UA Flashcards Unit 1
1) Laboratory equipment and other
inanimate objects serve as what in the
chain of infection?
2) The chain of infection does not
includes what?
3) You arrive to work in the clinical
laboratory with a small cut on your
hand. Your supervisor pulls you from
specimen collection (phlebotomy)
duties for the day, citing chain of
infection protocols. Why is your
supervisor concerned about the cut
on your hand?
4) Centrifuging an uncapped tube of
urine is most likely to produce a/an:
5) What guidelines tells laboratory
personnel to consider all patients as
possible carriers of blood-borne
pathogens?
6) The Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
recommends that universal
precautions be followed when
encountering:
7) What CDC guidelines considers all
moist body substances to be
potentially infectious and stresses
hand washing?
8) The Occupational Exposure to BloodBorne Pathogens Standard is:
9) A laboratory worker who observes a
red hand rash after removing gloves
should:
10) Plexiglas shields are used in the
laboratory when urine tube
specimens are being:
11) A urine specimen received in the
laboratory is leaking in a transport
bag. What is the next course of action?
12) Lab coats worn in the urinalysis lab
should:
13) Proper hand washing includes all of
the following procedures except:
14) The acceptable method for disposing
of urine specimens is:
Reservoir
15) Disinfection of the sink in the
urinalysis laboratory should be
performed:
On a daily basis
Disinfectant
Because you have a point of entry that could
expose you to infectious agents
Aerosol
Standard precautions
Specimens containing visible blood
Standard precautions
A law enforced by Occupational Safety and
Health Administration (OSHA)
Avoid wearing latex gloves in the future
Uncapped for analysis
It should be rejected
Be completely buttoned
Using a paper towel to turn on the water faucet
Pouring down the sink followed by copious
amounts of water
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
16) Safety precautions observed in the
urinalysis laboratory does not
include:
17) The source, method of transmission,
and host are all deemed:
18) What is a practice that all laboratory
workers must avoid?
19) Before using a water hose on a
burning chemical cabinet, a firefighter
would visually check that what is
posted on the outside of the cabinet?
20) Laboratory personnel wear special
monitory badges when working
frequently with what hazards?
21) When encountering a person
experiencing an electrical shock, the
first thing to do is:
22) When a fire is discovered in the
laboratory, you should do all of the
following except:
23) The acronym RACE is used when
encountering a/an:
24) What items found in the laboratory
should be securely fastened to a
nonmovable object?
25) The most commonly available fire
extinguisher in a hospital is:
26) When using a fire extinguisher, which
action do you perform first?
27) Variables that are not included in a
quality assurance program are what?
28) Clinical laboratory personnel have the
least control over what conditions?
29) When you receive a specimen and a
requisition form that do not match,
you should:
30) When a critical value is obtained in
the laboratory:
31) The ability to obtain the published
result on a control sample is referred
to as:
32) Obtaining the same result after testing
the same specimen three times is
called test:
Centrifuging only uncapped tubes
33) The highest acceptable range for
confidence limits in the clinical
laboratory is:
34) A procedure with a coefficient of
B. ±2 SD
Components of the chain of infection
Manually recapping needles
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
symbol
Radioactive
Turn off the circuit breaker for area
Leave the door open when evacuating
Fire
Compressed gas cylinders
Type ABC
Pull the pin
Clinical
Pre-examination variables
Notify the personnel who collected the specimen
The result must be reported to the health-care
provider
Accuracy
Precision
Imprecise
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
variation of 10% is considered:
35) When plotted on a Levy-Jennings
chart, a control that has been left on
the counter overnight instead of being
refrigerated might show a/an:
36) Proficiency testing should be
performed:
37) The least regulated level of Clinical
Laboratory Improvement
Amendments (CLIA) testing
categories is:
38) A urinalysis laboratory that
subscribes to an external proficiency
testing program from which all
samples are tested by the supervisor
is an example of:
39) True/False: Personnel in the
urinalysis laboratory are best
protected from blood-borne pathogen
exposure when following standard
precautions.
40) True/False: It is not necessary to
change gloves when performing tasks
on the same patient.
41) True/False: OSHA requires employers
to provide free immunization for
hepatitis B virus (HBV) to workers in
urinalysis.
42) True/False: Hands should be washed
before and after testing each urine
specimen.
43) True/False: A paper towel used to
absorb a urine spill is discarded in a
biohazard container.
44) True/False: It is acceptable to recap a
needle on a syringe containing urine,
but not blood.
45) True/False: Only nontoxic chemicals
can be pipetted by mouth.
46) True/False: The MSDS should be
provided to laboratories by chemical
manufacturers or vendors.
47) True or false: Electrical current can
pass through glass and wood.
48) True or false: Flammable chemicals
must be stored in explosion-proof
refrigerators.
49) True or false: When lifting heavy
Shift
By personnel performing the tests routinely
Waived
Right things done wrong
True
False
True
False
False
False
False
True
False
True
True
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
objects, laboratory workers should
bend their knees.
