Form J01
(April 2026)
2025l 2026
In response to your request for ACT My Answer
Key materials, this booklet contains the scored test
questions, scoring keys, and conversion tables used
in determining your ACT scores. Non-scored questions
have been removed and the multiple-choice response
options (A, B, C, D and F, G, H, J) for a question are
the same as on test day.
ACT owns the test questions and responses, and
you may not share them with anyone in any form.
© 2026 by ACT Education Corp. All rights reserved.
NOTE: This test material is the confidential copyrighted property of ACT Education Corp., and may not be
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Using this Booklet as a Practice Test
If you're using the questions from your ACT My Answer Key booklet for timed practice, be sure to apply
the modified testing time below. This adjustment accounts for the exclusion of non-scored questions
from the booklet, helping ensure accurate pacing.
Below, you'll find a breakdown by subject, including:
• The total number of scored questions
• Recommended timing based on the total number of questions
Modified Timing for Practice Tests without Non-scored Questions
Number of
Questions
Standard
Time
One and
One-Half Time
Double
Time
Triple
Time
English
40
28 minutes
42 minutes
56 minutes
1 hour,
24 minutes
Mathematics
41
45 minutes,
30 seconds
1 hour,
8 minutes, and
15 seconds
1 hour,
31 minutes
2 hours,
16 minutes,
and 30 seconds
Reading
27
30 minutes
45 minutes
1 hour
1 hour,
30 minutes
Science
34
34 minutes
51 minutes
1 hour,
8 minutes
1 hour,
42 minutes
Writing
1
40 minutes
60 minutes
1 hour,
20 minutes
2 hours
Subject
Note: These modified test times should not be used outside of this booklet.
Directions
This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics,
reading, and science. These tests measure skills and
abilities highly related to high school course work and
success in college. Calculators may be used on the
mathematics test only.
The questions in each test are numbered, and the
suggested answers for each question are lettered. On
the answer document, the rows of ovals are numbered
to match the questions, and the ovals in each row are
lettered to correspond to the suggested answers.
For each question, first decide which answer is best.
Next, locate on the answer document the row of ovals
numbered the same as the question. Then, locate the
oval in that row lettered the same as your answer.
Finally, fill in the oval completely. Use a soft lead pencil
and make your marks heavy and black. Do not use ink
or a mechanical pencil.
Mark only one answer to each question. If you change
your mind about an answer, erase your first mark
thoroughly before marking your new answer. For each
question, make certain that you mark in the row of ovals
with the same number as the question.
Only responses marked on your answer document
will be scored. Your score on each test will be based only
on the number of questions you answer correctly during
the time allowed for that test. You will not be penalized
for guessing. It is to your advantage to answer every
question even if you must guess.
You may work on each test only when the testing
staff tells you to do so. If you finish a test before time is
called for that test, you should use the time remaining to
reconsider questions you are uncertain about in that test.
You may not look back to a test on which time has
already been called, and you may not go ahead to
another test. To do so will disqualify you from the
examination.
Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called
at the end of each test. You may not for any reason fill
in or alter ovals for a test after time is called for that test.
To do so will disqualify you from the examination.
Do not fold or tear the pages of your test booklet.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET
UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
1
ENGLISH TEST
DIRECTIONS: In the passages that follow, certain words
and phrases are underlined and numbered. In the
right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. You are to choose the best answer to
each question. If you think the original version is best,
choose “No Change.”
1
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
You will also find questions about a section of the passage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
PASSAGE I
Stairing Through the Lens
As a wheelchair user and one of Australia’s most
in-demand music photographers, Brittany Long has
experienced firsthand the inaccessibility of many music
venues. At one of her first jobs, she had to abandon her
1. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
A. No Change
B. wheelchair and then she used her upper body to
climb
C. wheelchair, using her upper body, she climbed
D. wheelchair, she used her upper body to climb
wheelchair and use her upper body to climb a staircase;
1
2. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. to scooting up (or down) stairs, being carried up
ladders, and climbing
H. to: scooting up (or down), stairs being carried up
ladders, and climbing,
J. to scooting up (or down), stairs being carried up
ladders, and climbing
she has since grown accustomed to scooting up (or down),
2
stairs, being carried up ladders, and climbing onto stage
2
barriers. “Whatever I have to do,” she says, “to get
the photo.”
One night, after photographing singer
Mallrat on the back steps of a stage, Long had
an idea for a project. Entitled Stairing Through
the Lens, this series of photos features portraits
of musicians on stairs at venues across Australia.
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3. The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion (adjusting the punctuation as needed). Should the
underlined portion be kept or deleted?
A. Kept, because it helps clarify how the theme of
stairs is related to Long’s goal of raising awareness about accessibility.
B. Kept, because it offers insight into the various
types of obstacles that Long intends to focus on in
her photo series.
C. Deleted, because it is unrelated to the paragraph’s
explanation of why stairs are an accessibility issue
for wheelchair users.
D. Deleted, because it is unrelated to the paragraph’s
discussion of Long’s portrait of the singer Mallrat.
By focusing on stairs—an obstacle for her and
3
many others—Long hopes to raise awareness
3
about accessibility in the music world.
As of 2023, Long’s project includes over
190 portraits. One features the artist Laurel, who
perches on a lone step attached to a stage. In another,
singer Amy Shark crouches at the bottom of an
4. Which choice most clearly indicates that Long’s aim is
to both showcase artists and send a message?
F. No Change
G. In addition to
H. Rather than
J. Before
auditorium staircase. Despite showcasing artists,
4
Long wants to send a message. %
5. Given that all the following sentences include actual
quotations from Long, which one, if added here, would
most effectively conclude the paragraph and essay?
A. “If I want to go to an arena show,” she explains, “I
don’t even bother booking wheelchair-accessible
seats anymore.”
B. “Being at a concert with a camera in my hands is
my ultimate happy place,” she says.
C. “Everyone,” she emphasizes, “deserves to be able
to access and enjoy live music.”
D. “I started photographing as many artists as I could
get ahold of,” she says.
PASSAGE II
To Slide the Great Wall
[1] My grandma and I look out past towering pines
6. The writer is considering revising the underlined portion to the following:
serpentine
Given that the information is accurate, should the
writer make this revision?
F. Yes, because the revision more vividly describes
the appearance of the wall in the distance.
G. Yes, because the revision helps specify how long
the wall is.
H. No, because the revision provides a descriptive
detail that is out of place in an informative essay.
J. No, because the revision fails to establish why the
wall was built.
and cedars to admire the lengthy path the Great Wall of
6
China carves into the distant mountains. [2] She would
rather I be fully absorbed, like her, in the history of this
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place. [3] Built continually between the third century BCE
and the seventeenth century CE to protect the land from
nomadic invaders, the structure—featuring watchtowers,
7. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
A. No Change
B. stretches
C. seem to stretch
D. stretch
barracks, and fortresses—keep stretching for twelve
7
thousand miles across the country. [4] From our viewpoint
atop the Mutianyu section, the wall appears never-ending.
8. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. selfie however, it’s
H. selfie, and
J. selfie
[5] I take an “I’m at the Great Wall” selfie, however, it’s
8
to Grandma’s dismay. )
9. For the sake of the logic and cohesion of this paragraph,
Sentence 2 should be placed:
A. where it is now.
B. after Sentence 3.
C. after Sentence 4.
D. after Sentence 5.
Originally constructed between 550 and 557 CE,
the Mutianyu section is a steep but well-preserved
1.5-mile-long stretch of the wall *. This stretch has
10. At this point, the writer is considering adding the following accurate information:
that is much shorter than the Badaling section
Should the writer make this addition here?
F. Yes, because the information reveals the name of
the section that Grandma most wanted to tour.
G. Yes, because the information helps establish the
impressive size of the Mutianyu section.
H. No, because the information provides a detail that
is not directly relevant to the discussion of the
Mutianyu section.
J. No, because the information detracts from the
paragraph’s focus on how the Mutianyu section
was built.
what both of us have been hoping for: fewer tourists
to obscure Grandma’s view of historical details and,
for me, a modern, metal toboggan slide that will
11. The writer wants to characterize the slide as benign
rather than thrilling. Which choice best accomplishes
that goal?
A. No Change
B. coast easily
C. barrel straight
D. zip hastily
let us careen speedily back down the mountain.
11
12. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. Each of the four thousand steps in this section—
H. Featuring four thousand steps, the section—
J. Each of the section’s four thousand steps—
The section’s four thousand steps—made of uneven
12
granite—need to be navigated carefully. I’m looking
forward to sitting on the toboggan and letting gravity
do the work; Grandma, on the other hand, seems less
than enthused.
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13. Which choice is least redundant in context?
A. No Change
B. start to go down and descend,
C. begin our descent,
D. descend down,
As we start down and begin our descent, Grandma
13
points at the notches carved into the tops of the inner and
outer parapets that flank us. “Those are called crenels,”
1
she says, explaining that if intruders approached the wall,
soldiers could position their arrows inside the crenels and
aim from either side. We walk into one of the section’s
twenty-three watchtowers, marveling at its artfully
crafted stone archways. The history here is palpable.
When we reach the entrance to the slideway, from
over the parapet I can see people tobogganing down, the
beautiful scenery of the hillside passing them by as they
concentrate on controlling their speed and maintaining
distance from the slider in front of them. Surrounded
by all this ancient glory, the slide, built in 1998, looms
14. Which transition word, if any, is most logical in
context?
F. No Change
G. Nevertheless, instead
H. Likewise, instead
J. Yet, instead
sleek and modern—not Grandma’s style at all. Instead
14
of suggesting we slide, I continue to follow her down,
15. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one most
effectively concludes the essay by emphasizing a key
characteristic of the Great Wall that is addressed earlier in the essay?
A. No Change
B. as more tourists ascend Mutianyu via cable car.
C. over steps that have been here for millennia.
D. knowing we’re not far from the city of Beijing.
happy with our decision to come here.
15
PASSAGE III
Spanish, French, Latin, and JavaScript?
[1]
There is growing demand for schools to offer
16. Which choice is least redundant in context?
F. No Change
G. programming as an alternative means of meeting
typical,
H. programming as an alternative means of fulfilling
J. programming as another, alternative way to fulfill
computer programming, in lieu of a traditional language,
16
as a way for their students to fulfill traditional foreign
16
language requirements. Those who are in favor of this
change believe programming to be an indispensable
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twenty-first-century skill. [A] They argue that vocabulary
17. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
A. No Change
B. takes on
C. plays
D. play
and syntax has taken on a key role in coding, just as
17
they do in learning a language. But while there is no
denying the importance of computer programming in our
technology-driven world, learning to code simply cannot
provide the same rich cultural, historical, and humanistic
learning opportunities as studying another language.
