Which of the following is true about rocks? Rocks are composed of

1. Which of the following is true about rocks?
a. Rocks are composed of only one mineral
b. Rocks do not contain any mineral matter.
c. Coal is not considered to be a true rock
d. Most rocks are a mixture of minerals
2. Which of the following is not one of the three types of rocks?
a. Igneous
b. Sedimentary
c. Magma
d. Metamorphic
3. Metamorphic rock forms as a result of
a. Heat and pressure
b. The cooling of magma
c. Compaction of sediments
d. The melting of rock
4. All of the energy that drives the Earth’s rock cycle comes from?
a. The wind
b. Earth’s interior and the sun
c. The breakdown of organic matter
d. The movement of water over earth’s surface
5. A rock that forms when magma hardens beneath Earth’s surface is called an
a. Intrusive metamorphic rock
b. Intrusive igneous rock
c. Extrusive sedimentary rock
d. Extrusive igneous rock
6. Which of the following is an example of an extrusive igneous rock?
a. Rhyolite
b. Granite
c. Andesite
d. Coal
7. A certain igneous rock contains 25 percent dark silicate minerals. What is it?
a. Granitic
b. Basaltic
c. Andesitic
d. Ultramific
8. A conglomerate is a rock that forms as a result of
a. Intense heat and pressure
b. Compaction and cementation
c. Rapid cooling
d. Slow cooling
9. Which describes breccias?
a. A clastic sedimentary rock with angular particles
b. A clastic sedimentary rock with large, rounded particles.
Limestone is an example of a
a. Clastic sedimentary rock
b. A conglomerate
c. A biochemical sedimentary rock
d. Breccias
Fossils are only found in
a. Intrusive igneous rocks
b. Extrusive igneous rocks
c. Sedimentary rocks
d. Metamorphic rocks
Sedimentary rocks with ripple marks suggest that the rocks formed
a. Along a stream bed or beach
b. When an ancient animal swam over them
c. When wet mud dried and sank
What rock-forming process occurs when hot magma touches rock
a. Regional metamorphism
b. Biochemical sedimentation
c. Contact metamorphism
Which agent of metamorphism can cause the overall composition of the rock to change?
a. Hydrothermal solutions
b. Heat
c. Pressure
d. Time
A foliated metamorphic rock forms when crystals
a. Combine but do not form bands
b. Combine and form bands
A metamorphic rock can be classified according to its
a. Density and texture
b. Color and composition
c. Texture and composition
In the next 50-60 years, wind power could meet between __ to ___ percent of the country’s
power resource.
a. 5-10 percent
b. 25-30 percent
c. 35-40 percent
Why are surface temperatures high at stream reservoirs?
a. Volcanic activity
b. Plate theory
c. External heat
d. Because MRs. HerringļŠ
_______ power is generated by falling water
a. Pollution
b. Geothermal energy
c. Nuclear energy
d. Hydroelectric power
Practically every manufactured product does not contain any minerals
a. True
b. False
Nonmetallic mineral resources are extracted for the
a. Nonmetallic elements they contain
b. Physical properties
c. Chemical properties
d. A, b, c
What is the simplest and most widely used solar energy system?
a. Sun
b. Fuel
c. Solar collector
d. Pollution
Wind energy is a new source of energy
a. True
b. False
Wind energy has been used to power ships, grinding grains, and _________.
a. Windmills
b. Atoms
c. Generators
What type of rock is soft coal?
a. Igneous
b. Sedimentary
c. Metamorphic
What type of rock is hard coal?
