PAPER I – CAR A M E EXAMS
CAR SERIES ‘F’ Part V to VIII
1. CAR Section 2, Series F , Part V deals with:
1.Renewal of Certificate of Airworthiness.
2. Suspension of C. of A. & its Subsequent revalidation.
3. Special Flight Permits. 4. Continue Airworthiness Maint. Programme
2. Which Part of Series F deals with Suspension of C. of A. & its subsequent revalidation:
1. IV 2. V
3. VI 4.VII
3. The Automatic suspension of C. of A., is provided by Rule:
1. 55 (2) 2 55 (3)
3. 55 (1) 4. 56 (1).
4. Which of the following Rule empower the DOCA to suspend/Cancel C. of A.:
I. 51 (l) 2. 53(2)
3. 54 (2) 4. 55(2)
5. DGCA can cancel the C. of A. or suspend whenever reasonable doubt exist to:
1. A particular aircraft. 2. All types of Aircraft.
3. I & 2 both are correct. 4. None of the above
6. The C. of A. cancelled of aircraft by DGCA. if:
1. Aircraft cease or fail to conform conditions stipulated in Type Certificate.
2. It is modified/repaired otherwise then in approved procedure.
3. Suffer major/substantial damage (require extensive repair of major component)
4. All the above.
7. It is the responsibility of operator to inform what authority when aircraft suffer major
damage or defect:
1. DGCA. 2. RAO/Sub-RAO
3. Q.C.M. 4. All above are correct..
8. The information to RAO by operator about major damage will contains information:
1. Extent of damage. 2. Nature of defect.
3. Circumstances which caused the damage. 4. All the above.
9. The suspended C. of A.:
1. Will be revalidated up to the date of the previous currency of C of A had remain valid,
if it had not been suspended. 2. Will be revalidated for another year.
3. Can not revalidated 4. None of the above,
10. As condition for revalidation of C. of A., the Airworthiness Officer requires aircraft/aircraft
component modified, repaired, replaced under supervision of:
I. R.A.O. 2. A.M.E./Authorized Person
3. Quality Control Manager 4. Inspector Incharge.
11. The owner/operator submit aircraft for Inspection, during Repair, Modification & Overhaul to:
1. DGCA 2. Approved Organisation
3. Airworthiness Officer, 4. Q.C.M.
12. Suspended C of A can revalidated for One year after completion of Modification, Repair,
Maintenance:
1. When Modification, repair carried out by an AMO under supervision of DGCA
2. Only if additional work is carried pout with renewal of C. of A. referred ion CAR
series F Part IV.
3. 1 & 2 both are correct. 4. None of the above.
13. CAR Sec .II Series F Part. VI deals with:
I. Continuous Airworthiness Maintenance programme.
2. Airworthiness of Ageing Aircraft. 3. Inspection of Wooden aircraft.
4. Rebuilding of Aircraft.
14. The requirement regarding use of materials to be used during manufacturing of aircraft
are prescribed in Rule:
1. 50 and 50 A. 2. 51 &51 A.
3. 52and52A. 4. 53&53A.
15. Which Rule empower DGCA to issue/renew or revalidate C of A:
1. 50. 2. 51, 3. 52. 4. 54.
16. CAR Series F Part VI laid down requirements for rebuilding of Aircraft:
1. Which was damaged 2. Purchased as wreckage from Insurance companies.
3. Purchased Parts/Spares from abroad. 4. All the above.
17. What type of aircraft will permit to rebuilt:
I. Which were earlier type certified & flown with C of A.
2. Have sufficient data regarding maintenance, performance standard.
3. 1 & 2 both are correct. 4. Have special permission from DGCA.
18. CAR Series F covers the aircraft for rebuilding:
1. Unpressurised with AUW 3000 kgs. & below.
2. Unpressurised with AUW more than 3000 kgs.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Unpressurised aircraft having AUW less than 5700 kgs.
19. The owner/person apply to DGCA through RAO for registration of Rebuild the aircraft
will submit:
1. Survey report indicating detail of parts 2. Fees.
3. Details of source of procurement of parts. 4. All the above.
20. Upon receipt pf application & all documents for registration of Rebuilt the aircraft.
The RAO will issue a:
1. Certificate of Registration for One year. 2. Temporary C of R. for one year.
3. Special Registration for One year. 4. None of the above.
21. The temporary C. of R. can be extended, in some exceptional cases, for a period of:
1. 18 months. 2. Two years,
3. Three years 4. an not extended.
22. Permanent registration of rebuilt aircraft will allowed only when constructor forwards a
certificate duly certified by:
I. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. C.
2. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. D.
3. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. B.
4. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. X.
23. Each rebuilt aircraft will have to be assigned a serial number by Constructor which is
normally assigned on:
I. Wings. 2. Fuselage.
3. Identification Plate. 4. None of the above.
24. The constructor, before assembling, the aircraft must ensure that:
I. Parts purchased are genuine 2. Proper history of the parts.
3. The fuselage has dc-registered from the country in which it was previously registered.
4. All the above.
25. The aircraft parts used for rebuilding should be strip inspected/overhauled which
are stored:
1. More than 5 years. 2. More than 6 years
3. More than 7 years. 4. More than 8 years.
26. The Fuselage imported from outside the country used for rebuilding of aircraft should have:
1. Proper history. 2. Export C of A.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Certificate given by RAO.
27. The Test Flight of Rebuild aircraft carried out b y:
1. Pilot having PPL. 2. Pilot having CPL
3. Pilot in Command 4. Chief Instructor of Flight.
28. In case original aircraft was issued with an approved Flight Manual, the constructor will produce a
copy of the same & procedure evidence of that, it is updated to:
1. DGCA 2. Q.C.M.
3. R A O. 4. Pilot in Command.
29. The DGCA will refuse to issue of C. of A. & C opfR, if owner/constructor not able to
produce:
1. Sufficient evidence regarding genuineness of Parts.
2. Use of correct assembling Techniques.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Approved Flight Manual.
30. CAR Series F Part VII deals with:
1. Special Flight Permits. 2. Inspection of wooden Aircraft.
3. Approval of flight Manual & their Amendments
4. Continue Airworthiness Maintenance Programme.
31. No person can not operate the aircraft possessing suspended C. of A., stated by Rule:
1. 59 Sub Rule 3. 2. 57 Sub Rule 3
3. 56 Sub Rule III 4. 55 Sub Rule III.
32. Issue of a Special Flight permit to an Aircraft with a suspended C. of A. in light of:
1. Sub Rule IV of 55. 2. Sub Rule 3 of 55
3. Sub Rule II of 55. 4. Sub Rule 1 of 55.
33. Special Flight Permit are given when:
1. It is essential for aircraft top dispatch to base for Mod./Inspection/AD are to be performed.
2. When aircraft have to flown for experimental/Test Flight.
3. If aircraft is otherwise safe to conduct intended operation.
4. All the above.
34. Special permits are not required in case of Test Flight for Renewal of C. of A. & if C. of A. is expired,
AME after appropriate maintenance task & test Release a:
1. Certificate of Maintenance for Test Flight.
2. Temporary C. of A. for Test Flight.
3. Certificate of Fitness for Test Flight.
4. None of the above.
35. For what purpose the special Flight permits are given:
1. Test Flying a production aircraft. 2. Flight for special purpose
3. Evacuation of aircraft opr passengers from area impending danger. 4. All the above.
36. For special Flight permit the owner/operator shall have to sub mit:
1. An applicatyion as per Annexure A. 2. An application as per Annexure B.
3. An application as per Annexure C. 4. An application as per Annexure D.
37. The Application of Special Flight permit shall concurred & signed by:
1. Engineering & Operational deptt. of operator.
2. Engineering & operational Deptt. of A.M.O.
3. Engineering & Operational deptt. of ICAO.
4. Engineering & Operational deptt. of Airworthiness Office.
38. The Report sent along with an application for Special Flight Perm it to RAO will consists
information:
I. Detailed condition of aircraft. 2. Steps taken for its safety.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Age of aircraft.
39. In case aircraft sustains damage/defect outside of country the application for ferry flight shall be
submit to:
I. Office of main station. 2. Office where aircraft is based.
3. l&2both 4. DGCA.
40. As for as possible the initial; climb should not be over:
1. Sea 2. Thickly populated area.
3. Outside country 4. Poles.
41. A copy of special flight permit must be carried:
1. On board the aircraft. 2. In maintenance system.
3. In Flight manual. 4. In organisation.
42. Who is responsible to ensure the safe flight for intended operation:
I. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. Owner/Operator 4. A.M.O.
43. Special flight permit is valid till:
I. For One year 2. Six months
3. Arrival of aircraft at destination or specific date 4. One day.
44. After reaching aircraft at base the operator shall submit a copy of report, to authority who had
issued Special Flight Permit, will contains information:
I. Any abnormality encountered during flight.
2. Action taken at base to render aircraft airworthy.
3. Result of Test Flight & any other information deemed necessary.
4. All the above.
45. The application of Special Flight Permit will be signed by:
I. Chief Engineer 2. Chief of Operations
3. Q.C.M. 4. All the above.
46. CAR Series F Part VIII deals with:
1. General Requirements regarding Maintenance & Certificate of Aircraft.
2. Rebuilding of Aircraft. 3. Special Flight Permits.
4. Suspension/Revalidation of C. of A.
47. Indian Registered aircraft5 before undertake any flight have to possess a current & valid
Certificate of Airworthiness in the light of:
I. Rule 13 2. Rule 14.
3. Rule 15. 4. Rule 16.
48. D.G.C.A in respect of any ale, a/c component item of equipment specify standards
and conditions for its maintenance, in accordance with
Sub rule(1) of rule 60 2 Sub rule (2) of rule 60
3 Sub rule(3) of rule 60 4 Sub rule(a) of rule 60
49. According to series F part VII it is therefore obligatory that
1. A/c maintenance as per approved maintenance schedule
2. No. unapproved mod. Or repair carried out
3. Maintenance and major maintenance shall carried out and certified by appropriately Licensed A.M.E
4. All of above
50. Approved Pilot means pilot to carry out transmit/layover inspection without authority of invoking
MEL item/snag rectification shall be approved by
1 D.G.C.A 2 RAO
3 QCM 4 Airworthiness officers of D.G.C.A.
51. An approved pilot should posses
1 Valid Licence with specific entrustment of type of a/c
2 Have trained for 10 days by A.M.E
3 Have checked by board formed by organization
4 All of above
52. Certificate of flight release is valid for
1 day 2 1 Week
3 1 Month 1 4 Period specified in it
53. The scheduled airline as required to have their own maintenance facility as required by
1. CAR sec 4 series C part II 2. CAR sec3 series C part II
3. CAR sec2 series C part II 4. Car sec I series C part II
54. The contents of routine maintenance and inspection schedule including special inspection schedule,
overhaul schedule of component and a/c operated by operator have minimum experience as scheduled
operator
1. 2year 2 3year
3. 5year 4 l0year
55. The MPD (maintenance planning document) should submit for its approval to
1. RAO/sub RAO 2. QCM
3 D.G.C.A 4 AMO
56. Special inspection schedules of a/c such as heavy landing ,post lightning strike post propeller strike
prepared by operator and approved by
I. D.G.C.A. 2 .A.M.E
3. Manufacturer 4 QCM
57. From approved schedule
1. No item can be deleted with prior approval of D.G.C.A
2. But addition to schedule may effected
3. Both a & b
4. The schedule once approved there will no change in that
58. The maintenance work carried out on a/c shall be certified
I. In relevant log book 2. In a/c register
3. In A/C manual 4. In maintenance system manual
59. The maintenance work recorded and signed and dated in relevant log book with in
1. 24 Hours 2. 48 Hours
3. 72 Hours 4. 96 Hours
60. If the log book not available one copy of log book entry should be kept in
1. Aircraft log book 2. MEL
3. Journey log book 4. Radio log book
61. Certificate of flight release is given by
1. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. D.G.C.A. 4. AMO
62. The issuance of FRC will implies that al maintenance work is concerned out in approved
manner and alc is safe for flight provided
1. All approved lower inspection schedule carried out
2. A/C is satisfactory loaded
3. Both a & b
4. A/C have sufficient crew
63. The FRC in respect of a/c categorized as passenger! mail cargo operating schedule Air
transport service
1. The validity of FRC shall approved by D.G.C.A.
2. Certification of inspection shall be carried out by AME/ attendant person
3. Both a & b
4. Specially inspected by AMO
64. For a/c seating configuration up to 19 when away from base with maximum payload capacity
2 tones inspected without snag rectification by
I. Basic licensed holder approved 2. An approved Pilot
3. AMO 4. Both a & b
65. The transmit inspection of a1c having passenger seating capacity more than 19 and with
payload capacity more than two tons away from base by
1. An AME! approved person 2. Basic licence holder
3. Approved pilot 4. All of above
66. The transmit inspection without snag rectification of turbo prop a/c having passenger seating
capacity up to 75 with maximum payload 5 tons by when a/c away from base
I. Approved licensed person 2. Approved Pilot
3. l3otha&b 4. AMO
67. A/C having MTOW more than 5700 Kg a/c categories in mail/cargo non scheduled Category with
more than 19 seats or payload capacity more than 2 tons
1. Validity of FRC by D.G.C.A.
2. Certificate of inspection higher than transmit inspection will be by AME specially approve person
3. Transmit inspection without snag rectification will by approved basic licence holder when a/c away
from base
4. All of above
68. A/C have MTOW up to 5700 Kg or have passenger configuration up to 19
maximum payload weight 2 tons validity of CFR
1. 30 Days 2. 50 Hrs./30 days which ever earlier
3. 100 Hrs./3 Months which ever is earlier 4. 2 Months.
69. For aircraft operated by flying club and gliding club the FRC valid by:
1. 24Hrs. 2. 48Hrs.
3. 36 Hrs. 4. One week.
70. Aircraft belonging to aerial work Category FRC issued by AME after every:
1. 5 Hrs. /5 Days 2. 10 Hrs./7 Days
3. 20 Hrs / 7 Days 4. 25 Hrs./30 Days
71. Aircraft from regular aerodromes shall FRC to aerial work category issue every 50
Hrs./30 Days if that subject to carry out inspection of:
1. 25 Hrs./l5Days 2. 50 Hrs.130 Days
3. 100 Hrs./3 Months 4. 200 Hrs.16 Months.
72. Aircraft seating capacity more than 19 in private category:
1. Validity of FRC by DGCA 2. Transmit inspection by approved basic Licence if aircraft is away from base.
3. Lay over inspection by AME 4. All of the above.
73. In case of diversionary landing where AME/approved person not available. The inspection with snag
rectification will be carried out by:
1. Pilot in command 2. Flight engineer
3. Both 1 and 2 4. Crew members.
74. The certification of air born racks equipment carried out every 90 days elapsed time for
category:
1. All aircraft in private 2. All aerial work in aircraft
3. Aircraft operated by flying club V 4. All of the above.
75. For aircraft equipped with communication equipment only certification will carried out
after every:
1. Every 30 Days 2. 100 Days
3. 180 Days 4. 6 Months.
76. The certification to radio equipment will be cancel if:
1. Aircraft flown through electric storm since last inspection
2. Operation of equipment is not properly work before flight
3. Report observed defect of such natured rectified by AME
4. All the above.
77. The FRC for radio should be used with every FRC for airframe and engine:
I. Second 2. Third
3. Fourth 4. Fifth
78. A basic Licence holder Should possess for approval:
1. Three months on specific type aircraft
2. Ten day course on engine and airframe
3. Seven day relevant inspection under AME and certificate of it by QCM and passed oral cum practical
by RAO.
4. All the above.
79. The approval shall be valid for:
1. One year 2. Two year
3. Three year 4. Four years
80. The approved person for renewal of apprand should have:
1. Exercise privileges for three months during one year
2. Exercise privileges for nine months during one year
3. Exercise privileges for six months during one year
4. Exercise privileges for one months during one year.
81. Record of FRC minimum preserved for period of:
1. Three months 2. Six months
3. Nine months 4. 12 Months.
82. The form for certificate of maintenance will have:
1. Signature of AME/approved person with Licence No. and approved No.
2. Firm’s name
3. Date and place of issue
4. All the above.
83. The continuous aircraft maintenance program is documented in:
1. Flight manual 2. Operation manual
3. Maintenance system manual 4. all the above.
84. The maintenance program is sent for approval to the:
1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer
3. RAO/Sub.RAO 4. QCM.
85. Any alteration in the approved scheduled in concerned with:
1. DGCA 2. Manufacturer
3. RAO 4 .QCM.
86. The SSIP and CPCP are given or made by the:
1. QCM 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. RAO
87. All completed maintenance schedule must be preserved for a minimum period of:
1. 6 months from the date of final certification of such schedule
2. 2 months from the date of final certification of such schedule
3. 1 month from the date of final certification of such schedule
4. As Suggested by QCM.
89. The subject airworthiness of ageing aircraft is related with:
1. Series E, Part-IX 2. Series F, Part-XI
3. Series F, Part-X 4. Series E, Part-VI
90. Design economic life of an aircraft is given by the:
1. QCM 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. Regularity authority of country.
91. A damage caused to a metal structure characterized by initiation of the crack subsequent
propagation and as a result of continuous process whose effect is cumulative with respect
of aircraft usage is term as:
1. Accidental damage 2. Environmental damage
3. Fatigue damage 4. Multiple site damage.
92. Test flight of aged aircraft is carried out every/any:
1. Any time as required by DGCA 2. Six months
3. Both 1 and 2 4. One year.
93. All major defects should be reported to DGCA:
I. Every month 2. With in 12 Hrs.
3. Promptly 4. After rectification.
94. Design economic life for airbus is:
1. 25 Years 2. 15 Years.
3. 20 Years 4. None of the above.
95. In duplicate inspection, first inspection is carried out on the aircraft for flying controls by:
1. Any person 2. Trainee technician
3. AME in category A/B 4. None of the above.
96. The subject inspection of wooden aircraft is resisted with:
1. Series D, Part-Ill 2. Series D, Part —IV
3. Series F, Part-XII 4. Series F, Part-XIII.
Series —‘F’ Part-IX, X, XI, XII
97. Schedule maintenance includes the following work:
1. Replacement of life limited items
2. Heavy landing schedule
3. Lighting strike schedule
4. All are correct.
98. Unscheduled maintenance includes the following work
1. Special inspections such as X-rays.
2. Replacement of ‘lifed’ components
3. Heavy landing schedule
4. All are correct.
99. Ageing aircraft require more frequent inspection of structural components for damage
due to:
1. Environmental deterioration. 2. Accidental damage
3. Fatigue 4. All are correct.
100. To ensure structural integrity of ageing aircraft, manufactures have issued:
1. SSIP 2. CPCP
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct 4. None of the above.
101. The owner/operator shall inform RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance
about the commencement of the entire inspection schedule:
1. Of 100 Hrs. and above 2. Of over elOO Hrs.
3. Of over 300 Hrs. 4. All are correct.
102. Regional airworthiness officer may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection
schedules and TBOs of components up to a maximum of or
1. 10%, 50 Hrs. 2. 3%, 3 Months
3. 3%, 50 Hrs. 4. None of the above.
103. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of
years:
1. One 2. two 3. Five 4. Ten.
104. Damage due to environment in the form of corrosion and stress corrosion is:
1. Environment damage 2. Corrosion damage
3. Fatigue damage 4. Accidental damage.
105. Ageing aircraft are these, which have completed there:
1. Technical life 2. Service life
3. Designed service life 4. Designed economic life.
106. Multiple site damage is:
1. Five or more dents on one site.
2. Five or more crakes on one site which lick up into a longer crack.
3. Fatigue crack at number of fasteners, which stand to link up into longer cracks.
4. All are correct.
107. Damage to an aircraft can be termed as accident damage if it is caused due to:
1. Environmental factors like corrosion
2. One aircraft hitting another aircraft
3. Wrong handling of ground equipment during routing inspection
4. None of the above.
108. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
1. Any CPL holder
2. Flight engineer whose Licence is endorsed for the aircraft
3. Specially authorized person
4. Both l and 2 are correct.
109. If control systems are disturbed after the second check, but before first flight.
I. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again
2. Distorted portion should be checked by second person only
3. Complete portion should be checked by second
4. Complete portion should be checked in duplicate again.
110. Series F Part-XII deals with:
1. Inspection of wooden aircraft
2. Duplicate inspection of flying controls
3. Duplicate inspection of engine controls
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
111. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation
of C of A and thereafter every year
1. One 2. Two 3. Five 4. Ten.
112. Factor causing wood deterioration is:
1. Chemical action of glue due to ageing
2. Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
3. Growth of fungus
4. All are correct.
113. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both A and B are correct 4. None of the above.
114. Weather proofing quality of fabric covering is affected by:
1. Long exposure to inclement weather conditions.
2. Exposure to strong sunlight
3. Atmosphere air
4. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
115. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
2. Identical length but one gauge larger
3. Slightly longer length
4. Slightly longer length and one gauge larger.
116. Compression failure of wooden structures generally occurs due to:
1. Over tightening 2. Shock loads
3. Rupture across the wood fibers 4. All are correct.
117. At present SSID have been issued for:
1. B 200 C, C 90 A, B737 2. A35, B55, C90 A.
3. B737, B747, HS 748 4. J 3C, PA 12, FA 152.
118. Design economic life of airbus is years.
1. Ten 2. Twenty years
3. Thirty 4. fifty.
119. Design economic life of Douglas F-27 and HS-748 is years:
1. Twenty 2. Thirty
3. Fourty 4. Fifty
120. Design economic life of all models of Boeing is:
1. 20 years 2. 20,000 life cycles
3. 60,000 Hrs. 4. All are correct.
121. Duplicate inspection of control systems means:
1. Two inspections in a day by day the same person
2. Inspection by an AME followed by the pilot in command
3. Re-inspection of controls when reported sluggish by the flight crew
4. Inspection and certification by two different approved/authorized/learned persons.
122. Duplicate inspection of all controls surfaces shall be made:
1. Approved person in an approved organization
2. Flight engineer
3. QCM
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
123. RAO can authorized a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person has at least
three years general maintenance experience and months experience on
the tope of aircraft involved:
1. Three 2. Six
3. Nine 4. None of the above.
124. Duplicate inspection of all control surfaces shall be made:
1. After rigging 2. Before first flight after C of A
3. Before C of A flight 4. Before first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging.
125. Duplicate inspections at control system means:
1. two inspection in a day by the same person
2. Inspection by an AME followed by pilot in command
3. Re-inspection of controls when reported sluggish by the flight crew
4. Inspection and certification by two different approved/authorized heaved persons.
126. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
1. Any CPL (commercial pilot Licence) holder.
2. Flight engineer whose Licence is endorsed for the aircraft
3. Specially authorized person
4. Both I and 2 are correct.
127. RAO can authorized a person to carried out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person was at least 3
years general maintenance experience and months experience
on the type of aircraft involved.
I. Three 2. Six
3. Nine 4. None of the above.
128. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is at base, is carried out by:
1. Approved person in an approved organization.
2. Flight engineer
3. Quality control manager
4. Aircraft maintenance engineer.
129. If control system is distributed after the second check, before first flight:
1. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again 2. Disturbed portion should be checked by
second person
3. Complete portion should be checked by second person only
4. Complete portion should be checked induplicate again.
130. F-XII deals with:
1. Inspection of wooden aircraft
2. Duplicate inspection of flying controls
3. Duplicate inspection of engine controls
4. None of the above.
131. Factor causing wood deterioration is:
1. Growth of fougue
2. Mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage
3. Chemical action of give due to ageing
4. All are correct.
132. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A
and the thereafter every years:
1. One 2. Two
3. Five 4. Ten.
133. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both 1 and 2. 4. None of the above.
134. Aircraft of composite construction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of C of A
and thereafter every years:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Ten.
