HP VSTEP – nhà luyện VSTEP – học thật thi thật
READING
Đề 1:
Cultural diversity refers to the presence of multiple cultural groups and their practices within
a society. It encompasses various aspects such as language, traditions, beliefs, and values.
Embracing cultural diversity can lead to a more inclusive and harmonious society, where
individuals appreciate and respect differences. This diversity enriches communities by
introducing new perspectives, fostering creativity, and promoting mutual understanding.
One significant benefit of cultural diversity is the exchange of ideas and knowledge. When
people from different cultural backgrounds interact, they share their unique experiences and
insights. This exchange can lead to innovative solutions and improvements in various fields
such as science, art, and business. Moreover, cultural diversity can enhance social cohesion
by encouraging people to work together and learn from one another.
Education plays a crucial role in promoting cultural diversity. Schools and universities can
create inclusive environments by incorporating diverse perspectives into their curricula and
encouraging students to engage with different cultures. By doing so, educational institutions
help students develop a global mindset and prepare them for a multicultural world.
Additionally, exposure to diverse cultures at a young age can reduce prejudices and promote
tolerance.
In the workplace, cultural diversity can boost productivity and creativity. Diverse teams
bring together individuals with different skills, viewpoints, and problem-solving approaches.
This variety can enhance decision-making processes and lead to more effective and
innovative solutions. Companies that prioritize cultural diversity also tend to have a more
positive work environment and higher employee satisfaction.
Despite its benefits, cultural diversity also presents challenges. Misunderstandings and
conflicts can arise when people from different cultural backgrounds interact. To address these
challenges, it is essential to promote open communication and cultural competence. By
fostering an inclusive culture, societies and organizations can maximize the benefits of
cultural diversity while minimizing potential conflicts.
Question 1. The word "encompasses" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. excludes
B. includes
C. diminishes
D. separates
Question 2. The word "its" in paragraph 5 refers to:
A. cultural diversity
B. interaction
C. exchange of ideas and knowledge
D. unique experiences
Question 3. The word "enhance" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by:
A. worsen
B. enrich
C. ignore
D. simplify
Question 4.
Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
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A. Education should avoid addressing cultural diversity.
B. Education plays no role in promoting cultural diversity.
C. Schools and universities should incorporate diverse perspectives.
D. Educational institutions should focus solely on local cultures.
Question 5. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Cultural diversity always leads to misunderstandings.
B. Cultural diversity has no impact on creativity.
C. Cultural diversity can reduce prejudices and promote tolerance.
D. Cultural diversity is irrelevant in the workplace.
Question 6. In which paragraph does the writer mention the role of cultural diversity in the
workplace?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the challenges of cultural diversity?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 5
[I] In today’s interconnected world, multiculturalism has become increasingly prevalent as
people from diverse cultural backgrounds live and work together in the same communities.
[II] Multiculturalism fosters cultural diversity, promoting understanding and tolerance among
individuals with different perspectives and traditions (Banks, 2015). [III] However, while
multiculturalism brings many benefits, it also poses certain challenges that need to be
addressed to achieve a harmonious society (Parekh, 2000). [IV]
One of the key benefits of multiculturalism is the enrichment of society through diverse
perspectives. Different cultural backgrounds contribute unique ideas, art forms, and
traditions, which can lead to a more vibrant and innovative community. For instance, diverse
viewpoints in the workplace often drive creativity and lead to better problem-solving
solutions. Additionally, exposure to various cultures can increase people's awareness and
acceptance of others, thus reducing discrimination and promoting social cohesion.
However, a multicultural society is not without its challenges. Language barriers, for
example, can hinder communication and understanding among individuals.
Miscommunication due to language differences can lead to misunderstandings or even
conflicts. Furthermore, people may feel divided by their cultural identities, which can create a
sense of "us versus them." Some argue that without efforts to bridge cultural differences,
multiculturalism might unintentionally lead to social fragmentation (Modood, 2007).
To foster a successful multicultural society, it is essential to promote inclusive policies and
encourage intercultural dialogue. Schools and workplaces can play a significant role by
celebrating diversity and teaching cultural understanding. When people actively engage with
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different cultures, they are more likely to find common ground and develop mutual respect,
which helps create a stronger, more unified community (Berry, 2011).
(Adapted from Multiculturalism in Society by Banks, Parekh, and others)
Question 8. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
People today can access a wider range of cultural experiences than ever before.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 9. The phrase "social cohesion" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ____.
A. social conflict
competition
B. social unity
C. cultural diversity
D. cultural
Question 10. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ____.
A. schools
B. workplaces
C. people
D. policies
Question 11. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT an advantage of
multiculturalism?
A. Enhanced creativity
cultures
C. Encouragement of discrimination
B. Increased awareness of other
D. Better problem-solving skills
Question 12. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Multiculturalism strengthens communication and understanding without any
challenges.
B. Multiculturalism creates a divide in society, making communication difficult.
C. Multiculturalism faces language and identity barriers that may lead to social
fragmentation.
D. Multiculturalism allows seamless interaction across cultural and language differences.
Question 13. The word "fragmentation" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. unity
B. division
C. cooperation
D. similarity
Question 14. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. A multicultural society guarantees equal understanding among all cultural groups.
B. Language differences in multicultural societies can sometimes cause
misunderstandings.
C. Schools should avoid addressing cultural differences to maintain harmony.
D. Multiculturalism leads to isolation rather than promoting social connections.
Question 15. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. People engaging with different cultures can lessen cultural respect.
B. Schools and workplaces should limit exposure to diverse cultures.
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C. Experiencing various cultures increases understanding and strengthens communities.
D. Multicultural societies struggle with finding mutual understanding among people.
Question 16. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Multiculturalism eliminates all societal conflicts by promoting tolerance.
B. Without inclusive efforts, multicultural societies may experience social divides.
C. Multicultural societies lack creativity and diversity in problem-solving.
D. Multiculturalism hinders personal identity formation in most communities.
Question 17. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Multiculturalism enhances society by bringing diversity and creativity, though it requires
proactive measures to address language and identity challenges.
B. Multiculturalism complicates communication and brings little benefit to modern society.
C. Multiculturalism limits individuals' understanding of other cultures and increases social
tension.
D. A multicultural society promotes complete unity and eliminates social barriers
Đề 2
Green living refers to a lifestyle that promotes sustainability and environmental
consciousness. This way of life encourages individuals to make choices that reduce their
carbon footprint and conserve natural resources. Practices such as recycling, using renewable
energy sources, and reducing waste are fundamental aspects of green living. By adopting
these practices, individuals can contribute to the preservation of the environment and promote
a healthier planet for future generations.
One significant component of green living is the use of renewable energy sources. Solar,
wind, and hydroelectric power are examples of renewable energy that can replace fossil fuels.
Using renewable energy reduces greenhouse gas emissions and dependence on nonrenewable resources. Additionally, renewable energy sources are often more sustainable and
have less impact on the environment.
Another important aspect of green living is sustainable consumption. This involves
choosing products that are environmentally friendly and responsibly sourced. For example,
buying locally produced food reduces the carbon footprint associated with transportation.
Moreover, opting for products made from recycled materials helps conserve resources and
reduce waste.
Green living also emphasizes the importance of conserving water and energy. Simple
actions such as turning off lights when not in use, fixing leaks, and using energy-efficient
appliances can significantly reduce energy and water consumption. These practices not only
benefit the environment but also save money on utility bills.
Education and awareness play a crucial role in promoting green living. By educating
individuals about the benefits of sustainable practices and how to implement them,
communities can foster a culture of environmental responsibility. Awareness campaigns,
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workshops, and educational programs are effective ways to encourage people to adopt green
living practices.
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a practice of green living?
A. Recycling
B. Using renewable energy
C. Reducing waste
D. Driving more
Question 2. The word "renewable" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. finite
B. endless
C. temporary
D. limited
Question 3. The word " them" in paragraph 5 refers to:
A. sustainable practices
B. non-renewable resources
C. renewable energy sources
D. greenhouse gas emissions
Question 4. The word "conserve" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
A. save
B. waste
C. deplete
D. increase
Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Conserving water and energy is not important.
B. Simple actions can lead to significant reductions in consumption.
C. Turning off lights has no impact on energy consumption.
D. Fixing leaks is the only way to conserve water.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Renewable energy sources are less sustainable than fossil fuels.
B. Sustainable consumption involves choosing environmentally friendly products.
C. Green living does not emphasize water conservation.
D. Education has no role in promoting green living.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the economic benefits of green
living practices?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer explore the role of education in green living?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage about the benefits and challenges of remote work and mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions from 31 to 40.
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[I] The rise of remote work has transformed the modern workplace, offering flexibility and
a better work-life balance for employees around the world (Bloom et al., 2015). [II] This
trend, accelerated by technological advancements and the COVID-19 pandemic, allows
employees to work from home or any location with internet access (Gajendran & Harrison,
2007). [III] While remote work provides numerous benefits, it also presents challenges that
organizations and employees must address to remain productive and engaged. [IV]
One of the main benefits of remote work is increased flexibility. Employees can manage
their time more effectively, which often leads to higher job satisfaction and reduced stress.
Furthermore, remote work eliminates the need for daily commutes, saving time and reducing
transportation expenses. Many employees report feeling more empowered to control their
schedules, allowing them to better balance personal and professional responsibilities.
However, remote work also comes with significant challenges. Isolation is a common
issue, as employees miss out on face-to-face interactions and team bonding, which are
important for mental well-being and collaboration. Studies have shown that prolonged
isolation can lead to feelings of loneliness, reducing job satisfaction and affecting mental
health (Ozcelik & Barsade, 2018). Additionally, remote workers may struggle to maintain
boundaries between work and personal life, leading to overwork and burnout.
To make remote work successful, companies need to implement strategies that support
employee well-being and productivity. Providing tools for virtual collaboration, setting clear
work-life boundaries, and encouraging regular team check-ins can help mitigate the
challenges of remote work. By balancing flexibility with structured support, organizations
can create a sustainable remote work environment that benefits both employers and
employees (Larson & DeChurch, 2020).
(Adapted from Remote Work and Employee Well-being by Bloom, Ozcelik, and
others)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Remote work has become more popular due to advancements in digital communication
tools.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "work-life balance" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ____.
A. career advancement
C. equilibrium between work and personal life
B. professional success
D. job security
Question 11. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. employees
B. responsibilities
C. schedules
D. expenses
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of remote
work?
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A. Increased flexibility
C. Improved work-life balance
B. Higher transportation costs
D. Reduced stress
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Remote work challenges employees with isolation and blurred boundaries, leading to
potential overwork and mental health concerns.
B. The advantages of remote work significantly outweigh any challenges employees might
face.
C. Isolation is easily managed by virtual collaboration tools in a remote work setting.
D. Remote work eliminates work-related stress and improves collaboration.
Question 14. The word "mitigate" in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. worsen
B. intensify
C. reduce
D. acknowledge
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Remote work reduces social interactions, which can lead to feelings of loneliness.
B. Daily commuting is essential for remote workers to maintain productivity.
C. Companies are not responsible for supporting remote employees' well-being.
D. Remote work always leads to overwork and burnout.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Companies must avoid setting boundaries for employees' work-life balance.
B. Employers should support remote work by providing resources and encouraging a
structured environment.
C. Employees need minimal guidance from companies to manage remote work challenges.
D. Employers should prevent remote employees from accessing collaboration tools.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Remote work completely eliminates the need for personal life boundaries.
B. The lack of face-to-face interaction is a minor issue in remote work.
C. Effective remote work requires a combination of flexibility and organizational support.
D. Remote work only benefits employees, not organizations.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Remote work offers flexibility and convenience but can cause isolation and work-life
imbalance, which companies must address to ensure employee well-being.
B. Remote work requires employees to spend more time commuting to improve productivity.
C. Companies benefit from remote work as employees are more isolated and less engaged.
D. Remote work allows complete freedom for employees without any challenges
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Đề 3
Choosing a career path is a significant decision that can impact an individual's life in various
ways. Many factors influence this decision, including personal interests, skills, and market
demand. It's essential to find a career that aligns with one's passions and strengths to ensure
long-term satisfaction and success.
One popular career path is in the field of technology. With the rapid advancement of
technology, there is a growing demand for professionals with expertise in areas such as
software development, cybersecurity, and data analysis. These careers not only offer high
salaries but also opportunities for continuous learning and growth.
Another promising field is healthcare. Careers in healthcare, such as nursing, medical
research, and healthcare administration, provide a chance to make a meaningful impact on
people's lives. The healthcare industry is also known for its job stability and growth potential.
Education is another vital sector that offers rewarding career paths. Teachers, school
administrators, and education consultants play a crucial role in shaping the future by
educating the next generation. Despite the challenges, careers in education are fulfilling and
offer opportunities for professional development.
Entrepreneurship is an alternative career path that attracts many individuals. Starting a
business involves risks but also offers the potential for significant rewards. Entrepreneurs
have the freedom to innovate and create solutions that can benefit society.
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor influencing career choice?
A. Personal interests
B. Market demand
C. Job location
D. Skills
Question 2. The word "rapid" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. slow
B. fast
C. steady
D. brief
Question 3. The word "its" in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. career paths
B. healthcare industry
C. meaningful impacts
D. opportunities
Question 4. The word "vital" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by:
A. insignificant
B. minor
C. essential
D. optional
Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. Entrepreneurship is the only viable career path.
B. Starting a business is risk-free and always successful.
C. Entrepreneurship offers the potential for significant rewards despite the risks.
D. Entrepreneurs cannot create solutions that benefit society.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
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A. Technology careers offer limited opportunities for growth.
B. Healthcare careers lack job stability.
C. Careers in education are fulfilling and offer professional development.
D. Entrepreneurship is a risk-free career path.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the importance of continuous
learning?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer explore the role of educators?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about the impact of social media on mental health and mark
the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] In recent years, social media platforms have become a central part of daily life, offering
users countless ways to connect, share, and communicate. [II] While these platforms offer
many advantages, experts have noted rising concerns about their effects on mental health,
particularly among young people (Smith & Anderson, 2018). [III] Studies reveal that
excessive social media use can contribute to feelings of anxiety, depression, and loneliness,
despite its intention to promote connection and social interaction (Twenge & Campbell,
2019). [IV]
A primary reason for these mental health concerns is the tendency for social media users to
compare themselves to others. Platforms like Instagram and Facebook often highlight
idealized lifestyles, leading users to feel inadequate about their own lives. Additionally, the
constant notifications and messages contribute to a "fear of missing out," or FOMO, which
keeps individuals in a cycle of checking their phones, often reducing the quality of sleep and
overall well-being.
There is also a growing body of research suggesting a link between social media use and
decreased attention spans. When users frequently switch between apps and notifications,
their ability to focus for extended periods may diminish (Rosen, 2019). This shift in attention
can interfere with productivity, especially in academic and professional settings, where
sustained focus is essential.
Addressing these challenges requires a multi-faceted approach. Some mental health
professionals suggest limiting screen time and setting boundaries, such as "device-free" hours
before bedtime. Others recommend engaging in offline activities, like reading or exercising,
to reduce dependence on social media and build healthier habits. According to psychologists,
such strategies can enhance mental resilience and allow for more meaningful, balanced
relationships (Robinson & Smith, 2020).
(Adapted from Social Media and Mental Health Research by Twenge, Rosen, and colleagues)
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Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Young people are particularly affected due to their high engagement with these
platforms.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "fear of missing out" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
____.
A. longing to interact
C. worry of exclusion
B. desire to know
D. aim of satisfaction
Question 11. The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. users
B. researchers
C. notifications
D. professionals
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT an effect of social
media on mental health?
A. improved self-esteem
C. fear of missing out
B. increased anxiety
D. sleep disruption
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Social media contributes to concentration issues that affect users’ academic achievements.
B. Notifications and app-switching harm the focus needed in professional environments.
C. Frequent notifications on social media can decrease users' attention spans and productivity.
D. Distractions from social media only affect students’ performance negatively.
Question 14. The word "enhance" in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
A. diminish
B. reinforce
C. intensify
D. appreciate
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Notifications have a minor impact on users’ attention spans.
B. Offline activities can help improve mental health by limiting social media use.
C. Social media’s primary effect is fostering productivity and interaction.
D. Screen time restrictions are not necessary for mental health.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. A balanced approach is required to mitigate the harmful impacts of social media.
B. Mental health professionals are solely responsible for regulating social media use.
C. With consistent screen time, individuals can build healthier online habits.
D. Dependence on social media requires a combination of therapeutic techniques.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Social media platforms generally have a positive influence on young users.
B. Social media-related anxiety is often temporary and not very impactful.
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C. Balanced social media usage, along with offline activities, can reduce stress.
D. FOMO and lack of attention are uncommon issues among young users.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Social media, despite its benefits, presents mental health risks like anxiety and distraction,
particularly among young users, and managing screen time can mitigate these effects.
B. The use of social media helps improve relationships and communication but reduces the
attention spans of its users.
C. Social media is harmful to all users, causing loneliness and detachment, and must be
restricted in all settings.
D. Platforms like Instagram and Facebook serve as effective tools for social bonding,
minimizing the effects of anxiety and low self-esteem.
Đề 4
Graduation is a significant milestone that marks the end of an educational journey and the
beginning of a new chapter in life. As graduates step into the real world, they are faced with
the daunting task of choosing a career path. This decision is influenced by various factors,
including personal interests, skills, job market trends, and financial considerations. It is
crucial for graduates to carefully evaluate their options and make informed decisions to
ensure long-term success and satisfaction.
One important factor to consider when choosing a career is personal interests. Graduates
should identify fields that align with their passions and hobbies, as this can lead to a more
fulfilling and enjoyable career. Additionally, skills and strengths play a vital role in career
choice. Understanding one's abilities and how they can be applied in different professions can
help graduates narrow down their options and choose a career that suits them best.
Another key consideration is the job market. Researching current job market trends and
future projections can provide valuable insights into which industries are growing and which
ones may decline. This information can help graduates make strategic decisions and choose
careers with good job prospects and stability. Financial considerations, such as salary
potential and job benefits, are also important factors to take into account.
Networking and gaining practical experience through internships or part-time jobs can
significantly impact career choice. Building a professional network and gaining hands-on
experience can provide graduates with valuable connections and insights into different
industries. This can help them make more informed decisions and increase their chances of
success in their chosen career.
While the process of choosing a career can be challenging, it is important for graduates to
remain flexible and open to new opportunities. The job market is constantly evolving, and
being adaptable can help them navigate changes and seize new prospects. With careful
planning and a proactive approach, graduates can find a career that aligns with their goals and
aspirations.
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Question 1.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor influencing career choice?
A. Personal interests
B. Job location
C. Skills
D. Financial considerations
Question 2.The word "daunting" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. easy
B. intimidating
C. familiar
D. encouraging
Question 3.The word " their " in paragraph 4 refers to:
A. personal interests
B. graduates
C. job market trends
D. future projections
Question 4.The word "narrow down" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by:
A. expand
B. limit
C. ignore
D. overlook
Question 5.Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Graduates should avoid gaining practical experience.
B. Networking and internships are not valuable for career choice.
C. Practical experience and networking can significantly influence career decisions.
D. Graduates should focus solely on academic achievements.
Question 6.Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Personal interests should not influence career choice.
B. The job market is irrelevant to career decisions.
C. Financial considerations are important in choosing a career.
D. Networking has no impact on career choice.
Question 7.In which paragraph does the writer mention the importance of adaptability in
choosing a career?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 5
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the role of skills in career choice?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 4 D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage about urbanization and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Urbanization refers to the increasing population shift from rural to urban areas,
resulting in the growth of cities and metropolitan regions (Hall, 2014). [II] This phenomenon
is driven by various factors, including economic opportunities, improved living standards,
and social amenities available in urban centers. [III] As a result, urbanization significantly
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impacts both individuals and communities, leading to a range of benefits and challenges
(Davis, 2016). [IV]
One of the primary advantages of urbanization is the economic growth it fosters. Cities
often provide a plethora of job opportunities, attracting individuals seeking better
employment and higher incomes. In urban areas, businesses flourish due to increased demand
for goods and services, leading to enhanced economic productivity. Moreover, urbanization
encourages innovation and technological advancements, as a dense concentration of people
often fosters creativity and collaboration (Florida, 2017).
However, urbanization also presents significant challenges. Rapid population growth in
cities can lead to overcrowding, straining public services such as transportation, healthcare,
and education. Many urban areas struggle to provide adequate housing, resulting in the
proliferation of informal settlements and slums. According to the United Nations (2018),
nearly one billion people live in slums, lacking access to basic services. They also face
adverse living conditions. This situation exacerbates social inequality and can lead to
increased crime rates and health issues.
To address the challenges of urbanization, sustainable urban planning is essential.
Governments and urban planners must prioritize creating inclusive, well-connected
cities that provide access to essential services for all residents. Strategies such as
developing affordable housing, enhancing public transport systems, and promoting green
spaces can help improve the quality of life in urban areas while mitigating the negative
impacts of urbanization (World Bank, 2019).
(Adapted from Urbanization and Its Impact by Hall, Davis, and others)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Urban areas offer a wide array of social services that are often unavailable in rural
areas.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "plethora of job opportunities" in paragraph 2 could be best
replaced by ____.
A. limited job options
C. scarcity of jobs
B. abundant job opportunities
D. specific job roles
Question 11. The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. urban areas
B. public services
C. people
D. basic services
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of
urbanization?
A. Economic growth
C. Increased social inequality
B. Job opportunities
D. Technological advancements
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
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A. Urbanization creates a range of challenges, including overcrowding and insufficient
public services.
B. Urban areas have ample housing options for all residents.
C. Rapid urbanization has no impact on crime rates or health issues.
D. The growth of cities automatically improves living conditions for all.
Question 14. The word "proliferation" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. reduction
B. increase
C. stabilization
D. disappearance
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Urbanization exclusively benefits individuals with higher incomes.
B. All urban areas can easily provide adequate housing for their residents.
C. Sustainable urban planning is crucial to addressing the issues arising from urbanization.
D. Rapid urbanization has no effect on public services or living conditions.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Creating well-designed urban areas requires collaboration between governments and
city planners.
B. It is essential for governments to implement urban planning strategies to enhance city
life.
C. The planning of urban areas must not focus on environmental sustainability.
D. Urban planning should prioritize attracting businesses rather than improving living
standards.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Urbanization is a recent phenomenon that has minimal global impact.
B. Slums are a direct result of effective urban planning.
C. Sustainable urban planning can help mitigate some of the negative effects of
urbanization.
D. Economic opportunities in urban areas lead to an equal distribution of wealth.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Urbanization leads to job creation and economic growth, but also results in challenges
such as overcrowding and social inequality that require sustainable urban planning to
address.
B. The shift from rural to urban living has little effect on economic productivity or
community growth.
C. Urban areas are perfect solutions for all rural problems, including housing and public
services.
D. Cities provide the best quality of life without the need for any planning or development.
Đề 5
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Diên Khánh Citadel is a historical fortress located in Khánh Hòa province, Vietnam. Built in
1793 during the Tay Son Dynasty, it served as a military stronghold and administrative
center. The citadel was constructed in the Vauban style, which was characterized by starshaped fortresses with multiple layers of defense. This design made the citadel highly
resistant to attacks and allowed for efficient use of artillery.
The citadel's walls are made of stone and earth, standing approximately 3.5 meters high
and spanning a circumference of about 2.5 kilometers. There are six main gates, each
facing a different direction, symbolizing the openness and strategic importance of the
fortress. Inside the citadel, various buildings and structures once housed military officials,
soldiers, and administrative personnel.
Diên Khánh Citadel played a significant role in the military history of Vietnam. It was a
site of numerous battles and witnessed the rise and fall of several dynasties. Today, the
citadel is a popular tourist attraction, drawing visitors interested in exploring Vietnam's rich
history and architectural heritage. The well-preserved walls and gates, along with the lush
greenery surrounding the site, offer a glimpse into the past and a tranquil escape from the
bustling modern world.
Efforts to preserve and restore Diên Khánh Citadel have been ongoing. Local authorities
and historians work together to maintain the integrity of the site while promoting its
historical and cultural significance. Educational programs and guided tours help raise
awareness about the importance of preserving such historical landmarks for future
generations.
Question 1. Which dynasty built Diên Khánh Citadel?
A. Nguyen Dynasty B. Le Dynasty
C. Tay Son Dynasty D. Tran Dynasty
Question 2. The word "fortress" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. palace
B. stronghold
C. village
D. monument
Question 3. The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. Tay Son Dynasty
B. administrative center
C. Vauban style
D. Diên Khánh Citadel
Question 4. The word "efficient" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by:
A. wasteful
B. productive
C. slow
D. ineffective
Question 5.
Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. The citadel had only one gate.
B. The citadel had gates in different directions for strategic purposes.
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C. The citadel's gates were closed all the time.
D. The citadel had gates that faced the same direction.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Diên Khánh Citadel was built in the 20th century.
B. The citadel's walls are made of wood.
C. Diên Khánh Citadel is located in Khánh Hòa province.
D. The citadel never played a role in military history.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the role of local authorities and
historians in preserving the citadel?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8.
In which paragraph does the writer discuss the architectural design of the citadel?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about lifelong learning and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31
to 40.
[I] Lifelong learning is the ongoing, voluntary, and self-motivated pursuit of knowledge
for personal or professional development (Knowles, 2020). [II] This concept emphasizes
that learning does not stop after formal education, but rather continues throughout an
individual's life, adapting to changing circumstances and needs. [III] In today’s fast-paced
world, where technology and job markets evolve rapidly, lifelong learning has become
increasingly essential. [IV]
One of the primary benefits of lifelong learning is its ability to enhance employability.
Individuals who engage in continuous education are more likely to keep their skills relevant
and competitive in the job market. According to a report by the World Economic Forum
(2021), over 50% of employees will need reskilling due to technological advancements in
the coming years. Lifelong learners are better equipped to adapt to these changes, making
them more attractive candidates for employers.
Moreover, lifelong learning contributes to personal fulfillment and mental well-being.
Engaging in new learning experiences can stimulate the brain, foster creativity, and improve
cognitive function. Research indicates that individuals who pursue learning opportunities
throughout their lives tend to report higher levels of happiness and life satisfaction (Smith &
Johnson, 2019). Whether it is taking a course, learning a new language, or picking up a new
hobby, the process of acquiring knowledge can be enriching and enjoyable.
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In addition, lifelong learning promotes social engagement and community involvement.
Participating in educational programs or community workshops can foster connections with
others who share similar interests. This social aspect of learning can enhance one's sense of
belonging and support networks, which are crucial for mental health (Jones, 2022).
Overall, lifelong learning is not just an individual responsibility; it requires support from
educational institutions, employers, and communities to create an environment conducive to
continuous education. By fostering a culture of learning, society can better prepare
individuals for the challenges of the future and ensure that everyone has the opportunity to
thrive.
(Adapted from The Importance of Lifelong Learning by Knowles, Smith, Johnson, and
others)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Lifelong learning encourages individuals to embrace new skills and knowledge
throughout their lives.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "self-motivated pursuit" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by
____.
A. external pressure to learn
B. voluntary quest for knowledge
C. obligatory education
D. structured learning environment
Question 11. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ____.
A. lifelong learning
B. employability
C. personal development
D. individual responsibility
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of lifelong
learning?
A. Keeping skills relevant
B. Enhancing employability
C. Guaranteeing job security
D. Adapting to technological changes
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Lifelong learning has no impact on mental well-being.
B. Engaging in learning activities leads to higher happiness and creativity.
C. Learning should only occur in formal educational settings.
D. Personal fulfillment is unrelated to lifelong learning.
Question 14. The word "enriching" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. dull
B. rewarding
C. tiring
D. irrelevant
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
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A. Lifelong learning primarily benefits young individuals.
B. Social engagement is not related to educational programs.
C. Continuous education can improve one's mental health and sense of belonging.
D. Educational institutions have no role in promoting lifelong learning.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Individuals should pursue lifelong learning independently without any external help.
B. Communities and institutions play a crucial role in supporting lifelong learning
initiatives.
C. Lifelong learning is not important for personal or professional growth.
D. Individuals alone are responsible for their educational journeys throughout life.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Lifelong learning is an unnecessary practice in today’s job market.
B. Continuous education can lead to increased job opportunities and career advancements.
C. People who do not engage in lifelong learning are likely to be happier.
D. Technology has no influence on the necessity for lifelong learning.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Lifelong learning enhances personal and professional development, requiring
collaboration from individuals and institutions to foster a culture of continuous education.
B. Learning is only necessary during formal education and has little relevance afterward.
C. The pursuit of knowledge is a one-time event that ends with graduation.
D. Lifelong learning is solely about job training and skill enhancement.
Đề 6
Wildlife conservation is a crucial endeavor that aims to protect animal species and their
habitats. This effort is essential for maintaining biodiversity and ensuring the health of our
ecosystems. Human activities such as deforestation, pollution, and climate change are some
of the primary threats to wildlife. Conservation initiatives strive to mitigate these impacts
through various strategies.
One significant aspect of wildlife conservation is the establishment of protected areas.
National parks, wildlife reserves, and marine protected areas are created to provide safe
havens for endangered species. These areas not only protect wildlife but also offer
opportunities for scientific research and eco-tourism, which can benefit local economies.
Another important approach is the reintroduction of species into their natural habitats. This
method has been successful in bringing several species back from the brink of extinction.
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Conservationists carefully monitor and support these reintroduced populations to ensure their
survival.
Education and awareness campaigns play a pivotal role in wildlife conservation as well.
By educating the public about the importance of biodiversity and the threats facing wildlife,
these campaigns foster a sense of responsibility and encourage community involvement in
conservation efforts.
Technological advancements are also aiding conservation efforts. Innovations such as
satellite tracking, DNA analysis, and drone surveillance help researchers gather critical data
and monitor wildlife populations more effectively. These tools enable more informed
decision-making and efficient conservation strategies.
Question 1.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a threat to wildlife?