[2]
Computer programming represents a fundamentally
different type of linguistic exchange—one that lacks
the social and emotional nuances inherent in human
communication. [B] The experience of learning a
18. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. language, which
H. language that
J. language
language and promotes empathy, respect, and
18
cross-cultural understanding. It allows someone
to gain a greater sense of their place in the world.
[C] When learning Spanish, for example, one could
delve into the rich culture of Latin America and feel
19. Which choice most closely maintains the stylistic pattern used in the sentences that immediately precede
and follow this sentence?
A. No Change
B. By studying Mandarin, one may experience firsthand the philosophies and wisdom enshrined in
China’s history.
C. The philosophies and wisdom enshrined in China’s
history may be experienced firsthand by studying
Mandarin.
D. One may experience firsthand the philosophies
and wisdom enshrined in China’s history by studying Mandarin.
the rhythms of Spain. Enshrined in China’s history
19
are philosophies and wisdom that one may experience
19
firsthand by studying Mandarin. And in learning Arabic,
19
one can witness the resonance of ancient civilizations and
feel the heartbeat of modern Middle Eastern societies.
[3]
20. Which transition word or phrase is most logical in
context?
F. No Change
G. In particular,
H. Furthermore,
J. Even so,
Conversely, the experiences and skills afforded by
20
21. Which choice is clearest and most precise in context?
A. No Change
B. maneuver
C. navigate
D. guide
the exchange of language can be used to better mediate
21
the increasingly complex modern world. [D] Those who
speak more than one language have been shown to possess
improved memories, and they consistently rank as more
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creative and better problem solvers—all keys to success
in the twenty-first century.
[4]
Regardless of the ways new technologies are
changing how individuals interact with one another
and the world, computer programming cannot match the
22. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. rich, social, and cultural opportunities,
H. rich social, and cultural opportunities,
J. rich social, and cultural opportunities
rich social and cultural opportunities created by learning
22
23. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s
tone?
A. No Change
B. People from all over the world get a really full
understanding and a good appreciation of the
world via language.
C. Language renders for the whole of humankind an
unparalleled apprehension of and admiration for
the world.
D. It is through language that humans gain the fullest
understanding and appreciation of the world.
another language. It’s language, you know, that furnishes
23
folks with the most comprehensive insight and a good
23
fondness for the world. To help foster global citizenship,
23
then, schools must maintain traditional language
requirements.
Questions 24 and 25 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
24. The writer is considering adding the following accurate
sentence to the essay:
Learning the fundamentals of a programming
language, proponents claim, can give one a
competitive edge.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at:
F. Point A in Paragraph 1.
G. Point B in Paragraph 2.
H. Point C in Paragraph 2.
J. Point D in Paragraph 3.
ACT-J01
25. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to argue
that schools should offer a selection of classes that
would help prepare students for life after graduation.
Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
A. Yes, because it provides an overview of ways both
computer programming classes and traditional
language classes help improve job prospects for
students.
B. Yes, because it asserts that traditional foreign language classes are better than computer programming at preparing students for the modern
workforce.
C. No, because it instead presents the argument that
computer programming should not be accepted as
a substitute for traditional language requirements.
D. No, because it instead argues that the most important factor in a school’s language course offerings
should be student interest.
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PASSAGE IV
A Basic Bike Ride
In June of 1972, two young married couples, the
Siples and the Burdens, left Anchorage, Alaska, on
bicycles laden with camping gear and food. Their goal
was simple but ambitious: to cycle the length of North
and South America on a one-way, hemisphere-spanning
trip dubbed “Hemistour.” Unfortunately, on the first
night, as the cyclists lay sleeping, somebody stole
many of their supplies.
The riders reacted to this setback with a resilience
26. The writer is considering deleting the underlined portion (adjusting the punctuation as needed). Should the
underlined portion be kept or deleted?
F. Kept, because it helps explain why the riders did
not give up after losing many of their supplies.
G. Kept, because it portrays the riders’ actions and
helps express their resilience.
H. Deleted, because it interrupts the explanation of
the riders’ goals and characterizes their attitudes
as unsophisticated.
J. Deleted, because it doesn’t explain how the riders
managed to continue without all their supplies.
that would serve them well: they just kept pedaling.
26
This can-do attitude was key to their aim of publicizing,
both to the people they met and through the media, that
27. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
A. No Change
B. excursions by bicycle—
C. tours on bicycles—
D. bicycle touring—
bicycle expeditions—almost unheard-of at the time—was
27
an engaging, inexpensive way to travel. Also, the cyclists
wanted to show that everyday people could make such a
trip—the riders were not professional athletes.
[1] Hemistour was rarely, however, easy. [2] Inching
across Alaska on thirty-pound bicycles bearing fifty
pounds of supplies apiece, the Siples and Burdens
28. The writer wants to employ vivid and expressive language that helps evoke the difficulties that the riders
encountered. Which choice best accomplishes that
goal?
F. No Change
G. navigated through large quantities of mosquitoes
and along bumpy
H. slogged through droves of mosquitoes and rattled
down rough
J. encountered a lot of mosquitoes and rode down
some rough
dealt with clouds of mosquitoes and too many bumpy
28
gravel roads. [3] In Canada, they faced slopes too steep
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29. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
A. No Change
B. ride, one road which was
C. ride and on one road
D. ride, one road was
to ride and one road so muddy they had to drag their
29
bikes. [4] Yet they kept rolling, relishing the wilderness
vistas, invigorating dips in alpine streams, and days of
well-earned rest. [5] In September, they reached
Montana, where they paused for the winter. >
30. For the sake of the logic and cohesion of this paragraph,
Sentence 4 should be placed:
F. where it is now.
G. before Sentence 1.
H. after Sentence 1.
J. after Sentence 5.
The next year, the group progressed all the way
to Salina Cruz, Mexico; there, the Burdens, hobbled by
31. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s
tone?
A. No Change
B. resolved to enact their departure from the tour.
C. decided to leave the tour.
D. packed it up—game over.
minor illnesses, skipped out on the whole thing. The Siples
31
pressed on, though, traversing the mountainous spine of
South America in 1974 with an ever-changing crew of
tagalong cyclists. When the Siples reached the route’s
end at the tip of Argentina in early 1975, they had each
covered 18,272 miles.
Hemistour’s messages traveled even farther. The
32. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. feat, which had attracted
H. feat had attracted
J. feat, attracting
daring feat having attracted media attention along the
32
way, circulating the riders’ anyone-can-do-it idea far
33. The writer wants to invoke attributes of Hemistour that
stand in contrast to the size of the impact it had on
the popularity of bicycle touring. Which choice best
accomplishes that goal?
A. No Change
B. simple, low-budget
C. continent-spanning
D. well-organized
and wide. Thus, two-wheeled, idealistic Hemistour
33
introduced millions of people to the concept of bicycle
34. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. which almost singlehandedly establishing it
H. this established it, almost singlehandedly,
J. almost singlehandedly it was established
touring, almost singlehandedly establishing it as a
34
popular pastime.
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Question 35 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
35. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to profile the people involved in a noteworthy expedition.
Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
A. Yes, because the essay describes the ways in
which the Siples’s and Burdens’s backgrounds and
ideals led them to conceive of and undertake
Hemistour.
B. Yes, because the essay relates how the Hemistour
riders met the challenges of the journey and succeeded in popularizing bicycle touring.
C. No, because the essay instead focuses on detailing
Hemistour’s impact on the popularity of bicycle
touring, with particular attention to what the participants did after the tour.
D. No, because the essay instead focuses on describing the Hemistour riders’ journey and the tour’s
impact, providing few details about its participants.
PASSAGE V
The Black Gardener
36. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. horticulturist Dannahue “Danny” Clarke won
second prize
H. horticulturist, Dannahue “Danny” Clarke won
second prize
J. horticulturist Dannahue “Danny” Clarke won
second prize,
In 2022, British horticulturist, Dannahue “Danny”
36
Clarke, won second prize at the renowned Chelsea
36
Flower Show for his display “Hands Off Mangrove.”
37. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
A. No Change
B. Its design centered
C. It centered
D. Centering
His intent was to center issues of deforestation and social
37
justice, it featured a pollinator-friendly garden designed
to be relocated to inner-city London. The display was
38. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. mission, which is:
H. mission;
J. mission
emblematic of Clarke’s mission: making green spaces
38
more sustainable and accessible.
Calling himself “The Black Gardener” to highlight
the lack of diversity in his profession, Clarke uses his
platform as host of a popular gardening show to share
his philosophy that access to nature is not a privilege
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39. Which choice most effectively maintains the essay’s
tone?
A. No Change
B. Doing a lot of things with
C. An active leader in
D. A busy guy within
but a right. Super involved in the community-focused
39
organization Grow to Know, he endeavors to close the
“green gap” by teaching young people in underserved
urban areas how to garden and helping them remake
community spaces through plant cultivation.
After seeing the Chelsea display, a prestigious
rose breeder named a new rose variety for Clarke.
The apricot-colored Dannahue rose is versatile, able to
grow in many environments and soil types, and attracts
40. Which choice makes the sentence most grammatically
acceptable?
F. No Change
G. which compliment
H. who complement
J. that compliment
pollinators—qualities that complement Clarke’s message.
40
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
ACT-J01
12
2
MATHEMATICS TEST
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document.
but some of the problems may best be done without
using a calculator.
Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
be assumed.
Do not linger over problems that take too much time.
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in
the time you have left for this test.
1. Illustrative figures are not necessarily drawn to scale.
2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3. The word “line” indicates a straight line.
4. The word “average” indicates arithmetic mean.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You
may use your calculator for any problems you choose,
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
1. Let p(x) = 3x2 − 15 and q(x) = 5x2 + 4. Which of the
following polynomials is p(x) + q(x)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
−12x2 + 9
−12x4 + 9
8x2 − 11
8x4 − 11
2. Based on a scatterplot of data, a company uses the
quadratic model R = −10p2 + 550p to predict the total
revenue, R dollars, when the price of the company’s
product is set at p dollars. What is the predicted total
revenue when the price is set at $10?
F.
G.
H.
J.
$4,500
$5,300
$5,400
$6,500
3. Which of the following inequalities is equivalent to
x + 8 ≥ 4x − 16?