135. Weather proofing quality of fabric covering is affected by:
1. Long exposure to inclement whether condition
2. Exposure to stooge sunlight
3. Atmosphere air
4. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
136. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
2. Identical length but one gauge larger
3. Slightly longer length
4. Slightly longer length and one gauge longer.
137. Compression failure of wooden structure generally occurs due to:
1. Over tightening 2. Shock loads
3. Rupture across the wood fibers 4. All are correct.
138. F-XIII deals with
1. Construction of gliders and their maintenance
2. Inspection of wooden aircraft
3. Rebuilding of aircraft
4. Registration making on aircraft.
139. All gliders must process:
1. Type certificate 2. As in A plus C of A
3. As in B plus peaty to fly 4. None of the above.
140. If ‘loop test’ is not carried out during test flight of a glider, then its C of A:
1. Will not be renewal 2. Will not be renewed in any case
3. Will not be renewed temporarily 4. Will be renewed provided the
Glider is suitably pay carded that’
Loop maneuvers’ are prohibited”
141. C of A for glider is not renewed if following that are not carried out:
1. Stall/spin 2. Loop
3. Both land2. 4. Either lor2.
142. Application for issue/renewal of C of A glider is made on:
1. Prescribed form 2. Appropriate form
3. Either lor2 4. CA25.
143. All gliders shall be equipped with:
1. Vorimeter 2. RPM indicator
3. VOR 4. Auto pilot
144. The C of A for glider is renewed provided is carried out during test flight:
1. Loop test 3. Stall test 2. Spin test 4. All are correct.
145. Certificate of safety for glider is valid for:
1. One day 2. One month
3. Three month 4. One year.
146. New component and spare parts used on gliders should be covered by:
1. Certificate of maintenance 2. Release note
3. Both land2 4. None of the above.
147. Certificate of safety for gliders:
1. Should be pressure for one month
2. Should be pressure for two month 3. Should be pressure for one year
4. None of the above.
148. When glider meets with an accident, resulting in damage beyond economic repair,
glider logs book and procedure / work shall be pressure for a period of:
1. One month 2. One year
3. Two years 4. Five years.
149. Series F part XIV deals with:
1. Registration of micro aircraft 2. Airworthiness of micro aircraft
3. Both 1 and 2 4. None of the above.
150. The weight considered for declaring the aircraft micro light:
1. MAUW 2. MTOW 3. Empty weight 4. None of the above.
151. The MAUW of micro light single seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. 330Kg. 2. 450Kg.
3. 2000 Kg. 4. None of the above.
152. The MAUW of micro weight two seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. 330 Kg. 2. 450 Kg.
3. 2000 Kg. 4. None of the above.
153. Which form is to be filled for registration of micro light?
1. CA25 2. CA23
3. CA28 4. None of the above.
154. How many items should be fixed on identification plate of micro light aircraft:
1. 4 Items 2. 5 Items
3. 6 items 4. None of the above.
155. Permit to fly is valid for:
1. 6Months 2. lYear
3. 2Years 4. NOA.
156. How many copies of manual should be admitted to DGCA:
1. II 2. III
3. IV 4. None of the above.
157. Sub of F-XX related to age of aircraft imported for:
1. Schedule 2. Non-schedule
3. Private 4. Both 1 and 2.
158. The aircraft, which landed with scehon of its upper fuselages:
1. Aloha airline Boeing 73 7-200 2. Spice jet 707
3. Airbus 4. None of the above.
159. Design economic life of jet aircraft extend to:
1. 20 Years/30,000 Landing 2. 20 Years 60,000 Landing
3. 10 Years/60,000 Landing 4. 15 Years/30,000 Landing.
160. For schedule / Non-scheduled No aircraft imported who complete age / design
economic life of:
1. 15/75% 2. 20/70%
3. 15/70% 4. 20/75%.
161. For cargo operation pressurize transport cat. Aircraft import not more than age and
design economic life:
1. 20 /75% 2. 30/75%
3. 70% 4. 60/45%
162. TSO stand for:
1. Time service operation 2. Time since operation
3. Time since overnight
163. TSN stands for:
1. time since navigation 2. Time since new
3. Time since.
164. Un press aircraft not import to India whose age is:
1. More than 15 2. More than 20
3. More than 30 years 4. 70 Years.
165. Sub. OfF XXI:
1. Import / export 2. Renewal /valid
3. First aid kits.
166. DORT stands for:
1. Director general of field trade 2. Director general of foreign trade.
167. Component include accessories or attachment:
1. True 2. False 3. None of the above.
168. For impost of tool firm required:
1. No Licence 2. No recommendation for DGCA. 3. Both.
169. NOC stands for:
1. No objective component 2. No objection certificate
3. Number of operated of component.
170. o export spares, items of equity carry out necessary repair operator may approval:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. DAW.
171. NOC certificate made by:
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. DAW 4. DGCA.
172. CAR issued under rule:
1. 55A 2. 133A
3. 133C 4. 72A.
173. Conversion training conduct by:
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. Instructors.
174. Load / trim sheet get approved from:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. QCM.
175. Training program for person engaged in people of load / trim sheet include:
1. Refresher/recurrent training 2. Schedule training
3. Conventional training 4. None of the above.
176. Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired staff used for prepare load/trim
sheet is:
1. 45 programmed Hrs. 2. 35 Programmed I-Irs.
3. 40 Programmed Hrs. 4. 65 Programmed lIrs.
177. Competency check is included in:
Ground training 2. Initial of transition ground training
3. Refresher training 4. Conversion training.
178. Competency check in initial and transition training gives by:
1. Supervisor/ground instructor 2. QCM
3. RAO 4. All are correct. a
179. Certificate of successful completion training in recurrent training to airline given by:
I. QCM 2. Shop
3. Staff instructor 4. RAO.
180. The written practical test in conversion training is coordination with:
I. DAW 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. QCM
181. Written test will conduct by:
I. Instructor 2. QCM
3. Operator.
182. Load of trim sheet approved by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. QCM 4. None of the above.
183. Weight of aircraft at time of take off not exceed:
1. RTOW 2. Payload
3. Removable Weight
184. I oad/trim sheet prepared in:
I. Triplicate 2. Duplicate
3. A copies 4. None of the above.
185. The load /trim contain:
1. Weight schedule 2. C.G.
3. AVW 4. All of the above.
1 86. A group of characters affixed on aircraft surface to identify the country to which the
aircraft belongs is called:
1. Nationality mark 2. Common mark
3. Registration mark 4. Both I and 2.
187. Disputes with regard to the legal ownership of aircraft is decided by:
1. DGCA Head Qtr. 2. RAWO
3. AWO 4. court of law.
188. Detailed requirements for registration of aircraft are as per:
1. Aircraft rule 1937 2. ICAO Annex 7
3. CAR Series F Part-IV 4. Both 1 and 2.
189. Legislation with regard to registration of aircraft is described in:
I. Rule 30 of 1937 2. Rule 25 to 30 of 1937
3. Rule 30 to 37A of 1937 4. Rule 38 to4l of 1937.
190. Any aircraft supported chiefly by buoyancy in the air is:
1. Lighter than air aircraft 2. Heavier than air aircraft
3. l3oth I and 2 4. None of the above.
191. Application for registration of aircraft is put on:
1. CA 28 2. CA 25
3. CA 3O 4. CA 23.
192. If an aircraft is sold to another person or company it should he notified to DGCA as per:
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 32 A
3. Rule 33 4. Rule 37 A.
193. Until the certificate of registration is not granted to the new owner, aircraft:
1. Shall not be law full to fly
2. Assist in flying by any person
3. Can fly with written permission of DGCA
4. All above are correct.
194. An aircraft brought from out side by air, temporary certificate of registration:
I. Valid only up to first reaching at custom aerodrome in India.
2. Should he surrendered to DGCA.
3. Should have the aero mobile station Licence.
4. All above are correct.
195. The following registration marking can be granted to an aircraft:
1. VT-SOS 2. VT-XXX
3. VT-TTT 4. None of the above.
196. Certificate of registration is valid up to:
I. One year 2. Two years.
3. Five years 4. Date indicated on it.
197. Certificate of registration shall be in language:
1. Hindi 2. English
3. Hindi and English 4. Hindi or English.
198. When a new type of aircraft is registered and entered in the register. DGCA shall advise the:
I. Owner 2. Operator
3. State of design 4. None of the above.
199. Duplicate certificate of registration shall be issue in case of:
1. Lost 2. Mutilated
3. Lost and mutilated 4. Lost or mutilated.
200. The registered owner may apply for cancellation of registration under the clause of:
1. Rule 30 of 1937 2. Rule 33A of 1937
3. Rule 37 A o f1937 4. None of the above.
201 . [)GCA may cancel the registration of aircraft if:
1. Aircraft has been destroyed 2. Permanently with drawn
3. Registration is due to false statement 4. All above are correct.
202. A register of all aircraft registered in India is to be maintenance by DGCA as required
by rule:
1 31 of 1937 2. 33 of 1937
3. 36 of 1937 4. 37 A OF 1937.
203. The registration marks on the un-manned free balloons shall be affixed on:
I. Left side 2. Right side
3. Right and left side 4. Identification plate.
204. On multi vertical tail surfaces aircraft the registration marks shall appear on:
1. Both the sides of tail surfaces
2. On inner sides of tail surfaces
3. On the out board sides of the outer surfaces
4. Not required any where as per series”.X
PREPRATORY A M E EXAMS
C A R Series H, PART I — III
1. CAR Series H Part I deals with:
1. Unusable fuel supply. 2. Calibration of fuel quantity gauge of A/c.
3. Calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter 4. All are correct.
2. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases, is included in the appropriate:
1. Flying manual 2. Quality Control Manual
3. Cockpit Checklist. 4. Emergency checklist.
3. Certain quantity of fuel in an aircraft will not be available for use because of:
1. Shape of the tank. 2. Location of tank.
3. Both 1 & 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
4. Unusable fuel is the quantity of fuel supply remaining in each tank and not available is the
engine under the most adverse feed condition in
1. Intended flight maneuvers. 2. Any flight condition.
3. Stabilized cruise condition. 4. Both I & 3 are correct.
5. The unusable fuel quantity for each tank must be established:
1. Every overhaul 2. Every C of A.
3. Certificate of Aircraft. 4. All are correct.
6. Fuel gauges shall be calibrated at Zero-datum with:
1. 5 liters fuel 2. 10 liters fuel
3. Nil fuel 4. Unusable fuel
7. A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated on the following occasions:
1. Every C of A. 2. Time of Installation
3. Near Major Check 4. All are current.
8. The quantity of unusable fuel shall be deemed to be part of:
1. Empty weight of aircraft 2. Total weight of aircraft
1. Payload weight of aircraft 4. None of the above.
9. Properly calibrated dipstick has to be carried on board with:
1. Every helicopter 2. Every light aircraft.
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
10. Aircraft fueling procedure is laid down in:
1. CAR series H Part I 2. CAR Series H Part III
3. IAR25A 4. Noneoftheabove.
11. Fueling means dispensation into an aircraft of:
1. Aviation Fuel 2. Fuel & Power boost fluids
3. Fuel & Oils 4. Both 1 & 2
12. Fueling Zone is regarded as the area extending meters radially from the aircraft fuelling
point:
1. 25 2. 15
3. 10 4. 6
13. Fueling of an aircraft shall be done under the supervision of a person:
1. Nominated by operator 2. Specifiel in Q C M
3. Approved by DGCA 4. Both! & 2
14. While placing the refueling equipment near aircraft, the approach followed shall be:
1. Oblique 2. Perpendicular to fuselage.
3. Straight 4. Both 1 & 2
15. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of:
I. Density 2. Volume
3. Weight 4. Both I & 2
16. Distance of ground power units from the aircraft filling/venting points & fuelling equipment
shall not be more than:
1. 6 meters 2. 10 meters.
3. 20 meters. 4. 30 meters.
17. Whenever wing fueling is employed, the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded to:
1. Fuelling equipment 2. Fuelling equipment before filling cap is removed.
3. Aircraft structure before filling cap is removed. 4. None of the above.
18. Before transfer of fuel into aircraft begins, it must be ensured that Fire Extinguisher are availabk
of:
1. Adequate capacity & approved type. 2. Adequate capacity & in n umbers.
3. Adequate type & in numbers. 4. All of the above.
19. Fuelling operation shall cease when a Turboprop Jet aircraft maneuvers, so as to bring the rear
jet outlets within:
1. 30 meters of aircraft. 2. 43 meters of aircraft.
3. 43 meters of fuelling equipment 4. 30 meters of fuelling equipment.
20. Vehicles moving in the danger Zone shall be fitted with:
1. Spark arrestor 2. Flame traps
3. Fire extinguisher 4. Both 1 & 2
21. No photographic flashbulb & electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used in the
vicinity of fueling equipment within a distance of:
1. 5 meters. 2. 6 meters.
3. 25 meters. 4. 30 meters.
22. Aircraft shall not be fuelled whenever radar equipment is in use within a distance of:
1. 30 meters. 2. 25 meters
3. 120 meters. 4. 15 meters.
23. While refueling is in progress, it is prohibited to start:
1. Main engines. 2. Aux. power units.
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
24. Fuelling operation shall be stop, when the spillage covers an area greater than:
1. 2 Sq. meters. 2. 5 Sq. meters.
3. 15 Sq. meters. 4. 20 Sq. meters.
25. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation, covering an area greater than 5 Sq. meten all
persons shall be evacuated from the affected area to a place away from the spillage by minimum
distance of:
1. 6 meters. 2. 15 meters.
3. 30 meters. 4. 43 meters.
26. CAR Series H Part III deal with:
1. Quality Control of fuel. 2. Sample testing of fuel
3. Inspection of installation 4. All are correct.
27. While delivering aviation fuel, the supplier will normally present:
1. Release Note. 2. Delivery receipt Certificate
3. Both ! & 2 4. None of the above.
28. An aviation fuel delivery vehicle shall be cleaned internally every:
1. One year 2. Two years.
3. Three years 4. Five years.
29. The minimum setting for fuel in tanks fitted with floating suction valves in respect of horizontal
tank is:
1. One hour 2. Two hours.
3. One hour! Foot depth of fuel 4. Two hour/foot depth of fuel
30. Setting time for ATF, without floating suction device is:
1. Half an hour/foot depth., 2. One hour/foot depth
3. Total one hour 4. None of the above.
3 1. Floating sections of bulk fuel tanks should be inspected for satisfactory performance
once in:
1. Three months; 2. One month
3. Fifteen days. 4. None of the above.
32. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for Microbiological growth once in:
1. One year 2. Two years.
3. Three years. 4. None of the above.
33. Overall dimension of fuel ‘Grade Label’ shall be:
1. 15cm x 10cm 2. 30cm x 10cm
3. Not less than 15 cm x 10 cm 4. None of the above.
34. Color code of AVGAS Pipelines & grade label is:
1. Black & White 2. Red & Blue
3. Red & White 4. Black & Red.
35. Before commissioning a new hose on a particular fuel:
1. 10,000 liters of fuel should be circulated through it.
2. Fuel should be stored in the hose for at least 24 h ours
3. Both 1 &2 4. Either 1 or2
36. Fuel specification tests are to be carried out on AVGAS fuel, when no fuel has been added to the
static bulk store during the last:
1. Three months 2. Six months
3. One year. 4. None of the above.
37. Delivery of AVGAS from the vehicles to aircraft should be made through a Micro filter with a normal
rating of:
1. 100 mesh gauges. 2. 180 mesh gauge
3. 5 Microns 4. None of the above.
38. Filtering elements of fuel dispensing vehicles should be inspected:
I On significant reduction in flow rates. 2. On continuing unsatisfactory drain sample.
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
39. Pressure differential checks on refuller filters, at the maximum possible flow rate. Should be carried
out:
1. Every day 2. Every week
3. Every month 4. Once in a year
40. Checks should be carried out on de-hydrant system to verify the correct operation of shut-off valves
& grade selection device:
1. Every month 2. Every six months
3. Every two months 4. Every year.
41 As a matter of routine, elements of filler separators for the refuller & hydrant system should be
replaced after every:
I. One year 2. Two years
3. Three years 4. None of the above.
42. Barrels should be stored on their sides with the bungs at:
1. 3 O’clock position 2. 9 O’clock position
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
43. Suction stand pipe to be fitted to barrel should be such that fuel can not drain from the bottom:
1. 3 inches. 2. 6 inches.
3. 4 inches. 4. None of the above.
44. Laboratory tests are required before using barrel fuel when 6 months have elapsed since the filling
of barrels in respect of:
I. AVGAS 2. ATF
3. Both 1 & 2 4. The statement is incorrect.
45. Suspended water in fuel can be detected by water finding:
I. Paste. 2. Paper.
3. Capsule 4. All are correct.
46. Aircraft should be defuelled into:
I. Empty fuelling vehicle. 2.Directly into another aircraft.
3. Refueling vehicle having spare capacity 4. Any one of the above.
47. When changing fuel grades, extra precautions are to be observed from:
1. AVGAS to ATF 2. ATF to AVGAS
3. One grade of AVGAS to another 4. None of the above
48. Single tank composite sample means, mixing of fuel in equal quantity from samples taken: 1. During
morning, afternoon & evening 2. Upper, Middle & lower level
3. Top & Bottom 4. All are correct
1. CAR Series ‘A’ part—Ideals with:
a) Responsibilities of owner / operator
b) Supervision of Airworthiness standards. By airworthiness Directorate
c) BothA&B
d) None of the above.
2. Aircraft flown for the test thr renewal of C of A can
a) Vicinity of aerodrome b) With in the area of 200 Km. c) BothA&Barewrong d) Both A & B are correct
3. Who is responsible to ensure that aircraft has current and valid C of A: a) QCM b) AME
c) Owner/operator d) RAO.
4. Airworthiness can be achieved by;
a) Periodical inspections b)Replace held components. c) carry out repair / modifications d) All the above
5. Owner/operator is responsible for:
a) Requiring his pilots to operate as per operating limitations
b) Reporting and recording all defects
c) BothAandB
d) None of the above.
6. If the aircraft is leased by owner, than the responsibility for C of A to be current and valid is of: a)
Owner b) Operator
c) AME ` d) None of the above
7. During routine maintenance, owner/operator shall report all defects to:
a) AME b) QCM
c) Airworthiness Directorate d) All of above.
8. Airworthiness standards observed by the operator/owner will be monitored by technical officers by
the medium of airworthiness directorate:
a) Spot checks b) Investigation of defects c) Both A and B d) Either A or B.
9. CAR Series ‘A’ Part-lI lays out:
a) Maintenance procedures b) Procedures of issue of CAR c) Revision of CAR d) Both Band C.
10. CAR is issued By:
a) Airworthiness authority b) QCM
c) RAO d) None of the above.
11. CAR is issued under the provision of:
a) Rule 133 b) Rule 133 A c) Rule 133 B d) Rule 133 C
12. Promulgation and implementation of CAR is to meet:
a) Duties and obligations of contracting state under Chicago convention
b) Harmonization of requirements with other regulatory authority
c) BothAandB
d) None of the above.
13. When CAR is issued., first page indicates:
a) Date of issue b) As a) plus date of affectivity c) As b) plus total no. of pages d) None of above.
14. Subsequent pages other than first indicates: a) Date of affectivity b) Date of revision c) Date of issue
d) all the above.
15. A change effected in CAR is tempered as: a) Amendment b) Change c) Re-issue d) None of the above.
16. First page and affected pages indicates: a) Revision number b) a) plus date of revision c) b) Plus
effective date d) None of the above.
17. Unaffected pages by revision will contain: a) Effective date b) Issue number c) Date of issue d) None
of the above.
18. A revision is indicated by: a) A sideline on left side of affected pages b) Underlining the affected part
c) High lighting with dark ink d) Any one of above.
19. Major changes to CAR shall be treats as: a) Change b) revision c) Amendment d) Major revision.
20. Whenever a new CAR or significant revision is proposed to be issued, the draft CAR/proposed
revision may be circulated to: a) Concerned operators b) Plus regional officer c) plus manufacturer d)
None of the above.
21. Revision notice indicates: a) Pages affected b) reason for revision c) Both A and B d) None of the
above.
22. Part — III relates to: a) Objectives and targets of airworthiness directorate b) Airworthiness
regulation and safety oversight c) Duties of owner/operator d) Both A and B.
23. The most obvious objective of an airworthiness authority is: a) Ensuring design levels of reliability b)
Operating safety of civil registered aircraft c) Alert value of light aircraft d) Both A and B.
24. On-Condition maintenance is accomplishment of: a) Bench/institute test b) visual inspection c)
Physical measurement d) All of above.
25. Condition maintenance is based on theory of: a) Fit and forget it b) fit until failure c) Both A and B d)
None of the above.
26. The parametric report for achieving max. Measures of safety is sent to: a) RAO b) DGCA c) QCM d) All
the above.
27. The parameters are obtained as: a) Accidents per 1000 Hrs. b) IFSD per 1000 Hrs. c) IFSD per 100 Hrs.
d) Both A & B.
28. A parameter to be obtained from no. of emergency landings and total no. of Hrs. flown is:
a) Incidents /1000 Hrs. b) Accidents/I 000 Hrs.
c) Dispatch reliability d) None of the above.
29. No. of notifiable accidents along with no. of lirs. flown gives:
a) Emergency landing /1000 I-Irs. b) Accidents /I000Hrs.
c) Dispatch reliability d) Accident/I00 departures.
30. Total number of engine hours flown is given by product of no. of airframe hours
a) any one engine Hrs. of aircraft b) Total no. of engines installed
c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
31. Total engine Hrs. and total IFSD gives:
a) IFSD / 1000 Hrs. b) Accidents /1000 Hrs.
c) Dispatch reliability d) all the above.
32. Dispatch reliability provides:
a) Cancelled flights b) Delayed flights
c) All flights d) Both A and B
33. Parameters i.e. no. of major defects / 1000 Hrs. includes no. of Hrs. of:
a) Airframe b) Engine
c) Either A or B d) None of the above.
34. Private operator will furnish information in parametric form to DGCA every:
a) One month b) Three month
c) Six months d) One year.
35. Non-scheduled, aerial work, training aircraft operator should furnish information toDGCA every.
a) One month b) Three month
c) Six Month d) On demand.
36. Monthly report should be sent to DGCA by:
a) Scheduled operator b) a) plus non-scheduled
c) b) plus aerial work d) c) plus private.
37. Dispatch reliability is parameters send by:
a) Scheduled operator b) a) Plus non-scheduled
c) Plus aerial work c) Plus private.
38. If there is nil information is there, the DGCA receives:
a) Nil information b) No response
c) Previous information d) Any other except above.
39. It is the responsibility of owner/operator to procure the revision /CAR From:
a) DGCA New Delhi, b) regional airworthiness office
c) Sub regional airworthiness office d) Publisher.
40. Unintentional landing affected on account of failure/malfunctioning of an aircraft component system
is:
a) Hard landing b) Crash landing
c) Belle landing d) Emergency landing.
41. Maintenance process requiring assembly, inspection of aircraft/components at fixed periods is:
a) On condition maintenance b) Condition monitoring
c) Hard time maintenance d) Schedule maintenance.
42. Achieving the maximum measures of safety the operator/owner should submit the
regional or sub regional office the:
a) The no. of emergency landing and Hours flown
b) The no. of engine hours! in flight
c) No. of accidents /No. of 15 minutes delays
d) All above are correct.
43. The frequency, scope, and contant of periodical inspection:
a) Should be altered only after three months
b) Should be altered only after six months
e) Should be altered only after 12 months
d) Chair not be altered with out the approval of DGCA.
44. Technic& officers of airworthiness directorate may ask the operator to submit for
inspection the:
a) Aircraft b) Aircraft components
c) Aircraft documents d) Both B and C
45. Revision notes:
a) Need not to field
b) Should be filed in a special file
c) Should be filed along with the affected CAR folder
d) Both A and B are correct.
46. When ever a new CARl/Revision is issued, operator/owner should be provided with the
a) Check list by DGCA
b) Amendment list by DGCA
c) Revision by DOCA
d) Issue by DOCA.
47. The parameters mentioned in CAR series A Part-Ill will be recorded in graphical form
and compared by:
a) Regional airworthiness office b) Sub regional airworthiness office
c) QCM of organization d) Both A & B.
48. Airworthiness office after investigating the parameter will can recommend:
a) Varying the process of maintenance
b) Suggesting in corporation of modification
c) Increasing monitoring checks by airworthiness office
d) All above.
49. The assessment of performance of operator will be provided as “Birds eye view” by:
a) Maintenance schedule
c) Monitoring parameters
b) Modification status
d) On condition and hard time maint
50. The operator shall him self take corrective action by observing:
a) Qualification of AME b) Qualification of mechanics
c) Adverse trends in serviability d) Both A & B.
51. The aircraft rule of aircraft rules 1937 that lays the maintenance and certification standard of civil
registered aircraft is:
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 59
c) Rule 50 d) Rule 60
52. The rule that lays that a major defect or major damage to aircraft shall be reported to
DGCA is:
a) Rule 60 b) Rule 50
c) Rule 59 d) Rule 15.
53. Aircraft component means a part filled on aircraft, the soundness and correct functioning of which is
essential for:
a) Its continuous airworthiness b) Safety of aircraft
c) Safety of occupants d) All the above.
54. Major defects means defect of such nature that will:
a) Take at least 72 Hrs. for rectification
b) Necessarily involve change of component
c) Result in emergency
d) Reduce the safety of aircraft occupants.
55. CAR section II series C Part —I classifies major defects in:
a) One group b) Two group
c) Three group d) Four group.
56. Failure of a component that result in taking emergency action:
a) Defect b) Major defect
c) Minor defect d) Repetitive defect.
57. The aircraft operator that operator it fleet as per published schedule is called:
a) Normal operator b) Private operator
c) Scheduled operator d) Non-scheduled operator.
