NEONATOLOGY Care of the Normal Newborn
Question 1 (20 points)
The first steps in resuscitation of the newborn include all of the following, except:
a. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer.
b. Drying the infant to prevent evaporation heat loss.
c. Positioning to open the airway.
d. Gently suctioning the mouth followed by suctioning the nares to prevent gasp
aspirations.
e. Weighing the baby to assure accurate drug dosages.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 2 (20 points)
Hyperbilirubinemia occurs frequently in the normal newborn. Each of the following is a true
statement, except:
a. Exaggeration of the enterohepatic shunt may explain both the early and the late
jaundice associated with breast feeding.
b. The aggressive use of phototherapy in healthy full-term infants with nonhemolytic
jaundice does not seem to be indicated when the total bilirubin is <20 mg/dL.
c. Sick premature infants who have hyperbilirubinemia due to hemolysis are at the
highest risk for developing bilirubin encephalitis.
d. Bacterial sepsis, syphilis, hypothyroidism, and early galactosemia may cause an elevated
direct bilirubin level.
e. The initial workup for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia should include total and direct
bilirubin levels, complete blood count, Coombs test, and testing of urine for reducing substance.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 3 (20 points)
After the newborn infant is stabilized, which of the following procedures is not indicated?
Student response: Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Ocular Prophylaxis against gonococcal disease and chlamydia.
b. Umbilical cord examination and care and vitamin K injection
c. Review of the mother's hepatitis status and serology
d.
Maturational assessment (Ballard scale), done between 30 and 45 min of age.
e. Facilitation of early parent child interaction
Score: 20 / 20
Question 4 (20 points)
Each of the following statements is false, except:
a. Small-for-gestational age infants have a lower metabolic rate than those of the same
weight who are appropriate for gestational age
b. Premature infants of less than 341/2 weeks gestation are at increased risk for apnea and
bradycardia
c. Preterm ifants are those of less than 37 weeks gestation and a birthweight of <2500 g
d. The differential diagnosis for the large-for-gestation age infant includes maternal
diabetes, maternal thyroid disease, and maternal obesity
e. Cycles of pauses of 5 to 10 sec, followed by hyperpnea (eg. periodic breathing), is a
precursor to apnea and bradycardia.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 5 (20 points)
Each of the following statements is true, except:
a. Bilious vomiting in the new born sometimes may be normal and due to an active
antiperistaltic reflex
b. Infants with confirmed sepsis or meningitis should have a brainsterm auditory evoked
response examination.
c. Ninety-nine percent of normal, full-term infants will urinate by 24 h of age
d. All infants of less than 35 weeks' gestation or who weigh <1800 g at birth and who
received oxygen therapy for at least 6 h require an ophthalmologic examination for retinopathy
of prematurity at 4 to 8 wk of age
e. Hypoglycemia is a blood glucose measurement of <40 to 45 mg/dl, regardless of
gestational age
Score: 20 / 20
Total score: 100 / 100 = 100.0%
Respiratory ALTE and Home Monitors
Question 1 (20 points)
Which of the following statements regarding apparent life-threatening events (ALTEs) is true?
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. An apparent cause almost always is discovered during the detailed history and physical
examination.
b. Home event monitors have been shown to reduce the incidence of ALTEs.
c. Infants who have a history of ALTE are at higher risk of SIDS.
d. Many infants who experience an ALTE have normal physical examination findings when
brought to medical attention.
e. Preterm infants are proven to be at higher risk for ALTEs than are term infants.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 2 (20 points)
Which of the following is a risk factor for ALTE?
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Family history of ALTE.
b. Female sex.
c. Maternal smoking.
d. Pacifier use.
e. Prone sleeping position.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 3 (20 points)
A worried mother brings in her 3-week-old son because he turned blue for 30 seconds and
appeared not to be breathing during that time. Your history reveals that he is a slow eater who
often sweats during feedings. Physical examination reveals mild tachycardia and slightly
weakened peripheral pulses. Of the following, the test that is most likely to reveal the cause of
his ALTE is:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Complete blood count.
b. Computed tomography scan of the head.
c. Echocardiography.
d. Multichannel pneumogram.
