Name the compound CF4.
a. calcium fluoride
b. carbon fluoride
____ 85. Name the compound SiO2.
a. silver oxide
b. silicon oxide
____ 86. Name the compound SO3.
a. sulfur trioxide
b. silver trioxide
____ 87. What is the formula for silicon dioxide?
a. SO2
b. SiO2
____ 88. What is the formula for dinitrogen trioxide?
a. Ni2O3
b. NO3
____ 89. What is the formula for sulfur dichloride?
a. SCl
b. SCl2
____ 90. What is the formula for hydrochloric acid?
a. HF
b. HCl
c. carbon tetrafluoride
d. monocalcium quadrafluoride
c. silicon dioxide
d. monosilver dioxide
c. selenium trioxide
d. sodium trioxide
c. Si2O
d. S2O
c. N2O6
d. N2O3
c. S2Cl
d. S2Cl2
c. HClO
d. H2CO3
Review Practice Test
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS:
OBJ:
2. ANS:
OBJ:
3. ANS:
OBJ:
4. ANS:
OBJ:
5. ANS:
6. ANS:
OBJ:
7. ANS:
8. ANS:
OBJ:
9. ANS:
OBJ:
10. ANS:
OBJ:
11. ANS:
OBJ:
12. ANS:
OBJ:
13. ANS:
OBJ:
14. ANS:
OBJ:
15. ANS:
OBJ:
16. ANS:
OBJ:
17. ANS:
OBJ:
18. ANS:
OBJ:
19. ANS:
OBJ:
20. ANS:
21. ANS:
22. ANS:
OBJ:
23. ANS:
OBJ:
24. ANS:
B
2
D
3
D
2
A
3
D
A
3
B
C
3
B
3
C
3
B
2
B
1
D
2
D
3
C
3
B
3
A
2
C
4
D
4
D
A
D
4
A
4
B
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 3
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
OBJ: 4
25. ANS: B
OBJ: 4
26. ANS: D
OBJ: 4
27. ANS: D
OBJ: 2
28. ANS: D
OBJ: 2
29. ANS: C
End of Chm 1.3.1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
ANS: D
OBJ: 4
ANS: B
OBJ: 4
ANS: B
OBJ: 2
ANS: C
OBJ: 4
ANS: D
End of Chm 1.3.2
DIF: I
PTS: 1
REF: 1
DIF: I
OBJ: 2
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
35. ANS: C
OBJ: 1
36. ANS: B
OBJ: 1
37. ANS: C
OBJ: 2
38. ANS: C
OBJ: 2
39. ANS: D
OBJ: 2
40. ANS: D
41. ANS: B
End of Chm 1.3.3
DIF: II
PTS: 1
REF: 2
DIF: I
OBJ: 4
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 3
DIF: II
PTS: 1
REF: 3
DIF: I
OBJ: 2
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
PTS:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
OBJ:
ANS:
1
A
1
A
1
D
4
B
4
B
PTS: 1
OBJ: 4
47. ANS: C
OBJ: 4
48. ANS: C
OBJ: 4
49. ANS: C
OBJ: 2
50. ANS: B
OBJ: 2
51. ANS: A
OBJ: 2
52. ANS: C
OBJ: 2
53. ANS: D
OBJ: 2
54. ANS: C
OBJ: 2
55. ANS: A
OBJ: 3
56. ANS: C
Solution:
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
57. ANS: A
Solution:
DIF: I
REF: 2
OBJ: 3
PTS:
58. ANS:
OBJ:
59. ANS:
OBJ:
60. ANS:
OBJ:
61. ANS:
OBJ:
62. ANS:
DIF: III
PTS: 1
REF: 2
DIF: I
OBJ: 3
REF: 3
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 4
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
1
A
1
D
1
D
1
A
3
B
OBJ:
63. ANS:
OBJ:
64. ANS:
OBJ:
65. ANS:
OBJ:
66. ANS:
OBJ:
67. ANS:
OBJ:
68. ANS:
OBJ:
69. ANS:
OBJ:
70. ANS:
OBJ:
71. ANS:
OBJ:
72. ANS:
OBJ:
73. ANS:
OBJ:
74. ANS:
OBJ:
75. ANS:
OBJ:
76. ANS:
OBJ:
77. ANS:
78. ANS:
OBJ:
79. ANS:
OBJ:
80. ANS:
OBJ:
81. ANS:
OBJ:
82. ANS:
OBJ:
83. ANS:
OBJ:
84. ANS:
OBJ:
85. ANS:
OBJ:
86. ANS:
OBJ:
3
B
3
C
3
B
5
B
3
B
3
B
1
C
1
A
1
C
2
B
2
A
2
B
2
A
4
C
5
A
B
2
D
2
A
2
A
3
C
3
C
3
C
4
C
4
A
4
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 2
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 4
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: I
REF: 5
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 5
PTS: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: III
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
87. ANS:
OBJ:
88. ANS:
OBJ:
89. ANS:
OBJ:
90. ANS:
OBJ:
B
5
D
5
B
5
B
5
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1
PTS: 1
DIF: II
REF: 1