50) Match the following safety hazards
with the possible injury:
A. Carcinogen exposure
B. Strained back
C. Viral infection
D. Shock
5. Biologic
6. Chemical
7. Electrical
8. Physical
51) State the six components of the chain
of infection.
52) Who is responsible for laundering
nondisposable lab coats?
53) When gloves are removed, what is the
next action taken?
54) What two activities are paper towels
used for when washing the hands?
55) Name three blood-borne pathogens.
56) What document does OSHA require
all laboratories to have on file when
using hazardous chemicals?
57) What are the diamond-shaped, colorcoded labels placed on chemical
cabinets in the urinalysis lab called?
58) A laboratory worker who is pregnant
should avoid areas designated by
what hazard symbol?
59) Describe the type of shoes that should
be worn in the laboratory.
60) All of the following are components of
normal urine except:
A. Urea
B. Chloride
C. Amino acids
D. Creatinine
61) To determine if a specimen is urine,
measure the concentrations of:
62) The average daily volume of urine
produced by a normal adult is
approximately:
63) A person exhibiting oliguria would
have a urine volume of:
64) What terms is correctly matched with
urine output?
5.
6.
7.
8.
C. Viral infection
A. Carcinogen exposure
D. Shock
B. Strained back
Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, means
of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host
Employer
Hand sanitizing
Drying the hands and turning off the water
HBV, HCV, and HIV
Chemical hygiene plan
NFPA symbols
Radioactive
Comfortable, closed-toe
C
Urea and creatinine
1200 mL
200 to 500 mL
Polyuria: 3000 mL in 24 hours
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
65) The polyuria associated with diabetes
mellitus is caused by:
66) Urine from a patient with diabetes
insipidus has:
67) A patient with polyuria shows a high
specific gravity in the urine. The
patient should be evaluated for:
68) Persons taking diuretics can be
expected to produce:
69) A urine specimen may be rejected by
the laboratory for all of the following
reasons except:
70) An unpreserved urine specimen left at
room temperature overnight will
have decreased:
71) What will be least affected in an
unpreserved specimen left at room
temperature overnight?
72) Red blood cells will disintegrate more
rapidly in urine that is:
73) The primary cause of the changes that
take place in unpreserved urine is:
74) What urine chemicals will deteriorate
when exposed to light?
75) What is least likely to occur if a urine
specimen stands at room temperature
for more than 2 hours?
76) A urine specimen for reagent strip
glucose analysis can be preserved
using all of the following methods
except:
77) A urine specimen containing a large
amount of precipitated amorphous
material may have been preserved
using:
78) In the laboratory, the preferred
method of urine preservation is:
79) A specimen for routine urinalysis and
culture can be preserved using:
80) All of the following are good
preservatives of urinary cellular
elements except:
81) Before analysis, a refrigerated urine
specimen must be:
82) The recommended specimen for
routine urinalysis testing is the:
83) The required specimen for
The presence of excess glucose in the urine
Increased volume and decreased specific gravity
Diabetes mellitus
Polyuria
The container uses a screw-top lid
Glucose and ketones
Protein
Dilute and alkaline
Bacterial growth
Bilirubin
Decreased pH
A. Refrigeration
B. Boric acid
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Commercial tablets
Refrigeration
Refrigeration
Boric acid
A. Boric acid
B. Formalin
C. Sodium fluoride
D. Thymol
Returned to room temperature
First morning specimen
Timed specimen
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
quantitative analysis of urinary
constituents is the:
84) A first morning specimen is
frequently requested to confirm:
85) The first morning specimen from a
patient with no history of symptoms
for diabetes is positive for glucose.
The patient should:
86) The specimen of choice for routine
urinalysis is the first morning urine
because it:
87) All of the following specimens are
acceptable for a urine culture except:
88) Quantitation of a substance that
varies with daily activities should be
performed on a:
89) Failure to empty the bladder before
beginning the collection of a timed
urine specimen will:
90) An alternative to the catheterized
specimen is the:
91) The least contaminated specimen for
bacterial culture is the:
92) The three glass collection is used for
the diagnosis of:
93) Documentation of appropriate
handling of specimens for drug
analysis is provided by the:
94) The liver breaks down protein to form
what waste product?
95) An increase in urine production
during the night is described as:
96) Where should labels on urine
specimen containers be placed?
97) Increased turbidity in urine stored at
room temperature is usually caused
by:
98) What is the maximum length of time a
urine specimen can remain
unpreserved at room temperature
before testing?
99) Which specimen(s) from a three glass
collection do(es) not have to be
examined microscopically?
100) The temperature of a specimen for
drug testing is 25oC when measured
within 4 minutes of collection.
Orthostatic proteinuria
Be asked to collect the second morning specimen
Is more concentrated to better detect
abnormalities
A. Catheterized specimen
B. Timed specimen
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Midstream clean-catch specimen
24-hour specimen
Cause falsely increased results
Midstream clean-catch specimen
Suprapubic aspiration
Prostate infection
Chain of custody form
Urea
Nocturia
Container
Bacterial growth
2 hours
#2
False-negative
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
101) The second sample of a three glass
collection has a positive urine culture.