58. All major defect will be reported to:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DAW d) QCM.
9. All major defect will be reported to RAO concerned:
a) Within 48 Hrs. b) Within 24 Hrs.
c) Within 12 Hrs. d) Immediately on telephone.
60. Investigation of major defect will be completed within:
a) One moths b) two months
c) six months d) three months
61. The final defect investigate report shall be sent to:
a) DGCA in duplicate b) DGCA in triplicate
c) RAO in duplicate d) RAO In triplicate.
62. The main purpose of investigation is to:
a) Find the cause of defect
b) Find the person who caused the defect
c) Avodrecurcuce of defect
d) Both A and C.
63. Mech. Delay is a delay of:
a) 15 Minute or more b) 30 Minute or more
c) 15 Minutes or more to scheduled services
d) 30 Minute or more to scheduled services.
64. for computing static’s for the purpose of determining components reliability one has to
take into account:
a) Major defects b) Minor defect
c) Repetitive defect d) all the above.
65. All faults malfunctioning defect or any other occurrence such may cause service
difficulties or adverse effect on continuing airworthiness shall be reported by
operator/approved maintenance organization with in:
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 7 days d) 15 days.
66. Records associated with defect shall be preserved for:
a) Two weeks b) Six weeks
c) One weeks d) Two years.
67. Component associated with major defect will be preserved for a period of:
a) One week b) 15 days
c) 3 Weeks d) 2 weeks)
68. Which of the following is called major defect:
a) Significant fuel contamination
b) Fuel starvation in flight
c) None of the above
d) Both A and B.
69. Operator other than scheduled operator will forward fleet performance:
a) After one months b) After two months
c) After four months d) after three months.
70. Scheduled operator shall forward fleet performance:
a) After two months b) After fifteen months c) After one month d) After six months.
71. a fleet is constituted by:
a) At least 25 aircraft b) At least 5 aircraft
c) At least 3 aircraft d) None of the above.
72. Minor defects are classified:
a) Group A and B b) Group I and II c) Emergency and Non-Emergency type d) None of the above.
73. CAR sec.-II series C part-Il (Recording of in flight instruments is) Applicable to:
a) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator
c) Public transport aircraft d) All the above.
74. Group —I type major defect includes:
a) Fires during flight b) false five warning during flight
c) Both A & B d) None of the above.
75. Occurrence of major defect falling into group-I will require:
a) renewal of C of A b) Registration of FRC
c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
76. In flight instrument reading should be recorded:
a) At least once in each of sector
b) At least once in each of sector under stabilized cruise conditions
c) In the even of emergency condition of flight
d) Both B & C.
77. Only those defects must be entered in the relevant colors of flight reports, that are
observed during:
a) Preflight b) Post flight
c) Course of flight d) all are correct.
78. If no defect is reported by crew during the previous day AME will:
a) release the aircraft for flying
b) Release the aircraft after consulting QCM
c) Release aircraft for flight only when NIL entry has been made by pilot
d) None of the above.
79. Defects observed at a place away from normal base are recorded in:
a) Aircraft log book b) Journey log book couloum XI
c) Job sheet d) Defect register
80. In case performance deterioration and observed in aircraft test flight is carried out to
ascertain increase of drag from the parameter:
a) Fuel flow and airspeed b) Fuel flow and true airspeed
c) Fuel flow and altitude d) None of the above.
81. CAR series C Part-IV relates to:
a) Public transport aircraft
b) Public transport aircraft turbo jet only
c) Aircraft other than public transport
d) None of the above.
82. If detonation is observed of an engine RAO may:
a) Curative measures to be taken
b) Flight test to ascertain increase Indy
c) Replacement of engine
d) Both A & C are correct.
83. Reliability monitoring unit is part of:
a) DOCA b) RAO c) Operators QC wings d) None.
84. RMU will gather information from:
a) scheduled maintenance b) Unscheduled maintenance
c) From Both A and B d) None.
85. If a system is over alert/alert notice will be issued by RMU and report will sent to:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c)QCM d) None.
86. Alert notice will be issued to all concerned and sent to RAO in duplicate: a) By 251h of every month
b) By 30th of every month
c) On 25th of every month d) On 7th of every month.
87. Roughly graphic display about reliability should summarize operating experience for at least the last:
a) Three months b) two months c) six months d) One year.
88. Maintenance control by reliability method is given in series:
a) B Part-I b) F Part-XX
c) C Part-V d) H Part-Ill
89. C Part V is applicable to:
a) Scheduled airlines b) Non-scheduled airlines
c) Private operator d) Both A & B.
90. Occurrence of major defect falling under group-I require:
a) Rectification of defect
b) Reporting to RAO within 72 Months
c) Validation of FRC
d) Only A & C.
91. At the end of flight crew must put in the register:
a) Any snag observed during flight
b) Nil, even when no snag observed
c) Heavy landing if happened
d) All the above.
92. Reliability displays for any reported failure or non-routine, removals are to be impressed in terms:
a) 1000 Aircraft Hours. b) 1000 Aircraft Hrs. or 100 Landings
c) 1000 aircraft Hrs. or 3 months elapsed time
d) 1000 aircraft hrs. or after appropriate devolutions.
93. Reliability displays for all reported removals are to be preserved for a period:
a) Six months b) One year
c) Two years d) five years.
94. Regarding defects occurring on the aircraft system the role of RAO is to:
a) Carry out speed checks on the records maintained
b) Ensure that defect are classified properly
c) Associate themselves seas to get the defects rectified
d) All the above.
95. CAR series D Part —I deals with the reliability of aircraft engine operated by:
a) Schedule operator b) Unscheduled operator
c) Schedule and un-operator d) All operator
96. The reliability of engines is measured BY:
a) Number of IFSD b) Number of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
c) Number of nature of 112S1) d) No. of nature of IFSD in relation to engine flight hrs.
97. How many categories in flight shut dawns are recognized:
a) 1 Categories b) 2 Categories
c) 3 Categories.
98. Shut downs deals with the aircraft structural damage and adversely affect is called:
a) Critical shut-down b) Non critical shut down
c) Both d) None of the above.
99. If Cannot be shut down or feathered than it is:
a) Critical shutdowns b) Non critical shutdowns
c) Both.
100. In-flight shutdowns used for computing an operator’s shutdown rate include:
a) Critical shutdown
b) Other than critical shutdown
c) Shutdown for testing / training
d) Both A and B are correct.
101. In flight shut down rate, engine hrs. flown and reliability index is to be sent to RAO
every month by:
a) The 10th day b) The I 5th day
c) The 20th day d) None of the above.
102. 25th day of each month the report sent to RAO is:
a) Total time flown b) Sr. No.
c) Time since overhaul d) all of the above.
103. RAO analyzes the monthly report and forward to:
a) DGCA b) Sub-RAO
c) Operator d) I and III.
104. The function of maintenance is:
a) Reliability b) Disability
c) Flexibility d) I and II.
105. Reliability deals:
a) Basic design b) Personal training
c) Overhaul d) All of the above.
106. During the time the operation in the alert area than who will monitor the corrective
program:
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) I and III.
107. A supplementary report containing various information regarding IFSD must be sent to:
a) RAO by the 25th of the month.
b) DGCA by the 25th of the month
c) RAO by the 10th of the month
d) DGCA by the 10th of the month.
108. Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval is covered under:
a) JAR 60(2) b) IAR 60
c) CAR Series D Part-Il d) Both A and C.
109. Condition monitoring implies the philosophy of:
a) fit and forget b) Fit until failure
c) Both A and B are correct.
110. Hard time is a:
a) Failure preventive process b) Not a failure preventive process
c) Maintenance programmed d) I and III are correct.
111. It is not a failure preventive process
a) Hard time b) condition monitoring
c) On condition
112. This process has got direct relationship between reliability and the age:
a) Hard time maintenance process b) Condition monitoring maint. Process.
c) On condition monitoring maintenance process.
113. If Reliability could be measured without stripping by physical measurement is:
a) On Condition b) Condition monitoring
c) Hard time.
114. Replacement of condition monitoring item is:
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Unscheduled maintenance
c) Hard time maintenance.
115. For older aircraft, manufacturers would issue a document called:
a) Supplemental structural inspection document
b) Log Book
c) Register
d) Both I and III.
116. Restoring an aircraft part or component to its original design performance level after
replacing reworking the parts is termed as:
a) Overhaul b) Top overhaul
c) Modification d) Both A and C are correct.
117. Am items is considered damage tolerant if:
a) It can sustain damage and the remaining structural can withstand reasonable load
b) It can sustain damage and the structure can bear excessive load.
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) None of the above.
118. Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but with in the allowable operating range.
a) alert valve b)
c) Both d) None of the above.
119. Occurrence of malfunction in-flight are recorded in the:
a) Technical log book b) Journey log book
c) Both I and II d) None of the above.
120. The entry in technical logbook is filled by:
a) Flight crew b) Cabin crew
c) AME d) Pilot
121. The operator shall establish an alert level:
a) In the pressure b) Based on experience
c) With concern to AME.
122. Alert level can be continuously up-dated by means of rolling average either:
a) Quarterly or 6 monthly b) 8 Monthly
c) 2 year d) 1 year.
123. Corrosion prevention schedule is included by the operators in:
a) Maintenance system manual b) Technical log book
c) Register d) Journey log book.
124. If in any programme approved by the airworthiness is deviated, it should be brought to
the notice of:
a) QCM b) RAO
c) Operator d) AME.
125. The details of the any programme approved by AWO, it should be reflected in the:
a) Inspection schedule b) COSL
c) Special inspection schedule d) All of the above.
126. Hidden function components must have some form of:
a) Scheduled maintenance b) Unscheduled maintenance
c) Both d) None of the above.
127. Who maintain a continuous record of the parameters in a graphical form or a tabulated form:
a) AME b) Every operator
c) QCM d) I and III.
128. It shall be the responsibility to mention the fatigue lives of the components in the engine log book.
a) By QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
129. It shall be the responsibility to report to RAO/sub RAO in writing all life limiting features:
a) BY QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
130. The parameters shall be recorded/plotted after:
a) 24 Hrs. B) 60 Hrs.
c) 5OHrs. d) 12 Hrs.
131. The operators shall inform in writing whenever alert values are reached or abnormal
conditions.
a) RAO/Sub RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) DGCA.
132. The corrective maintenance action shall be spell out in:
a) Journey logbook b) maintenance system manual
c) CAR d) I and III.
133. Failed engines shall be preserved at least for:
a) 1 Year b) 2 years
c) 5 Years d) All of the above.
134. Engine overhaul records shall be preserved by:
a) RAO b) Organization
c) Overhauling agencies d) QCM
135. The average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in the engine log book by:
a) RAO b) QCM
c) Licence AME d) Operator.
136. When ever alert value exceeds who would initiate necessary corrective action:
a) RAO b) Operator
c) QCM d) AME.
137. Primary maintenance process has been recognized by the:
a) QCM b) Airworthiness authorities
c) RAO.
138. Which aircraft require regular assessment of their structure?
a) Transport aircraft b) Pressurized transport aircraft
c) land II d) All of the above.
139. Average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in:
a) Journey log book b) In engine log book
c) Propeller log book d) all of the above.
140. CAR supersedes the instructions contained in DGCA in:
a) Circular letter No.10/7/64 b) Circular letter No. 12/8/64
c) Circular letter no.1/9/64 d) None of the above.
141. Who can carried out periodical spot checks on the records of fuel and oil uplift?
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) Technician.
142. Who can change from one maintenance process to another?
a) RAO b) AME
c) Operator d) QCM
144. Who may require an operator to submit samples to bench checking and in case of engines
even to flight tests:
a) QCM b) AME
c) RAO/Sub Rao d) all of the above.
145. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameters in:
a) A graphical form b) A tabulated form
c) Either A or B d) None
146. Every engine parameters has an alert value which is fixed by:
a) Operator b) DGCA
c) RAO d) Operator in consultations with RAO
147. Life record of all engine accessories is available in:
a) Journey log book b) Log cards
c) Overhaul manual d) Maintenance manual.
148. Alert values are:
a) Reference values only b) Accepting limits
c) Both.
149. RAO May require immediate withdrawal of engines from service in case:
a) Parameter monitoring records are not kept.
b) Alert values have been exceeded
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) None of the above.
150. CAR series D Part-V regarding maintenance of fuel oil consumption is applicable in
respect of:
a) All aircraft engines b) Scheduled aircraft engines
c) Light aircraft engines d) None of the above.
151. Daily uplift of fuel /oil consumption in fuel oil register is signed by:
a) QCM b) Licensed AME
c) DY.QCM d) Authorized person.
152. Average fuel consumption is recorded:
a) In engine logbook b) In airframe log book
c) By an AME.
153. Fuel and oil consumption records in logbooks are to be maintained by:
a) Licensed AME b) Qualified technicians
c) QCM d) A and B are correct.
154. Work performed at predetermined intervals to maintain an aircraft in airworthy condition
Scheduled maintenance b) Preventive maintenance
c) Both A and B d) None
155. Any change from one maintenance process to another after getting approval from RAO needs to be
documented in:
a) QC manual b) Maintenance system manual
c) BothAandB.
156. On the consideration of operating economy operator can increase the service life of
components with the approval of:
a) Manufacturer b) QCM
c) DGCA d) Both B and C.
157. Condition monitoring of components follow:
a) Hard time maintenance b) On-condition control
c) Operate to failure philosophy d) A and C are correct.
158. Service life of a component can be reduced by an operator.
a) On his own b) On his own under intimation to DGCA
c) On his own but with DGCA Permission d) At the behest of DGCA.
Series F
1.Procedure relating to registration/dc-registration of a/c are given in
1. F series ,part I 2. F series, part II
3. F series, part III 4. None of the above
2. The rule that requires that no person shall fly or assist in flying any a/c unless it has been
registered is
1. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. Rule 5 4. None of the above
3. The a/c should bear its nationality and registration marks and the name & the residence of the
owner affixed or painted in accordance with
1. Rule 5 2. Rule 37
3. Rule 50 4. None of the above
4. An a/c in India is registered in
1. Category A 2. Category B
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
5. An a/c in India is registered in category A when the a/c is widely owned
I. By citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered in India and the chairman and atleast 2/3w of the directors of
which are citizens of India
3. By central government or any state government
4. All above
6. An a/c owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India provided that company has given the
a/c on lease to any person who is a citizen of India or to another company or to state or central
government that that a/c will be registered in
I. Cat. ’A’ 2. Cat. B
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
7. An ale in India is registered in category B when the ale is wholly owned
I. By persons resident in or carrying on business in India, who are not citizens of India
2. By a company or corporation registered elsewhere than in India and carrying on business in India
3. Both a& b are correct
4. None of the above
8. For applying for registration f a/c which document should be shown
1. Custom clearance certificate/bill of entry of a/c
2. Certificate of- registration from the previous registering authority
3. A copy of the import hence issued by director general foreign trade (DGFT)
4. All above
9. If an application is made for the registration of an ale before it is imported in India a temporary C of R
may be granted under the provision of
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 31
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
10. Registration marking shall not 1 : allotted which might be confused with international code of
signals like
I. Registration beginning with the letter Q
2. Registration SOS , XXX . PAN, and TTT
3. Both a & b are correct
4. None of the above
11. Where a certificate has been lost the owner may apply to DGCA for the issue ola duplicate
certificate with
1. An affidavit, a copy of FIR lodged with the police 2. Prescribed fee
3. Both a & h are correct 4. None of the above
12. Where a certificate has been mutilated the owner may apply for issue of a Duplicate
certificate to DGCA with
1. Mutilated certificate & prescribed fee 2. Mutilated certificate
3. Only prescribed fee 4. None of the above
13. The registration of an ale registered in India may be cancelled at any time by DGCA of its
satisfied that
I. The registration has been obtained by furnishing false information
2. The a/c has been destroyed or permanently
3. The lease in respect of the a/c registered has expired
4. All above
14. The nationality mark of all Indian — Registered ale is
1. EI 2. JO
3. AVU 4. VT
15. IAR 30 improves the government of India
I. To register an a/c in India 2. To import an ale into India
3. To flu ale in India 4. None of the above
16. C of R is valid for
I. One year 2. Two Year
3. Six months 4. None of the above
1 7. Registration of the ale by the DGCA
1. Is for the purpose of controlling the safety of aviation in India
2. Is for the establishing the legal ownership of an ale
3. Both a & b
4. None of the above
18. A/C Rule 49 empowers the DGCA
1. To revalidate C of A 2. To issue C of A
3. To issue type certificate for ale 4. All are correct
19. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of
ale Rule
1. 49A 2. 49B
3. 49C 4. 49
20. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor-craft is submitted in the form as per
CAR series F
1. Part ‘I’ Annexure 1 2. Part ‘I’ Annexure II
3. Part ‘II’ Annexure II 4. Part ‘II’ Annexure I
21. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate of ale is to be submitted in the form as in
Series F Part II Annexure I 2. Series F Part II Annexure II
3. JAR 49 Sub- Rule 2 4. None of the above
22. For issuance of type certificate of aircraft or its components, the DGCA should be satisfied
on the points:
1. The design has been approved by DGCA
2. The design on forms to approved airworthiness requirements/specifications of foreign airworthiness
authorities and acceptable to DGCA.
3. Both I and 2
4. None of the above.
23. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA
confirms that the aircraft meets earth the requirements of:
1. FAR 23 and 25. 2. BCAR 23 and JAR 25
3. FAR 27 and 29 4. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
24. Type certificate of a rotorcraft imported in India can be revalidation by the DGCA if its
design and construction can form earth.
1. FAR 23 and 25 2. BCAR 23 and JAR 25
3. FAR 27 and 29 4. BCAR 27 and 29.
25. An Aero engine manufactured outside India can he type certified by the DGCA if it conforms
to:
1. FAR33 2. FAR23
3. FAR 30 4. Both I and 3 are correct.
26. DGCA revalidation the type certificate in respect of engine /propeller under the purview of
aircraft rule:
1. 49 2. 49A
3. 49B 4. 49C.
27. Before revalidation of type certificate, DGCA may discuss specific design/manufacturing
issues with:
1. Representatives of the manufacturer
2. Airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
28. DGCA has to revalidation the type certificate of an imported aircraft:
1. Just as it is 2. It can be modified
3. After importing special condition for safe operation 4. It cannot modify it.
29. For revalidation of type certificate of aircraft imported into India which of the following
documents is not required:
1. Type certificate 2. Type design data-sheet
3. The basis on ETOPS certification if applicable 4. Quality control and maintenance system manual.
30. The certification of aircraft /aircraft components manufactured in India shall he done by
approved/authorized person as per aircraft rule:
1. 53 2. 53A
3. 53B 4. 53 C.
31. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of an aircraft shall be preserved for a
period of:
I. two years 2. Four years
3. Five years 4. Ten years.
32. Test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out in accordance with:
1. Manufacture’s test flight schedule
2. Test flight schedule approved by DGCA
3. Both I and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
33. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to
DGCA:
1. Test flight report of the aircraft
2. Test flight schedule or scouting and approval 3. Test schedule of scouting and approval 4. None of the
above.
34. Manuals that should be submitted in respect of a type component/item of equipment for
approval are:
1. Type service manual and flight manual
2. Maintenance manual and structural repair manual
3. Both I and 2 are correct
4. None of the above.
35. A minor modification is one which has appreciable effect on:
1. Weight and balance 2. Structural strength
3. Flight characteristics 4. None of the above.
36. A major modification is one that shall be:
1. Classified as minor modification
2. Not classified as minor modification
3. Equal to overhaul
4. None of the above.
37. Design submitted for type approval shall beer:
1. Description title and drawing number
2. As in A plus date of issue
3. As in 13 plus issue number
4. All are correct.
38. If an alteration is made to a drawing then:
1. A new issue number will be issued
2. Date shall be allocated
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
39. If at any time the DGCA feds that the safety of aircraft is jeopardized it can:
1. Cancel or suspend a type certificate
2. Endorse a type certificate
3. Incorporate a modification in type certificate
4. All above are correct.
40. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft /aircraft component:
1. Approval of DGCA is a must
2. Written approval of manufacturer is a must
3. Approval of QCM/CEM is a must
4. All above are correct.
41. A major modification is a one which has:
I. No appreciable effect on the weight and balance.
2. No appreciable effect on the structural strength
3. Appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic effecting the airworthiness of the
aircraft / aircraft component
4. None of the above.
42. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR Series ‘E’ Part-Il Annexure ‘I’---------------unmounted
photograph of the aircraft have to be submitted: size --------------------I. Three, l0 X 15 cm.
2. Three, not less than 10 x 15 cm.
3. Five, 10 X 15cm.
4. Five, not less than 10 X 15 cm.
43. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
dimension to the DGCA.
I. Length of fuselage
2. Length overall, height overall
3. Both I and 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
44. for obtaining type certificate of a rotorcraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
dimension to the DGCA:
1. Length of fuselage
2. Overall length
3. Diameter of main rotor and tail rotor main rotor blade chard.
4. All above are correct.
45. DGCA is empowered to issue/review or revalidate the C of A vide:
1. Aircraft rule 5 2. Aircraft rule 15
3. Aircraft rule 15 4. None of the above.
46. All aircraft registered in India must posses a current and valid C of A before they are flown is
a requirement as per aircraft rule:
1. 50 2. 30
3. 15 4. 50A.
47. The procedure for issuing Indian C of A is given in:
I. F’ Series Part-I 2. F’ Series part-Il
3. ‘F’ Series part-Ill 4. None of the above.
48. For issue of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy itself that the aircraft/rotorcraft
manufactured/imported meets the approved airworthiness standards of:
I. BCAR 23 and JAR 25 2. FAR 23 and FAR 25
3. FAR 27and 29 4. All above are correct.
49. C of A for aircraft, which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the
DGCA:
I. Cannot be issued/renewed 2. The operator may consult the DGCA ( DAW ) before buying / importing
such aircraft so that acceptance standards are conveyed to him.
3. Both I and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
50. Application for obtaining C of A is to he submitted on form:
1. CA—23A 2. CA-25
3. CA-28 4. CA-27.
51 . Before C of A In respect of an imported aircraft is issued, the DGCA satisfy himself with the:
I. Airworthiness standards of the aircraft
2. Design standards of the aircraft
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above.
52. For aircraft type imported into the country for the first time the documents accompanying the
export C of A will be:
1. A copy of type certificate
2. Data sheet of the aircraft
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
4. None of the above.
53. Aircraft with MTOW greater that 5700 Kg. And categorized as passenger/mail /good shall
have at least engines:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. None of the above.
54. For issuance of C of A for an aircraft type which is imported for the first time. the
owner/operator shall supply, free of cost to DGCA:
I. Airplane flight manual
2. Type certification
3. MMEL
4. All above are correct.
55. The set of documents that shall be submitted to RAO/Sub-RAO of DGCA where the aircraft is bused
with up to date amendments will he:
Aircraft maintenance manual, engine maintenance manual
2. Overhaul manual, structural repair manual
3. Service bulletins, SSID, CPCP.
4. All of the above.
56. For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA:
1. To the manufacturer for completion
2. To the owner/operator for completion
3. To the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion
4. All above are correct.
57. RAO/Sub-RAO may issue/validate the C of A on the basis of:
1. ExportCofA
2. Physical inspection of the aircraft
3. Scrutiny of other related documents
4. All of the above.
58. The airworthiness officer is required to:
Inspect the aircraft to the extent possible
2. To establish that all instruments and equipment have been installed and are in
serviceable condition.
3. Aircraft is airworthy
4. All of the above. a
59. The validity of C of A is:
I. for one year
2. For six months
3. Not exceeding one year
4. 1 and 3 are correct.