A. x ≤ −1 _35
B. x ≥ −1 _35
C. x ≤ 8
D. x ≤ 21
4. A robot moves at a constant speed along a straight-line
path from one point to another point. The starting
point, midpoint, and stopping point are represented
in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane. Given that the
midpoint is represented by (24,32) and the stopping
point is represented by (24,37), which of the following
coordinates represents the starting point of the robot?
F. (24,−37)
G. (24,−32)
H. (24,5)
J. (24,27)
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DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
5. Students voted for either Option A or Option B. For
every vote Option A received, Option B received
4 votes. Given that there was a total of 20 votes, how
many votes did Option B receive in total?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 16
2
6. A supplier is loading bricks onto a trailer that has a load
limit of 950 pounds. Each brick is a solid rectangular
prism with dimensions 3.5 inches by 2.75 inches by
8.5 inches. Each brick has a density of 0.06 pounds per
cubic inch. What is the maximum number of bricks
that can be loaded onto the trailer without exceeding
the load limit?
A. 69
B. 193
C. 532
D. 677
7. A student modeled a set of paired data with the equation
y = 0.25x + 80. The student’s model and a scatterplot
of the paired data are graphed in the given standard
(x,y) coordinate plane. Among the following possible
changes to the student’s equation, which one will most
improve the fit to the paired data?
y
320
240
160
80
O
F.
G.
H.
J.
80
160 240 320 x
Decrease the slope by 0.25
Decrease the y-intercept by 40
Increase the y-intercept by 40
Increase the y-intercept by 80
8. The probability that event A will occur is 0.20. If
event A occurs, the probability that event B will occur
is 0.30. What is the probability that event A will occur
and event B will occur?
A. 0.06
B. 0.09
C. 0.20
D. 0.30
ACT-J01
14
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
9. A system of equations, consisting of a quadratic
equation and a linear equation, is graphed in the
standard (x,y) coordinate plane as shown. One of
the following lists only the point(s) whose coordinates
are solutions to the system of equations. Which one?
y
4
S
2
Q
U
−4
−2
O
−2
R −4
2
4
2
x
T
−6
P
F.
G.
H.
J.
−8
−10
S
R
P and T
Q and U
10. The polynomial function graphed in the given standard
(x,y) coordinate plane is an increasing function
throughout one of the following intervals. Which one?
a b c
A.
B.
C.
D.
d e f
a<x<b
b<x<c
c<x<d
d<x<e
11. A certain committee is composed of 11 juniors and
79 seniors. Two different members of the committee
will be randomly selected, each for a different
leadership role. Given that the 1st member selected is a
junior, what is the probability that the 2nd member
selected will be a senior?
10
F. _
79
10
G. _
89
79
H. _
89
J.
ACT-J01
79
_
90
15
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
12. Given that x and y are nonzero, which of the following
conditions always makes x3 + y an irrational number?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
x is an integer, and y is an irrational number.
x is a rational number, and y is an integer.
x and y are both rational numbers.
x is a rational number, and y is a positive number.
13. A tourism researcher randomly sampled 783 tourists
from the population of tourists that visited Spain
during the summer. He recorded how many days each
sampled tourist stayed in Spain. The researcher wants
to use this sample data to estimate the mean number of
days that this population stayed in Spain. He should
calculate one of the following statistics to find this
estimate. Which one should he calculate?
F. The mean of the sample
G. The median of the sample
H. The variance of the sample
J. The median of the sample divided by the sample
size
14. The number line is partitioned into 7 equal segments by
points a through f. The points represented by letters a
20 . Where
through f are equally spaced between 0 and _
20 on the number line?
is _
73
93
0 a b
A.
B.
C.
D.
c
d
e
20_
f __
73
At f
At d
Between e and f
Between c and d
3
88 ?
15. What is the sum of the finite geometric series ∑ _
n
n = 1 100
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.528
0.888888
0.889
2.335872
16. Function f is an even function, which means the graph
of y = f (x) is symmetric about the y-axis of the standard
(x,y) coordinate plane. The graph of y = f (x) passes
through the point (6,51). The graph must also pass
through which of the following points?
F. (−6,51)
G. (6,−51)
H. (51,−6)
J. (51,6)
ACT-J01
16
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
17. Tables of values for the 2 functions f and g are given.
What is the value of g( f (6))?
x
f (x)
x
g(x)
−7
7
−4
6
−4
−7
2
−2
2
6
4
−6
6
4
6
−7
A.
B.
C.
D.
−28
−6
4
7
2
18. The value of X is 3 times the value of Y. The value of Z
is 19 less than the value of X. The sum of the values of
X, Y, and Z is 37. What is the value of Y ?
F. _9
2
G. 6
H. 8
J.
18
19. What is the sum of the 2 solutions of the equation
y2 − 8y − 84 = 0?
A.
B.
C.
D.
−14
−6
8
14
_
(6√7 ) x
20. Let f be the function defined by f (x) = _ . The
2
domain of f is the set of all real numbers. Which of the
following sets is the range of f ?
F.
G.
H.
J.
ACT-J01
All integers
All rational numbers
All irrational numbers
All real numbers
17
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
21. Which of the following expressions is equivalent to
6x2 − 96?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
6(x − 4) 2
6x (x − 16)
(6x + 4)(x − 4)
6(x − 4)(x + 4)
22. A student had a certain amount of money. She spent _1
4
of her total amount of money at an amusement park.
Later, she spent _1 of her remaining money on a meal.
5
Given that she returned home with $60, which of the
following is closest to the amount of money she had
before she went to the amusement park?
F.
G.
H.
J.
$87
$100
$109
$120
23. Given that i is the imaginary unit, which of the
following is equal to i 3 ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1
i
−1
−i
24. A theater manager must decide what prices to charge for
adult and child tickets for an upcoming show. Based
on previous data, the manager expects that a total of
420 tickets will be sold and the adult-to-child ratio of
the numbers of tickets sold will be 1:3. The manager is
working with the given constraints:
• The adult ticket price must be no more than
1.7 times the child ticket price.
• The total amount of money from ticket sales
must be at least $2,100.
Let A represent the adult ticket price in dollars. Let C
represent the child ticket price in dollars. Which of the
following systems of inequalities represents the given
expectations and constraints?
F. A ≤ 1.7C
105A + 315C ≥ 2,100
G. A ≤ 1.7C
140A + 280C ≥ 2,100
H. A ≥ 1.7C
105A + 315C ≤ 2,100
J. A ≥ 1.7C
140A + 280C ≤ 2,100
ACT-J01
18
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
25. In the figure shown, lines l and m are parallel, line k is a
transversal, and 3 angle measures are given in degrees.
What is the value of w?
(Note: The graphic is not to scale.)
k
11z°
(6z + 10)°
l
m
2w°
A.
B.
C.
D.
2
10
20
30
55
26. In right triangle nABC shown, the length of BC
‾ is
9 inches, and the measure of ∠A is 70°. Which of the
following expressions gives the length, in inches, of
AC
‾?
B
9
_
A.
tan 70°
tan 70°
B. _
9
9
9 °
C. tan( _
)
70
70 °
D. tan( _
9 )
A
70°
? C
27. The side lengths, in feet, of the flat, trapezoidal ceiling
of a room are given in the figure. A painter will cover
the entire ceiling with 1 coat of a paint that has a price
of $16.50 (tax included) per gallon and is sold only
by the full gallon. Each gallon covers an area of
300 square feet with 1 coat of paint. What is the total
price of the paint that the painter needs to buy?
24
40
32
48
F.
G.
H.
J.
ACT-J01
$63.00
$66.00
$99.00
$126.00
19
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
28. A certain data set is normally distributed with a mean
of 0 and a standard deviation of 1. Let q be the
probability that a randomly selected value of the data
set will be less than some positive number z. The area
of the shaded region is equal to q.
0
2
z
data set values
What is the probability that the selected value will be
greater than z?
A. 1 − q
B. 2 − 2q
C. q − 0.5
D. q + 0.5
29. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, only 1 parabola of
the form y = (x − h) 2 + k has x-intercepts of −24 and −2.
Which of the following equations represents the axis
of symmetry of this parabola?
F.
G.
H.
J.
4
x = −24
x = −13
y = −13
y = −24x − 2
_
30. √ a 4 = ?
15
_
1
_
A. a− 4
15
_
B. a 16
31
_
C. a 4
D. a15
ACT-J01
20
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
31. For nDEF shown, which of the following equations,
when solved for x, gives the length of DE
‾ in inches?
2
E
13 in
F
45°
?
73°
D
sin D = _
sin E = _
sin F )
(Note: _
e
d
f
sin 45° = _
sin 73°
F. _
x
13
sin 45° = _
sin 62°
G. _
x
13
sin 62° = _
sin 73°
H. _
x
13
J.
sin 73° = _
sin 62°
_
x
13
32. The angle-angle-side (AAS) congruence
postulate can be used to prove nJKL ≅ nNOP
using only 3 congruence statements. Given the
2 statements KL
‾ and ∠L ≅ ∠P, which of the
‾ ≅ OP
following is the third congruence statement for AAS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
∠J ≅ ∠N
∠J ≅ ∠O
∠K ≅ ∠N
JK
‾
‾ ≅ NO
c
33. Assume _
nw = k, where c is measured in dollars, n is
measured in inches, and w is measured in dollars per
inch. Which of the following statements about k is
true?
F.
G.
H.
J.
ACT-J01
k has no unit of measure.
k is measured in inches.
k is measured in dollars.
k is measured in square inches.
21
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
34. The circle shown in the standard (x,y) coordinate
2
plane is centered at the origin and passes through
N (1,0). Suppose the circle passes through point P
in Quadrant I such that the measure of ∠NOP is
π radians. What is the y-coordinate of P ?
_
3
y
A. _1
2
N(1,0)
B. _1
O
3
x
_
√2
C. _
2
_
√3
D. _
2
35. A rectangular patio is 12 feet wide and 10 feet long.
As shown in the scale drawing, there is a 2-foot-wide
rectangular border around the entire patio. What is the
area, in square feet, of the actual border?
12 ft
2 ft
10 ft
2 ft
A.
B.
C.
D.
104
168
200
224
36. A cube has a volume of 216 cubic centimeters. A sphere
is inscribed in the cube. What is the volume, in cubic
centimeters, of the sphere?
(Note: The volume of a sphere is _4 πr 3, where r is the
radius.)
F.
G.
H.
J.
ACT-J01
3
36π
48π
216π
288π
22
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
37. A factor of 2.5x2 − 30x + c is x + 4. What is the value of
c?