A. Deforestation
B. Pollution
C. Climate change
D. Urbanization
Question 2.The word "establishment" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. creation
B. destruction
C. preservation
D. alteration
Question 3.The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. natural habitats
B. conservationists
C. reintroduced populations
D. species
Question 4.The word "pivotal" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by:
A. trivial
B. crucial
C. secondary
D. irrelevant
Question 5.Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. Technological advancements hinder conservation efforts.
B. There is no alternative to technology in saving wildlife.
C. Technology could be another way to aid conservation efforts.
D. Technology should be the only focus in wildlife conservation.
Question 6.Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Only national parks can protect endangered species.
B. Reintroduction of species has never been successful.
C. Education campaigns foster community involvement.
D. Technological advancements are irrelevant to conservation.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention a present causal relationship?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer explore modern methods for maintaining
endangered species?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage about climate change and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Climate change is one of the most pressing challenges of our time, affecting
ecosystems, biodiversity, and human communities across the globe. [II] Scientists warn that
unless greenhouse gas emissions are significantly reduced, the Earth's climate may
experience irreversible damage. [III] The consequences of climate change are widespread,
impacting weather patterns, agricultural productivity, and health conditions worldwide. [IV]
One of the primary causes of climate change is the burning of fossil fuels, such as coal,
oil, and gas, which releases large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO₂) into the atmosphere. This
gas traps heat, leading to a rise in global temperatures, a phenomenon known as global
warming. Another major contributor is deforestation, as trees play a critical role in absorbing
CO₂. When forests are destroyed, that CO₂ is released, adding to the atmosphere's greenhouse
effect.
The impacts of climate change are already evident in various forms. Rising sea levels are
causing coastal erosion and increasing the frequency of flooding, which endangers millions
living in low-lying areas. Additionally, extreme weather events like hurricanes, droughts, and
heatwaves are becoming more common and severe. These events not only damage
infrastructure but also pose serious risks to human health and food security.
Addressing climate change requires a collaborative, global response. Many governments
have joined international agreements, like the Paris Agreement, aiming to limit global
temperature rise and reduce emissions. However, it is crucial for individuals and businesses
to also play a part by reducing their carbon footprint through actions such as conserving
energy, reducing waste, and supporting renewable energy sources.
(Adapted from “Climate and Human Impact”)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Rapid industrial development and population growth have accelerated the
accumulation of greenhouse gases.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "traps heat" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ____.
A. absorbs energy
C. reduces temperature
B. lets out warmth
D. blocks sunlight
Question 11. The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to ____.
A. deforestation
C. fossil fuel combustion
B. individuals and businesses
D. greenhouse gases
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Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a cause of climate
change?
A. burning fossil fuels
C. deforestation
B. rising sea levels
D. increased CO₂ levels
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. The rising sea levels threaten coastlines and biodiversity.
B. Climate change is creating both environmental and human health challenges.
C. Increased CO₂ levels lead to more frequent weather disasters.
D. Global warming affects agriculture, health, and living conditions.
Question 14. The word "evident" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. essential
B. Unforgettable
C. noticeable
D. severe
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Industrialization has decreased the rate of greenhouse gas emissions.
B. Only governments can effectively reduce climate change effects.
C. Extreme weather events are becoming more frequent due to climate change.
D. Climate change impacts are limited to environmental issues.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. An effective solution to climate change must involve collective efforts.
B. Limiting global warming will require individuals to take immediate action.
C. All people should participate in international climate agreements.
D. Each country must independently work on climate change solutions.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Deforestation may be more impactful than fossil fuels in causing climate change.
B. Without significant reductions in emissions, climate change consequences could
become irreversible.
C. Coastal erosion primarily affects rural areas rather than urban areas.
D. Fossil fuel use is the sole reason for the current global warming trend.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. The increase in greenhouse gases, driven by industrial growth, is causing significant
environmental challenges, calling for a cooperative global response.
B. Fossil fuels and deforestation are key causes of climate change, which governments can
only address through international agreements.
C. The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming by encouraging businesses to switch
to renewable energy sources.
D. Climate change impacts are mostly related to the natural environment, with minimal
effects on human communities and health.
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Đề 7
Urbanization refers to the increasing number of people that live in urban areas. It
predominantly results from the movement of people from rural to urban areas, driven by the
search for better employment opportunities, education, and living conditions. As cities grow,
they often face challenges related to infrastructure, housing, and social services. This rapid
growth can lead to overcrowded cities, traffic congestion, and strain on public services.
One of the most notable effects of urbanization is the change in land use. As urban areas
expand, agricultural land and natural habitats are often converted into residential and
industrial areas. This can lead to a decrease in local biodiversity and affect ecosystems.
Additionally, urbanization contributes to environmental issues such as pollution and
increased carbon emissions due to higher energy consumption.
Urbanization also has significant social and economic impacts. On one hand, cities can
offer more job opportunities, higher salaries, and improved access to education and
healthcare. On the other hand, the rapid influx of people can lead to inadequate housing and
increased cost of living. This disparity often results in the growth of informal settlements and
slums, where living conditions are poor, and residents lack access to basic services.
Governments and urban planners play a crucial role in managing urbanization effectively.
By implementing sustainable development policies and investing in infrastructure, they can
mitigate some of the negative impacts of urbanization. Strategies such as developing public
transportation, creating green spaces, and ensuring affordable housing are essential for
creating livable and sustainable cities.
Technology and innovation also contribute to addressing the challenges of urbanization.
Smart city initiatives, for example, leverage technology to improve the efficiency of urban
services, enhance the quality of life for residents, and reduce environmental impact. These
advancements can help cities become more resilient and adaptable to the needs of their
growing populations.
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor driving people to urban
areas?
A. Better employment opportunities
B. Higher crime rates
C. Improved living conditions
D. Access to education
Question 2. The word "converted" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. preserved
B. destroyed
C. transformed
D. maintained
Question 3. The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. city-dwellers
B. policies
C. settlements
D. governments and urban planners
Question 4. The word "disparity" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
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A. equality
B. similarity
C. gap
D. improvement
Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. Technology is the only solution to urbanization challenges.
B. Innovations can help address the challenges posed by urbanization.
C. Urbanization can be solved without technological advancements.
D. Technology has no role in managing urbanization.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Urbanization does not affect land use.
B. Cities never face challenges due to urbanization.
C. Urbanization can lead to the growth of informal settlements.
D. Urbanization solely benefits the economy.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the social and economic impacts of
urbanization?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer explore technological solutions for
urbanization?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage about the role of technology in education and mark the letter
A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following
questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Technology has transformed education in numerous ways, enhancing accessibility,
interactivity, and the quality of educational resources. [II] Digital tools and online platforms
enable students to access a wealth of information from anywhere in the world, breaking
down traditional barriers to learning (Merrill & Smith, 2020). [III] Despite its benefits, the
integration of technology in education also brings challenges, such as maintaining student
engagement and managing screen time effectively (Wang & Liu, 2021). [IV]
One major advantage of technology in education is its ability to facilitate personalized
learning. Unlike conventional classroom settings, digital platforms can adapt content to meet
the individual needs and learning pace of each student. For example, many educational apps
use algorithms to assess a student's progress and adjust activities accordingly, promoting a
tailored approach to education. This allows students to learn in a way that best suits their
unique strengths and weaknesses.
However, the increased use of technology in the classroom can have downsides. Excessive
screen time is linked to a range of issues, including eye strain, reduced physical activity, and
decreased social interaction. In addition, some students may feel isolated as they interact with
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screens rather than with peers, limiting opportunities for collaboration and teamwork (Rosen
& Carrier, 2019).
To balance these pros and cons, educators are encouraged to blend technology with
traditional teaching methods. This approach, often referred to as "blended learning," enables
students to benefit from digital tools while still engaging in face-to-face interactions.
According to experts, combining online resources with in-person activities can enhance
learning outcomes, promoting both academic success and social skills (Garrison & Vaughan,
2018).
(Adapted from Educational Technology and Pedagogy by Merrill, Rosen, and colleagues)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Teachers now utilize digital resources like videos and interactive simulations to enrich
lessons.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "breaking down traditional barriers" in paragraph 1 could be best
replaced by ____.
A. opening new perspectives
C. creating innovative methods
B. removing old obstacles
D. focusing on accessibility
Question 11. The word "its" in paragraph 1 refers to ____.
A. information
B. technology
C. education
D. resources
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of
personalized learning?
A. Customizable learning pace
C. Enhanced teamwork
B. Activities adjusted by algorithms
D. Focus on individual needs
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Excessive technology use in education may lead to isolation and reduced social skills.
B. Screen time in education can harm physical health and social interactions.
C. Technology reduces students' opportunities for collaboration and physical activity.
D. Over-reliance on technology negatively impacts students' overall health.
Question 14. The word "blend" in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. replace
B. separate
C. combine
D. emphasize
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Technology should fully replace traditional teaching methods to improve learning.
B. Blended learning enhances both educational outcomes and social skills.
C. Screen time has only positive effects on students' learning experience.
D. Digital tools are primarily used for high-level education only.
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Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Combining traditional and digital methods allows for improved academic performance
and social interaction.
B. Blended learning only succeeds if digital tools are minimized in classrooms.
C. Schools must completely integrate digital tools into lessons to enhance learning.
D. Focusing on digital resources is essential for successful academic outcomes.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Technology may eventually eliminate the need for in-person learning.
B. Students prefer screen-based learning over traditional classroom interactions.
C. Digital resources offer accessibility benefits but should be used in moderation.
D. Blended learning has little effect on students' social development.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. While digital tools revolutionize education through accessible information and
personalization, balancing these with traditional methods can maximize learning and
social benefits.
B. Technology fully transforms education by replacing conventional methods, eliminating
social skills concerns, and enabling personalized learning.
C. Screen time limitations in classrooms are necessary to prevent physical and social
issues, despite the personalization benefits of digital resources.
D. Personalized learning and blended learning are essential for achieving academic
success, with technology playing a minor role in educational reform.
Đề 8
Artificial intelligence (AI) refers to the simulation of human intelligence in machines that are
programmed to think and learn like humans. AI has become an integral part of modern
technology, impacting various sectors such as healthcare, finance, education, and
transportation. By analyzing vast amounts of data, AI systems can identify patterns, make
decisions, and even predict future outcomes. These capabilities make AI a powerful tool for
solving complex problems and improving efficiency.
One of the most significant applications of AI is in healthcare. AI algorithms can analyze
medical data to assist in diagnosing diseases, recommending treatments, and predicting
patient outcomes. This can lead to more accurate diagnoses and personalized treatment plans,
ultimately improving patient care. Additionally, AI-powered robots can perform surgeries
with precision and consistency, reducing the risk of human error.
In the financial sector, AI is used for fraud detection, risk management, and algorithmic
trading. By analyzing transaction patterns and identifying anomalies, AI systems can detect
fraudulent activities in real-time, protecting both consumers and financial institutions. AI also
enables more effective risk management by predicting market trends and potential risks,
allowing businesses to make informed decisions.
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Education is another area where AI is making a significant impact. AI-powered
educational tools can provide personalized learning experiences, adapting to the needs and
learning styles of individual students. This can enhance student engagement and improve
learning outcomes. Moreover, AI can automate administrative tasks, allowing educators to
focus more on teaching and less on paperwork.
Despite its many benefits, AI also poses several challenges. Ethical concerns arise
regarding data privacy, algorithmic bias, and the potential for job displacement. As AI
systems become more prevalent, it is crucial to address these issues and ensure that AI is
developed and implemented responsibly.
Question 1.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a sector impacted by AI?
A. Healthcare
B. Finance
C. Education
D. Agriculture
Question 2. The word "integral" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. unnecessary
B. essential
C. optional
D. separate
Question 3. The word where" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. medical data
B. education
C. healthcare
D. patient care
Question 4. The word "anomalies" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
A. errors
B. patterns
C. transactions
D. uncertainties
Question 5.Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. AI in education is limited to administrative tasks.
B. AI tools provide the same learning experience for all students.
C. Personalized learning with AI adapts to individual student needs.
D. AI in education does not affect student engagement.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. AI-powered robots are not used in surgeries.
B. AI can help detect fraudulent activities in real-time.
C. AI has no impact on risk management in finance.
D. AI is not beneficial in the education sector.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention ethical concerns related to AI?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 5
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer explore the impact of AI on healthcare?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Read the following passage about the benefits and limitations of renewable energy and
mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Renewable energy sources, such as solar, wind, and hydroelectric power, have gained
global popularity as a sustainable alternative to fossil fuels. [II] Unlike coal and oil,
renewable energy generates electricity without releasing harmful emissions, making it a
cleaner option for the environment (Jacobson et al., 2017). [III] However, despite the
advantages of renewable energy, there are still notable challenges that need to be addressed
for it to fully replace traditional energy sources (Ellabban et al., 2014). [IV]
One major advantage of renewable energy is its sustainability. Renewable resources,
unlike fossil fuels, are naturally replenished and do not deplete over time. For instance, solar
power harnesses energy from sunlight, which is virtually endless. In addition, renewable
energy contributes to reducing greenhouse gas emissions, which helps combat climate
change. Many countries are increasingly investing in renewable technologies to decrease their
carbon footprint and meet international climate goals.
However, renewable energy has certain limitations. One significant issue is its intermittent
nature; for example, solar and wind power depend on weather conditions, making it difficult
to generate a consistent power supply. This variability can disrupt the energy grid, which
relies on a steady supply of electricity to meet demand. Another challenge is the high initial
cost of setting up renewable energy facilities. Although prices have decreased in recent years,
installing solar panels or wind turbines still requires substantial upfront investment (IRENA,
2019).
Despite these challenges, advancements in technology are gradually making renewable
energy more efficient and accessible. Improved energy storage systems, such as batteries,
allow excess power generated during favorable conditions to be stored and used later,
ensuring a more reliable energy supply. As technology and infrastructure improve, renewable
energy may eventually
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
These sources of energy have numerous environmental and economic benefits.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "virtually endless" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ____.
A. limited
B. infinite
C. renewable
D. temporary
Question 11. The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to ____.
A. fossil fuels
B. the environment
C. renewable energy
D. electricity
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT an advantage of
renewable energy?
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A. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions
fuels
C. Maintaining a steady energy supply
goals
B. Decreasing dependency on fossil
D. Contributing to climate change
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Renewable energy can fully replace fossil fuels without any major challenges.
B. Renewable energy is limited by inconsistent supply and high installation costs.
C. Renewable energy is currently too expensive to implement globally.
D. Renewable energy sources are reliable and cost-effective for all countries.
Question 14. The word "intermittent" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. irregular
B. constant
C. continuous
D. beneficial
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Renewable energy produces harmful emissions like fossil fuels.
B. Solar power is a reliable energy source regardless of weather conditions.
C. Renewable energy is increasingly viable thanks to technological advances.
D. Fossil fuels are a more sustainable energy source than renewable energy.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Technology makes it harder to store energy produced during unfavorable conditions.
B. Technological improvements enhance the reliability and accessibility of renewable
energy.
C. Technological advancements increase the cost and complexity of renewable energy.
D. Technology is not crucial for the global adoption of renewable energy.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Fossil fuels will remain the primary energy source indefinitely.
B. Renewable energy is unlikely to become widely adopted due to its limitations.
C. With better storage solutions, renewable energy could become a consistent power
source.
D. Renewable energy is currently more economical than fossil fuels for all applications.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Renewable energy is a sustainable alternative to fossil fuels with benefits for the
environment, though it faces challenges like inconsistency and setup costs.
B. Renewable energy is replacing fossil fuels rapidly with no significant challenges.
C. Renewable energy sources are only useful in certain climates where resources are
available.
D. The environmental impact of renewable energy is negligible, and it is readily available.
Đề 9
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Traveling and exploring new places is an exciting way to experience different cultures and
expand one’s horizons. Whether it’s a short trip to a neighboring town or a long journey to a
foreign country, stepping out into the world offers numerous benefits. It allows individuals to
gain new perspectives, meet diverse people, and create lasting memories. Additionally,
traveling can enhance personal growth and provide a sense of adventure and fulfillment.
One of the key advantages of traveling is the opportunity to learn about different cultures.
By immersing oneself in a new environment, travelers can gain a deeper understanding of
local customs, traditions, and lifestyles. This cultural exchange fosters mutual respect and
appreciation among people from different backgrounds. Moreover, experiencing different
cultures can challenge preconceptions and broaden one’s worldview.
Traveling also promotes personal development. Facing unfamiliar situations and
overcoming challenges can boost confidence and adaptability. Travelers often find
themselves navigating new cities, trying unfamiliar foods, and communicating in foreign
languages. These experiences can enhance problem-solving skills and resilience.
Furthermore, the sense of accomplishment from successfully managing a trip can lead to
increased self-esteem and a greater sense of independence.
Another benefit of traveling is the chance to disconnect from the routine of everyday life.
Exploring new places provides a break from the usual responsibilities and stresses. This can
be refreshing and rejuvenating, allowing individuals to return home with a renewed sense of
energy and perspective. Travel can also foster creativity by exposing individuals to new
sights, sounds, and ideas.
Despite its benefits, traveling can also present challenges. Planning a trip requires time
and effort, and unexpected situations can arise. However, these challenges can be viewed as
opportunities for growth and learning. With careful planning and a positive mindset, the
rewards of traveling far outweigh the difficulties.
Question 1.Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of traveling?
A. Gaining new perspectives
B. Meeting diverse people
C. Learning to drive
D. Enhancing personal growth
Question 2. The word "immersing" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. avoiding
B. submerging
C. engaging
D. detaching
Question 3. The word "themselves" in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. traveling
B. cities
C. cultures
D. travelers
Question 4. The word "navigating" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
A. exploring
B. constructing
C. ignoring
D. settling
Question 5.
Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
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A. Traveling always causes stress and fatigue.
B. Exploring new places helps one feel refreshed.
C. Travel eliminates all responsibilities.
D. Travel makes daily life monotonous.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Traveling never presents any challenges.
B. Planning a trip is always easy and quick.
C. Travel fosters creativity by exposing individuals to new experiences.
D. Travelers should avoid unfamiliar foods and situations.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the role of cultural exchange in
fostering mutual respect?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the personal development benefits of
traveling?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about green living and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Green living, often referred to as sustainable living, encourages individuals to adopt
environmentally friendly practices in their daily lives. [II] This lifestyle includes reducing
waste, conserving natural resources, and promoting eco-friendly habits, which collectively
help to minimize the negative impact on the environment (Davies & Mulligan, 2017). [III]
Although green living requires effort and adjustment, its benefits for the planet and future
generations are substantial. [IV]
One of the fundamental aspects of green living is waste reduction. This can be achieved
through practices like recycling, composting, and reducing single-use plastics. According to a
report by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), recycling and composting can
significantly decrease the amount of waste sent to landfills, which helps reduce greenhouse
gas emissions and pollution (EPA, 2021). Additionally, adopting reusable items such as water
bottles and shopping bags minimizes reliance on plastic, which is crucial for protecting
ecosystems and wildlife.
Another key component of green living is energy conservation. Simple changes, like
switching to LED light bulbs and using public transportation, can reduce an individual's
carbon footprint. A study by the International Energy Agency (IEA) shows that energy
efficiency improvements, if widely implemented, could decrease global energy demand by up
to 40% by 2050 (IEA, 2019). By conserving energy, individuals not only lower their utility
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bills but also contribute to the reduction of carbon emissions, which is essential for
mitigating climate change.
Green living also involves making conscious choices about the products we consume. This
includes opting for sustainably sourced goods, supporting local businesses, and choosing
organic produce. Sustainable agriculture practices reduce the need for chemical pesticides
and fertilizers, which can harm both the soil and water sources (Smith & Taylor, 2020). By
making informed purchases, consumers can support eco-friendly industries and help create a
demand for greener alternatives.
(Adapted from The Impact of Green Living by Davies, Mulligan, and others)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Green living practices are gaining popularity as people become more aware of
environmental issues.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "carbon footprint" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ____.
A. environmental awareness
C. personal waste
B. carbon emissions
D. air quality
Question 11. The word "their" in paragraph 3 refers to ____.
A. individuals
B. LED light bulbs C. utility bills
D. carbon emissions
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a way to reduce
waste?
A. Using compost bins
C. Adopting single-use items
B. Recycling plastic
D. Using reusable shopping bags
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Green living promotes increased energy usage through renewable sources.
B. Energy conservation is vital for green living, helping to reduce carbon emissions and
mitigate climate change.
C. Individuals can conserve energy by relying on single-use plastics.
D. Switching to LED bulbs and increasing personal car use promotes energy conservation.
Question 14. The word "mitigating" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. worsening
B. reducing
C. increasing
D. ignoring
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Single-use plastics are preferred for green living practices.
B. Supporting local businesses can be a part of sustainable consumption.
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C. Recycling increases the amount of waste in landfills.
D. Green living does not impact the carbon footprint.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Environmentally conscious choices harm the soil and water sources.
B. Choosing sustainable products can support eco-friendly industries and reduce pollution.
C. Sustainable agriculture increases the need for chemical fertilizers.
D. Local businesses rarely provide organic produce.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Green living requires only minor adjustments with no significant impact on daily
habits.
B. Energy conservation can significantly impact global carbon emissions.
C. Using single-use plastics is essential for a sustainable lifestyle.
D. Chemical pesticides are encouraged in sustainable agriculture practices.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Green living focuses solely on recycling and energy conservation to reduce waste.
B. Adopting a green lifestyle encourages waste reduction, energy conservation, and
conscious consumption, which collectively help protect the environment.
C. Green living relies on individuals buying only organic produce from large corporations.
D. A sustainable lifestyle requires no effort but provides minor environmental benefits.
Đề 10
Wildlife conservation is a crucial endeavor that aims to protect animal species and their
habitats. This effort is essential for maintaining biodiversity and ensuring the health of our
ecosystems. Human activities such as deforestation, pollution, and climate change are some
of the primary threats to wildlife. Conservation initiatives strive to mitigate these impacts
through various strategies.
One significant aspect of wildlife conservation is the establishment of protected areas.
National parks, wildlife reserves, and marine protected areas are created to provide safe
havens for endangered species. These areas not only protect wildlife but also offer
opportunities for scientific research and eco-tourism, which can benefit local economies.
Another important approach is the reintroduction of species into their natural habitats. This
method has been successful in bringing several species back from the brink of extinction.
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Conservationists carefully monitor and support these reintroduced populations to ensure their
survival.
Education and awareness campaigns play a pivotal role in wildlife conservation as well.
By educating the public about the importance of biodiversity and the threats facing wildlife,
these campaigns foster a sense of responsibility and encourage community involvement in
conservation efforts.
Technological advancements are also aiding conservation efforts. Innovations such as
satellite tracking, DNA analysis, and drone surveillance help researchers gather critical data
and monitor wildlife populations more effectively. These tools enable more informed
decision-making and efficient conservation strategies.
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a threat to wildlife?
A. Deforestation
C. Climate change
B. Pollution
D. Urbanization
Question 2. The word "establishment" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. creation
B. destruction
C. preservation
D. alteration
Question 3. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. natural habitats
B. reintroduced populations
C. conservationists
D. species
Question 4. The word "pivotal" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by:
A. trivial
B. crucial
C. secondary
D. irrelevant
Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. Technological advancements hinder conservation efforts.
B. There is no alternative to technology in saving wildlife.
C. Technology could be another way to aid conservation efforts.
D. Technology should be the only focus in wildlife conservation.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Only national parks can protect endangered species.
B. Reintroduction of species has never been successful.
C. Education campaigns foster community involvement.
D. Technological advancements are irrelevant to conservation.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention a present causal relationship?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer explore modern methods for maintaining
endangered species?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage about wildlife conservation and mark the letter A, B, C, or D
on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31
to 40.
[I] Wildlife conservation refers to the efforts made to protect and preserve wild animal
species and their habitats. [II] It is crucial for maintaining biodiversity, which plays a vital
role in ecosystem stability and health (Smith & Jones, 2018). [III] Unfortunately, many
species are threatened due to habitat destruction, poaching, and climate change, making
conservation efforts more urgent than ever. [IV]
One of the primary reasons for wildlife conservation is the preservation of biodiversity. A
diverse range of species contributes to ecosystem services, such as pollination, water
purification, and climate regulation. The loss of a single species can disrupt these services
and lead to ecological imbalances. For instance, the decline of pollinators like bees has
serious implications for food production and agriculture (Global Biodiversity Outlook, 2020).
Moreover, wildlife conservation has significant economic benefits. Many communities
depend on ecotourism, which relies on healthy wildlife populations and intact ecosystems.
According to a study by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF), ecotourism can generate billions of
dollars in revenue, providing jobs and supporting local economies (WWF, 2021). Protecting
wildlife not only safeguards natural resources but also creates sustainable livelihoods for
local populations.
However, effective wildlife conservation requires a collaborative approach. Governments,
non-governmental organizations, and local communities must work together to implement
policies and strategies that promote conservation efforts. Community-based conservation
initiatives, where local people actively participate in protecting their natural resources, have
shown promising results. These initiatives empower communities and ensure that
conservation efforts are tailored to local needs and contexts (Bennett & Dearden, 2014).
(Adapted from Wildlife Conservation and Its Importance by Smith, Jones, and
others)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Conservation measures are essential for the survival of many endangered species.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "ecosystem services" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ____.
A. benefits provided by the economy
B. functions that ecosystems perform for humanity
C. services offered by wildlife organizations
D. economic services provided by local communities
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Question 11. The word "their" in paragraph 4 refers to ____.
A. ecosystem stability
C. local people
B. biodiversity
D. ecological imbalance
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a reason for wildlife
conservation?
A. To maintain biodiversity
C. To promote industrial development
B. To ensure food production
D. To support ecosystem stability
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Ecotourism negatively affects local economies.
B. Wildlife conservation primarily benefits large corporations.
C. Protecting wildlife can create economic opportunities for local communities.
D. Wildlife conservation is not economically beneficial.
Question 14. The word "collaborative" in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. independent
B. cooperative
C. competitive
D. isolated
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Only governments are responsible for wildlife conservation.
B. Ecotourism has no connection to wildlife conservation efforts.
C. Community involvement is essential for successful conservation initiatives.
D. Wildlife conservation is solely focused on endangered species.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Collaborative efforts lead to better conservation policies.
B. Local communities must manage their resources without external help.
C. Wildlife conservation can only succeed with the involvement of different groups.
D. Conservation initiatives do not require local participation.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Wildlife conservation is primarily a global issue that does not affect local communities.
B. The economic benefits of conservation are negligible compared to its ecological impact.
C. Without wildlife conservation, both biodiversity and local economies may suffer.
D. Habitat destruction has little impact on wildlife populations.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Wildlife conservation is essential for protecting species and habitats, maintaining
biodiversity, and providing economic benefits through ecotourism, requiring collaborative
efforts for effectiveness.
B. The primary focus of wildlife conservation is on endangered species and their immediate
habitats.
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C. Wildlife conservation is not necessary as most species are thriving in their environments.
D. Ecotourism is the only reason for wildlife conservation efforts globally.
Đề 11
Urbanization refers to the process through which cities grow and expand as more
people move from rural to urban areas. This phenomenon is driven by various factors,
including economic opportunities, educational facilities, and healthcare services, which often
attract individuals seeking better living standards. As cities become more populated, they
undergo significant transformations in infrastructure, including housing, transportation, and
public services.
The rise in urban populations can lead to both positive and negative outcomes. On the
positive side, urbanization can stimulate economic development, innovation, and cultural
exchange. It often brings improvements in living standards and provides better access to
services and amenities. However, rapid urban growth can also strain existing infrastructure,
leading to issues such as overcrowding, pollution, and inadequate public services. These
challenges can impact the quality of life in urban areas and require careful planning and
management.
Effective urban planning is crucial to mitigating the negative effects of
urbanization. This includes creating sustainable infrastructure, managing resources
efficiently, and ensuring equitable access to services for all residents. By addressing these
challenges, cities can harness the benefits of urbanization while improving the overall quality
of urban life.
[Adapted from United Nations. "World Urbanization Prospects: The 2018 Revision." United
Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs, Population Division, 2019]
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor driving urbanization?
A. Economic opportunities
B. Healthcare services
C. Climate change
D. Educational facilities
Question 2: The word stimulate in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. encourage
B. promote
C. hinder
D. accelerate
Question 3: The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. rural areas
B. cities
C. economic opportunities D. suburban
Question 4: The word mitigating in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ______.
A. worsening
B. addressing
C. preventing
D. reducing
Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Good urban planning is essential to address urbanization’s adverse effects.
B. Proper urban planning can help reduce the negative impacts of urban growth.
C. Mitigating urbanization’s drawbacks requires effective urban planning.
D. Managing urbanization’s negative consequences relies on strategic urban planning.
Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Urbanization always improves living standards.
B. Rapid urbanization can lead to overcrowding and pollution.
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C. Economic development is rarely associated with urbanization.
D. Urban growth only brings negative outcomes.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention the benefits of urbanization?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which passage does the author mention that durable infrastructure helps
manage the impacts of urbanization?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Gender Equality Today:
Gender equality is a fundamental human right and a critical foundation for a peaceful,
prosperous, and sustainable world. [I] Despite significant progress in recent years, gender
inequality remains a pressing issue across the globe. [II] Women continue to be
underrepresented in leadership positions and face numerous barriers in various sectors,
including education, healthcare, and the workforce. [III] According to the World Economic
Forum's Global Gender Gap Report 2021, it will take an estimated 135.6 years to close the
gender gap globally if current trends continue. [IV]
In many countries, women are still subjected to discrimination and violence. Genderbased violence, including domestic violence and sexual harassment, affects millions of
women worldwide and hinders their ability to participate fully in society. Additionally,
cultural and societal norms often perpetuate stereotypes that limit women's roles and
opportunities.