60. C of A validity of imported aircraft is:
1. For one year
2. for six months
3. Beginning from the date of issue of original export C of A.
4. Both 1 and 3 are correct.
61. Short term C of a issued for:
I. Un-airworthy aircraft
2. Aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration markiig
3. Aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking
4. Aircraft having service life of less than one year.
62. The DGCA may refuse a C of A to an aircraft if:
1. He feels like it
2. Required data are not made available
3. Reasonable apprehension exists regarding its airworthiness
4. Both2 and 3 are correct.
63. The document, which must accompany the application for issue of C of A, is:
I. Form CA-83 2. form CA-84
3. Both I are 2 are correct 4. None of the above.
64. Normal category aircraft are:
1. Private passenger 2. Goods, banal work
3. Passenger, Mail 4. All are correct.
65. Aircraft certified in normal category shall not be used in:
1. Special category 2. Aerobatics category
3. Private category 4. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
66. The three general categories of aircraft are:
1. Normal, special aerobatics 2. Passenger, mail, goods
3. Aerial , private, agricultural 4. Passenger, normal special.
67. Aircraft certificate in normal category can be used:
I. In all subdivisions 2. In special category
3. In specific sub-division(s) 4. None of the above.
68. Private aircraft:
1. Means all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft
2. Shall not be used for here or reward
3. Shall not be used for any kind of remuneration
4. All above are correct.
69. A state government aircraft certified in normal category subdivision shall be a aircraft
I. Passenger 2. Private
3. Research 4. Racing.
70. Research aircraft is a subdivision of:
I. Normal category 2. Aerobatics category
3. Special category 4. Experimental category.
71. Racing aircraft is a subdivision of:
I. Normal 2. Aerobatics
3. Experimental 4. Special.
72. Aircraft certified in aerobatics category may be used:
I. In special category 2. In normal category
3. For experimental work 4. For racing.
73. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the
requirements of:
1. FAR 15 2. FAR 26
3. FARAD(87-0l-40) 4. FAR2I.
74. Class II and class IV aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Airworthiness approval tag issued under port 21e of FAA
4. None of the above.
75. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should he accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA
4. None of the above.
76. Complete aircraft comes under class aeronautical product. 1. 1 2. II
3. III 4. IV.
77. An aircraft being exported to India in flyaway condition should:
1. Display Indian nationality and registration marking
2. Display foreign nationality and registration marking
3. Have ferry flight authorized
4. Both I and 2 are correct.
78. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported
into India is the responsibility of:
1. Exporter of the aircraft 2. Importer of the aircraft
3. DGCA 4. FAA.
79. Noise standards’ acceptable in India for issuance of Indian C of A are:
I. Same as required for issuance of C of A in USA.
2. More stringent that in USA
3. Less stringent than in USA
4. It is not a eritereon for issue of C of A.
80. Class II and III aeronautical products imported into India must accompany:
1. Airworthiness approval tag
2. Compliance with FAR 21 (sub Part R)
3. Compliance with FAR 21 (Sub part P)
4. Compliance with FAR 21 (Sub Part L).
81. Engine I propellers imported into India must accompany:
1. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Compliance with FAR 21 (sub part C)
4. Both I and 3 are correct.
82. Reconditioned /used /surplus parts must be certified by:
I. FAAIJAA certified repair station
2. Certified aircraft and power plant mechanic a
3. Both I and 2
4. Either I or 2.
83. Requirements for renewal of C of A is contained in:
1. CAR Series” Part IV 2. FAR Part 65
3. Aircraft rule 5 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
84: The rule that requires that all Indian registered aircraft posses a valid C of A is:
I. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. Rule 5 4. All are in correct.
85. The rule that empowers DGCA to issue C of A is:
I. Rule 5 2. Rule 15
3. Rule 50 4. None of the above.
86. Validity period of C of A is limited to a maximum period of:
1. Six Months 2. Nine months
3. One year 4. None of the above.
87. Validity period of C of A for all aircraft of over 20 years of age is:
1. One year 2. Six months
3. Nine months 4. None of the above.
88. Validity of C of A can be extended for:
1. 3% 2. 10%
3. 0% 4. None of the above.
89. Regular and timely renewal of C of A of an aircraft will involve:
1. Less effort to the owner/operator
2. Will cost less to the owner/operator
3. Both I and 2
4. None of the above.
90. Operation of an aircraft may apply [‘or the renewal of C of A along with necessary fees as
per:
1. RuIe5X 2. Rule6I
3. Rule 62 4. None of the above.
91. Application of renewal of C of A should be made preferably days in advance of expiry of C Of A:
1. 10 2. 15
3. 15 4. None of the above.
92. For the purpose of renewal of C of A the aircraft would simply be required to be inspected in
accordance with:
1. 25 Hrs. inspection schedule 2. 50 Hrs. inspection schedule
3. 100 Hrs. inspection schedule 4. None of the above.
93. In case the C of A of the aircraft has expired, for renewal the quantum of work required has to he
decided by:
I. Officer —in charge RAO 2. Operator/QCM
3. Manufacturer 4. None of the above.
94 During C of A renewal operator should submit to the concerned airworthiness officer:
I. All log books 2. Major maintenance schedules
3. Registers 4. All of the above.
95. For renewal of C of A, the operator has to submit to RAO:
1. C of A, C of R 2. W/T Licence
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
96. Renewal of C of A Indian registered aircraft abroad: a
1. cannot be carried and should be avoided
2. Can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA
3. C of A will be renewed in normal manner
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
97. C of A shall be cease to be valid of:
I. Approved inspection schedule is completed when due
2. Lifed components are replaced on expiry of stipulated lives
3. Un approved repairs / modification are carried out
4. All are correct.
98. If mendatory modification are not carried out as and when called for:
I. The C of R will lease to be valid
2. The C of A will lease to be valid
3. The W/T will lease to be valid.
4. All are correct.
99. The AME /approved firm undertaking the C of A renewal work must ensure the availability
of -------------- for the type of aircraft.
1. Up to date technical literature
2. Special tools, SSID CPCP , COSL
3. List of mandatory modification / inspection
4. All are correct.
100. Before the C of A is renewed the operator/owner has to satisfy the airworthiness officer about the
--------------- aspects of aircraft since the C of A of aircraft was last renewal:
I. All mandatory modification / inspections have been complied with
2. All major repairs and overhauls have been carried out
3. The flight manual is amended and up to date
4. All of the above.
101. At the time of C of A renewal, the operator must submit to airworthiness office:
I. approved test flight report
2. A certificate that the radio, communication navigation and radar equipment on board have been
checked for performance.
3. All documents relating to log book entries
4. All of the above.
102. Aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above are required to be maintained by:
1. Individual AME’s 2. Airlines
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
103. Certificate of maintenance review in cases of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above is
issued by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. All are correct.
104. Aircraft with AUW more than 15,000 Kg. Can maintained by:
1. Individual AME’s 2. Authorized personnel
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
105. Certificate of maintenance review of case of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And below is
issued by:
1. Individual AME’s
2. AME having his Licence endorsed in category “B’ to cover the type of aircraft in lv ed
3. AME having his Licence endorsed in category D’ to cover the type of engine involved
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
106. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document
after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A will start from:
1. The date of inspection 2. The expiry of last C of A
3. The date of submitting the application 4. All are correct.
107. Application for renewal of C of A is submitted on form:
1. CA25 2. CA 28
3. CA23 4. AS PER GIVEN FORMAT.
Prepatory Exam CA Series: E Part-I and II
1. A firm approved in category A carries out:
a) Maintenance of aircraft b) Manufacture of aircraft
c) Testing of aircraft d) Both A and B are correct.
2. A firm approved for carrying out NDT of aircraft is approved in category:
a) A b) B c) C d) E.
3. A organization approved for carrying out propeller overhaul is approved in category:
a) A b) B c) C d) None of the above.
4. A firm approved for carrying out C of A of aircraft belongs to category:
a) B b) C c) D d) E.
5. A firm approved for carrying out repair and flight testing of Avionics set is in category:
a) A b) E c) D d) C.
6. An organisation under taking calibration of instruments of master-gauges and tools as applied to the
activities of CAD is approved in:
a)A b) D c) E d) F.
7. A firm carrying out chemical analysis is approved in:
a) Category E b) Category D
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above.
8. Firm approved in category F can carryout:
a) Maintenance of aircraft b) Manufacture of aircraft
c) Distribution of fuels/lubrication d) None of the above.
9. Aircraft goods’ means:
a) Aircraft components and items of equipment
b) Aircraft components or materials
c) Aircraft components or materials, including special petroleum products.
d) Both A and B are correct.
10. Certificate of approval means a document issued by:
a) DGCA to an approved organization giving the scope of approval.
b) An approved organization defining the scope of the approval.
c) An organization stating is approval in any particular category.
d) None of the above.
11. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials, goods and certifying
that the same were obtained from an approved source it termed as:
a) sales certificate b) Delivery note
c) Release note d) None of the above.
12, rejection note is a document issued by:
a) DOCA b) RAO c) Approved organization d) Both A and B are correct.
13. The QCM and the deputy QCM are approved by:
a) Airline’s chief Engineer b) Managing Director of the organization.
c) Technical Centre d) DGCA
14. A nodal officer is to be appointed by:
a) Owner/operator of state govt. b) Owner/operator of private category aircraft.
c) All scheduled/non-scheduled operator d) Both A and B.
15. An organization seeking approval in any of the categories A-G, should apply to:
a) RAO b) DGCA
c) DGCA through the nearest regional office d) Any of the above.
16. An organization seeking approval in any of the activities under any category (series-E) shall apply on
prescribed form:
a) CA 182 b) CA-9
c) CA-28 d) None of the above.
17. An organization seeking approval will Preferably submit:
a) Two different types of manual b) Three different types of manual
c) Three different types of manual in three copies each
d) None of the above.
18. Three different types of manual are:
a) QC, MS and Engineering organization manual
b) QC, MS and repair manual
c) QC, MS and engine overhaul manual
d) QC, MS and engine repair manual.
19. Engineering organization manual is approved by:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DGCA in consultation with RAO d) None of the above.
20. Quality control cum Quality Assurance manual for scheduled operator is approved by:
a) DOCA b) RAO
c) DGCA is consultation with RAO d) QCM.
21. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity, whenever applicable in
respect of periodic maintenance is contained in:
a) Engineering organization manual b) Qc cum Assurance manual
c) MS manual d) None of the above.
22. Maintenance system manual is approved by:
a) DGCA b) RAO
c) DGCA in consultation with RAO d) RAO in consultation with DGCA.
23. The procedure for duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls is listed in:
a) QC cum Assurance manual b) MS manual
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above.
24. Operator shall carry out in house audit of MEL:
a) Once a year b) Twice a year
c) At list twice a year d) Once in two years.
25. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised:
a) On manufacture’s recommendation b) As per requirements
c) BY QCM d) With the concurrence of DGCA.
26. Release notes are to be issued by organization of:
a) Category D b) Category F
c) Category D and F d) Any category.
27. Release note is signed by a person:
a) Approved by DGCA b) QCM
c) Named in terms of approval d) Both A and C are correct.
28. First copy of release note is issued to:
a) Consignee b) RAO
c) Organization record d) Supplier.
29. Rejection notes are distributed to:
a) Supplier, RAO and record b) Supplier, DGCA and record
c) Supplier and manufacturer d) None of the above.
30. The fee payable by any organization for approval of renewal covered in CAR Series E Part-I are as per
aircraft rule.
a) 133 b) 133-A
c) 133-B d) 133-C.
31. Type certificate means a certificate issued:
a) By DGCA to specify the design of type of aircraft component/items or equipment.
b) By RAO to specify the design of type of.
c) To a particular type of aircraft /series of aircraft.
d) None of the above.
32. Certificate of manufacture contains:
a) Signature of AME b) Firm’s approval number
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above.
33. An organization engaged in manufacture of aircraft issues:
a) Certificate of maintenance b) Certificate of manufacturer
c) Certificate of airworthiness d) Certificate of safety.
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS
C A R SERIES ‘E’ Part V to IX
1. CAR Series E Part V deals with:
1. Storage and Distribution 2. Test Laboratories
3. Training Schools 4. Manufacturers.
2. Approved drawings means approved by:
1. DGCA
2. Airworthiness Authorities of other countries acceptable to DGCA.
3. Both I & 2 4. . None of the above.
3. Who is responsible for standard and quality of Tests analysis?
1. QCM 2. RAO
3. DGCA 4. Approved person
4. Records of Inspections and Certifications of completed work in Cat. ‘D’ organisation
shall be preserved for:
1. One year 2. Two years
3. Three years. 4. Five years
5. CAR Series ‘E’ Part VI deals with:
1. Test laboratories 2. Training Schools
3. Fuel lubricants & Special Petroleum products.
4. Storage & distribution of Aircraft & its goods.
6. The special identification number allotted to the Petroleum Products as a one lot for testing
and sampling:
1. Identification number 2. Batch number
3. Serial number 4. None of the above.
7. Petroleum in bulk means Petroleum contain receptacle:
1. 900 liters. 2. Less than 900 liters.
3. More than 900 liters. 4. 1900 liters.
8. Aviation fuel and other petroleum products received for storage prior to loading into an
organisation shall be certified on an approved Release Note quoting:
1. Batch number 2. Test Report number
3. Specification 4. All of the above.
9. The organisation approved in Cat. E shall issue its customer a:
1. Voucher 2. Release Note
3. Pamphlet 4. None of the above
10. Vouchers are issued to certify the:
1. Quality of Product 2. Quantity of Product
3. Content of Product 4. All of the above
11. Vouchers shall quote:
1. Batch n umber 2. Specifications
3. Quantity delivered 4. All the above.
12. Records will be maintained by an organisation approved in Cat. ‘E’ for period of: 1. Minimum Two
years. 2. One year
3. Six months 4. For indefinite period.
13. CAR Series “F” Part VII deals with:
1. Storage and distribution 2. Training Schools
3. Manufacturers 4. AMEs.
14. Release Note signatories means person approved by:
1. DGCA 2. QCM.
3. Managing Director 4. R A 0.
15. To ensure that goods release to customers have not deteriorated, is the duty of:
1. Quality Control Manager 2. Signatory of Release Note
3. Both I & 2 4. None of the above.
16. No Aircraft goods shall be held in the bonded store for distribution unless they are received
under Cover of:
1. Release Note 2. Batch Number
3. Both I & 2 4. None of the above.
17. In case materials are returned by costumers on account of being unairworthy, this must be
known to:
1. Q.C.M. 2. R.A.O.
3. DGCA 4. All of the above.
18. Release Notes and other necessary documents are preserved for a period of:
1. Two years. 2. Five years.
3. Eight years. 4. Ten years.
19. CAR Series E Part VIII deals with:
1. Training Schools 2. Manufacturer
3. None of the above 4. All are correct.
20. Which Rule stipulated the grant of AME Licence to an Applicant, who have course from
DGCA approved, will be granted one year relaxation in total Aeronautical Maintenance
Experience:
1. Rule 61. 2. Rule 62.
3. Rule 16 4. Rule 61 A
21. Which Form shall be submitted to local Airworthiness for Approval of Institute:
1. CA182 2. CA182C
3. CA182A 4. CA182D.
22. On receipt of an Application, the Institute will be inspected by:
1. Quality Control Manager 2. R.A.O. and DGCA.
3. Both 1&2 4. None of the above.
23. Chief Instructor shall be nominated by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Chairman of an Organisation 4. Any of the above.
24. For AME Chief Instructor,---------------- years of Aeronautical Experience, out which------------- years in
of actual Maintenance of Aircraft is required:
1. 10,3 2. 10,6
3. 5,2 4. 5,4
25. How many Airframe Instructor are required by a Training School:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four
26. In one year the maximum and minimum no. of hours in a class should be:
1. 30,10 2. 40,20
3. 20,5 4. 50,20.
27. For AME training course, the candidates should have passed 10+2 with minimum aggregate
PCM:
1. 50% 2. 60%,
3. 33% 4. 70%
28. During any Semester the practical training shall not be less than:
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 61%
29. Minimum presence during training period shall not be less than:
1. 80% 2. 75%
3. 70% 4. 93%
30. To be declared successful in course, the candidate must obtain minimum of:
1. 33% of marks. 2. 50% of marks
3. 78% of marks. 4. 70% of marks.
31. The application of Students appearing for DGCA AME Exams shall be forwarded by:
1. Chief Instructor 2. Any Instructor
3. Managing Director 4. None of the above.
32. Question and Answer Paper of each paper shall be preserved by an Institute for a period of:
1. Six months 2. Two months
3. One year 4. Two years.
33. The Institute shall carry out an Internal Audit of their facilities & submit to local Airworthiness
Office:
1. Once in a year. 2. Thrice in a year
3. Twice in a year 4. Both I & 3 are correct.
34. CAR Series E Part IX deals with:
1. Requirements of Infrastructure and station other than parent base.
2. Manufacturers of Aviation Goods/items. 3. Training Schools,
4. None of the above.
35. CAR Series E Part IX Applies to:
1. Organisation approved in Category ‘C’. 2. Commercial Air Transport Operator.
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
.
1.Process organization means on organization engaged in:
a) Manufacture of aircraft b) Maintenance of aircraft
c) Specialized process or inspection.
2. A firm seeking approved in Category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA:
a) 12 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 3 Samples.
3. Certificate of maintenance is issued by:
a) QCM b) approved person
c) Both A and B.
4. Certificate of’ flight release is valid for:
a) Period specified in it b) 20 Hrs.
c) l2Hrs. d) One week
5. Record and certificate of a organization Category B are to be retained for:
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
c) 4 Years.
6. A firm seeking approval in category B for electro plating will submit:
a) 3 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 12 Samples.
7. Organization engaged in maintenance of aircraft, Aircraft component and equipment:
a) Series E Part-I b) Series E Part-Il
c) Series E Part-Ill d) Series E Part-IV.
8. Record of work performed under Category ‘C’ in Series E’ is to he preserved for:
a) 5 Years b) 2 Years
c) One year d) 1 0 Years
9. The AME of the firm approved in Category C’ can issue:
a) Certificate of maintenance b) Release note
c) Rejection note d) Both B and C.
10. Test reports issued by organization approved in Category ‘D’ is signed by:
a) Release note signatory b) Airworthiness officer
c) DGCA Head Qtr. d) QCM
11. An organization approved in category ‘D’, after completion of work, issues a:
a) Test report b) Test flight
c) Release note d) Both B and C.
12. A certificate issued by DGCA to specif’ the design of component/ items of equipment
is called:
a) Maintenance certificate b) Test flight
c) Type certificate
13. Certificate of manufacture contain or signature of AMF:
a) Signature of AME b) Firm’s approval number
c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
14. AMM means:
a) Aircraft manufacture manual b) Aircraft monatary manual
c) Aircraft movement d) Aircraft maintenance manual
15. CMM means:
1. Component Maintenance Manual 2. Competent Maintenance Manual.
3. Copy Maintenance Manual 4. Certified Maintenance Manual
16. SRM means:
1. Service & repair Manual 2. Structure Repair Manual
3. Service Maintenance & Repair Manual 4. Supply & Repair Man ual.
17. IPC means:
1. Indian Panel Copy 2. Indian Personal Copy
3. Indian Aircraft Parts Catalogue 4. Ill-Starred Parts Catalogue.
18. WDM means:
1. Wireless Duty Manual 2. Wireless Licence duty Manual
3. Wiring Diagram Manual 4. Wiring Diagram Maintenance.
19. SB means:
I. Service Bulletin 2. Store Book
3. Service Book 4. Stock Information letter.
20. Organisation outside India will be granted approval by DGCA when the organisation
complies with:
1.AAC4of 1998. 2. AAC8of 1999
3. AAC4of 1999 4. AAC7of 1998.
21. Approval in Cat ‘A’ is for manufacturing of:
1. Aircraft 2. Aircraft goods including Aircraft components.
3. Aircraft goods including A/c equipments. 4. All above.
22. For ‘Workshop process and Inspection’ organization approval is given in:
1. Cat. B, 2. Cat. E
3. Cat.F 4. Cat .F
23. AMOs are given approval in:
1. Cat. C 2. Cat. D
3. Cat. F 4. Cat G
24. CAR Series Cat ‘0’ relates with:
1. Test Flight of aircraft. 2. Testing Labs
3. Maintenance of aircraft. 4. Both B & C.
25. Organisation located outside India applies for approval of organisation on form:
on form:
1. CA182C 2. 183C
3. 128C 4. 138C
26. Completed form for Approval of an organisation located outside of India is submitted:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub R A W O
3. D G C A 4. Both l & 3
27. The scope of approval should be reflected in:
1. Engg. Manual 2. Quality Control Manual
3. Maint. System Manual 4. Organisation Manual
28. Approval of an Organisation is valid for:
1. Five years. 2. One year
3. Ten years. 4. Six months only
29. Serviceable aircraft components are stored in:
1. Bonded Stores 2. Quarantine stores
3. Approved stores 4. Both I & 2
30. Unserviceable aircraft components are stored in:
1. Bonded stores 2. Quarantine stores
3. Both 1 & 2 4. All are correct.
31. Storage and Handling of Electrostatic devices is spelt in:
1. AAC 10 of 2000 2. AAC 8 of 2000
3. AAC 6 of 2000 4. AAC 6 of 2001
32. Nodal Officer for Approval should have Aviation experience of:
1. 5 years 2. Three years
3. Six months 4. All the above.
33. Requirement of Refresher Course of AMEs is in:
1. AAC 8 of 2000 2. AAC 8 of 2001
3. AAC 8 of 2002 4. All the above.
34. Quality assurance unit carries out internal Audit atleast:
1. Twice a year 2. Thrice a year
3. Once a year 4. All are correct.
35. Engineering Organisation Manual is approved by:
1. DGCA Head Quarters 2. R A W 0.
3. Need not to be approved 4. Both I & 2
36. Quality Control Manual of fueling companies is approved by:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub-A W O.
3. DGCA 4. Bothl&@.
37. Quality Assurance Manual is approved by:
1. DGCA Head Qtr. 2. R A W O.
3. Sub- R A W 0. 4. Need not be approved.
38. No. of copies to be submitted for approval of Maint. System Manual:
1. Three copies 2. Four copies
3. Two copies 4. None of the above.
39. Revision to manuals is inducted by:
1. Side line on the left. 2. Side line on right
3. Side line on Top 4. Side line at Bottom of page
PREPARATORY AME EXAMS.
GEN. PAPER -I CIVIL AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS
Who notices the delay, incident investigation, reliability analysis etc.:
1. Operator 2. Manufacturer
3. A.M.E. 4. The Quality Control Department.
2. Who maintain or monitor that6 the licenses of personnel are valid?
1. Operator 2. A.M.E./Approved Person
3. Maintenance 4. Quality Control Cell.]
3. What is the full form of AlP:
1. Aero nautical Instruction Publications,
2. Aeronautical Information Programme,
3. Aeronautical Information Publication, 4. None of the above.
4. What is the full form of AlC? 1. Aeronautical In formation Circulars. 2. Airworthiness Inspection
Circular.
3. Aeronautical Information Publication 4. None of the above.
5. Which rules say that an operator shall have access to an adequate maintenance organization?
1. Rule 155 A of the aircraft Rules, 1937
2. Rule 55 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937
3. Rule 7 of the aircraft Rules, 1937
4. Rule 19 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937.
6. Whose responsibility is it to ensure the DGCA that their maintenance facility is satisfactory?
1. Operator 2. Q.C.M.
3. P.l.C. 4. Manufacturer
7. Before operation of maintenance what should be approved?
1. Maintenance Programme of the aircraft 2. M.E.L.
3. C D L 4. C of R.
8. On what document should an operator base his maintenance programme:
1. M P D. 2. S Bs 3. Q.C.Manual 4. Flight Manual
9. Who is the head of Quality Control Department?
1. Quality Control Manager 2. Operator
3. Chief Instructor 4. R.A.W.O.
10. Who should ensure that compliance of SBs / Mods and Airworthiness Directives:
1. The Quality Control Manager 2. A.M.E.
3. Operator 4. None of the above.
11. Which of these is a Negative Tend?
1. Premature Removal Rate 2. Aircraft Delays
3. Bothl&2 4. None of the above
12. What is ASC?
1. Air Security Service 2. Airworthiness Safety Committee
3. Air Safety Circular 4. None of the above.
13. Series “B” deals with:
1. Fuelling Equipments. 2. Instruments.
3. Approval; of CCL, MEL, CDL 4. None of the above
14. What is CCL? 1. Cockpit Check Law 2. Cockpit Configuration List
3. Cockpit Check List 4. None of the above.
15. MEL need not include:
1. Wings 2. Landing Gears
3. Flight Controls 4. All of the above.
16. Who should be responsible for seeing that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple
items in operative?
1. AME 2. R A W O
3. Operator 4. PIC
17. What is DDG?
1. Dispatch Determination Guide 2. Dispatch Deviation Guide
3. Dispatch Decreasing Guide 4. None of the above.
18. Who compiles or make MEL?
1. Q C M 2. AME
3. P I C 4. Operator
19. Where is MEL submitted?
1. To R A W O 2. To QCM
3. To Chief Inspection of Explosives 4. To DGCA.
20. What is attached to MEL?
1. Revision Notice 2. Preamble
3. PDR 4. Q>C. Manual
21. Whose responsibility is it to maintain records of Defect?
1. Operator 2. QCM
3. AME 4. PIC
22. Which Rule says that every aircraft should carry on board:
1. Rule 7_B, 2. Rule25B
3. Rule 30 4. Rule 62.
23. Where are normal; procedures followed in operation of flight given:
1. CCL 2. ECL
3. PDR 4. QC Manual
24. Where are “Emergency Provision” followed during flight gives?
1. CCL 2. ECL
3. Q.C. Manual 4. PDR.
25. Where are Checklists kept?
1. In the passenger Cabin 2. In toilets
3. In the Luggage room 4. In the Cockpit
26. What is OM?
1. Operator Modifications 2. Operating Minima
3. Operations Manual 4. Operator Marks.
27. What is COM?
1. Crew operator Manufacturer 2. Cabin Operation Manual
3. Crew operating Manual 4. Crew of Maintenance
28. What is FI ?
1. Flight Inspector 2. Fuel Inspection
3. Flight Issue 4. Forecast Instructor
29. How many parts does series “B: contains:
1. l0 parts. 2. 1 part
3. 2parts. 4. 3 parts.
