1. The following visual field abnormalities are correctly paired with a likely cause:
(a) Bitemporal hemianopia – pituitary adenoma
(b) Arcuate scotoma – primary open angle glaucoma
(c) Central scotoma – age related macular degeneration
(d) Right homonymous hemianopia – occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery
(e) Central scotoma – optic neuritis
2. The following “connective tissue diseases” are correctly paired with one of the
following ocular manifestations:
(a) SLE – retinal vasculitis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis – scleritis
(c) Behcet’s disease – acute anterior uveitis
(d) Reiter’s syndrome – conjunctivitis
(e) Juvenile chronic arthritis (AFP positive) – uveitis
3. Topical steroids may have the following ocular side-effects:
(a) Raised intraocular pressure
(b) Accelerated epithelial healing
(c) Cataract development
(d) Increased risk of herpes simplex keratitis
(e) Increased resistance to bacterial infection
4. Orbital cellulitis:
(a) May be secondary to disease of the paranasal air sinuses
(b) May cause cavernous sinus thrombosis
(c) Is usually painless
(d) May cause blindness
(e) Is most commonly due to Pneumococcus or Haemophilus organisms
5. Painless loss of vision is a common manifestation of:
(a) central retinal thrombosis
(b) Acute anterior uveitis
(c) Herpes simplex keratitis (dendritic ulcer)
(d) Primary open angle glaucoma
(e) Giant cell arteritis
6. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy:
(a) is seen only in insulin dependent diabetics
(b) Is less serious if new vessels are found at the optic disc
(c) Is never found in elderly late-onset diabetics
(d) Becomes more aggressive in the presence of retinal failure
(e) Is always associated with poor visual acuity
7. The uveal tract:
(a) Consists of the iris, ciliary body and choroids
(b) Is absent at birth
(c) Produces aqueous humor
(d) Contains carbonic anhydrase
(e) May be inflamed in ankylosing spondylitis
8. Amblyopia:
(a) Is usually bilateral
(b) Is untreatable
(c) Occurs in greater than 1% of population
(d) May occur after age of 15
(e) Is painful
9.Oculomotor 3rd nerve palsy:
(a) May be congenital
(b) With pupil involvement suggests a medical cause
(c) Warrants neuro-radiological investigation
(d) Is successfully treated by laser
(e) May be caused by pilocarpine 2%
10. Hypermetropia:
(a) Is frequently associated with prematurity and low birth weight
(b) Is associated with accommodative esotropia (convergent squint)
(c) Is treatable with contact lenses
(d) Is common in acute glaucoma
(e) Is where the axial length of the eye is larger than normal
11. Temporal giant cell arteritis:
(a) Usually occurs in teenagers
(b) Is best treated with glasses
(c) Is painful
(d) Is potentially blinding
(e) Is best treated with steroids
12. Corneal abrasions:
(a) Are usually painful
(b) Warrants neuro-radiological investigation
(c) Are best treated with an eye pad and topical antibiotics
(d) May be easily seen with sodium flourescein stain on slit lamp examination
(e) May become secondarily infected
13. A small pupil is a feature of:
(a) Horner’s syndrome
(b) 3rd cranial nerve palsy
(c) Topical treatment with pilocarpine
(d) Untreated acute glaucoma
(e) Optic neuritis
14. Ocular pain is associated with:
(a) Chronic open angle glaucoma
(b) Retrobulbar neuritis
(c) Acute iridocyclitis
(d) Central retinal vein occlusion
(e) Recurrent corneal erosion
15. Herpes simplex corneal disease:
(a) May present as a disc shaped keratititis and uveitis
(b) Is frequently bilateral
(c) Is frequently recurrent
(d) Is routinely treated with oral or IV acyclovir
(e) Usually does not occur before 4th decade
16. Complications of herpes zoster ophthalmicus include:
(a) Exophthalmos
(b) Uveitis
(c) Post herpetic neuralgia
(d) Bilateral hemianopia
(e) Keratitis
17. Ptosis is a feature of:
(a) Keratoconus
(b) Ocular myasthenia
(c) Holmes-Adie syndrome
(d) Superior oblique muscle palsy
(e) Occipital lobe infarction
18. Diplopia occurs with:
(a) Concomitant squint
(b) Blow-out fracture of the orbit
(c) Bell’s (CN VII) palsy
(d) Thyroid disease
(e) Amaurosis fugax
19. The following are associated with uveitis:
(a) Osteoarthritis
(b) Inflammatory bowel disease
(c) Sarcoidosis
(d) Marfan’s syndrome