102) A patient is deprived of fluids
during a 6-hour timed urine collection
103) Aliquots from 24-hour specimens
are being obtained before measuring
and mixing the sample.
104) True or False: Urine contains
organic and inorganic chemicals that
can vary with body metabolic
functions.
105) True or False: Physicians
performing urinalysis can determine
whether a specimen is urine from the
presence of formed elements.
106) True or False: Dietary intake does
not influence urine volume.
False-positive
107) True or False: Polydipsia is a
symptom of both diabetes mellitus
and diabetes insipidus.
108) True or False: A urine specimen
label should include the date and time
of collection.
True
109) True or False: Urine that remains
unpreserved at room temperature
will show an increase in the
concentrations of nitrate, glucose, and
white blood cells.
110) True or False: specimen delivered
to the laboratory in a gray-top
Vacutainer is acceptable for
urinalysis.
111) True or False: A urine bacterial
culture should not be performed on a
catheterized specimen.
112) Normal functions of the kidney
include all of the following except:
False
113) The approximate number of
nephrons contained in each kidney is:
114) Increased production of aldosterone
causes:
115) The primary chemical affected by
the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone
system is:
False-negative
False-negative
True
False
False
True
False
False
A. Regulating body hydration
B. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes
C. Regulating electrolyte balance
D. Elimination of serum proteins
1,000,000
Increased plasma sodium levels
Sodium
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
116) The specific gravity of the
glomerular ultrafiltrate is:
117) The enzyme renin is produced by
the kidney:
118) Decreased production of
aldosterone:
119) Production of antidiuretic hormone
is controlled by the:
120) All of the following are endogenous
clearance test substances except:
1.010
121) If a substance is completely filtered
by the glomerulus and then
completely reabsorbed by the tubules,
the clearance of that substance will
be:
122) The most routinely used laboratory
method for measuring the glomerular
filtration rate is the:
123) For accurate evaluation of renal
tubular concentrating ability, patient
preparation should include:
124) A technical error that could cause a
discrepancy between freezing-point
and vapor-pressure osmometry
readings is:
125) What tests provides information
similar to specific gravity?
126) The PAH test is used to measure:
127) What is not associated with the
elimination of hydrogen ions?
128) Tests to measure the tubular
secretion of hydrogen ions include all
of the following except:
Zero
In response to low plasma sodium levels
Produces a high urine volume
State of body hydration
A. Urea
B. Creatinine
C. Inulin
D. Beta2 microglobulin
Estimated glomerular filtration rate
Fluid deprivation
Failure to separate cells and serum
Osmolality
Renal blood flow
Protein
A. pH
B. Titratable acidity
C. Urinary bicarbonate
D. Urinary ammonia
129) Following administration of oral
Urine with a high pH
ammonium chloride, a patient with
renal tubular acidosis will produce:
130) What clearance substances does not
Cystatin C
require urine collection?
131) What is the physical property
Dew point temperature
measured by a vapor-pressure
osmometer?
A laboratory supervisor is authorized to purchase a new osmometer. The supervisor must
decide between a freezing-point and a vapor-pressure model.
132) Based on the information provided
Vapor-pressure
above if this is a pediatric hospital,
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
which model is better?
133) Using the information provided
above, which model is more likely to
be affected by technical errors?
134) Using the information provided
above, which model is affected by
lipemic serum but not elevated
ethanol levels?
True or False
135) The afferent and efferent arterioles
have the ability to vary in size.
136) True or False
Blood pressure within the glomerulus
varies directly with systemic blood
pressure.
137) True or False
A decrease in plasma sodium
produces an increase in blood volume.
138) True or False? The filtrate leaving
the ascending loop of Henle is highly
concentrated.
139) True or False? A substance that is
not filtered by the glomerulus will not
be found in the urine.
140) True or False? Hydrogen ions are
filtered by the glomerulus and
reabsorbed and secreted by the renal
tubules.
141) True or False? An increase in the
plasma level of beta2 microglobulin
correlates with decreased glomerular
filtration.
142) The primary pigment responsible
for normal urine color is:
Vapor-pressure
Freezing-point
True
False
False
False
False
True
True
Urochrome
143) A dark yellow urine producing
yellow foam may contain:
Bilirubin
144) What urine colors and causes
match?
Black—melanin
145) The color of a urine specimen
containing blood can be attributed to
all of the following except the:
A. Amount of blood
B. Blood type of patient
C. pH of the urine
D. Length of contact
Homogentisic acid
146) A urine specimen that turns black
after standing may contain:
147) What specific gravity readings
correlates with a pale yellow urine?