30. Do we include galley equipment, entertainment system is MEL:
1. Yes 2. No
3. None of the above.
31. What is FM?
1. Fixed Mean 2. Flight Manual
3. Fuel Meter 4. Flight Modification
SERIES 0
1. Proficiency check of licensed air transport service pilot shall be carried out at an
interval of not less than months and not more than months
1. 4,8 2. 3,8
3. 3,6 4. 4,6
2. During an IR check when the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to
port and starboard variation in height shall not exceed
1. l00ft 2. 200ft
3. 300ft 4. 500ft
3. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot’s check the loss in height shall not
exceed
1. 500ft 2. l000ft
3. 1500 ft 4. 2000 ft
4. All pilots before flying as pilot in command of multi engined aircraft shall demonstrate
to a check pilot , let — down procedure during which variation in speed during descent
shall not exceed
1. 5 mph above stipulated speed 2. 5mph below stipulated speed
3. 5 mph above or below stipulated speed 4. None of the above
5. The pilot in command of every aircraft before commencing any flight shIl satisfy
himself of
I. Valid flight release certificate 2. Engine developing correct power
3. Availability of sufficient length 4. All are correct
6. The responsibility of briefing passengers of smoking limitation lies with
1. Pilot in command 2. Co — pilot
3. QCM 4. Air Hostess
7. Critical phase of flight includes
1. Taxiing 2. Take off and landing
3. Operation below 1000 ft 4. All are correct
8. Duties not required for safe operation of aircraft include company required calls for
1. Ordering galley supplies 2. Promoting airlines
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
9. Aerobatic manoeuvres are not to be carried out unless the pilot wears
I. Crash helmet 2. Flying goggles
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
10. Instruments and equipments are fitted on aircraft to enable the flight crew to
I. Control the flight path 2. Carry out procedure manouvre
3. Observe operating limitation of aircraft 4. All are correct
11. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of usability expressed in terms of
1. Runway visual range 2. Decision altitude height
3. Minimum DA/H 4. All are correct
12. An alternate aerodrome
1. - May be aerodrome of departure
2. Is always the aerodrome of departure
3. Is where aeroplane force lande 4 All are correct
13. Decision altitude DA is reffered to
1. Mean sea level 2. Average sea level
3. Tower elevation 4. Threshold elevation
14. Minimum descent altitude / height is specified altitude I height in a non precision
approach below which
1. Descent may be made without visual reference
2. Descent may not be made without visual reference
3. Descent may be made with visual reference
4. None of the above
15. Civil twilight ends
1. At 6p.m. 2. At 6p.m.
3. In the morning when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
4. In the evening when the sun’s disc center is 6 degrees below the horizon
16. Decision height is reffered to
1. Mean sea level 2. Average sea level
3. Tower elevation 4. Threshold elevation
17. Ensuring that pilots are familiar with the laws , regulations & procedures pertinent to
the performance of their duties is the responsibility of
1. Chief test pilot 2. QCM
3. Operator 4. All are correct
18. In computing oil and fuel required for aircraft operation one should consider
1. Met forecast
2. Anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays
3. One instrument approach at destination aerodrome
4. All are correct
19. Approximate altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to 620 rnb of absolute
pressure is
1. 3000 metres 2. 4000 metres
3. 5000 metres 4. 7600 metres
20. After the end of operating life of a helicopter component the records shall be kept for a
period of days
1. 60 2. 90
3. 120 4. All are correct
21. In flight simulation of emergency for training of helicopter flight crew is prohibited
when
1. Children below 10 years are on board 2. Passengers are carried
3. Cargo is carried 4. All are correct
22. Following an act of unlawful interference the pilot in command shall submit a report to
1. BCAS 2. DGCA
3. BCAS and DGCA 4. All are correct
23. Landing decision point applies to helicopter of performance class
1. 1 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. All are correct
24. Psychoactive substances include
1. Alcohol and Cocaine 2. Coffee and Tobacco
3. Diluted acids 4. All are correct
25. In an emergency situation , Endangering the safety at aircraft when pilot in command
take sanction that violates laid down regulations he shall submit a report with in
hours
1. 12 2. 24
3. 48 4. 72
26. Marking at break in pilot for emergency escape shall be in colour 1. Yellow 2. Red
3. Both a & b 4. none of the above
27. Rafts to be carried in helicopters should either be deployable by remote control or with
some mean of mechanical assistance if their weight is more than
1. 30Kg 2. 40Kg
3. 50Kg 4. 60Kg
28. Radio communication equipment must have emergency frequency of
1. 121.5 K}Iz 2. 121.5 MHz
3. 161.5MHz 4. None of the above
29. Maintenance records in respect of privately owned helicopter are to be maintained by
1. Owner 2. Lessee
3. Maintenance organization manual 4. Any one of them
30. The number and composition of air crew must be specified in
1. Operations manual 2. Flight manual
3. Certificate of airworthiness 4. Any one of the above
31. Maximum take off weight for an aircraft must be specified in
1. Certificate of airworthiness 2. Flight manual
3. Either a & b 4. None of the above
32. Prior to flight , pilot in command must ensure that
1. Minimum radio equipment required unserviceable
2. Aircraft has a valid flight release certificate
3. All passengers who have bought the ticket have boarded the flight
4. None of the above
33. AUW for an unpowered homs gliders should be less than
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
34. AUW for a double seater power glider be less than
1. 375 Kg 2. 275 Kg
3. 175 Kg 4. none of the above
35. Homs gliders shall have a power oil stall speed exceeding a
1. 25 Knots 2. 30 Knots
3. 50 Knots 4. none of the above
36. A single seater powered homs glider should weight less than
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
37. A powered homs glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than
1. 70 Knots 2. 80 Knots
3. 90 Knots 4. none of the above
38. Aerobatics flight means maneuver intentionally performed which involves
1. Abrupt changes in altitude 2. Abnormal variations in speed
3. Either a & b 4. none of the above
39. All home gliders must possess
1. Valid Cat A 2. Permit to fly
3. Certification of registration 4. Both b & c
40 Extended range operations are covered under three category namely
1. 75 ,90 and 120 minutes 2. 75 , 120 and 150 minutes
3. 75,120 and 180 minutes 4. none of the above
41. An operator can request for approval of 180 minutes ETOPS only if there has been
current approval for minutes ETOPS for a minimum months 1. 75,6 2. 75,12
3. 120,12 4. 120,6
42. Under ETOPS operations an immediate evaluation shall be carried out by the operator
if IFSO exceeds engine hours
1. 0.02/ 1000 2. 0.05 / 1000
3. 0.01/1000 4. noneoftheabove
43. Operators should develop MEL exclusively for ETOPS operation which should
generally’ be
I. Same as MEL 2. Less than MMEL
3. More restrictive than MMEL 4. none of the above
44. For getting approval for ETOPS operator has to demonstrate to DOCA that flight can
continue to a safe landing under anticipated degraded operating conditions arising from
I. Total loss of thrust from one engine
2. Total loss of engine generated electric power
3. Either a & b 4. none of the above
45. Operation manual is to prepared by
1. Scheduled/non scheduled operator 2. Private aircraft operators
3. Flying training institute 4. All are correct
46. Operations manual must incorporate
1. Route guide & charts 2. Dangerous goods manual
3. Security aspects 4. All are correct
47. Operations manual consisting of many selections
I. Should be in one volume 2. Can be in more than one volume 3.
Both a & b 4. none of the above
48. The responsibility of ensuring accuracy of the operations manual as well as that of issuing revisions
and amendments rests with
I. Chief operation officer 2. Chief test pilot
3. QCM 4. Designated officer
49. Data regarding take off landing and cruise is included in
1. Performance manual. 2. Flight safety manual S
3. Training manual 4. Operations manual
50. Four copies of operations manual are to be submitted to
I. DGCA for record 2. DGCA FOR REVIEW
3. DOCA for approval 4. none of the above
51. Basic RVSM envelop is with in altitude range of
I. Sea level ±1290 2. Fl 290—Fl 410
3. Fl 290— Fl 460 or maximum attainable 4. F14l0 and above
52. In RVSM air space vertical separation is
1. 300 meters 2. 600 meters
3. 6000 meters 4. 1000 meters
53. ‘Aircraft system used to keeping vertical separation should have not on error exceeding
1. 15m 2. 25m
3. 50m 4.. 80m
54. for RVSM operations , systems requirements is
1. Two indipendent altitute measuring systems 2. Altitude alert system 3. Altitude control system 3. All
are correct
55. In case of aircraft already in service RVSM airworthiness approval is to be granted by regularities
authority of
1. Country of manufacture /design 2. Country where aircraft are operated
3. Either a & b 4. Both a & b
56. Fill RVSM envelope covers
I. Mach no and altitude range 2. Mach no and gross weight
3. Altitude and gross weight 4. Altitude , mach no and gross weight
57. While flying under RVSM envelope pilot must inform ATC whenever there is
I. Loss of redundancy of altimetry system 2. Loss of thrust of engine 3. High turbulence 4. All are correct
58. RNAV is method of navigation which
I. Reduces fatigue to aircrew
2. Permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path
3. Provides very accurate deviational accuracy
59. RNAV equipment should be able to display present position in
I. Lattitude or Longitude
2. Distance / bearing to selected way point
3. Either a & b
60. Application for registration of hang glider should be made to DGCA on form
1. CA—28 2. CA—30
3. CA—38 4. CA—40
61. For a hang glider it is not necessary to have
I. Type certificate 2. Certificate of airworthiness
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
62. After manufacturing each hang glider is issued with
1. Certificate of compliance 2. Certificate of manufacture
3. Certificate of fitness 4. None of the above
63. The validity of permits to fly for a hang glider is
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
3. One year 4. None of the above
64. Pre flight inspection and scheduled inspection up to 50 hours on powered hang glider is
carried out by
I. AME — Category A 2. Pilot in charge
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
65. Inspection of higher than 50 hours and overhaul of powered hang glider are to be
carried out by
1. AME cat A 2. Pilot in command
3. Person authorized by DGCA 4. Both a & b
66. A glider log book keeps a complete record of flying modification and repair work All
columns of log book are to be fitted by
1. AME cat A 2. Pilot
3. Person authorized by DGCA 4. Both a & b
67 Hang glider shall not be flown over
I. The territory of Delhi 2. An assembly of persons
3. Area with 50 Km of international border 4. All are correct
68. The examiner for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have done at leasthours an hang glider and hours on dual machine
1. 25,10 2. 25,25
3. 10,10 4. 10,25
69. Hang glider must be equipped with
I. ASI and ELT 2. Altimeter and ASI
3. Altimeter, ASI and ELT 4. Altimeter , ASI and RPM gauge
70. ATC is required if a glider is to be operated with in ---- of controlled airport
I. 5Km. 2. 5miles
3. 5NM 4. None of above
71. The requirement of CAR series 0 part VII regarding exit row seating are applicable to
aircraft with passenger seats exceeding
1. 10 2. 20
3. 30 4. None of above
72. Each operator should ensure that exit seat is allotted to a person who is
1. Not in valid 2. Literate
3. Not less than 10 years of age 4. All are correct
73. The person allotted the exit seat should not be less than years of age
1. 15 - 2. 18
3. 21 4. 25
74. Instructions relating to emergency evacuation in passenger information card
I. Must be printed 2. Can be hand written
3. Can be in the form of graphics 4. All are correct
75. To check that no exit seat is occupied by a person who is unable to perform the
applicable function in an emergency is the duty of
1. Air Hostess 2. Co pilot
3. Crew member 4. None of above
76 Extended twin engine operation (ETOP) is applicable with
1. Any type of engine 2. Turbo prop only
3. Turbo prop & turbo jet only 4. Turbo prop, turbo jet & turbo fan
77. ETOP is applicable to twin engine aircraft of AUW
I. Less than 5700 Kg 2. More than 5700 Kg
3. More than 7500 Kg 4. More than 11000 Kg
78. Auxiliary power unit is a gas turbine engine that can be used for
1. Starting aircraft engines
2. Driving generators & Hydraulics pumps
3. Taxiing of aircraft in emergency condition
4. All are correct
CAR Series ‘L’
1. Minimum qualification and experience requirements for issue of AME Licence in various
categories are covered by aircraft rule:
1. 16. 2. 56
3. 61 4. 65
2. Mechanical stream means the trades of:
1. Airframe and engine 2. electrical and instrument
3. Radio and auto pilot 4. None of the above.
3.Avionics stream means trade of:
1. Radio, Navigation system 2. electrical and instrument
3. Autopilot system 4. All are correct.
4. Concurrent experience means experience acquired simultaneously:
1. In two or more allied categories of different stream
2. In two or more allied categories of same stream.
3. On engine and instrument system
4. Both I and 2 are correct.
5. Recent experience means experience acquired in the proceeding Month.
1. Twenty four 2. Twelve
3. Six 4 Three
6. For AME examination paper-Ill is conducted for:
1. Mechanical and avionics stream
2. Overhaul of propeller and autopilot
3. Both I and 2 are correct
4. None of the above.
7. Paper IV of AME Licence exam is related to specific type of: a
1.Aircraft 2. Engine
3. Electrical equipment 4. All are correct.
8. An AM I desirous of an extension in category A (LA) on aircraft of similar construction shall
have an additional experience of:
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. None of the above.
9. For issue of AME Licence category ‘R’ the candidate must posses RTR (Aero) Licence issued
by ministry of communication at the time of appearing for:
1. Paper IV 2. Oral cum practical test
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
10. Possessions of RTR (Aero) Licence issued by the ministry of communication is essential for
issue of AME Licence in:
1. Category R 2. Category V(Avionics)
3. Category X (Radio) 4. None of the above.
I1. An AME desirous of extension in category A (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will
have to show an additional experience of Months.
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
3. 12 Months 4. Two years.
12. An applicant for Licence of helicopter of AUW below 3000 Kg. In category A and C will have
to show a total experience of four year both on airframe and engine simultaneously Out of
which, type experience should be month with Month recent experience
1. 12,3 2. l2 6
3. 24,6 4. 24,12
13. AME Licence in category B is given to helicopter with AUW below:
1. 2000Kg. 2. 3000Kg.
3. 5700Kg. 4. 15,000 Kg.
14. A person having valid AME Licence covering aircraft below 5700 Kg. And desirous of having an
extension of gliders will have to show recent experience of month
I. One month 2. Three months
3. Six months 4. Twelve months
15. Aeronautical engineering experience required for gliders category A is year.
1. One year 2. Two years
3. Three years 4. Four years.
16. For extension on turbine engine is category C in candidate should have experience on type of
engine for months out of which months should be recent:
1. 12,3 2. 12,6
3. 24,6 4. 24,3.
17. AME Licence in category D is issued for all piston engines below:
1. 250 BHP 2. 300 BHP
3. 450 BHP 4. 500 BHP.
18. For issue of Licence in category V, the candidate must posses:
1. Valid RTR (Aero) Licence 2. Licence in category E,1,R,
3. Training certificate on integrated avionics system 4. All are correct.
19. Licence in category X is issued for overhaul of:
1. UP propeller 2. Radio equipment
3. Electrical system 4. All are correct.
20. After passing all the papers, the applicant should submit an applicant in to DGCA for issue of
Licence along with the following certificate:
I. Medical/color vision 2. Licence exam passed
3. Proof of age 4. All are correct.
21. AME Licence in the following categories will be endorsed according to the type of aircraft /
engines:
1. A,B,C,D 2. A,B,C,D,E,I
3. A,B,C,D,E,I,R 4. All are correct.
22. Licence in category R (HA) will be endorsed as:
1. Valid for communication / navigation /radar system installed on under mentioned aircraft.
2. HF/VHF / ADF Etc. on particular type of aircraft
3. Valid for heavy aircraft.
4. Both I and 2 are correct.
23. Airborne communication system includes:
I. VHF, HF, voice recorder
2. As in A plus audio equipment
3. As in B plus DME
4. As in C plus ADF.
24. Airborne navigational system includes:
1. ADF , VOR, ILS 2. As in A plus VLF I omega
3. As in B plus Hyperbolic equipment 4. As in C plus ATC transponder.
25. Airborne ‘navigational system’ includes:
1. ADX, Weather radar 2. Weather radar, DME
3. Weather radar, ME, Radio equipment 4. None of the above.
26. For certification of ignition apparatus (LA) the AME should have his Licence in category:
1. A 2. B
3. C 4. Any one of the above.
27. Direct reading compass may be certified by person holding any category of AME Licence provided
the candidates has passed the requisite paper and has number of installation and experience of
compensation:
1. 4 2. 6
3. 8 4. None of the above.
28. Various categories of AME Licence details in aircraft rule:
1. Rule 60 2. Rule 61
3. Ru1e49 4. Rule3O.
29. Who is responsible to conduct exams for issue / extension of AME Licence /BAMEC:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. CEO.
30. The examination for the purpose of acquiring AME Licence/BAMEC conducting:
I. Once in year 2. Twice a year
3. Thrice a year 4. Once in two year.
31. AME Licence / BAMEC exam are normally conducted in the month of:
1. March and September 2. March and October
3. April and September 4. April and October
32. Application to appear in AME exam is applied on form no.
1. CA-23 2. CA-29
3. CA-9 4. CA-25.
33. Application for exams shall be submitted by of January and July for march and
September session:
1. 8th 2. 7th
3. 6th 4. 5th
34. Basic papers are:
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
3. Paper-IV 4. Both I and 2.
35. Specific paper is:
I. Paper-I 2. Paper-lI
3. Paper-Ill 4. Paper-IV.
36. Applicants successfully completing DGCA approved manufacturer’s training course qn
particular type of aircraft /engine/system are exempted from:
1. Paper-Il 2. Paper-IV
3. Both 1 and 2 4. None of the above.
37. Who is the chairman in oral-cum practical test:
1. DAW 2. Dy. DAW
3. Controller of airworthiness 4. Any one of the above.
38. The passing %age in examination is:
1. 70% of total marks 2. More than 70%
3. Less than 70% 4. None of the above.
39. Applicant can avail 3 chances of oral cum practical test in the:
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
40. How many categories of licenses are there:
1. 4 2. 6
3. 8 4. None of the above.
41. Certification privileges are defined in series L’:
1. Part-V 2. Part-VI
3. Part-VII 4. Part-VIII
42. Avionics system includes:
I. Electrical system 2. Instrument system
3. Radio system 4. All of above.
43. AME wants to renew is licence should have used the privileges of minimum months in
the proceeding 24 Months:
1. 3 2. 6
3. 9. 4. 12.
44. To work on aircraft the open rating licence holder should famerlize himself with the type of
aircraft for the minimum period of:
1. 3 Months 2 2 Months
3. 1 Month 4. 6 Months
45. holder of category ‘A’ Licence for LA is entitled in respect to:
I. Instrument 2. Electrical
3. Autopilot 4. All of above.
46. The Licence in cat ’B’ covers only:
1. LA 2. HA
3. Both I and 2 4. None of the above.
47. Baroscopic inspection shall be carried out by:
I. Cat. C 2. Approved person
3. None of the above. 4. Both of above.
48. holder of Cat. ‘F’ entails the holder to certify:
I. Electrical system 2. Instrument system
3. Radio system 4. Avionics system
49. holder of category ‘V’ entails to certify:
I. Electrical system 2. Avionics system
3. Radio system 4. Instrument system
50. Person holding cat. ‘X’ Licence on particular radio equipment can carry out:
I. Final test data 2. Bench check
3. Both I and 2 4. None of the above.
51. Candidate failing in oral cum practical test can avail subsequent chance after gaining:
1. 3 Months experience 2. 4 months experience
3. 5 Months experience 4. 6 Months experience.
52. Defense person /appearing in AME exams are exempted from multiple choice in paper:
1. Paper II, III 2. Paper I and II
3. Paper I and III 4. None of the above.
53. Applicants will submit their application to of organization where he is working
1. QCM 2. Operator
3. Both I and 2 4. None of the above.
54. Fees to he paid is prescribed in:
I. Rule 61 2. Rule 62
3. Rule 63 4. Rule 64.
55 Applicant meets with requirements to appear in exam’s and the application is duly tilled
properly is the responsibility of:
I. Owner 2. Operator
3. RAO 4. QCM
56. Mechanical stream consist of:
1. Airframe 2. Engine
3. Instruments 4. Both a & b
57. Applicants not engaged in any organization should forward their application directly to the:
I. R A O 2. Sub RAO
3. D A W 4. Both a & b
58. For oral examination contact to
I. R A O 2. D A W
3. Operator 4. Q C M
59. Training system is documented in
I. QC/ Training manual 2. Maintenance system manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above.
60.Duration of course where facility not available for LA is
1. Two weeks 2. Two months
3. Two years 4. Four weeks
61. Duration of course where facility not available for I-IA is
I. Four weeks 2. Four months
3. Two weeks 4. Two months
62. Results of all oral cum test are declared by under intimation to CEO and airworthiness
directorate:
I. Chief Instructor 2. QCM
3. RAO 4. DGCA
63. Work mention in applicant personnel log book is certified by:
1. Engineer in charge 2. Shift in charge
3. Suptintendent 4. Any one of the above.
64. Licence in category ‘A’ and C’ combined issue for helicopter with AUW:
I. Not exceeding 3000 Kg. 2. 2000 Kg.
3. 5700 Kg. 4. 4000 Kg.
65. helicopters with AUW above required separate endorsement in category ‘A and C’:
1. 3000 Kg. 2. 5700 Kg.
3. 2000 Kg. 4. 10,000 Kg.
66. Helicopter AME in category A’ certify:
1. all engine parts 2. All parts except engine
3. None of the above 4. Both I and 2
67. AME in category C’ certify ( 1-lehicopter):
1. All engine parts 2. All parts except engine
3. Airframe 4. Both I and 2
68. Power check of engine is the responsibility of: (Helicopter)
1. QCM 2. AME
3. flight crew 4. DAW.
69. Power check procedure defined in:
1. Flight manual 2. QCM
3. I3oth I and 2 4. None of the above.
70. CAR Section-H Series ‘L’ Part —Ill deals with:
I. Issue of AME Licence 2. Cancel of AME Licence
3. Endorsement of AME Licence 4. Renewal of AME Licence.
71. Engineer submit their application to for endorsement of Licence:
1. RAO 2. Sub-RAO
3. DGCA 4. Either 1 and 2.
72. AME category “A and C’ is exempted from appearing in paper-Ill if he holds Licence in cat.
I. BandD 2. B
3. D 4. None of the above.
73. How many category of airframe is specified in CAR Series’L’ part_IV:
1. 6 2. 7
3. 9 4. 10.
74. How many category of engine defined:
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
75. AME Basic Licence is issued as per series ‘L’ part:
1. Part-VII 2. Part-VIII
3. Part-VI 4. Part-IX.
76. Basic Licence is a Licence issued to a person who has:
I. Passed paper I, II and 111
2. Demonstrated a level of knowledge relevant to category
3. Both of them
4. None of the above.
77. Basic Licence confer the certification:
1. FRC when aircraft is away from base
2. Minor repair
3. Defect inspection
4. None of the above.
78. Validity of Basic Licence is:
1. 1 year 2. 2 Year
3. As approved by DGCA 4. No validity.
79. Total categories in which basic Licence issued are:
1. 7 2. 8
3. 9 4. 6
80. Which of the following is not true for the issue of Basic Licence:
I. Candidate has passed 1 0+2 with PCM
2. Passed paper I, II and III
3. Completed the age of 2l years
4. Produce medical certificate form CA 2003.
81. To change over from one stream of Basic Licence to another stream additional experience
required is:
1. 18 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 6 Months 4. 24 Months.
82. 6 Months additional experience is required for additional category from:
I. LA to IS 2. PE to JE
3. RA to RN 4. ES to PE
83. CAR Series L’ part-X deals with:
I. Issue of AME’s Basic Licence
2. Issue of authorization to ÂME/approved person
3. Grant of open ÂME’s Licence
4. None of the above.
84. Special permission for certifying airworthiness of aircraft components is hitherto termed as:
1. Permit 2. Authorization
3. Approval 4. None of the above.
85. For grant of authorization application of AME will be forwarded to RAO/Sub-RAO by:
I. QCM 2. Chief ÂME
3. RAO 4. Executive head of operator’s organization
86. In certain cases, when AME even does not fulfill the stipulated experience requirements for
authorization may be allowed to undertake examination. In such cases experience requirements
must be satisfied with in:
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 18 Months.
87. Validity of authorization is of:
1. 6 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 3 Months 4. Limited period
88. Authorization may be extended up to a maximum period of months by RAO in
circumstances:
1. 3 months 2. 6 Months
3. 2 Months 4. Limited period.
89. Which aircraft Rules states that all work on aircraft is to be certified by licensed
engineers/authorized person?