e. Urine culture.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 4 (20 points)
A young couple brings their 4-week-old daughter to the emergency department because she
stopped breathing while feeding. They report that they initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation
but were unable to get a response from her. The infant is apneic, cyanotic, and limp. You also
note on physical examination that her left arm and left leg are bruised. After you intubate her
and gain intravenous access, you consider the differential diagnosis of apnea. Of the following,
the test that is most important to obtain to determine the cause of the infant's apneic event is:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Ammonia measurement.
b. Chest radiography.
c. Computed tomography scan of the head.
d. Electrocardiography.
e. Upper gastrointestinal radiographic series.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 5 (20 points)
You are evaluating a 6-week-old boy who was brought to your clinic by his mother after a
choking episode several hours earlier. She reports that shortly after feeding, he coughed and
appeared to be choking and gasping for breath for 5 seconds. The episode resolved, and he has
been breathing normally since. He is a well-appearing, alert infant who has normal vital signs
and no fever. Except for mild nasal congestion, his physical examination findings are normal. His
mother reports that he spits up occasionally. Of the following, the most appropriate
management of this patient's ALTE is:
a. Admission to the hospital for a 48-hour observation without laboratory evaluation.
b. Admission to the short-stay unit for 24 hours of continuous cardiorespiratory and
pulse oximetry monitoring.
c. Discharge from the clinic with an apnea monitor for 2 months.
d. Education of the mother and discharge from the clinic with gastroesophageal reflux
precautions.
e. Full sepsis evaluation, including lumbar puncture, and admission to the hospital for
administration of intravenous antibiotics.
Score: 20 / 20
Total score: 100 / 100 = 100.0%
Cognition: Recognition of Autism Before Age 2 Years
Question 1 (25 points)
Differences in pointing behaviors, as an example of "joint attention," may be used in
descriptions of children believed to have autism. Mature joint attention is demonstrated best
with a point whose purpose is to:
a.
Comment.
b. Direct.
c. Distract.
d. Label.
e. Request.
Score: 25 / 25
Question 2 (25 points)
Of the following, the best DSM-IV-TR-based criteria to identify children younger than 2 years of
age who have autism are:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Abnormal conversational skills and stereotypic language.
b. Delay in achieving speech and language milestones.
c. Failure to form age-appropriate peer relationships.
d. Impairment in use of nonverbal behaviors.
e. Ritualistic behaviors and need for routine.
Score: 25 / 25
Question 3 (25 points)
The failure of an 18-month-old child who has autism to respond to his or her name when called
is believed to be the result of deficits in:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Auditory processing.
b. Cognition.
c. Hearing.
d. Receptive language.
e. Social relatedness.
Score: 25 / 25
Question 4 (25 points)
Careful observation of typical children at play has been important in better understanding
children who have autism. Children who have autism rarely demonstrate evidence of:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Constructive play.
b. Oral motor play.
c. Roughhouse play.
d. Sensory motor play.
e. Symbolic play.
Score: 25 / 25
Total score: 100 / 100 = 100.0%
Respiratory Disorders, Bronchiolitis
Question 1 (20 points)
The most important triad of findings for assessing severity of bronchiolitis are respiratory rate,
work of breathing, and:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Degree of cough.
b. Level of oxygen saturation.
c. Pitch of wheezing.
d.
e.
Presence of crackles.
Rapidity of heart rate.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 2 (20 points)
Among the following, the best reason to obtain viral studies in those suspected of having
bronchiolitis is to:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Administer specific antiviral therapy.
b. Determine the need for hospitalization.
c. Guide the type of supportive care needed.
d. Identify febrile infants >30 days of age who are at low risk for serious bacterial infection
and may not need empiric antibiotics.
e. Provide the most accurate diagnosis.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 3 (20 points)
Among the following, the febrile patients most likely to have a serious bacterial infection
associated with bronchiolitis:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a.
Are younger than 30 days of age.
b. Are 31 to 60 days old.
c. Are neurologically impaired.
d. Have infiltrates on chest radiography.
e. Have survived neonatal respiratory distress syndrome.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 4 (20 points)
The primary treatment of bronchiolitis includes hydration and:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Bronchodilators.
b. Chest physiotherapy.
c. Corticosteroids.
d. Decongestants.
e. Oxygenation.
Score: 20 / 20
Question 5 (20 points)
The major benefit of palivizumab prophylaxis is:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a.
