1. If C and L denote the capacitance and
inductance respectively, the dimensions of
LC are :
a) 𝑀0 𝐿0 𝑇 2
b) 𝑀0 𝐿2 𝑇 −2
c) 𝑀 𝐿 𝑇 −2
d) 𝑀0 𝐿0 𝑇 0
⃗ denote electric and magnetic
2. If 𝐸⃗ and 𝐵
field
s respectively, the
dimensions of the ratio E/B In MSKA
system are :
a) [𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ]
b) [𝐿−1 𝑇]
c) [𝑀 𝐿 𝑇 −2 ]
d) [𝐿 𝑇 −1 ]
3. If a body travels half the distance with
velocity 𝑣1 and the next half with velocity
𝑣2 , its average velocity will be given by :
a) 𝑣 = √𝑣1 𝑣2
𝑣 1 +𝑣 2
2
𝑣
𝑣 = 𝑣1
2
2
1
1
=𝑣 +𝑣
𝑣
1
2
b) 𝑣 =
c)
d)
4. A ball thrown vertically upwards reaches
its maximum height ℎ in time T. at time
T/2, its height will be :
a) ℎ⁄4
b) ℎ⁄2
c) 7ℎ⁄8
d) 3 ℎ⁄4
5. For a projectile on the horizontal surface of
a planet 𝑦 = 8𝑡 − 5𝑡 2 m shows height and
𝑥 = 6 𝑡𝑚 shows the horizontal distance,
then the velocity with which the projectile
is projected is:
a) 8 m/s
b) 6 m/s
c) 10 m/s
d) 100 m/s
6. Mark the correct option
It a ball is projected with velocity 𝑣0 at
angle of elevation 300 then:
a) Gravitational projectile energy will be
minimum at the highest point of the
trajectory
b) Kinetic energy will be zero at the
highest point of the trajectory
c) Vertical component of the momentum
will be conserved
d) Horizontal component of momentum
will be conserved
7. If the momentum of a body increases by
50%, its kinetic energy will increases by:
a) 50%
b) 100%
c) 125%
d) 150%
8. n small balls each of mass impinge
elastically each second on a surface with
velocity u. the force experienced by the
surface will be:
a) 𝑚𝑛𝑢
b) 2𝑚𝑛𝑢
c) 4𝑚𝑛𝑢
d)
1
𝑚𝑛𝑢
2
9. A body of mass 1.0 kg is falling with an
acceleration of 10 m/s2. Its apparent
weight will be : ( g = 10 m/s2 )
a) 1.0 kg wt.
b) 2.0 kg wt.
c) 0.5 kg wt
d) Zero
10. The potential energy of a weightless spring
compressed by a distance 𝑎 is proportional
to:
a) 𝑎
b) 𝑎2
c) 𝑎−2
d) 𝑎0
11. A disc is of mass M and radius r. the
moment of inertia of it about an axis
tangential to its edge and in plane of the
disc is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
5
𝑀𝑟 2
4
𝑀𝑟 2
4
3
𝑀𝑟 2
2
𝑀𝑟 2
2
12. A ring of radius 0.5 m and mass 10 kg is
rotating about its diameter with angular
velocity of 20 rad/s. its kinetic energy is:
a) 10 J
b) 100 J
c) 500 J
d) 250 J
13. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by
1%
Its mass remaining the same, the
acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s
surface would:
a) Decrease by 1%
b) Remain unchanged
c) Increase by 1 %
d) Increase by 2 %
14. Which of the following statements is true
for geostationary satellite?