However, there are positive signs of change. Movements advocating for gender
equality have gained momentum, and more individuals are recognizing the importance of
women's rights. Governments and organizations are implementing policies to promote equal
opportunities and protect against discrimination. Education plays a vital role in this
transformation, as empowering girls through education can lead to improved economic
outcomes and healthier communities.
Achieving gender equality is not only a matter of fairness; it is essential for the
advancement of society as a whole. By ensuring equal rights and opportunities for all
genders, we can create a more just and equitable world.
[Adapted United Nations. "Gender Equality." UN Women. 2021]
Question 9: Which position in paragraph 1 is the most appropriate for the sentence:
"Ensuring that women and men have equal opportunities is essential for the development of
society."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The phrase "barriers" in paragraph 1 can be replaced with which word?
A. Challenges
B. Benefits
C. Rights
D. Laws
Question 11: Whose is the word “their” in paragraph 2 mentioned:
A. Men
B. Governments
C. Women
D. Norms
Question 12: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a reason preventing
women from fully participating in society?
A. Violence
B. Cultural norms C. Equal opportunities D. Stereotypes
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Question 13: What is the best summary of paragraph 3?
A. Women’s rights are gaining more recognition.
B. Violence against women is
decreasing rapidly.
C. Gender equality movements are ineffective.
D. Discrimination is no longer an issue
for women.
Question 14: The word "momentum" in paragraph 3 is opposite in meaning to which word?
A. Increase
B. Decline
C. Growth
D. Movement
Question 15: Which statement is true according to the reading?
A. Education plays a key role in promoting gender equality.
B. Gender inequality is no longer a major issue globally.
C. Women's leadership roles are now equal to men's.
D. Gender-based violence has decreased worldwide.
Question 16: Which statement best expresses the meaning of the underlined sentence in
paragraph 4?
A. Gender equality can be achieved quickly through government policies.
B. Gender equality is essential for ensuring that women have more rights than men.
C. Achieving gender equality is primarily about securing jobs for women.
D. Gender equality is necessary for the advancement of society as a whole.
Question 17: What can be inferred from the reading?
A. Gender equality movements have completely eliminated discrimination.
B. It will take less than 50 years to close the gender gap.
C. Cultural norms still play a role in limiting women’s opportunities.
D. Education alone is enough to solve gender inequality issues.
Question 18: What is the best summary of the entire reading?
A. Gender equality is no longer an issue in most parts of the world.
B. Progress has been made, but gender inequality still requires attention and action.
C. Women are now equally represented in all leadership positions.
D. The education system has solved the issue of gender inequality.
Đề 12
Living in the stressful modern era, most of us usually look for sources of relaxation,
and it’s no secret that viewing nature and being outdoors can be pleasant and restorative.
Spending time in nature is linked to improvements in mental health, mood, emotional well –
being, and cognitive benefits. However, the more surprising thing is that, according to new
research, viewing water may be a better environment for relaxation than green areas with
grass and trees.
In a recent article, Harvard psychologist Adam Grant discussed a remarkable 2024
study that he came across, showing that people who viewed water for less than two minutes
had reduced blood pressure compared to people who viewied green areas and trees.
So why are nature’s blue spaces more relaxing than green ones? According to the
original authors of the study, the reason might be related to the process of our evolution. For
early humans who have to work hard to survive day by day, the lack of water has always been
a major challenge, as it posed a direct threat to life, leading to heightened levels of stress,
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increases in blood pressure and cardiac stress. Therefore, successfully detecting water or
simply just looking at it can provide a sense of great relief.
Being in nature can help you re – invigorate your body, mind, and spirit, offering
moments of awe, calm, and relaxation. And now we are learning that bodies of water
may bring even greater relaxation. So, whether it's a river, lake, or ocean, it might be time
to go outside and find the nearest blue space to experience the effects for yourself!
(Adapted from psychologytoday.com)
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as a benefit of
spending time in nature?
A. Improvements in mental health
B. Cognitive benefits
C. Increased creativity
D. Emotional well – being
Question 2: The word “restorative” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.
A. damaging
B. energizing
C. refreshing
D. beneficial
Question 3: The word "came across" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by __________.
A. discovered
B. ignored
C. created
D. explained
Question 4: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. stressor
B. blood pressure
C. cardiac stress
D. water
Question 5: Which of the following is TRUE, according to paragraphs 2 and 3?
A. Finding water was the biggest survival challenge for early humans.
B. Early humans suffered more stress when there is not enough water.
C. Only by being in nature can we heal both our body and our spirit.
D. The larger the area of water you look at, the more relaxed you are.
Question 6: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Spending time outdoors in nature can refresh both your physical and mental state,
providing peaceful and uplifting experiences.
B. Nature is a perfect escape from modern life, allowing people to rest while boosting their
physical and spiritual well – being.
C. Nature offers a temporary distraction from life’s problems, but its benefits are limited to
short – term relaxation.
D. Being in nature brings challenges to both the mind and body, creating feelings of stress
and discomfort.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention the possible evolutionary reasons
why viewing water can be more relaxing than viewing green areas?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer explain why viewing water might be more
relaxing than viewing green areas?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about urban shift and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Sperm whales are fascinating creatures. [II] They possess the biggest brain of any
species, six times larger than a human’s, which scientists believe may have evolved to
support intelligent, rational behavior. [III] They’re also highly social and capable of making
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decisions as a group. [IV] But there’s also a lot we don’t know about them, including what
they may be saying to one another when communicating with a system of short clicks, known
as codas.
Now, new research published in Nature Communications today suggests that sperm
whales’ communication is actually much more expressive and complicated than was
previously thought. A team of researchers led by Pratyusha Sharma at MIT’s Computer
Science and Artificial Intelligence Lab (CSAIL) working with Project CETI, a nonprofit
focused on using AI to understand whales, used statistical models to analyze whale codas and
managed to identify a structure to their language that’s similar to features of human language.
Their findings represent a tool future researchers could use to decipher not just the structure
but the actual meaning of whale sounds.
For the study, the researchers examined recordings of 8,719 codas from around 60
whales collected by the Dominica Sperm Whale Project between 2005 and 2018, using a mix
of AI algorithms for pattern recognition and classification. The AI then turned the clicks
within the coda data into a new kind of data visualization called an exchange plot, revealing
that some codas featured extra clicks. These extra clicks, combined with variations in the
duration of their calls, appeared in interactions between multiple whales, which they say
suggests that codas can carry more information and possess a more complicated internal
structure than we had previously believed.
The team’s next step is to build language models of whale calls and to examine how
those calls relate to different behaviors. They also plan to work on a more universal system
that could be used across species, says Sharma. Taking a communication system we know
nothing about, working out how it encodes and transmits information, and slowly
beginning to understand what’s being communicated could have many purposes beyond
whales. “I think we’re just starting to understand some of these things,” she says. “We’re
very much at the beginning, but we are slowly making our way through.”
(Adapted from technologyreview.com)
Question 9. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
They demonstrate a high level of sociability and are capable of collective decision – making.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: What do we learn about sperm whales in paragraph 1?
A. They are one of the most interesting creatures for humans to study.
B. Their brains are more advanced than human brains by six times.
C. The size of their brains is the reason why they are highly social.
D. They have the ability to make decisions together rather than alone.
Question 11: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a tool
or method used by researchers to study whale communication?
A. AI algorithms for pattern recognition
B. Statistical models
C. Recordings of codas
D. Behavioral experiments with whales
Question 12: The word “decipher” in paragraph 2 can be best replaced by ___________.
A. decode
B. resolve
C. detect
D. reveal
Question 13: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. researchers
B. algorithms
C. clicks
D. interactions
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Question 14: Which of the following is TRUE about the study discussed in this passage?
A. The study involved over 10,000 recordings of codas from various species of whales.
B. The research found that whale communication is simpler than previously thought.
C. AI algorithms were used to analyze whale codas and uncover patterns.
D. The study concluded that codas cannot carry more information than was once believed.
Question 15: The word “universal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. general
B. conventional
C. prevalent
D. ordinary
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Studying whale communication will provide insights useful for understanding other
communication systems.
B. Once we decode whale communication, we will fully understand how they transmit
information.
C. Understanding whale communication systems has limited applications outside marine
biology.
D. Whale communication can only be understood through long – term study without further
application.
Question 17: Which of the following can most likely be inferred from the passage?
A. Sperm whales are much more intelligent than what people commonly think.
B. Project CETI is using the most advanced AI in order to achieve their end goal.
C. Codas with extra clicks are the most structurally similar to human language.
D. We have yet to fully grasp the complexity of the sperm whale language system.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Sperm whales are known for their large brains and complex group behavior, though their
communication remains largely mysterious.
B. Researchers have fully decoded the structure and meaning of whale codas using advanced
AI technology.
C. A recent study suggests that sperm whale communication may be more complex than
previously thought, and researchers are beginning to unravel its structure and meaning with
the help of AI.
D. The study found that whale communication is not related to their behavior, but rather to
random environmental factors.
Đề 13
Vietnamese cultural identity is a rich and intricate tapestry that reflects the nation’s long
and storied history. Rooted in over a thousand years of civilization, Vietnam’s cultural
identity is a fusion of indigenous traditions and external influences, shaped by its
geographical location and historical interactions.
First and foremost, at the heart of Vietnamese culture is a deep reverence for family
and community. Confucian values emphasizing respect for elders, filial piety, and social
harmony have played a pivotal role in shaping Vietnamese society. These values are reflected
in the close-knit family structures, hierarchical relationships, and communal rituals that are
integral to daily life.
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Secondly, Vietnamese cuisine is celebrated worldwide for its exquisite flavors and
diversity. With its emphasis on fresh ingredients, fragrant herbs, and balanced flavors,
Vietnamese food tells a story of the country’s agricultural heritage and regional variations.
Iconic dishes like pho, banh mi, and spring rolls have become global favorites, representing
the culinary artistry deeply ingrained in Vietnamese culture. Also, Vietnam’s artistic
expressions are equally captivating. Traditional art forms like water puppetry, silk painting,
and folk music continue to thrive alongside contemporary artistic movements. Áo dài, a
graceful traditional dress, exemplifies the fusion of elegance and modesty in Vietnamese
fashion, symbolizing cultural pride and identity.
Today, in the face of modernization and globalization, Vietnamese cultural identity
remains resilient. While adapting to the challenges of the 21st century, the Vietnamese people
continue to honor their traditions, celebrate their unique cultural expressions, and pass on
their heritage to future generations, ensuring that their cultural identity remains vibrant and
enduring.
(Adapted from Saigoneer)
Question 1: The word "indigenous" in paragraph 1 is opposite in meaning to:
A. local
B. foreign
C. native
D. traditional
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as Confucian values emphasizing
respect for?
A. filial piety
B. social harmony C. individualism
D. elders
Question 3: The word "reverence" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by:
A. disrespect
B. admiration
C. indifference
D. criticism
Question 4: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. The áo dài, known for its elegance and modesty, represents a blend of Vietnamese fashion
that embodies cultural identity and pride.
B. As a traditional dress, the áo dài reflects the combination of sophistication and simplicity
in Vietnamese fashion, representing the nation's cultural values.
C. The graceful áo dài, a traditional Vietnamese attire, signifies the blend of elegance and
restraint, illustrating the pride and identity of Vietnamese culture.
D. Known as a traditional dress, the áo dài beautifully combines elegance with modesty,
serving as a symbol of Vietnam's cultural identity and pride.
Question 5: The word "Their" in paragraph 4 refers to:
A. Vietnamese cuisine
B. Vietnamese people
C. Traditional art forms
D. Agricultural heritage
Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Vietnamese cultural identity is static and unchanging.
B. Modernization has completely erased Vietnamese traditions.
C. Vietnamese cuisine has gained international recognition.
D. Water puppetry is no longer practiced in Vietnam.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention a present concession relationship?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer state that Vietnamese cultural identity is
influenced by both internal and external factors?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about the urban shift and mark the letter A, B, C or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31
to 40.
[I] Landslides are a significant environmental challenge in the northern mountainous
provinces of Vietnam, particularly during the rainy season. The region, characterized by steep
slopes and heavy rainfall, is prone to this natural disaster, which poses serious threats to both
the local population and infrastructure. [II] In recent years, numerous landslides have
occurred, often triggered by prolonged periods of heavy rain, resulting in devastating impacts
on communities and livelihoods.
The mountainous terrain, combined with deforestation and improper land use,
exacerbates the risk of landslides. [III] As farmers clear forests for agriculture, the natural
vegetation that stabilizes the soil is lost, making slopes more susceptible to erosion. When
heavy rains saturate the soil, it can quickly become unstable, leading to sudden and
destructive landslides. [IV]
In response to this growing threat, local authorities and environmental organizations are
taking proactive measures to mitigate the risks associated with landslides. Efforts include
reforestation projects, improving drainage systems, and raising public awareness about safe
practices during the rainy season. Additionally, advanced monitoring systems are being
implemented to provide early warnings, allowing communities to evacuate before a disaster
strikes.
Despite these efforts, the challenges remain significant, and ongoing education and
support for sustainable land management practices are crucial for reducing the incidence and
impact of landslides in northern Vietnam.
Question 9: Where in this passage does the following sentence best fit?
These events not only destroy homes and roads but also disrupt essential services such as
education and healthcare.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The word “prone” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by:
A. resistant
B. vulnerable
C. indifferent
D. immune
Question 11: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. the soil
B. the rainy season C. the local population D. the infrastructure
Question 12: The phrase “susceptible to” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. open to
B. immune to
C. prone to
D. favorable for
Question 13: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT a proactive measure
to mitigate the risks associated with landslides?
A. Reforestation projects
B. Improving drainage systems
C. Increasing logging activities
D. Raising public awareness
Question 14: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
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A. Local authorities and organizations are actively working to reduce the risks of landslides
through various projects and public education initiatives.
B. The government is focusing on implementing advanced technologies to predict landslides
and ensure the safety of local communities.
C. Reforestation and improved drainage systems are essential for enhancing the environment
and preventing landslides in northern Vietnam.
D. Communities are encouraged to participate in disaster preparedness training to minimize
the impact of landslides during the rainy season.
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Landslides only occur in the rainy season.
B. The local population is unaffected by landslides.
C. Deforestation contributes to landslide risks.
D. Monitoring systems are unnecessary for landslide management.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined part
A. Even with these initiatives, the difficulties continue to be considerable.
B. Although these measures have been taken, the challenges are still manageable.
C. In spite of these actions, the obstacles still appear to be minor.
D. Regardless of these efforts, the challenges are
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Ongoing reforestation and improved land management practices are essential for
minimizing future landslide risks in northern Vietnam.
B. The frequency of landslides in northern Vietnam will likely decrease in the coming years
due to effective government interventions.
C. Local communities are fully aware of the risks of landslides and are actively participating
in mitigation efforts.
D. Climate change is the sole cause of the increasing landslide occurrences in the northern
mountainous provinces of Vietnam.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Landslides are a minor issue in northern Vietnam.
B. The effects of landslides are temporary and easily managed.
C. Landslides pose a significant threat, but measures are being taken to reduce their impact.
D. Local authorities have completely eliminated the risk of landslides.
Đề 14
Peer Pressure Among Youth
Peer pressure can be particularly prevalent among teenagers, who are at a vulnerable
stage of development and seeking their identity. It is a powerful force that can significantly
impact the thoughts, actions, and behaviors of teenagers. During adolescence, individuals
strive for acceptance and belonging, making them particularly susceptible to the influence of
their peers. Understanding the nature of peer pressure and its effects is essential for
supporting teenagers in navigating this challenging aspect of their social lives.
One aspect of peer pressure is the pressure to conform to the norms and expectations
of a social group. Teenagers may feel compelled to adopt certain behaviors, preferences, or
attitudes to fit in and avoid social rejection. This conformity can range from relatively
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harmless choices, such as fashion trends, to more concerning behaviors, such as substance
abuse or risky activities.
Peer pressure can manifest in both explicit and implicit ways. Direct peer pressure
involves explicit requests, invitations, or demands from peers to engage in specific actions or
behaviors. Indirect or implicit peer pressure, on the other hand, is more subtle and
involves observing others' behaviors and feeling pressured to conform without any
explicit requests. This type of pressure can be equally influential and difficult for teenagers
to navigate.
It is important to note that peer pressure can have positive or negative implications.
Positive peer pressure can motivate teenagers to engage in healthy behaviors, such as
participating in sports, pursuing academic goals, or engaging in community service.
However, it can lead to risky or harmful behaviors, such as substance abuse, delinquency, or
academic underachievement.
Parents, educators, and mentors play a crucial role in helping teenagers navigate peer
pressure. By fostering open and supportive relationships, adults can provide a safe space for
teenagers to discuss their experiences and concerns. Promoting critical thinking, assertiveness
skills, and self-confidence can empower teenagers to resist negative peer
pressure and make independent, healthy choices.
[Adapted from "Peer Pressure: Its Influence on Teens and Decision Making”]
Question 1: The word "conform" in paragraph 2 is opposite in meaning to:
A. resist
B. adapt
C. follow
D. imitate
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a potential outcome of peer
pressure?
A. Participating in sports
B. Using harmful substances
C. Poor academic performance
D. Developing unique personal
interests
Question 3: The phrase "social rejection" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by:
A. social approval
B. social exclusion C. social interaction D. social engagement
Question 4: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Peer pressure can be seen directly through demands made by friends.
B. Friends can influence each other by their actions and behaviors without direct
communication.
C. Indirect peer pressure is easier to recognize and avoid than direct requests from peers.
D. Observing the behaviors of those around us to conform in order to avoid being different.
Question 5: The word "it" in paragraph 4 refers to:
A. academic performance B. negative behavior
C. peer pressure
D. social group
Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Peer pressure has only negative effects on teenagers.
B. Positive peer pressure can lead to healthy behaviors.
C. All peer pressure is easy to identify.
D. Teenagers do not seek social acceptance.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer discuss the role of adults in addressing peer
pressure?
A. Paragraph 2
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 5
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Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer explain the different forms of peer pressure?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about the importance of conserving water and mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Water is one of the most essential resources on our planet, vital for all forms of
life. However, increasing demand and pollution are putting immense pressure on our
freshwater supplies. [II] According to recent studies, nearly 2 billion people worldwide live
in countries experiencing high water stress, leading to a decline in the availability of this
precious resource. This situation not only affects drinking water but also agriculture,
sanitation, and energy production.
The primary causes of water scarcity include population growth, urbanization, and
climate change. As cities expand, the demand for water increases significantly. Moreover,
agricultural practices that rely heavily on water are becoming unsustainable in many regions.
Climate change further exacerbates these issues, causing unpredictable weather patterns and
extreme droughts, which reduce water availability.
[III] In response to this growing crisis, everyone must prioritize water
conservation. Simple actions, such as fixing leaks, using water-efficient appliances, and
practicing mindful consumption, can make a significant difference. Additionally,
implementing policies that promote sustainable water management and investing in
technologies for water recycling can help mitigate the impacts of water scarcity. [IV]
Despite these efforts, the challenges remain substantial. It is crucial that we recognize
the importance of conserving water and take immediate steps to protect this vital resource for
future generations.
Question 9: Where in this passage does the following sentence best fit?
" These strategies can significantly improve water availability in stressed regions."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D.
[IV]
Question 10: The word “vital” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by:
A. unimportant
B. crucial
C. optional
D. harmful
Question 11: The phrase "high water stress" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. excessive rainfall
B. significant water shortage
C. improved water quality
D. reduced water demand
Question 12: The phrase “exacerbates” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. worsens
B. alleviates
C. maintains D. complicates
Question 13: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a contributing factor
to water scarcity?
A. Urbanization
B. Population growth
C. Extreme droughts D. City expansion
Question 14: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Governments should focus solely on technology to solve water issues.
B. Both the government and each individual have a role to play in protecting water resources.
C. Water conservation is primarily a government responsibility, not individual.
D. The role of each individual in protecting water resources is very important.
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
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A. Water scarcity affects only drinking water supplies.
B. Urbanization decreases the demand for water.
C. Climate change negatively impacts water availability.
D. Sustainable practices are unnecessary for water management.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined part in paragraph 3?
A. Individuals should consider water conservation a secondary concern when addressing this
problem.
B. Society needs to focus on water conservation to effectively address the growing water
shortage problem.
C. Water conservation is not an urgent issue for people facing this crisis.
D. People can manage the crisis without prioritizing water conservation.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Applying technology can solve all problems of water shortage.
B. Water conservation measures need to be widely applied to create an impact.
C. Climate change is an important factor that affects water resources globally.
D. Governments play an important role in protecting polluted water sources.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Water shortage is a major problem that requires immediate government action.
B. The importance of water conservation to combat the growing water shortage caused by
increased demand and climate change.
C. The impact of water shortage due to climate change on human life and agricultural
development.
D. Immediate action is needed to address the growing water shortage crisis.
Đề 15
If you’re new to running, or new to marathons, you might be worried about or even
fearful of the distance. And these feelings are completely understandable, given the fact that
more than 42 kilometres is a very long way. However, more and more people are taking on
this challenge every year, and for very good reasons.
Obviously, running such a long distance requires a lot of training, and the more you
train, the more your endurance will be enhanced. And of course, as you become more
physically active, your heart and muscles will be stronger, your blood circulation will
improve, and you will most likely get in shape in no time. Additionally, there are also mental
and social benefits such as feeling less stressed and more energized as well as having the
chance to meet and establish meaningful relationships with other people.
If you think about it, running a marathon is also a chance for personal development.
Everyone has at least one fear or insecurity, and for many people, completing a marathon race
can seem like an extremely daunting or even impossible task. Of course, it’s true that this is a
big challenge that requires commitment and perseverance. That being said, every time you
step outside out of your comfort zone and accomplish something new, you will grow
stronger and become more confident.
Sometimes, you can actually help many others when you run a marathon. Many
runners now combine their marathon goal with the goal of helping others by participating in
races that raise money for charity. Besides, running in such marathon races will most likely
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give you all the motivation you need to get through the exhausting 42-kilometer run. After
all, it’s quite difficult to quit when you know that you are giving help to people in need.
(Adapted from active.com)
Question 1: According to the passage, all of the following are benefits of running a marathon
EXCEPT _________.
A. You will be able to improve your blood circulation and quickly get in shape.
B. Your endurance will start to improve as you train harder and harder.
C. Your muscles will be strengthened since you are more active.
D. You will feel less stressed when meeting other people.
Question 2: The word “fearful” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _________.
A. scary
B. afraid
C. anxious
D. frightening
Question 3: The word “enhanced” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _________.
A. preserved
B. augmented
C. weakened
D. disseminated
Question 4: The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.
A. personal development B. insecurity
C. completing a marathon D. challenge
Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Every time you leave your comfort zone and achieve something new, you will become
stronger and more confident.
B. Each time you move outside your comfort zone and accomplish something odd, you will
grow more resilient and confident.
C. Whenever you step outside your comfort zone and succeed in something different, you
will feel a sense of superiority.
D. Every time you venture beyond your comfort zone and do something unique, you will
grow stronger and become less confident.
Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. If you want to run a marathon, you need to commit and persevere.
B. When you complete a marathon, you will no longer have any fear.
C. Most runners will not run marathons that do not raise money at all.
D. You cannot complete a marathon if you do not want to help others.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention the physical benefits of running?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer discuss personal growth opportunities that
come from running
a marathon?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about and mark the letter A, B, C, D on your answer sheet
to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Some people look at an equation and see a bunch of complicated numbers and
symbols while others see beauty [I]. Now, thanks to a new tool created at Carnegie Mellon
University, anyone can now translate the abstractions of mathematics into beautiful and
instructive illustrations [II]. This exciting new tool is named Penrose after the mathematician
Roger Penrose, who is famous for using diagrams and other drawings to communicate
complicated mathematical ideas [III]. Penrose enables users to create diagrams simply by
typing mathematical expressions and letting the software do the drawing [IV].
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Unlike a graphing calculator, these aren’t restricted to basic functions, but can be
complex relationships from any area of mathematics. “Some mathematicians have a talent for
drawing beautiful diagrams by hand, but they vanish as soon as the chalkboard is erased,”
said Keenan Crane, an assistant professor of computer science and robotics. “We want to
make this expressive power available to anyone.”
Diagrams are often underused in mathematical communication, since producing
high-quality illustrations is beyond the skill of many researchers and requires a great deal of
time and effort. Penrose addresses these challenges by letting diagram-drawing experts turn
their knowledge about creating diagrams into computer codes so that other users can access
this capability using familiar mathematical language and a computer. “We started off by
asking: ‘How do people translate mathematical ideas into pictures in their head?’” said
Katherine Ye, a Ph.D. student in the Computer Science Department who is involved in the
development of Penrose. “The secret sauce of our system is to empower people to easily
‘explain’ this translation process to the computer, so the computer can do all the hard work of
actually making the picture.”
Once the computer learns how the user wants to see a mathematical object visualized
– a vector represented by a little arrow, for instance, or a point represented as a dot – it uses
these rules to draw several candidate diagrams. Users can then select and edit the diagrams
they want from a gallery of possibilities. A special, simple-to-learn programming language
was also developed so that they can easily convey the ideas in their minds to the Penrose
system, Crane said. “Mathematicians can get very picky about notations,” he explained. “We
let them define whatever notation they want, so they can express themselves naturally.”
The researchers will present Penrose at the SIGGRAPH 2020 Conference on
Computer Graphics and Interactive Techniques, which will be held this July. “Our vision is to
be able to dust off an old math textbook from the library, drop it into the computer and get a
beautifully illustrated book - that way more people understand,” Crane said, noting that
Penrose is a first step toward this goal.
(Adapted from sciencedaily.com)
Question 9: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
For many, the elegance of mathematical concepts often goes unnoticed amidst the complexity.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The word “restricted” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________.
A. contained
B. expanded
C. confined
D. enclosed
Question 11: The phrase “secret sauce” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ________.
A. unexpected benefit B. mysterious feature
C. unnatural ability D. special element
Question 12: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a
feature or benefit of the Penrose tool?
A. It allows users to create diagrams from mathematical expressions.
B. It can produce high-quality illustrations without requiring advanced drawing skills.
C. It enables users to communicate mathematical ideas using a programming language.
D. It can automatically generate solutions to complex mathematical problems.
Question 13: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ________.
A. users
B. diagrams
C. possibilities
D. ideas
Question 14: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
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A. Penrose allows users to create high-quality diagrams quickly without needing artistic
skills.
B. Diagrams in mathematics are often underused due to the time required to create them.
C. Penrose enables users to translate mathematical ideas into diagrams using expert
knowledge and computer codes.
D. Katherine Ye discusses the challenges mathematicians face when trying to visualize
complex ideas.
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Mathematical diagrams that are drawn by hand on chalkboards are not long-lasting.
B. Diagrams are usually not widely used to illustrate or communicate mathematical ideas.
C. Penrose uses common mathematical rules to draw diagrams for a mathematical object.
D. Penrose’s developers want to make math easier to understand by using illustrations.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Users can browse and alter the diagrams they like from a variety of choices.
B. Users can create and adjust the diagrams they desire from a selection of examples.
C. Users can choose and modify the diagrams they prefer from a collection of options.
D. Users can view and customize the diagrams they wish to use from an assortment of
images.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Hand-drawn diagrams are not as beautiful and easy to understand as digital diagrams.
B. In general, mathematicians are not very good at remembering and defining notations.
C. How a mathematical object should be visualized varies from person to person.
D. Almost all people consider traditional math textbooks to be extremely boring.
Question 18: Which of the following best summaries the passage?
A. The development of Penrose by Carnegie Mellon University aims to replace traditional
graphing calculators with a tool that can only produce basic mathematical functions.
B. Penrose enables mathematicians to draw by hand and provides them with a programming
language to express their ideas naturally.
C. Penrose is a new tool that allows users to create complex mathematical diagrams easily,
enhancing mathematical communication and understanding.
D. The researchers at Carnegie Mellon University are focusing on the history of mathematical
diagrams and their importance in education
Đề 16
Engaging in outdoor activities has become increasingly popular in recent years. Not only
do these activities provide an escape from the daily grind of life, but they also offer
numerous physical and mental health benefits. Hiking, cycling, and team sports are just a few
examples of outdoor activities that can enhance well-being.
First and foremost, outdoor activities encourage physical fitness. Regular participation
in activities like hiking or cycling helps individuals maintain a healthy weight and improve
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cardiovascular health. The fresh air and natural surroundings can make exercising feel less
like a chore and more like an enjoyable experience. Furthermore, studies have shown that
spending time in nature can reduce stress levels and promote a sense of tranquility.
In addition to physical benefits, outdoor activities foster social connections. Participating
in team sports or group hikes allows individuals to meet new people and strengthen existing
relationships. The shared experience of overcoming challenges together can build
camaraderie and enhance teamwork skills.
However, some people might argue that outdoor activities are not accessible to everyone.
For instance, individuals living in urban areas may find it difficult to access green spaces or
safe paths for cycling. This raises the question of equity in accessing outdoor resources.
Despite these challenges, the advantages of engaging in outdoor activities far outweigh
the drawbacks. Those who participate regularly often report feeling happier and more
fulfilled. The sense of achievement that comes from completing a challenging hike or
mastering a new cycling route can significantly boost self-esteem.
In conclusion, outdoor activities play a crucial role in promoting both physical health and
social well-being. By stepping outside and embracing nature, individuals can improve their
quality of life. As we continue to navigate the complexities of modern living, it is vital to
prioritize these enriching experiences.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit outdoor activity?
A. Improved physical fitness
B. Enhanced social connections
C. Increased access to technology
D. Reduced stress levels
Question 2: The word “accessible” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to________.
A. Reachable
B. Available
C. Unavailable
D. Approachable
Question 3: The word “these” in paragraph 1 refers to____________.
A. Physical and mental health benefits
B. Team sports
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C. Daily grind of life
D. Outdoor activities
Question 4: The word “encourage” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by_________.
A. Discourage
B. Ignore
C. Limit
D. Promote
Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Achieving a challenging hike or cycling route can reduce self-esteem significantly.