A. −160
B. −26
C. 80
D. 110
2
38. The size, in units, of a certain population can be
modeled by the function f (x) = 9(3.5 x ), where x is the
number of years since the population was first
observed. Which of the following statements is a valid
interpretation of 3.5 in the given function?
F. The size of the population increases by 3.5 units
per year.
G. The size of the population decreases by 3.5 units
per year.
H. The size of the population was 3.5 units 1 year
after the population was first observed.
J. The size of the population is 3.5 times what it was
1 year ago.
⏜
⏜
39. In the figure given, VZ and WY are arcs of 2 circles
both centered at X. Point W is on XV
‾, and point Y is on
XZ
‾. Given m∠WXY = 120°, XY = 6 cm, and YZ = 16 cm,
which of the following is closest to the area, in square
centimeters, of the shaded region?
V
W
Z
A.
B.
C.
D.
16
120°
Y
X
6
21
34
268
469
40. Given the points R(2,7) and T (8,11) in the standard (x,y)
coordinate plane, what are the magnitude and direction
⎯⇀
of vector RT ?
_
F. Magnitude = 2√ 13 and direction = tan −1( _2 )
3
_
G. Magnitude = 2√ 13 and direction = tan −1( _3 )
2
_
H. Magnitude = √ 34 and direction = tan −1( _2 )
3
J.
ACT-J01
Magnitude = √ 34 and direction = tan −1( _5 )
_
3
23
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2
DO YOUR FIGURING HERE.
41. A company designed a questionnaire to be completed
by its employees. The questionnaire has 5 questions
with the answer choices of only “yes” or “no.” Given
that every question must be answered and an employee
can only choose 1 answer to each question, in how
many ways can an employee answer all 5 questions on
the questionnaire?
A. 7
B. 25
C. 32
D. 64
2
END OF TEST 2
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.
ACT-J01
24
3
3
READING TEST
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is accompanied by several questions.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
Passage I
10 billion miles from wherever you are to a point past
Pluto. Though the DNA in each cell is the same, this is
a stunning way to envision the total amount that a fully
grown human being contains. And in reality, your
45 greater self operates with even more. So, try mentally
adding to that strand all the DNA from the microbes
you host and picture a filament reaching still farther
beyond this solar system toward the distant stars.
INFORMATIONAL: This passage is from the book Four Fifths a
Grizzly: A New Perspective on Nature that Just Might Save Us
All by Douglas Chadwick (©2021 by Douglas Chadwick).
A prime share of our gut microbes breaks down
organic materials that we either can’t digest or don’t
digest very efficiently. Some manufacture vitamins and
other nutrients that we are either poor at making or
5 unable to make and rarely get enough of from the foods
we eat. As much as 80 percent of our immune system is
situated in our gut, and its effectiveness appears linked
to the balance of species in the microbiome there. And
several kinds of common gut bacteria have been found
10 to manufacture hormones and neurotransmitters identical to those produced by human cells and capable of
influencing our moods and activities. More researchers
are beginning to view our gut microbiome as something
like a big, complicated, and still mostly mysterious
15 gland.
In addition to the number of life-forms that make
50 their homes alongside the cells of our bodies, don’t
forget the microbes dwelling within those cells as part
of their makeup. Our cells can’t function normally
without the organelles, or internal pieces, labeled mitochondria, for they carry out the energy-generating
55 chemical reactions that are the basis of our metabolism.
Just a few decades ago, scientists finally figured out
that these organelles are actually modified ancient bacteria. As such, they add tens of trillions more microorganisms to the “you” that your mind conceives of as a
60 singular being. Taken together, the invisible multitudes
on and in us redefine every person as a kind of compound creature, an organism that is in reality a combination of organisms interwoven in more ways than we
have yet found words to acknowledge.
A flurry of research now underway is aimed at discovering how the microbes we host may be influencing
not only our general health but also our momentary
cravings, moods, and—ultimately—our thoughts. The
20 implications are obviously enormous. Who’s in charge
of you? New findings may revolutionize medical treatments and personal wellness regimes, but the investigations are still in the preliminary stages. Meanwhile,
think about adding more fiber from fruits and vegeta25 bles to your diet; it increases the variety of microbial
allies in your gut and encourages their growth and metabolic activity.
This is not to say each person isn’t an individual
with a unique physical appearance, temperament, set of
experiences, and so on. Combined with the intense
level of self-awareness humans possess, this distinctive
identity is very real to us and plays a preeminent role in
70 both our relationships with other people and our position in society. Yet, the importance we place upon our
individuality becomes something of an obstacle to recognizing everything else that defines us. The microbes
we are endowed with and the genes we have in common
75 with other life-forms are key dimensions of the human
being.
65
Every person has about 22,000 (some put the estimate closer to 25,000) genes, the inherited set of chem30 ically coded instructions that build and maintain a
Homo sapiens. The spectrum of microbial beings we
host possess at least 8 million genes among them, and
I’ve seen estimates as high as 45 million. From this perspective, the full genome each of us carries around is a
35 mosaic of human and microbe DNA, with the human
part making up a very minor portion of the whole.
Bill Bryson calculates in his book The Body: A
Guide for Occupants that if you were to uncoil all the
DNA packed into your trillions of human cells and lay
40 it end to end to form a single strand, it would extend for
ACT-J01
25
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3
3
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. New scientific research has uncovered several
groundbreaking findings that have dramatically
improved how we treat particular illnesses.
B. Microbes inside a human’s gut play an important
role in enabling efficient digestion.
C. The idea of what constitutes an individual human
should be informed by the significant role of
microbes hosted in the body.
D. A large percentage of the human genome is also
contained within the genome of many microbial
species.
6. Based on the passage, which of the following statements
most closely reflects the author’s perspective on the
individuality of humans?
F. We must maintain our sense of individuality in the
face of new findings about the microbial creatures
housed on and in us.
G. Given the important role that a variety of microbial organisms play in our biological makeup, it
is not accurate to claim that each person is an
individual.
H. New scientific findings have dramatically changed
the public’s perception of what constitutes a
unique individual.
J. Our individual identities play an important role in
our relationships with others but keep us from recognizing our true biological makeup.
2. The main function of the second paragraph (lines 16–27)
is to:
F. emphasize how little is known about the role of the
gut microbiome.
G. highlight ongoing research related to the gut
microbiome.
H. illustrate the importance of the gut microbiome in
digestion.
J. provide guidance for achieving better gut health.
7. The primary function of the details regarding uncoiled
DNA in lines 38–42 is to:
A. illustrate the complexity of the human genome in
comparison to other beings.
B. emphasize the amount of DNA contained in the
human body.
C. help the reader visualize the strange shape of
DNA.
D. stress the uniqueness of each individual human.
3. The passage most strongly suggests that much of the
research focused on the influence of microbes hosted
by the human body is:
A. relatively recent.
B. contradictory.
C. contentious and potentially problematic.
D. well established and broadly accepted.
8. It can reasonably be inferred that the passage author
includes the quotation marks around the word you in
line 59 mainly to:
F. emphasize the artificiality of the individual “you”
conceived of in the human mind.
G. distinguish the author’s reference to an individual
human in this paragraph from the discussion of
humankind in the rest of the passage.
H. suggest that there is still debate among scientists
regarding what constitutes “you.”
J. clarify that the author is directly addressing a specific type of reader.
4. Based on the passage, compared to the number of genes
possessed by each human, the number of genes possessed by the microbes each human hosts is:
F. much lower.
G. about equal.
H. roughly double.
J. vastly greater.
5. The main function of the fifth paragraph (lines 49–64)
is to:
A. illustrate the roles of several different types of
microbes contained within the human body.
B. introduce the smaller and more complex microorganisms that live within cells.
C. present the idea that humans possess many microorganisms in and on their bodies.
D. compare two different kinds of microorganisms
contained within the human body.
ACT-J01
9. As it is used in line 74, the word endowed most nearly
means:
A. supported.
B. ordained.
C. equipped.
D. invested.
26
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3
3
Passage II
“More words to sharpen your tongue and keep
away any husband who’d have you!”
LITERARY NARRATIVE: This passage is from the novel Song
of a Captive Bird by Jasmin Darznik.
She was right in her way, because it was my preference for books and for the world inside my head that
55 left me so incapable of accepting the usual and the ordinary. The more I read, the more I longed to let loose the
words inside me.
This story takes place in Iran in the 1940s.
The Colonel spent Fridays—the Sabbath—at
home, and we were allowed to spend an hour in the
library with him. Back when Puran and I were still in
school, he quizzed us about what we’d learned during
5 the week. He invariably questioned my brothers’ lessons more pointedly than ours. I felt grateful to be the
subject of less scrutiny, but increasingly I longed to
distinguish myself among my siblings. I yearned for the
Colonel’s praise. Later, I’d hate myself for this yearn10 ing, but as a child I would have done anything to earn
his esteem. If not that, I wanted to at least claim his
attention. I soon discovered a way.
At eleven, I’d composed my first poem. Paper was
scarce, and so I’d write in the margins of my father’s
60 old newspapers, on discarded food wrappers, or only
just in my head. At night before sleep and in the first
moments of the day, in whispers and in silent chants, I
practiced reciting my poem to myself until I learned it
by heart. Then I screwed up all my courage and
65 approached the Colonel.
“I wrote a poem,” I’d announced one Friday in his
study.
The Colonel frequently read aloud to us, either
from the Shahnameh, the book of Kings, or the Divan-e
15 Hafez, the two heftiest volumes in his library and the
most treasured of all his books. He knew every poem in
the Divan, or so it seemed to me. When he recited
poetry, even if only a few verses, he ceased to be the
Colonel and became, for those minutes we spent
20 together in the library, my father. His features softened
and his voice relaxed. When I was still little, he sometimes called me forward to turn the pages for him, and
in those moments I lost nearly all my fear of him. I
stood beside him, gazed at the pages, and felt his
25 warmth. He smelled of brilliantine, cologne, and cigars.
Often, he recited the poems by heart. He closed his eyes
and lost himself to the words and, seeing this, I did the
same.
He raised his eyebrows and studied me for a long
moment. “Have you indeed?”
70
He clasped his fingers over his chest and closed
his eyes. “Recite it, then,” he ordered.
My brothers sniggered. I ignored them and stepped
forward. My throat felt tight and I was so nervous I
75 could scarcely stand, but I steadied my voice and
began.
I remember nothing at all about that first poem
except that it was a ghazal, or lyric, composed in the
manner of Hafez. When I finished reciting the poem,
80 the Colonel opened his eyes, fixed me with another
long look, as if assessing not the poem’s value but
mine, and then nodded. He said nothing more, but with
this one gesture I knew I’d finally managed to please
him.