1.005
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
148) Specimens that contain intact red
blood cells can be visually
distinguished from specimens that
contain hemoglobin because:
149) Urine from a patient diagnosed with
hepatitis will appear:
150) The pigment responsible for a pink
precipitate in refrigerated urine is:
151) The presence of a white precipitate
in freshly voided urine can be caused
by:
152) The addition of dilute acetic acid to
a cloudy urine specimen will dissolve:
153) Slightly warming a turbid urine
specimen may dissolve:
154) An antidiuretic hormone deficiency
is associated with a:
155) The specific gravity of urine is
directly proportional to its:
156) A patient that has been diagnosed
with diabetes mellitus will produce
urine with:
Intact red blood cells produce a cloudy specimen
157) A urine with the same specific
gravity as the ultrafiltrate is called:
158) Specific gravity is a measure of:
159) What statements concerning
measurement of specific gravity by
refractometer is not true?
160) The calibration of the refractometer
can be quality-controlled using all of
the following except:
Isosthenuric
161) Results of a specific gravity reading
obtained by refractometer in the
urology clinic do not agree with the
readings obtained by the laboratory’s
automated reagent strip reader. The
laboratory should:
162) Bacterial decomposition of urea
produces urine that has an odor
resembling
Amber
Uroerythrin
Amorphous phosphates in alkaline urine
Amorphous phosphate
Amorphous urates
Low specific gravity
Dissolved solids
Increased volume and increased specific gravity
Density
The refractometer must be calibrated after every
specimen.
A. Distilled water
B. 5% NaCl
C. 9% sucrose
D. Commercial controls
Report the results from the reagent strip reader
Ammonia
A urine turns black after standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a specific
gravity of 1.010.
163) Based on the information provided
above, the primary concern about this
specimen is:
164) Based on the information provided
above,, the most likely cause of the black
Color
Homogentisic acid
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
color in this specimen is:
165) Based on the information provided, the
most probable cause of the white
precipitate is:
166) Based on the information provided
above,, the primary basis for the changes
that took place in this specimen is:
167) True or False? A urine specimen that
remains at room temperature for several
hours may develop a darker yellow color.
168) T/ F? A pale yellow urine is a primary
indication of impaired renal function.
169) True or False? Clear red urine and red
plasma are associated with myoglobinuria
Amorphous phosphates
170) True or False? Collection of a midstream
clean catch specimen can affect the clarity
of a urine specimen.
171) True or False? A clear yellow urine will
not contain any pathologically significant
constituents.
172) True or False? Urine specific gravity can
be measured by both physical and
chemical methods.
173) True or False? Urine specific gravity is
equally influenced by the presence of
glucose and sodium.
174) True or False? The density of a urine
specimen can affect the frequency of a
sound wave
175) True or False? A supervisor should be
concerned if a specific gravity reading of
1.008 is reported on a turbid urine
specimen
176) Acceptable or unacceptable for routine
urinalysis testing?
A clear, pale yellow specimen with a
specific gravity of 1.030.
177) Acceptable or unacceptable for routine
urinalysis testing?
A cloudy, brown- black urine with a
positive test for blood and a strong odor of
ammonia
178) Acceptable or unacceptable for routine
urinalysis testing?
A hazy, yellow urine that produces a
noticeable amount of white foam
179) Acceptable or unacceptable for routine
True
Exposure over time to ambient air
True
False
False
False
True
False
True
False
Acceptable
Unacceptable
Acceptable
Acceptable
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
urinalysis testing?
A port wine colored specimen with a
negative test for blood
180) Acceptable or unacceptable for routine
urinalysis testing?
A pale yellow urine with a noticeable odor
of bleach
181) Clinically significant or non-significant
urine turbidity?
White blood cells
182) Clinically significant or non-significant
urine turbidity?
Radiographic contrast media
183) Clinically significant or non-significant
urine turbidity?
Squamous epithelial cells
184) Clinically significant or non-significant
urine turbidity?
Bacteria
185) Clinically significant or non-significant
urine turbidity?
Lipids
186) Clinically significant or non-significant
urine turbidity?
Amorphous urates
187) Melanin causes what color urine?
188) Clorets cause what color urine?
189) A patient with polydipsia has what color
urine?
190) Porphobiliogen causes what color urine?
191) Pseudomonas infection causes what
color urine?
192) Beets cause what color urine?
193) Bilirubin causes what color urine?
194) Normal urine has what odor?
195) Bacterial infection causes what odor in
the urine?
196) Diabetes mellitus causes what odor in
the urine?
197) Proper care of reagent strips includes all
of the following except:
198) Quality control on reagent strips must be
performed whenever a/an:
199) The reagent strip reaction that should be
read last is the:
200) Failure to blot the edge of the reagent
strip may result in errors in color
Unacceptable
Significant urine turbidity
Non-significant urine turbidity
Non-significant
Significant
Significant
Non-significant
Black
Green
Pale yellow
Red
Green
Red
Dark yellow
Aromatic
Ammonia
Fruity
A. Checking the expiration date
B. Storing in a clear container
C. Preventing exposure to toxic fumes
D. Storing with a desiccant
New bottle of strips is opened
Leukocyte esterase
Runover
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
interpretation caused by:
201) Reagent strip chemical tests may be
inaccurate if the specimen is:
202) When performing reagent strip quality
control, the:
203) All of the following will produce an
alkaline urine except:
204) The normal range of urine pH is:
205) A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0
indicates that the patient should be:
206) Urinary pH provides valuable
information for the:
207) A urine with a high pH reading can
contain a:
208) What results is not typical of a urine
specimen from an uncontrolled diabetic?