B. Completing a difficult hike or learning a new cycling route can enhance one's
confidence.
C. The feeling of accomplishment from a tough hike or a cycling challenge can lower selfworth.
D. Mastering a new cycling route and finishing a hike is not important for self-esteem.
Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Engaging in outdoor activities can lead to improved mental health.
B. Outdoor activities are only beneficial for physical fitness.
C. All individuals have equal access to outdoor activities.
D. Spending time indoors is more beneficial than outdoor activities.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention a drawback when people participate
in outdoor activity?
A. Paragraph 3
B. Paragraph 1
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 2
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer mention the benefits of outdoor activity for
physical health?
A. Paragraph 4
B. Paragraph 1
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 2
Read the following passage about the The Importance of Social Media in Modern
Society and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
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In the 21st century, social media has become a crucial element of everyday life[I].
Platforms such as Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, and TikTok link individuals around the
world, [IV]. Although some may critique social media for promoting negativity, it is
important to acknowledge its numerous positive effects on society[III]. This essay will delve
into the importance of social media, its influence on shaping public perception, and the
challenges it poses.[II]
One of the primary benefits of social media is its ability to foster communication and
connection. People can maintain relationships with friends and family, regardless of
geographical barriers. This aspect is particularly vital for those who live far away from loved
ones. For example, a student studying abroad can easily share their experiences with family
through posts, photos, and video calls. Furthermore, social media enables individuals to
connect with like-minded people and build communities around shared interests or causes.
Activist groups, for instance, often use social media platforms to rally support for important
issues, raising awareness and mobilizing action more efficiently than traditional methods.
Moreover, social media serves as a powerful tool for information dissemination. News
spreads rapidly through these platforms, allowing individuals to stay informed about current
events. During emergencies, such as natural disasters, social media can provide crucial
information in real time, helping people stay safe and informed. However, this rapid
dissemination of information also raises concerns about the accuracy and reliability of the
content being shared. Misinformation can spread just as quickly as legitimate news, leading
to confusion and mistrust.
Despite the challenges posed by misinformation, social media plays a significant role in
shaping public opinion. People often turn to these platforms to voice their opinions and
engage in discussions on various topics. For instance, political debates and social movements
frequently gain traction through social media, allowing individuals to express their views and
influence others. This democratization of discourse can empower marginalized voices and
facilitate social change. However, it is crucial to approach online discussions critically, as
echo chambers can form, reinforcing existing beliefs rather than encouraging open dialogue.
In conclusion, while social media presents challenges such as misinformation and
polarized discussions, its positive contributions to communication, information
dissemination, and social activism cannot be overlooked. As society continues to evolve, it
is essential to harness the potential of social media while being mindful of its pitfalls. By
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promoting responsible use and critical thinking, we can maximize the benefits of social media
and foster a more connected and informed society.
Question 9: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
enabling instantaneous communication and the exchange of information
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The phrase “delve into” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by_______.
A. Doze off
B. End up
C. Fish out
D. Dig into
Question 11: The word “its” in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. Friendships
B. Communication
C. Geographical barriers
D. Social media
Question 12: According to the paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefits of
social media?
A. The ability to maintain relationships with friends and family.
B. The promotion of traditional communication methods.
C. The capacity to share experiences through various media.
D. The facilitation of connections with like-minded individuals.
Question 13: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Social media is a reliable source of news that always provides accurate information.
B. The rapid spread of information through social media can help people stay informed
during emergencies but also raises concerns about misinformation.
C. Social media primarily focuses on entertainment and does not play a role in information
dissemination.
D. Misinformation is the only challenge posed by social media in today's society.
Question 14: The word “democratization” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning
to_______.
A. Centralization
B. Inclusion
C. Engagement
D. Participation
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
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A. Social media exclusively promotes negativity and misinformation.
B. Activist groups avoid using social media to mobilize support.
C. Social media allows individuals to maintain relationships across geographical barriers.
D. Social media has no impact on shaping public opinion.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
5?
A. It is important to use social media wisely while recognizing its drawbacks as society
changes.
B. Society must avoid using social media due to its potential dangers.
C. We should ignore the downsides of social media while focusing solely on its benefits.
D. As society progresses, it is unnecessary to pay attention to the risks of social media.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The spread of misinformation on social media is a major concern for society.
B. Social media is only beneficial and does not have any negative impacts.
C. People are increasingly using social media to stay connected during emergencies.
D. Activist groups do not benefit from using social media for their causes.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Social media has primarily negative effects on society and should be avoided.
B. The use of social media has led to a decrease in face-to-face communication among
individuals.
C. Social media platforms are only useful for entertainment and personal connections.
D. Social media is a vital tool for communication and activism, but it also poses challenges
like misinformation and echo chambers.
Đề 17
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Huawei is a multinational company that makes telecommunications parts for mobile
phones , network equipment and other high-tech devices . It is the second largest such
company in the world. Huawei has its headquarters in Shenzhen, which became China’s
first special economic zone in 1979.
The Chinese technology company, which was founded about 20 years ago, has over 100,000
workers in all parts of the world, more than Microsoft. Most of the company is owned by
its employees . Huawei started out in the rural areas in China. In those days most of the
telecom contracts went to state-owned Chinese or foreign firms. As the company grew,
it took hold of urban markets in big Chinese cities and in 1997 it expanded to other
countries.
Today, Huawei is the second biggest manufacturer of telecom equipment, after Ericsson. In
2011, annual sales is expected to be about $12 billion dollars and likely to get three times
as high within the next ten years. Working for Huawei is something many young
Chinese engineers and IT workers dream of. The 1.5 square km site has modern
apartments that can be rented, its own hospital, restaurants and bars where employees can go
to in their free time. For Chinese standards workers are well-paid. Although Huawei has
been concentrating on making telecom parts and whole networks, the company is also
looking into other industries in an attempt to diversify and grow. At
Shenzhen engineers are experimenting on new forms of video conferencing, a branch that
is expanding rapidly . The Chinese hi-tech giant is also starting to produce cloudbased hardware and computers that work out of the box .
Even though Huawei is one of the world leaders in producing mobile phone parts it is also
pushing into the consumer market with its own brand of
computers, tablets and smartphones. So far Huawei has failed to reach the American market
because of security reasons. The American government thinks it has connections with the
Chinese military and is afraid it will spy on the American public
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT MENTIONED as a service or product that
Huawei provides?
A. mobile phone parts
B. high-tech devices
C. telecommunications network equiment
D. software development
Question 2: The word “expanded” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ________.
A. contracted
B. enlarged
C. advanced
D. diversified
Question 3: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ________.
A. Huawei
B. a state-owned firm C. a foreign firm
D. a telecom contract
Question 4: The word “diversify” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ________.
A. vary
B. specialize
C. stagnate
D. focus
Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Working for Huawei is an ideal job for many young Chinese.
B. Young engineers find it difficult to work at Huawei.
C. Many young Chinese engineers dislike working for Huawei.
D. Working conditions at Huawei are tough for young workers.
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Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about Huawei’s
employees?
A. Most of them are foreign workers.
B. They are mostly based in rural areas.
C. They have a stake in the company.
D. They do not receive high salaries.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention Huawei’s efforts to enter the
consumer electronics market?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer highlight the headquarters of Huawei?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about lifelong learning and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to
40.
[I] Lifelong learning is the ongoing, voluntary, and self-motivated pursuit of knowledge for
personal or professional development (Knowles, 2020). [II] This concept emphasizes that
learning does not stop after formal education, but rather continues throughout an individual's
life, adapting to changing circumstances and needs. [III] In today’s fast-paced world, where
technology and job markets evolve rapidly, lifelong learning has become increasingly
essential. [IV]
One of the primary benefits of lifelong learning is its ability to enhance employability.
Individuals who engage in continuous education are more likely to keep their skills relevant
and competitive in the job market. According to a report by the World Economic Forum
(2021), over 50% of employees will need reskilling due to technological advancements in the
coming years. Lifelong learners are better equipped to adapt to these changes, making them
more attractive candidates for employers.
Moreover, lifelong learning contributes to personal fulfillment and mental well-being.
Engaging in new learning experiences can stimulate the brain, foster creativity, and improve
cognitive function. Research indicates that individuals who pursue learning opportunities
throughout their lives tend to report higher levels of happiness and life satisfaction (Smith &
Johnson, 2019). Whether it is taking a course, learning a new language, or picking up a new
hobby, the process of acquiring knowledge can be enriching and enjoyable.
In addition, lifelong learning promotes social engagement and community involvement.
Participating in educational programs or community workshops can foster connections with
others who share similar interests. This social aspect of learning can enhance one's sense of
belonging and support networks, which are crucial for mental health (Jones, 2022).
Overall, lifelong learning is not just an individual responsibility; it requires support from
educational institutions, employers, and communities to create an environment conducive to
continuous education. By fostering a culture of learning, society can better prepare
individuals for the challenges of the future and ensure that everyone has the opportunity to
thrive.
(Adapted from The Importance of Lifelong Learning by Knowles, Smith, Johnson, and
others)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Lifelong learning encourages individuals to embrace new skills and knowledge
throughout their lives.
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A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "self-motivated pursuit" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by
____.
A. external pressure to learn
C. obligatory education
B. voluntary quest for knowledge
D. structured learning environment
Question 11. The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to ____.
A. lifelong learning
C. personal development
B. employability
D. individual responsibility
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of lifelong
learning?
A. Keeping skills relevant
C. Guaranteeing job security
B. Enhancing employability
D. Adapting to technological changes
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Lifelong learning fosters a sense of achievement and supports brain health.
B. Engaging in continuous education leads to job security and career growth.
C. Learning can be enjoyable but does not affect emotional well-being.
D. Pursuing knowledge is solely beneficial for professional success.
Question 14. The word "enriching" in paragraph 3 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. dull
B. rewarding
C. tiring
D. irrelevant
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Lifelong learning mainly supports academic performance.
B. It has no impact on professional career paths.: no impact là sai:
C. Continuous learning fosters mental health and connection.
D. Employers play no role in supporting lifelong education.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. External support is essential for lifelong learning initiatives.
B. Lifelong learning should be self-managed by individuals.
C. Employers should prioritize in-house training over external programs.
D. Continuous learning relies mainly on personal efforts.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Lifelong learning is only applicable in educational institutions.
B. Lifelong learning leads to higher life satisfaction and resilience.
C. Continuous education guarantees career advancement.
D. Job markets remain unaffected by ongoing education.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
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A. Lifelong education mainly focuses on vocational training and skill enhancement to
meet the current job market demands.
B. Lifelong education should only take place in formal educational settings and has
little impact once formal schooling is completed.
C. Lifelong learning is necessary only for enhancing work capabilities and developing
professional skills in certain industries.
D. Lifelong learning provides personal and professional benefits, with support from
institutions essential for success.
Đề 18
Yoga is a healthy lifestyle. One of the benefits of yoga is that you can choose a yoga
style that is suitable for your lifestyle, such as hot yoga, power yoga, relaxation yoga, etc. If
you are a yoga beginner, Hatha Yoga, which focuses on basic postures at a comfortable pace,
would be great for you. If you want to increase strength through using more of your own
body’s resistance, Power Yoga may be right for you. Whether you prefer you're at home, in a
private session, watching a DVD or at a studio or gym, there are a huge variety of options
available to suit your goals and needs.
Improved flexibility is one of the first and most obvious benefits of yoga. During
your first class, you probably won’t be able to touch your toes. But if you stick with it, you’ll
notice a gradual loosening, and eventually, seemingly impossible poses will become possible.
Each of the yoga poses is built to reinforce the muscles around the spine, the very center of
your body, which is the core from which everything else operates.
When the core is working properly, posture is improved, thus alleviating back,
shoulder, and neck pain. Strong muscles do more than look good. They also protect us from
conditions like arthritis and back pain, and help prevent falls in elderly people. And when you
build strength through yoga, you balance it with flexibility. If you just went to the gym and
lifted weights, you might build strength at the expense of flexibility.
Yoga gets your blood flowing. More specifically, the relaxation exercises you learn in
yoga can help your circulation, especially in your hands and feet. Yoga also gets more oxygen
to your cells, which function better as a result. Twisting poses are thought to wring out
venous blood from internal organs and allow oxygenated blood to flow in once the twist
is released. Many studies found that a consistent yoga practice improved depression and led
to greater levels of happiness and better immune function.
(Adapted from https://www.anahana.com/en/yoga/yoga)
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the benefits of yoga?
A. increased flexibility
B. improved blood circulation
C. better social skills
D. enhanced immune function
Question 2: The word reinforce in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. weaken
B. stretch
C. soften
D. tighten
Question 3: The word They in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. Conditions
B. Strong muscles
C. Elderly people
D. Falls
Question 4: The word session in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by:
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A. incident
B. class
C. meeting
D. event
Question 5: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. All yoga styles require an advanced level of fitness.
B. Yoga can help reduce shoulder and neck pain.
C. Flexibility is the only benefit of yoga.
D. Depression is unrelated to yoga practice.
Question 6: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Twisting poses are harmful as they reduce blood flow to the organs.
B. Twisting poses only benefit blood flow when done in moderation.
C. Twisting poses block blood flow and cause tension in the organs.
D. Twisting poses may help remove old blood from organs and bring in fresh blood.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the author discuss how yoga can improve mental health
and immunity?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the author describe the types of yoga suitable for
different goals?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about Heat Transfer in the Atmosphere and mark the letter A,
B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following
questions from 31 to 40.
Because the low latitudes of the Earth, the areas near the equator, receive more
heat than the latitudes near the poles, and because the nature of heat is to expand and
move, heat is transported from the tropics to the middle and high latitudes. Some of this
heat is moved by winds and some by ocean currents, and some gets stored in the atmosphere
in the form of latent heat.
(I)The term “latent heat” refers to the energy that has to be used to convert liquid water to
water vapor. (II) We know that if we warm a pan of water on a stove, it will evaporate, or
turn into vapor, faster than if it is allowed to sit at room temperature. (III) We also know that
if we hang wet clothes outside in the summertime, they will dry faster than in winter, when
the temperature is lower. The energy used in both cases to change liquid water to water vapor
is supplied by heat - supplied by the stove in the first case and by the Sun in the latter case.
This energy is not lost. (IV) It is stored as vapor in the atmosphere as latent heat. Eventually,
the water stored as vapor in the atmosphere will condense to liquid again, and the energy will
be released to the atmosphere.
In the atmosphere, a large portion of the Sun’s incoming energy is used to evaporate
water, primarily in the tropical oceans. Scientists have tried to pin down this proportion of
the Sun’s energy. By analyzing temperature, water vapor, and wind data around the globe,
they have estimated the quantity to be about 90 watts per square meter, or nearly 30 percent
of the Sun’s energy. Once this latent heat is stored within the atmosphere, it can be
transported, primarily to higher latitudes, by prevailing, large - scale winds. Or it can be
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transported vertically to higher levels in the atmosphere, where it forms clouds and
subsequent storms, which then release the energy back to the atmosphere.
(Adapted from civilserviceguide.com > topics > reading-comprehension…)
Question 9: Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit?
“The process of converting liquid water into vapor requires significant amounts of
energy.”
A. (I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 10: The phrase " pin down " in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by:
A. turn out
B. work out
C. put by
D. take in
Question 11: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. square meter
B. the Sun’s energy
C. latent heat
D. the atmosphere
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT a factor in the transportation of heat from the
tropics?
A. large-scale winds
B. ocean currents
C. latent heat stored in the atmosphere
D. strong oceanic tides
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 1?
A. Heat from the equator is transported by winds and ocean currents to higher
latitudes, and some is stored as latent heat.
B. Latent heat is the only method of heat transfer from the equator to the poles.
C. The evaporation of water only happens in summer and this help to transport heat to
the equator.
D. Heat storage in the atmosphere can be transported vertically to higher levels in the
atmosphere, where it forms clouds and subsequent storms, which then release the
energy back to the atmosphere.
Question 14: The word "evaporate" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. solidify
B. liquefy
C. condense
D. vaporize
Question 15: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Latent heat only occurs in tropical regions.
B. 30 percent of the Sun’s incoming energy is stored as latent heat.
C. Heat cannot be stored in the atmosphere.
D. Winds and ocean currents do not affect heat transportation.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence?
A. The energy is consumed during the process of evaporation.
B. The energy used to convert water to vapor disappears from the system.
C. Heat from the equator moves toward the middle and high latitudes due to its
tendency to expand and flow.
D. Evaporation uses energy that is lost once water turns into vapor.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Latent heat plays a key role in the Earth's climate system.
B. Water evaporation happens at the same rate, regardless of the season.
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C. Heat transportation primarily occurs at lower latitudes.
D. Scientists have found no way to measure heat energy in the atmosphere.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Heat from the tropics is transported to higher latitudes by wind and ocean currents.
B. Heat from the tropics moves in only one direction, from the equator to the poles.
C. Water vapor plays a minor role in heat transportation within the atmosphere.
D. Latent heat and winds are the main mechanisms for transporting energy across the
globe.
Đề 19
In the near future, technology is expected to bring about significant changes to how we lead
our lives. One of the most notable shifts will be the way we keep up with the rapid pace of
technological advancements. With smart homes and autonomous vehicles, our daily routines
will increasingly depend on sophisticated systems designed to make our lives easier. For
example, smart assistants will look out for our needs, such as ordering groceries, adjusting
room temperatures, or even scheduling doctor’s appointments.
Another major development will be in communication. Today, we already use video
calls to stay in touch with friends and family across the globe, but the future promises even
more immersive experiences. Virtual reality could allow us to hang out with people in virtual
spaces, regardless of where they physically are. As a result, geographical barriers will
become less relevant, creating a more connected and global society.
Healthcare is also likely to transform. Advances in artificial intelligence will enable
doctors to look after patients more efficiently, diagnosing diseases earlier and prescribing
personalized treatments. These changes may extend our lifespan and improve our quality of
life. Additionally, breakthroughs in renewable energy will play a key role in sustaining our
future. With green energy sources, such as solar and wind power, we can cut down on
harmful emissions and move toward a more sustainable planet.
While these advancements sound exciting, they also bring challenges. As technology
becomes more integrated into our lives, we must be careful to ensure privacy and
security. We need to watch out for potential risks, like data breaches and the misuse of
personal information. With thoughtful planning, however, the future holds great promise for
improving the way we live, work, and interact with the world.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of our needs that smart
assistants will look out for in the future?
A. ordering groceries
B. adjusting room temperatures
C. preparing meals for kids in the nursery
D. scheduling doctor’s appointments
Question 2: The word " notable " in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. slow
B. easy
C. inaccurate
D. insignificant
Question 3: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. experiences
B. people
C. calls
D. geographical barriers
Question 4: The word "breakthroughs" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
A. failures
B. discoveries
C. experiments
D. complications
Question 5: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
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A. Geographical barriers will become more significant in the future.
B. Advances in healthcare may help people live longer.
C. Smart assistants will replace doctors in the future.
D. Privacy and security will be less important as technology advances.
Question 6: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. We need to focus on privacy and security as technology plays a bigger role in our lives.
B. Technology will eventually take over privacy and security issues in our lives.
C. Privacy and security will no longer be concerns as technology advances.
D. Privacy and security will decrease as technology advances.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the passage discuss the role of smart assistants in daily
life?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the passage mention renewable energy sources?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about the Restoration Story of Carnegie Hall and mark the
letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following
questions from 31 to 40.
Carnegie Hall, which is a famous concert hall in New York City, has again
undergone a restoration. While this is not the first, it is certainly the most extensive in the
building’s history. As a result of this new restoration, Carnegie Hall once again has the
quality of sound that it had when it was first built.
Carnegie Hall owes its existence to Andrew Carnegie, the wealthy owner of a steel
company in the late 1800s. (I)The hall was finished in 1891 and quickly gained a
reputation as an excellent performing arts hall where accomplished musicians made a
name for themselves. (II) Despite its reputation, the concert hall suffered from several
detrimental renovations over the years. (III) During the Great Depression, when fewer
people could afford to attend performances, the directors sold part of the building to
commercial businesses. (IV) As a result, a coffee shop was opened in one corner of the
building, for which the builders replaced the brick and terra cotta walls with windowpanes.
A renovation in 1946 seriously damaged the acoustical quality of the hall when the makers
of the film Carnegie Hall cut a gaping hole in the dome of the ceiling to allow for lights
and air vents. The hole was later covered with short curtains and a fake ceiling, but the hall
never sounded the same afterwards.
In 1960, the violinist Isaac Stem became involved in restoring the hall after a group
of real estate developers unveiled plans to demolish Carnegie Hall and build a high-rise
office building on the site. This threat spurred Stem to rally public support for Carnegie
Hall and encourage the City of New York to buy the property. The movement was
successful, and the concert hall is now owned by the city.
In the current restoration, builders tested each new material for its sound qualities,
and they replaced the hole in the ceiling with a dome. The builders also restored the outer
walls to their original appearance and closed the coffee shop. Carnegie has never sounded
better, and its prospects for the future have never looked more promising
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Question 9: Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit?
"These renovations, for various reasons, ultimately compromised its renowned acoustics."
A. (I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 10. Which of the following is NOT a change made to Carnegie Hall over the
years?
A. replacing brick walls with windowpanes
B. adding a fake ceiling in the dome
C. building a new high-rise office on the site
D. opening a coffee shop in one corner of the building
Question 11. The word " rally " in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. reunite
B. disperse
C. gather
D. distract
Question 12. The word " they " in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. sound qualities
B. developers
C. builders
D. outer walls
Question 13. The word " made a name for themselves " in the last paragraph could
best be replaced by:
A. got their real name
B. received a lot of support from audience
C. gained fame
D. were recognized as talented artists
Question 14. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The original appearance of the walls was preserved in all restorations.
B. The city of New York currently owns Carnegie Hall.
C. The ceiling was restored to improve the building's lighting.
D. Carnegie Hall has always maintained its original acoustics.
Question 15. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in
paragraph 1?
A. The restoration has given Carnegie Hall the same level of sound quality as when it
was originally constructed.
B. The sound quality of Carnegie Hall has improved beyond what it was when first built.
C. Carnegie Hall's restoration has changed its sound quality completely.
D. After the restoration, Carnegie Hall’s sound quality has deteriorated from its original
state.
Question 16. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Isaac Stern successfully persuaded real estate developers to stop demolishing
Carnegie Hall.
B. A group of developers attempted to purchase Carnegie Hall but ultimately failed.
C. Isaac Stern led a movement to save Carnegie Hall, resulting in its purchase by the
City of New York.
D. The City of New York decided to build a new performing arts center to replace
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Carnegie Hall.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Andrew Carnegie was directly involved in the recent restoration of Carnegie Hall.
B. The hall is only well-preserved when taken over by the state.
C. The acoustics of Carnegie Hall have been unchanged since its original construction.
D. Isaac Stern contributed financially to the restoration of Carnegie Hall.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Carnegie Hall has undergone numerous changes, but the recent restoration has
restored its original quality and secured its future.
B. Carnegie Hall was nearly destroyed during the Great Depression but was saved by the
City of New York.
C. Isaac Stern’s involvement led to Carnegie Hall's purchase by the City of New York
and improved its financial stability.
D. The original construction and restoration of Carnegie Hall have always focused on
preserving its historical design.
Đề 20
Over the past few decades, the term ‘Hallyu’, which translates to “Korean Wave”, has made
its way to the global stage. The rapid growth of the Hallyu market owes its success to
meticulously crafted domestic cultural strategies and unwavering government support.
Following the Asian financial crisis in 1997, President Kim Dae-jung envisioned a national
cultural strategy to revive the economy. Since then, South Korea’s cultural industry has been
on an upward tendency.
Amongst the latest ranking of most-subscribed-to YouTube accounts, BLACKPINK
secures the global top spot of artists, followed by BTS in second place and Justin Bieber in
third place. The exportation of cultural industries vividly showcases the escalating influence
of Hallyu, now a trump card for South Korea in improving its soft power.
BLACKPINK’s recent presence at Buckingham Palace is not the first time South Korean
idol groups have stepped onto the diplomatic stage. Thanks to the huge fan base and
influence of these groups, they have become a common sight before foreign affairs visits
and leader summits. Back in May 2022, BTS held an audience with US President Joe Biden
at the White House, discussing matters concerning anti-Asian hate and racial discrimination.
According to the ‘2021 National Image Survey’ by the South Korean Ministry of Culture,
Sports, and Tourism, a striking 80.5% of foreigners positively evaluated South Korea’s
national image. Undoubtedly, the Hallyu wave molds South Korea’s national image on their
political and cultural fronts.
(Adapted from https://uclpimedia.com)
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Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the popularity of
Hallyu?
A. The influence of South Korean idol groups worldwide
B. The increase in foreign investment in South Korea
C. The support from the South Korean government
D. The cultural strategies implemented in South Korea
Question 2. The word "unwavering" in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. inconsistent
B. strong
C. persistent
D. durable
Question 3. What does the word “they” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. foreign leaders
B. Korean idol groups
C. Korean diplomats
D. South Korean citizens
Question 4. The phrase "soft power" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. economic strength
B. cultural impact
C. military capability
D. political pressure
Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in
paragraph1?
A. The success of the Hallyu market comes from careful planning and consistent
backing from the South Korean government.
B. The Hallyu market grew quickly due to international strategies and the influence
of Korean celebrities.
C. The Hallyu market expanded because of increased interest from the global
community and government partnerships.
D. The rise of Hallyu is mainly due to government support without any domestic
cultural planning.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. BLACKPINK was the first South Korean idol group to attend an event at
Buckingham Palace.
B. BTS discussed anti-Asian hate and racial discrimination with Joe Biden at the
White House.
C. The South Korean Ministry of Culture, Sports, and Tourism conducted a survey in
2022 about the country's national image.
D. Only 20% of foreigners have a positive view of South Korea’s national image.
Question 7. In which paragraph is the impact of Hallyu on diplomatic relations discussed?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Question 8. In which paragraph is Hallyu mentioned as a factor in enhancing South Korea's
soft power?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about studying abroad and mark the letter A, B, C or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31
to 40.
Successful students often do the followings while studying. First, they have an overview
before reading. Next, they look for important information and pay greater attention to it
(which often needs jumping forward or backward to process information). They also relate
important points to one another. Also, they activate and use their prior knowledge. When they
realize that their understanding is not good, they do not wait to change strategies. Last, they
can monitor understanding and take action to correct or “fix up” mistakes in comprehension.
Conversely, students with low academic achievement often demonstrate ineffective
study skills. [I] They tend to assume a passive role in learning and rely on others (e.g.,
teachers, parents) to monitor their studying. [II] For example, low-achieving students often
do not monitor their understanding of content; they may not be aware of the purpose of
studying; and they show little evidence of looking back or employing “fix-up” strategies to
fix understanding problems. [III] Students who struggle with learning new information
seem to be unaware that they must extend effort beyond simply reading the content to
understand and remember it. [IV]
Children with learning disabilities do not plan and judge the quality of their studying.
Their studying may be disorganized. Students with learning problems face challenges with
personal organization as well. They often have difficulty keeping track of materials and
assignments, following directions, and completing work on time. Unlike good studiers who
employ a variety of study skills in a flexible yet purposeful manner, low-achieving students
use a restricted range of study skills. They cannot explain why good study strategies are
important for learning; and they tend to use the same, often ineffective study approach for all
learning tasks, ignoring task content, structure or difficulty.
(Source: Adapted from Study Skills: Managing Your Learning — NUI Galway)
Question 9. Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit?
This lack of initiative often leads to poor comprehension and retention of
information.
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A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase fix-up in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by_________.
A. problem-solving
B. learning disabilities
C. studying challenges
D. content understanding
Question 11. The word ‘They’ in the 1st paragraph refers to ______
A. Teachers
B. Low-achieving students
C. High-achieving students
D. Children with learning disabilities
Question 12. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT MENTIONED about
children with learning disabilities?
A. They lack the ability to organize their study materials.
B. They often fail to follow directions and complete work on time.
C. They do not know how to manage stress effectively.
D. They use the same study approach for different types of tasks.
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
A. Difficulties in remembering information
B. Some common habits among low-achieving students
C. How high-achieving students use prior knowledge
D. Study methods used in the classroom
Question 14. Which word below is opposite in meaning to “ineffective”?
A. purposeful
B. organized
C. efficient
D. Flexible
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE about students with low academic
achievement, according to the passage?
A. They have a variety of effective study skills for different learning tasks.
B. They frequently check their understanding while studying.
C. They rely on others to help them monitor their studying.
D. They understand the purpose of employing good study strategies.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
2:
A. Students with learning difficulties find it hard to focus on their studies.
B. Students who have trouble learning new material don’t realize that understanding
and remembering it requires more than just reading.
C. Struggling students often spend a lot of time re-reading the content.
D. Understanding complex content is difficult for students with low achievement.
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Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. All low-achieving students struggle with personal organization
B. High-achieving students do not need others to supervise their studying
C. Students with learning disabilities can easily remember information compared to
others
D. High-achieving students often ask teachers for help to study better
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Successful students use flexible and purposeful study skills to enhance
understanding, while students with low academic achievement struggle with
ineffective study strategies and organization.
B. Students with low academic achievement often receive the support they need from
teachers and parents to develop effective study skills.
C. Only children with learning disabilities face challenges with organization and
effective study habits.
D. High-achieving students are more focused on completing assignments on time,
while low-achieving students prefer reading content repeatedly
Đề 21
Smart Growth
Recently, experts have tried to curb the spread of suburban sprawl, or at least
create urban areas that are developed more purposefully. This is known as "smart
growth." City planners create communities that are designed for more walking and less
dependency on cars. Some developers recover old communities in downtown urban areas,
rather than develop the next piece of farmland or wilderness.
U.S. states such as Oregon are passing laws to prevent unplanned urban sprawl. They
have created boundaries around cities that limit the growth of development. Officials have
created laws stating that the minimum size of a plot of land is 32 hectares (80 acres). This is
to prevent developers from creating suburban communities. An 80-acre plot of land is
financially impractical for a single-family home!
