Salman Bin Abdalaziz University
College of Applied Medial Sciences
Department of CLINICAL LABORATORY SCIENCES
student : …………………………………………………………………
Number:………………………………………………………………….
MLAB485 - Urine analysis and body fluid Final Homework before The Final Test
1.
Normal urine primarily consist of:
A.
water, protein, and sodium
B.
water, urea, and protein
C.
water, urea, and sodium chloride
D.
water, urea, and bilirubin
2.
Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine with:
A.
decreased volume and decreased specific gravity
B.
decreased volume and increased specific gravity
C.
increased volume and decreased specific gravity
D.
increased volume and increased specific gravity
3.
Cessation of urine flow is defined as:
A.
azotemia
B.
dysuria
C.
diuresis
D.
anuria
4.
Upon standing at room temperature a urine pH typically:
A.
decreases
B.
increases
C.
remains the same
D.
changes depending on bacterial concentration
5.
Antidiretic hormone regulates the reabsorption of:
A.
water
B.
glucose
C.
potassium
D.
calcium
6.
Calibration of refractometers is done by measuring the specific gravity of:
A.
distilled water and protein
B.
distilled water and glucose
C.
distilled water and sodium chloride
D.
distilled water and urea
7.
A 17-year-old girl decided to go on a starvation diet. After 1 week of
starving herself, what substance would most likely be found in her urine?
A.
protein
B.
ketones
C.
glucose
D.
blood
8.
Which of the following crystals may be found in acidic urine?
A.
calcium carbonate
B.
calcium oxalate
C.
calcium phosphate
D.
triple phosphate
9.
Which of the following reagents is used to react with ketones in the urine?
A.
sodium nitroprusside
B.
acetoacetic acid
C.
acetone
D.
beta-hydroxybutyric acid
10.
A woman in her ninth month of pregnancy has a urine sugar that is negative
with the urine reagent strip but gives a positive reaction with the copper
reduction method. The sugar most likely responsible for these results is:
A.
maltose
B.
galactose
C.
glucose
D.
lactose
11.
Which of the following casts is most indicative of severe renal disease?
A.
hemoglobin
B.
granular
C.
cellular
D.
waxy
12.
Which of the following is the primary reagent in the copper reduction tablet?
A.
sodium carbonate
B.
copper sulfate
C.
glucose oxidase
D.
polymerized diazonium salt
13.
Which of the following is an abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal
plate?
A.
cystine
B.
tyrosine
C.
leucine
D.
cholesterol
14.
Which of the following cells is the largest?
A.
glitter
B.
WBC
C.
transitional epithelial
D.
renal epithelial
15.
What cell is MOST commonly associated with vaginal contamination?
A.
white
B.
transitional
C.
squamous
D.
glitter
16.
Urinary calculi most often consist of:
A.
calcium
B.
uric acid
C.
leucine
D.
cystine
17.
Small round objects found in a urine sediment that dissolve after addition of
dilute acetic acid and do not polarize most likely are:
A.
air bubbles
B.
calcium oxalate
C.
red blood cells
D.
yeast cells
18.
Tiny colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine
sediment. They most likely are:
A.
calcium oxalate
B.
calcium carbonate
C.
calcium phosphate
D.
amorphous phosphate
19.
A 24-year-old obese diabetic woman had the following blood and urine test
results from specimens obtained at the same time: pH=7.5,
Protein=30mg/dL, Glucose=negative, Ketones=15mg/dL,
Bilirubin=negative, Blood=negative, Nitrite=negative, Urobilinogen=1EU/dL,
SG=1.008Microscopic: Epithelial cells=3-5, bacteria=many, Yeast=many,
Amorphous=moderate, Blood sugar=195mg/dLWhich of the following is the
most likely explanation for the negative urine glucose finding?
A.
There is a false-negative glucose due to oxidizing contaminants.
B.
There is a false-negative glucose due to the alkaline pH.
C.
The specimen is probably old and the bacteria and yeast have consumed
the glucose.
D.
Glucose would not be present in the urine specimen since the blood sugar
was normal.
20.
A clean-catch urine sample is submitted to the laboratory for routine
urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and the specimen
is then sent to microbiology for culture. The specimen should:
A.
be centrifuged and the supernatant cultured
B.
be rejected due to possible contamination from routine urinalysis
C.
not be cultured if no bacteria are seen
D.
be immediately processed for culture regardless of urinalysis results
21.
A 24-hour urine from a man who had no evidence of kidney impairment was
sent to the laboratory for hormone determination. The volume was 600 mL,
but there was some question as to the completeness of the 24-hour
collection. The next step would be to:
A.
perform the hormone determination, since 600 mL is a normal urine 24hour volume
B.
check the creatinine level; if it is less than 1g do the procedure
C.
report the hormone determination in milligrams per deciliter in case the
specimen was incomplete
D.
check the creatinine level; if it is greater than 1g do the procedure
22.
Urine samples should be examined with 1 hour of voiding because:
A.
red blood cells, leukocytes, and casts agglutinate after standing for several
hours at room temperature
B.
urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to
light
C.
bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine
D.
ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism
23.
The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on:
A.
an enzyme reaction
B.
protein error of indicators
C.
copper reduction
D.
the toluidine reaction
24.
After receiving a 24-hour urine sample for quantitative total protein anaylsis,
the technician must first:
A.
subculture the urine for bacteria
B.
add the appropriate preservative
C.
screen for albumin using a dipstick
D.
measure the total volume
25.
Which of following is the best guide to consistent centrifugation?
A.
potentiometer setting
B.
armature settings
C.
tachnometer readings
D.
rheostat readings
26.
In addition to the sperm count in a fertility study, analysis of seminal fluid
should also include:
A.
time of liquefaction, estimation of motility, morphology
B.
motility, morphology, test for alkaline phosphatase
C.
tiem of liquefaction, test for acid phosphatase, qualitative test for
hemoglobin
D.
time of liquefaction, qualitative test for hemoglobin and motility
27.
A physician attampts to aspirate a knee joint and obtains 0.1 mL of slightly
bloody fluid. Addtion of acetic acid results in turbidity and a clot. This
indicates that:
A.
the fluid is synovial fluid
B.
plasma was obtained
C.
red blood cells caused a false-positive reaction
D.
the specimen is not adequate
28.
A sperm count is diluted 1:20 and 50 sperm are counted in two large
squares of the Neubauer counting chamber. The sperm count in mLs is:
A.
5000
B.
50,000
C.
500,000
D.
5,000,000
29.
Ammonium sulfate was added to red urine. The urine has a positive
reaction for blood, but no RBCs were seen on microscopic examination.
After centrifugation the supernatant fluid is red. The abnormal color is
caused by:
A.
Pyridium
B.
hemoglobin
C.
porphyrins
D.
myoglobin
30.
Urine from a 50-year-old man was noted to turn dark red on standing. This
change is caused by:
A.
glucose
B.
porphyrins
C.
urochrome
D.
creatinine
31.
The principal mucin in synovial fluid is:
A.
hyaluronate
B.
albumin
C.
orosomucoid
D.
pepsin
32.
A turbid cerebrospinal fluid is most commonly caused by:
A.
increased white blood cells
B.
increased protein
C.
increased glucose
D.
increased bacterial organisms
33.
The synovial fluid easily forms small drops from the aspirating syringe. This
viscosity is:
A.
normal
B.
increased
C.
associated with inflammation
D.
associated with hypothyroidism
34.
Pleural transudates differ from pleural exudates in the transudates have:
A.
protein values of >4g/100mL
B.
specific gravity values of >1.020
C.
LD values of >200U/L
D.
relatively low cell counts
35.
A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a pass through reaction and is diluted
by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops water. This is a dilution of:
A.
1 to 4
B.
1 to 5
C.
1 to 6
D.
1 to 8
36.
The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is appoximately:
A.
50mg/dL
B.
100mg/dL
C.
160mg/dL
D.
300mg/dL
37.
Urine osmolality is related to:
A.
pH
B.
filtration
C.
specific gravity
D.
volume
38.
A micropipet graduated to the tip and calibrated to contain should:
A.
be drained
B.
be rinsed
C.
not be blown out
D.
not be rinsed
39.
The primary consituent of hyaline casts is:
A.
fat
B.
cells
C.
protein
D.
mucus
40.
The knob between the eyepieces on a binocular microscope is used to:
A.
correct for optical differences between the right and left eyes
B.
adjust for distances between one's eyes
C.
change the magnification of the oculars
D.
improve the equibalent focus of the microscope
41.
Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain:
A.
melanin
B.
porphyrins
C.
bilirubin
D.
urobilinogen
42.
To avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts:
A.
use an aliquot from the fist tube collected
B.
use only those specimens showing no turbidity
C.
centrifuge all specimens before counting
D.
select an aliquot from the last tube collected
43.
The volume of urine excreted in a 24-hour period by an adult patient was
500 mL. This condition would be termed:
A.
anuria
B.
oliguria
C.
polyuria
D.
dysuria
44.
Which of the following can give a false-negative urine protein reading?
A.
contamination with vaginal discharge
B.
heavy mucus
C.
presence of blood
D.
very dilute urine
45.
An acid urine that contains hemoglobin will darken on standing due to the
formation of:
A.
myoglobin
B.
sulfhemoglobin
C.
methenoglobin
D.
red blood cells
46.
A centrifuge head has a diameter of 60 cm and spins at 3000 rpm. What is
the maximum achievable g force (g=0.00001 x radius in cm x rpm^2)?
A.
1.8g
B.
2700g
C.
27,000g
D.
90,000g
47.
Osmolality is a measure of:
A.
dissolved particles, including ions
B.
undissociated molecules only
C.
total salt concentration
D.
molecule size
48.
A urine with an increased protein has a high specific gravity. Which of the
following would be a more accurate measure of urine concentration?
A.
osmolality
B.
ketones
C.
refractive index
D.
pH