Decreased hospitalization rate.
b. Improved treatment.
c. Increased cost-effectiveness.
d. Lower mortality rate.
e. Shorter duration of illness.
Score: 20 / 20
Total score: 100 / 100 = 100.0%
Fluid & Electrolytes: Parenteral Fluid Therapy
Question 1 (33 points)
A 6-year-old girl is admitted for elective removal of a mesenteric cyst. Physical examination
reveals a well-hydrated child whose weight is 23 kg and height is 115 cm. She is afebrile and
appears healthy. Which of the following is the most appropriate parenteral maintenance fluid
and electrolytes regimen for her?
a.
5% Dextrose with 0.20% saline + 20 mEq/L KCI at 65 mL/h.
b. 5% Dextrose with 0.20% saline + 40 mEq/L KCI at 95 mL/h.
c. 5% Dextrose with 0.45% saline + 20 mEq/L KCI at 65 mL/h.
d. 5% Dextrose with 0.45% saline + 40 mEq/L KCI at 95 mL/h.
e. 5% Dextrose with 0.90% saline + 40 mEq/L KCI at 65 mL/h.
Score: 33 / 33
Question 2 (33 points)
A 2-year-old child presents with a 24-hour history of 10 to 12 large, watery stools and vomiting.
Physical examination reveals sunken eyes, weight of 12.5 kg, temperature of 36.8ºC (98.2ºF),
heart rate of 144 beats/min, respirations of 26 breaths/min, and blood pressure of 78/40 mm
Hg. His extremities are cool, and the capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Of the following, the most
appropriate initial intravenous bolus to be administered over the next hour is:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a.
b.
125 mL Ringer lactate.
250 mL 0.9% saline.
c. 250 mL 5% Dextrose.
d. 125 mL 5% Dextrose with Ringer lactate.
e. 250 Ml 5% Dextrose with 045% saline.
Score: 33 / 33
Question 3 (34 points)
A 6-month-old girl presents with vomiting and loose stools of 3 days' duration. Physical
examination reveals an axillary temperature of 37.2ºC (99ºF), respiratory rate of 32
breaths/min, heart rate of 126 beats/min, and blood pressure of 98/68 mm Hg. The anterior
fontanelle and eyes are sunken, the lips and oral mucous membranes are dry, and the skin
appears doughy. Results of laboratory studies include: serum sodium, 168 mEq/L (168 mmol/L);
potassium, 5.2 mEq/L (5.2 mmol/L); chloride, 136 mEq/Ml (136 mmol/L); and bicarbonate, 10
mEq/L (10 mmol/L). A true statement about this girl's condition is that:
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. A 20 mLl/kg bolus of 5% dextrose should be administered over 1 h.
b. Extracellular fluid is depleted more than intracellular fluid.
c. Rehydration should occur over 48 h at a constant rate.
d. Total body potassium is increased.
e. Total body sodium is increased.
Score: 34 / 34
Total score: 100 / 100 = 100.0%
Growth & Development, Toddler Development
Question 1 (25 points)
Which of the following would generally be considered beyond the developmental level of 18
months?
Student response:
Student
Response
Answer Choices
a. Has a vocabulary of 20 words.
b.
Imitates a horizontal stroke of a crayon.
c. Makes a tower of 4 cubes.
d. Puts 10 cubes into a cup on request.
Score: 25 / 25
Question 2 (25 points)
Which of the following would generally be considered beyond the developmental level of 24
months?
a.
Builds a tower of 7 cubes.
b.
Copies a cross on demonstration.
c. Copies a vertical stroke of a crayon.
d. Makes a circular scribble with a crayon.
Score: 25 / 25
Question 3 (25 points)
Which of the following would generally be considered beyond the developmental level of 36
months?
a.
Draws a stick figure that has eyes, nose, arms, and legs.
b. Puts together sentences of four to five words.
c. Rides a tricycle.
d. Stands momentarily on one foot.
Score: 25 / 25
Question 4 (25 points)
The transition during the toddler period from the sensorimotor to the preoperational level of
development (Piaget) is exemplified best by:
a.
b.
The emerging struggle for autonomy.
Fine motor development.
c. Language development.
d. The relationship between temperament and social development.
Score: 25 / 25
Total score: 100 / 100 = 100.0%