Other smart-growth communities are creating new types of development. Some have
large amounts of undeveloped "green space," organic farms, and lakes. Urban areas typically
drain the water from rain and snow, which cannot collect in the paved-over grounD. Rather
than use drainage pipes and ditches, smart-growth communities create wetlands designed to
filter storm runoff.
More city planners are developing urban areas by considering their
geography. Engineers construct buildings that integrate seamlessly with the surrounding
environment, drawing upon natural resources. White roofs, for example, reflect the sun's
rays and lower the cost of air conditioning. Homebuilders in urban areas as diverse as Los
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Angeles, California, U.S., and the island communities of Greece create homes and businesses
with white plaster or tile roofs for this reason.
There is also a move toward preserving and maintaining more green areas and planting
more trees in urban areas. Landscape designers often consult
with city planners to incorporate parks with development.
[Adapted from National Geographic]
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a feature of smart
growth?
A. Promoting walking instead of driving
B. Revitalizing old neighborhoods
C. Increasing housing prices
D. Preserving green spaces
Question 2: The word “curb” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.
A. control
B. encourage
C. limit
D. restrict
Question 3: The phrase "financially impractical" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by
__________.
A. too suitable
B. too costly
C. easily affordable
D. very reasonable
Question 4: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. planners
B. officials
C. U.S. states
D. urban areas
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT TRUE, according to paragraphs 2 and 3?
A. The government restricts development in suburban areas by increasing the requirements
for building houses.
B. The government wants people to build houses of at least 80 acres to reduce the cost burden
and limit land use.
C. The states encourage residents to develop housing in already developed areas.
D. They have created new technologies to address the issue of rainwater accumulation on
paved surfaces.
Question 6: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. The rapid growth gradually leads people toward using natural energy sources and
sustainable structures instead of artificial constructions
B. Over time, people have consistently built structures that integrate with the natural
environment and efficiently make use of natural energy sources.
C. Structures are optimally designed to blend with the natural environment while effectively
utilizing available natural resources
D. Engineers have created impressive structures that integrate with nature, efficiently using
available resources alongside advanced human technology.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention the laws created to prevent urban
sprawl?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer explain how smart growth communities
manage stormwater?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about climate change and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31
to 40.
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Climate change refers to the long-term alteration of temperature and typical weather
patterns in a place. This phenomenon is largely driven by human activities, particularly the
burning of fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and gas, which increase the concentration of
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. They trap heat from the sun, leading to global warming
and causing severe weather events, such as hurricanes, floods, and droughts, to become more
frequent and intense. Climate change impacts nearly every region of the world and affects the
natural environment, economies, and human health.
As temperatures rise, polar ice caps and glaciers are melting at alarming rates,
contributing to rising sea levels. Coastal regions face an increased risk of flooding, and many
low-lying islands are at risk of disappearing entirely. Additionally, higher temperatures lead
to the warming of oceans, affecting marine ecosystems and causing coral bleaching, which
threatens biodiversity and the livelihoods of millions of people who depend on fishing.
[I] The consequences of climate change are not just environmental; they also affect
human society in significant ways. [II] Changes in weather patterns disrupt agriculture,
leading to crop failures and food shortages in vulnerable regions. [III] Furthermore, climate
change is linked to health issues such as respiratory diseases, heat strokes, and the spread of
diseases carried by insects, like malaria and dengue fever. [IV]
To combat climate change, a coordinated global effort is necessary. Governments,
organizations, and individuals all have roles to play in reducing greenhouse gas
emissions and promoting sustainable practices. Shifting to renewable energy sources, such
as wind, solar, and hydropower, is essential. Additionally, conserving forests and investing in
technology that captures carbon dioxide from the atmosphere can help mitigate the effects of
climate change and pave the way for a healthier planet.
Question 9: Where in paragraph 3 does the following sentence best fit?
"These impacts have far-reaching consequences that extend beyond environmental
damage."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The phrase "pave the way for" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by
________.
A. stand in the way of B. block progress to C. prepare a path toward D. add complexity to
Question 11: The word "They" in paragraph 1 refers to ________.
A. severe weather events B. greenhouse gases
C. fossil fuels
D. human activities
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an effect of climate change in the
passage?
A. An increase in the frequency of extreme weather events
B. Sea-level rise significantly impacting coastal communities
C. Health issues related to rising temperatures
D. The disappearance of various animal species due to climate change
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?
A. Only by transitioning to renewable energy sources can we successfully combat climate
change, without relying on the efforts of individuals or governments.
B. Climate change is largely driven by natural processes, implying that addressing this issue
is a global responsibility rather than one for individuals or governments.
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C. Successfully addressing climate change requires personal responsibility, community
action, and government regulations focused on reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
D. The fight against climate change heavily depends on government actions, while public
involvement and individual changes play a minimal role.
Question 14: The word "consequences" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to
________.
A. causes
B. signification
C. solutions
D. outcome
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Climate change significantly affects both the environment and human society in a few
regions around the world.
B. Government efforts aim solely to address the impacts of climate change on human health.
C. Protecting forests and advancing technology can completely reduce the effects of climate
change.
D. The phenomenon of global warming negatively impacts the livelihoods of fishermen in
coastal areas.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. If reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting sustainable practices is a common
role, then both the government and individuals must take action.
B. Because the government, organizations, and individuals work closely together, greenhouse
gas emissions are reduced and sustainable practices are promoted.
C. If the government and organizations join hands, then reducing greenhouse gas emissions
and promoting sustainable practices will be more effective.
D. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions and promoting sustainable practices is a shared
responsibility of the government, organizations, and individuals.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Coral bleaching is a natural phenomenon that commonly occurs in coastal areas when
ocean temperatures decrease due to climate change.
B. Almost all diseases today are a result of climate change, with respiratory diseases, malaria,
and dengue fever becoming increasingly prevalent.
C. Climate change mainly affects urban centers and coastal regions while leaving rural areas
unaffected.
D. Unemployment and food insecurity are consequences of the impact of climate change on
people in coastal areas and rural.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Solutions to mitigate the causes of global warming are being promoted to address its
impacts on the economy.
B. Climate change is a significant global issue caused by human activities, affecting various
aspects of the environment and society, and requiring coordinated efforts to prevent its
escalation.
C. The impacts of climate change are evident in most regions, causing serious consequences
for the global ecosystem as a whole, and measures are needed to mitigate global warming.
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D. Investing in modern technologies to develop scientific measures aimed at reducing the
risks of natural disasters caused by global warming for humanity is one of the best
approaches.
Đề 22
It's a widely held belief that cities harm the environment. For this reason, many
developing countries have imposed restrictions on the movement of people from rural to
urban areas and on the size of large cities. But there are problems with this viewpoint.
Urbanization that is properly controlled can benefit the environment in a number of ways.
First, urbanization is a highly productive force due to the combination of economies of
scale and positive externalities. Over 5.5 times as much is produced in Asia's cities as in its
rural areas. Urban agglomeration makes it possible to use fewer resources to produce the
same amount of work as non-urban areas. Urbanization therefore reduces the
environmental impact. Urbanization is necessary because the service sector depends on a
concentration of clients. The growth of service industries, which typically generate less waste
than manufacturing, is another environmentally beneficial aspect of urbanization.
Second, for any given population, high urban density has no effect on the environment.
According to urban economics studies, density is one of the most significant factors
influencing energy consumption. In places with a high population density, public
transportation may be more convenient and quicker. City dwellers are more likely to walk or
ride a bike instead of drive. Third, the construction, upkeep, and operation of environmentally
friendly public services and infrastructure, such as waste management, sanitation, and piped
water, are considerably simpler and less expensive in urban areas. More people can now
afford to use eco-friendly facilities and services thanks to urbanization.
Fourth, urbanization is driving the development of new technologies, including ecofriendly ones. Eco-friendly vehicles, utilities, and equipment are essential to the green
economy's long-term survival. Asia's enormous market will support green innovations in
cities because the region's enormous population will provide entrepreneurs with many
incentives and opportunities to invest in the development of energy-efficient products. Last
but not least, the improved standard of living brought about by urbanization has improved
access to housing, food, healthcare, and education. Cities with more residents can invest more
in infrastructure, which reduces traffic and improves public health. Urbanization fosters proenvironmental attitudes, especially among middle-class property owners, which greatly aid in
the introduction and enforcement of environmental laws and regulations.
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Any expanding city will inevitably incur expenses. People are moving in large numbers
to Asian cities, and many companies have opened offices there to capitalize on this trend.
Examples of industrial operations that contribute to urban sprawl and harm the environment
include the generation of electricity, transportation, construction, trash, and waste disposal.
Both the advantages and disadvantages of urbanization should be taken into account when
assessing its effects on the environment.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a positive effects of properly
managed urbanization
A. A highly effective force
B. The environment
C. Public services
D. Education
Question 2: The word “essential” in paragraph 4 is opposite in meaning to________.
A. dispensable
B. disorganized
C. disproportionate
D. discontent
Question 3: The word “which” in paragraph 4 refers to_________________.
A. cities
B. housing
C. infrastructure
D. education
Question 4: The word “convenient” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by_________?
A. awkward
B. serviceable
C. recreational
D. amicable
Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. Urban areas require more resources to achieve the same level of productivity as rural
areas.
B. Urbanization leads to increased resource consumption while maintaining productivity
levels.
C. Non-urban areas are more efficient in resource usage than urban settings.
D. Urban concentration allows for more efficient use of resources to generate equivalent
output compared to rural regions.
Question 6: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In terms of net benefit, the service sector is negative.
B. When city life becomes the norm for most people, we say that there has been urbanization.
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C. Sustainable development for the environment can be achieved through forward-thinking
technology.
D. Negative impacts of urbanization on the natural world are irreversible.
Question 7: Which of the following does the writer mention about the opportunity for
investing in energy-efficient products?
A. Paragraph 2
B. Paragraph 4
C. Paragraph 1
D. Paragraph 5
Question 8: Which of the following does the writer mention about element impacting power
usage?
A. Paragraph 4
B. Paragraph 1
C. Paragraph 2
D. Paragraph 3
Read the following passage about the CULTURAL DIVERSITY and mark the letter A,
B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following
questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Belgium features a fascinating mix of ancient traditions and contemporary legislation,
showcasing the country’s rich history. [II]. In Belgium, the families of the bride and groom
each pitch in by providing a sheet of paper for the wedding invitations, in line with a longstanding tradition. [III] The wedding invitations symbolize the new partnership and the
merging of the two families. [IV]
In an old Belgian tradition meant to bring the two families closer together, the bride
would pause halfway down the aisle to give her mother a solitary flower. They hold each
other's arms. The newlyweds then make their way to the groom's mother-in-law during the
recessional, where the bride presents her with a solitary flower as a token of her affection. As
a sign of the bride's acceptance of her new mother, they embrace.
Carrying a uniquely embroidered handkerchief bearing the bride's name is one of the
most significant and long-standing customs of the Belgian wedding. This handkerchief will
be framed and displayed in a special spot after the wedding. Before each subsequent female
member of the bride's family is married, the handkerchief is taken out of its frame,
embroidered with the name of the new bride, and then passed down through the generations.
A bridal handkerchief is a treasured memento that is passed down through the generations.
There are two big chairs placed near the altar where the bride and groom sit during the
wedding mass, representing their throne as king and queen for the day and the location. As
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the ceremony comes to a close, the groom places the wedding ring on the third finger of the
bride's left hand. Because it is a circle, the ring represents love that knows no bounds, and the
third finger of the left hand represents love because it is thought to hold the vein that goes to
the heart. Soon after the wedding, the newlyweds kiss for the first time as husband and wife.
Because each partner takes a breath of their new spouse's spirit, the kiss is a metaphor for the
couple's spiritual union.
Traditionally, as the bride and husband leave the church, the bridesmaids gather a
handful of pennies and then scatter them among the less fortunate outside. The happy couple
might increase their chances of financial success by donating to charity.
A honeymoon is for the newlyweds after the wedding. Honey wine, or mead, was
traditionally drunk during the 28-day honeymoon, which corresponds to one lunar cycle, in
ancient times. The purpose of this was to prevent the bride's relatives from attempting to
reclaim their daughter from her husband.
Question 9: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
Marriages in Belgium can take place as either civil or religious ceremonies
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The phrase“pitch in” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by________.
A. Give up
B. Turn down
C. Take off
D. Help out
Question 11: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to____________.
A. Two families
B. The newlyweds
C. The bride and her mother-in-law
D. The bride and her mother
Question 12: According to paragraph 2, which of the things is TRUE as a factor that brings
the two families closer together?
A. wedding invitations
B. a single flower
C. big chairs
D. the handkerchief
Question 13: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. The bridal handkerchief is an important family heirloom in Belgian weddings,
symbolizing a tradition of passing down names through generations.
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B. The handkerchief is often used by bridesmaids during the wedding ceremony for
practical purposes.
C. The bridal handkerchief is a simple accessory that serves no particular purpose during
the wedding.
D. The tradition of using a handkerchief in Belgian weddings is a recent development
without much historical significance.
Question 14: The word “scatter” in paragraph 5 is OPPOSITE in meaning to_______.
A. compose
B. assemble
C. regret
D. vegetate
Question 15: According to the paragraph, what is TRUE about the wedding ring?
A. The bride's right hand has it adorned on the third finger.
B. At the start of the ceremony, the groom puts on the ring that belonged to his partner.
C. The couple's limitless love is symbolized by the ring.
D. Both their nation's queen and king present the ring to them.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
6?
A. Celebrating the rich history of traditional Belgian weddings and the customs that have
developed around them.
B. The elaborate traditions associated with traditional Belgian marriages make this event
captivating.
C. It illustrates the distinction between contemporary and traditional wedding ceremonies in
Belgium.
D. The objective was to deter the bride's family from seeking to retrieve their daughter from
her spouse.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The tradition of the bridal handkerchief symbolizes a connection between generations of
women in the bride's family.
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B. Belgian weddings are centered around religious traditions with little emphasis on family
customs.
C. The honeymoon in Belgium is primarily meant to strengthen the couple's financial
standing.
D. The wedding ceremony in Belgium always involves only religious rites, never civil ones.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Belgian weddings are primarily focused on the couple's love, with little emphasis on
family or tradition.
B. The passage mainly discusses the history of Belgium's legislation regarding marriage and
its impact on modern weddings.
C. Weddings in Belgium are solely religious ceremonies that do not involve civil aspects or
family traditions.
D. The passage describes various traditions and customs associated with Belgian weddings,
highlighting the importance of family, symbols of love, and a mix of civil and religious
ceremonies.
Đề 23
Gender equality is a vital aspect of human rights that emphasizes the equal treatment and
opportunities for individuals, regardless of their gender. This principle is crucial for creating a
just and equitable society where everyone can thrive. Despite significant progress in recent
decades, gender inequality remains a pressing issue worldwide, affecting various aspects of
life, including education, employment, and health.
One of the key areas where gender inequality is evident is in the workplace. Women
often face barriers to career advancement, receiving lower salaries than their male
counterparts for similar roles. This pay gap is not just a statistic; it impacts families and
communities, perpetuating cycles of poverty and limiting economic growth. Initiatives aimed
at closing the gender pay gap are essential, but they require collective effort from
governments, businesses, and individuals alike.
In education, disparities also exist. While more girls are attending school than ever
before, they are often encouraged to pursue traditionally feminine fields, such as teaching or
nursing, rather than STEM (science, technology, engineering, and mathematics) careers. This
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limitation restricts their potential and undermines the diversity needed in these critical
sectors. Encouraging girls to explore all fields of study is essential for fostering innovation
and equality.
Moreover, societal norms and stereotypes play a significant role in perpetuating gender
inequality. Many cultures still uphold the belief that certain roles are inherently suited
for men or women, leading to discrimination and violence against those who defy these
norms. Addressing these societal attitudes is vital for achieving true gender equality.
Campaigns that challenge stereotypes and promote positive role models can help shift
perceptions and create a more inclusive environment.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an aspect affected by gender
inequality?
A. Education
B. Health
C. Employment
D. Housing
Question 2: The word “advancement” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to______.
A. Promotion
B. Stagnation
C. Improvement
D. Growth
Question 3: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to________.
A. The workplace
B. Gender inequality
C. The pay gap
D. Career advancement
Question 4: The word “disparities” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by_________.
A. Similarities
B. Differences
C. Advantages
D. Opportunities
Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined in paragraph 4?
A. In many societies, there is a strong belief that specific jobs are meant for men or women,
which results in unfair treatment and harm to those who challenge these views.
B. Numerous cultures believe that only men or women can perform certain jobs, causing
conflict and aggression toward those who oppose these ideas.
C. Many societies maintain the idea that specific roles fit men or women, resulting in
prejudice and hostility toward those who do not conform.
D. Various cultures persist in thinking that particular occupations are designated for men or
women, leading to bias and violence against individuals who resist these expectations.
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Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Gender equality has been fully achieved in all aspects of life.
B. All girls are encouraged to pursue STEM careers.
C. Women face challenges in advancing their careers compared to men.
D. Societal norms have no impact on gender inequality.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention a gender inequality in the
workplace?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 2
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer mention an effort to eliminate gender
inequality?
A. Paragraph 2
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 1
Read the following passage about the Exploring The Universe and mark the letter A, B,
C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following
questions from 31 to 40.
Science is a vast and fascinating field that seeks to understand the natural world and the
universe beyond[I]. It encompasses various disciplines, including physics, chemistry, biology,
and astronomy[II]. Each of these areas contributes to our understanding of complex
phenomena, [III]. For instance, scientific research has led to significant breakthroughs in
medicine, renewable energy, and environmental conservation[IV]. In this essay, we will
explore the impact of science on our lives, particularly focusing on space exploration.
One of the most intriguing aspects of science is space exploration. Humans have always
looked to the stars, wondering what lies beyond our planet. The launch of satellites and
manned missions has allowed us to gather valuable information about the cosmos. For
example, NASA's Mars Rover has provided insight into the potential for life on other planets.
Through meticulous research and data collection, scientists can analyze soil samples and
atmospheric conditions, paving the way for future explorations.
Space exploration also raises critical questions about our existence and the future of
humanity. As we continue to advance technologically, the prospect of colonizing other planets
becomes more plausible. This endeavor could serve as a solution to the challenges we face on
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Earth, such as overpopulation and resource depletion. However, ethical considerations must
guide these efforts. We must ensure that we do not repeat the mistakes of history, such as the
exploitation of natural resources and indigenous populations.
Moreover, scientific advancements have enabled us to develop technologies that enhance
our understanding of the universe. Telescopes and space probes allow us to observe distant
galaxies, study black holes, and uncover the mysteries of dark matter. Each discovery leads to
new questions, further fueling our curiosity and drive for knowledge. The concept of the
multiverse, for instance, challenges our understanding of reality and pushes the boundaries of
scientific thought.
In addition to exploring the universe, science plays a crucial role in addressing pressing
issues on Earth. Climate change, for example, is a significant concern that scientists are
actively investigating. Through climate models and data analysis, researchers can predict
future trends and propose solutions to mitigate the effects of global warming. Public
awareness and education are essential in fostering a collective response to environmental
challenges.
As we reflect on the wonders of science, it is clear that its contributions extend far
beyond mere knowledge acquisition. Science empowers us to make informed decisions
about our health, environment, and future. By fostering a culture of curiosity and critical
thinking, we can inspire future generations to continue exploring the unknown.
Question 9: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
enabling advancements that improve our daily lives
A. [III]
B. [I]
C. [IV]
D. [II]
Question 10: The phrase “paving the way” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced
by_______.
A. opening up
B. breaking down
C. carrying over
D. giving in
Question 11: The word “these” in paragraph 3 refers to_________.
A. The mistakes of history
B. The challenges faced on Earth
C. The technological advancements
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D. The ethical considerations
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the essay?
A. The role of telescopes in space exploration
B. The invention of the internet
C. Ethical considerations in colonizing other planets
D. The challenges of climate change
Question 13: The word “curiosity” in OPPOSITE in meaning to_______.
A. Interest
B. Knowledge
C. Indifference
D. Exploration
Question 14: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Space exploration has no impact on our understanding of life on Earth.
B. Curiosity has no role in scientific exploration.
C. Ethical considerations are not important in space colonization efforts.
D. Scientific research has led to advancements in medicine and environmental conservation.
Question 15: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 5?
A. Scientists are focused solely on space exploration and ignore Earth’s problems.
B. Public awareness is not important for addressing environmental challenges.
C. Researchers are primarily concerned with developing climate models without
considering public education.
D. Climate change is a pressing issue, and scientists are working to predict trends and find
solutions.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
6?
A. Science helps us gain knowledge about health and the environment.
B. Science is only about understanding health and the environment.
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C. Science allows us to choose wisely regarding health, environmental issues, and our
future.
D. Science limits our ability to make choices about health and the future.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Science has little impact on daily life and decision-making.
B. Public education and awareness are vital for addressing environmental issues.
C. Ethical considerations are unimportant in the context of space exploration.
D. Space exploration will completely solve Earth’s problems.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Scientific research contributes to our understanding of the universe and addresses
important issues on Earth, enhancing our lives and decision-making.
B. Science is solely focused on space exploration and has little relevance to everyday life.
C. The advancement of technology in space exploration guarantees the colonization of other
planets.
D. Climate change is the only challenge that science can help address in the modern world.
Đề 24
FUTURE CAREER
As technology rapidly advances and global challenges evolve, the landscape of future
careers is undergoing significant transformation. Today's students must prepare for jobs that
may not yet exist, requiring a blend of adaptability, creativity, and continuous learning. The
traditional notion of a linear career path is becoming obsolete, replaced by the concept of a
career portfolio where individuals may pursue multiple professions throughout their lives.
Emerging fields such as artificial intelligence, renewable energy, and biotechnology
are expected to drive job creation in the coming decades. These sectors demand a strong
foundation in STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) disciplines,
coupled with critical thinking and problem-solving skills. However, the importance of soft
skills cannot be overstated. Emotional intelligence, communication, and cultural competence
will be crucial in an increasingly interconnected global workforce.
The gig economy and remote work are reshaping traditional employment models.
Many future professionals may find themselves working as independent contractors or
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freelancers, managing multiple projects simultaneously. This shift necessitates
entrepreneurial skills, self-motivation, and the ability to navigate diverse work environments.
Lifelong learning will be paramount in staying relevant in the job market. As
automation and AI continue to evolve, routine tasks are likely to be automated, emphasizing
the need for uniquely human skills such as creativity, empathy, and complex problemsolving. Professionals must be prepared to upskill and reskill throughout their careers to adapt
to changing industry demands.
While the future job market may seem uncertain, it also presents unprecedented
opportunities for innovation and personal growth. By cultivating a growth mindset,
embracing technological literacy, and developing a diverse skill set, today's students can
position themselves for success in the dynamic career landscape of tomorrow.
(https://www.brookings.edu/articles/technology-and-the-future...)
Question 1. The opposite of "obsolete" as used in the first paragraph would be:
A. outdated
B. unnecessary
C. ancient
D. advanced
Question 2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of future careers?
A. the need for continuous learning
B. the importance of adaptability
C. the guarantee of job security
D. the rise of the gig economy
Question 3. Which of the following best paraphrases the last sentence of the passage?
A. Students should focus solely on technological skills to succeed in the future job market
B. The future job market is too uncertain to prepare for effectively
C. Success in future careers requires a combination of adaptability, tech-savviness, and varied
abilities
D. Personal growth is more important than professional development in future careers
Question 4. The word "paramount" in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to:
A. optional
B. secondary
C. crucial
D. irrelevant
Question 5. The phrase "This shift" in the third paragraph refers to:
A. The importance of soft skills
B. The rise of STEM disciplines
C. The reshaping of traditional employment models
D. The need for a strong educational foundation
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The concept of a linear career path is becoming more relevant in modern times.
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B. Emotional intelligence and communication are less important in the gig economy.
C. Lifelong learning is essential to stay competitive in the evolving job market.
D. Automation and AI are reducing the need for uniquely human skills like creativity.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the factors that influence future job
creation?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the shift in traditional employment
models?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about powering and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
TikTok is a popular social media app where people can create and share short videos [I]. It
started in China in 2016 as Douyin [II]. The app is known for its easy-to-use tools that let
users add music, effects, and filters to their videos [III]. People of all ages enjoy making and
watching TikTok videos, which can be funny, educational, or creative [IV].
One of the reasons TikTok is so popular is because of its algorithm, which shows
users videos that match their interests. When you open the app, you see a personalized feed
called the "For You" page. This page is different for everyone and updates with new videos
all the time. Users can also follow their favorite creators to see more of their content.
TikTok has become a platform for trends and challenges. Many users participate in
dance challenges, lip-syncing, and other viral activities. These trends can spread quickly,
reaching millions of people in a short time. Because of this, TikTok has influenced music
charts, fashion, and even language. Songs that go viral on TikTok often become hits on other
platforms too.
The app is also a space for education and advocacy. Many creators use TikTok to
share knowledge about various topics, such as science, history, cooking, and fitness.
Others use the platform to raise awareness about social issues and promote positive change.
In addition to individual creators, many brands and businesses use TikTok for
marketing. They create content to engage with their audience, often using popular trends and
challenges to promote their products.
However, TikTok has faced some criticism and challenges. Concerns about privacy
and data security have led to scrutiny from governments. Despite these issues, TikTok still
remains one of the most downloaded apps in the world.
(Adapted from Bright)
Question 9: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
But became TikTok when it launched internationally in 2018
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A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The phrase match their interests in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by
______.
A. ignore their preferences
B. fit their needs
C. oppose their opinions
D. reduce their choices
Question 11: The word their in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. creators’
B. videos’
C. everyone’s
D. users’
Question 12: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about TikTok's
algorithm?
A. It personalizes the feed for each user.
B. It updates with new videos frequently.
C. It prohibits hot content from all creators.
D. It helps users discover content they enjoy.
Question 13: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. TikTok trends often fail to gain popularity on other platforms.
B. TikTok trends quickly influence music, fashion, and language.
C. TikTok challenges are mainly focused on educational content.
D. TikTok trends are limited to dance and lip-syncing music videos.
Question 14: The word viral in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to __________.
A. infectious
B. unpopular
C. famous
D. catchy
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. TikTok’s algorithm shows the same content to all mobile users.
B. Many creators use TikTok to share knowledge on various topics.
C. TikTok trends rarely influence music or fashion outside the app.
D. Brands avoid using TikTok for marketing due to privacy concerns.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Many creators use TikTok to share basic entertainment content.
B. TikTok is mainly a platform for dance and music videos.
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C. Creators on TikTok can also share educational content.
D. TikTok is used mostly for promotional and advertising purposes.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. TikTok’s growth continues despite facing criticism and challenges.
C. TikTok’s popularity is declining gradually due to privacy concerns.
B. TikTok’s influence on music and culture is limited to Southeast Asia.
D. The algorithm of TikTok makes it difficult for trends to spread quickly.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Although popular among the teenagers, TikTok is a platform known mainly for its
privacy issues and lack of engaging content.
B. TikTok's popularity is due entirely to its effective marketing strategies and brand
collaborations because its contents are heavily criticised.
C. Because of the trending content, TikTok is primarily focused on providing
educational and beneficial content for its users.
D. TikTok has become a significant platform for trends, education, and marketing,
despite facing some criticism.
Đề 25
Cultural diversity refers to the presence of multiple cultural groups and their practices
within a society. It encompasses various aspects such as language, traditions, beliefs, and
values. Embracing cultural diversity can lead to a more inclusive and harmonious society,
where individuals appreciate and respect differences. This diversity enriches communities by
introducing new perspectives, fostering creativity, and promoting mutual understanding.
One significant benefit of cultural diversity is the exchange of ideas and knowledge.
When people from different cultural backgrounds interact, they share their unique
experiences and insights. This exchange can lead to innovative solutions and improvements
in various fields such as science, art, and business. Moreover, cultural diversity can enhance
social cohesion by encouraging people to work together and learn from one another.
Education plays a crucial role in promoting cultural diversity. Schools and universities
can create inclusive environments by incorporating diverse perspectives into their curricula
and encouraging students to engage with different cultures. By doing so, educational
institutions help students develop a global mindset and prepare them for a multicultural
world. Additionally, exposure to diverse cultures at a young age can reduce prejudices and
promote tolerance.
In the workplace, cultural diversity can boost productivity and creativity. Diverse
teams bring together individuals with different skills, viewpoints, and problem-solving
approaches. This variety can enhance decision-making processes and lead to more effective
and innovative solutions. Companies that prioritize cultural diversity also tend to have a more
positive work environment and higher employee satisfaction.
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Despite its benefits, cultural diversity also presents challenges. Misunderstandings
and conflicts can arise when people from different cultural backgrounds interact. To address
these challenges, it is essential to promote open communication and cultural competence. By
fostering an inclusive culture, societies and organizations can maximize the benefits of
cultural diversity while minimizing potential conflicts.
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an aspect of cultural diversity?
A. Language
B. Traditions
C. Technology
D. Values
Question 2. The word "encompasses" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:
A. excludes
B. includes
C. diminishes
D. separates
Question 3. The word "its" in paragraph 5 refers to:
A. cultural diversity
B. interaction
C. exchange of ideas and knowledge
D. unique experiences
Question 4. The word "enhance" in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. strengthen
B. lessen
C. ignore
D. simplify
Question 5.
Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Education should avoid addressing cultural diversity
B. Education plays no role in promoting cultural diversity
C. Schools and universities should incorporate diverse perspectives
D. Educational institutions should focus solely on local cultures
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Cultural diversity always leads to misunderstandings.
B. Cultural diversity has no impact on creativity.
C. Cultural diversity can reduce prejudices and promote tolerance.
D. Cultural diversity is irrelevant in the workplace.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer mention the role of cultural diversity in the
workplace?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the challenges of cultural diversity?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage about the benefits and challenges of remote work and mark the
letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the
following questions from 31 to 40.