209) The protein section of the reagent strip
is most sensitive to:
210) When using the reagent strip
microalbumin method, false-negative
results may occur in the presence of:
211) To detect the presence of early renal
disease, diabetic patients are tested for:
212) A possible cause of postrenal proteinuria
is:
213) All of the following descriptions apply to
orthostatic proteinuria except:
214) All of the following can be used to detect
the presence of microalbuminuria except
the:
215) The microalbumin test should be
performed on:
216) Following a pre-hospital rotation
physical, a medical laboratory science
student is requested to collect a first
morning urine specimen. The physician is
checking for:
217) The albumin to creatinine ratio may be
elevated in patients whose urine contains:
218) The pseudoperoxidase reaction is the
principle for the reagent strip test(s) for:
Tested immediately after refrigeration
Positive readings should match the
reference value by plus or minus one color
block
A. Lettuce
B. Cranberry juice
C. Green beans
D. Tomatoes
4.5 to 8.0
Asked to collect a new specimen
Identification of urinary crystals
Low concentration of hydrogen ions
High pH
Albumin
Highly dilute urine
Microalbuminuria
Prostatitis
A. Most commonly appears in young adults
B. Usually occurs without apparent disease
C. Urinary proteins are excreted only when
the patient is lying down
D. Is considered to be a functional, transitory
proteinuria
A. Multistix Pro
B. Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) test
C. Micral-Test
D. Clinitek 50
A first morning collection
Orthostatic proteinuria
Glucose
Blood
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
219) Microalbumin tests are frequently used
to screen patients with:
220) A random urine specimen and plasma
glucose test that are to be drawn and
collected at the same time can be used to
confirm:
221) The appearance of glucose in the urine of
a patient with an elevated blood sugar
indicates:
222) Pediatric urine specimens are
additionally tested for the presence of:
223) A urine specimen is analyzed for glucose
by a glucose oxidase reagent strip and a
copper reduction test. If both results are
positive, what interpretations is correct?
224) A laboratory error that can result in an
infant developing severe mental
retardation could be attributed to failure
to perform a/an:
225) All of the following may interfere with
glucose detection in a urine specimen
except:
226) Glucosuria not accompanied by
hyperglycemia is seen in patients with:
227) What statements is/are correct for
glucose testing by reagent strip?
I. Glucose oxidase reacts with glucose in
the urine.
II. Non-glucose–reducing substances fail to
react.
III. Ascorbic acid may cause a falsenegative reaction.
IV. Hydrogen peroxide and peroxidase
react to oxidize a chromogen.
228) Galactose will react with:
229) While performing a Clinitest, you
observe that the color changes rapidly
from blue to orange and then back to blue.
You should:
230) The ketones that are produced in normal
adult metabolism include all of the
following except:
231) What will not cause ketonuria?
232) Excessive fat metabolism is indicated by
Diabetes mellitus
Nonpathogenic glycosuria
Diabetes mellitus
Galactose using Clinitest
Glucose only is present
Clinitest
A. Galactose
B. Ascorbic acid
C. The sample sits at room temperature for 4
hours
D. All of the above
Renal disease
I, II, III, and IV
Clinitest but not Chemstrip
Repeat the test using fewer drops of urine to
check for “pass through”
A. Acetone
B. Phenylketones
C. Acetoacetic acid
D. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
Increased metabolism of carbohydrates
Ketones
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UA Flashcards Unit 1
the urinary presence of:
233) A urine sample that tests positive for
ketones and negative for glucose is most
likely from a patient suffering from:
234) Myoglobinuria may be caused by:
235) Ammonium sulfate is added to a red
colored urine. The urine had a positive
reaction for blood, but there were no red
blood cells in the sediment. After
centrifugation, the sedimented ammonium
sulfate is red. The abnormal color is caused
by:
236) The detection of hemosiderin in the
urine can be associated with:
237) A spotted reaction on the reagent strip
reaction for blood can indicate:
238) A reagent strip test for blood is reported
positive. No red blood cells are seen on the
microscopic examination. The patient’s
condition is called:
239) What is not true about the Ictotest?
240) Urobilinogen is formed from the:
241) Specimens for urobilinogen testing are
collected between 2 p.m. and 4 p.m.
because:
242) What can produce a negative nitrite test
in the presence of significant bacteriuria?
243) What will be detected by the reagent
strip nitrite reaction?
244) All of the following will produce a
positive leukocyte esterase (LE) reaction
except:
245) Major advantages of the leukocyte
esterase reagent strip test include all of the
following except:
246) The cells most frequently associated
with urinary tract infection are:
247) A false-negative LE reaction may be
caused by:
248) The method of choice for performing a
specific gravity following administration of
radiographic dye is:
Starvation
A “crushing” injury
Hemoglobin
Hemoglobinuria
Hematuria
Hemoglobinuria
It is less sensitive than the reagent strip test.
Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal bacteria
An alkaline tide occurs following lunch
The presence of many non-nitrate reducing
bacteria
Escherichia coli
A. Monocytes
B. Trichomonas
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes
A. It will detect the presence of lysed leukocytes
B. It can be used to screen specimens before
bacterial culturing
C. It is a more standardized method for
detecting leukocytes than the microscopic
method
D. It will accurately quantitate the
leukocytes present
Neutrophils
Failure to wait 2 minutes to read the
reaction
Reagent strip
15
UA Flashcards Unit 1
249) A dark blue color in the reagent strip pad
for specific gravity indicates:
250) The reagent strip reaction most critically
affected by failure to blot the strip is the:
251) 86. What is not affected by increased
intake of ascorbic acid?
252) A burn injury may occur if incorrect
technique is used when performing the:
A low specific gravity
253) The urinalysis result most closely
associated
with renal disease is a positive:
254) State the most probable cause for each of
the following scenarios:
A student is having difficulty interpreting
the reagent strip color reactions on a thick
orange specimen.
255) A laboratory that routinely screens all
infants with the Clinitest is accused of
missing a case of galactosuria.
256) Excessive fizzing is observed when using
Clinitest tablets.
257) A vegetarian consistently has falsepositive readings for blood on routine
specimens.
258) A test on a yellow-green specimen from a
jaundiced patient is negative for bilirubin.
259) A student reports a positive urobilinogen
using Multistix and a negative
urobilinogen using Chemstrip on the same
specimen.
260) What substances recirculates to the
liver?
261) The substance converted to urobilin is:
262) The substance bound to albumin is:
263) The substance produced in the liver is:
264) The substance that produces the brown
color associated with normal feces is:
265) Reagent strips provide quantitative
urine chemistry results.
266) The Multistix and Chemstrip color charts
are interchangeable.
267) A person with respiratory acidosis is
expected to have a low urine pH.
268) Orthostatic proteinuria is a form of renal
proteinuria.
269) Myoglobin is removed from the blood
more rapidly than hemoglobin.
270) The nitrite test is not reliable unless
Protein
pH
Ketones
Clinitest
Phenazopyridium
“Pass through” was not observed
Tablets deteriorated
Vegetable peroxidase
Bilirubin oxidized to biliverdin
Outdated reagent strip
Urobilinogen
Conjugated bilirubin
Unconjugated bilirubin
Conjugated bilirubin
Stercobilinogen
False
False
True
True
True
False
16
UA Flashcards Unit 1
specimens are collected using the
midstream clean-catch technique.
271) When performing a reagent strip specific
gravity on an alkaline urine, 0.005 should
be subtracted from the reading.
272) Ascorbic acid will bind with diazonium
salts.
273) The number of fields that should be
examined when quantitating urinary
sediment constituents is:
274) A lipid droplet that does not stain with
Sudan III may be composed of:
275) A urine specimen is referred for
cytodiagnostic urine testing to detect the
presence of:
276) To standardize the sediment
concentration for microscopic analysis one
must:
277) The purpose of scanning the perimeter
of urine sediment placed under a
conventional glass slide is to:
278) All of the following are reported as the
quantity per high-power field except:
279) The most probable structures to be
stained by the Prussian blue stain are:
280) The purpose of including glucose as a
significant chemical parameter by a
laboratory that performs macroscopic
screening is to check for presence of:
281) Calculation of the number of RBCs per
milliliter of urine requires knowledge of all
of the following except the:
282) A medical laboratory science student
consistently obtains lower RBC counts
than the instructor. A possible reason for
this might be:
283) Centrifugation of less than the
recommended 12 mL of urine for the
microscopic examination will:
284) Substances found in the urinary
sediment that can be confirmed using
False
True
10
Cholesterol
Malignant cells
Use only the urine tubes and pipettes for a
single commercial system
Detect the presence of casts
A. Casts
B. Red blood cells (RBCs)
C. White blood cells (WBCs)
D. Bacteria
Renal tubular epithelial cells
Candida albicans
A. Number of high-power fields per milliliter of
urine
B. Speed of centrifugation
C. Number of high-power fields per viewing
area
D. Area of a high-power field
Failure to completely resuspend the
sedimented specimen
Decrease the number of cellular elements
A. WBCs
bodies
17
UA Flashcards Unit 1
polarized light are:
285) Using polarized microscopy, what is/are
birefringent?