a. Igneous
b. Sedimentary
c. Metamorphic
Heat and pressure play a valuable role in the transformation of coal and oil
a. True
b. False
What is the best known placer deposit
a. Silver
b. Copper
c. Gold
Wind turbines are turned by water
a. True
b. False
30. What is one thing absolutely necessary for a dam
a. Rocks
b. Height
c. Beavers
d. Cement
31. Tidal power is harnessed by constructing a dam across the mouth of a bay with a
a. Short beach
b. Short tidal range
c. Long tidal range
d. Sun
32. In 1972, the federal government passed several laws to
a. Prevent pollution
b. Protect resources
c. Decrease pollution
d. A, b, c
33. _________ is the careful use of resources
a. Pollution
b. Solar energy
c. Conservation
34. What is an example of land resources
a. Soil
b. Mines
c. A and b
35. ___________ is the unnatural warming of the earth’s atmosphere
a. Pollution
b. Global warming
c. Conservation
36. __________ is decomposed organic materal
a. Compost
b. Recycling
c. Resources
d. Land
37. What did congress pass in 1972?
a. Clean Water Act
b. Safe Drinking Water Act
38. The process that occurs when physical forces break down into smaller pieces without changing
the rock’s chemical composition is called_________________
a. Differential weathering
b. Mechanical weathering
c. Chemical weathering
39. What is responsible for the formation of exfoliation domes?
a. Frost wedging
b. Biological activity
c. Reactions with oxygen
d. Unloading
The gradual rounding of the corners and edges of angular blocks of rock is called
a. Exfoliation
b. Unloading
c. Spheroidal weathering
d. Mechanical weathering.
Whenever the characteristics and chemical composition of weathered materials have been
altered, they have undergone ___________.
a. Chemical weathering
b. Mechanical weathering
c. Mass movement
d. Frost wedging
Chemical weathering would be most effective in
a. A warm dry climate
b. Cold, dry climate
c. Warm, humid climate
d. Equal in all climates
What kind of material is found in the C horizon of a soil profile
a. Partially weathered parent material
b. Clay particles
c. Hardpan
d. Mineral and organic matter
The B horizon is also called the
a. Topsoil
b. Unaltered parent material
c. Partially altered parent material
d. Subsoil
A soil associated with hot and wet tropics is
a. Laterite
b. Pedocal
c. Pedalfer
d. Bedrock soil
Laterite soils contain high amounts of
a. Organic material
b. Iron oxide
c. Calcite
d. Calcium carbonate
Pedalfer soils would most likely be found
a. On an island close to the equator
b. In a tropical rainforest
c. In the dry areas of US
d. In the eastern half of the US
Which of the following human activities has caused an increase in soil erosion
a. Clear cut logging
b. Clearing land for construction
c. Plowing land for farming
d. All of the above
The rate of soil erosion depends on
a. Climate
b. Slope steepness
c. The type of vegetation
d. All of the above
The process responsible for moving material downslope under the influence of gravity is called
a. Erosion
b. Weathering
c. Mass movement
d. Soil formation
Which of the following is not true about mass movements
a. Some mass movements are too slow to be seen
b. Mass movements always lead to landslides
c. Gravity is the driving force
d. Mass movements are always downslope
What factor commonly triggers mass movements
a. Saturation of surface materials with water
b. Earthquakes
c. Removal of vegetation
d. All of the above
Why can the removal of vegetation trigger mass movements
a. The soil loses nutrients and begins to crumble
b. The plant roots bind the soil and regolith together
c. The shaking triggers
d. The plant roots lubricate the loose sediment
OVersteepened slopes often lead to mass movements because
a. Plants cannot grow on them
b. The angle of their slope is between 10-20 degrees
c. The angle of their slope is less than 20 degrees
d. The angle of their slope is greater than 40 degrees
During what season would you expect mass movements to be a greater threat
a. A dry summer
b. A wet spring before vegetation
c. A wet spring after vegetation
d. A dry autumn
56. When a block of material moves downslope along a curved surface, its called
a. A rockfall
b. A rockslide
c. A slump
d. A creep
57. What is the slowest type of mass movements
a. A slump
b. A rockfall
c. An earthflow
d. A creep
58. A relatively rapid form of mass movement that is most common in dry mountainous regions is
a. Creep
b. Mudflow
c. Slump
d. Earthflow
59. Which of the following best describes a slump
a. Slippage of a block of material
b. Blocks of rock sliding down a slump
c. Rapid flow of water-saturated debris
d. Slow downhill movement of soil and regolith