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[I] The rise of remote work has transformed the modern workplace, offering
flexibility and a better work-life balance for employees around the world (Bloom et al.,
2015). [II] This trend, accelerated by technological advancements and the COVID-19
pandemic, allows employees to work from home or any location with internet access
(Gajendran & Harrison, 2007). [III] While remote work provides numerous benefits, it also
presents challenges that organizations and employees must address to remain productive and
engaged. [IV]
One of the main benefits of remote work is increased flexibility. Employees can
manage their time more effectively, which often leads to higher job satisfaction and reduced
stress. Furthermore, remote work eliminates the need for daily commutes, saving time and
reducing transportation expenses. Many employees report feeling more empowered to control
their schedules, allowing them to better balance personal and professional responsibilities.
However, remote work also comes with significant challenges. Isolation is a common
issue, as employees miss out on face-to-face interactions and team bonding, which are
important for mental well-being and collaboration. Studies have shown that prolonged
isolation can lead to feelings of loneliness, reducing job satisfaction and affecting mental
health (Ozcelik & Barsade, 2018). Additionally, remote workers may struggle to maintain
boundaries between work and personal life, leading to overwork and burnout.
To make remote work successful, companies need to implement strategies that
support employee well-being and productivity. Providing tools for virtual collaboration,
setting clear work-life boundaries, and encouraging regular team check-ins can help mitigate
the challenges of remote work. By balancing flexibility with structured support, organizations
can create a sustainable remote work environment that benefits both employers and
employees (Larson & DeChurch, 2020).
(Adapted from Remote Work and Employee Well-being by Bloom, Ozcelik, and
others)
Question 9. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
Remote work has become more popular due to advancements in digital communication
tools.
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10. The phrase "work-life balance" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ____.
A. career advancement
C. equilibrium between work and personal life
B. professional success
D. job security
Question 11. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. employees
B. responsibilities
C. schedules
D. expenses
Question 12. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a benefit of remote
work?
A. Increased flexibility
C. Improved work-life balance
B. Higher transportation costs
D. Reduced stress
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Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Remote work challenges employees with isolation and blurred boundaries, leading to
potential overwork and mental health concerns.
B. The advantages of remote work significantly outweigh any challenges employees might
face and this is the fact in every interprise nowadays.
C. Isolation is easily managed by virtual collaboration tools in a remote work setting on
account of the attempt of both employees and their bosses.
D. Remote work eliminates work-related stress and improves collaboration, which resulted in
highly-stimulated workers and employers.
Question 14. The word "mitigate" in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to ____.
A. worsen
B. intensify
C. reduce
D. acknowledge
Question 15. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Remote work reduces social interactions, which can lead to feelings of loneliness.
B. Daily commuting is essential for remote workers to maintain productivity and enthusiasm
in their work.
C. Companies are not responsible for supporting remote employees' well-being.
D. Remote work always leads to overwork and burnout.
Question 16. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Companies must avoid setting boundaries for employees' work-life balance in order to
foster not only their ability but also their productivity.
B. Employers should support remote work by providing resources and encouraging a
structured environment.
C. Employees need minimal guidance from companies to manage remote work challenges
regardless of their employers’ behaviors.
D. Employers should prevent remote employees from accessing collaboration tools so that
they have no choice but work for them.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Remote work completely eliminates the need for personal life boundaries.
B. The lack of face-to-face interaction is a minor issue in remote work.
C. Effective remote work requires a combination of flexibility and organizational support.
D. Remote work only benefits employees, not organizations.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Remote work offers flexibility and convenience but can cause isolation and work-life
imbalance, which companies must address to ensure employee well-being.
B. Remote work requires employees to spend more time commuting to improve productivity,
which leads to widespread worker resignations across most private enterprises.
C. Companies benefit from remote work as employees are more isolated and less engaged
and they have no need for a raise despite working extremely hard.
D. Remote work allows complete freedom for employees without any challenges, which
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strengthens the relationship between business owners and their employees, at work as well as
in everyday life.
Đề 26
ASEAN’s diversity showcases an incredible variety of traditional dances, each with
fascinating histories and cultural significance. Among these, Cambodia’s ancient Apsara
dance stands out as a prime example of a tradition that has endured for more than 1,000
years. Originating from animistic beliefs, this dance was influenced by Hindu forms
introduced during the era of Indian cultural influence, which began in the 1st century. Over
time, particularly between the 12th and 15th centuries, the Apsara dance evolved to reflect a
distinctly Khmer identity. Through the addition of unique movements and deeper meanings,
it became a cultural symbol during the early Angkor era.
Indonesia, with its vast size and diverse cultural influences, is home to a remarkable
array of traditional dances. While dozens of these dances can be found across the archipelago,
a few have gained prominence for their uniqueness and storytelling. Traditional Indonesian
dances vividly reflect the nation's rich cultural diversity. In Bali, three famous dances - the
Sanghyang (Trance), Kecak (Monkey Dance), and the Fire Dance - stand out. Each of these
tells captivating stories of bringing peace, unity, and harmony to local villages.
Visitors to Laos who explore ethnic villages will often find themselves immersed
in the basics of local dances, which play a key role in the cultural life of the community.
Lamvong, for instance, is a well-known dance where men form an inner circle surrounded by
women in an outer circle, moving gracefully in rhythm. Each ethnic group in Laos has its
distinct dances, shaped by their unique beliefs, legends, and traditions.
In Viet Nam, traditional dance is a profound expression of the nation’s culture and
history. Featuring graceful and fluid movements, these dances often depict elements of
nature, such as flowing rivers and blooming flowers, or daily activities like boat rowing and
silk washing. Popular dances include the conical hat dance, the fan dance, the royal lotus
dance, and the ancient drum dance.
Question 1: The word “prime” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. inferior
B. excellent
C. rough
D. rigid
Question 2: The word “these” in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. Three traditional dances of Bali
B. The unique cultural elements of Indonesia’s islands.
C. Stories of peace and harmony shared through dance.
D. Ritual practices rooted in Indonesia’s history.
Question 3: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Tourists visiting rural villages in Laos can observe and participate in local dances, which
are important to the culture.
B. Exploring Laotian ethnic villages gives visitors insight into the historical significance of
traditional dances.
C. Local dances in Laos offer visitors a deeper understanding of ancient legends and beliefs,
preserving cultural traditions.
D. People traveling to ethnic villages in Laos have the opportunity to learn advanced
techniques of traditional dance.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor shaping Laotian
ethnic dances?
A. unique beliefs
B. legends
C. historical events
D. traditions
Question 5: The word “depict” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by:
A. represent
B. resemble
C. mark
D. symbolize.
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Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The Apsara dance reflects a blend of Hindu and Khmer influences over centuries.
B. Lamvong is a type of traditional Laotian dance performed only in rural areas.
C. Vietnamese dances are characterized solely by depictions of nature.
D. Indonesian traditional dances have little connection to religious practices.
Question 7: In which paragraph is the influence of Hindu culture on the Apsara dance
discussed?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph is the role of natural elements in Vietnamese traditional
dances mentioned?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
A New Capital
When Pakistan was established as a new state in 1947, Karachi initially served as its
capital. However, maintaining Karachi as the capital proved to be a challenge due to several
disadvantages, such as its climate and the condition of the existing infrastructure. Rather than
attempting to improve these issues, the government opted to create a completely new capital
city. In 1959, a commission was formed to explore potential locations for this new capital.
Dr. Doxiadis, a renowned architect and city planner, was appointed as the chief advisor to the
commission.
Dr. Doxiadis and his team explored several possible sites for the new capital,
considering both geographical and environmental factors. After a thorough evaluation, they
narrowed the options down to two locations: one just outside Karachi and the other located
north of Rawalpindi. Both sites had their own sets of advantages and drawbacks, making the
decision a complex one.
The final choice was made after carefully considering a range of factors such as
transportation, water availability, economic implications, and national interests. Ultimately,
the area north of Rawalpindi was selected. On February 24, 1960, the new capital city was
named Islamabad, and a comprehensive master plan for its development was created. The
plan divided the area into three distinct sections: Islamabad itself, neighboring Rawalpindi,
and a national park.
Each section was designed to serve a specific purpose. (I) Islamabad would function
as the country’s political and cultural center, meeting the administrative needs of the nation.
(II) Rawalpindi, located nearby, would continue as the regional hub for industry and
commerce. (III) The national park area was intended to provide space for education,
recreation, and agriculture, enhancing the quality of life for residents. (IV)
Today, Islamabad is a vibrant city with a population of around 1 million people.
Known for its clean and healthy environment, it offers a pollution-free atmosphere, abundant
water resources, and ample green spaces. Tree-lined streets, elegant public buildings, and
well-planned shopping centers make the city a model of successful urban planning. With its
efficient design and flourishing urban life, Islamabad stands as a prime example of wellexecuted city planning and growth.
Question 9. Where in paragraph 4 does the following sentence best fit?
"The city has become a model of well-executed urban planning."
A. (I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 10. The word " they " in paragraph 2 refers to:
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A. Dr. Doxiadis and his team
B. geographical and
environmental factors
C. several possible sites
D. two locations
Question 11. The phrase "narrowed the options down" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced
by:
A. limited the choices
B. made a final decision
C. extended the alternatives
D. rejected some
possibilities
Question 12. Which of the following is NOT a factor considered when choosing the new
capital city?
A. availability of water
B. economic implications
C. proximity to other countries
D. transportation
Question 13. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. The decision to locate the capital near Rawalpindi included a plan with three
distinct sections.
B. Economic implications and national interests were key in choosing the new capital
city.
C. Islamabad was selected as the capital in 1960, based on transportation and water
availability.
D. The area north of Rawalpindi was chosen after considering various factors and
named Islamabad.
Question 14. The word "vibrant" in paragraph 5 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. quiet
B. dull
C. peaceful
D. dynamic
Question 15. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
5?
A. Islamabad is known for its impressive architecture and dynamic urban life.
B. Islamabad has proven that if a city is well-planned, it will soon collapse.
C. Islamabad serves as an example of how cities can be developed effectively.
D. Islamabad’s growth is resulted from its efficient design and flourishing urban life.
Question 16. According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Karachi's climate was the primary reason for selecting a new capital.
B. Rawalpindi was chosen as the capital instead of Islamabad.
C.The national park area is primarily used for government buildings.
D. Islamabad was planned to have both administrative and cultural functions.
Question 17. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
A. The creation of Islamabad was essential to Pakistan's growth and development.
B. Changing the capital is necessary for a country to build urban areas and develop
economy.
C. Pakistan’s development is a result of every effort of both government and
individuals.
D. The government of Pakistan faced challenges due to environmental factors.
Question 18. Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Islamabad is the new capital of Pakistan, designed through careful urban planning.
B. Pakistan has several cities, and Islamabad was chosen to be a hub for government services.
C. The initial plan for Islamabad was to serve only as a cultural center.
D. Islamabad was developed as a city to support both industry and agriculture
Đề 27
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The 22nd Southeast Asian Games were held in Vietnam from December 5th to 13th,
2003. It marked the first time Vietnam hosted such a significant sporting event, yet the
Games were a great success. They became a grand festival that impressed sports
enthusiasts with their spirit of solidarity, cooperation for peace, and development. The
event demonstrated Vietnam's capability to unite the region through sports.
Athletes from 11 participating countries competed in 32 sports, winning a total of 444
gold medals. Teams in table tennis, badminton, karate, volleyball, basketball, and wrestling
showcased some of the region’s top competitors. Notably, many records set during the
Games were close to international standards. Vietnam emerged victorious, securing 158 gold
medals and finishing at the top of the medal standings. Thailand came second with 90 golds,
while Indonesia ranked third with 55. Singapore and Vietnam were the only nations with
participants honored as the Most Outstanding Athletes in Swimming and Shooting events.
In football, the Vietnamese Women's Football team successfully defended their SEA
Games title, a moment of pride for the host nation. In the Men's Football Final, Vietnam
faced Thailand but lost, with the Thai team taking home the gold medal. Other sports, such as
karate, athletics, bodybuilding, and wushu, saw young and talented Vietnamese athletes
delivering exceptional performances and securing numerous gold medals. The strong
performance of the athletes reflected Vietnam's growing prowess in the regional sports arena.
Vietnam’s first-place finish was not surprising. To prepare for the 22nd SEA Games,
the country implemented an intensive training program for its athletes, involving both
domestic and international facilities. Furthermore, the enthusiastic support from the
Vietnamese people inspired the athletes to compete in high spirits. This success solidified
Vietnam’s reputation as an excellent host for international sporting events. With this
achievement, Vietnam has demonstrated its potential to host even larger competitions, such
as the Asian Games, in the future.
Question 1: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
A. The Games united the region through athletic competition and cultural values.
B. The Games’ aim is to unit the countries in the Southeast Asian region.
C. The Games achieved success by emphasizing individual achievements.
D. The Games focused on setting new international records for the region.
Question 2: The word “showcased” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by:
A. performed
B. demonstrated
C. achieved
D. highlighted
Question 3: The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. athletes.
B. facilities
C. training programs.
D. team
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the sports that Vietnam won
gold medals in?
A. athletics
B. karate
C. wushu
D. basketball
Question 5: The word “intensive” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. light
B. rigorous
C. exhaustive
D. thorough
Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Thailand won 158 gold medals and successfully defended its second position.
B. Vietnamese Men’s Football Team successfully defended their SEA Games title.
C. Vietnam’s success proved its potential to host larger international events.
D. The 22nd Southeast Asian Games took place for more than two weeks in 2003.
Question 7: In which paragraph is the Vietnamese Women's Football team’s performance
mentioned?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph is the preparation for the Games discussed?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
In an era of increasing global awareness, debates around sustainable practices such as
fair trade, organic farming, and recycling are gaining prominence. Farmers in developing
countries are among the most vulnerable people, dependent on world commodity markets,
middlemen, and unpredictable weather.
(I)Fair trade arrangements aim to support cooperative groups by guaranteeing prices
above the world market rate and additional bonuses. (II). However, critics argue that fair
trade may not lift a country out of poverty. (III)They claim that most of the money generated
from sales goes to wealthy countries that promote these products. (IV)In fact, only about 5%
of the sale price of a fair-trade chocolate bar (retailing for £1.73 in the UK) reaches the poor
country.
Another significant trend is the rise of organic food, marketed as being free of
chemicals, which appeals to consumers concerned about the dangers of chemicals in food.
These chemicals are suspected of causing various health problems, including cancer and
developmental issues in children. Despite these concerns, British farmers have not converted
to organic farming in large enough numbers to meet the demand. As a result, supermarkets
often import organic vegetables from distant countries, contributing to higher greenhouse gas
emissions due to transportation. Environmentalists are now urging consumers to buy locally
grown vegetables, even if they are pesticide-treated, suggesting a good wash can minimize
the risk.
In recent years, a shift has occurred in how we handle waste. Once content to bury it
in landfills or dump it at sea, we are now encouraged to recycle and treat waste as a resource.
This shift has led to more widespread kerbside collections for various materials like
paper, plastic, and metal. However, recycling has unintended consequences. Most of the
UK's recyclables are sent to China or India, which incurs additional environmental costs
from transportation. In these countries, workers often sort waste under dangerous conditions.
Sometimes, materials that are sorted at home still end up in landfills because the market for
them fluctuates.
While efforts to promote sustainability are commendable, they require constant
evaluation to ensure they truly benefit people and the environment, rather than creating new
inequalities or environmental harm.
Question 9: Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit?
"This growing fair-trade market has distributed hundreds of millions of pounds to over 50
million people worldwide."
A. (I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 10: The phrase "gaining prominence" could be best replaced by:
A. gaining popularity
B. being ignored
C. becoming less significant
D. rising in price
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a challenge faced by farmers in
developing countries?
A. dependence on world commodity markets
B. reliance on middlemen
C. exposure to unpredictable weather
D. lack of access to modern
technology
Question 12: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. environmentalists
B. greenhouse gas emissions
C. consumers
D. locally grown vegetables
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Environmentalists encourage individuals to buy locally grown vegetables to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions.
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B. One of the reasons why consumers prefer organic food is because it is perceived as
healthier and free from chemicals.
C. The popularity of organic food in Britain exceeds local supply, which leads to imports and
environmental issues.
D. Due to environmental issues, British farmers are unable to fully meet the increasing
demand for organic vegetables.
Question 14: What is the opposite of " incurs " as used in the passage?
A. exposes
B. secures
C. avoids
D. experiences
Question 15: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Organic food is always produced locally to reduce environmental impact.
B. Fair trade practices aim to help organic farmers to sell their produce more effectively.
C. Recycling efforts in the UK have resulted in better environmental outcomes.
D. Critics argue that fair trade may not effectively reduce poverty in developing countries.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence?
A. There has been an increase in recycling services for materials like paper and plastic.
B. More people are now using kerbside bins for waste collection instead of burying it .
C. The process of recycling has become more expensive due to modern technology.
D. Waste management programs have been reduced in the UK because of organic produce.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage above?
A. Fair trade has no significant impact on the global economy.
B. Local farming is less harmful to the environment than organic farming.
C. Environmentalists prioritize local food production over global sustainability efforts.
D. Sustainable practices can lead to environmental harm if not carefully evaluated.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Consumers should focus on buying organic products to protect their health and plastic
waste should be treated properly so that it can be turned into helpful products.
B. Fair trade and organic farming have not yet reached their full potential in global markets
because they are so expensive for consumers to buy.
C. Sustainability practices, such as fair trade, organic food, and recycling, are essential for
the environment, but they require further evaluation to avoid unintended consequences.
D. Recycling is a futile effort that creates more harm than good because it takes a long time
to transport waste,which results in a large amount of carbon footprint.
Đề 28
Technology in Education
[I] Education, as a cornerstone of societal progress, has undergone significant
transformations with the advent of technology. While traditional teaching methods relied
heavily on direct teacher-student interactions, modern classrooms are now enriched with
digital tools and platforms that facilitate an immersive learning experience. [II] However, the
integration of technology into education brings both challenges and opportunities,
necessitating a balanced approach to ensure equitable and effective learning outcomes for all
students. [III]
[IV] One of the most notable benefits of technology in education is the accessibility it offers.
Online learning platforms, such as Khan Academy and Coursera, enable learners to access
quality education regardless of their geographical location. Additionally, adaptive learning
technologies tailor educational content to suit individual students' needs, fostering a more
personalized learning experience. Despite these advantages, over-reliance on technology can
exacerbate inequalities, as not all students have equal access to devices and high-speed
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internet. This digital divide remains a pressing issue, particularly in underprivileged
communities.
Furthermore, the role of artificial intelligence (AI) in education has gained significant
attention. AI-powered tools, such as virtual tutors and automated grading systems, have
revolutionized the way students learn and teachers manage classrooms. For instance, chatbots
can provide instant feedback to students, while data analytics help educators identify
struggling learners and address their needs proactively. Nevertheless, critics argue that such
innovations might reduce the importance of human interaction, which is crucial for
developing critical thinking and emotional intelligence.
Finally, the effectiveness of technology in education hinges on proper implementation
and training. Teachers must be adequately equipped to navigate digital tools and integrate
them into their teaching practices. Moreover, fostering digital literacy among students is vital
to ensure they can use these resources effectively and responsibly. As education systems
worldwide embrace digital transformation, policymakers must prioritize inclusivity, ensuring
that technological advancements benefit everyone.
Question 1. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an example of an online learning
platform?
A. Coursera
B. Khan Academy
C. Virtual tutors
D. Adaptive technologies
Question 2. The word accessibility in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. remoteness
B. Simplicity
C. approximation
D. availability
Question 3. The word their in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. data analytics
B. chatbots
C. learners
D. educators
Question 4. The word integrate in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by:
A. merge
B. interruptions
C. regressions
D. segregate
Question 5. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
"The effectiveness of technology in education hinges on proper implementation and
training"
A. Technology in education is effective regardless of how it is implemented or whether users
are trained.
B. The success of educational technology depends on how well it is implemented and
whether users are properly trained.
C. Proper training in education is more important than using technology effectively.
D. Technology in education eliminates the need for proper implementation or training.
Question 6. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Online platforms make education accessible to everyone, regardless of location.
B. AI-powered tools have fully replaced teachers in modern classrooms.
C. The digital divide affects students equally across all communities.
D. Proper teacher training is critical for the successful use of educational technology.
Question 7. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the potential of artificial intelligence
in education?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Question 8. In which paragraph does the writer explore the necessity of digital literacy for
students?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about the urban shift and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Pollution and Its Global Impact
[I] Pollution is one of the most pressing issues in the modern world, affecting not only the
environment but also public health and global economies. [II] While urbanization and
industrialization have brought significant progress, they have also introduced severe
environmental challenges. [III] Reducing pollution requires a comprehensive approach that
includes public awareness, technological innovation, and stricter environmental policies. [IV]
Air pollution is among the most widespread forms of environmental degradation. It stems
from emissions by vehicles, factories, and deforestation, leading to harmful effects on both
human health and the climate. According to the United Nations, fine particulate matter
(PM2.5) causes millions of premature deaths annually. Water pollution, caused by untreated
waste, agricultural runoff, and oil spills, destroys marine ecosystems and threatens human
water supplies. Similarly, soil pollution—often overlooked—results from pesticides, heavy
metals, and industrial waste, severely impacting agriculture and biodiversity.
While governments worldwide have implemented measures to combat pollution, individual
action is equally essential. Reducing plastic consumption, opting for sustainable
transportation, and recycling waste can significantly lessen environmental harm. Moreover,
industries must adopt cleaner production methods, such as renewable energy and green
technology. However, these solutions are effective only when paired with robust educational
campaigns that encourage people to understand and address pollution’s consequences.
Despite these efforts, the problem persists, especially in developing nations, where economic
constraints hinder environmental policies and waste management systems. At the same time,
wealthier countries often export waste to poorer regions, exacerbating the issue. Experts
stress that international cooperation is essential to tackle pollution on a global scale. Unless
all nations contribute, the planet’s resources and ecosystems may face irreversible damage.
Question 9: Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit?
"Pollution significantly threatens global biodiversity and ecosystems, pushing many
species toward extinction."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The word constraints in the final paragraph most likely means:
A. pressures B. freedoms
C. solutions
D. priorities
Question 11: Which of the following statements is NOT true about pollution?
A. Air pollution affects both human health and the climate.
B. Soil pollution only impacts agricultural practices.
C. Developing nations face challenges in managing pollution effectively.
D. Plastic consumption reduction is a way to mitigate pollution.
Question 12: The word robust in paragraph three could best be replaced by:
A. strong
B. weak
C. flexible
D. informal
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Governments are solely responsible for tackling pollution.
B. Individuals and industries must adopt sustainable practices and educate the public to
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combat pollution.
C. Recycling programs alone are enough to address pollution problems.
D. The use of green technology is the only solution to reduce pollution globally.
Question 14: The word persists in the last paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. ends
B. continues
C. increases
D. rises
Question 15: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Water pollution has no long-term effects on human populations.
B. Education plays an important role in reducing pollution.
C. Developing countries have solved their pollution issues effectively.
D. Pollution does not affect biodiversity.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in the first
paragraph?
"Reducing pollution requires a comprehensive approach that includes public awareness,
technological innovation, and stricter environmental policies."
A. Pollution reduction depends on combining various solutions and involving society.
B. The public alone is responsible for solving pollution problems.
C. Technology and stricter policies are enough to reduce pollution.
D. Addressing pollution requires governments to act alone.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Economic challenges make pollution management harder in some countries.
B. Wealthier nations generate less waste than poorer countries.
C. Global cooperation is unnecessary in solving pollution issues.
D. Recycling has little to no impact on pollution levels.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Pollution is a severe global issue that requires combined efforts from individuals,
governments, and international cooperation to address its impacts.
B. Wealthier nations are entirely responsible for pollution due to their industrial practices.
C. Pollution’s effects are limited to developing countries lacking proper management
systems.
D. Recycling programs and renewable energy have solved most pollution problems globally
Đề 29
The job market is evolving rapidly, and while technical expertise remains important, soft
skills are increasingly becoming key factors in hiring decisions. Employers often look for
candidates with communication, teamwork, and problem-solving abilities. These skills not
only improve workplace efficiency but also foster better relationships among colleagues.
According to a 2022 LinkedIn survey, 92% of recruiters stated that soft skills are as
important as, if not more important than, technical skills.
Effective communication is one of the most sought after soft skills. Being able to convey
ideas clearly and listen actively contributes to a collaborative work environment. For
example, employees who can explain their thoughts effectively during meetings or through
written reports tend to drive projects forward successfully. Moreover, good communication
prevents misunderstandings, saving time and resources.
Teamwork is another essential skill that employers highly value. In today’s interconnected
workspaces, many tasks require collaboration. Successful teams often consist of individuals
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who can share responsibilities, offer constructive feedback, and adapt to group dynamics. For
instance, a software development team needs programmers, designers, and testers to work
seamlessly together to deliver a product efficiently.
Problem-solving, meanwhile, allows employees to navigate challenges effectively. This skill
involves analyzing a situation, identifying potential solutions, and implementing the best one.
Employers appreciate candidates who demonstrate initiative and creativity in resolving
issues. For example, when a supply chain disruption occurs, a proactive approach can
minimize delays and maintain customer satisfaction.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a highly valued soft skill?
A. Communication B. Leadership
C. Problem-solving
D. Teamwork
Question 2: The word foster in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. nurture
B. hinder
C. challenge
D. complicate
Question 3: The word their in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. employees
B. projects
C. communication
D. meetings
Question 4: The word collaborative in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. solitary
B. cooperative
C. antagonistic
D. productive
Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the italicized sentence in paragraph 1?
A. Soft skills are more important than technical expertise in the workplace.
B. Both soft skills and technical skills are essential for workplace success.
C. Technical expertise is less critical than soft skills in modern jobs.
D. Employers prioritize soft skills over technical skills in hiring decisions.
Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Recruiters rank technical skills higher than soft skills in most cases.
B. Good communication saves time and reduces misunderstandings.
C. Teamwork is only important in creative industries.
D. Problem-solving focuses solely on technical issues.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer emphasize the significance of group
collaboration?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer provide the significance of presentation
skill?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about endangered languages and mark the letter A, B, C or D
on your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31
to 40.
[I] Social media has become a dominant force in modern communication, offering a
range of benefits and challenges. [II] It has revolutionized the way people interact, share
information, and even form relationships. [III] While these platforms offer opportunities for
connection and expression, they also have their drawbacks. [IV] For instance, excessive use
of social media has been linked to a range of negative effects, including mental health issues,
social isolation, and decreased productivity. [V] However, when used responsibly, social
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media can also offer a variety of positive outcomes, such as the ability to stay connected
with loved ones, network professionally, and access valuable information and resources.
One of the major benefits of social media is its ability to keep people connected. For
example, individuals who live far apart can maintain close relationships through regular
communication on these platforms. Social media also facilitates professional networking,
allowing users to connect with potential employers or clients, and enabling companies to
promote their products and services to a global audience. Additionally, platforms like
Facebook, Twitter, and Instagram provide a space for people to share ideas, opinions, and
creative work, fostering a sense of community and collaboration.
Despite these advantages, there are serious concerns about the negative impact of social
media, particularly on mental health. Studies have shown that excessive social media use can
contribute to feelings of anxiety, depression, and loneliness. This is often attributed to the
unrealistic portrayals of life that are commonly shared on these platforms, leading to
comparisons that can make individuals feel inadequate or left out. Furthermore, constant
exposure to negative news or online bullying can exacerbate these feelings and contribute to
long-term psychological stress.
Another issue with social media is its potential to distract people from their daily
responsibilities. With notifications constantly popping up and endless streams of content to
scroll through, individuals may find it difficult to focus on tasks such as work, school, or
personal obligations. This can result in decreased productivity and a lack of attention to
important matters.
Ultimately, the impact of social media depends on how it is used. If individuals are mindful
of their usage patterns and take steps to limit their time on these platforms, they can enjoy the
benefits of staying connected and informed without the negative consequences. Parents,
educators, and mental health professionals can also play a role in helping young people
develop healthy habits and manage their social media use effectively.
Question 9: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
"Social media has transformed how individuals communicate and engage with each
other."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The phrase "stay connected with " in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to
_______.
A. maintain a relationship with
B. communicate briefly with
C. share information with
D. break up with
Question 11: The word "these" in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. platforms like Facebook, Twitter, and Instagram
B. professional networks
C. potential employers or clients
D. ideas, opinions, and creative work
Question 12: According to passage, which of the following is NOT a benefit of social media?
A. Staying connected with friends and family
B. Networking for professional purposes
C. Sharing personal experiences and opinions
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D. Decreased productivity and mental well-being
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Social media causes widespread loneliness, anxiety, and depression.
B. Negative portrayals on social media lead to psychological harm.
C. Online bullying is the primary cause of mental health issues.
D. Social media has no impact on mental health if used correctly.
Question 14: The word "exacerbate" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. alleviate
B. intensify
C. ignore
D. worsen
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Social media has no impact on personal relationships.
B. Social media use should be avoided entirely to ensure mental well-being.
C. Social media can positively influence communication when used appropriately.
D. Social media networks primarily benefit young people.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
1?
“Social media has become a dominant force in modern communication."
A. Social media has lost its influence in modern communication.
B. Social media is a minor factor in how we communicate today.
C. Social media plays a crucial role in how people communicate today.
D. Social media is no longer relevant in modern communication.
Question 17: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Social media has more negative effects than positive ones.
B. Proper social media use can offer both personal and professional benefits.
C. The more time spent on social media, the more productive a person becomes.
D. Social media should be completely avoided to maintain good mental health.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Social media offers both advantages and risks, but with mindful usage, individuals can
minimize its negative effects and reap its benefits.
B. Social media has no real benefits, as it always leads to negative mental health
consequences.
C. Social media is an essential tool for communication but should be used sparingly to avoid
harm.