On other afternoons, while the rest of the family
30 napped, I crept into the library, pulled a volume from
the shelf, and sat cross-legged on the floor with the
book on my lap. The leather binding was cool and
smooth to the touch. I would lift the cover, sinking into
the private world of its pages. I traced the calligraphy
35 with my fingers, following the slight swell of the ink
against the paper. The letters looped and arched and
stretched across the parchment, as if in flight from the
page.
Many years later I walked into a vast salon, where
I was to read my poems aloud before a large audience,
an honor rarely conferred on a woman. I was guided up
to the front of the room and from there looked out to
see a hundred people lifting their eyes to me. In that
90 moment it was so quiet I could hear my own breath. I
was a poet. I had written poems. I had published books.
But however great my satisfaction that day, it was
unequal to the pride I felt the first time I pleased my
father with my writing. It was in me already: the desire
95 to be a poet, to speak, to be heard.
85
My reading exasperated my mother as much as my
40 antics did. When I wasn’t cloistered in the Colonel’s
library with my head bent over a book, I hid in the attic
or the washroom with one of his discarded newspapers
and read it front to back. Dinners grew cold, and my
mother threatened to let me go hungry if I did not come
45 at once. I preferred to go without eating, and I very
often did.
Excerpt(s) from SONG OF A CAPTIVE BIRD: A NOVEL by Jasmin
Darznik, copyright © 2018 by Jasmin Darznik. Used by permission of
Ballantine Books, an imprint of Random House, a division of Penguin
Random House LLC. All rights reserved.
“But what are you looking for?” my mother asked
whenever she caught me reading. “What do you think
you’ll find in those pages?”
50
ACT-J01
I nodded.
If I looked up at all, it was only to glare.
27
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3
3
10. In the context of the passage, one main function of
line 12 is to:
A. indicate that the atmosphere in the narrator’s home
facilitates self-discovery.
B. contrast the narrator’s experience with literature to
her siblings’ experiences.
C. reveal the narrator’s curious and observant nature.
D. foreshadow the narrator’s composition and recitation of poetry.
14. According to the passage, compared to the narrator, her
brothers experience:
A. more limitations on how they spend their free time.
B. more intense questioning about their school lessons.
C. less attention from their parents.
D. less demanding expectations for their future
achievements.
11. The passage most nearly indicates that the narrator’s
experiences of listening to readings in the library result
in the narrator developing which of the following?
F. A commitment to studying in an effort to outdo
her siblings
G. An association between literature and moments of
contentment
H. A compulsion to memorize excerpts from books
her father has never read aloud
J. An interest in exploring an extensive variety of
academic subjects
15. In the passage, the narrator indicates that years later,
she regards her childhood longing to obtain her father’s
praise with a sense of:
F. pride.
G. sympathy.
H. desperation.
J. loathing.
16. In the passage, the narrator’s mother is most nearly
characterized as harboring a sense of:
A. satisfaction regarding her children’s accomplishments.
B. exasperation regarding her daughter’s tendencies.
C. optimism regarding her daughter’s future.
D. indifference regarding her children’s life choices.
12. Based on the passage, it can most reasonably be inferred
that the narrator’s choice to write her first poem in a
specific style is directly connected to:
A. inspiration she has drawn from certain lines in the
Shahnameh.
B. a volume she has often studied while hiding in the
attic.
C. her father’s deep appreciation of the Divan-e Hafez.
D. her father’s request that she do so.
17. The passage states that the narrator read which of the
following as a child?
F. Poetry written by her father
G. Letters written by her father
H. Discarded food wrappers
J. Discarded newspapers
13. The main point of the last paragraph (lines 85–95) is
that:
F. the narrator feels honored to be one of the few
women to achieve her level of success as a poet.
G. despite the narrator’s accomplishments as a poet,
pleasing her father with her writing remains her
proudest moment.
H. the narrator is satisfied with the direction her
poetry and publishing career has taken.
J. while reading her poems to an audience, the narrator’s thoughts are overwhelmed by memories of
the experiences she has written about.
ACT-J01
18. The passage directly answers which of the following
questions?
A. How old is the narrator when she writes her first
poem?
B. Why is the narrator’s father called the Colonel?
C. How many books has the narrator published?
D. What is the narrator’s favorite poem?
28
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3
3
Passage III
employee, complains about not being allowed to wear
his Red Sox cap at work. “I was like, Paul, we live in
Massachusetts,” he says. “It isn’t like a . . . like a controversial hat.” His co-worker, after a while, responds
55 that her roommate left a passive-aggressive note on her
door that morning—it was “like seven Post-Its long.”
We know these people; in real life, we might avoid
them. But after three hours of watching them onstage—
Baker’s plays are famously long—we only want more.
INFORMATIONAL: Passage A is from the article “Just Saying:
The Anti-theatrical Theatre of Annie Baker” by Nathan Heller.
Passage B is from the article “The Funny, Empathetic Genius
of Annie Baker” by Sarah Larson.
Passage A by Nathan Heller
Who goes to the theatre these days, and why? For
decades now, serious stage work has been regarded tenderly as the spotted owl of American art—brilliant and
nimble, breathtaking in flight, but unlikely to be found
5 beyond a few scarce habitats. Every time we watch a
trite blockbuster, fall asleep in front of bad TV, or click
through to a YouTube video of yawning pandas, it’s
said, our capacity for theatrical attention dies a little
more. And yet, for all that, the theatre has proved
10 strangely resilient, selling (even selling out) cascades
of seats and claiming more college degrees than film
and clinical psychology combined. Something is going
right. Perhaps the question isn’t why some give up on
the form but why others keep falling in love. What can
15 the theatre do that books and screens can’t?
Baker’s plays are lessons in empathy. “The Flick”
and “John,” her most recent play, both use representations of life to intensify the empathy: in “The Flick,”
it’s movies; in “John,” it includes dolls, miniatures, and
haunting stories. The way her characters take refuge in
65 these representations of life and invest them with feeling—a cinéaste whistles a song from “Jules et Jim” as
he sweeps the theatre floor; a woman at a B. and B. is
tormented by an angry-looking American Girl doll—is
endearing and eerily recognizable. It’s also an opportu70 nity for transcendence.
60
“The Flick” begins in a simple, extraordinary way:
with darkness, a movie projector’s beam of light over
our heads, and the sound of the prelude from “The
Naked and the Dead.” We hear drums, horns, pounding,
75 the cadence of a march. We’re not watching a movie—
we’re sitting in the dark, imagining one. It conjures
thoughts of the Second World War, the twentieth century, the grand way of doing things in the past, the
movies. The way we used to go to the movies, and the
80 way we do now. That beautiful, pained, exquisitely
alive feeling you get during the best moments of
theatre—that life is too wonderful to be believed, and
too cruel in its ephemerality—is with you right from
the start. You’re basking in lots of good soupy emotion,
85 and the lights haven’t even come on yet.
Annie Baker, a thirty-one-year-old playwright, is
one answer to this question; she wants life onstage to
be so vivid, natural, and emotionally precise that it
bleeds into the audience’s visceral experience of time
20 and space. Drawing on the immediacy of overheard
conversation, she has pioneered a style of theatre made
to seem as untheatrical as possible, while using the
tools of the stage to focus audience attention. “Circle
Mirror Transformation,” Baker’s 2009 ensemble piece
25 set at a community-center drama class, won three Obie
awards, and was, in the 2010–11 season, the second
most produced play in America. (The first most produced was “The 39 Steps.”) Her work has been performed abroad in a dozen countries; last year, four of
30 her plays appeared as a book.
Passage A: Nathan Heller/TNY © Conde Nast.
Passage B: Sarah Larson/The New Yorker © Conde Nast.
A lot of critics, trying to pinpoint Baker’s appealing blend of naturalness and precision, have called her
a “realist” or a “naturalist.” She thinks neither label
works. “I feel like we lack any terms for playwriting
35 that come after 1890,” she says. “Realism, naturalism—
are you talking about, like, Ibsen?” To watch Baker’s
work is to be drawn into a world that feels as unplotted
as real life (characters chat at cross-purposes; costumes
and stage settings are uncannily real) but that breaks
40 abruptly into surreal transcendence (a hula hoop being
spun for almost a minute, in one case).
Passage B by Sarah Larson
19. Which of the following details provided by the author
of Passage A most directly supports his claim that “the
theatre has proved strangely resilient” (lines 9–10)?
F. During a recent season, “The 39 Steps” was the
most produced play in America.
G. Our capacity for appreciating theater diminishes as
we watch more movies, TV, and online videos.
H. Theater accounts for more college degrees than
film and clinical psychology combined.
J. Something is going right with the theater.
We’re lucky to be living in the era of Annie Baker,
a playwright who listens to people so carefully, who
re-creates human speech with such amusement and
45 care, that her characters feel startlingly familiar—so
familiar, in fact, that you might wonder at first why
they’re the subjects of a play. In “The Flick,” which
won the Pulitzer Prize for Drama last year and which
is in revival at the Barrow Street Theatre through
50 January 10th, Sam (Matthew Maher), a movie-theatre
ACT-J01
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3
3
20. It can most reasonably be inferred from Passage A that,
with regard to how contemporary plays are often discussed by critics, Baker is frustrated that:
A. the terms applied to the plays often seem outdated.
B. the plays of Ibsen are typically used as a direct
point of comparison.
C. costuming that was intended to be true to life is
often labeled “surreal.”
D. a play is considered “unplotted” if its plot isn’t
distinctly linear.
24. In the context of Passage B, when the passage author
states “You’re basking in lots of good soupy emotion”
(line 84), she most nearly means that the opening of
the play:
A. prepares viewers to warmly sympathize with characters who might seem insincere.
B. evokes in viewers the rich, diverse range of feelings that the best theater offers.
C. is intriguing and emotionally powerful to viewers
because it is so difficult to follow.
D. displeases some viewers who believe even the best
theater is excessively melodramatic.
21. In the context of Passage A, the main function of
lines 36–41 is to:
F. show how Baker often manipulates stage settings
to enhance her use of evocative props.
G. provide an example of how Baker uses casual discussion between characters to make her plays
seem representative of real life.
H. point to scenes from two of Baker’s plays, one
early and one recent, to demonstrate that Baker’s
work has become more precise.
J. convey two key elements of Baker’s work through
a description and example of each element.
25. Details in lines 47–56 of Passage B offer the most direct
support for the passage author’s claim in Passage A
that, in her plays, Baker:
F. manipulates the audience’s visceral experience of
time and space.