(e) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
20. The following drugs have ocular complications:
(a) Tamoxifen
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Amiodarone
(d) Ethambutol
(e) Chloroquine
21. Viral conjunctivitis
(a) Is usually caused by adenovirus
(b) Responds well to acyclovir
(c) May involve the cornea
(d) May be associated with preauricular lymphadenopathy
(e) Is a cause of anterior uveitis
22. A dilated pupil is seen in:
(a) Atropine use
(b) Morphine use
(c) Pilocarpine use
(d) CN VII nerve palsy
(e) CN VI nerve palsy
23. Congenital nasolacrimal duct blockage
(a) May present with recurrent bouts of conjunctivitis
(b) May resolve spontaneously
(c) Is always bilateral
(d) Treatment of choice is dacryocystorhinostomy (DCR)/dacryrhinocystotomy
(DRC)
(e) Is inherited as autosomal dominant trait
24. Thyroid eye disease may give rise to:
(a) Ptosis
(b) Vertical diplopia
(c) Exposure keratitis
(d) Proptosis that is always bilateral
(e) Anterior uveitis
25. The following are recognized causes of anterior uveitis:
(a) Sarcoidosis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Ulcerative colitisi
(d) Adenoviral conjunctivis
(e) Herpes zoster ophthalmicus
26. Retinoblastoma:
(a) May be inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern
(b) The age of presentation is between 6 and 10 years
(c) Is never bilateral
(d) Radiotherapy can be used in less advanced disease
(e) The overall mortality is 66%
27. 3rd nerve palsy:
(a) May be caused by an aneurysm of the middle cerebral artery
(b) Is characterized by ptosis
(c) May be associated with miosis
(d) Results in adduction of the eye
(e) Can be caused by microvascular disease
28. In patients with optic neuritis
(a) 5% go on to develop MS
(b) Pupil reactions remain normal
(c) There may be associated pain with ocular movement
(d) Visual evoked responses (VER) are abnormal
(e) Recovery of vision occurs within one week
29. True or false:
(a) Hypermetropia predisposes to retinal detachment
(b) Congenital glaucoma may present with photophobia
(c) Tears contain IgM antibodies
(d) Early papilledema causes visual field constriction
(e) The corneal endothelium does not regenerate
30. Rubeosis iridis:
(a) May results from central vein occlusion
(b) May result from proliferative diabetic retinopathy
(c) May result from giant cell arteritis
(d) May be treated by laser photocoagulation to the peripheral retina
(e) Rubeotic glaucoma responds well to topical treatment
31. Leukocoria (white pupil) may be caused by:
(a) Congenital cataract
(b) Retinoblastoma
(c) Uveitis
(d) Diabetic retinopathy
32. Binocular vision is responsible for:
(a) Increased visual acuity
(b) Stereoscopic vision
(c) Compensation for the blind spot
(d) Color vision
33. Chronic simple glaucoma causes:
(a) cupping of the optic disc
(b) Severe ocular pain
(c) Increased size of the blind spot
(d) Cataracts
34. Diabetes mellitus may cause:
(a) cataracts
(b) Paralytic squints
(c) Increased incidence of glaucoma
(d) Retinal detachment
35. The cornea is transparent because:
(a) It is avascular
(b) It has a higher water content then other tissues
(c) It has no nerve supply
(d) It has a laminar arrangement of its collagen fibres
36. Cataracts can be dues to:
(a) systemic steroids
(b) Trauma
(c) Ethambutol therapy
(d) Chloroquine therapy
37. Strabismus in a 1 year old child
(a) Should not be treated until the child is 2
(b) Is most commonly due to hypermetropia
(c) May be due to intracranial tumor
(d) May be due to retinoblastoma
38. The commonest intraocular tumor in adults is:
(a) Malignant melanoma
(b) retinoblastoma
(c) Meibomian cyst
(d) Retinal hemangioma
39. Traumatic loss of a normal eye in a patient with two normal eyes causes:
(a) Loss of stereoscopic vision
(b) 50% loss of visual field
(c) 50% loss of visual acuity
(d) Dilation of the pupil in the remaining eye
40. Amblyopia may be caused by:
(a) Strabismus
(b) Sensory deprivation (eg. Congenital cataracts)
(c) Anisometropia
(d) Maturity onset diabetes (Type 2)
41. Paralysis of CN VI:
(a) May be dude to diabetes mellitus
(b) May be due to aneurysm of posterior cerebral artery
(c) May cause a divergent squint (strabismus)
(d) May cause double vision
42. Paralysis of CN III:
(a) May cause a dilated pupil in the affected eye.
