Board Review DH227, Lisa Mayo, RDH, BSDH
HPDP
1. Powered toothbrushes may be:
a. Indicated for individuals who are physically or mentally challenged
b. Effective tools for subgingivial plaque control in pocket depths up to 4mm
c. More traumatic to gingivia and cementum that manual toothbrushes
d. Contraindicated for individuals with mitrovalve prolapse
e. More difficult to use and require increased instructions time
2. Which of the following home care armamentariums is the LEAST effective plaque control tool for a
client with dental implants and a fixed prosthesis?
a. Tapered end tuft toothbrush
b. Soft bristled, multi-tufted nylon toothbrush
c. Rubber tip stimulator
d. Mild abrasive, ADA approved toothbrush
e. Unwaxed dental floss
3. Prevention and control of smooth surface dental caries if MOST effectively managed by:
a. Biannual dental hygiene recall visits
b. Early radiographic detection
c. Dental sealant application
d. Diet rich in fermentable carbohydrates
e. Fluoride therapy
4. Caries and inflammatory periodontal diseases are complex disease states that require the
colonization of bacteria; thus control of bacterial plaque is an essential component of any plan to
prevent and control these dental diseases.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE
d. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE
5. Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF)
a. Is an acidic preparation of stannous fluoride
b. Is difficult to use because of its instability in solution
c. Should be applied every 6 months
d. Is not recommended for children
e. Is commonly recommended for OTC preparation
6. Which agency monitors the fluoride content in community water supply?
a. EPA
b. FDA
c. OSHA
d. Bureau of Labor Management
7. The smooth surface of a tooth benefits most from fluoride because bacteria accumulate more readily
on these surfaces than on other tooth surfaces.
a. Both the statement and reasoning are correct
b. The statement is correct but the reasoning is incorrect
c. Both the statement and the reasoning are incorrect
d. The statement is incorrect, the reasoning is correct
8. The first thing that should be done when a child ingests a toxic amount of fluoride?
a. Seek medical attention
b. Administer fluoride-binding agent
c. Drink milk
d. Induce vomiting
9. What kind of stain does stannous fluoride cause:
a. Green
b. Orange
c. Brown
d. Black
e. It does not produce stain
10. How long can acute fluoride toxicity last?
a. 10min
b. 1 hour
c. 10 hours
d. Up to 24 hours
11. What occurs when topical fluoride is applied to a demineralized area?
a. The tooth structure gets weaker
b. The tooth structure gets stronger
c. There is no change in strength of the tooth structure
d. The demineralization area stains orange
12. What is the best method of fluoride application for caries prevention?
Concentration
Frequency
a. Low
Low
b. Low
High
c. High
Low
d. High
High
13. A chemotherapeutic agents in a periodontal management program needs to accomplish all the
following except one. Which one is the exception?
a. Control caries
b. Decrease gingivitis
c. Decrease bacteria
d. Control inflammation
14. What is the safely tolerated dose of topical fluoride?
a. over 5mg/kg
b. over 15mg/kg
c. ¼ the certainly lethal dose
d. The amount of drug likely to cause death is not intercepted by antidotal therapy
15. What is the cause of mottled enamel?
a. Excess consumption of systemic fluoride between the ages of 6 months and 6 years
b. Excess consumption of systemic fluoride between the ages of 6 years and 12 years
c. Excess exposure to topical fluoride between the ages of 6 months and 6 years
d. Excess exposure to topical fluoride between the ages of 6 years and 12 years
16. What is the purpose of an oral irrigator?
a. To remove subgingival plaque that is adherent to the tooth
b. To remove supragingival plaque that is adherent to the tooth
c. To disrupt loosely adherent plaque in the sulcus
d. To disrupt tightly adherent plaque in the sulcus
17. An intraoral photo shows white spots on the coronal 1/3 of the anterior teeth. What is the most
likely cause of the white spots?