a) It revolves in a plane containing the
Greenwich meridian
b) It revolves in plane perpendicular to
celestial equatorial plane
c) Height of the satellite from the earth’s
surface is equal to radius of the earth
d) Height of this satellite from earth’s
surface is equal to six times the radius
of earth
15. If 𝑣𝑒𝑠 R and g denote respectively the
escape velocity from the surface of the
earth, radius of the earth and the surface
and acceleration due to gravity , then the
correct equation is :
4
a) 𝑣𝑒𝑠 = √3 𝑔𝑅 3
b) 𝑣𝑒𝑠 = √𝑔𝑅
c) 𝑣𝑒𝑠 = 𝑅 √𝑔
d) 𝑣𝑒𝑠 = √2𝑔𝑅
16. The acceleration of a particle performing
SHM is 12 cm/s2 at a distance of 3 cm from
the mean position. Its time period is :
a) 0.5 s
b) 1.0 s
c) 2.0 s
d) 3.14 s
17. Two bodies P and Q of equal mass are
suspended from two separate mass less
springs of force constant 𝑘1 and 𝑘2
respectively. If the bodies oscillate such
that their maximum velocities are equal,
the ratio of the amplitude of P to that of Q
is :
a) 𝑘1 ⁄𝑘2
b) √𝑘1 ⁄𝑘2
c) 𝑘2 ⁄𝑘1
d) √𝑘2 ⁄𝑘1
18. Coefficient of isothermal elasticity 𝐸𝜃 and
coefficient of adiabatic elasticity 𝐸∅ are
related by : (𝛾 = 𝐶𝑃 ⁄𝐶𝑉 )
a) 𝐸𝜃 = 𝛾𝐸∅
b) 𝐸∅ = 𝛾𝐸𝜃
c) 𝐸𝜃 = 𝛾/𝐸∅
d) 𝐸𝜃 = 𝛾 2 𝐸∅
19. The area of cross-section of a steel wire ( Y
= 2.0 x 1011 N/m2 ) is 0.1 cm2. The force
required to double its length will be :
a) 20 × 1012 𝑁
b) 20 × 1011 𝑁
c) 20 × 1010 𝑁
d) 20 × 106 𝑁
20. A large number of water droplets each of
radius r coalesce to form a bigger drop of
radius R. if the surface tension is T and the
mechanical equivalent of heat is J, then the
rise in temperature is :
a)
b)
c)
d)
3𝑇
𝑅𝐽
3𝑇
𝑒𝐽
3𝑇 1
(
𝐽 𝑟
3𝑇 1
(
𝐽 𝑟
1
+ 𝑅)
1
− 𝑅)
21. If two soap bubbles have different radii but
their surface tension is same, then:
a) Pressure of the larger bubble is higher
than smaller bubble
b) Excess pressure of the smaller bubble
is higher than larger bubble
c) Both bubble have the same excess
pressure
d) None of these
22. If degree of freedom of a gas is f ,then the
𝐶
value of 𝛾 = 𝐶𝑃 is given by:
𝑉
a) 2 +
b) 1 +
c)
d)
1
𝑓
2
𝑓
a)
b)
1
𝑓
2
𝑓
c)
23. If 𝑣𝐻 , 𝑣𝑁 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑣𝑂 denote the root mean
square velocities of molecules of
hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen
respectively at a given temperature, then :
a) 𝑣𝐻 > 𝑣𝑁 > 𝑣𝑜
b) 𝑣𝐻 = 𝑣𝑁 = 𝑣𝑜
c) 𝑣𝑂 > 𝑣𝐻 > 𝑣𝑁
d) 𝑣𝑁 > 𝑣𝑜 > 𝑣𝐻
24. In an adiabatic expansion of a gas initial
and final temperature are T1 and T2
respectively, then the change in internal
energy of the gas is :
a)
b)
𝑅
(𝑇
𝛾−1 2
𝑅
(𝑇
𝛾−1 1
the 1st and 2nd rods are maintained at𝜃1
and 𝜃2 respectively. The temperature of
the common junction is:
− 𝑇1 )
− 𝑇2 )
c) 𝑅(𝑇2 − 𝑇1 )
d) Zero
25. Coefficient of isothermal elasticity 𝐸𝜃 and
coefficient of adiabatic elasticity 𝐸∅ are
related by : (𝛾 = 𝐶𝑃 ⁄𝐶𝑉 )
e) 𝐸𝜃 = 𝛾𝐸∅
f) 𝐸∅ = 𝛾𝐸𝜃
g) 𝐸𝜃 = 𝛾/𝐸∅
h) 𝐸𝜃 = 𝛾 2 𝐸∅
26. A black body at temperature of 1270C
radiates heat at the rate of 1 cal/cm2. At a
temperature of 5270 C the at rate of
radiation
From the body (in cal/cm2) will be:
a) 16.0
b) 10.45
c) 4.0
d) 2.0
27. Two rods of same length and cross-section
are joined along the length. Thermal
conductivities of 1st and 2nd rod are 𝐾1 and
𝐾2 . The temperature of the free ends of
d)
𝜃1 +𝜃2
2
𝑘1 𝑘2
(𝜃1 +
𝑘1 +𝑘2
𝑘1 𝜃1 +𝑘2 𝜃2
𝑘1 +𝑘2
𝑘2 𝜃1 +𝑘1 𝜃2
𝑘1 +𝑘2
𝜃2 )
28. A wave is represented by the equation 𝑦 =
𝜋
7 sin (7𝜋 − 0.4𝑥𝜋 + 3 ) 𝑥 is in meter and t
is in second. The speed of the wave is :
a) 175 m/s
b) 49𝜋 𝑚/𝑠
c)
49
𝜋
𝑚/𝑠
d) 0.28𝜋 𝑚/𝑠
29. If two waves of amplitude 𝑎 produce a
resultant wave of amplitude 𝑎 then the
phase difference between them will be :
a) 600
b) 900
c) 1200
d) 1800
30. In young’s double slit experiment, the ratio
of maximum to minimum intensities of the
fringe system is 4:1 the amplitudes of the
coherent sources are in the ratio :
a) 4:1
b) 3:1
c) 2:1
d) 1:1
31. In young’s double slit experiment the
fringe width is 0.2 mm. if the wavelength
of light used is increased by 10% and the
separation between the slits is increased
by 10% then the fringe width will be :
a) 0.20 mm
b) 0.165 mm
c) 0.401 mm
d) 0.242 mm
32. Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f2
are in contact and coaxial. The
combinational is equivalent to a single lens
of power:
a) f1 + f2
b)
c)
d)
𝑓1 𝑓2
𝑓1 +𝑓2
1
(𝑓 + 𝑓2 )
2 1
𝑓1 +𝑓2
𝑓1 𝑓2
33. Which of the following is a correct
relation?