(b) May cause a dilated pupil in both eyes
(c) May cause ptosis on the affected side
(d) May cause convergent squint (strabismus)
43. Intraocular pressure is:
(a) normally >24 mm Hg
(b) reduced by topical steroids
(c) raised by b-blocking agents
(d) raised by paralytic squints (strabismus)
44. Visual acuity in a preschool child is best assessed by:
(a) Snellen chart
(b) Electrophysiology
(c) Ophthalmoscopy
(d) Sheridan-Gardiner test
45. Acute glaucoma:
(a) Is best treated with atropine drops
(b) Is best treated by peripheral iridectomy
(c) may be controlled by pilocarpine
(d) always causes optic atrophy
46. Conjunctivitis:
(a) Is most commonly caused by a bacterial infection
(b) Is most commonly caused by fungal infection
(c) May be due to chlamydial infection
(d) May be secondary to herpes simplex keratitis
47. Adenovirus keratoconjunctivitis:
(a) May cause corneal scarring
(b) Is contagious
(c) Is common in developed countries
(d) Is a common cause of blindness
48. Eyelid neoplasms are most commonly:
(a) Basal cell carcinomas
(b) Sarcomas
(c) Squamous cell carcinomas
(d) Secondary metastases
49. Flourescein angiogram:
(a) Is most useful in assessing diabetic retinopathy
(b) Is diagnostic in retinoblastoma
(c) Is essential in diagnosing anterior uveitis
(d) Has a high incidence of anaphylactic reaction
50. Blunt trauma to the eye may cause:
(a) Traumatic cataract
(b) Traumatic glaucoma
(c) Retinal detachment
(d) Sympathetic ophthalmia
51. Retinitis pigmentosa may be
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Autosomal recessive
(c) Sex linked
(d) Successfully treated by systemic steroids
52. Iritis:
(a) may cause secondary glaucoma
(b) May cause secondary cataracts
(c) Is characterized by cells in the anterior chamber
(d) If untreated may result in retinal detachment
53. Amaurosis fugax (blindness without apparent change to eye itself) may be caused by:
(a) Embolus for a mural thrombus of the myocardium
(b) Embolus from internal carotid artery
(c) Thrombosis of the basilar artery
(d) Diabetic retinopathy
54. Sudden painless loss of sight in one eye may be due to:
(a) Central retinal artery occlusion
(b) Pituitary tumor
(c) Acute glaucoma
(d) Central retinal vein thrombosis
55. Myopia
(a) Is best treated by spectacle correction
(b) May be associated with retinal detachment
(c) Always causes cataract formation
(d) May occur in poorly controlled diabetes
56. In the red eye:
(a) Ankylosing spondylitis is most commonly associated with dry-eye syndrome
(b) All patients who have been angle grinding should have an MRI scan
(c) Subconjunctival hemorrage should be treated with topical drugs
(d) Orbital cellulitis can cause diplopia
(e) Corneal sensation is usually decreased in patients with dendritic ulcers
57. In the red eye:
(a) The herpes-zoster virus causes dendritic ulcers
(b) Scleritis can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Scleritis can be treated with oral NSAIDs
(d) Primary open angle glaucoma is asymptomatic
(e) The normal intraocular pressure is between 15-25 mm Hg
58. Concerning cataracts:
(a) Both medical and surgical treatment options are available
(b) The most common cause is a senile cataract
(c) The most common cause of unilateral cataracts is trauma
(d) Half of all congenital cataracts are hereditary
(e) A congenital cataract causes a white pupil
59. Concerning topical medications:
(a) Pilocarpine causes miosis
(b) Pilocarpine is an adrenergic agonist
(c) Tropicamide dilates the pupil
(d) Phenylephrine at a concentration of 2.5% dilates blood vessels
(e) An acute attack of angle-closure glaucoma can be caused by a large choroidal
melanoma pressing the iris forward
60. In diabetic retinopathy:
(a) Microaneurysms are the first clinical sign of disease
(b) There is an increase in the number of pericytes surrounding capillary
endothelium
(c) Ischemic areas of the retina are caused by development of arteriovenous
shunts
(d) Biannual fundoscopy is the recommended regimen for surveillance and early
detection.