D. The more time people spend on social media, the less they are affected by its negative
consequences.
Đề 30
Climate Change and Its Impacts on Earth
Our Earth remains breathtakingly beautiful. The sky is blue, clouds are fluffy, the
wind blows gently, and rain continues to fall. This serene image of our planet is something
we all cherish. Yet, behind this calm and majestic exterior, undeniable evidence points to
rapid and alarming environmental changes. Scientists around the world have observed
that climate change and global warming are accelerating at a rate never before seen in Earth's
long history.
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Global warming poses a serious and significant threat to the health of our planet and
all living beings that call it home. Over the last century, the average surface temperature of
the Earth has risen by nearly 1.5 degrees Fahrenheit. At first glance, this might seem like a
minor rise, but its impact has been far-reaching and profound, altering the delicate balance of
the global climate. Recent data reveals that 11 out of the past 12 years were the hottest on
record, emphasizing how quickly warming has advanced in just a few decades.
The consequences of this warming are becoming increasingly apparent. Polar ice caps
and glaciers are melting at unprecedented rates, leading to rising sea levels that endanger
coastal cities and small island nations. Meanwhile, extreme weather events—such as
prolonged droughts, catastrophic floods, and violent storms—are becoming not only more
frequent but also more severe. These changes are disrupting human lives, threatening
agricultural systems, and putting countless ecosystems and species at risk of extinction.
To combat this crisis, everyone must take responsibility. Simple actions, such as
reducing carbon emissions, adopting renewable energy, and conserving natural resources, can
make a significant difference. Addressing climate change requires collective effort and
immediate action to prevent its impacts from worsening. By working together, we can protect
our planet and create a sustainable future for generations to come.
(Adapted from Readworks.org..)
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the beautiful characteristics
of the Earth in paragraph 1?
A. The wind blows gently.
B. The clouds are fluffy.
C. The oceans are calm.
D. The rain continues to fall.
Question 2: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
1?
A. Despite the outward beauty of our planet, there is strong proof that serious environmental
changes are occurring.
B. The Earth is absolutely beautiful, but there are still many problems that need to be solved
to preserve its appreance.
C. The natural world appears rather serene and well-preserved, but its peaceful appearance
hides no significant threats.
D. Although our planet looks extremely tranquil, there is evidence suggesting that everything
is in perfect balance.
Question 3: The word "profound" in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. minor
B. extreme
C. significant
D. alarming
Question 4: The word "severe" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
A. mild
B. manageable
C. harsh
D. expected
Question 5: The word "its" in paragraph 4 refers to:
A. collective effort
B. climate change
C. immediate action
D. significant difference
Question 6 : According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Climate change is slowing down due to increased global efforts.
B. Polar ice caps are melting at an unprecedented rate.
C. Only extreme weather events threaten biodiversity.
D. The Earth’s surface temperature rose by 1.5 degrees Fahrenheit in a decade.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the passage discuss the effects of climate change on
human and ecological systems?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8 : In which paragraph is the urgency of taking action emphasized?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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Read the following passage about smart energy and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
SMART ENERGY
The coming decades will bring significant changes in energy supply and consumption.
With concerns about global warming and diminishing oil reserves, nations are shifting
toward low-carbon economies, prompting major changes in electricity supply and usage.
Firstly, electricity demand will increase as consumers transition from oil and gas to electricity
for homes and vehicles. Secondly, power generation will rise, focusing on renewable sources.
To tackle these challenges, countries are investing in Smart Grid technology, which aims to
optimize the electricity network by understanding power generation and demand, thereby
improving efficiency.
(I)Smart Grid technology integrates computer systems with electricity networks.
(II)These systems gather data on supply and demand, enhancing engineers’ management
capabilities. (III)This leads to better energy utilization, reduced fuel needs, and lower carbon
emissions. Additionally, operational and maintenance costs are minimized. For consumers,
smart technology provides real-time data on energy usage and variable tariffs, encouraging
energy use during off-peak hours to reduce costs. For instance, appliances like washing
machines can be run at night. Smart meters connected to the Internet or phone networks allow
remote control of appliances. (IV)
However, challenges accompany these advancements. Managing supply and demand
is difficult with renewable energy sources like wind, solar, and wave power, which are
unpredictable. Unlike oil and gas, these sources cannot easily meet peak demands, risking
blackouts or system failures. Solutions include improving energy storage and promoting offpeak electricity use. Another issue is the remote location of many renewable energy sources,
such as coastal and upland areas, which often lack infrastructure. Building new networks is
necessary, though smart technology can reduce costs through efficient planning.
Smart Technology is still in development, with pilot projects testing its feasibility.
Consumers are experimenting with smart meters to manage their home electricity use, and
trials are underway for new infrastructure. Implementation will likely occur in phases,
starting with simple methods to achieve quick carbon savings before advancing to more
complex systems. Urban areas, with their high energy demand, are the primary focus for
initial investments. Cities will adopt sustainable power solutions, transportation systems, and
electric vehicle charging networks. By 2050, these innovations will go a long way toward
revolutionizing energy supply, transforming homes, transportation, and lifestyles.
(Adapted from Ielts testonline.com)
Question 9: The word “diminishing” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. reducing
B. surprising
C. expanding
D. demanding
Question 10: Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit?
“This provides the opportunity to make better use of available electricity and reduce energy
waste.”
A. (I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of Smart Grid
technology?
A. improving energy utilization
B. reducing cost of energy resources
C. diminishing the demand for fuel
D. reducing carbon emissions
Question 12: The phrase “These sources” in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. oil and gas
B. smart meters
C. computer systems
D. renewable energy sources
Question 13: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence?
A. New technologies will first reduce emissions and later address more complicated tasks.
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B. Smart energy systems will immediately address carbon emissions in complex ways.
C. Quick fixes will improve efficiency while advanced systems will take time to develop.
D. Gradual implementation will only focus on lowering emissions before solving all
challenges.
Question 14: The phrase "go a long way" in paragraph 4 can be best replaced by______
A. travel a great distance
B. be very helpful
C. take a long time
D. cost a lot of money
Question 15: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?
A. Smart technology is solving storage and supply problems for renewable energy by the
year 2050.
B. New energy infrastructure is necessary to integrate renewable sources into urban energy
system.
C. Smart technology is being developed and tested to revolutionize urban energy systems and
lifestyles.
D. Remote renewable energy sources require additional infrastructure and Smart Grid
technology.
Question 16: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Cities will implement advanced systems before testing smart meters.
B. Smart meters allow appliances to be controlled from a distance.
C. Most renewable energy sources are located near major cities.
D. Pilot schemes are delayed due to the high costs of infrastructure.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Smart technology will eliminate the need for fossil fuels entirely.
B. Consumer behavior plays a key role in managing energy demand.
C. The success of smart grids depends solely on urban adoption.
D. Renewable energy will soon replace nuclear power in most regions.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Smart Grid technology is a solution to the unpredictable nature of renewable energy
sources, offering operational benefits and reducing costs.
B. The transition to a low-carbon economy will rely heavily on renewable energy, advanced
infrastructure, and the adoption of smart technologies.
C. Smart energy systems provide a sustainable and cost-effective alternative to current
energy supply methods, addressing both consumer needs and energy challenges.
D. Cities will be at the forefront of energy innovation, driving the adoption of renewable
energy sources and new grid technologies.
Đề 31
The Singapore Science Centre, situated on a sprawling six-hectare site in Jurong,
offers a captivating way to explore the wonders of science and technology. Here, visitors can
engage with interactive exhibits that make learning both fun and memorable. Clap your
hands, and colorful bulbs will light up; spin a wheel, and it will activate a fan. This engaging
environment sparks curiosity and fuels the imagination of both children and adults.
The centre boasts more than four hundred exhibits across various fascinating topics,
including solar radiation, communication, electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy, and
evolution. These exhibits are designed to foster interest in science and technology among the
public, making the centre a hub for educational exploration.
Notably, it is the first science centre to be established in Southeast Asia. Officially opened in
1977, the centre now welcomes an average of 1,200 visitors daily, highlighting its enduring
popularity and educational value.
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The exhibits are thoughtfully arranged across four main galleries: the Lobby, Physical
Sciences, Life Sciences, and Aviation. To ensure a fresh and engaging experience, the
exhibits are renewed annually, encouraging repeat visits. Visitors are encouraged to interact
with the exhibits, as opposed to traditional “hands-off” policies in most museums. Here,
pushing buttons, turning cranks, or pedaling mechanisms are all part of the fun and learning
experience.
The Discovery Centre, added in 1985, is specially designed for children aged three to
twelve, providing an exciting space for young minds to explore and experiment. Most
recently, a stone-age exhibit was introduced, showcasing extinct animals and early human
life, offering insights into prehistoric times.
With its interactive displays and immersive environment, the Singapore Science
Centre continues to inspire a love for science and discovery, making it an unforgettable
destination for learners of all ages.
(Adapted from tuyensinh24/7.com)
Question 1: The word captivating in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. boring
B. fascinating
C. disappointing
D. interesting
Question 2: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence?
A. The Science Centre provides activities that entertain children and adults alike.
B. This setting inspires both young and older visitors to think creatively and be curious about
science.
C. The exhibits at the Science Centre are designed to teach scientific concepts in an engaging
way.
D. This environment encourages visitors to explore hands-on activities and enjoy learning.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the topics covered in the
exhibits in paragraph 2?
A. solar radiation
B. nuclear energy
C. animal behavior
D. evolution
Question 4: The word hands-off in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by______.
A. interactive
B. avoidable
C. restricted
D. permitted
Question 5: The word its in paragraph 5 refers to______.
A. The Singapore Science Centre
B. The Discovery Centre
C. The average number of visitors
D. The new exhibits
Question 6:According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The Singapore Science Centre officially opened in 1985.
B. The centre features only static, non-interactive exhibits.
C. The Discovery Centre is designed for children at a certain age.
D. Visitors are not allowed to touch the exhibits in the center .
Question 7: In which paragraph is the Discovery Centre first mentioned?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph is the annual renewal of the exhibits mentioned?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about lifelong learning and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on
your answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31
to 40.
My father was an enthusiastic traveller, but as he got older, he increasingly suffered
from what he called “travel fever,” a vivid term for the acute anxiety felt before a journey,
essentially due to uncertainty about all the things that could go wrong. Sadly, this eventually
stopped him from going on holiday. Then I, too, started to suffer similar apprehension, so I
consulted a psychotherapist. She recommended a small piece of cognitive behavioural
therapy, which involved acknowledging the mental and physical symptoms of anxiety, but
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telling myself that these were essentially indistinguishable from feelings of excitement about
the prospect of a journey. This reframing of my feelings has been reasonably effective – it’s
one way of dealing with uncertainty.
It’s not just the uncertainty of travel that we all have to face. None of us knows what
is going to happen, or what is currently going on outside our immediate knowledge, or the
vast majority of what has happened in the past. Uncertainty has been called the “conscious
awareness of ignorance,” and there is a lot we are ignorant about. We must navigate
through life without complete information, and this fundamental uncertainty is an inescapable
aspect of human existence.
We all have to live with this uncertainty and, as a statistician, it’s been my job to try
to analyse data and assess some of the risks we face. (I)But some deal with uncertainty with
more equanimity than others. (II) Psychological studies, as well as our own experience,
reveal a wide variation in people’s responses, including those that are cognitive (how we
think), emotional (how we feel), and behavioural (what we do). (III)For example, when faced
with uncertainty, do you deny it or acknowledge it, does it put the wind up you or make you
courageous, do you try to avoid it or approach it?(IV)
Of course, your response may depend on the context, just as an individual’s appetite
for risk-taking can vary across different areas of their lives. I have known people who seemed
to take huge physical risks, yet were very cautious with money. Numerous scales have been
developed to measure how well people can deal with uncertainty, based on responses to
statements ranging from “Unforeseen events upset me greatly” to “When it’s time to act,
uncertainty paralyses me.” Those who score highly, and find it difficult to tolerate
uncertainty, may also be at increased risk of clinically significant anxiety and depression.
(Adapted from The Guardian.com)
Question 9: The word “vivid” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. feeble
B. intense
C. remarkable
D. crucial
Question 10: The word “these” in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. symptoms of anxiety and excitement
B. feelings of excitement
C. mental and physical symptoms of anxiety
D. travel fever and
apprehension
Question 11: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
2?
A. Being uncertain means realizing we don’t know everything.
B. Ignorance and uncertainty are completely unrelated concepts.
C. Awareness of uncertainty only applies to the past and present.
D. Most of our knowledge comes from ignoring uncertainties.
Question 12: Where in paragraph 3 would the following sentence best fit?
"This variation reflects the complexity of human psychology when facing unknown
outcomes."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a factor influencing people’s
responses to uncertainty in paragraph 3?
A. cognitive thinking patterns
B. emotional reactions
C. behavioral actions
D. professional expertise
Question 14: The phrase "put the wind up you" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced
by_______
A. assist you
B. calm you down
C. make you nervous
D. reassure you
Question 15: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?
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A. Responses to uncertainty depend on the circumstances, with low tolerance linked to
mental health problems.
B. People who dislike uncertainty are at a much higher risk of developing anxiety disorders
and depression.
C. Scales used to measure uncertainty tolerance highlight individual differences.
D. An individual’s response to uncertainty undeniably reflects their appetite for taking risks in
various situations.
Question 16: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The author’s father completely overcame his fear of travel.
B. Cognitive behavioural therapy involves denying feelings of anxiety.
C. Reframing anxiety as excitement can help manage pre-travel apprehension.
D. People’s responses to uncertainty are primarily shaped by their professions.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Travel anxiety is a universal experience for all individuals.
B. People’s responses to uncertainty are shaped by both internal and external factors.
C. High tolerance for uncertainty guarantees lower levels of anxiety.
D. The concept of uncertainty has little relevance in modern life.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Anxiety about uncertainty is common but can be managed with the right strategies.
B. Travel anxiety highlights the broader issue of uncertainty in life.
C. Individual responses to uncertainty vary widely and impact mental health.
D. Uncertainty is an inevitable part of life that challenges everyone differently.
Đề 32
How Green Are Our Festival Traditions?
Festivals are a time of celebration, bringing happiness and joy through various
traditions. However, many of these traditions are not environmentally friendly and could
harm our planet. To ensure a sustainable future, it is important to reconsider some of
these practices and explore more eco-friendly alternatives.
One common festival tradition is the release of balloons and sky lanterns, especially
in countries like China, India, and Japan. These beautiful sights are believed to bring good
luck and carry wishes to the sky. Unfortunately, the environmental impact is significant.
Balloons and lanterns often end up as litter, which is difficult to decompose. The frames of
sky lanterns can harm wildlife, and animals often mistake balloons for food, putting them at
risk. Furthermore, lanterns have been known to cause wildfires, endangering both nature and
human safety.
Another tradition that raises concerns is fireworks. In countries like Australia and the
US, fireworks displays are a staple during festivals. While they are visually stunning,
fireworks release harmful chemicals into the air, contributing to pollution and poor air
quality. Similar to sky lanterns, fireworks can also cause fires, which can be devastating to
both the environment and communities.
Lastly, Christmas trees, whether real or artificial, are a central part of holiday
decorations in homes and businesses worldwide. Real trees, when discarded, release methane
and carbon dioxide, two harmful greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming.
Although artificial trees can be reused for several years, their production involves harmful
pollutants, and when they end up in landfills, they take centuries to decompose, further
burdening the environment.
In conclusion, while festival traditions bring joy and excitement, many of them have
negative environmental consequences. By choosing more sustainable practices, we can
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celebrate in ways that are both enjoyable and environmentally responsible, ensuring that
future generations can also enjoy these traditions.
(Adapted from Global Success 12)
Question 1: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
A. It is necessary to adjust some of the festival activities to comply with environmentally
friendly standards.
B. Festive customs which take place every year far and near bring joy and excitement without
causing harm.
C. A wide range of traditions need to be completely eliminated due to several environmental
concerns.
D. Festivals always prove to support sustainability through their unique traditions at all time.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the traditions discussed in
the passage?
A. Releasing balloons and sky lanterns.
B. Using fireworks for celebrations.
C. Lighting candles during festivals.
D. Displaying Christmas trees.
Question 3: The word decompose in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. break down
B. combine
C. dissolve
D. decay
Question 4: The word staple in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by:
A. common tradition
B. optional practice
C. rare event
D. harmful custom
Question 5: The word their in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. greenhouse gases
B. real trees
C. fake trees
D. pollutants
Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Fake Christmas trees do not harm the environment.
B. Sky lanterns always bring good luck and cause no harm.
C. Real Christmas trees can release harmful gases when discarded.
D. Fireworks are only harmful because of their noise.
Question 7: In which paragraph are the environmental effects of releasing balloons and sky
lanterns discussed?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph can you find information about the harmful effects
Christmas trees?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about inventions and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
A large number of inventions require years of arduous research and development
before they are perfected. For instance, Thomas Edison made more than 1,000 attempts
before successfully inventing the incandescent light bulb. (I) History is replete with examples
of inventors failing repeatedly before eventually succeeding. (II) However, not all inventions
are the result of relentless effort. (III) Indeed, some inventions come about entirely by
accident, often when inventors are attempting to create something else. (IV) These accidental
discoveries have profoundly impacted the world, proving that innovation sometimes relies as
much on luck as on determination.
In the 1930s, chemist Roy Plunkett was trying to create a new substance for
refrigeration. He mixed chemicals, placed them in a pressurized container, and cooled the
mixture. The result was not a refrigeration material but Teflon, a substance now widely used
to make nonstick cookware. Decades earlier, John Pemberton, a pharmacist in Atlanta, sought
to create a tonic to relieve headaches. Though unsuccessful in his original goal, he
inadvertently invented Coca-Cola, which became one of the most popular beverages in the
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world. Both Plunkett and Pemberton demonstrate how unintended outcomes can lead to
groundbreaking products.
Accidental discoveries have also played a critical role in scientific advancements. In
1928, Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin, the first antibiotic, when he noticed that mold
in a petri dish killed surrounding bacteria. This groundbreaking discovery has saved millions
of lives and revolutionized medicine. Similarly, in 1946, Percy Spencer was experimenting
with microwaves when he realized that a candy bar in his pocket had melted. Investigating
further, he developed the microwave oven, a device that forever changed the way people
prepare food.
These stories highlight the unpredictable nature of innovation. While persistence and
hard work are often necessary, chance can also play an important role in shaping the
modern world. Whether through deliberate effort or serendipity, accidental inventions have
transformed industries, improved daily life, and opened new possibilities for the future.
(Adapted from https://oureverydaylife.com/)
Question 9: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. inventions
B. inventors
C. discoveries
D. experiments
Question 10: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
“Instead, some inventions are the result of spontaneous, unintended incidents.”
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 11: The phrase "come about" in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by:
A. turn out
B. take place
C. result from
D. put aside
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT an invention made by accident, according to
the passage?
A. teflon
B. Coca-Cola
C. penicillin
D. the
incandescent light bulb
Question 13: Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word " inadvertently
" in paragraph 2?
A. deliberately
B. temporarily
C. persistently
D. effortlessly
Question 14: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Scientists always rely on persistence to make discoveries.
B. Accidental scientific discoveries have led to groundbreaking advancements.
C. Penicillin was the most important accidental invention in history.
D. Innovations in science are usually the result of experimentation and effort.
Question 15: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Thomas Edison invented the microwave oven after many attempts.
B. Roy Plunkett invented Teflon while trying to improve refrigeration.
C. Coca-Cola was originally created as a cure for mold infections.
D. Percy Spencer discovered penicillin during an experiment with microwaves.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4?
A. Success is always the result of hard work and determination.
B. Innovation requires both consistent effort and unexpected luck.
C. The most important inventions in history were accidental.
D. Hard work guarantees successful outcomes in modern science.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Accidental inventions are often more useful than deliberate ones.
B. Most scientific discoveries result from careful experimentation.
C. Some inventions are discovered when inventors are attempting unrelated tasks.
D. Serendipity plays a minor role in the history of innovation.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
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A. Many important inventions come about through persistence and dedication.
B. Both effort and serendipity have contributed to groundbreaking inventions.
C. Accidental discoveries have been the most important in shaping human history.
D. Most scientific progress relies on experimentation and rigorous research.
Đề 33
Ha Noi Then and Now
The 'Ha Noi Then and Now' exhibition has drawn thousands of visitors this week. The
photos evoke childhood memories for older residents while giving younger generations a
glimpse into how the city has transformed over time. Through the exhibition, people from all
walks of life can connect with the essence of Ha Noi, whether they are locals or newcomers
curious about its history and development.
In the 'Then' hall, pictures vividly depict 20th-century Ha Noi. In 1954, the city had
about 530,000 residents in an area of 152 sq km. The Old Quarter, dating back hundreds of
years, comprised streets dedicated to specific trades and crafts that shaped the city's economy.
Life was simpler; most people traveled by bicycle or on foot, as motorbikes and cars were
luxuries that only a few could afford. Trains, starting in 1901, were the primary mode of
public transport until 1991, as buses were infrequent and inconvenient. People lived and
worked in low-rise buildings, creating a close-knit community atmosphere. The city was a
fascinating mixture of French colonial buildings and traditional Eastern architecture,
blending the influences of its history and culture.
In contrast, the 'Now' hall showcases a dynamic and modern Ha Noi with over 8
million residents and an urban area exceeding 3,000 sq km. Many rural villages have been
incorporated into the expanding city, transforming its landscape. To accommodate the
growing population, the government is building affordable housing and high-rise apartments.
Transport has improved significantly with the construction of new roads, bridges, and electric
buses. The Ha Noi Metro, launched in 2021, represents a major step forward in public transit
and is set to expand further by 2030, connecting more areas of the city.
Despite these advancements, urbanisation has introduced challenges. "The city is
becoming overcrowded as people move in for job opportunities," said a 21-year-old student.
This growth has caused traffic congestion, rising unemployment, and worsening air pollution,
which are major concerns for residents.
Through this exhibition, visitors can appreciate Ha Noi's rich history while grappling
with the complexities of its rapid development, understanding both its past and its future
trajectory.
(Adapted from Global Success)
Question 1: The word “residents” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by:
A. workers
B. tourists
C. inhabitants
D. visitors
Question 2: Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence?
A. Ha Noi’s architecture was primarily Western with some Eastern influences.
B. The city’s architecture blended elements from both French and traditional Eastern styles.
C. Ha Noi’s buildings were designed by both French and Eastern architects.
D. The city’s architecture reflected the French colonisation period exclusively.
Question 3: The word “rural” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. urban
B. remote
C. agricultural
D. suburban
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the consequences of
urbanisation in Ha Noi Now?
A. traffic congestion
B. increasing unemployment rates
C. improved public transport
D. rising air pollution
Question 5: The word “its” in paragraph 5 refers to:
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A. the Old Quarter
B. Ha Noi
C. the exhibition
D. the Metro
Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Ha Noi Metro first opened to the public in 1991.
B. Buses were the most common mode of public transport in Ha Noi before 1991.
C. Ha Noi’s urban area now includes parts of former rural villages.
D. The Old Quarter was established in the 20th century.
Question 7: In which paragraph is the Ha Noi Metro mentioned?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the author describe the challenges brought by
urbanisation?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions.
Taking Home the World Cup
Standing just 36 centimeters tall, the FIFA World Cup Trophy symbolizes the
pinnacle of football achievement. Every four years, teams worldwide compete for it, but no
one ever takes the trophy home. Made of 18-carat gold, the original trophy remains under
FIFA's protection, with winners receiving only a replica. This measure safeguards it from
theft, as the trophy has been stolen twice in its history.
The original trophy was made by a French sculptor, Abel LaFleur, and was called the
“Jules Rimet Cup,” in honor of the founder of the World Cup tournament. Sometime during
the first three World Cup events (1930, 1934, and 1938), the name changed to simply the
“World Cup.” Then during World War II, not much was seen or heard of the trophy. It was
being kept hidden in a shoe box under the bed of Dr. Ottorino Barassi, the Italian vicepresident of FIFA, to prevent it from falling into the hands of the Nazi army. In 1966, the
Cup was stolen during a public showing of the trophy prior to the World Cup tournament in
England. Luckily, it was found a short time later, none the worse for wear, in a trash
container by a little dog named Pickles. Four years later, Brazil earned permanent possession
of the original trophy by winning its third World Cup title. Unfortunately, the trophy was
stolen a second time in 1983 and was never recovered. The Brazilian Football Association
had to have a duplicate trophy made.
(I) After the first trophy became the possession of Brazil’s football association, a new
World Cup Trophy for FIFA was designed by an Italian artist, Silvio Gazzaniga, in 1974. (II)
This trophy cannot be won outright, but remains in the possession of FIFA, and rest assured
they are watching it very closely. Today, World Cup winners are awarded a replica of the
trophy that is gold-plated, rather than solid gold like the real one. (III) Gazzaniga’s World
Cup trophy weighs almost five kilograms. (IV) Its base contains two layers of a semiprecious stone called malachite, and has room for seventeen small plaques bearing the names
of the winning teams---enough space to honor all the World Cup champions up to the year
2038. After that, a new trophy will have to be made.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 3)
Question 9: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence?
A. Although small, the FIFA World Cup Trophy is a prestigious symbol of football success.
B. The FIFA World Cup Trophy represents an achievable goal for most football teams.
C. The FIFA World Cup Trophy's size reflects the scale of football excellence in the world.
D. The FIFA World Cup Trophy is a modest yet iconic award in football tournament.
Question 10: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. FIFA
B. the replica
C. the original trophy
D. the competition
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Question 11: Which of the following is NOT a reason for FIFA keeping the original trophy
under protection?
A. Its significant monetary value
B. Its history of being stolen twice
C. The risk of it being lost in transit
D. The fact that it is made of 18-carat
gold
Question 12: The phrase "none the worse for wear" could best be replaced by:
A. slightly damaged
B. completely intact
C. entirely replaced
D. barely noticeable
Question 13: Where in paragraph 3 does the following sentence best fit?
"It was a decision made to prevent the trophy from being stolen again."
A. (I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 14: The word "outright" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. temporarily
B. partially
C. gradually
D. indefinitely
Question 15: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. The original trophy was stolen and replaced by a duplicate.
B. A new trophy designed in 1974 cannot be won outright.
C. Gazzaniga’s design includes features ensuring its long-term use.
D. FIFA now awards winners a replica to protect the original.
Question 16: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The original trophy was never recovered after it was stolen in 1966.
B. Brazil permanently kept the original trophy after winning their third World Cup.
C. The current World Cup Trophy has space for plaques up to 2040.
D. Pickles was the name of the dog that found the trophy in 1974.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The current trophy is more secure than the original.
B. The replica trophies are also made of 18-carat gold.
C. FIFA plans to redesign the current trophy before 2038.
D. Brazil no longer competes for the World Cup trophy.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. The FIFA World Cup Trophy is a highly valued and carefully protected prize, symbolizing
the pinnacle of football achievement.
B. FIFA's decision to create a replica trophy highlights the history of the history of the trophy
surrounding the World Cup.
C. The World Cup Trophy has undergone numerous changes to prevent theft and then
accommodate more and more winners.
D. The history of the FIFA World Cup Trophy reflects its importance and ongoing legacy in
international football tournament
Đề 34
Robots are useful for exploring and working in space. In particular, many robots have
been sent to explore Mars. Such robots have usually looked like a box with wheels. Though
these robots are useful, by their very nature they are unreliable, extremely expensive, and
they break easily. Also, they cannot do very many tasks. Because of these problems,
scientists have been developing a new and unusual kind of robot. These new robots move like
snakes, so they have been given the name “snakebots.”
But how can such a robot shape be made? A snakebot is built like a chain made of
about thirty parts, or modules. Each module is basically the same in that they all have a small
computer and a wheel to aid movement. The large computer in the “head” of the snake makes
all of the modules in a snakebot work together. The modular design of the snakebot has many
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advantages. If one module fails, another can be added easily. Snakebot modules can also
carry different kinds of tools, as well as cameras. Since each module is actually a robot in
itself, one module can work apart from the rest if necessary. That is, all the modules can
separate and move on their own, and then later, reconnect back into a larger robot.
Overall, the snakebot design is much simpler than that of common robots. Thus,
snakebots will be much less expensive to build. For example, a robot recently sent to Mars
cost over a hundred million dollars, whereas snakebots can cost as little as a few hundred
dollars.
With their versatility and affordability, snakebots seem to be the wave of the future,
at least as far as space robots are concerned.
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 1 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the problems with
traditional robots?
A. They are expensive to build.
B. They are difficult to control.
C. They cannot perform many tasks.
D. They are prone to breaking easily.
Question 2: The word "unreliable" in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. expensive
B. trustworthy
C. complex
D. fragile
Question 3: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. robots
B. modules
C. wheels
D. computers
Question 4: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence "Snakebot
modules can also carry different kinds of tools, as well as cameras”?
A. Each module of a snakebot can transport equipment like tools and cameras.
B. Tools and cameras must be attached to the head of the snakebot.
C. Snakebots require cameras and tools to function properly.
D. Only the head module of the snakebot can carry tools and cameras.
Question 5: The word “versatility” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
A. simplicity
B. adaptability
C. durability
D. efficiency
Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Snakebots cannot work without all modules connected.
B. Snakebots are cheaper to build than traditional robots.
C. Each module in a snakebot must be replaced frequently.
D. Traditional robots are more flexible than snakebots.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the passage explain how snakebots can be repaired?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the passage compare the cost of snakebots to that of
traditional robots?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Working on Your Workout
(I) Although appreciating a balanced diet and regular exercise, most people do not
know how to exercise properly. Consequently, they usually rush through their workouts, or
they make the same common workout mistakes. (II) Exercising the right way is important for
people who are worried about their health and their appearance. (III) However, if someone is
not working out properly, they will not see the results they want. Therefore, training experts
have devised tips to teach people how to exercise correctly in order to achieve the greatest
health benefits. (VI)
One of the most common workout mistakes is doing the same routine over and over
again. This does not challenge your muscles, and it can actually prevent muscles from
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growing and repairing themselves. Instead of always sticking to the same old workout, it
is important to change your routine every six to eight weeks. It is also important to add a
variety of workouts to your routine, such as swimming, yoga, or biking, to make sure your
whole body stays fit. This will help make your workouts more interesting, and benefit your
health and muscle development as well.