60. Alternate freezing and thawing often leads to
a. Creep
b. Slumps
c. Mudflows
d. Earthflows
61. The unending circulation of the earth’s water supply is
a. Water cycle
b. Infiltration
c. Gradient
d. Discharge
62. The movement of water into rock and soil through cracks and pore spaces is
a. Water cycle
b. Infiltration
c. Gradient
d. Discharge
63. The slope or steepness of a stream channel is
a. Water cycle
b. Infiltration
c. Gradient
d. Discharge
64. Volume of water passing a certain point in a given unit of time is
a. Water cycle
b. Infiltration
c. Gradient
d. Discharge
A stream that empties into another stream
a. Bedloads
b. Tributary
c. Meander
d. Capacity
A stream in a low, flat-bottomed valley that is near its base level often many bends called
a. Bedloads
b. Tributary
c. Meander
d. Capacity
Part of a stream’s load of solid material that is made up of sediment too large to be carried is
a. Bedloads
b. Tributary
c. Meander
d. Capacity
The maximum load it can carry
a. Bedloads
b. Tributary
c. Meander
d. Capacity
Accumulation of sediment where a stream enters a lake or ocean
a. Natural levee
b. Delta
c. Flood plain
d. Drainage basin
Landform that parallels streams
a. Natural levee
b. Delta
c. Flood plain
d. Drainage basin
During a flood the river overflows its banks and floods the plain
a. Natural levee
b. Delta
c. Flood plain
d. Drainage basin
Land area that contributes water to a stream
a. Natural levee
b. Delta
c. Flood plain
d. Drainage basin
A ___________ separates the drainage basin of one stream from another
a. Divide
b. Ground water
c. Zone of saturation
d. Water table
Area where water fills all the open spaces in sediment and rock
a. Divide
b. Ground water
c. Zone of saturation
d. Water table
Water found in the zone of saturation
a. Divide
b. Ground water
c. Zone of saturation
d. Water table
The upper limit of the zone of saturation
a. Divide
b. Ground water
c. Zone of saturation
d. Water table
Percentage of pores
a. Spring
b. Permeability
c. Artesian well
d. Porosity
Ability of something to release water
a. Spring
b. Permeability
c. Artesian well
d. Porosity
Whenever the water table intersects the ground surface it forms a
a. Spring
b. permeability
c. artesian well
d. porosity
Formation in which groundwater rises on its own pressure
a. Spring
b. Permeability
c. Artesian well
d. Porosity
Naturally formed underground chamber
a. Cavern
b. Traverntine
c. Karst topography
d. Sinkhole
Calcium carbonate produces the limestone we call
a. Cavern
b. Traverntine
c. Karst topography
d. Sinkhole
Ares that have been shaped by the dissolving power of groundwater
a. Cavern
b. Traverntine
c. Karst topography
d. Sinkhole
A depression produced in an area where groundwater has removed soluble rock
a. Cavern
b. Traverntine
c. Karst topography
d. Sinkhole
What is a fault
a. A place on earth where earthquakes cannot occur
b. A fracture in earth where movement has occurred
c. The place on earth’s surface where structures move during an earthquake
d. Another name for an earthquake
What is an earthquake’s epicenter
a. The place on the surface directly above the focus
b. The spot below the focus
Most earthquakes are produced by the rapid release of which kind of energy
a. Kinetic
b. Thermal
c. Elastic
d. Mechanical
A seismogram shows that p waves travel
a. At the same speed as surface waves
b. Slower than s waves
c. The same speed as s waves
d. Faster than s waves
A travel time graph can be used to find the
a. Focus of an earthquake
b. Strength of an earthquake
c. Damage caused by an earthquake
d. The epicenter of an earthquake
90. Where do most earthquakes occur
a. In the mountains of Africa
b. Around the edge of the Pacific Ocean
c. The Atlantic ocean
d. Europe
91. What is the most widely used measurement for earthquakes
a. Seismic scale
b. Richter scale
c. Moment magnitude scale
92. Liquefaction occurs when
a. Large waves wash over coastal areas
b. Earthquakes occur in the ocean
c. Loose, saturated soil turns into liquid
d. Mudslides downhill
93. A tsunami can occur when there is vertical movement at a fault under
a. A mountain range
b. The San Andreas fault
c. The ocean floor
d. A small lake
94. Violent shaking from an earthquake can cause soil and rock on slopes to fail and cause a
a. Fault
b. Landslide
c. Tsunami
d. Sinkhole
95. Earth’s thin, rocky outer layer is its
a. Core
b. Mantle
c. Crust
d. Outer core
96. The earth’s core is made of an alloy of
a. Iron and nickel
b. Copper and iron
c. Zinc and magnesium
d. Iron and zinc
97. What does Earth’s crust and uppermost mantle form
a. Asthenosphere
b. Hydrosphere
c. Lithosphere
98. Earth’s inner core is solid because of