a)
b)
c)
d)
aµr = aµw x rµw
aµr = aµw = rµw
aµr
=rµa = 0
aµr / wµr = aµw
34. a person cannot see objects a clearly
beyond 2.0 m. the power of lens required
to correct this vision will be:
a) +2.0 D
b) -1.0 D
c) +1.0 D
d) -0.5 D
35. The dispersive power of the material of
lens of focal length 20 cm is 0.08. the
longitudinal chromatic aberration of the
lens is:
a) 0.08 cm
b) 0.08/20 cm
c) 1.6 cm
d) 0.16 cm
36. Which of the following is not true for prism
in position of minimum deviation?
a) i1 = i2
b) r1 = r2
c) i1 = r1
d) All of these
37. On rotating a point charge having a charge
q around a charge Q in a circle of radius,
the work done will be :
a) q x 2𝜋𝑟
b)
𝑞 𝑥 2𝜋𝑄
𝑟
c) Zero
d)
𝑄
2𝜀0 𝑟
38. A 5 c charge experiences a force of 2000 N
when moved between two points
separated by a distance of 2 cm in a
uniform electric field. The potential
difference between the two points is:
a) 8 V
b) 200 V
c) 800 V
d) 20,000 V
39. 125 identical drops and charged to the
same potential of 50V are combined to
form a single drop will be :
a) 50 V
b) 250 V
c) 500 V
d) 1250 V
40. An alpha particle is accelerated through a
potential difference of 106 V. Its kinetic
energy will be:
a) 1 MeV
b) 2 MeV
c) 4 MeV
d) 8 MeV
41. A capacitor of a capacity C1 is charged by
connecting it across a battery of emf V0.
The battery is then removed and the
capacitor is connected in parallel with an
uncharged capacitor of capacity C2. The
potential difference across this
combination is :
a)
b)
c)
d)
𝐶2
𝑉
𝐶1 +𝐶2 0
𝐶1
𝑉
𝐶1 +𝐶2 0
𝐶1+ 𝐶2
𝑉0
𝐶2
𝐶1+ 𝐶2
𝑉0
𝐶1
42. The mean electric energy density between
plates of a charged capacitor is :
(Here q = charged on the capacitor and A =
area of the capacitor plate )
a) q2/2𝜀 0A2
b) q/2𝜀 0A2
c) q2/2𝜀 0A
d) none of these
43. A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube
of side α. The electric flux through one face
of the cube will be :
a)
𝑞
6𝜀0
b)
c)
d)
𝑞
3𝜀0
𝑞
12𝜀0
𝑞𝛼 2
4𝜋𝜀0
44. An infinite sequence of resistance is shown
in the figure.
45.
46.
47.
48.
The resultant resistance between A and B
will be when R1 = 1Ω and R2 = 2Ω.