G. uses the tools of the stage to focus audience
attention.
H. draws on the immediacy of overheard conversation.
J. breaks abruptly from scenes of real life.
22. In the context of Passage B, the statement that “we’re
lucky to be living in the era of Annie Baker” (line 42)
can best be described as:
A. an opinion that the passage author supports by
describing what makes Baker’s work compelling.
B. an opinion that the passage author argues for by
presenting details about actors’ responses to
Baker’s work.
C. a fact that is accepted by both theatergoers and
critics based on evidence provided in Passage B.
D. a fact that the passage author supports with specific examples of Baker’s convincing way of presenting characters.
26. Both passages provide which of the following details
about the positive response to Baker’s plays?
A. An identification of playwrights who have been
inspired by her plays
B. A reference to her plays having been made into
books
C. The long length of the run of one of her plays
D. A mention of particular awards given to her plays
23. Based on Passage B, the passage author would most
likely agree with which of the following statements
about the characters in Baker’s plays, generally?
F. The characters are not necessarily people the audience would want to spend time with in real life.
G. The characters’ athleticism and physical grace are
often what make them so appealing to watch.
H. The characters tend to remind audience members
of their best selves.
J. The characters’ deep sense of optimism is their
defining feature.
27. In the passages, both passage authors most strongly suggest that Baker’s plays present scenes and images that
allow viewers to:
F. observe characters who could only exist in the
past.
G. interact directly with characters in the plays.
H. experience a transcendent moment.
J. imagine they are at the movies.
END OF TEST 3
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS TEST.
ACT-J01
30
4
4
SCIENCE TEST
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are not permitted to use a calculator on this test.
Passage I
For Trial 3, D was determined for each Au NP and
rounded to the nearest whole number. Figure 1 shows, for
each D observed, the percent of the total number of Au
NPs.
Gold (Au) nanoparticles (NPs) are spherical masses of
Au atoms that form when an Au-containing compound
reacts with a reducing agent. Adding a modifier to the reaction affects the size of the Au NPs and also the reaction
time (the time needed to consume all the Au-containing
compound).
Figure 1
percent of total Au NPs
14
Researchers performed 5 trials (Trials 1−5) of the
reaction that differed only in modifier concentration.
Table 1 shows, for each trial, the average diameter (D) of
the Au NPs and the reaction time.
Table 1
10
8
6
4
2
0
Trial
Modifier
concentration
(mmol/L*)
Average D
(nm†)
Reaction time
(s)
1
0.00
85
62
2
0.01
55
142
3
0.1
20
165
4
1.0
13
182
5
10.0
6
223
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D (nm)
Table and figure adapted from the article “Simple Size-Controlled Synthesis
of Au Nanoparticles and Their Size-Dependent Catalytic Activity” by Petr
Suchomel et al. (©2018 by Suchomel et al.).
1. Based on Figure 1, the greatest percent of the total
number of Au NPs produced in Trial 3 was for which
rounded value of D?
A. 19 nm
B. 20 nm
C. 21 nm
D. 22 nm
*millimoles per liter
†
nanometers
ACT-J01
12
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4
4
2. The data shown in Table 1 best support which of the
following relationships about modifier concentration
and reaction time?
F. The trial in which the modifier concentration was
0.01 mmol/L had the shortest reaction time.
G. The trial in which the modifier concentration was
0.01 mmol/L had the longest reaction time.
H. The greater the modifier concentration, the shorter
the reaction time.
J. The greater the modifier concentration, the longer
the reaction time.
4. Consider the study that would have been completed to
generate the data shown in Table 1. Which of the trials
was most likely intended to act as the control for modifier concentration in this study?
F. Trial 1
G. Trial 2
H. Trial 4
J. Trial 5
3. A scientist predicted that, for Trial 3, the percent of
the total number of Au NPs would increase only as
D increased. The data shown in Figure 1 for which of
the following ranges of D support the scientist’s
prediction?
A. 14 nm through 18 nm
B. 18 nm through 22 nm
C. 22 nm through 26 nm
D. 26 nm through 30 nm
ACT-J01
5. Consider the average D for Trial 3 listed in Table 1.
Based on Figure 1, what is the approximate percent of
the total number of Au NPs having a rounded D 5 nm
less than the average D?
A. 2.5%
B. 3.5%
C. 4.5%
D. 5.5%
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4
Passage II
Figure 1 shows the average PRD for each AM species
grown on media at various concentrations of auramine.
Scientists identified dyes that slowed the growth of
circular colonies of ZM fungi and AM fungi. The average
colony diameter for fungi grown on media without a dye
was compared to the average colony diameter for fungi
grown on media with a dye to determine the average percent reduction in colony diameter (PRD).
Figure 1
Key
AM 1
AM 2
AM 3
Table 1 shows the average PRD at 24 hr for 3 AM
species and 3 ZM species for each of 4 dyes. The concentration of a given dye is that which resulted in the greatest
PRD when averaged across the 3 tested ZM species.
Table 1
Species
2 ppm*
dichloran
50 ppm
auramine
1 ppm
malachite
green
5,000 ppm
water blue
AM 1
0
25
8
0
AM 2
9
39
45
32
AM 3
0
5
96
0
ZM 1
90
60
58
98
ZM 2
6
48
71
68
ZM 3
25
13
43
61
average PRD
Average PRD at a dye concentration of:
1
10
100
1,000
concentration of auramine (ppm)
5,000
Table and figure adapted from the article “Dyes as Fungal Inhibitors: Effect
on Colony Diameter” by M. R. Bragulat et al. (©1991 by The American Society for Microbiology).
*parts per million
ACT-J01
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
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4
4
6. Based on Figure 1, the average PRD for AM 1 at 10 ppm
auramine was closest to which of the following?
F. 0%
G. 5%
H. 17%
J. 25%
9. In Figure 1, is the x-axis scale linear or logarithmic, and
is the y-axis scale linear or logarithmic?
A. x-axis: logarithmic
y-axis: logarithmic
B. x-axis: logarithmic
y-axis: linear
C. x-axis: linear
y-axis: logarithmic
D. x-axis: linear
y-axis: linear
7. What is the order of the dyes listed in Table 1, from the
dye that slowed the growth of ZM 1 the most to the
dye that slowed the growth of ZM 1 the least?
A. Water blue, dichloran, auramine, malachite green
B. Water blue, malachite green, dichloran, auramine
C. Malachite green, water blue, auramine, dichloran
D. Malachite green, water blue, dichloran, auramine
10. Based on the description of Table 1, for the 3 tested
ZM species, would the average PRD in the presence of
4,000 ppm water blue be less than or greater than the
average PRD in the presence of 5,000 ppm water blue?
F. Less; the concentration of water blue listed in the
table was the concentration at which the average
PRD for the 3 ZM species was largest.
G. Less; the concentration of water blue listed in the
table was the concentration at which the average
colony diameter for the 3 ZM species was largest.
H. Greater; the concentration of water blue listed in
the table was the concentration at which the average PRD for the 3 ZM species was smallest.
J. Greater; the concentration of water blue listed in
the table was the concentration at which the average colony diameter for the 3 ZM species was
smallest.
8. At which of the following pairs of auramine concentrations was the average PRD for AM 2 the same as the
average PRD for AM 3?
F. 25 ppm and 350 ppm
G. 25 ppm and 1,000 ppm
H. 350 ppm and 4,000 ppm
J. 1,000 ppm and 4,000 ppm
ACT-J01
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4
Passage III
4
Figure 2
frequency (Hz)
The observed frequency of a sound wave depends on
both the motion of the observer and the motion of the
source of the sound wave. A researcher performed an
experiment to study the frequency of sound waves recorded
by an observer in motion.
Experiment
The researcher constructed a 50 m long track with a
launcher at one end and a foam pit at the other. She placed
a loudspeaker emitting a sound wave with a frequency of
260 hertz (Hz) above the launcher and an audio-recording
device in a cart positioned by the launcher. See Figure 1.
258
257
256
255
254
Key
Trial 1
Trial 2
Trial 3
0
3
9
12
9
12
9
12
time (s)
distance (m)
50
Figure 1
loudspeaker
40
30
20
10
0
launcher
cart
0
3
6
time (s)
speed (m/s)
foam pit
50 m
The researcher set up a camera that recorded images
at a rate of 20 images per second, such that the camera
could capture the cart’s motion along the whole track. In
each of Trials 1−3, the cart was launched with a different
initial speed and moved along the track until falling into
the foam pit. The researcher used a signal analyzer to
determine the frequency of the recorded sound and video
analysis to determine the distance and speed of the cart as
it moved along the track. Figure 2 shows how the frequency, distance, and speed varied in each of Trials 1−3,
where the cart was launched at a time of 0.0 s.
ACT-J01
6
8
7
6
5
4
3
2
0
3
6
time (s)
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4
4
11. Based on the procedures and results of the experiment,
in which trial did the cart take the longest time to reach
the foam pit?
A. Trial 1
B. Trial 2
C. Trial 3
D. Cannot be determined from the given information
14. Based on the results of the experiment, which of the following statements best describes the trial that reached
the point halfway between the launcher and foam pit in
the least amount of time? This trial recorded the:
F. highest frequency and the greatest speed at the
halfway point.
G. highest frequency and the least speed at the halfway point.
H. lowest frequency and the greatest speed at the
halfway point.
J. lowest frequency and the least speed at the halfway point.
12. Based on Figure 2, when the cart had a speed of 5 m/s
in Trial 2, the recorded frequency was closest in value
to which of the following?
F. 255.8 Hz
G. 256.2 Hz
H. 256.9 Hz
J. 257.2 Hz
15. Consider the speed of the cart at the instant it left the
launcher in Trial 3. If the cart had then moved along
the whole track without any change in speed, the time
it would have taken to reach the foam pit would most
likely have been closest to which of the following?
A. 6 s
B. 9 s
C. 12 s
D. 15 s
16. Which of the following statements best compares the
frequencies of the recorded sound and the emitted
sound when the cart was less than 10 m from the foam
pit in Trial 3? The recorded sound was:
F. less than 1 Hz higher than the emitted sound.
G. less than 1 Hz lower than the emitted sound.
H. between 1 Hz and 2 Hz lower than the emitted
sound.
J. between 2 Hz and 3 Hz lower than the emitted
sound.