(e) neovascularization is an encouraging sign of improvement in diabetic
retinopathy.
61. Concerning strabismus:
(a) Accomodative can always be corrected with hypermetropic spectacles
(b) If the right eye has a convergent strabismus, when the left eye is covered, the
right eye will move out.
(c) Congenital cataracts can cause strabismus
(d) Soft contact lenses are more prone to microbial keratitis
62. Concerning vascular eye diseases:
(a) Giant cell arteritis causes painful, prolonged loss of vision
(b) If a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis is made, no further treatment is needed
(c) Branch retinal vein occlusion does not affect vision
(d) Retinal artery occlusion may be caused by subacute bacterial endocarditis
(e) A sign of venous occlusion is subsequent new vessel growth on the retina and
optic disc
63. In venous occlusion
(a) Central retinal venous occlusion may result from inflammation of vessel wall
(b) Increased ocular pressure is one pathogenesis of central retinal venous
occlusion
(c) Venous occlusion is often embolic in origin
(d) The patient complains of a sudden partial or complete loss of vision
(e) Episode of central retinal venous occlusion are often caused by migraine
64. Concerning infection in the eye
(a) CMV retinitis is a common cause of blindness in AIDS
(b) Uveitis is treated with steroids and miotics
(c) The hallmark of trachoma is subconjunctival fibrosis
(d) Inclusion keratoconjunctivitis is associated with development of a pannus
(e) The commonest causative agent of viral conjunctivitis is picornavirus
65. Concerning cranial nerves:
(a) The optic nerve is a mixed sensory and motor nerve
(b) Cranial nerve VI supplies superior oblique muscle
(c) No cause can be found in 25% of CN III, IV, and VI palsies
(d) Trauma is the most common cause of CN III palsy
(e) The Hess test can be used to distinguish between CN III, IV and VI palsy
66. Oculomotor nerve palsy:
(a) CN III palsy is treated surgically
(b) The patient can present with a head tilt
(c) CN III palsy is consistent with an inability to look laterally
(d) CN III palsy usually presents with diplopia
(e) Pupil sparing CN III nerve palsy needs to be referred to a neurosurgeon
department
67. Afferent papillary defect:
(a) The swinging light test is a sensitive index used to confirm this defect
(b) A normal result involves the pupil dilating when the light is swung to the
abnormal eye
(c) This can be caused by retinal detachment
(d) The can be caused by giant cell arteritis
(e) A corneal ulcer can cause this defect.