a. Demineralization
b. Fluorosis
c. Unequal distribution of bleaching agent
d. Internal resorption
18. What is the best method of delivering fluoride to a group of migrant children?
a. School water fluoridation
b. Fluoride tablets
c. Community water fluoridation
d. Fluoride drops
19. Which tooth surface would a fluoride rinse LEAST benefit?
a. Occlusal
b. Facial
c. Lingual
d. Mesial
20. Signs and symptoms of acute fluoride toxicity include all the following except one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
a. Increase salivation
b. Vomiting
c. Increase in thirst
d. Fluorosis
21. Which type of topical fluoride would be recommended for infants and young children in a migrant
health clinic?
a. Fluoride rinse
b. Fluoride foam
c. Fluoride gel
d. Fluoride varnish
22. All of the following are indications for use of a topical fluoride application EXCEPT:
a. High caries indices
b. Xerostomia
c. Orthodontic appliances
d. Athletic mouthguard
e. Exposed root surfaces
23. Application of a pit and fissure sealant is dependent on all the following EXCEPT:
a. Cooperation level of the patient
b. Patient’s age
c. Patient’s plaque removal ability
d. Anatomical characteristics of put and fissures
24. Visible light cured sealant material
a. Has a working time of 1-3min
b. Must be wiped off immediately following polymerization
c. Is prepared in the same manner as chemical or self-cured sealant
d. Flows more readily into the pits and fissures of the occlusal surface
e. Has a flexible working time because polymerization occurs only when light is
applied
25. Which of the following is the LEAST likely to elicit a painful response by a patient who has exposed
root surfaces?
a. Use of a periodontal aid
b. Vigorous horizontal toothbrushing
c. Ice cream
d. Tooth surface evaluation by a dental explorer
26. Interdental cleaning devises
a. Conform to the anatomy of the proximal tooth surface
b. May result in the loss of interdental papillae
c. Are selective on the architecture and position of the gingiva
d. Compare favorably with toothbrushing for interdental bacterial plaque removal
e. Require excellent manual dexterity to manipulate
27. What etiologic factor is associated with high risk of oral cancer?
a. Excessive fluoride application
b. HPV
c. Frequent radiographic exposure
d. Habitual smoking
e. b and d
28. The results of electric vitality testing may be affected by all the following EXCEPT
a. The level of bacterial plaque control achieved
b. The presence of all full crowns on the teeth
c. The age of the patient
d. The patient’s mental state
e. The type of conducting agent used
29. Which if the following is an acute consequence of improper flossing technique?
a. Eroded enamel structure
b. Enamel mottling
c. Dilaceration of the root
d. proximal composite fracture
e. Laceration of the papillae
30. Prevention and control of dental diseases are
a. The primary goal of patient education
b. Impossible
c. Achieved by mechanical methods only
d. The goal of oral cancer self-exams
e. Achieved by topical fluoride application
31. Antimicrobial mouthrinses are indicated for all the following patients EXCEPT:
a. Orthodontic patients
b. Patients with poor dexterity
c. Patients exhibiting no loss of attachment and exemplary plaque control
d. Post-surgical patients
e, Patients who desire the feeling of fresh breathe
32. Commercially prepared mouthrinses commonly contain antimicrobials o reduce or inhibit microbial
activity. In addition, they contain oxygenating agents, which enhance tissue tone and encourage tissue
shrinkage.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement if TRUE, the second statement if FALSE
d. The first statement if FALSE, the second statement if TRUE
33. During an oral cancer self-exam, all the following conditions indicate to the patient a significant
deviation from normal EXCEPT:
a. 2x3mm, round ulceration that has been present of 4 weeks
b. Bilateral, white keratinized linear elevations on the buccal mucosa at the height of
the occlusal table
c. A white patchy covering on the left buccal mucosa in the vestibule area, adjacent to
#19-22 in a patient reporting smokeless tobacco use
d. A loss of distinction to the vermillion border of the labial frenum
34. During the hygienist’s recare appointment, the hygienist and patient set goals and determine the
course of action for the appointment. What phase is this in the process of care?