a) Infinity
b) 1 Ω
c) 2 Ω
d) 1.5 Ω
A galvanometer of resistance 25Ω gives full
scale deflection for a current of 10 mille
ampere, is to be changed into a voltmeter
of range 100 V by connecting a resistance
of R in series with galvanometer. The value
of resistance R in ohm is:
a) 10000
b) 10025
c) 975
d) 9975
A potential difference V is applied at the
ends of a copper wire of length l and
diameter d. on doubling only d, drift
velocity :
a) Becomes two times
b) Becomes half
c) Does not changes
d) Becomes one-fourth
The resistivity of a wire depends on its :
a) Length
b) Area of cross-sectional
c) Shape
d) Material
In the following circuit 𝐸1 = 𝐸2 = 𝐸3 = 2𝑉
and 𝑅1 = 𝑅2 = 4 Ω. The current passing
through battery E2 between points A and B
is:
a) Zero
b) 2A, B and A
c) 2A, A and B
d) None of these
49. A steady current of 5 A is maintained for
45 min. During this time t depends 4.572 g
of zinc at the cathode of a voltmeter. ECE
of zinc is:
a) 3.387 x 10-4 g/C
b) 3.397 x 10-4 g/C
c) 3.384 x 10-3 g/C
d) 3.394 x 10-3 g/C
50. How much heat is developed in a 210 W
electric bulb in 5 min? [mechanical
equivalent of heat = 4.2 J/cal ]
a) 7500 cal
b) 15000 cal
c) 22500 cal
d) 30000 cal
51. Heat produced (cal) in a resistance R when
a current I ampere flows through it for t for
t seconds is given by the expression :
a)
b)
c)
d)
𝐼2 𝑅𝑡
4.2
𝐼𝑅2 𝑡
4.2
4.2𝐼𝑅
𝑡2
𝐼𝑅𝑡 2
4.2
52. The magnetic field B within the solenoid
having n turns per meter length an
carrying a current of I ampere is given by :
a)
µ0ni
4π
b) µ0ni
c) 4𝜋µ0ni
d) Ni
53. The magnetic induction due to an infinitely
long straight wire carrying a current I at a
distance r from wire is given by :
⃗ | = ( 𝜇0 ) 2𝑖
a) |𝐵
4𝜋 𝑟
⃗ | = ( 𝜇0 ) 𝑟
b) |𝐵
4𝜋 2𝑖
⃗ | = (4𝜋) 2𝑖
c) |𝐵
𝜇
𝑟
0
⃗ | = (4𝜋) 𝑟
d) |𝐵
𝜇 2𝑖
0
54. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a
distance r carry equal currents i. the
magnitude of the force per unit length
exerted by one wire on the other wire will
be :
a) 𝜇0 𝑖/2𝜋𝑟
b) 𝜇0 𝑖 2 /𝑟 2
c)
𝜇0 𝑖 2
2𝜋𝑟
d) 𝜇0 𝑖/𝑟 2
55. Due to the flow of current in a circular loop
of radius r, the magnetic induction
produced at the centre of the loop is B. the
magnetic moment of the loop is : [ 𝜇0 =
𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 ]
a) 𝐵𝑟 3 /2𝜋µ0
b) 2𝜋𝐵𝑟 3 /µ0
c) 𝐵𝑟 2 /2𝜋µ0
d) 2𝜋𝐵𝑟 2 /µ0
56. Which one of the following is not made of
soft iron?
a) Electromagnet
b) core of transformer
c) core of dynamo
d) magnet of loud speaker
57. The magnetic field to a small magnetic of
magnetic moment M, at distance r from
the centre on the equatorial line is given by
( in MKS system ):
a)
b)
c)
d)
𝜇0
4𝜋
𝜇0
4𝜋
𝜇0
4𝜋
𝜇0
4𝜋
𝑀
× 𝑟3
𝑀
× 𝑟2
2𝑀
𝑟3
2𝑀
× 𝑟2
×
58. A straight wire carrying current I is turned
into a circular loop. If the magnitude of
magnetic moment associated with the
MKS unit is M, the length of wire will be:
a) 4𝜋𝐼𝑀
4𝜋𝑀
𝐼
b) √
4𝜋𝐼
c) √ 𝑀
d)
𝑀𝜋
4𝐼
59. A steel wire of length 𝑙 has magnetic
moment M. It is bent into a semicircle. Its
magnetic moment is:
a)
b)
2𝑀
𝜋
3𝑀
2𝜋
c)
d)
𝑀
𝜋
𝑀
2𝜋
60. An AC generator produces an output
voltage E = 170 sin t 377 volts, where t is in
seconds. The frequency of AC voltage is:
a) 50 Hz
b) 110 Hz
c) 60 Hz
d) 230 Hz
61. The self-inductance of a coil is 5 H. A
current of 1 A changes to 2 A within 5s
through the coil. The value of induced emf
will be :
a) 10 V
b) 0.10 V
c) 1.0 V
d) 100 V
62. “The direction of the induced current in a
circuit is always such that it opposes the
cause due to which it is produced.”