68. In optic neuritis:
(a) Optic neuritis is commonly associated with MS
(b) Investigation of optic neuritis includes an electroretinogram
(c) All patients are treated with steroids
(d) Symptoms include diplopia
(e) Signs include impairment of color vision
69. Concerning CN VI palsy:
(a) One sign is an inability of a patient to look medially
(b) A muscle involved is the superior oblique
(c) In the primary position the eye looks divergent
(d) Cranial nerve VI palsy causes diplopia that can be eliminated by prisms
(e) A muscle involved is the lateral rectus
70. Concerning strabismus
(a) On examination, the corneal reflexes appear to be normal in both eyes
(b) A pseudostrabismus needs treatment
(c) Convergent strabismus means the eye is turned inward
(d) Divergent strabismus means the eye is turned inward
(e) All strabismus requires surgery
71. Concerning glaucoma:
(a) The diease consists of raised intraocular pressure
(b) Primary open angle glaucoma is the most common type
(c) The normal cup-to-disc ratio is 0.1-0.3
(d) A scotoma is the type of visual field loss encountered
(e) Topical beta-blockers are used in the treatment of glaucoma
72. Trauma to the eye:
(a) Blunt trauma can cause hyphema
(b) Blunt trauma can cause lid laceration
(c) Fundoscopy needs to be performed in all traumatic eye injuries
(d) Commotio is a common sign of eye trauma
(e) Intraocular pressure is an important test in eye trauma
73. The following items are causes of pupil dilation:
(a) Horner’s syndrome
(b) Homes-Adie pupil
(c) Argyll Robertson pupil
(d) Drugs
(e) CN IV palsy
74. Uveitis:
(a) Can be caused by trauma
(b) Is associated with inflammatory cells in the anterior chamber
(c) Can be caused by intraocular infections
(d) Treatment includes a topical antibiotic
(e) A periocular injection can be given in severe cases
75. Sudden loss of vision can be caused by:
(a) Retinitis pigmentosa
(b) Conjunctivitis
(c) CN III palsy
(d) Glaucoma
(e) Thyroid eye disease
76. Symptoms of floaters can mean
(a) Posterior uveitis
(b) Optic neuritis
(c) Retinal detachment
(d) Posterior vitreous detachment
(e) Giant cell arteritis
77. Age-related macular degeneration
(a) Exudative is most common form
(b) Treatment of the exudative form will restore vision
(c) It involves loss of peripheral vision
(d) Amsler grid can help diagnose macular degeneration
(e) Studies have shown that antioxidants can help delay it’s onset
78. Eyelids:
(a) Ectropion is associated with epiphora
(b) BCC of lid will easily metastasize
(c) SCC of lid will easily metastasize
(d) Molluscum contagiosum is a malignant condition
(e) Patients with a chalazion need urgent referral
79. Congenital cataracts
(a) usually unilateral
(b) Can present with manifest strabismus
(c) Can be caused by toxoplasmosis
(d) If unilateral, usually have a good prognosis
(e) If caused by congenital Chlamydia, they should be treated with systemic
tetracyclines
80. Cataracts:
(a) They are caused by steroids, chlorpromazine and penicillin
(b) Advantages of treatment by phacoemulsification are that the incision is
smaller and there is less astigmatism
(c) Loss of accommodation is typical after surgery
(d) Hypoparathyroidism is a cause of cataracts
(e) They are a cause of leukocoria in children
81. The following pairs of items are correctly associated
(a) Central scotoma – optic neuritis
(b) Arcuate scotoma – glaucoma
(c) Pituitary adenoma – homonymous hemianopia
(d) Cerebral vascular accident – bitemporal hemianopia
(e) Cataracts – glare
82. Concerning eyelids:
(a) SCC is the commonest tumor of the eyelids
(b) BCC metastasizes to regional lymph nodes
(c) Scaring around the eye causes entropion
(d) A capillary hemangioma requires surgery
(e) A child with ptosis under 4 should be observed whether or not it obscures
visual axis
83. Conjunctivitis
(a) Follicles are lymphoid aggregates on the conjunctiva
(b) Viral conjunctivitis causes purulent discharge
(c) “Mutton-fat” keratic precipitates are associated with granulomatous
conjunctivitis
(d) Allergic conjunctivitis may be treated with sodium cromoglycate
(e) Vernal conjunctivitis is mediation by action of IgE
84. Concerning cornea
(a) Astigmatism can be treated with a YAG laser
(b) Herpes simplex I infection rarely occurs
(c) Regeneration comes from the limbus
(d) Corneal grafting for keratoconus does not usually have a good outcome
(e) A dendritic ulcer on the cornea that doesn’t involve the stroma usually
heals without a scar
85. Lens
(a) Marfan’s syndrome and homocystinuria are associated with subluxation of the
lens
(b) Blunt trauma to the eye may cause subluxation of the lens
(c) Alport’s syndrome is associated with a centrally increased curvature of the
lens
(d) Lens displacement is a cause of glaucoma
(e) Bilateral congenital cataract is a cause of amblyopia and nystagmus
86. Age related macular degeneration
(a) Is the commonest cause of blindness over 60
(b) Exudative form is more common than non-exudative form
(c) In the dry/non-exudative form, subretinal neovascular membrane formation is
a prominent feature
(d) In the dry/non-exudative form, retinal pigment epithelium and photoreceptors
show age degeneration
(e) In the wet/exudative form, discrete sub-retinal yellow lesions called drusen are
a common feature.