a. Assessment
b. Diagnosis
c. Planning
d. Implementation
e. Evaluation
35. Disclosing solution is a useful adjunct for teaching patients their strengths and weaknesses in plaque
removal. It is especially important for assessing subgingival plaque removal technique.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement if TRUE, the second statement if FALSE
d. The first statement if FALSE, the second statement if TRUE
36. The addition of antimicrobials to power oral irrigating devises for home use
a. Has not been documented in the literature as an effective regimen
b. Provides benefits beyond those achieved by irrigation with water alone
c. Is effective in subgingival plaque control beyond 5mm
d. Should not be recommended for orthodontic patients
e. Is not recommended by manufactures of current irrigators
37. Which of the following statements is NOT true about mouth malodor?
a. Odor is most commonly produces by foods
b. Most common source for odor is the dental surface of the tongue
c. Can be controlled by good oral hygiene
d. May be a sign of periodontal
e. May be caused by smoking
38. Dentifrices with whitening agents are marketed for their ability to
a. Coat the tooth with a whitening veneer
b. Remove extrinsic stains
c. Bleach intrinsic stains from within the tooth
d. Elicit a placebo effect
e. Diminish the fluoride rich enamel layer due to abrasiveness
39. Use of a fluoride dentifrice is an important part of a preventive care plan because
a. Fluoride controls extrinsic stains
b. Fluoride remineralizes tooth surfaces
c. Fluoride interferes with the calcium-phosphate bond in the calcium matrix
d. Fluoride dentifrices taste better than all others
e. Fluoride dentifrices control sensitivity
40. Maslow’s theory of human needs suggests that
a. Values form on the basis of previous behaviors
b. The outcome of an individual’s behavior is beyond the individual’s control
c. Inner forces or needs drive an individual’s course of action
d. Motivation is based on offers of punishment or reward
e. New behaviors will be easily adopted if they fit readily into their existing value
system
41. Determining that a patient is dissatisfied with appearance of their teeth should occur within the
_______ phase of the appointment.
a. Assessment
b. Planning
c. Implementation
d. Evaluation
42. A dental hygienist, who is introducing a new bacterial plaque control regime, must remember that
a. Dental hygienist knows that is best for their patients
b. The recommendation of a product outweighs the patient’s concerns about cost
c. Old habits are hard to change
d. It is the dental hygienist’s responsibility to ensure patient adherence to the new
technique
43. All of the following statements are true regarding neutral sodium fluoride (NaF)
a. NaF application should coincide with the eruption of primary and permanent teeth
b. Professional NaF application is a 2% concentration
c. NaF will not damage porcelain crowns or composite restoration
d. Does not promote staining or discoloration of the teeth
e. All the above
44. Questionable or incipient occlusal carious lesions
a. Require immediate restoration
b. Are best treated with topical fluoride application
c. Are indicated for sealant placement to prevent decay progression
d. Can be “watched,” no treatment is indicated
45. Each of the following statements suggests an appropriate use for the phase contrast microscope
EXCEPT:
a. Patient education aid
b. Diagnostic tool for periodontal disease
c. Mechanism for treatment evaluation
d. Determine the presence of bacteria morphotypes associated with health or disease
therapy
46. To be truly a primary preventive procedure, dental sealants should be applied
a. at the first clinical signs of decalcification
b. Shortly after tooth eruption
c. Before the radiographs are exposed
d. Only to those teeth at high risk for caries
e. After disease control techniques are mastered
47. Pulsating oral irrigators are contraindicated
a. For drug addicts
b. Before amalgam polishing
c. For use with a low-pressure water stream
d. For persons at risk for infectious endocarditis
e. For persons with fixed orthodontic appliances
48. Data collection procedures are
a. The same for all patients
b. Determined by client conditions
c. Treatment planned after client education
d. Performed during the evaluation phase of care
e. Focused on solving the patient’s identified problems
49. The Bass, or sulcular, toothbrushing technique
a. Required a high level of dexterity to perform
b. Incorporates a sweeping motion to remove debris away from the gingivial sulcus
c. Disrupts plaque at and under the gingivial margin
d. Uses a circular vibratory stroke
e. Directs the toothbrush bristles occasionally at a 45-degree angle
50. Oral irrigating devises have been shown to
a. Reduce the incidence of refractory periodontitis
b. Initiate keratinization of sulcular epithelium
c. Negate the effects of occlusal trauma
d. Promote healing following periodontal surgery
51. Rubber tip stimulators may be recommended for maintaining interproximal gingival contours and
removal of interproximal plaque. Plaque removal with a rubber tip is accomplished by directing the tip
toward the occlusal/incisal surface and tracing the gingival margin.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement if TRUE, the second statement if FALSE