13. Based on the procedures and results of the experiment,
approximately how many of the camera images from
Trial 2 would have shown a cart in motion on the
track?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 120
D. 200
ACT-J01
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4
Passage IV
Experiment
The students determined, for an initial cell density of
31.6 × 103 S. kudriavzevii per milliliter of nutrient broth,
the average CGR for S. kudriavzevii exposed to different
pH values at 24°C and for S. kudriavzevii exposed to
different temperatures at a pH of 3.5 (see Tables 1 and 2,
respectively).
The yeast Saccharomyces kudriavzevii is a singlecelled eukaryote whose cell growth rate (CGR, number of
cells produced per milliliter of nutrient broth per day) is
affected by the environment. Each of 4 students predicted
how pH and temperature affect the CGR of S. kudriavzevii.
Then they conducted an experiment.
Table 1
Student 1
The CGR of S. kudriavzevii is affected both by pH
and by temperature. CGR increases from pH 2.2 through
pH 4.9. CGR increases from 14°C through 26°C, and CGR
decreases from 26°C through 34°C. Cell growth does not
occur at pH values less than 2.2 or greater than 4.9 or at
temperatures greater than 34°C because DNA synthesis is
inhibited in the cell.
Student 2
The CGR of S. kudriavzevii is affected both by pH
and by temperature. CGR increases from pH 2.2 through
pH 3.8, and CGR decreases from pH 3.8 through pH 4.9.
CGR increases from 14°C through 26°C, and CGR
decreases from 26°C through 34°C. Cell growth does not
occur at pH values less than 2.2 or greater than 4.9 or at
temperatures greater than 34°C because protein synthesis is
inhibited in the cell. Neither pH nor temperature affects
DNA synthesis.
Average CGR
(× 103 cells/mL/day)
2.2
5.6
2.8
9.0
3.3
12.4
3.8
15.6
4.3
16.5
4.9
17.5
Table 2
Student 3
The CGR of S. kudriavzevii is affected by temperature
but not by pH. CGR increases from 14°C through 34°C.
Cell growth does not occur at temperatures greater than
34°C because protein synthesis is inhibited in the cell. Neither pH nor temperature affects DNA synthesis.
Student 4
The CGR of S. kudriavzevii is affected by pH but
not by temperature. CGR increases from pH 2.2 through
pH 4.9. Cell growth does not occur at pH values less than
2.2 or greater than 4.9 because DNA synthesis is inhibited
in the cell. Neither pH nor temperature affects protein
synthesis.
ACT-J01
pH
Temperature
(°C)
Average CGR
(× 103 cells/mL/day)
14
0.4
16
4.4
18
8.6
22
13.4
26
14.7
30
9.0
34
1.4
Tables adapted from the article “Effects of Temperature, pH and Sugar Concentration on the Growth Parameters of Saccharomyces cerevisiae, S. kudriavzevii and Their Interspecific Hybrid” by F. Noé Arroyo-López et al. (©2009
by Elsevier B.V.).
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4
4
17. Which of Students 1, 2, and 3 stated that DNA synthesis
is not affected by temperature?
A. Student 1 only
B. Students 1 and 2 only
C. Students 2 and 3 only
D. Students 1, 2, and 3
20. Are the results shown in Table 2 consistent with Student 3’s predictions regarding the CGR of S. kudriavzevii at temperatures from 14°C through 34°C?
F. Yes; based on the table, as the temperature
increased from 14°C through 34°C, the average
CGR increased only.
G. Yes; based on the table, as the temperature
increased from 14°C through 34°C, the average
CGR increased and then decreased.
H. No; based on the table, as the temperature
increased from 14°C through 34°C, the average
CGR increased only.
J. No; based on the table, as the temperature
increased from 14°C through 34°C, the average
CGR increased and then decreased.
18. The dependent variable(s) in the experiment was(were)
which of the following?
I. Initial cell density
II. Temperature
III. Cell growth rate
F. II only
G. III only
H. I and II only
J. I, II, and III
21. The results shown in Table 1 are consistent with the
predictions of which of Students 1, 2, and 4?
A. Students 1 and 2 only
B. Students 1 and 4 only
C. Students 2 and 4 only
D. Students 1, 2, and 4
22. How many of the pH values listed in Table 1, if any, are
classified as basic?
F. 0
G. 2
H. 4
J. 6
23. Student 4 indicated that inhibiting the synthesis of molecules composed of what type of subunits affects the
cell growth of S. kudriavzevii?
A. Amino acids
B. Fatty acids
C. Monosaccharides
D. Nucleotides
19. Which of Students 2 and 4, if either, would be likely to
agree that S. kudriavzevii do not undergo cell growth at
a pH of 2.0?
A. Student 2 only
B. Student 4 only
C. Both Student 2 and Student 4
D. Neither Student 2 nor Student 4
ACT-J01
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4
Passage V
are shown in Figure 2. Negative flux values indicate more
GM moves from the air to the snow than moves from the
snow to the air; positive values indicate more GM moves
from the snow to the air than moves from the air to the
snow.
Suspended particles that have a particular metal bound
to them are transported to the ground by falling snow. Once
on the ground, the metal changes to a gaseous form (GM)
that moves into the air or down into the snow. During
5 weeks of a winter, 2 studies were done in an open area of
concrete-covered ground with a minimum 10 cm thick
cover of snow.
Figure 2
GM flux (ng/m2/hr)
To monitor the GM in the air just above the snow,
flux chambers (see Figure 1) were installed at several locations in the area. Every 3 hr over each week, a syringe was
used to collect a 50 mL sample of air from each chamber
through the sampling port. The concentration of GM in the
collected gas samples was used to calculate the GM flux,
the rate at which GM moves between the air and the snow.
Flux is measured in nanograms of GM per square meter of
snow per hour (ng/m2/hr).
Figure 1
sampling port
flux chamber
snow layer
concrete
Key
daytime
nighttime
4
–2
8
.1
n
Ja
Study 1
For each of the 5 weeks, an average of all the flux
values for the daytime sampling hours from 9 a.m. to
6 p.m. and of all the flux values for the nighttime sampling
hours from 9 p.m. to 6 a.m. were determined. The results
ACT-J01
3.0
2.8
2.6
2.4
2.2
2.0
1.8
1.6
1.4
1.2
1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0.0
0.2
0.4
0.6
1
–3
Ja
n
5
.2
Fe
4
8
–2
–1
8
b.
Fe
b
2
.2
4
–1
8
ar.
M
Study 2
From midnight January 18 to midnight January 22, the
relative humidity of the air was also recorded every
3 hours. The GM flux and relative humidity results are
shown in Figure 3.
39
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
4
4
Figure 3
5
GM flux (ng/m2/hr)
4
3
2
1
0
1
2
ht . n . t . n . t . n . t . n . t
ig a.m noo p.m nigh a.m noo p.m nigh a.m noo p.m nigh a.m noo p.m nigh
n
6 id 6
6 id 6
6 id 6
6 id
id 6
m
m
m
m
m
Jan. 18
Jan. 19
Jan. 20
Jan. 21
Jan. 22
26. Based on Figure 3, the GM flux and the relative humidity at 9 a.m. on January 20 were closest to which of the
following?
F. GM flux: 3.3 ng/m2/hr
Relative humidity: 51%
G. GM flux: 3.3 ng/m2/hr
Relative humidity: 72%
H. GM flux: 4.1 ng/m2/hr
Relative humidity: 51%
J. GM flux: 4.1 ng/m2/hr
Relative humidity: 72%
Figures adapted from the article doi:10.1371/journal.pone.0069342 by
J. Alexander Maxwell, Thomas M. Holsen, and Sumona Mondal. (©2013 by
Maxwell et al.).
24. Consider the results of both studies for daytime hours
and for nighttime hours. Those data show that the rate
of GM movement between the air and the snow was:
F. greater during daytime hours than during nighttime hours.
G. less during daytime hours than during nighttime
hours.
H. zero during daytime hours but greater than zero
during nighttime hours.
J. zero during both daytime hours and nighttime
hours.
27. Based on the results of Study 2, on a given day, at
which of the following times was the air above the
study area closest to saturation with water vapor?
A. Midnight
B. 6:00 a.m.
C. Noon
D. 6:00 p.m.
25. Based on Figure 3, which of the following identifies the
independent variable and a measured dependent variable in Study 2?
A. Independent: time
Dependent: sampling interval
B. Independent: sampling interval
Dependent: time
C. Independent: time
Dependent: relative humidity
D. Independent: relative humidity
Dependent: time
ACT-J01
100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
relative humidity (%)
Key
relative humidity
GM flux
28. Consider the daytime GM flux for February 22−28 in
Study 1. What mass of GM, on average, would be
moving between the air and the snow from a 10 m2
area in 1 hr?
F. 1.5 ng
G. 2.2 ng
H. 15 ng
J. 22 ng
40
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
4
4
Passage VI
Table 1 lists, for each cube, its distance from the
center of the turntable and the rotation rate at which the
cube slid off the turntable in each trial.
A student performed 2 experiments using a variablespeed turntable (a circular platform that can rotate).
Table 1
Experiment 1
In each of Trials 1−3, the student performed the following procedures:
1. Four identical 2.8 g cubes made of plastic were placed
at 2.5 cm intervals along a radius of the turntable (see
diagram).
cubes
Distance
from center
(cm)
Trial 1
Trial 2
Trial 3
2.5
103
102
103
5.0
73
73
74
7.5
60
59
59
10.0
51
52
52
Rotation rate (rpm) in:
Experiment 2
In each of Trials 4−6, the student repeated the procedures of Experiment 1, using cubes of the same size that
were made of wood, each with a mass of 1.3 g (see
Table 2).
direction
of motion
Table 2
2. The turntable was set in motion at a rotation rate of
20 revolutions per minute (rpm).
3. Every 15 s, the rotation rate was increased by 1 rpm.
4. If, during a 15 s interval, a cube moved from its position
and slid off the turntable, the current rotation rate was
recorded.
5. Once all 4 cubes had slid off the turntable, rotation was
stopped.
ACT-J01
41
Distance
from center
(cm)
Trial 4
Trial 5
Trial 6
2.5
133
132
134
5.0
95
94
95
7.5
78
76
77
10.0
60
67
67
Rotation rate (rpm) in:
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
4
4
32. The angular momentum of the turntable increased as the
rotation rate increased. The results of Experiments 1
and 2 are consistent with the hypothesis that, as the
angular momentum of the turntable increased, the:
F. cubes closer to the center of the turntable slid off
before the cubes farther from the center of the
turntable.
G. cubes farther from the center of the turntable slid
off before the cubes closer to the center of the
turntable.