This law is named as:
a) Ohm’s law
b) Lenz’s law
c) Kirchhoff’s law
d) Faraday’s law
63. The self-induction of a solenoid of length L,
area of cross-sectional A and having N
turns is:
a)
b)
𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝐴
𝐿
𝜇0 𝑁𝐴
𝐿
𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝐿𝐴
c)
d) 𝜇0 𝑁𝐿𝐴
64. An alternating current of frequency f is
flowing through a resistance R and
inductance L connected in series. The
impedance of the circuit is:
a) R + L
b) R + 2𝜋𝑓𝐿
c) √𝑅 2 + 4𝜋 2 𝑓 2 𝐿2
d) √𝑅 2 + 𝐿2
65. The peak voltage in a 220 V, AC supply is
nearly:
a) 220 V
b) 253 V
c) 311 V
d) 440 V
66. The coil of a dynamo has n turns, area A
and it rotates with an angular velocity 𝜔 in
a uniform magnitude of maximum emf
generated is:
a) 𝑛𝐴𝜔2 𝐵
b) 𝑛2 𝐴𝜔𝐵
c) 𝑛2 𝐴𝜔2 𝐵
d) 𝑛𝐴𝜔𝐵
67. The fact that electric charge are integral
multiples of the fundamental electronic
charge was proved experimentally by:
a) Planck
b) J.J. Thomson
c) Einstein
d) Millikan
68. In a Millikan’s oil drop experiment, a
charged drop of mass 1.8 x 10-13 kg is
stationary between its plates. The distance
between its plates is 0.9 cm and potential
difference is 2000 V. The number of
electrons in the drop is:
a) 500
b) 50
c) 5
d) 10
69. for production of kβ X-ray, the transition of
electron is :
a) n = 2 to n= 1
b) n = 3 to n= 2
c) n = 3 to n= 1
d) n = 4 to n= 2
70. By photoelectric effect, Einstein proved:
a) E = h𝜈
1
b) KE = 2 𝑚𝑣 2
c) E = m𝑐 2
d) E =
𝑅ℎ𝑐 2
𝑛2
71. Which of the following transitions in a
hydrogen atom emits photon of the
highest frequency ?
a) n = 1 to n = 2
72.
73.
74.
75.
b) n = 2 to n = 1
c) n = 2 to n = 6
d) n = 6 to n = 2
The order of size of atom and size and size
of nucleus are respectively:
a) 10-10 m, 10-14m
b) 10-10 m, 10-8 m
c) 10-20 m, 10-16m
d) 10-8 m, 10-6 m
The energy of an electron of a hydrogen
atom in an excited state is -3.4 eV. The
angular momentum of the electron is:
a) 2.1 x 10-34 J-s
b) 1.5 x 10-10 J-s
c) 5 x 10-5 J-s
d) 50 x 10-7 J-s
The order of magnitude of the density of
nuclear matter is:
a) 104 kg/m3
b) 1017 kg/m3
c) 10-15 kg/m3
d) 1034 kg/m3
The decay constant of a radioactive
material is 𝜆. The half cycle and the
average life are respectively:
a)
b)
𝐼𝑛 2
1
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜆
𝜆
1
𝐼𝑛 2
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜆
𝜆
c) 𝜆(𝐼𝑛 2) 𝑎𝑛𝑑
d)
𝜆
𝐼𝑛 2
𝑎𝑛𝑑
1
𝜆
1
𝜆
76. A nucleus ZXA emits an α-particle. The
resultant nucleus emits a β-particle. The
respective atomic and mass number of the
final nucleus will be :
a) Z – 3, A - 4
b) Z – 1,A – 4
c) Z – 2,A - 2
d) Z, A – 2
77. C14 has half-life 5700 yr. At the end of
11400 yr, the actual amount left is:
a) 0.5 of original amount
b) 0.25 of original amount
c) 0.125 of original amount
d) 0.0625 of original amount
78. A semiconductor device is connected in a
series circuit with a battery and a
resistance. A current is found to pass
through the circuit. If the polarity of the
battery is reversed, the current drops
almost to zero. The device may be:
a) p-type semiconductor
b) n-type semiconductor
c) a p-n junction
d) an intrinsic semiconductor
79. If a piece of copper and the other of
germanium are cooled from room
temperature to 80 K, then which following
would be a correct statement?
a) Resistance of each increases
b) Resistance of each decreases
c) Resistance of copper increases and of
germanium decreases
d) Resistance of copper decreases and of
germanium increases
80. To obtain electrons as majority charge
carriers in a semiconductor, the impurity
mixed is:
a) monovalent
b) divalent
c) trivalent
d) pentavalent
81. Identify that set in which all the three
substances are good conductors of
electricity:
a) Cu, Ag, Au
b) Cu, Si, diamond
c) Cu, Ag, plastic
d) Cu, Ge, wood
82. How many NAND gates are used to form
an AND gate?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4