1. 61 2. 60
3. 54 4. None of the above.
90. The guideline for refresher course for grant of approval is given in:
I. Series L’ part-IX 2. Rule 61
3. Rule 54 4. AAC and of 2000.
91. For issue/extension of approvals, the applicant will be examined by a board consisting of:
1. QCM or DY.QCM
2. Head of particular section/shop
3. Representative of director of airworthiness
4. All of the above.
92. The approval granted will he valid for:
1. 1 Year 2. 2 Year
3. 6 Months 4. None of the above.
93. Approval of flight engineer examiners and check flight engineers is given in:
I. L Part-IX 2. L Part-X
3. L Part-XI 4. None of the above.
94. Consideration for approval as a check flight engineer shall be:
1. Seniority 2. Position in airline
3. Remuneration received 4. None of the above.
95. The names of approval of the flight engineers for such approvals are recommended by:
1. QCM 2. Chief Engineer
3. Operator 4. PIC.
96. Flight engineer approved as check flight engineer/Flight engineer examiner should have:
1. Obtained flight engineer Licence in second attempt
2. Obtained flight engineer Licence in any attempt
3. Obtained flight engineer Licence in first attempt
4. None of the above.
97. Total check routes for the approval of flight engineers examiners in preceding one year:
1. 10 2. 20
3. 5 4. 15.
98. Flight engineer should have minimum Hrs. of flying during 30 days for check flight
engineer/flight engineer examiner:
1. 100 Hrs. 2. l0Hrs.
3. 20 Hrs. 4. None of the above
99. Minimum simulator training for Hrs. is required for flight engineer examiner:
1. 2Hrs. 2. 5Hrs.
3. 10 Hrs. 4. 2 1-Irs.
100. Approval of flight engineer /check flight engineer will he valid for:
I. 12 Months 2. 6 Months
3. Calendar year up to 3l December 4. None of the above.
101. Which of following are common requirements for both flight engineer examiner and check
flight engineer for renewal of approval
1. Should not have less than 100 1-Irs. of flying experience during 6 months period
2. Should have a clean Professional record during 12 Months
3. Should have been checked and found satisfactory by flight engineer examiner
4. All of the above.
102. The air transport operator is required to submit the application for renewal of check flight
engineer/flight engineer examiner to DGCA 1-lead Qtr:
1. On 30TH November every year
2. By 30th November every year
3. On 31ST December every year
4. By 31ST December every year.
103. Some of the aircraft requires flight engineer as part of flight crew as laid down in:
1. C of A / Aircraft flight manual
2. Aircraft/flight log book
3. Operations manual
4. All of the above.
104. FE shall be licensed in a manner prescribed in of the aircraft rules, 1937:
I. Section Wand X of the schedule III
2. Section W and X of the schedule II
3. Section V and X of the schedule 11
4. Section V and X of the schedule III
105. The requirements in this CAR section II, Series’L’ Part-XV are complimentary to the provision of:
1. JARJ’FAR part-14 2. ICAO Annex lo, Vol-I
3. Rule 61 of aircraft rules 1937 4. ICAO Annex-I.
106. SFE applying for issue of SFE Licence shall have passed ten plus two with:
1. Physics and maths 2. Physics and chemistry
3. Physics or maths 4. Physics or chemistry.
107. SFE ground course of Instructions as per the syllabus shall be approved by:
1. RAO
2. DGCA(Attn.-Director of airworthiness)
3. QCM of the training institute in the organization
4. DGCA.
108. The duration of the courses shall be decided by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. CI 4. QCM
109. Normally the duration of FE course should not be less than for Basic course and type
course
1. 3 Months each 2. 8 Weeks each
3. 4 Weeks each 4. 1 Month each.
110. At the end of the ground course will conduct the examination to determine the
knowledge of applicant applying for SFE Licence:
1, CEO 2. DGCA
3. Operator 4. RAO.
111. SFE written examination, paper-iii is based on the subjects related to:
1. Airline 2. Specific paper for engine or airframe
3. Rules and regulations 4. Definitions and performance-Airplane/Helicopter.
112. An actual route check of aircraft in case the simulator is not there for the purpose of renewal of
FE Licence, is valid for the period of:
1. 40Days 2. 45 Days
3. 35 Days 4. 30 Days.
113. A technical and performance refresher course of FE to renew of their Licence is conducted by:
1. Operator 2. RAO
3. DGCA 4. None of the above.
114. For extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence, he should have 50 Hrs. off lying experience of
which not more than should be on approved simulator with in the proceeding period, from the date of
submission of application:
1. 30 Hrs., 6 Months 2. 30 Hrs., l2Months
115. for extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence. FE should have completed the skill test (oral
cum practical) within the period of proceeding the date of application:
1. 6 Months 2. 3 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 4 Months.
116. If the FE does not exercise his privilege for more than l year , he has to undergo-:
1. Extended technical refresher
2. As in (a) plus simulator check by FE
3. As in (b) plus complete simulator approval profiles
4. As in (c) plus 3 route checks (minimum 4 Landings)
117. Application for issue of SFE Licence shall contain:
I. R/T Licence No.
2. As in a’ plus signature of applicant
3. As in a’ plus signature of chief of operations
4. All of the above.
118. Validity period of SFE Licence is 12 Months from the date of after it is renewed by
RAO:
I. Submission of application
2. 3 1 St December of the calendar period
3. Medical examination
4. Issue.
119. For extension of aircraft rating SFE shall have:
1. 3 Months practical experience
2. Completed a FE ground course of instructions
3. Have passed a written examination of paper 1,11, and III
4. Both I and 2
120. The minimum training required for SFE to carry out his privileges on transport aircraft
carlying passengers is:
1. 10 Hrs. 2. 81-Irs.
3. 12 1-Irs. 4. 15 I-Irs.
121. After SFE has got his training on transport aircraft carrying passengers, to exercise his
privileges as SFE, he has to be certified fit by:
1. Operator 2. DGCA
3. Examiner 4. QCM.
122. Application for FE Licence must have experience is maintenance and repair of the
aircraft he is applying and as minimum of flying experience under the supervision of
person holding FE Licence:
1. 6 Months, 50 Hrs. 2. 6 Months, 100 Hrs.
3. 12 Months, 100 Hrs. 4. 12 Months, 50 I-Irs.
123. Oral cum practical board shall consist of a SAWO or a representative of flight inspection
directorate of DGCA as a:
1. Member 2. External
3. Chairman 4. None of the above.
124. Oral cum practical test in conducted on:
1. Completion of all the trainings
2. During the training
3. Before passing paper-Ill
4. None of the above.
125. For renewal of FE Licence he should have completed not less than of flight time as a
FE within the period of proceeding from the date of application for renewal:
1. 10 Hrs., 6Months 2. 10 Hrs.,3 Months
3. 20 Hrs., 3 Months 4. 20 Hrs. 6 Months.
126. Each phase of the main course of GET scheme will consist of:
1. ATA chapters 2. Subject approved by DGCA
3. Both I or 2 4. Either I or 2.
127. Operators desirous of conducting GET scheme will submit a comprehensive proposal which
includes:
1. Biodata of Cl and other instructors
2. As in a plus their responsibilities
3. As in b plus operational manual of the organizations
4. As in a plus maintenance manual.
128. GET is eligible for appearing in paper-I and II of AME/BAMEC after completion of:
I. Two years 2. 6 Months
3. One year 4. 1 8 Months.
129. GET is eligible for appearing in paper —III after completion of:
1. 18 Months 2. 3 Years
3. 2 Years 4. None of the above.
130. After passing paper I , II and III GET shall be permitted to:
1. Appear for paper IV
2. Eligible for oral cum practical
3. Work on aircraft
4. Take approved course.
131. After the end of 3’ year of GET phase wise examination will be conducted by training Schools
under the supervision of:
1. Regional airworthiness officer
2. Chief Instructor
3. Person approved by DGCA in the organization
4. Operator.
132. The request is made by for the oral cum practical of the GET after they had
passed paper 1.11, III and approved course:
1. Licensed AME 2. Chief Instructor/QCM
3. GET Himself 4. All of the above.
133. Candidate should have at least experience, during the GET 3 year training in the
respective field he is applying for Licence/approval:
1. Six months 2. 3 Months
3. 4 Months 4. 1 Year.
134. The pass marks in the re-examination will be:
1. 70% 2. 80%
3. 85% 4. 75%
135. Re-examination will be held after days but with in days of completion of main course/GET:
1. 20,40 2. 25,45
3. 15,45 4. 15,50.
136. Candidates who successfully complete the approved course will have three chances of oral cum
practical within a period of:
1. 1 8 Months 2. 1 Year
3. None of these 4. Two years.
137. Candidates will have to take repeat main course if they:
I. Fail to secure 80% aggregate
2. As in a plus fail more than one phase
3. As in b plus fail in tandem course
4. All the above are correct.
138. Candidates who do not qualify any of the three oral cum practical exams may undergo
refresher course, and the duration will be decided by”
1. Chief Instructor 2. QCM
3. Regional airworthiness officer 4. Both 2 and 3.
139. Series L’ part XIII deals with:
1. Approval for GET scheme
2. Payment/Non-payment of fees for issue of duplicate AME/FE/SFE Licence
3. Issue of certificate of competency
4. Procedure for issue/renewal /Extension of FE/SFE license.
140. When the Licence is lost by the holder (other than the act of GOD) he has to furnish. Full fee
2. As in a plus D.O.B. and place of Birth
3. As in b plus period of validity of Licence
4. As in c plus name of organizations/club he is working with
141. For issue of duplicate Licencc no fees is required if its old by
1. l0Years 2. 5 Years
3. 15 Years 4. 20 Years.
142. The period of validity and FE Licence shall commence from the:
1. Date if issue 2. Date of renewal
3. Both I and 2. 4. None of the above.
143. At the end of GET 3 year training phase wise examination is conducted by:
I. QCM 2. Training school
3. Director of airworthiness 4. Both 2 and 3.
144. An engineer undergoing GETS shall have:
1. Degree in Engineering
2. PG degree in Engineering
3. PG degree
4. As in a plus PG degree in electronics.
CAR Series X
145. Weight and balance control of an aircraft is related to:
1. Rule 49 2. Rule 56
3. Rule 58 4. Rule 68.
146. Empty weight of an aircraft does not include:
1. Full fuel 2. Full ballast
3. Coolant 4. Unusable fuel.
147. During empty weighing of aircraft, the following items are permissible:
1. All instruments 2. Engine coolant
3. Fixed ballast 4. All are correct.
148. As per CAR Series X part II, there is no need to weigh an aircraft on routine basis, when
weight is:
1. Less than 2000 Kg. 2. Less than 5000 Kg.
3. More than 2000 Kg. 4. Both I and 2 are correct.
149. Aircraft with AUW more than 2000 Kg. Are to be reweighed:
1. Every year 2. Every two-year
3. Every five years 4. Every ten years.
150. Aircraft weight schedule shall include:
1. Registration Marking of aircraft 2. Type of engine
3. Every two year 4. Every ten years.
151. Aircraft shall he weighed in the presence of:
1. Chief Engineer 2. QCM
3. Representative of RAO 4. None of the above.
152. Weight schedule of an aircraft shall be retained for:
1. Two years 2. Five years
3. Ten years 4. Till replaced.
153. ‘[he load sheets of a scheduled operator, from the date of issue, shall be preserved for a period of
at least:
I. One month 2. One year
3. Four month 4. Two years.
154. The CG’ position for take off and landing configuration has to be calculated before
commencement of flight for:
1. Aerial work aircraft 2. Public transport aircraft
3. Private aircraft 4. All are correct.
155. The second copy of the load sheet shall be preserved for a period of at least:
I. Four months 2. 2 Years
3. 12 Months 4. 5 Years.
156. Standard weight of crew for load calculation is taken as:
1. 65Kg. 2. 75Kg.
3. 85 Kg. 4. 95 Kg..
157. Standard weight for adult passenger for load calculation is taken as:
1. 85Kg. 2. 80Kg.
3. 75Kg. 4. 70Kg.
158. Standard weight for children for load calculation is taken as:
1. 30Kg. 2. 40Kg.
3. 50 Kg. 4. None of the above.
159. Standard weight for children infants for load calculation is taken as:
1. 10Kg. 2. 15Kg.
3. 20Kg. 4. 25Kg.
160. Mark the wrong statement:
1. Load is cabin must be placed behind passengers
2. Load must be lashed properly
3. Lashing roper must have sufficient strength
4. Cabin floor loading limitation should not be exceeded.
161. An aircraft with passenger’s carrying capacity of 160 shall be equipped with first aid
kit:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four.
162. Physician’s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of mote than:
1. 20 2. 40
3. 100 4. 120.
163. First-aid kit container shall bear a white cross whose size should be at least:
1. 1 Inch X 1 Inch 2. 2 Inch X 2 Inch.
3. 3lnchX3lnch 4. None of the above.
164. The first-aid kit container shall be of:
1. White background with red cross
2. White back ground with green cross
3. Green back ground with white cross
4. Green background with Red Cross.
166. 1’he drugs containers in the physician ‘s kit are intended to be administered by:
1. Pilot in-command 2. Co-pilot
3. Any passengers 4. Medical practitioner
167. To ensure that the first—aid kit seal is in intact condition before every flight is the duty of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot-in-command 4. A designated person.
168. The contents of first-aid-kit of an aircraft shall be examined once in months:
1. 6 2. 12
3. 24 4. None of the above.
169. The contents of first-aid-kit after use are to be replenished by:
1. AN MBBS Doctor 2. An authorized person
3. A medical practitioner 4. Any one of the about.
170. The training of aircrew member of Public transport aircraft in application of first-aid-is
undertaken by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Owner/operator 4. All are correct.
171. Details of furnishing material used in aircraft are contained in:
1. Series F’ Part-IV 2. Series X’ Part-IV
3. FAR Part —XXV 4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
172. Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall be:
I. Self extinguishing 2. Flame resistant
3. Either 1 or 2 4. None of the above.
173. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and having AUW
of 15,000 Kg. And above shall be:
1. Flame resistant 2. Inflammable
3. Self extinguishing 4. Both I and 2.
174. Concessions are contained in:
1. Series X Part 1 2. Series X part V
3. Series X part VII 4. Series X part IX
175. Request for the grant of concession must be applied in:
1. Duplicate 2. Quadruplicate
3. Triplicate 4. None of the above.
176. Request for grant of concession relating to use of materials/parts in, or effecting minor
modification or carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary parts will be disposed of by:
1. DGCA 2. QCM
3. Regional airworthiness office 4. None of the above.
177. Request for grant of concessions relating to aircraft primary structure will be referred to:
1. DGCA via regional airworthiness office
2. Regional airworthiness office
3. DGCA
4. None of the above.
178. The approved formats for concession are kept for the period:
1. 5 Years 2. 3 Months
3. 2 Years 4. As long as the logbooks are kept.
179. Permission for marginal duration from approved specification of not affecting the safety of
aircraft is:
1. Permit 2. Concession
3. Both I and 2 4. None of the above.
165. First —aid kit contain shall be replenished and ratified by:
1. A private medical practitioner
2. A government medical practitioner
3. Any medical practitioner
4. None of the above.
180. Approval firms, whose scope of approval specifically includes delegation may use substitute
material parts in aircraft systems other than relating to primary structures, under the authority
of:
I. RAO 2. QCM
3. DGCA 4. QCM and information to RAO.
181. The approval of concession is indicated by:
1. Issue of certificate 2. Issue of permit
3. On FORMAT itself 4. All are correct.
182. Log books shall be kept and maintained is respect of all aircraft registered in India in
accordance with:
I. Rule 57 of Aircraft rules 1937 2. Rule 67 of Aircraft rules 1937
3. Rule 68 of Aircraft rules 1937 4. None of the above.
183. Propeller logbook is required for:
1. Variable pitch propeller 2. Fixed pitch propeller
3. Both of the above 4. None of the above.
184. Entries in the logbook shall be completed with in:
1. 24 I-Irs. completion of work 2. 48 I-Irs. of completion of work
3. 72 Hrs.of completion of work 4. With 3 Days of completion of work.
185. Flight report book can be called as:
1. Journey log book 2. Tech. Log
3. Both of the above 4. None of the above.
186. Journey logbook shall he signed by:
1. Pilot in command 2. Person approved by DGC’A
3. AME 4. None of the above.
187. Journey logbook shall be in:
1. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
3. Quadruplicate 4. None of the above.
188. Engine and propeller logbook shall be preserved for at least to period of:
1. 3 Years after the engine propeller with drawing from use
2. 1 Years after the engine propeller with drawing from use
3. 2 Years after the engine propeller with drawing from use
4. None of the above.
189. Log books other than the engine and propeller shall be preserved for a period of:
1. 3 Years from the date of last entry.
2. 2 Years from the date of last entry.
3. 1 Year from the date of’ last entry.
4. None of the above.
190. Entries in the log book shall be made in:
I. Ink 2. Indelible pencil
3. Either of the above 4. None of the above.
191. DGCA Mandatory modification statue of the aircraft engine and its components shall be
reflected in:
I. Section two of log book
2. Section three of log book
3. Bothland2
4. Either I and 2.
192. In case of approved firms, the responsibility of maintenance of log book is of’:
I. RAO 2. Operator
3. Owner 4. QCM.
193. When a component is replaced not having an individual log book, its entry should he made in:
I. JLB 2. Air craft log book
3. Engine log book 4. Can be made in any log book.
194. The procedure for calculating flight time is mentioned in:
1. Engineering document 2. JLB
3. Quality control manual 4. Maintenance system manual.
195. Contents for FEB (flight report book) or technical log is approved by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Local airworthiness officers 4. QCM.
196. The change of format of FRB for non scheduled operators requires approval of the:
1. Regional airworthiness office/Sub-regional airworthiness officer
2. QCM
3. DGCA
4. None of the above.
197. The second copy of each filled page of JLB shall be retained on:
1. Ground with engineering document
2. Carried on board
3. Either I or 2
4. Both 1 and 2.
198. Each logbook have (Engine, propeller, radio):
1. Two section 2. Three section
3. Four section 4. Don’t have any section.
199. All aircraft registered in India shall carry valid document in accordance with:
I. Rule 9 B of aircraft rules 1937
2. Rule 7 of aircraft rules 1937
3. Rules 5 of aircraft rules 1937
4. None of the above.
200. Documents to he carried on board by Indian registered aircraft is contained in:
1. Series B part 11 2. Series B part-I
3. Series X part VI 4. None of the above.
201. The list of dangerous goods carried on aircraft shall be brought under the notice of:
1. Pilot in command by ok flight
2. Flight crew before flight
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.
202. The manuals includes in documents to be carried on board by Indian registered aircraft are:
1. Operation manual 2. Cabin crew manual
3. Flight manual 4. All of the above.
203. Taxying operation of aircraft involves:
1. Starting of aircraft engine
2. Maneuvering of aircraft on ground
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.
204. Series X Part —VII deals with:
1. Issue of taxying permit
2. Issue of operator permit
3. Grant of concessions
4. None of the above.
205. Taxi permit is issued by:
1. QCM 2. Regional airworthiness office
3. DGCA 4. None of the above.
206, For issue of taxi permit AME should hold a valid Licence in:
1. Category D’ 2. Category ‘A’
3. Category ‘C, 4. Category B’.
207. Taxying ability of a person for issue of taxy permit should be assessed by:
1. Pilot of the operator
2. Regional airworthiness officer
3. Representative DGCA
4. None of the above.
208. Person holding taxy permit should be fully conversant with:
I. Aerodrome layout and ATC signals
2. Instructions, runway way markings
3. Lighting
4. All of the above.
209. Taxy permit should be valid for:
1. 2 Years 2. 1 Year
3. 3 years 4. None of the above.
210. QUM shall renew the taxy permit provided the holder of it has:
1. Taxied the aircraft at least thrice during the preceding one year
2. Taxied the aircraft at least twice during the preceding one year
3. Taxied the aircraft at least once during two preceding one year.
4. None of the above.
211. QCM shall renew the taxy permit subject to the following conditions:
I. AME Licence is valid
2. Hold a valid RT Licence if it is held by permit holder
3. Both I and 2.
4. None of the above.
212. The privileges of taxy permit shall be:
1. Restricted to airport specified in permit
2. Valid for all airports
3. Restricted to a particular airport
4. None of’ the above.
213. Any damage caused to aircraft during taxying operations shall be informed to:
1. Regional /sub regional airworthiness office
2. Owner /operator of aircraft
3. Both of the above.
4. None of the above.
214. Procedure for issue of type approval for aircraft components and equipments is defined in:
1. Ru1e57 2. Rule48
3. Rule 49 4. None of these.
215. application for type approval is to be submitted in:
I. Duplicate 2. Triplicate
3. Quadruplicate 4. None of the above.
216. Type record to ensure compliance of design of aircraft component with the relevant
specification and airworthiness requirements is approved by:
1. Chief Inspector 2. AME
3. Chief designer 4. QCM.
217. The inspection records of the type aircraft component or the item of equipment during
construction shall be retained for period of:
1. 10 Years 2. 5 Years
3. 2 Years 4. 8 years.
218. Procedure of issue of type approval of aircraft component and item of equipment is in
accordance with:
1. Series X’ Part-V 2. Series ‘X Part VII
3. Series ‘X’ Part VIII 4. Series F’ Part —II.
219. The manual in respect of type component/item of equipment that must he submitted for
approval
1. Type instruction manual 2. Type service manual
3. Roth I and 2 4. None of the above.
220. The approval for a modification, which has not been previously investigated and approved,
shall he given by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Local airworthiness officer 4. All the above.
221. Each design drawing shall hear a:
1. Description title 2. Drawing number
3. Issue number and date of issue 4. All the above.
222. The flight test schedules for flight trial of the equipment to confirm their compliance with the
relevant airworthiness requirements is approved by:
I. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. Chief Engineer.
223 The manufacture of all aircraft component shall be certified only by approved organization, by
licensed engineer or by authorized persons in accordance with rule:
1. Rule 53A 2. Rule 53B
3. Rule 53 Sub rule 2 4. None of these
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS C A R SERIES ‘R’ Part Ito IV, Series M & T.
1. CAR Series R, Part I covers the subject:
1. Cockpit Voice Recorder Test, 2.Aircraft Radio Equipments,
3. Aircraft Communication & Navigation systems, 4. Wooden Aircraft Structure.
2. CAR Series, Part I deals with:
1. Radio Equipments, 2. Cockpit Voice Recorders,
3. Ground Proximity Warning System, 4. Communication system,
3. Rule 57 of IAR deals with:
1. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Electrical System,
2. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Instruments,
3. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus.
4. A/c shall fitted & equipped with Engine only.
4. Radio equipment fitted on an Aircraft, accordance with:
1. I=IV, 2. I=V 3. 1= III, 4. 1= II,
5. In case aircraft fitted with Radio equipments of foreign made, then it shall be approved by:
1. R.A.O., 2. Airworthiness Directorate,
3. Sub R. A. 0., 4. Airworthiness Authority of that country.
6. In what year, Indian Telegraphy Act was made:
1. 1895, 2. 1875, 3. 1865, 4. 1885.
7. Radio equipments install & equipped in accordance with:
1. Indian Telegraphy Act 1885. 2. Act % A of Aircraft Act 1934,
3. Under Rule 57 D, 4. CAR Series E Part II.
8. Radio Equipments operate by a person holding licence issued by:
1. DGCA, 2. Ministry of Communication, 3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of above
9. Aircraft Radio Equipments shall not be used or aircraft shall not be flown, unless:
1. Flight Crews are not satisfied, 2. Pilot-in-Command is satisfied,
3. Operator is satisfied, 4. Technical officer is satisfied.
10. Radio equipment has been inspected & certified in accordance with:
1. Series “F” Part VIII, 2. Series F Part VII,
3. Series “F” Part X 4. Series F Part XI,
11. CAR issued under Indian Aircraft Rule:
1. 133C, 2. 133B, 3. 133A, 4. 133D.