a. The composition of its rock
b. Diameter
c. Extreme cold
d. Immense pressure
99. What is the moho
a. The boundary between the outer and inner core
b. Boundary between the crust and the mantle
c. The material of which the mantle is composed
d. An area of the mantle that will not transmit seismic waves
The continental crust is made largely of
a. Gneiss
b. Granite
c. Basalt
d. Limestone
The elastic _______ hypothesis concerns the release of stored energy from rocks
a. Rebound
b. Granite
c. Rock
The Tsunami Warning System protects coastal areas around the _______ ocean
a. Atlantic
b. Indian
c. Pacific
Earthquakes can cause __________ when gas and electric lines are cut
a. Earthquakes
b. Storms
c. Hives
d. Fires
Most of the Earth’s volume is contained in the ____________, beneath the crust
a. Core
b. Mantle
c. Crust
Which of the following is not a characteristic of S waves
a. They travel slower than P waves
b. They temporarily change the volume of material they pass through
c. They shake particles at right angles to their direction of travel
d. They cannot be transmitted through water or air
The moment magnitude is calculated using all of the factors except for
a. Surface area of the fault
b. Magnitude of past earthquakes in the area
c. Average displacement along a fault
d. Rigidity of rock in the area
Mrs Herring is awesome
a. True
b. False
A magma’s viscosity is directly related to its ___
a. Depth
b. Age
c. Color
d. Silica content
Which of the following factors helps determine whether a volcanic eruption will be
violent or relatively quiet
a. Amount of dissolved gases in the magma
b. Temperature of the magma
c. Composition of the magma
d. All of the above
A lava flow with a surface of rough, jagged blocks and sharp, angular projections is
a. Pyroclastic flow
b. Aa flow
c. Pahoehoe flow
d. Ash flow
As the temperature of lava increases,
a. Its viscosity decreases
b. It begins to harden
c. Its viscosity increases
d. It can flow a much shorter distance
A volcanic bomb is a
a. Very violent explosion
b. Piece of semi molten rock ejected as glowing lava
c. Pocket of gas released suddenly
d. Tiny particle of ejected rock
Which of the following is Not considered to be a pyroclastic material
a. Ash
b. Lapilli
c. Cinders
d. Pahoehoe
Large particles of hardened lava ejected from a volcano are called
a. Lapilli
b. Cinders
c. Blocks
d. Bombs
Which of the following is true about volcanic blocks and bombs
a. Blocks are semi-molten when ejected
b. Bombs are larger than blocks
c. Bombs are found closer to the volcano than blocks
d. Bombs often have a streamlined shape
The most violent volcanic eruptions are associated with what type of volcano
Cinder cones
Shield volcanoes
Composite cones
Fissure eruptions
Structures that form from the cooling and hardening of magma beneath Earth’s surface
The largest intrusive igneous body is
Magma forms when solid rock in the crust and upper mantle
The volcanic landforms at divergent ocean plate boundaries are
Oceanic ridges
Volcanic island arcs
Continental volcanic arcs
Ocean trenches
Most of the active volcanoes on Earth are located in a belt known as the
Circum-Atlantic belt
Ring of fire
Ring of Lava
The Hawaiian Islands are associated with what type of volcanism
Intraplate volcanism
Subduction zone volcanism
Volcanism at a divergent plate boundary
Volcanism at a convergent plate boundary
What percentage of Earth’s surface is covered by water
45 %
Which of the world’s oceans is the largest and deepest
Arctic Ocean
Atlantic Ocean
Indian Ocean
d. Pacific Ocean
Which of these features is Not found on the ocean floor
a. Mountain
b. Volcano
c. River
d. Plain
What does sonar equipment measure
a. The density of the ocean’s water
b. The depth of the ocean floor
c. The sound produced by ocean creatures
Scientists use satellites to measure the
a. Ocean floor depth
b. Size of underwater features
c. Sea-surface height
d. Ocean’s salinity
Which of the following areas is Not one of the three main regions of the ocean floor
a. Ocean floor basin
b. Continental margins
c. Continental rock
d. Mid-ocean ridge
The continental margins of the Pacific ocean are
a. Wider than those of the Atlantic and have more earthquake activity
b. Narrower than those of the Atlantic and are not covered with thick layers of sediment
Trenches form at sites where
a. One plate descends beneath another
b. Erosion cuts into the continental shelf
c. Two plates diverge under the sea
Abyssal plains are very flat features that form when
a. Volcanoes spread lava on the ocean bottom
b. Turbidity currents deposit sediments on the ocean floor
c. Ocean waters flood plains on land