286) Identification of oval fat bodies can be
verified using:
287) Using a bright-field microscope, the final
magnification of a high-power field is:
288) To detect the presence of casts, the
sediment is examined using:
289) Optimal viewing is obtained by
performing Köhler illumination
adjustment to the:
290) To increase the probability of detecting
urine sediment constituents that have a
low refractive index, clinical laboratories
often use:
291) The presence of crenated RBCs in the
urine sediment is associated with:
292) Dilute alkaline urine should be examined
carefully for the presence of:
293) A patient with severe back pain and 15
to 20 RBCs/hpf in the urine sediment may
have:
294) Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and
oil droplets may be accomplished by all of
the following except:
295) Ghost RBCs most frequently occur with a
urine specimen that exhibits the following:
296) The presence of hypochromic,
irregularly shaped RBCs in the urine
sediment can indicate:
297) Glitter cell is a term used to describe a
specific type of:
298) An increase in urinary WBCs is called:
299) Urine sediments containing increased
WBCs should be observed closely for the
presence of:
300) Eosinophils are found in the urine in
cases of:
301) Leukocytes that stain pale blue with
Sternheimer-Malbin stain and exhibit
brownian movement are:
302) Oval fat bodies are:
303) The type of cells that line the bladder
and ureters are called:
304) Initial microscopic focusing on the
D. Lipids
Cholesterol
Polarized light
400X
Reduced light under low power
Condenser
Phase-contrast microscopy
Hypersthenuria
Ghost RBCs
Renal calculi
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid
High pH, low specific gravity
Glomerular bleeding
Neutrophil
Pyuria
Bacteria
Acute interstitial nephritis
Glitter cells
Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain
lipids
Transitional
Squamous epithelial cells
18
UA Flashcards Unit 1
urinary sediment is frequently performed
by referencing:
305) In ascending order, the location of
epithelial cells in the urinary tract is:
306) Clue cells are derived from:
307) The organisms attached to a clue cell are:
308) Urothelial cells routinely occur in all of
the following shapes except:
309) What cells found in increased numbers
in the urine sediment is only indicative of
nephron damage?
310) Collection of a midstream clean-catch
specimen will alleviate contamination by:
311) What cells can both be found in both a
vaginal wet prep and in urine sediment?
Squamous, transitional, renal tubular
Squamous epithelial cells
Gardnerella vaginalis
A. Spherical
B. Cylindroid
C. Polyhedral
D. Caudate
Renal tubular cells
Squamous epithelial cells
Yeast cell and clue cell
312) Spherical transitional epithelial cells can
be differentiated from renal tubular
epithelial cells by observing the:
313) The finding of renal tubular epithelial
cells containing yellow-brown granules
correlates with a positive reagent strip test
for:
314) The primary factor that favors the
formation of urinary casts is:
315) The major constituent of urinary casts is:
Centrally located nucleus in transitional
cells
316) Waxy casts are most easily differentiated
from hyaline casts by their:
317) Urinary casts are formed in the:
318) What elements would most likely be
found in an acidic concentrated urine that
contains protein?
319) Sediment constituents that are used to
differentiate between upper and lower
urinary tract infections are:
320) To differentiate a bacterial cast from a
granular cast, a clinical laboratory scientist
could:
321) The type of cast most closely associated
with tubular damage is the:
322) The only type of cast capable of
polarization is the:
323) Broad casts may form as a result of:
324) The finding of increased hyaline and
granular casts in the urine of an otherwise
Refractivity
Blood
Urinary stasis
Uromodulin protein
Distal and collecting tubules
Casts
WBC casts
Perform a Gram stain
Epithelial cell cast
Fatty cast
.
Extreme urinary stasis
Recent strenuous exercise
19
UA Flashcards Unit 1
healthy person may be the result of:
325) Hyaline casts may degenerate into:
326) Waxy casts can be found in the urine
sediment:
327) The urinary sediment constituent most
closely associated with bleeding within the
nephron is the:
328) What differentiates a waxy cast from a
fiber most effectively?
329) All of the following may be seen in the
urine following strenuous exercise except:
330) To distinguish a cellular cast from a
clump of cells, the clinical laboratory
scientist should:
331) Granular casts present in the urine
following strenuous exercise can:
332) All of the following are associated with
severe urinary stasis except:
333) Identification of urinary crystals is based
on shape and:
334) Urinary crystals that appear yellow to
reddish-brown are:
335) To dissolve amorphous urates, you
could:
336) Nonpathogenic or “normal” crystals
found in acidic urine include:
Waxy casts
In patients with renal failure
RBC cast
Waxy casts do not polarize light, and fibers
do.
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Hyaline casts
D. Granular casts
Look carefully for a cast matrix
Contain cellular lysosomes
A. Granular casts
B. Waxy casts
C. WBC casts
D. Broad casts
Urine pH and crystal solubility
Uric acid
Warm the specimen to body temperature
Calcium oxalate, uric acid, amorphous
urates
337) All of the following crystals can be found
in acid urine except:
A. Cholesterol
B. Tyrosine
C. Cystine
D. Ammonium biurate
338) Abnormal crystals are most frequently
seen in a urine that is:
339) Information that aids in the
identification of crystals includes all of the
following except:
Acid
340) What crystals occurs in two very distinct
forms?