d. The first statement if FALSE, the second statement if TRUE
52. Professional oral irrigation has been suggested for use for all of the following EXCEPT:
a. As an adjunct to mechanical root debridement
b. To flush a periodontal abscessed area
c. To deliver antimicrobial agents subgingivally
d. To disrupt subgingival bacteria organization
53. The application of dental sealants is
a. Limited to the permanent dentition
b. Contraindicated for traumatized tooth
c. Not effective for smooth surface caries control
d. Repeated every year beginning at 6 years of age
e. Still under evaluation for their efficacy
54. Which statement is not true about antimicrobial oral irrigation?
a. May enhance effects of scaling and root planing
b. Must be done using full-strength antimicrobial rinses
c. Penetrates periodontal pockets up to 4mm
d. Is an effective pre-procedural treatment with essentials oils
55. A “Baseline Human Needs Assessment” enhances collection of assessment data by identifying the
patient’s unmet needs. Identification of these needs directs the focus of the dental hygiene diagnosis
and care plan.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE
d. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE
56. The health belief model includes all of the following concepts EXCEPT
a. Patients must believe they are susceptible to disease
b. Patients must believe changing their behaviors will be beneficial
c. Patients must believe that active participation in learning new behaviors is
important
d. Patient must believe that the consequences of a disease are serious
57. What is the MOST important reason for using fluoride dentifrice?
a. Good taste
b. Remineralization
c. Low abrasiveness
d. Foaming action
e. All of the above are equally important reason
58. Mouthrinses
a. Are alternatives to mechanical bacterial plaque control
b. Are effective on both supragingival and subgingival plaque
c. Are antimicrobial agents that are important adjuncts in the control of dental
disease
d. Are all approved by the ADA for prevention and control of gingivitis
59. Frequent low potency doses of fluoride are important for enamel remineralization, 0.2% sodium
fluoride is an example of a low dose, high frequency fluoride agent.
a. Both statements are TRUE
b. Both statements are FALSE
c. The first statement is TRUE, the second statement is FALSE
d. The first statement is FALSE, the second statement is TRUE
60. A patient, age 55, has a pulse rate of 52. This pulse is considered:
a. Normal
b. Above normal
c. Below normal
d. Normal for a 9 year old
62. Which of the following indicated a rapid pulse rate?
a. Bradypnea
b. Tachypnea
c. Bradycardia
d. Tachycardia
63. Using ASA Classification a patient who has well-controlled, noninsulin-dependent diabetes would be
classified as ASA:
a. I
b. II
c. IV
d. III
64. On an adult patient, the blood pressure cuff is placed over which artery?
a. Radial
b. Carotid
c. Brachial
d. Femoral
65. A patient presented with a BP of 140/92mmHg. How would this be classified?
a. Normal
b. Mild hypertension
c. Severe hypertension
d. Moderate hypertension
66. What is the protocol for care for a patient who has a diastolic reading of 98?
a. Re-eval in 6mo
b. No modification of care indicated
c. Consult physician prior to initiating treatment
d. Release patient immediately and refer to a physician
67. What is the normal progression of bacterial development on the teeth?
a. Bacterial colonization, pellicle formation, plaque adhesion
b. Pellicle formation, plaque adhesion, bacterial colonization
c. Plaque adhesion, bacterial colonization, pellicle formation
d. Pellicle formation, bacterial colonization, plaque adhesion
68. An intraoral photo shows white spots on the coronal 1/3 of the anterior teeth. What is the MOST
likely cause of the white spots?
