LEVEL ONE MODULE EXAM – PART TWO
[Reliability Coefficients – CAPs & CATs – Patient Reported Outcomes Assessments – Disablement Model]
1. Which “Model” for intraclass correlation coefficients is used when the raters represent the only raters
of interest for the reliability study?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2. The “form” for intraclass correlation coefficients that is used when a measurement does not report
consistent results is “1”.
A. True
B. False
3. Which of the following is a characteristic associated with the Kappa Statistic?
A. Used for the assessment of interval data
B. Used for assessment of nominal data
C. Used for more than 2 raters
D. Used to assess validity of a measure
4. Which ICC equation is applicable when the raters are randomly chosen from a larger population of
raters, each subject is assessed by the same rater, and the mean of several recordings of a measure is
used?
A. 1,k
B. 1,1
C. 2,k
D. 2,1
5. An ICC value that is closer to 1.00 corresponds to stronger reliability.
A. True
B. False
6. The Kappa statistic focuses on agreement for nominal (categorical) data.
A. True
B. False
7. Which “Model” for intraclass correlation coefficients is rarely useful in clinical reliability studies?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
8. Which statistic would be used to assess the proportion of agreement between raters when evaluating
presence or absence of a condition?
A. Percent Agreement
B. Intraclass Correlation Coefficient
C. Kappa Statistic
D. Interclass Correlation Coefficient
LEVEL ONE MODULE EXAM – PART TWO
[Reliability Coefficients – CAPs & CATs – Patient Reported Outcomes Assessments – Disablement Model]
9. Which of the following ICC values corresponds to a “moderate reliability” interpretation?
A. 0.00 – 0.50
B. 0.51 – 0.75
C. 0.76 – 0.90
D. 0.91 – 1.00
10. Which ICC equation is applicable when the raters used are the only ones of interest, the same raters
assess each subject, and the reliability of a single measure is assessed?
A. 1,1
B. 2,1
C. 3,1
D. 4,1
11. Which Kappa statistic value below would fit into the “substantial agreement” category?
A. 0.58
B. 0.75
C. 0.85
D. 0.90
12. How many research studies are analyzed in a CAP?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
13. What is the purpose of the “Clinical Scenario” in a CAT?
A. To apply the findings to a patient
B. To compare studies on a particular condition
C. To decide a course of action
D. To provide an introduction to the topic
14. Which of the following types of validity is defined by the degree to which the results from a sample
group can be generalized to a larger population?
A. Internal validity
B. External validity
C. Predictive validity
D. Statistical validity
15. What is the purpose of the “Clinical Bottom Line” section of the CAP?
A. Assesses the validity of the study
B. Compares the results of the study to other studies
C. Summarizes how the study relates to the clinical question
D. Summarizes the feasibility of applying the study results to a broader spectrum of patients
LEVEL ONE MODULE EXAM – PART TWO
[Reliability Coefficients – CAPs & CATs – Patient Reported Outcomes Assessments – Disablement Model]
16. What symbol is used to designate the experimental intervention in the “Summary of Key Evidence”
section of a CAP?
A. O
B. R
C. T
D. X
17. A CAT can provide a detailed synthesis of multiple peer-reviewed articles regarding a similar
intervention and methodology.
A. True
B. False
18. In assessing the “Level of Evidence” of a CAP, which rating would be considered higher on the CEBM
scale?
A. 1b
B. 2a
C. 4
D. 5
19. Which part of the CAT would include the Boolean operators inserted between two terms?
A. Results of the search
B. Search strategy
C. Search validity
D. Summary of search
20. The use of tables and charts are typically used in a CAP.
A. True
B. False
21. Which term best describes the ability of a patient-reported outcome instrument to represent all of
the components which it is intended to assess?
A. Applicability
B. Comprehensiveness
C. Precision
D. Reliability
22. Which of the following is an advantage of using a “generic” patient-reported outcome?
A. Can be used with a wide variety of patients
B. Detailed assessment of a particular area of concern
C. More likely to detect changes across time with a treatment
D. Relevant for a specific condition
23. Which of the following is an example of a “specific” patient-reported outcomes scale?
A.Lower Extremity Functional Scale
B. Pediatric Quality of Life Inventory
C. Short Form 36
D. Sickness Impact Profile
LEVEL ONE MODULE EXAM – PART TWO
[Reliability Coefficients – CAPs & CATs – Patient Reported Outcomes Assessments – Disablement Model]
24. Which of the following characteristics of a patient-reported outcome can be influenced by day-today variations in patients?
A. Applicability
B. Comprehensiveness
C. Practicality
D. Reliability
25. When determining “applicability” of a patient-reported outcome, which of the following should be a
consideration?
A. The ability to discriminate between patients
B. That norms are established for your patient
C. That the scale is scored easily
D. A and B
26. What is the best term to describe the ability of a patient-reported outcome to detect change over
the course of a treatment?
A. Applicability
B. Practicality
C. Reliability
D. Responsiveness
27. Which of the following scales would be best used to capture a broad range of health status
concerns?
A. Asthma Quality of Life Scale
B. Child Health Questionnaire
C. Lower Extremity Functional Scale
D. McGill Pain Questionnaire
28. What would a patient-reported outcome be considered if it measures what it is intended to
measure?
A. Applicable
B. Precise
C. Reliable
D. Valid
29. In clinical practice, it is best to administer more than one type of patient-reported outcome to obtain
the most information regarding the patient.
A. True
B. False
30. Which of the following types of scales may not be able to assess changes to a patient’s healthrelated quality of life?
A. Disease specific
B. Generic
C. Region specific
D. A and C
LEVEL ONE MODULE EXAM – PART TWO
[Reliability Coefficients – CAPs & CATs – Patient Reported Outcomes Assessments – Disablement Model]
31. Which level of disablement would include clinician tasks of manual muscle and range of motion
testing?
A. Origin
B. Organ
C. Person
D. Societal
32. Which of the following aspects of disablement refers to the impact of acute or chronic conditions?
A. Day to day functioning
B. Human performance
C. Societal expectations
D. All of the above
33. Disablement models promote a common language between healthcare providers.
A. True
B. False
34. Which level of disablement would the inability to throw a baseball would fall under?
A. Origin
B. Organ
C. Person
D. Societal
35. Assessment at the organ level requires the use of both clinician- and patient-based outcomes.
A. True
B. False
36. Which level of disablement is typically assessed using self-report patient outcomes?
A. Organ
B. Person
C. Societal
D. B and C
37. What level of disablement involves understanding how an individual’s injury has affected his/her
athletic participation role(s)?
A. Origin
B. Organ
C. Person
D. Societal
38. Understanding how personal and environmental factors influence a patient’s perception of
disablement is not important in directing treatment.
A. True
B. False
LEVEL ONE MODULE EXAM – PART TWO
[Reliability Coefficients – CAPs & CATs – Patient Reported Outcomes Assessments – Disablement Model]
39. Which level of disablement identifies the pathology of injury?
A. Origin
B. Organ
C. Person
D. Societal