Which of the following forms at mid-ocean ridges
a. Island arcs
b. Deep-sea trenches
c. Guyots
d. New ocean floor
The three types of ocean floor sediments are classified
a. Color
b. Origin
c. Particle size
Terrigenous sediment consists primarily of mineral grains eroded from
a. Mid-ocean ridges
b. Marine animal shells
c. Continental rocks
d. Undersea minerals
From which type of material does biogenous sediment form
a. Once living organisms
b. Manganese nodules
c. Rocks on land
d. Cooled magma
Hydrogenous sediment is made up of
a. Cinders and rock from undersea volcanoes
b. Parts of once living organisms
c. Eroded continental rock
d. Minerals that crystallize directly from ocean waters
What are the two major energy source obtained from the ocean floor
a. Oil and manganese
b. Calcium carbonate and halite
c. Natural gas and coal
d. Oil and natural gas
Which of the following areas does not contain major deposits of energy resources
a. Persian Gulf
b. Hudson Bay
c. Gulf of Mexico
d. North Sea
Most oceanic gas hydrates form when
a. Bacteria break down organic matter in seafloor sediments
b. Plant matter breaks down to form peat
c. Petroleum deposits seep into ocean floor sediment
Gas hydrates are compact chemical structures made of natural gas and
a. Halite
b. Water
c. Manganese
d. Petroleum
Which offshore resources are second only to petroleum in economic value
a. Salts and gypsum
b. Manganese nodules and halite
c. Calcium carbonate and copper
d. Sand and gravel
Manganese nodules are
a. Manganese salts that concentrate when seawater evaporates
b. Lumps of manganese and other metals found on the ocean floor
Earth is often called the “blue planet” because ocean water covers much of its surface
a. True
b. False
The world ocean can be divided into four main basins
a. True
b. False
The continental shelf is the gently sloping submerged surface extending from the
a. True
b. False
Passively drifting or weakly swimming organisms that cannot move independently of
ocean currents
a. Zooplankton
b. Plankton
c. Phytoplankton
d. Nekton
Organisms that can move independently of ocean currents by swimming or other means
a. Zooplankton
b. Plankton
c. Phytoplankton
d. Nekton
Animal plankton
a. Zooplankton
b. Plankton
c. Phytoplankton
d. Nekton
The forms of marine life tat live on or in the ocean bottom
a. Benthic zone
b. Oceanic zone
c. Benthos
d. Mixed zone
The marine life zone beyond the continental shelf
a. Benthic zone
b. Oceanic zone
c. Benthos
d. Mixed zone
An area of the ocean surface with uniform temperatures created by the mixing of water
a. Benthic zone
b. Oceanic zone
c. Benthos
d. Mixed zone
A layer of water in which there is a rapid change of density with depth
a. Thermocline
b. Pycnocline
c. Food chain
d. Food web
A layer of water in which there is a rapid change of temperature with depth
a. Thermocline
b. Pycnocline
A group of interrelated food chains
a. Thermocline
b. Pycnocline
c. Food chain
d. Food web
The process by which certain microorganisms use chemical energy to produce food
a. Abyssal zone
b. Photosynthesis
c. Chemosynthesis
d. Neritic zone
The marine life zone that extends from the low tide line out to the shelf break
a. Abyssal zone
b. Photosynthesis
c. Chemosynthesis
d. Neritic zone
The proportn of dissolved salts to pure water, usually expressed in parts per thousand
a. Trophic level
b. Density
c. Salinity
d. Photic zone
A nourishment level in a food chain
a. Trophic level
b. Density
c. Salinity
d. Photic zone
What causes ocean surface currents
a. Gravitational attraction
b. Friction between the ocean and wind on its surface
c. Ocean movements associated with earthquakes
d. Changes in water density
Currents affect climate by
a. Making ocean water evaporate
b. Transferring heat and cold between the tropics and polar regions
c. Changing the density of water in the tropics
What is the importance of upwelling
a. It brings warm water from the tropics to the poles
b. It decreases winds along exposed coastlines
c. It helps warm the North Atlantic gyre
d. It brings dissolved nutrients to the ocean’s surface
A decrease in seawater temperature or an increase in salinity
a. Upwelling along tropical coasts
b. An increase in seawater density
c. The circulation of ocean gyres
d. A decrease in seawater density
What causes density currents to form in the Mediterranean sea
a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Transpiration
d. Upwelling
Most ocean waves get their energy from
a. The sun
b. Plate movement
c. The moon’s gravitational attraction
d. The wind
Which of the following factors does Not help determine the height, length, and period
of a wave