a. Fluorosis
b. Demineralization
c. Internal resorption
d. Unequal distribution of beaching agent
69. The smooth surface of a tooth benefits MOST from fluoride because bacteria accumulate more
readily on these surfaces than on other tooth surfaces
a. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
c. The statement is correct but the reason is not
d. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOR the reason is correct
70. The cause of mottled enamel is excess
a. Exposure to topical fluoride between the ages of 6-12 years
b. Exposure to topical fluoride between the ages of 6 months to 6 years
c. Consumption of systemic fluoride between the ages of 6-14 years
d. Consumption of systemic fluoride between ages 6 months and 6 years
71. From the following list, select 4 contraindications for use associated with air polishing.
a. Composite restorations
b. Active periodontal conditions
c. Demineralization
d. Patient with COPD
e. Sealant preparation
f. Patient with hypertension
72. Which tooth surface would benefit LEAST from a fluoride rinse?
a. Facial
b. Mesial
c. Lingual
d. Occlusal
73. Signs and symptoms of acute fluoride toxicity include all of the following EXCEPT which one?
a. Vomiting
b. Fluorosis
c. Increase in thirst
d. Increase in salivation
74. The 2 main substances removed from enamel in the demineralization process are:
a. Plaque and acid
b. Calcium and zinc
c. Calcium and phosphorus
d. Phosphorus and magnesium
75. The daily use of self-applied topical fluoride:
a. Should be avoided
b. Is contraindicated
c. Can result in chronic fluoride poisoning
d. Is recommended for patients with xerostomia
76. Fluorosis may be observed in teeth exposed to drinking water beginning at how many ppm?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
77. The Cooper’s live in the country and have well water which tested at <3pp, of fluoride. How much
fluoride should be supplemented for the 5 year old daughter who has one occlusal restoration?
a. None
b. 1mg/day
c. 0.25mg/day
d. 0.50mg/day
78. The preferred type of professional topical fluoride application for a patient with composite veneer
bonding on teeth #8 and #9 is:
a. 1.23% APF
b. 2% sodium fluoride
c. 8% stannous fluoride
d. Sodium monofluorophosphate
79. A 4 year old child who lives in a non-fluoridated area has rampant decay. All the following homecare regimens could be used, with parental supervision EXCEPT one.
a. Fluoride tablets
b. Fluoride dentifrice
c. Fluoride mouth rinse
d. Brush-on fluoride gel
80. When ingested, most fluoride is absorbed through the:
a. Oral mucosa
b. Large intestine
c. Enamel and dentin
d. Stomach and small intestine
81. Adverse fluoride reactions, such as nausea and vomiting, can be minimized during professional
application if the dental hygienist:
a. First polishes the teeth
b. Uses weaker concentrations
c. Limits applications to adults
d. Uses the appropriate amount of fluoride agent and salivary control
82. Which fluoride regime is best to minimize dental caries?
a. Low concentration, low frequency
b. Low concentration, high frequency
c. High concentration, low frequency
d. High concentration, high frequency
83. Which of the following is the cause of black line stain?
a. Pipe smoking
b. Cause is unknown
c. Fluoride supplements
d. Chromogenic bacteria
84. What must be changed to achieve success with oral home care?
a. Attitude
b. Behavior
c. Motivation
d. Knowledge
ANSWERS
1. A
2. D
3.E
4.A
5.C
6.A
7.B
8.D
9.C
10.D
11.B
12.B
13.A
14.C
15.A
16.C
17.B
18.C
19.A
20.D
21.D
22.D
23.C
24.E
25.A
26.C
27.E
28.A
29.E
30.A
31.C
32.A
33.B
34.C
35.C
36.B
37.C
38.B
39.B
40.D
41.A
42.C
43.E
44.C
45.B
46.B
47.D
48.B
49.C
50.D
51.C
52.B
53.C
54.B
55.A
56.C
57.B
58.C
59.A
60.C
61.------62.D
63.B
64.C
65.B
66.C
67.B
68.A
69.C
70.B
71. A,B,D,F
72.D
73.B
74.C
75.D
76.B
77.D
78.B
79.C
80.D
81.D
82.B
83.B
84.B