H. cubes with the lesser mass slid off before the cubes
with greater mass, when compared to cubes the
same distance from the center.
J. cubes with the lesser mass slid off before the cubes
with greater mass, regardless of the distance from
the center.
29. Which of cube material and cube density, if either, were
changed between Experiment 1 and Experiment 2?
A. Cube material only
B. Cube density only
C. Both cube material and cube density
D. Neither cube material nor cube density
30. Suppose that in Experiment 1 a trial had been performed
in which a cube had been positioned 6.0 cm from the
center of the turntable. The rotation rate at which the
cube would have slid off the turntable would most
likely have been:
F. less than 51 rpm.
G. between 51 rpm and 59 rpm.
H. between 59 rpm and 74 rpm.
J. greater than 74 rpm.
33. Based on the results of Experiment 1, in Trial 3, how
many increases in the rate of rotation occurred between
20 rpm and the rate at which the cube positioned at
10 cm slid off the turntable?
A. 8
B. 13
C. 32
D. 52
34. Based on the procedures of the experiments and the
results of Trial 5, approximately how much time, in
minutes, passed between the time at which the cube
positioned at 7.5 cm slid off the turntable and the time
at which the cube positioned at 2.5 cm slid off the
turntable?
F. 14 min
G. 19 min
H. 28 min
J. 33 min
31. Consider the 3 rotation rates recorded for wood cubes
placed at each of the 4 distances. In which trial and at
which distance did the student most likely record an
incorrect rotation rate?
A. Trial 1 at a distance of 10 cm
B. Trial 4 at a distance of 10 cm
C. Trial 5 at a distance of 7.5 cm
D. Trial 6 at a distance of 2.5 cm
END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.
ACT-J01
42
Scoring Guide
English Correct Correct Reporting
Number Answer (Mark 1) Categories
Raw Scores
1
A
CSE
2
G
CSE
3
A
POW
4
G
KLA
5
C
POW
6
F
POW
7
B
CSE
8
J
CSE
9
D
POW
10
H
POW
11
B
POW
12
F
CSE
13
C
KLA
14
F
POW
15
C
POW
16
H
KLA
17
D
CSE
18
J
CSE
19
B
KLA
20
H
POW
21
C
KLA
22
F
CSE
23
D
KLA
24
F
POW
25
C
POW
26
G
POW
27
D
CSE
28
H
KLA
English Test 1 Section
29
A
CSE
English Scoring Key (for Form J01)
30
F
POW
31
C
KLA
32
H
CSE
33
B
POW
34
F
CSE
The number of questions you answered correctly
on each test section is a raw score. Because there
are many forms of the ACT, each with different
questions, the difficulty level varies between the
forms. A raw score of 35 on one form of the
mathematics test section, for example, may be
about as difficult to earn as a raw score of 37 on
another form of that test section.
Computing raw scores: To compute your raw
scores, check your answers with the scoring
information in the scoring keys and conversion
table and do the following:
1.
2.
3.
Mark a one (1) in the blank for each question
answered correctly.
Count the number of correct answers for each
of the four multiple-choice test sections.
Add up the total number correct for each
category and test section and capture it as
directed above its scoring key.
These numbers are your raw scores on the
individual multiple-choice test sections. The
highest raw score for a given test section is the
number of scored questions included on that
test section:
• English: 40
• Mathematics: 41
• Reading: 27
• Science: 34
English Reporting Categories
(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
Production of Writing (POW) =
of 15
35
D
POW
Knowledge of Language (KLA) =
of 9
36
G
CSE
Conventions of Standard English (CSE) =
37
D
CSE
38
F
CSE
39
C
KLA
40
F
CSE
Total English (POW + KLA + CSE) =
of 16
of 40
The English test contained an additional
10 non-scored questions for a total number of
50 questions.
43
Mathematics Test 2 Section
Math
Correct Correct
Number Answer (Mark 1)
Mathematics Scoring Key (for Form J01)
Mathematics Reporting Categories
(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
Preparing for Higher Math (PHM) =
(A + F + G + N + S)
A = Algebra
F = Functions
G = Geometry
N = Number & Quantity
S = Statistics & Probability
Integrating Essential Skills (IES) =
Modeling (MDL) =
of 33
of 8
of 15
Total Mathematics (PHM + IES) =
of 41
Note: Do not include MDL in Total Mathematics
raw score.
Math
Correct Correct
Number Answer (Mark 1)
Reporting
Categories
1
C
PHM-A
2
F
PHM-S, MDL
3
C
PHM-A
4
J
PHM-G, MDL
5
D
IES, MDL
6
B
PHM-G, MDL
7
H
IES, MDL
8
A
PHM-S
9
H
PHM-A
10
C
PHM-F
11
H
PHM-S
12
A
PHM-N
13
F
PHM-S
Reporting
Categories
14
C
IES, MDL
15
B
PHM-A
16
F
PHM-F
17
B
PHM-F
18
H
IES, MDL
19
C
PHM-A
20
J
PHM-F
21
D
PHM-A
22
G
IES, MDL
23
D
PHM-N, MDL
24
F
PHM-A, MDL
25
D
PHM-G
26
A
PHM-G
27
G
IES, MDL
28
A
PHM-S, MDL
29
G
PHM-F
30
B
PHM-N
31
H
PHM-G, MDL
32
A
PHM-G
33
F
PHM-N
34
D
PHM-F
35
A
IES
36
F
PHM-G, MDL
37
A
PHM-A
38
J
PHM-F, MDL
39
D
PHM-G
40
F
PHM-N
41
C
IES
The mathematics test contained an additional
4 non-scored questions for a total number of
45 questions.
44
Reading Test 3 Section
Reading Correct Correct Reporting
Number Answer (Mark 1) Categories
Reading Scoring Key (for Form J01)
1
C
KID
Reading Reporting Categories
(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
2
G
CS
3
A
KID
Key Ideas & Details (KID) =
4
J
KID
5
B
CS
6
J
CS
7
B
CS
8
F
CS
9
C
CS
Craft & Structure (CS) =
of 13
of 9
Integration of Knowledge & Ideas (IKI) =
Total Reading (KID + CS + IKI) =
of 5
of 27
10
D
CS
11
G
KID
12
C
KID
13
G
KID
14
B
KID
15
J
KID
16
B
KID
17
J
KID
18
A
KID
19
H
IKI
20
A
KID
21
J
CS
22
A
IKI
23
F
KID
24
B
CS
25
H
IKI
26
D
IKI
27
H
IKI
The reading test contained an additional
9 non-scored questions for a total number of
36 questions.
45
Science Test 4 Section
Science Correct Correct Reporting
Number Answer (Mark 1) Categories
Science Scoring Key (for Form J01)
1
A
IOD
Science Reporting Categories
(Capture raw scores/correct answers.)
2
J
EMI
3
A
EMI
Interpretation of Data (IOD) =
of 14
4
F
SIN
Scientific Investigation (SIN)=
of 8
5
B
IOD
6
H
IOD
7
A
IOD
8
J
IOD
9
B
IOD
10
F
EMI
11
C
IOD
12
G
IOD
13
D
SIN
14
H
EMI
15
B
IOD
16
J
EMI
17
C
EMI
18
G
SIN
19
C
EMI
20
J
EMI
21
B
EMI
22
F
IOD
23
D
EMI
24
F
EMI
25
C
SIN
26
G
IOD
27
A
IOD
28
J
IOD
29
C
SIN
30
H
SIN
31
B
SIN
32
G
EMI
33
C
SIN
34
F
IOD
Evaluation of Models, Inferences
& Experimental Results (EMI) =
Total Science (IOD + SIN + EMI) =
of 12
of 34
The science test contained an additional
6 non-scored questions for a total number of
40 questions.
46
Scale Scores
Calculating a Composite Score
To adjust for the small differences among
different forms of the ACT test, raw scores are
converted into scale scores. Scale scores appear
on reports sent to your school.
An ACT test generates a single Composite score
of 1–36. To compute the Composite score:
1.
When your raw scores are converted into scale
scores, it becomes possible to compare your
scores with those of examinees who took
different test forms. For example, a scale score of
26 on the mathematics test section has the same
meaning for any form of the ACT.
2.
Converting Raw Scores
to Scale Scores
3.
Each ACT test section generates a single scale
score of 1–36. Use the Conversion of Raw Scores
to Scale Scores table to convert your raw scores
to scale scores. For each test section:
1.
2.
3.
Add together the test section scale scores
from your English, mathematics, and reading
tests. Enter this sum of scores in the blank
below.
Divide the sum by 3. If the resulting number
ends in a fraction, round it to the nearest
whole number. (Round down any fraction less
than one-half, except for averages lower than
one; round up any fraction that is one-half or
more and/or less than one.)
Enter this number in the blank below. This is
your Composite score.
Composite of scale scores:
Sum of scores =
Composite score (sum ÷ 3) =
Locate your raw score, or the range of raw
scores that includes it, in the conversion table.
Locate the cell in the Scale Score column of
the row that corresponds to that raw score to
identify the scale score for that test section.
As you determine your scale scores, enter
them in the blanks below.
Note: If you left a test section other than science
completely blank and marked no responses, do
not list a scale score for that section and do not
calculate a Composite score.
Test section scale scores:
English =
Mathematics =
Reading =
Science =
47
Conversion of Raw Scores to Scale Scores (for Form J01)
Scale
Score
Raw Score
Test 1: English
Raw Score
Test 2: Mathematics
Raw Score
Test 3: Reading
Raw Score
Test 4: Science
36
35
39–40
41
26–27
32–34
37–38
39–40
25
31
34
36
38
—
30
33
—
36–37
24
29
32
35
35
23
28
31
34
34
22
27
30
—
33
—
—
29
33
31–32
21
26
28
32
30
20
25
27
31
28–29
19
24
26
30
26–27
—
23
25
29
25
18
22
24
28
23–24
17
20–21
23
26–27
22
16
19
22
25
21
15
18
21
23–24
20
14
17
20
21–22
19
13
16
19
20
18
12
15
18
19
16–17
—
13–14
17
—
14–15
11
12
16
17–18
12–13
10
11
15
16
11
—
10
14
14–15
9–10
9
9
13
13
8
8
8
12
12
6–7
7
7
11
10–11
5
5–6
6
10
8–9
4
4
5
9
6–7
—
3
4
8
—
3
—
3
7
5
—
—
—
6
4
2
2
2
5
3
—
—
—
4
2
1
1
1
3
—
—
—
—
2
1
—
—
—
1
0
0
0
0
48
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IOWA CITY, IA 52243-0168