87. Central retinal artery occlusion
(a) Presents as a gradual loss of vision
(b) Is commonly associated with pain
(c) On fundoscopy, dot/blood and flame hemorrages are present
(d) The site of obstruction is usually visible
(e) Can be associated with giant cell arteritis
88. Retinal vein occlusion
(a) Can be associated with glaucoma
(b) Total loss of vision is common in branch vein occlusion
(c) When it occurs, it is usually associated with headache
(d) Can be divided into 3 types
(e) Non-ischemic type is the most common
89. Complications of retinal vein occlusion
(a) can include macular edema
(b) Can include neovascularization of the cornea
(c) Non-ischemic occlusions cause neovascularization of iris
(d) Argon laser photocoagulation as a treatment improves the visual acuity in the
majority of cases
(e) 25% of patients with complications of retinal vein occlusion will develop it in
the unaffected eye within 2 years.
90. Giant cell arteritis
(a) Occurs in all age groups
(b) Is a disease of the small arteries
(c) 10% can present with central retinal vein occlusion
(d) Treatment includes short-term steroids
(e) There is a relatively high risk of the other eye becoming involved if left
untreated
91. Diabetic retinopathy
(a) This is the commonest cause of blindness in 25-75 year age group
(b) Recent laser surgery involves global anesthesia
(c) Macular edema is a feature of the proliferative type
(d) The background type should be treated with laser
(e) In proliferative type, laser burns are to the ischemic retina and not the new
blood vessels
92. In trauma
(a) Acid burns are more serious than alkali burns
(b) A blowout fracture involves all the following: infraorbital anesthesia, disorder
of muscle movement, diplopia, enophthalmos
(c) In a history of penetrating eye injury, an orbital X-ray should be limited to
cases involving metal fragments.
(d) Emphysema as an indication of a blowout fracture
(e) Blunt trauma causes a posterior subcapsular cataract after injury.
93. Retinal detachment
(a) Is commoner in a hypermetropic eye
(b) Are characterized by flashing lights, floaters and visual defects
(c) May be caused by posterior scleritis
(d) Incidence is higher following complicated cataract surgery
(e) If the macula is detached for more than 12 hours prior to surgery the previous
visual acuity will probably not be recovered
94. In optics
(a) Presbyopic patients may need reading glasses
(b) Myopia is due to a short eye
(c) Hypermetropia is due to a short eye
(d) The myopic eye requires convergent lenses for correction of ametropia
(e) The hypermetropic eye requires convergent lenses for correction of ametropia
95. Proptosis
(a) Can be caused by thyroid disease
(b) Is associated with CN VII palsy
(c) Is associated with meningioma
(d) Is associated with lacrimal gland carcinoma
(e) Is associated with rhabdomyosarcoma
96. The following names are associated with abnormalities of the pupil
(a) Kayser-Fleisher
(b) Argyll Robertson
(c) Weill Marchesani
(d) Hudson-Stahli
(e) Holmes-Adie
97. Lid retraction is a characteristic sign of:
(a) Acute facial nerve palsy
(b) Myasthenia gravis
(c) Thyrotoxicosis
(d) Myotonic dystrophy
(e) Aberrant regeneration of a 3rd cranial nerve
98. The syringing of the right ear with ice-cold water in a healthy person lying in the
prone position causes
(a) Horizontal nystagmus to the right
(b) Tendency for the eyes to deviate to the right
(c) Convergence nystagmus
(d) Vertical nystagmus
(e) Uniocular nystagmus
99. A myope
(a) Cannot see at a short distance without glasses
(b) Needs a concave lens for correction
(c) Has pupils that will not dilate with atropine
(d) Is more likely to be exophoric than esophoric
(e) Has a shorter than average length of eyeball
100. Common features associated with endocrine exophthalmos include
(a) Ptosis
(b) Miosis
(c) Limitation of ocular elevation
(d) Limitation of ocular depression
(e) Chemosis
101. Subluxation of lenses characteristically occur in