a. Wind speed
b. Fetc
c. Temperature
d. How long the wind blows
When waves grow so tall they topple over they form ocean breakers called
a. Whitecaps
b. Fetch
c. Tsunamis
Energy moves through waves in a
a. Convection current
b. Circular motion
c. Oscillation motion
d. Straight line
What is the vertical distance between a trough and a crest
a. Wave height
b. Wavelength
c. Wave speed
d. Wave period
The two forces that produce tides are gravity and
a. Inertia
b. Friction
Ocean tides result largely from the gravitational attraction of the
a. Sun
b. Core of Earth
c. Closest planets
d. Moon
Which processes carve shoreline features
a. Erosion and abrasion
b. Transportation and condensation
c. Deposition and sedimentation
Longshore currents form because
a. Beaches absorb waves and backwash in some areas of the coast
b. Waves hit the coast at an angle and form currents in the surf zone
c. Backwash leaves the shore with more energy than swash
d. Eroded material from the shoreline deflects currents
Which of the following is Not a depositional shoreline feature
a. Wave-cut platform
b. Spit
c. Tombolo
d. Barrier island
Where do baymouth bars form across bays
a. Where there is no longshore current nearby
b. Where strong currents move in and out daily
c. Where sea stacks stand on both sides of the entrance
d. Where currents are weak
Barrier islands form as the direct result of
a. Erosion
b. Precipitation
c. Deposition
d. Abrasion
What is a structure build parallel to the shore that shields the coast from breaking
a. Groin
b. Seawall
c. Wave barrier
d. Tombolo
The ocean’s circulation is organized into five major gyres, or current systems that move
in circles within ocean basins
a. True
b. False
The rising of cold water from deep layers of the ocean to replace warmer surface water
a. Groin
b. Seawall
c. Upwelling
The tops of waves are the _______, the low areas are called the _______
a. Seawall, troughs
b. Crests, troughs
c. Troughs, crests
Beach nourishment is the addition of large amounts of sand to a beach system to
stabilize shoreline sands without building structures
a. True
b. False
The layer of the atmosphere immediately above the troposphere, characterized by
increasing temperatures with height is
a. Troposphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Thermosphere
The layer of the atmosphere immediately above the stratosphere and characterized by
decreasing temperatures is
a. Trophosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Thermosphere
Thermal energy transferred from one object to another
a. Albedo
b. Ozone
c. Conduction
d. Convection
The lowermost layer of the atmosphere, it is characterized by a decrease in temperature
with height
a. Trophosphere
b. Stratosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Thermosphere
The transfer of heat in waves through space
a. Radiation
b. Kinetic energy
Any form of water that falls from a cloud
a. Evaporation
b. Precipitation
c. Wet Point
d. Front
The energy absorbed and released during a change in state
a. Latent heat
b. Relative humidity
The change of converting a gas to a liquid
a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Sublimation
d. Saturation
The conversion of a solid directly to a gas without passing through a liquid state
a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Sublimation
d. Saturation
The state of air that contains the maximum quantity of water vapor that it can hold at
any given temperature and pressure
a. Condensation
b. Evaporation
c. Sublimation
d. Saturation
Tiny bits of particulate matter that serve as surfaces on which water vapor condenses
a. Wet abiabatic rate
b. Dew point
c. Condensation nuclei
One of the three basic cloud forms, sheets or layers that cover much or all of the sky
a. Stratus
b. Cirrus
c. Cumulus
At any given time how many thunderstorms are found on Earth
a. 100
b. 2000
Which is the correct order
a. Cumulus dissipating, mature
b. Mature, dissipating, cumulus
c. Cumulus, mature, dissipating
d. Dissipating, cumulus, mature
Thunderstorms form when warm, humid air rises in a
a. Clockwise spiral
b. Counterclockwise spiral
c. Stable environment
d. Unstable environment
Hurricanes are classified according to intensity using the
a. Fujita
b. Saffir-Simpson scale
c. Doppler scale
d. Richter scale
What causes a hurricane to lose energy when it moves onto l and
Lack of warm, moist air
Heating from below by land
Both a and b
A rotating column of air is called
Cumulonimbus cloud
Typhoon is another name for
Wave cyclone
A cold, dry air mass that moves over warm tropical waters will likely become
Warmer and drier
Colder and drier
Colder and wetter
Warmer and wetter