12. Licence to operate for Radio equipments is given by:
1. DGCA, 2. R A O, 3. Radio Officer, 4. Sr. Technician.
13. CAR Series “R”: Part II covers the subject:
1. Aircraft Radio equipment, 2. Maintenance of Radar Equipments,
3. Airborne Communication, 4. Installation of Comm. Naviga. & Radar Equipments.
14. Every Aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus under:
1. Rule 61, 2. Rule 57 3. Rule 15, 4. Rule 50.
15. Who is responsible for FTD check before the actual installation of equipment:
1. DGCA, 2. R A O, 3. A M E, 4. All above.
16. A new Radio equipment installed on aircraft, the person check the equipment:
1 Q.C.M., 2. Manufacturer, 3. Approved person, 4. Licenced AME/Approved person
17. AME/Approved person study & check the feasibility of:
1. Equipment is approved type, 2. Electrical power is available,
3. Suitable location/C.G. with in limits, 4. All the above.
18. After satisfactory checks, operator should obtain regular Aero mobile Licence from:
1. DGCA, 2. Ministry of Communication, 3. R. A. O., 4. F. A. A.
19. All relevant documentation/entries shall be completed by:
1. A.M.E., 2. Q.C.M., 3. R.A.O., 4. DGCA.
20. Radio apparatus shall be fitted on aircraft under Sub Rule:
1. Rule 57,Sub-Rule 15, 2. Rule 61 Sub-Rule 3,
3. Rule 9 Sub-Rule 3 4. Rule 57 Sub-Rule 3.
21. Drawing(s) are made after feasibility study of:
1. Structural Installation/Wiring, 2. 3 — D Drawing,
3. Structural Drawing, 4. None of the above.
22. Empty weight and .G. shall be amended accordingly by:
1. DGCA, 2. Manufacturer, 3. AME/Authorised/Approved Person, 4. R.A.O.
23. Drawing(s) submitted to:
1. Local Airworthiness Office 2. DGCA, 3. R.A.O.,
4. Local Airworthiness Officer.
24. After feasibility study, the drawings are made b y:
1. Q.C.M., 2. Approved person, 3. Draftsman, 4. Appropriately Licenced A.M.E.
25. How many copies of Drawing submitted to the Airworthiness Office:
I. Seven, 2. Three, 3. Six, 4. Five.
26. Comm.& Navigation, Radio equipment/system installation work is to be under taken by:
1. Q.C.M., 2. R.A.O., 3. AME/Authorised person, 4. None of above.
27. Operator shall prepare the Schedule of Tests, based on the guidelines:
1. BCAR, Sector R, 2. FAA Advisory Circular AC 43-13,
3. FAA Advisory Circular AC 3 1-34. 4. Both 12 & 2.
28. The Flight Tests for any newly installed Radio equipment shall be carried out to assess its range and
performance at various:
1. Altitudes, 2. Speeds, 3. Both 1 & 2 are correct, 4. None of above.
29. The Antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper installation to ensure
minimum:
1. Vibrations, 2. Electromagnetic interference,
3. Precipitation static interference 4. None of the above.
30. On completion of structural and electrical wiring of an Aircraft, the complete wiring
shall be checked for:
1. Installation, 2. Continuity, 3. Proper layout, 4. Insulation & Continuity.
31. Maintenance of Airborne Communication & Navigational equipment shall be carried out in
accordance with:
1. CAR Series R Part II, 2. CAR Series R Part III,
3. CAR Series R Part IV 4. None of the above.
32. CAR series R Part III pertains to maintenance of:
1. Ground Radio & Radar equipment, 2. Airborne Radio Equipment,
3. Installation of airborne Radio equipment, 4. None of the above.
33. Every aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus, as per Aircraft Rule:
1. 9A, 2. 9Sub-rules3, 3. 57 Sub-rules 1, 4. Both 1&2.
34. Maintenance checks to be carried out on Radio equipment are:
1. Bench Checks, 2. In situ & Bench checks,
3. In situ & Baroscopic checks, 4. In situ and N.D.T.
35. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days Inspection of Radio system, it is
necessary to check:
1. Bonding of RF cables, 2. Insulation of equipment Installation,
3. Equipment for corrosion & safety, 4. All are correct.
36. Final test data (FTD) check of conventional equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once a year, 2. Twice a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None above.
37. Final Test Data(FTD) check on solid state equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once in six months, 2. Once a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None of the above.
38. After Major inspection at 180 days of flying, pilots shall file Debriefing Reports on
performance of Radar equipment regarding:
1. Range & endurance, 2. Range and performance
3. Both I & 2 are correct. 3. None of the above.
39. Aircraft after flying through electric storm or lightening strikes has to be inspected for:
1. S W R check of transmitter, 2. Insulation of equipment installation,
3. Corrosion & security of equipment 4. All are correct.
40. Major Modification regarding aircraft Radio equipment shall be carried out by:
1. AME Category R, 2. AME Category B,
3. AME Category B(Radio), 4. AME Category X(Radio).
41. FTD is essential for the equipment(s):
1. ADF and VHF, 2. As in I and VOR,
3. As in 2 and ILS, 4. As in 3 and VOL/Omega.
42. Installation of Mode A/c. & Mode S transponders is given in:
1. CAR Series R, Part IV, 2. IAR Rule,57,
3. CAR Series R Part V, 4. Both 1 & 2
43. Operation of Federal & General Aviation Aeroplane is given:
1. CAR Series R, Part IV, 2. CAR Series R, Part V,
3. ICAO Annexure 6,Part.II, 4. ICAO Annexure 6 Part III.
44. Traffic Advisory is provided by:
1. Mode ‘A’/ ‘C’ when fitted with ACAS-I/TCAS-I,
2. Mode ‘S’ when fitted with ACAS-I/TCAS-I,
3. ACAS-I / TCAS-I, 4. Both I & 2
45. Mode A/c of Mode S provides following when fitted with ACAS-Il / TCAS-II”
1. Traffic Advisory, 2. RA’s
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
46. Source of reliable Air space surveillance is:
1. Mode ‘A’, 2. Mode ‘C’, 3. Mode A/C. 4. Mode ‘5’.
47. Aircraft’s altitude is determined by:
1. Mode ‘I’, 2. Mode ‘C’, 3. Mode ‘A’ / ‘C’ 4. Mode ‘S’.
48. ASA function is performed by:
1. Mode ‘A’ /‘C’, 2. Mode ‘5’, 3. Both I & 2, 4. Mode ‘C’.
49. A beam of Radio frequency range energy is transmitted and received by:
I. Secondary Radar, 2. S S R, 3. Primary Radar, 4. Mode ‘S’.
50. SSR operates on frequencies of:
1. 1030 MHz, - 1080 MHz 2. 1030 MHz— 1090 MHz,
3. 1040 MHz — 1090 MHz, 4. None of the above.
51. Reply from transponder for identity and surveillance is de-cited by:
1. Mode ‘A’! ‘C, 2. Mode ‘C’, 3. Mode ‘A’, 4. Mode ‘S’.
52. For automatic pressure altitude transmission of surveillance is de-cited:
1. Mode ‘C’, 2. Mode ‘A’, 3. Mode ’A’/’C’ 4. Mode ’S’.
53. Mode used during interrogation of Air Traffic services:
1. Mode ‘A’, 2. Mode ‘C’, 3. Mode ‘A’/ ‘C’, 4. Mode ‘S’.
54. No. of total bits in address of Mode ‘S’:
1. 20, 2. 12, 3. 24, 4. 22.
55. Country code of India:
1. 111111, 2. 110000, 3. 100000, 4. 100001.
56. The transponders should be operated in accordance with:
1. CAR Series R, Part IV, 2. As per Rule 57,
3. Annexure 10 Volume IV, 4. None of the above.
57. Mode “A”/”C” transponder shall meet the specification given in:
1. TSO—c74C, 2. TSO—C75C, 3. TSO—C112, 4. TSO—C76C.
58. Mode ‘S’ transponders shall meet the specification of:
1. TSO —C74C, 2. TSO —Cl 12, 3. TSO —Cl 19, 4. TSO — Clii.
59. MEL shall include:
1. Landing gears, 2. Entertainment system, 3. Transponder, 4. None above.
60. Engineers inspecting/certifying Transponders should hold type Rated licence in:
1. Cat. R, 2. Cat: V, 3. Both 1&2. 4. Either l or 2.
61. CAR Series M, Part I relates to:
1. Mandatory Modificationl.Repair, 2. Mandatory Modification /Inspection
3. Mandatory Modification/Supervision, 4. Mandatory Modification/Oversight.
62. Aircraft Rule 49 D relates to:
1. Incorporation/Modification in aircraft and or accessories,
2. Modification/inspection to be carried out,
3. Acceptable standard for Modification/repair, 4. All above.
63. Modification/Inspection to be carried out is according to Aircraft Rules 1937:
1. 49D, 2. 50A, 3. 61A, 4. Rule52.
64. Acceptable standard for modification/repair is given in Rule:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 53 A, 4. 52 A.
65. Form & Manner of distribution of Compliance Certificate & its presentation is given in Rule:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 58, 4. 50A.
66. Purpose of Mandatory Modification/Inspection is to:
1. Rectify major defects encountered, 2. Support safety of operation/airworthiness,
3. Notify aircraft owners of unsafe & other conditions, 4. None above.
67. AD means an Instruction issued by an Airworthiness Authority:
1. To amends an approved document,
2. Requires a Modification, restriction, replacement or special inspection of an aircraft, aircraft
component or equipment.
3. Either 1 or 2, 4. Both 1 & 2.
68. The Mandatory Modifications/Inspections issued by airworthiness authority are to be complied with
within:
1. 24 hours, 2. With in two days, 3. With in stipulated period, 4. None above.
69. Whenever manufacturer issues changes to their products in form of SB, SI, SL or other
literature to the operators these:
1. Automatically become mandatory, 2. For better performance of the product,
3. Operator incorporate the same on the basis of operational experience.
4. Both2&3.
70. Operators are advised to get copies of AD’s, Mandatory Modification/Inspections from the:
1. Manufacturers, 2. Foreign Airworthiness Authorities,
3. DGCA, 4. Only 1 & 2.
71. The procedure for intimating the compliance of Modification to the manufacturer shall included
in the:
1. Maintenance System Manual, 2. Engineering Organisation Manual,
3. Quality Control Manual, 4. None of the above.
72. To in clued Modification which require repeat Inspections at specified intervals in the
appropriate Inspection Schedule is the responsibility of:
1. Owner, 2. Operator/Maintenance agency,
3. Owner/Operator 4. As in both 1 & 2.
73. Owners/Operators are required to submit to the Regional Airworthiness Office a list of SB’s
complied with during the proceeding one year at the time of:
1. Type certification, 2. Type approval,
3. C of A renewal, 4. Both 1 & 2.
74. Type certified product should not be altered unless prior approval is obtained from:
1. State of Design 2. DGCA, 3. RAO, 4. None above.
75. Consolidated list of all Modification/Inspections complied together by DGCA is to be
distributed to the operator by:
1. Manufacturer, 2. DGCA, 3. R.A.O., 4. None of the above.
76. CAR Series ‘T’ Part I, deals with flight testing of:
1. Aircraft, 2. Overhauled aircraft, 3. Series aircraft, 4. None of the above.
77. As per CAR Series T, Part I, a ‘Series Aircraft’ shall be tested:
1. In accordance with flight test schedule approved by DGCA,
2. To establish compliance with airworthiness requirements,
3. To get information for inclusion in documents,
4. All are correct.
78. Series Aircraft shall be Flight Tested by Pilots of:
1. Applicant, 2. Manufacturer, 3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None above.
79. Flight Test of an aircraft without any passenger on board is carried out for the purpose of
assessing:
1. Any Deterioration in performance, 2. Satisfactory maintenance,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None above.,
80. A Private aircraft shall be Flight Tested:
1. After Engine change, 2. During C. of A.,
3. To evaluate its engine power, 4. All are correct.
81. An Air India aircraft will be subjected to test flight:
1. During C. of A., 2. After top over haul,
3. After Overhaul, 4. Both 1 & 2.
82. On a three engine aircraft, test flight may not be carried out(Provided satisfactory Engine Ground
Testing subsequent to engine change has been carried out) after change of:
1. One engine, 2. Two engine, 3. Three Engines, 4. Both 1 & 2.
83. On a Four engine aircraft, Test Flight may not be carried out after change of:
1. One Engine, 2. Two Engines, 3. Three Engines, 4. All correct.
84. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement with:
1. On overhauled engine, 2. Reinstallation of same engine,.
3. Any other engine from same aircraft, 4. All are correct.
85. Adverse comments by Flight Crew on the performance of an aircraft during Test Flight
shall be reported to:
1. Flight Release AME, 2. Regional Airworthiness Office,
3. Quality Control Manager, 4. D.G.C.A.
86. Pre-Test-Flight certificates stating that the aircraft is fit for the flight shall be issued by:
1. Q.C.M., 2. Licenced/Approved individual,
3. Only those permitted to issue Flight Release, 2. Both 2 & 3 together.
87. Test Flight shall be carried out, if practicable, at:
1. Minimum AUW, 2. Maximum AUW, 3. As desired, 4. Both I & 2.
88. The responsibility of recording the results of Test Flight lies with:
I. Pilot-in-Command, 2. Co-Pilot, 3. Flight Engineer, 4. A.M.I
89. For detecting any persisting shortfall in the performance of any aircraft, Scheduled Airlines
will have performance monitoring cell in:
1. Quality Control Branch, 2. Engineering Sections,
3. Flight Testing Cell, 4. Both 2 & 3.
90. The Rate of climb is related to:
1. Altitude, 2. Aircraft Weight, 3. Temperature, 4. All correct.
91. The expected climb performance shall be obtained from:
1. Operational Manual, 2. Pilot’s Note,
3. Flight Manual, 4. All are correct.
92. The observed actual climb performance shall in no case be lower than expected climb performance
by more than:
1. 2%, 2. 3%, 3. 5% , 4. 7%.
93. After satisfactory performance of a Test Flight, an endorsement to this effect is made in:
1. Pilots detect Report & maintenance document,
2. Pilots defect Report & Aircraft Log Book,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of above.
94. In rate of Climb correction factor graph for propellers for a given pressure Altitude,
Rate of Climb factor:
1. Increases with increase in ambient temperature,
2. Decrease with decrease in ambient temperature,
3. Increases with decrease in ambient temperature,
4. Increases with increase in ambient temperature.
95. The variables in Rate of Climb graph as given in appendix to CAR Series T Part II are:
1. Pressure, altitude & temperature, 2. Pressure, altitude & Weight,
3. Pressure, Altitude , Temperature & Weight, 4. None of the above.
PRE-TEST EXAM OF C.A.R.(II)
A.M.E. DGCA EXAM OCT.2006.
1. Issue of AME Licences, fts classification and experience requirements are rel3tes with CAR Section -2:
1. Series-L, Part IV, 2. Series —L, Part —1, 3. Series— L, Part III.
2. The minimum qualifications & experience requirements for issue of AME licence in various Categories
is as per Aircraft Rule:
1. Rule-62, 2. Ruie-61, 3. Rule-133C,
3. Aircraft with AUW below 5700 kg. will be termed as:
1. Heavy Aircraft, 2. Light Aircraft, 3. Hovercrafi,
4. Trades of airframe and engines will be covered stream:
1. Avionics stream, 2. Mechanical stream, 3. None of the above.
5. Experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied Categories of the same stream,
experience will be:
I. Recent experience, 2. Concurrent experience, 4. All the above.
6. The trades of electrical, Instrument including Autopilots, radio communication, navigation
and radar system covered in stream:
1. Avionics stream, 2. — Mechanical stream, 3. Both I & 2.
7. An Aircraft with AUW of 5700 kg and above will termed as:
1. Heavy aircraft, 2. Light aircraft, 3. None of the above.
8. Experience acquired in the preceding 12 months will be termed as:
1. Recent experience, 2. Concurrent experience, 3. Gen. Aeronautical Experience
9. Licence with the scope limited to minor maintenance, minor repairs, minor Modification, snag
rectification and issue of flight release relates with:
1. ICA Type-I Lic. 2. ICAO type-Il Lic. 3. None of the above.
10. AME exams normally consists of:
1. Four written exams, 2. Three written exams, 3. Oral-cum-Practical test, 4. 1 & 3
11. As per CAR Series-L-Part-I, the questions in the written examinations will consist:
I. Multiple choice only, 2. Objective & Subjective, 3. Essay type only, 4. None of the above.
12. Aircraft Rules and CAR related questions appears in only:
1. Gen. Paper-Il, 2. Gen. Paper-I, 3. Paper-Ill (LA), 4. Paper-III(CP).
13. The hypothecation/Mortgages name from the Certificate of Registration, owner may apply to:
1. Owner who hypothecation the aircraft, 2. Owner may mortgaged the aircraft,
3. Owner who leased the aircraft, 4. DGCA with sustaining documents,
14. Where the original Certificate of Registration is lost or destroyed, the duplicate may be
issued on payment of:
1. 100 Rs. of Registration fee, . 2. 50 Rs. of Registration fee,
3. 25Rs. Registration fee, 4. 10Rs. of Registration fee.
15. The applicant shall furnish the following documents for Re-validation of type Certificate;
I. Supplementary type Data sheet, 2. Type design Data Sheet,
3. ETOPS certification Basis, 4. All above.
16. Prior to carry out the test of new type Certificate of Aircraft to substantiate the design
construction, shall submit to DGCA:
1. Type certificate, 2, Certificate of Approval,
3. Certificate of Maintenance, 4. Test schedule for approval.
17. A flying club operates a state govt. owned aircraft whose responsibility is to ensure of the
Aircraft has current C of A:
1. QCM of the Flying club, 2. Secretary of the Deptt.,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of the above.
18. In case of imported Aircraft the validity of C of A shall begin from the date of:
1. Issue of export certificate of Airworthiness, 2. Issue of Indian C of A.
3. Issue of certificate of Registration, . 4. Non above.
19. In case of imported aircraft, validity of C of A shall be restricted, to the validity as specified ir
1. Log Book, 2. C. of A., 3. Standard C of A., 4. Both I & 2.
20. Aircraft can be imported
1. Under Indian Registration Marking, 2. With Short term C of A.,
3. With limited validity only, 4. All above.
21. For light and heavy helicopters Paper-Ill irrespective of their AUW:
1. Separate paper will conducted, 2. Common paper will be conducted,
3. Bothl&2.
22, Specific type of Aircraft, Engine subjects will come in:
1. Gen. Paper-I, 2. Gen. Paper-II, 3. Paper-III, 4. Paper-IV.
23. For endorsement of Boeing. Airbus applicant is required to:
1. Pass Paper-TV specific, 2. Pass approved Training course,
3. Clear oral-cum-practical along with Paper-IV specific. 4. All the above.
24. Experience requirement to get AME Licence in Cat. A’(LA) is:
1. 4 years Aeronautical Engg. Experience,
2. 12 months on type of aircraft and 3 months recent on type aircraft,
3. 24 months on type of aircraft, 4. Both 1 & 2 are correct.
25. Experience requirement for Gas Turbine engine is:
1. 4 years Aeronautical Engg. Experience,
2. 24 months Genera’ maintenance of Gas Turbine Engine,
3. 12 months on type engine applied, out of that 3 months be recent experience,
4. Both I & 2.are correct.
26. For issue of AME licence in Cat. ‘R’ the candidate must possess:
1. RTR(Aero) licence Issued by Ministry of Communication,
2. AME Licence in Cat ‘A’, 3. None of the above.
27. Airborne communication systems includes:
1. VHF HF, Voice Recorder’& Audio equipment, 2. ADF,VOR, ILS,_VLF/Omega
3. Weather Radar, DME, Radio altimeter & ATC transponder equipment.
28. Airborne Radar system includes:
1. Weather Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, 2. ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/Omega,
3. V HF, HF, . 4. All the above.,
29 ICAO type-TI Licences means:
1. Cat. B, D & X, 2.’ Cat. A, C, E, I & R.
3. None of the above.
30. ICAO type-I Licences means:
1. Cat. B, D & X, 2. Cat. A, C, E, I & R,
3. All the above.
31. The colour of the marking brake in point:
1. Red, 2. Yellow, 3. Shall be outline in white to contrast with background 4. All the above.
32. Noise Certification standard for all aero planes as per:
I. ICA’O Annexure 16 Vol.-!, 2. ICAO Annexure 1,6,8 3. None of the above.
33. Pressure Altitude Reporting transponder fitted in all Aeroplane in accordance with CAR Sec.2,
1..Series R, Part —I, 2. Series R, Part IV, 3. SeriesR, Part-HI
34. Aeronautical Emergency frequency:
1. 120.1 MHz, 2. 121.5 MHz., 3. 122.8 MHz.
35. As per VFR visual reference to land marks should be at least every:
1. Sixty Knotical Miles, 2. 110 kms., 3. All the above.
36. CAR is issued under the provision of Rule:
1. 133A, 2. 133B, 3. 133D,
37. The detailed guidelines for preparation of Operational Manual are available in:
1. ICAO DOC 9376-AN/9l4, 2. ICAO DOC 9475-AN/915,
3. All are wrong.
38. Operational Manual shall be submitted to DGCA Head Qtrs. In:
1. Quadruplicate 2. Triplicate, 3. Duplicate,
39. The storage Temperature for Rubber parts and Aircraft component containing Rubber parts
should be between: 1. 50 to 70 deg. F, 2. 45—65,deg. F, 3. 65 deg. F.
40. Flight Testing of Aircraft for which a Certificate of Airworthiness has previously been issued,
reflected in:
1. CAR Series T, Part —I, 2. CAR Series T, Part —II, 4. Both 1 & 2 are correct.,
41 Which of the following is not required to be submitted to airworthiness office during
C of A renewal:
1. C of A aircraft 2. C of R of aircraft
3. W/T Licence of aircraft 4. None of the above.
42. If you want the airworthiness of officer to visit-your organization during the higher
schedule than you should intimate:
1. 15 days 2. 7 days Before
3. 30 Days before 4. None of the above.
43. If the airworthiness officer complete his final inspection after the expiry of C of k
than the validity of C of A will start from:
I. Date of inspection 2. Last date of C of A renewal
3. C of A expiry date 4. None of the above.
44. C of A will be re-validated indicating the:
1. Date of inspection complete by QCM
2. Last date of C of A validity
3. Expiry date
4. All above.
45. In case the C of A is suspended due to major accident and again C of A is renewed
after repair than it will valid:
1. Previous currency of C of A
2. For one year
3. For Six months
4. None of the above.
46. Before a constructor starts re-assembling a rebuilding Of an aircraft he ensure that
1. Proper history of parts
2. Parts purchased are genuine
3. Parts are calibrated.
4. Both land2.
47. To ensure that correct aeronautic of engineering practices are used during assembling
of rebuild aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME Cat A’
3. AME Cat ’B’ 4. RAWO.
48. A re-build aircraft: — — 1. Need not to be weighed
2. It —requires weighing
3. Should have fresh weight schedule
4. Both 2 and Care correct.
49. Director general may refuse to issue the C of A/C of R re-build aircraft if:
1. Correct assembly technique is not used
2. Cat ‘B’ engineer is not arranged
3. Fuselage life is not known
4. All above.
50. To ensure continues airworthiness of ageing aircraft require complying:
1. SB 2. SSID and CPCP
3. RMP and RAP 4. All above.
51. Associated controls are:
1. Airframe controls 2. Engine controls
3. Inter linked controls 4. Flight controls
52. Duplicate inspection of controls is carried out after:
1. Rigging 2. Alternation
3. Adjustment 4. All above.
53. All aircraft of wooden and composite construction shall be inspected:
I. Before issue of renewal of C of A
2. Before validation of C of A
3. At periods not exceeding 12 Months
4. All above.
54. In wooden aircraft, the inspection of glue line is often facilitated with:
1. Dy penetrant method 2. Magnaflux method
3. Magnifying glass 4. X’ Ray method
5.5. The instructions contained in Series ‘H’ Part-I (Calibration of fuelgauges) is
applicable to:
1. Light aircraft only
2. Heavy aircraft only
3. All aircrafts registered in India
4, Helicopters only.
56. To carry the fuel tank dipstick on hoard on light aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot in command 4. All above.
57. When ever funnels are used for refueling the aircraft, they shall be bonded to the:
1. Nozzle of the hose 2. Nozzle of the can
3. Aircraft 4. All above.
58. Position indicators and ammeters are:
1. Over hauled every two years
2. Overhauled every three years
3. Bench check every two years
4. Bench checks every three years.
59. The self-Life of each type of instrument must be reflected in:
1. quality control manual
2. Maintenance system manual 3. Engineering manual
4. Both l and 2.
60. No person shall operate piston engine aircraft with out GPSW:
1. If AUW is in excess of 5700 Kg.
2. Type certificated to carry less than nine passenger
3. Type certificated to carry mote-than six passenger
4. Both 1 and 2.
SERIES - I
Series I part 1 deals with
1. Aircraft Fuelling operation
2. Aircraft maintenance programs
3. Cleans rooms
4. Aircraft instruments , overhaul and periodic inspection
2. When should the compensation of magnetic compass be done
1. After 18 months 2. After 2 years
3. After 5 years 4. At ever 12 month interval
3. What is the maximum period for gyroscopic instruments?
1. 2 years / 2000Hrs 2. 2 years / 1 000Hrs
3. After 5 years 4. Every year
4. The A/C compasses are to be calibrated when A/C
1. Passes through electric storm 2. Makes heavy landing
3. Initial installation 4. All are correct
5. What is the maximum overhaul period for automatic pilot?
1. 3 years / 3000Hrs 2. 5 years / 5000Hrs
3. 1 year / 1 000Hrs 4. 3 years / 2000Hrs
6. What is the maximum overhaul period for vertical speed indicators?
1. 3 years / 200Hrs 2. 1 year / 100 Hrs
3. 1 year 4. 5 year
7. What is the maximum overhaul period for Altimeters?
1. 2 years / 2000Hrs 2. 1 year / 1 000Hrs
3. 5 year 4. 2 year
8. What is the maximum overhaul period for thermometers, pressure and vacuum gauges
I. To be decided by manufacturer
2. To be decided by’ PIC
3. To be decided by individual operators
4. 1000 Hrs
9. Who repairs time pieces of A/C below 3000 Kgs?
1. AME 2. Licenced personnel
3. Reputed commercial watch makers / watch repairing agencies
4. None of the above
1 0. What conditions should be there for storing instruments?