Another mistake people tend to make is to work out too hard, too often. Your body
needs to rest between workouts; otherwise, no progress will be made. It is best to keep the
number of hard workout routines to no more than two per week. Then, for those who don’t
want to get off schedule by skipping a day, shorter workouts of about twenty minutes can be
used on other days. For more variety in workouts, you could also plan an easier routine for
forty to sixty minutes between days of shorter, more intense workouts. Experts recommend,
however, taking at least one day off completely each week, especially after several hard
workout days in a row.
In reality, no one is perfect. However, if you want to make a difference in your overall
health, there are some things you can do. Stretch before and after every workout. Do not rush
your routine, and do not work out too little or too much. Remember not to make these
common workout mistakes, and always have fun while exercising!
(Adapted from Reading Challenge 3 by Casey Malarcher and Andrea Janzen)
Question 9: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
" If you want to achieve the best workout results, here are a few helpful tips to bear in
mind.”
A.(I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 10: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. training experts
B. most people
C. health benefits
D. workout results
Question 11: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence: "Instead of
always sticking to the same old workout, it is important to change your routine every six to
eight weeks"?
A. Avoid repeating the same workout and include variety to ensure effectiveness.
B. Maintain the same routine for at least six to eight weeks to see progress.
C. New exercises should only be introduced every two months.
D. Consistency in workout routines is definitely the key to success.
Question 12: The phrase "get off schedule" could be best replaced by:
A. delay partly
B. stay on track
C. break routine
D. stop completely
Question 13: The phrase "in a row" is OPPOSITE in meaning to_____:
A. continuously
B. intermittently
C. randomly
D. separately
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT a factor that can prevent muscles from growing
and repairing themselves?
A. Sticking to the same workout routine
B. Working out too hard, too often
C. Adding a variety of workouts to your routine
D. Not giving the body enough time to rest
Question 15: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
A. It emphasizes the importance of including a variety of workouts in your exercise routine.
B. It highlights how to create a strict exercise schedule for muscle growth.
C. It discusses why people should avoid making any changes to their workouts.
D. It explains how yoga and swimming can prevent injuries during workouts.
Question 16: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
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A. It is advisable for everyone to work out hard every day for better results.
B. It is necessary for us to do workouts without taking rests between sessions.
C. Shorter workouts can be used on days between intense exercise sessions.
D. Taking one day off per week is discouraged by both experts and trainers.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most people find workouts challenging because they lack proper guidance.
B. Yoga is one of the most effective exercises for overall muscle development.
C. Training experts believe that intense workouts are harmful to our health.
D. Working out too little can have the same negative effects as overworking.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. To achieve the best health results, avoid common workout mistakes and follow expert
advice.
B. Consistency in workout routines is really essential for our muscle growth and overall
health.
C. Regular stretching and shorter workouts are the keys to physical fitness and good health.
D. Exercise routines should only include low-intensity workouts in order to prevent injuries.
Đề 35
Katê Festival
Cultural diversity is a vital aspect of any society, and festivals of ethnic groups play
an essential role in preserving the cultural identity of a community. Embracing cultural values
through festivals is an important way of staying connected with one community as well as its
history and traditions, and a well-known Katê Festival of the Chăm people in Vietnam is an
example to prove so.
The Katê Festival, also known as Mbăng Katê, is the biggest yearly festival for the
Chăm people in Vietnam. It is a special time of year when they honour important figures in
their history and the dead in their families. The Kate Festival takes place on the first day of
the seventh month in the Chăm calendar, usually in September or October. It lasts for three
days and takes place around three important ancient structures in Ninh Thuận Province: the
Po Klaung Yăgrai Tower, the Po Romé Tower and the Po Inû Nagar Temple. All of these
places are very important to Champa culture and history.
On the morning of the first day, Cham families take part in processions as they travel
to the towers and temple, bringing gifts of fruit, meat and rice. In a special ceremony, the
Cham people receive the costumes of the Goddess Po Nagar from the Raglai people, a
cultural group with close connections to Champa culture. The Chăm carry the costumes to the
temple to celebrate Po Nagar, then they open the gates. Inside the temple, they start bathing
the statues of important figures and watching sacred dances. After those performances, people
enjoy lively parties until the evening of the festival's second day.
On the last day, people make special offerings to their gods at community houses in
their villages and pray for luck and good health for the coming year. Once this is over, there
are traditional music performances, and then people do fun activities like playing football and
participating in weaving competitions.
(Adapted from Bright 12)
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the key locations where
the Katê Festival is celebrated?
A. Po Klaung Yăgrai Tower
B. Po Romé Tower
C. Po Inû Nagar Temple
D. Cham Museum in Da Nang
Question 2: The word “diversity” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
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A. variety
B. similarity
C. difference
D. multiplicity
Question 3: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. The Chăm people
B. The Raglai people
C. The important figures
D. The costumes
Question 4: The word “lively” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by:
A. cheerful
B. noisy
C. boring
D. dull
Question 5: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The Katê Festival is only celebrated at the Po Inû Nagar Temple.
B. The festival is held at the beginning of the seventh month in the Gregorian calendar.
C. The Chăm people receive costumes from the Raglai people during the festival.
D. The last day of the festival is focused on sacred dances and bathing statues.
Question 6: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
1?
"Cultural diversity is a vital aspect of any society, and festivals of ethnic groups play an
essential role in preserving the cultural identity of a community."
A. Festivals are important for maintaining cultural identity and society’s diversity.
B. Societies depend on ethnic groups to preserve their own cultural diversity.
C. Cultural festivals are the only way to preserve a community’s identity.
D. Ethnic groups organize festivals to improve society’s cultural identity.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the passage describe how the festival begins?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the passage mention activities that take place in
villages on the last day of the festival?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Mountain Lions Amid Wildfires: A Struggle for Survival
Beth Pratt, the California director for the National Wildlife Federation, has spent her
career protecting Los Angeles’ mountain lions. These top predators live in a rocky area
surrounded by fancy houses and many roads. When wildfires destroy vast stretches of open
land, the survival options for these animals become critically limited. “This is the LA area—
these mountain lions can’t just move into the Kardashians’ backyard,” Pratt says, her voice
filled with concern for the animals in such a difficult situation.
(I) The chaparral vegetation, covering about 10% of California, is one of the world’s
most flammable ecosystems. (II) In Los Angeles, suburban sprawl intrudes on these areas,
blocking wildlife escape routes. (III)Fires strip the land of food and shelter, transforming
vibrant ecosystems into barren landscapes. (IV) Pratt highlights the urgency of the situation,
explaining how areas that once supported life are now “taken out of commission,” leaving
many species to starve or struggle for survival.
The consequences extend beyond wildlife. Wildfires have caused devastating human
losses, with 88,000 people evacuated and a rising death toll of 25. Meanwhile, the non-human
world suffers equally, particularly endangered species with limited ranges. Red-legged frogs,
reintroduced into Santa Monica streams in 2014, are among the most affected, with their
habitats repeatedly destroyed. The Woolsey Fire of 2018 was followed by mudslides that
wiped out much of the region's delicate ecosystem, and scientists fear similar outcomes this
time. California newts, reptiles, and snakes are also at high risk, while mammals and birds,
although more likely to escape, face challenges in finding food and shelter as the ecosystem
bounces back.
Despite the devastation, hope remains. The chaparral is a fire-adapted ecosystem, and
life often endures beneath the soil. Seeds can survive and germinate quickly, with grasses
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sprouting weeks after the first rain. Shrubs may take up to a decade to recover, depending
on rainfall. Prof. Stefan Doerr, an expert on wildfires, emphasizes the resilience of this
landscape, noting its evolutionary adaptation to high-intensity fires occurring every 30 to 100
years. While the aftermath looks bleak, these fires play a role in maintaining biodiversity,
offering a glimmer of hope for recovery.
(Adapted from the Guardian.com)
Question 9: Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to “critically” in Paragraph 1?
A. slightly
B. urgently
C. severely
D. carefully
Question 10: Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit in paragraph 2?
“Composed of grasslands, shrubs, and woody species that regenerate after intense
wildfires, this habitat faces escalating threats.”
A.(I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT a factor threatening chaparral vegetation?
A. suburban sprawl
B. high-intensity fires
C. loss of food and shelter
D. excessive rainfall
Question 12: The phrase “taken out of commission” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced
by:
A. set up
B. broken down
C. put forward
D. taken after
Question 13: The word “their” in Paragraph 3 refers to:
A. mountain lions
B. red-legged frogs
C. endangered species
D. mammals and birds
Question 14: Which of the following best summarizes Paragraph 2?
A. Wildfires destroy chaparral vegetation, causing wildlife to flee to urban areas.
B. The chaparral ecosystem faces increasing threats from wildfires and human expansion.
C. Mountain lions struggle to survive due to suburban sprawl and lack of food.
D. Grasslands and shrubs are easily regenerated after intense wildfires.
Question 15: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Mountain lions frequently inhabit suburban backyards.
B. The Woolsey Fire of 2018 caused mudslides that devastated the ecosystem.
C. California’s chaparral ecosystem cannot recover after wildfires.
D. Wildfires have little impact on endangered species.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
4: “Seeds can survive and germinate quickly, with grasses sprouting weeks after the first
rain.”?
A. Seeds thrive under dry conditions and only sprout after wildfires.
B. Seeds endure fires and grow soon after the rains begin.
C. Grasses grow rapidly before the first rainfall, due to seed survival.
D. Wildfires prevent seeds from sprouting despite heavy rainfall.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Human intervention is necessary for the chaparral ecosystem to recover after wildfires.
B. The chaparral’s ability to regenerate after fires depends on its evolutionary adaptations.
C. Suburban sprawl has a minimal impact on the long-term recovery of the chaparral.
D. Without wildfires, the chaparral ecosystem would lose its biodiversity entirely.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Wildfires are a natural part of the chaparral ecosystem, but suburban sprawl exacerbates
their impact on wildlife and humans.
B. The chaparral vegetation in California is an invaluable resource that requires immediate
human intervention to prevent destruction.
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C. Mountain lions and other species are at greater risk from wildfires due to increasing
suburbanization and declining biodiversity.
D. Despite the devastating effects of wildfires, the chaparral ecosystem’s resilience ensures a
quick recovery.
Đề 36
Vietnamese Women’s Achievements
Women have always played an important role in Vietnam’s history. Some fight for
their country, some inspire others, and some make positive changes to society. Their
contributions have shaped the nation in various ways, leaving a lasting impact on culture,
politics, and the arts.
Trưng Trắc and Trưng Nhị are famous examples of women who fought for their
country’s freedom. Known in Vietnamese as “Hai Bà Trưng,” the Trưng sisters successfully
led their people in a rebellion against foreign invaders in 40 A.D. After their victory, they
ruled the country for three years, demonstrating remarkable leadership and bravery. As the
first female rulers of Vietnam, the Trưng sisters have become symbols of patriotism and
resilience. Their significance is even greater considering that Vietnamese women at the time
had very limited access to education and politics. Their story continues to inspire generations.
Sương Nguyệt Anh is another example of an influential Vietnamese woman. As the
daughter of the patriotic poet Nguyễn Đình Chiểu, she mastered literature from a young age.
She worked as a teacher before becoming the editor-in-chief of Nữ Giới Chung, the first
women’s newspaper in Sài Gòn, in 1918. As the first female editor in Vietnam, she made
significant contributions to the press, feminism, and poetry. Through her work, she
promoted women’s rights and encouraged female empowerment.
A third example is Điềm Phùng Thị. She graduated from Hà Nội Medical University
in 1946 and earned a PhD in dentistry in France in 1954. However, she later pursued a career
in sculpture, creating artworks that reflected her love for Vietnam. She exhibited her work
throughout Europe and became the first female Vietnamese member of the European
Academy of Arts and Sciences in 1992. Her name was later recorded in the Larousse
Dictionary of Painters, recognizing her as a remarkable artist.
(Adapted from Explore New World)
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the important roles of
Vietnamese women in the passage?
A. fighting for their country
B. making scientific discoveries
C. inspiring others
D. bringing positive changes to society
Question 2: The word lasting in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by:
A. short-term
B. temporary
C. enduring
D. instant
Question 3: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence Through her
work, she promoted women’s rights and encouraged female empowerment.?
A. She helped women become stronger and fought for their rights.
B. She introduced new laws to protect women in the workplace.
C. She focused on journalism and wrote about social issues.
D. She worked in politics and advocated for female leadership.
Question 4: The word remarkable in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. ordinary
B. outstanding
C. impressive
D. extraordinary
Question 5: The word their in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. The invaders
B. The Vietnamese people
C. The Trưng sisters
D. The rulers
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Question 6: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The Trưng sisters ruled the country for more than ten years.
B. Sương Nguyệt Anh was Vietnam’s first female newspaper editor.
C. Điềm Phùng Thị studied medicine but later became a sculptor.
D. Nguyễn Đình Chiểu was well known as a patriotic female poet.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the passage mention the first female rulers of Vietnam?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph is Điềm Phùng Thị’s artistic career discussed?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Biting into a ripe, juicy fruit brings a smile to many people’s faces. But eating that
same fruit a week before it is ripe probably wouldn’t be as enjoyable! Unripe fruits are often
hard and bitter, but that serves a purpose. The hard exterior of an unripe fruit protects the
developing seed inside. After a seed fully develops inside the fruit, the fruit changes color,
softens, and gets sweeter to become more attractive to animals and humans. These
organisms eat the fruit and spread its seeds, ensuring the plant’s survival and regrowth.
But how does a fruit ripen? The ripening process involves many complex chemical
reactions. When a fruit ripens, it goes through a chemical change. A chemical change
happens when bonds within molecules break, and the atoms that once formed them regroup
into new molecules. Chemical changes are irreversible. Once a fruit ripens, it cannot become
unripe again.
One molecule responsible for this chemical change is ethylene. Ethylene (C2H4) is a
colorless gas made up of carbon and hydrogen atoms. (I). It is a naturally occurring molecule
in the atmosphere. (II). It is also an important plant hormone. (III). Plants release ethylene
through the growing tips of roots, flowers, and ripening fruit. (IV). Although ethylene serves
other purposes in plants, one of its main purposes is to trigger the chemical reactions that
cause fruits to ripen. As the fruit matures, oxygen in the air helps stimulate the production of
ethylene. This ethylene production is a signal that begins fruit ripening. For that reason,
unripe fruits have low levels of ethylene, while ripe fruits have higher levels of ethylene.
Most fruits produce ethylene and respond to ethylene in the atmosphere.
Although fruits require ethylene to ripen, different types of fruits respond to this
molecule in two distinct ways: non-climacteric fruits and climacteric fruits. Non-climacteric
fruits do not ripen after harvesting. They produce very little ethylene of their own.
Climacteric fruits, on the other hand, continue to ripen after they are picked. These fruits
produce a large amount of ethylene. Climacteric fruits can also speed up the ripening process
of other fruits nearby since they release high levels of ethylene into the air.
(Adapted from Readwork.org)
Question 9: Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to exterior in paragraph 1?
A. surface
B. inside
C. outer part
D. shell
Question 10: The phrase These organisms in paragraph 1 refers to...
A. Fruits and seeds
B. Plants and trees
C. animals and humans
D. Fruits
Question 11: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence: The ripening
process involves many complex chemical reactions.
A. Fruit ripening happens through simple chemical processes.
B. The process of ripening includes multiple complicated chemical changes.
C. Fruits ripen in a physical way without involving chemistry.
D. Ripening occurs when fruits are exposed to external conditions.
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Question 12: The phrase made up of in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by:
A. composed of
B. broken into
C. taken from
D. mixed with
Question 13: Where in the passage does the following sentence best fit in paragraph 3?
“Plant hormones are chemicals produced by plants that control their growth,
reproduction, maturation, and decay.”
A.(I)
B. (II)
C. (III)
D. (IV)
Question 14: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 4?
A. Ethylene is a plant hormone that plays a key role in fruit ripening.
B. Oxygen is the most important element in the ripening process.
C. Plants use different methods to protect their fruit from ripening too soon.
D. The ripening process depends only on external environmental factors.
Question 15: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a factor in fruit
ripening?
A. ethylene gas
B. oxygen in the air
C. chemical changes
D. the amount of water in the fruit
Question 16: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Fruits can return to their unripe state if stored correctly after ripening.
B. Ethylene is a natural gas that plays a key role in making fruits ripen.
C. Unripe fruits generally contain higher levels of ethylene than ripe ones.
D. Every type of fruit will continue to ripen even after being harvested.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Climacteric fruits can cause nearby unripe fruits to ripen more quickly.
B. Non-climacteric fruits naturally have more ethylene than ripe fruits.
C. The ripening process of fruits is mainly influenced by sunlight exposure.
D. Farmers always use artificial ethylene gas to speed up fruit ripening.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Fruits ripen because of natural chemical reactions mainly triggered by ethylene.
B. Fruits become sweeter and softer when exposed to sunlight and high temperatures.
C. Ethylene is a chemical that speeds up ripening but also causes quick decay.
D. All fruits respond to ethylene the same way and ripen at a similar rate
Đề 37
Urbanization is the movement of people from the country to cities and the growth of
urban areas. It happens because there are often more opportunities in cities. However, when a
city's population grows too quickly, it causes problems. Here are a few persistent problems
caused by urbanization and some ideas to solve them.
Poverty: Urban areas have a higher cost of living, which means many people have to
live in slums. These areas have high crime rates and only basic sanitation, and the people
living there often have no access to healthcare. A solution for these issues would be to
increase the number of social workers and police and have them provide service to these
areas. A better, but more expensive one, would be to remove all the old buildings and houses,
and have the city government build better quality, low-cost housing.
Pollution: Large populations create lots of waste. This can be too much for sanitation
services to handle, so some areas can get very dirty. One option is to have volunteers clean
up these places and have more trash cans installed. Another might be to have police give
large fines to people who throw litter on the ground.
Traffic: People in cities often use private cars to get to work and school. This leads to
heavy road congestion and causes lots of air pollution. To solve this problem, many cities
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don't let people drive private vehicles in the city center. This can reduce the amount of traffic
by making people use public transportation.
In conclusion, urbanization can cause a lot of problems for people living in cities.
Poor living standards. unclean environments, and congested traffic are just some of the
issues. Solving the problems of urbanization is one of the biggest challenges for modern
society.
(Adapted from iLearn Smart)
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the problems caused by
urbanization?
A. poverty
B. pollution
C. overpopulation
D. traffic
Question 2: The word "persistent" in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. momentary
B. severe
C. constant
D. ongoing
Question 3: The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. social workers and police
B. people living in slums
C. old buildings and houses
D. these areas
Question 4: The word "handle" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by:
A. ignore
B. manage
C. avoid
D. overlook
Question 5: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. All urban problems can be easily solved with government policies.
B. Removing old buildings is the cheapest way to improve living standards.
C. Traffic congestion can be reduced by limiting private vehicles in city centers.
D. Pollution in urban areas is caused only by industrial activities.
Question 6: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence: "Solving the
problems of urbanization is one of the biggest challenges for modern society."
A. Urbanization has improved modern society in many ways.
B. Finding solutions for urban issues is a difficult task today.
C. Cities do not experience many problems due to urbanization.
D. Modern society has already solved all problems of urbanization.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the author discuss possible solutions to poverty?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the author mention how private cars affect urban
life?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 3
C. Paragraph 4
D. Paragraph 5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the best answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Who are you?
On 6 June 2011, the media reported the kidnapping of a female Syrian-American
blogger called Amina Arraf. Regarded as a daring political rebel, the 35-year-old had gained
popularity for her blogs protesting the lack of freedom in Syria. Yet, only two days later, it
was discovered that Amina had never existed. She was a fictional character created by Tom
MacMaster, a forty-year-old American PhD student at the University of Edinburgh.
MacMaster's invention is an example of sock puppetry: the use of false identities to
deceive others. (I). The false identity is known as a sock puppet, and its creator, a puppet
master. (II). MacMaster created Amina to express his views on Middle Eastern affairs
without offending other Americans. (III). Writing as Amina gave him the authority to say
what he wanted. (IV).
At the turn of the millennium, Debbie Swenson created Kaycee Nicole, a fictional
teenage girl suffering from terminal cancer. Her blog, Living Colours, described Kaycee’s
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struggle, attracting millions of readers. When Kaycee 'died' on 14 May 2001, her fans were
devastated. Their distress turned to anger when they discovered that Kaycee was not real.
Swenson had developed the character to gain attention and sympathy.
While Amina and Kaycee were used to meet their creators' needs, other identities
have been invented for profit. American gun advocate John Lott made up a fake student,
Mary Rosh, to defend his writing online and give him positive reviews. Mystery writer RJ
Ellory fabricated a team of sock puppets to praise his own books and tear into those of his
rivals. British historian Orlando Figes lost credibility when he had to publicly apologise for
doing the same.
Yet none of these stories compare to large-scale sock puppetry today. The New York
City Police Department has false identities on social media to catch criminals. The US
military is believed to use sock puppets to track potential terrorists. It is clear that the
internet is a minefield today and we all have to step very carefully in order not to get
hurt.
(Adapted from Global Friends)
Question 9: Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to "fictional"?
A. imaginary
B. authentic
C. created
D. unreal
Question 10: Where in paragraph 2 does the following sentence best fit?
" But this is not the only reason for sock puppetry."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 11: The word "Their" in paragraph 3 refers to:
A. Readers’
B. Fans’
C. Authors’
D. Sock puppets’
Question 12: The phrase "tear into" could best be replaced by:
A. criticize harshly
B. encourage strongly
C. support actively
D. imitate skillfully
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. The emotional impact of a fabricated online identity
B. The ethical implications of false online personas
C. How online deception can be emotionally manipulative
D. The rise of sympathy-driven online hoaxes
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT a reason for creating sock puppets?
A. expressing controversial opinions anonymously
B. gaining public sympathy
C. protecting national security
D. earning financial profit
Question 15: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Some sock puppets serve illegal purposes, while others are harmless.
B. The US military primarily uses sock puppets to spread misinformation.
C. Some sock puppets are designed to manipulate public perception for profit.
D. Fake online identities are almost always discovered quickly by scientists.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence: "It is clear
that the internet is a minefield today and we all have to step very carefully in order not
to get hurt."
A. Only those with expertise can navigate online risks effectively.
B. People should stay away from the internet to avoid potential harm.
C. Online security measures have made the internet a much safer space.
D. The internet is full of dangers, requiring constant awareness and caution.
Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Sock puppetry is mostly harmless and has minimal impact on people.
B. False identities online can lead to significant real-world consequences.
C. Government agencies rarely engage in the use of sock puppets.
D. Bloggers are the primary users of fake online identities.
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Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
A. Governments must take stricter measures to ban online anonymity and deception
completely.
B. Online anonymity has significantly increased deception, creating risks that are difficult to
eliminate.
C. Fake identities on the internet are mostly harmless, providing entertainment for users and
managers.
D. Sock puppetry is used for self-expression, manipulation, financial gain, and even law
enforcement.
Đề 38
Vocational education plays a critical role in modern education systems around the world.
Unlike traditional academic routes, it focuses on providing students with practical skills and
specialized knowledge that are directly applicable in various industries. For many students,
vocational education serves as a gateway to careers in high-demand fields such as healthcare,
construction, information technology, and hospitality. This form of education offers students
a more hands-on approach compared to traditional academic programs.
One of the key benefits of vocational education is its ability to combat unemployment. By
equipping students with marketable skills, they are more likely to find stable
employment. Moreover, vocational education plays a crucial role in addressing the skills gap
in industries that require specialized technical expertise. For example, sectors like healthcare
and technology have witnessed rapid growth in demand for skilled professionals, and
vocational programs are essential in producing a workforce capable of meeting this need.
Despite its numerous advantages, vocational education often faces criticism for being
perceived as less prestigious than a university degree. Some people argue that academic
degrees offer broader career opportunities and greater versatility. However, this perception is
gradually changing as more people recognize the value of vocational training. In fact,
vocational education not only provides a clear path to employment but also offers long-term
career prospects, including the potential for career advancement and higher salaries.
With the constant evolution of technology, vocational education programs are continuously
adapting to prepare students for emerging industries and trends. By incorporating the latest
technologies and innovations into their curricula, vocational programs ensure that their
graduates remain competitive in an ever-changing job market, making vocational education a
valuable and future-proof investment for both students and employers alike.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a field for vocational education?
A. healthcare
B. construction
C. IT
D. law
Question 2: The word prestigious in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. unimportant
B. expensive
C. traditional
D. valuable
Question 3: The word This form of education in paragraph 1 refers to:
A. a modern education system
B. traditional academic programs
C. vocational education
D. practical education
Question 4: The word hands-on in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by:
A. special
B. theoretical
C. practical D. unnecessary
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Question 5: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. Teaching students practical skills ensures they will always have high-paying jobs.
B. Providing students with employable skills increases their chances of securing stable jobs.
C. Students will find jobs easily if they focus on theoretical knowledge rather than
marketable skills.
D. Giving students marketable skills guarantees they will never face unemployment.
Question 6: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Vocational education is always more prestigious than university education.
B. Vocational education is increasingly being recognized for its value.
C. Only academic education can provide stable employment.
D. Vocational education does not offer career advancement.
Question 7: In which paragraph does the writer mention the benefits of vocational education
in the job market?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Question 8: In which paragraph does the writer discuss the changing nature of vocational
education?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage about Asia’s culture and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the best answer to each of the following questions
[I] Chemicals are present everywhere in our environment, some of which occur naturally,
while others are the result of human activities. [II]. They are found in the air, water, and soil,
and can have both positive and negative impacts on the ecosystem. Some chemicals, like
nutrients, help support life by promoting plant growth [III]. However, others, especially
synthetic chemicals such as pesticides, fertilizers, and industrial waste, can be harmful to both
the environment and human health. [IV]
The widespread use of pesticides and fertilizers in agriculture has been a major cause of
chemical pollution. When these chemicals are used improperly or excessively, they can wash
into rivers, lakes, and oceans, leading to water pollution. This runoff can also contribute to
the depletion of oxygen in water bodies, a process known as eutrophication. Eutrophication
harms aquatic life, disrupting ecosystems and causing the death of fish and other organisms
that rely on oxygen.
Toxic chemicals such as heavy metals (e.g., mercury and lead) pose additional threats to the
environment and human health. These substances can accumulate in the food chain,
starting from plants and animals in contaminated areas and eventually reaching
humans. Long-term exposure to these chemicals can lead to serious health issues, including
neurological disorders, cancer, and other chronic conditions. Many countries have established
regulations to limit the use of harmful chemicals, but enforcement remains a challenge.
Efforts to reduce chemical pollution involve a combination of government regulations,
technological innovations, and public awareness. Governments worldwide have introduced
stricter rules on the use of hazardous chemicals and encouraged the development of ecofriendly alternatives. These regulations aim to limit the harmful impact of chemicals on the
environment, encouraging industries to adopt safer practices. Environmental organizations
play a vital role in monitoring chemical pollution, raising awareness, and advocating for
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cleaner technologies. They work closely with policymakers to ensure effective enforcement
of environmental laws. While progress has been made, ongoing efforts are needed to address
emerging challenges and ensure a safer and healthier environment for future generations.)
Question 9: Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
"These substances vary in their sources and effects, depending on whether they are
naturally occurring or man-made."
A. [I]
B. [II]
C. [III]
D. [IV]
Question 10: The phrase "eutrophication" in paragraph II is CLOSEST in meaning to
_______.
A. a process that helps increase oxygen in water bodies
B. the accumulation of toxic substances in aquatic life
C. the depletion of oxygen in water bodies due to chemical runoff
D. a method of treating industrial waste in water bodies
Question 11: The word "others" in paragraph I refers to ____.
A. nutrients
B. chemicals
C. impacts
D. human activities
Question 12: According to paragraph II, which of the following is NOT a consequence of
chemical pollution?
A. Water pollution
C. Disruption of aquatic ecosystems
B. Depletion of oxygen in water
D. Increased plant growth
Question 13: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph IV?
A. Governments are the only entities responsible for reducing chemical pollution.
B. The reduction of chemical pollution relies on regulations, innovations, and awareness.
C. The most effective way to reduce chemical pollution is through technological innovations.
D. Public awareness is the only solution to chemical pollution.
Question 14: The word "depletion" in paragraph II is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
A. accumulation
B. reduction
C. disruption
D. diminishment
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Heavy metals in the environment do not pose a risk to human health.
B. Only synthetic chemicals cause environmental harm.
C. Chemicals are always harmful to the environment.
D. Toxic chemicals can accumulate in the food chain and affect human health.
Question 16: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph
III?
"These substances can accumulate in the food chain, starting from plants and animals
in contaminated areas and eventually reaching humans."
A. Toxic chemicals can be stored in plants and animals, making their way to humans.
B. Substances accumulate in the food chain, causing no harm to the ecosystem.
C. Plants and animals are immune to the harmful effects of toxic chemicals.
D. Humans are unaffected by the accumulation of toxic substances in the food chain.
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Question 17: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Chemical pollution has been completely controlled by government regulations.
B. Public awareness has had no effect on reducing chemical pollution.
C. Governments and organizations must work together to reduce chemical pollution.
D. The use of synthetic chemicals has increased without any consequences.
Question 18: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. The environment is safe from chemical pollution if strict regulations are enforced.
B. Chemical pollution is a major environmental issue that requires global cooperation and
action.
C. The use of chemicals in agriculture has no significant environmental impact.
D. Technological advancements have completely solved the issue of chemical pollution
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