(a) Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
(b) Homocystinuria
(c) Sulfite Oxidase deficiency
(d) Von Recklinghausen’s disease
(e) Marfan’s syndrome
102. Benign intracranial hypertension is a recognized complication of:
(a) Hypervitaminosis A
(b) Dixogin intoxication
(c) Nitrazepam administration
(d) Amiodarone administration
(e) Danazol administration
103. Vitreous hemorages
(a) Are a characteristic presenting feature of retinal detachment
(b) Stimulate the ingrowth of retinal vessels into the vitreous gel
(c) If recurrent, may precipitate siderosis bulbi
(d) Are a contraindication for laser photocoagulation
(e) May precipitate “ghost cell” glaucoma
104. With regard to the orbit
(a) Orbital cellulitis is typically seen in late middle-aged patients
(b) Carotid cavernous fistula is associated with bacterial endocarditis
(c) Unilateral orbital pseudotumor is corrected with surgical excision
(d) Capillary hemangioma is associated with optic nerve compression
(e) Cavernous hemangioma is a fast growing congenital tumor usually seen in
children
105. In primary malignant tumors of the orbit
(a) Rhabdomyosarcoma may mimic orbital cellulitis in presentation
(b) Rabdomyosarcoma is a congenital malignancy that typically presents at 1 year
of age
(c) Capillary hemangioma is a benign tumor that typically presents at birth
(d) Cavernous hemangioma is a malignant tumor that typically presents at birth
(e) Optical ciliary shunt vessels are often seen in lymphoma of the anterior orbit
106. In bacterial conjunctivitis
(a) The most common causative organisms are streptococci
(b) The most common causative organisms are Haemophilus and Proteus species
(c) The most common causative organisms are staphylococci
(d) The most common causative organisms are Neisseria species
(e) The most common causative organisms are pneumococci
107. In bacterial keratitis
(a) The causative organisms are usually the normal flora of the eye
(b) Predisposition includes contact lens wear and prolonged use of topical steroids
(c) Hypopyon is not a sign of bacterial keratitis
(d) Increasing use of contact lenses is associated with acanthamebiasis keratitis
(e) The most common cause of interstitial keratitis is fungal
108. Band keratopathy is associated with
(a) Deposition of calcium phosphate in the cornea
(b) Chronic uveitis and glaucoma
(c) Hyperparathyroidism
(d) Renal failure
(e) Rheumatoid disease
109. Peropheral corneal degeneration is associated with
(a) Mooren’s ulcer
(b) Rheumatoid disease
(c) Wegener’s granulomatosis
(d) Lymphoma
(e) Diabetes mellitus
110. Systemic causes of cataracts include:
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Congenital rubella
(c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Chlorpromazine
(e) X-ray radiation
111. About 50% of patients with uveitis have a history of associated systemic diseases,
such as:
(a) Erythema nodosum
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Reiter’s disease
(d) IBD
(e) AIDS
112. In the epidemiology of eye disease
(a) Chronic open angle glaucoma affects 1 in 1000 of population over 40
(b) Retinitis pigmentosa occurs in about 1:4000 inidividuals
(c) Retinoblastoma is inherited as autosomal recessive condition
(d) Patients who have had diabetes for 20 years have an 80% chance of having
retinopathy
(e) In primary closed-angle glaucoma, females are more commonly affected than
males.
113. Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor) supplies the following muscles
(a) Medial rectus
(b) Lateral rectus
(c) Superior oblique
(d) Superior rectus
(e) Inferior oblique
114. On the contraction of the muscles of the right eye
(a) The superior oblique moves the eye down and towards the midline
(b) The inferior oblique moves the eye down and toward the midline
(c) The superior oblique moves the eye up and out
(d) The inferior oblique moves the eye up and in
(e) The inferior oblique moves the eye up and out