341) Nonpathogenic or “normal” crystals
found in alkaline urine include:
A. Urine temperature
B. Urine pH
C. Crystal solubility
D. Crystal birefringence
Calcium oxalate
Triple phosphate, calcium carbonate,
ammonium biurate
20
UA Flashcards Unit 1
342) Crystals found in the urine that are
associated with pathogenic disease
include:
343) What crystals is associated with ethylene
glycol ingestion?
344) A urine specimen refrigerated overnight
is cloudy and has a pH of 6. The turbidity is
probably due to:
345) All of the following affect the formation
of crystals except:
346) Cystine crystals are often confused with:
347) Formation of crystals due to medications
is most frequently caused by
348) Calcium carbonate crystals can be
distinguished from bacteria by:
349) What results should have testing
repeated?
350) The significance of seeing bacteria in the
urine sediment is increased when:
351) Yeast may appear in the urine sediment
in all of the following forms except:
352) Schistosoma haematobium would most
likely be found in the urine from a:
353) Motility by what is most noticeable
during the urine sediment examination?
354) Urine sediment artifacts frequently differ
from true sediment constituents by their:
355) Under polarized light, all of the following
will exhibit the Maltese cross formation
except:
356) In an unpreserved and old urine
specimen, there could be difficulty
differentiating between bacteria and:
357) What is most likely to be found in the
urine of a diabetic patient?
358) Specimens containing mucus may be
erroneously reported as containing:
359) Enhance nuclear detail.
360) Stain oval fat bodies.
361) Stain eosinophils.
362) Stain hemosiderin granules.
363) True/False To adjust the intensity of
light in a bright-field microscope, the
Leucine and tyrosine
Calcium oxalate monohydrate
Amorphous urates
A. Urine specific gravity
B. Urine pH
C. Urinary casts
D. Urine temperature
Uric acid crystals
Inadequate hydration
Adding acetic acid
pH 7.0 with uric acid crystals
WBCs are present
A. Mycelial
B. Biconcave
C. Oval
D. Budding ovals
Foreign-service employee
Trichomonas vaginalis
Refractility
A. Starch granules
B. Oval fat bodies
C. Pollen grains
D. Fatty casts
Amorphous phosphates
Candida albicans
Hyaline casts
Toluidine blue
Sudan III
Hansel stain
Prussian blue
False
21
UA Flashcards Unit 1
condenser should be raised or lowered.
364) True/False When changing
magnification using a parfocal microscope,
focusing is performed using the coarse
adjustment knob.
365) True/False In the urinalysis laboratory, a
bright-field microscope can be converted
to a polarizing microscope.
366) True/False The finding of increased
urinary WBCs is not significant unless
increased bacteria are also present.
367) True/False Renal tubular epithelial cells
from the distal convoluted tubule are
smaller than those from the proximal
convoluted tubule.
368) True/False A structure resembling a cast
but having a tapered end should not be
reported as a cast.
369) True/False WBC casts should always be
accompanied by significant bacteriuria.
370) True/False To be considered significant,
yeast cells in the urine sediment should be
accompanied by leukocytes.
371) True/False Trichomonas vaginalis is not
found in urine from male patients.
372) Choose the correct microscope part (1-5)
needed to perform the following functions
(A-E)
1. Focus light on the specimen
2. Hold the objectives
3. Increase objective resolution
4. Control light intensity
5. Regulate interpupillary distance
A. Condenser
B. Oculars
C. Diopter adjustment knob
D. Rheostat
E. Nose piece
373) Match the description (A-E) for the
following urine crystals (1-3):
1. Ammonium biurate
2. Calcium carbonate
3. Triple phosphate
A. Thorny apple
B. Coffin lid
C. Notched corners
D. Hexagonal
E. Dumbbell
False
True
False
True
False
False
True
False
1. A
2. E
3. B
4. D
5. C
1. A
2. E
3. B
22
UA Flashcards Unit 1
374) Match the following urine crystals (1-5)
with their description (A-E):
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Ammonium biurate
Calcium carbonate
Triple phosphate
Cystine
Cholesterol
A. Thorny apple
B. Coffin lid
C. Notched corners
D. Hexagonal
E. Dumbbell
375) State if a urinalysis supervisor would be
concerned or not concerned about the
following results: Enterobius vermicularis
and waxy casts in a cloudy specimen from
a pediatric patient
376) Concerned or not concerned?
RBC casts in a specimen with a negative
reagent strip test for blood
377) Concerned or not concerned?
Triple phosphate and ammonium biurate
crystals in a specimen with a pH of 8.0
378) Concerned or not concerned?
Candida albicans and leukocytes in a
specimen with a negative nitrite test
379) Concerned or not concerned?
2–3 granular casts/lpf in a refrigerated
specimen containing many amorphous
crystals
380) Concerned or not concerned?
Many budding yeasts in a clear, red
specimen from a bedridden, diabetic
patient
1. Ammonium biurate A
2. Calcium carbonate E
3. Triple phosphate B
4. Cystine D
5. Cholesterol C
Concerned
Concerned
Not concerned
Not concerned
Concerned
Not concerned
23