1. 5 — 2 5°C temperature 2. Humidity not exceeding 70%
3. In sealed containers 4. Both a & B
11. Where is the self life mentioned?
1. In approved QCM / MSM 2. In operation manual
3. In JLB 4. In FRC
12. After how much time an instrument installed on A/C which has not been
operated , need a bench check before use?
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 18 months 4. 24 months
13. Every A/C shall be fitted & equipped with instruments including radio
apparatus as per
1. Rule 57 2. Rule 57 Subrule2
3. Rule 57 sub rule 3 4. Rule 9 sub rule 3
14. Part II, Series I also include minimum instruments & equipment including
Communication & navigation equipment, Which are to be installed on a/c
engaged in
1. Gliders 2. Aerial work operation plus a
3. b) plus Flying club 4. b) plus Private operators
15. CAR is issued under the provision of
1. Rule 133A of A/C rules 1937
2. Rule 57 of A/C rules, 1934
3. Rule 29C of A/C rules, 1934
4. All are correct
1 6. Aerial work A/C excludes operation for services as
1. Agriculture 2. Patrol & Observation
3. Public 4. None of the above
1 7. Commercial air transport operation includes
1. Remuneration 2. Hire
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
18. General aviation operation includes
1. Search & Rescue 2. Observation & patrol
3. Both a & b 4. None above
19. All instruments dial shall have operating range marked as specified by
1. DGCA 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. Both a & c
20 When a flight is conducted with un serviceable instruments / equipments
1. They shall be placarded 2. Informed to Pilot in command
3. Flight is cancelled or delayed for service
4. Both a& b
21. The radio equipment shall be installed & operated with a licence issued
under
1 Indian telegraph Act of 1885 2. Indian Telegraph act 1985
3. AAC2 of 1995 4. All are correct
22. For flights on which licenced navigator is required, The instruments /
equipment are
1. Drift indicator 2. Navigator Air speed indicator
3. Both a& b 4. b) plus navigator wrist watch
23. An A/C shall be equipped with instruments which will enable
1. Flight crew to control flight path
2. Carry out required procedural maneuver
3. Observe operating limitations
4. All are correct
24. All A/C on all flights shall be equipped with
1. Safety harness for each flight crew members seat
2. Seat belt for each seat plus a) 3. Physician 4. All are correct
25. All aeroplanes on all flight shall be equipped with a seat / berth for each
passenger over the age of
1. 2 Months 2. 1 Year
3. 2 Years 4. 5 Years
26. ELT should be operated at a frequency of
1. 1030MHz 2. 1090MHz
3. 121.5MHz 4. 121.5KHz
27. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate rating are to be carried on board. The
number carried (for each rating ) should be
1. 5 2. one
3. two 4. three
28. CHT gauge is mandatory on all air — cooled engines with BHP
1. More than 250 2. Less than 250
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
29. Each flight crew members seat has
1. Safety harness 2. Seat belt
3. Briefing card 4. All above
30. All aircraft operated as VFR flight shall have during day
1. ASI 2. Magnetic compass
3. Adequate source of electrical energy for electrical equipment
4. Both a & b
31. CHT indicator and oil temperature gauge should be present in each engine
1. Power above 250 BHP 2. Air cooled engine
3. In VFR flight 4. All are correct
32. Before use of personal watch worn by pilot the facts should be rewarded in
1. Operation manual 2. Technical log
3. Aircraft log book 4. Pilot acceptance certificate
33. All aircraft issued with C of A after year 2000 shall have during night
1. Directional gyroscope 2. Instrument for fore & after
3. Anti collision light 4. All are correct
34. Aircraft on extended flights over water away from emergency landing area
shall have life saving
1. When 1 85 km away 2. When 100 Nm away
3. When 100 Nm (185 km) intht engine aircraft
4. All above
35. ELT fitted on aircraft shall be
1. Operating on 121.5 MHz frequency
2. Requirement relating TSO C 90a
3. Shall have ‘a’ load meter
4. Operatable with in a/c for 40 Hrs
36. Series I part II deals with
1. A/C equipment & instrument
2. Maintenance of test equipment 3. GPWS
4. Cockpit voice recorders
37. Rule 57 requires that 1. Every a/c shall be fitted & equipped with instrument
2. As in ‘a’ plus equipment
3. As in ‘b’ plus radio apparatus
38. Series I part III deals with
1. Maintenance of test equipment
2. Issue of C of C
3. A/W procedure for clean rooms and environment
4. None of the above
39. Rule 57 requires
1. Every a/c shall be fitted with approved instrument & equipment
2. As in ‘& plus radio apparatus
3. Botha&b
4. None of the above
40. The test equipment should be maintained in accordance with the
recommendation of the manufactor given in
I. Manual 2. Log cards
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
41. The interval of maintenance schedule may be based the
1. Frequency of the use 2. Method of the use
3. Both a & b
42. Maintenance schedule will have to be prepared by the approved by
QCM of the company
1. Shop incharge 2. AME
3. Chief Engg 4. None above
43. Apart from maintenance the test equipment have to be calibrated with
reference to
1. Master gauges 2. Primary standard
3. Both a & b
44. The maintenance schedule of the test equipment as and when performed will leave to be certified
by person approved by the RAO in consultation with
1. QCM 2. DGCA
3. DGCA (attendent)
45. The calibration period of the various instruments / equipment are mentioned in
I. QCM 2. Inspection manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
46. Validation of software of computers used as test equipment is documented in
1. Operation manual 2. QCM
3. Both a & b
47. The requirement of maintenance of A/C instruments and equipment in a
serviceable condition is indicated in
1. CAR series I part 3 2. A/C Rule 57
2. A/C rule 57 (b) 4. None above
48. Contamination can be caused during 1. Dry cleaning process 3. Wet cleaning process
3. Walking of individuals 4.All are correct
49. Control of contamination is caused by
1. Filtering the air 2. Changing the air
3. Protecting components from impact 4. All are correct
50. Final filter efficiency of class II controlled environment is of the order of
1. 99.95°/b 2. 99 %
3. 95% 4. 75 %
51. Class 3 clean room permits a specified number of particles per cubic meter
of air of sizes
1. 0.5 — 10 micron — m 2. 1 — 25 micron — m
3. 5 —25 micron — m 4. None of the above
52. Standards of guidelines for clean rooms are given in
1. BS 5295 2. BS 9255
3. IS 5295 4. None of the above
53. Suitable working temperature in a clean room should be
1. 15 degree C 2. 20 degree C
3. 20+2 degree C 4. 5 — 25 degree C
54. Air velocity for horizontal flow clean rooms is normally
1. 0.45 + 0.1 rn/s 2. 0.30 + 0.05 m/sec
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
55. Construction of clean rooms should be as per specification laid down in
I. 1S 5295 2. BS 5295
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
56. Garments for clean rooms should be made from materials which possess
1. Non flammability 2. Limited linting
3. Negligible electrostatic generation capability
4. All are correct
57. It is prohibited to use certain items in clean rooms including
1. Conventional paper 2. Pencils & erasers
3. Tools 4. Both a & b
58. Monitoring of clean rooms refers to the procedures adopted for checking the factors influencing the
environment. These are
I. Pressure and Temperature 2. Level of contamination
3. Humidity 4. All are correct
59. Pressure in a clean room , compared to outside surrounding pressure should
always be
I. Equal 2. More
3. Less 4. None of the above
60. Series I part V deals with
1. Maintenance of equipment 2. Flight data recorder
3. Cockpit voice recorder 4. None of the above
61. Every a/c shall be fitted with equipment & Radio apparatus is in light of rule
1. 55 2. 56
3. 57 3. 59
62. Series I part V deals with 1. Scheduled airlines 2. Non scheduled
3. Every A/C registered in India 4. None of the above
63. Type I FDR shall record
1. Flight path 2. Speed
3. Attitude 4. All are correct
64. The type of FDR shall not be use
1. Engraving metal foil FDR’s 2. Photographic film FDR’s
3. Analogue FDR’s using frequency modulation (FM)
4. All are correct
65. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1Jan.05 which utilize data
link communication are required to carry
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
66. For flight data recorders the minimum time duration is
1. Equal to total time 2. Total engine hour
3. Duration of CVR 4. Both a & b
67. ADS stands for
1. Aircraft direction system 2. Automatic defect surveillance
3. Automatic direction surveillance 4. None of the above
68.AOC stands for
I. Automatic oxygen control 2. Aircraft operation control
3. Auxiliary operational control 4. Aeronautical operational control
69. MOPS stands for
1. Minimum operational performance specification
2. Maximum operational performance specification
3. Minimum oxygen performance specification
4. None of the above
70. EUROCAE stands for
1. European organization for civil aviation equipment
2. European organization for civil aviation environment
3. Both a &b
4. None of the above
71.HUMS stands for
1. Helicopter health & usage monitor system
2. Helicopter utilization memory status
3. Helicopter usage memory standards
4. None of the above
72. The aeroplane of maximum certified take off mass over 5700 Kg required to
equipped is
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
73. The parameters designated by an Asterisk (*) shall be recorded
1. If parameter used by aeroplane system
2. Used by flight crew to operate aeroplane
3. Both a & b 4. In case of emergency
74. The parameter required for satisfy attitude
1. Pitch ,roll & yaw attitude 2. Angle of attack
3. Both a & b 4. Radio attitude
75. The number of parameters recorded depends upon aeroplane is
1. Power 2. Passenger sitting capacity
3. Complexity 4. None of the above
76. All aeroplanes with MTOW of 27000Kg of their C of A is issued on or after
1 Jan 1989 shall be equipped with
1. FDR 2. Type IFDR
3. Type II FDR 4. None of the above
77. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1 Jan 2005 with MTOW over
5700 Kg equipped with
1. Type I FDR 2. Type IA FDR
3. Type IIA FDR 4. None of the above
78. TIT stands for
1. Tripura Institute of technology 2. Turbine inlet temperature
3. Turbine integrated test 4. None of the above
79. All helicopter of maximum take of mass over 3180 Kg equipped with
FDR with a recording duration of atleast hours
1. Type IA,5 2. Type 11,25
3. Type IVA, 10 4. Type V, 100
80. The flight recorder shall meet the specification of
1. Airworthiness 2. Crash worthiness
3. Fire protection 4. Both B & C
81. The FDR installed on a/c shall have a serial number authenticated by
1. AME 2. RAO
3. QCM or person acceptable to DGCA 4. All are correct
82. The A/C rule that requires that every a/c shall be fitted and equipped with
instruments and equipment is
1. Rule 50 2. Rule 58
3. Rule 57 4. None of the above
83. The part of CAR that lays down the requirements for fitment of CVR on a/c
registered in India and a/c leased and imported into the country
1. Series! part IX 2. Series I part V
3. Series I part VI 4. Series I part VII
84. CVR stands for
1. Cockpit video recorder 2. Cockpit visual Radio
3. Cockpit Voice recorder 4. None of the above
85. CVR is an equipment installed in the a/c for the purpose of
1. Recording the aural environment on the flight dech during flight time
2. Accident/incedent prevention and investigation
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
86. No person shall operate a piston engine aeroplane or maximum take-off mass of over for which C of
A was first issued on or after unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
1. 3000Kg;1.1.87 2. 5700Kg;1.1.89
3. 3000 Kg; 1.1.89 4. 5700 Kg; 1.1.87
87. No person shall operate a turbine engine aeroplane maximum certified take off mass of over unless
it is fitted with an approved CVR
1. 15000 Kg 2. 3000 Kg
3. 5700 Kg 4. None of the above
88. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over unless it is fitted
with an approved CVR
1. 3000 Kg 2. 5700 Kg
3. 7000 Kg 4. None of the above
89. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over upto and including
or which the individual C of A was first issued on or after unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
1. 3000Kg;7000Kg; 1.1.87 2. 2700Kg;5700Kg; 1.1.87
3. 3000Kg;5700Kg;l.1.87 4. 2700Kg;7000Kg; 1.1.87
90. Helicopter imported after and not required to be equipped with shall record atleast main rotor
speed on recording channel of the CVR
1. 1.1.87; CVR ; two 2. 1.1.1997; FDR; three
3. 1.1.87 ; CVR; four 4. 1.1.1997 ; FDR ; one
91. Helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over are required to be equipped with
I. 5700Kg;FDR 2. 3000KgCVR
3. 7000 Kg; FDR 4. None of the above
92. CVR installed on A/C including helicopter shall have a capability of
retaining the information recorded during atleast the last of their
operation
I , 15 minutes 2. 20 minutes
3. 30 minutes 4. 45 minutes
93. Any a/c including helicopter issued with C of A after 1 July 2000 shall be fitted with capable of
retaining the information recorded during atleast the last of its operation
1. CVR; 1 hour 2. FDR ; 2 hours
3. CVR; 2 hours 4. FDR; 1 hour
94. CVR shall be of approved type and shall meet the specification
1. Of TSO C-84 2. Acceptable to DGCA
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
95. CVR will be maintained in an approved manner by
1. AME 2. Approved person
3. Appropriately qualified person 4. None of the above
96. CVR shall not be switched off during
1. Taking off 2. Flight time 3. Landing 4. None of the above
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
upon completion of flight following an
1. Accident 2. Incedent
3. Accident or incident 4. None of the above
98. CVR shall be capable of recording
1. Voice communication transmitted or received in A/C by Radio
2. Aural environment on the flight deck
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
99. CVR shall be capable of recording communication from
1. Co-Pilot headphones and pilot’s headphones
2. Area microphone 3. Both a & b
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and required to carry CVR
shall record on CVR or FDR the digital communication with ATC from
1. 1 Jan 1987 2. 1 Jan 1997
3. 1 Jan 2005 4. None of the above
101. All aeroplane of a maximum certified take off mass of over required to be equipped with and may
alternatively be equipped with two combination recorders (CVR?FDR)
1. 3000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 2. 2700 Kg; CVR; FDR
3. 7000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 4. 5700 Kg ; FDR ; CVR
102. CVR container shall
1. Be painted bright orange or bright yellow
2. Have reflective tape affixed to its external surface
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
103. CVR shall
1. Not have bulk erase facility 2. Have bulk erase facility
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
104. CVR system should have
1. Hot and cold microphones 2. Hot microphones
3. Cold microphones 4. None of the above
105. GPWS requirements introduced in 1978 by
1.. Pilot 2. ICAO
3. DGCA 4. None of the above
106. GPWS stands for
1. Ground proximity warning system
2. Ground Proxy warning system
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
107. It is mandatory to have GPWS on a piston engine aeroplane if
1. MTOW exceeds 5700 Kg 2. Seating capacity more that 9
3. Both a & b 4. Either a & b
108. GPWS should operated automatically whenever
1. Decent rate exceeds specified limit
2. Terrain closure rate is excessive
3. Altitude loss after take off is excessive 4. All are correct
109. Whenever GPWS is deactivated
1. An entry shall made in maintenance records
2. As in a) + date & time & deactivation
3.Appropriate placard in cockpit
4. Both b & c
110. GCAS stands for
1. Ground collosion avoidance system
2. Global collosion Avoidance system
3 Both a & b 4. None of the above
111. GPWS requirement is introduced in the year
1. 1975 2. 1976
3. 1977 4. 1978
112. GPWS meets the requirement of
1. FAA TSO C 92C 2. All are wrong
3. Any other specification acceptable to DGCA
4. Either a & c
113. EGPWS and GCAS meets the specifications
1. FAA TSO CISIa 2. JAA JTSO CISI a
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
114. -------------- shall be amended to reflect any change in operating procedure
1. ‘Operation Manual 2. Quality Control manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
115. GPWS installed in approved manual by 1. Approved Organisation 2. Manufacturer
3. Both a & b 4. Either a & b
116. Engineers certify the maintenance of GPWS should be type rated in
1. Category I or R 2. Category I or C
3. Category A or B 4. Category R or C
117. The use of GPWS equipment procedure is included in
1. Flight Manual 2. Quality control manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
11 8. Amendment to checklist to include GPWS procedure is included in
1. Flight Manual 2. Maintenance system manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
119. GPWS provides minimum warning under
1. Excessive descent rate 2. Excessive terrain closure rate
3. Botha&b 4. None of the above
120 GPWS provides minimum warning against
1. Gear not locked down 2. Flap not in landing position
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
121. Flight crew action w.r.t warning provided by GPWS equipment is given in
1. Flight Manual 2. Operation Manual
3. Crew operation manual 4. Aeroplane Mainte. Manual
122. De activation for planned abnormal and emergency procedure contain in
1. Aeroplane flight manual 2. Crew operation manual 3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
123. ACAS stands for
1. Aircraft collision Avoidance System
2. Airborne collision Avoidance System
3. Airborne Collision Avoidance System 4. None of the above
124. ACAS system is
1. Based on secondary surveillance Radar transponder signals
2. Dependent on group based equipment
3. Both a & h 4. None of the above
125. ACAS—1
1. Provides information as an aid to see and avoid action
2. Is dependent on group based equipment
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
126. ACAS — II can perform
1. Surveillance 2. Threat detection
3. Generation of traffic advisories 4. All are correct
127. ACAS should be of an approved type meeting specification of
1. Annex 10 to the convention on inter national civil Aviation
2. FAATSOC-119
3. Specification applicable to DGCA
4. Any one of the above V
128. ACAS II has to be fitted on all aircraft operation in Indian airspace having
1. More than 30 passenger capacity
2. Payload capacity of 5 tonnes
3. Either a & h 4. None of the above
129. Acquisite information about various aspects of ACAS is to be included in
1. Flight manual 2. Operations manual
3. Training manual 4. All are correct
130. ACAS can be maintained by AME licensed in
1. Cat.R 2. Cat.V
3. Either a & b 4. Only trained R/V
131. MEL contains provisions for unserviceability ACAS However in no case shall the ACAS unserviceable
for more than
1. 5days 2. 7days
3. 10 days 4. 15 days
132. Resolution advisory report initiated by a pilot / observer is to be sent to
1. DGCA 2. Airports authority
3. ICAO 4. Both a & b
SERIES-O
1. CAR series 0 part 1 deal with minimum requirement to be compiled with
by operator engaged in
1. Scheduled operation 2. Private operation
3. Non scheduled operation 4. All are correct
2. CAR series 0 part 1 deals with minimum requirements to be compiled
with by operator in respect of
1. Aircraft and its maintenance 2. Air routes
3. Air crew 4. All are correct
3. Aircraft rule 140 requires that all aircraft owners / operators shall comply
with the requirements of
1. Engineering 2. Safety
3. Maintenance 4. All are correct
4. List of components with approved overhaul lives is given in
1. QCM 2. Engineering organization
3. Maintenance and maintenance system manual
4. None of the above
5. Operators maintaining their aircraft under approval system shall have
1. QCM 2. Engineering organization manual
3. Either a & b 4. Both a & b
6. Single engined aircraft with retractable under carriage shall not be used in 1. Scheduled VFR operation
2. Non scheduled night operation
3. Scheduled VFR operation 4. None of the above
7. A multi engined aircraft, when loaded to the maximum weight shall be maintaining level flight with
one engine inoperative at an attitude of not less than
1. 2000ft above the valley level (highest point)
2. l000ft above the valley level (highest point)
3. 2000ft above water 4. Both a & c
8. Operation manual is not a necessary requirement for
1. Scheduled operators 2. Air transport operators
3. Non scheduled operators 4. Private
9. Maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members are
contained in
1. QCM 2. Operation manual
3. MS manual 4. Organisation manual
10. Minimum flight attitude for each route required for scheduled not operator
forms a pert of
1. Operations manual 2. Flight manual
3. Route guide 4. None of the above
11. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be
continued should any instrument become inoperative is contained in 1. Flight manual 2. Emergency
check list
3. Operations manual 4. None of the above
12. Operations manual contains
1. Procedure for refueling the aircraft
2. Condition under which 02 will break
3. List of navigation requirement
4. All are correct
13. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operations
manual and aircraft flight manual preference will be given to
1. Flight manual 2. Any one can be accepted
3. Operation manual 4. Approach DGCA
14. For operation of single engined aircraft there shall be an emergency
landing grained out interval of not more than
1. l5Omiles 2. 150Km
3. 260 miles 4.’ 260 Km
15. When an aircraft is landing under INE it shall be provided with a radio
equipment capable of receiving signals
1. From VOR station 2. From ILS system
3. From ATC transponder
4. Providing guidance to a point which visual landing can be effected
16. Required number of aircrew on a licensed air transport service is found in
1. Flight manual 2. C of R
3. C of A 4. Both a & b
17. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by DGCA that they are familiar with
1. Landing of an aircraft 2. ATC system
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
18. Minimum number of flight , a first pilot should have made along the route over which he is required
to fly in VFR condition in
1. One 2. Three
3. Two 4. None of the above
19 All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check
1. Once a year 2. Once in two year
3. Twice ayear 4. None of the above
20. Instruments rating check of pilot is carried out
1. Every year 2. Twice a year
3. Every two year 4. None of the above
21. Ensuring that aeroplane loading & the centre of gravity are with in the prescribed limits is the
responsibility of
1. AME 2. QCM
3. Co Pilot 4. Pilot in command
22. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provide with one approved life jacket for each person on
board when it is flown away from land at a distance of
1. 20 NM 2. 50 NM
3. 100 NM 4. None of the above
23. An independent emergency power supply system installed on a heavy aircraft should be able to
illuminate the artifical horizon for a minimum period of
1. 10mm 2. 20mm
3. 30 mm 4. None of the above
24. A totally independent emergency power supply is required for operating & illuminating at least for
30 mm
1. Artifical horizon 2. Turn & Slip indicator
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
25. Equipment to measure & indicate rate of total cosmic radiation shall be installed on all aeroplanes
operating
1. Below 49000ft 2. Above 49000ft
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
26. The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds 1. Radio equipment license 2. Flight
navigator license
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
27. Each cabin crew member assigned in emergency evacuation duties shall occupy a seat
1. During take off& landing 2. During emergency condition
3. Whenever pilot in command directs 4. Both a & c
28. General Aviation aeroplanes mean
1. All aeroplanes excluding these engaged in air transport
2. a) plus aerial work
3. All aeroplanes that carry passengers
4. Aeroplanes certified in private category for state government
29. Ensuring that passengers are made familiar with the location & use of emergency equipment on
board is the duty of
1. Pilot in command 2. Air hostess
3. Flight crew 4. Cabin crew
30. During flight when capacity to perform duty by a flight crew is significantly reduced due to
impairment of faculty as a result of sickness the pilot in command should
1. Carry on with the flight to the planned destination
2. Assign the duties of sick crew member to another crew member
3. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
4. None of the above
31. A helicopter of performance that in case of critical power unit failure is able to land on the rejected
take off or safely, continue the flight to an appropriatel landing area depending upon the failure
occurred is of performance class
1. one 2. Three
3. Two 4. Four
32. A helicopter with performance such that power unit failure at any point in the flight profile demands
a forced landing is of performance class
1. 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
33. A helicopter shall always be equipped with
1. A seat or berth for person over the age of five years
2. Portable fire extinguishers in each compartment
3. Life saving drugs 4. None of the above
34. All helicopter must be equipped with
1. An accurate time piece showing time up to seconds
2. Pilot may use his watch showing time up to seconds
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
35. Helicopter operating in IFR condition shall have (in addition to instrument in VFR flying)
1. Slip indicator 2. Landing light
3. Position light 4. None of the above
36. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio
equipment capable of receiving signals providing guidance to
1. A point from visual landing can be effected
2. A point from which instrument landing can be effected
3. ATC transponder 4. None of the above
37. All helicopter of class 1 or 2 intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or
rapidly mean of flotation if distance from I and at normal cruise speed corresponds to more than
1. 10 2. 30
3. 20 4. 45
38. Emergency equipment in a helicopter includes
1. A life jacket for each person on board
2. Life saving raft
3. Survival radio equipment 4. All are correct
39. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to fly to helicopter to which the
flight is planned
1. Only
2. Plus for an additional 15 mm + 10% of planned flight time
3. Plus for an additional 20 mm + 10% of planned flight time
4. None of the above
40. All helicopter operating at night shall be equipped with
1. Two landing flights
2. three landing lights , one at each wheel
3. Lights which are trainable at least in vertical plane
4. Both a & c