1. Which congenital cardiac defect results in right-to-left shunting and cyanosis in severe
cases?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Ventricular septal defect
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. Atrial septal defect
2. Which bacterial species is a common cause of vegetative endocarditis in pigs?
A. Streptococcus equi
B. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
C. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
D. Pasteurella multocida
3. In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats, what histological feature is typically observed?
A. Fatty infiltration of myocardium
B. Myocardial disarray and fibrosis
C. Eosinophilic myocarditis
D. Hemorrhagic infarcts
4. Which of the following is the most common cause of fibrinous pleuropneumonia in pigs?
A. Rhodococcus equi
B. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
C. Streptococcus suis
D. Mannheimia haemolytica
5. Which type of cardiac hypertrophy is caused by pressure overload, such as subaortic
stenosis?
A. Eccentric hypertrophy
B. Dilated hypertrophy
C. Concentric hypertrophy
D. Mixed hypertrophy
6. What is the most common site of cardiac hemangiosarcoma in dogs?
A. Left ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Mitral valve
7. Which parasite causes pulmonary arterial damage leading to pulmonary hypertension in
dogs?
A. Trichuris vulpis
B. Strongylus vulgaris
C. Dirofilaria immitis
D. Toxocara canis
8. In restrictive cardiomyopathy in cats, which structure is typically thickened?
A. Interventricular septum
B. Mitral valve
C. Endocardium and moderator bands
D. Pulmonary veins
9. Which parasite causes granulomatous myocarditis and is zoonotic in South America?
A. Sarcocystis neurona
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Neospora caninum
10. What is a hallmark lesion of traumatic reticulopericarditis in cattle?
A. Hemopericardium
B. Hydropericardium
C. Fibrinosuppurative pericarditis
D. Jet lesions
11. What term describes the eosinophilic degeneration and mineralization of myocytes due to
selenium deficiency in lambs?
A. Panosteitis
B. Enostosis
C. White muscle disease
D. Zenker's necrosis
12. Which condition is associated with thickened and shortened mitral valve leaflets in smallbreed dogs?
A. Endocarditis
B. Endocardiosis
C. Cardiomyositis
D. Pulmonic stenosis
13. What condition results in fluid accumulation within the pericardial sac due to right atrial
tumour rupture?
A. Hydropericardium
B. Serous atrophy of fat
C. Hemopericardium
D. Pericarditis
14. Which lungworm causes nodular lesions in the caudal lobes of sheep lungs?
A. Dictyocaulus viviparus
B. Muellerius capillaris
C. Metastrongylus spp.
D. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
15. Which type of pneumonia is characterized by diffuse interstitial thickening and type II
pneumocyte hyperplasia?
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. Granulomatous pneumonia
C. Aspiration pneumonia
D. Interstitial pneumonia
16. What is the gross appearance of “nutmeg liver” in right-sided heart failure?
A. Mottled pale and dark red lobular pattern
B. Uniformly red and enlarged liver
C. Yellow friable hepatic parenchyma
D. Central necrosis with capsular fibrosis
17. Which cardiac arrhythmia is commonly associated with sick sinus syndrome in dogs?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular premature complexes
C. Prolonged sinus pauses
D. Supraventricular tachycardia
18. Which organism causes severe fibrinous pleuritis and bronchopneumonia in ruminants
and is zoonotic?
A. Histophilus somni
B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Mannheimia haemolytica
19. What is the primary gross lesion associated with cerebellar abiotrophy in Arabian foals?
A. Hemorrhagic infarct
B. Purkinje cell loss
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Meningeal thickening
20. Which cardiovascular change occurs as a compensatory response to chronic anemia?
A. Concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle
B. Dilation of left atrium
C. Eccentric hypertrophy of left ventricle
D. Right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
21. Which agent is responsible for mulberry heart disease in piglets?
A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Vitamin E/Selenium deficiency
C. Zinc toxicity
D. Thiamine deficiency
22. What is a likely sequela of a large left atrial thrombus in cats with HCM?
A. Valvular endocarditis
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Saddle thrombus
D. Ventricular fibrillation
23. Which musculoskeletal condition is marked by increased radiolucency at metaphyseal
growth plates?
A. Panosteitis
B. Osteochondrosis
C. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
D. Osteopetrosis
24. Which pathogen commonly causes caseonecrotic pneumonia in foals and is zoonotic?
A. Actinobacillus equuli
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Rhodococcus equi
D. Streptococcus zooepidemicus
25. What finding is characteristic of chronic passive congestion in the lungs due to left-sided
heart failure?
A. Fibrous pleuritis
B. Fibrin casts in bronchi
C. Heart failure cells
D. Interlobular emphysema
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
C
B
B
B
C
B
C
C
B
C
C
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
B
C
B
D
A
C
D
B
C
B
C
C
C
C
26. What is a typical sequela of long-standing left atrial enlargement in dogs?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Jet lesion in the left atrium
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Interventricular shunting
27. Which condition results from failure of endochondral ossification in growing animals?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteochondrosis
D. Fibrous osteodystrophy
28. Which parasite is responsible for cranial mesenteric arteritis and thrombosis in horses?
A. Dirofilaria immitis
B. Taenia solium
C. Strongylus vulgaris
D. Neospora caninum
29. Which bacterium is associated with necrosuppurative endocarditis in cattle?
A. Histophilus somni
B. Trueperella pyogenes
C. Bartonella henselae
D. Staphylococcus pseudintermedius
30. Which organism causes eosinophilic myocarditis in dogs and is zoonotic?
A. Cysticercus bovis
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Neospora caninum
D. Toxoplasma gondii
31. What is the pathologic feature of hydropericardium?
A. Gelatinous fat infiltration
B. Pure blood accumulation
C. Clear fluid accumulation
D. Fibrinous adhesions
32. What causes myocardial necrosis in pigs with Vitamin E/selenium deficiency?
A. Oxidative damage to cell membranes
B. Immune-mediated myocarditis
C. Ischemic infarction
D. Fungal toxin exposure
33. What describes the gross morphology of pulmonary edema due to left-sided heart failure?
A. Dry, rubbery lungs
B. Fibrinous pleuritis
C. Wet, heavy lungs with foam in airways
D. Patchy emphysematous bullae
34. Which virus causes severe interstitial pneumonia and syncytia formation in calves?
A. Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus
B. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
C. Bovine viral diarrhea virus
D. Parainfluenza virus 3
35. What condition is characterized by gelatinous epicardial fat in emaciated animals?
A. Serous atrophy of fat
B. Epicardial lipomatosis
C. Cardiogenic cachexia
D. Myxomatous degeneration
36. Which parasite forms sarcocysts in cardiac muscle of cattle and sheep?
A. Echinococcus granulosus
B. Sarcocystis spp.
C. Taenia ovis
D. Toxoplasma gondii
37. What is a common cause of suppurative myocarditis in young animals?
A. Viral inclusion bodies
B. Protozoal cyst rupture
C. Embolic bacterial seeding
D. Nutritional myopathy
38. Which lesion is typically caused by embolic pneumonia in pigs?
A. Diffuse interstitial fibrosis
B. Multifocal abscessation
C. Bronchiectasis
D. Miliary nodules
39. What is a possible sequela of severe mitral valve insufficiency in dogs?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Left atrial dilation
C. Tricuspid stenosis
D. Jugular distension
40. Which virus is a major cause of hemorrhagic pneumonia in poultry and zoonotic concern?
A. Avian influenza virus
B. Infectious bronchitis virus
C. Newcastle disease virus
D. Marek's disease virus
41. What best describes the term “saddle thrombus” in cats?
A. Aortic aneurysm
B. Clot at aortic trifurcation
C. Right atrial thrombus
D. Pulmonary embolism
42. Which bone condition presents with metaphyseal flaring and retained cartilage cores?
A. Panosteitis
B. Osteopetrosis
C. Osteochondrosis
D. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
43. Which cardiovascular anomaly is a component of Tetralogy of Fallot?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Overriding aorta
D. Mitral valve dysplasia
44. What describes histological features of fibrosarcoma?
A. Spindle cells in herringbone pattern
B. Glandular epithelial proliferation
C. Large round cells with halo
D. Stratified squamous epithelium
45. What is the major toxic principle in yew (Taxus spp.) poisoning?
A. Monensin
B. Cyanogenic glycosides
C. Taxine alkaloids
D. Cardiac glycosides
46. Which lungworm causes catarrhal bronchitis and cough in young calves?
A. Muellerius capillaris
B. Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
C. Dictyocaulus viviparus
D. Metastrongylus elongatus
47. Which type of pericarditis is most commonly caused by traumatic reticuloperitonitis?
A. Purulent pericarditis
B. Fibrinous pericarditis
C. Hemorrhagic pericarditis
D. Serous pericarditis
48. What is a potential outcome of embolic bacterial endocarditis?
A. Myocardial disarray
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Renal infarcts
D. Aortic aneurysm
49. What is a histologic feature of restrictive cardiomyopathy in cats?
A. Mural thrombi in left ventricle
B. Fibrosis of endocardium and excessive moderator bands
C. Interstitial hemorrhage
D. Myocyte necrosis and regeneration
50. Which bacteria is a common cause of granulomatous pneumonia in horses?
A. Mycobacterium bovis
B. Rhodococcus equi
C. Streptococcus equi
D. Actinobacillus equuli
✅ Answer Key: Questions 26–50
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. A
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. D
43. C
44. A
45. C
46. C
47. A
48. C
49. B
50. B
51. What is the most common cardiac neoplasm in dogs that may lead to cardiac tamponade?
A. Lymphoma
B. Hemangiosarcoma
C. Rhabdomyoma
D. Fibrosarcoma
52. Which virus causes severe interstitial pneumonia in goats and is part of the lentivirus
family?
A. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus
B. Bovine respiratory syncytial virus
C. Ovine adenovirus
D. Peste des petits ruminants virus
53. What histological pattern is typical of chronic thrombus formation?
A. Neutrophilic infiltration and necrosis
B. Uniform eosinophilic proteinaceous material
C. Lines of Zahn (laminated fibrin and RBC layers)
D. Fungal hyphae and giant cells
54. What is a common source of emboli in bacterial endocarditis in cattle?
A. Lung abscess
B. Hepatic abscess
C. Renal infarct
D. Jugular phlebitis
55. Which condition results in mineralization of the endocardium in cattle with Johne’s
disease?
A. Amyloidosis
B. White muscle disease
C. Endocardial mineralization due to hypercalcemia
D. Endocardiosis
56. Which congenital vascular anomaly causes regurgitation and megaesophagus in dogs?
A. Aortic coarctation
B. Persistent right aortic arch
C. Tetralogy of Fallot
D. Pulmonic stenosis
57. What condition is marked by chronic eosinophilic inflammation in the lung parenchyma
of cats due to parasites?
A. Asthma
B. HARD (Heartworm-Associated Respiratory Disease)
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Pleural effusion
58. What is the common underlying cause of osteomyelitis in animals?
A. Fungal toxicosis
B. Bacterial emboli or trauma
C. Parasitic encystment
D. Vitamin D excess
59. Which cardiac lesion is associated with jet lesions and rupture of chordae tendineae?
A. Endocarditis
B. Endocardiosis
C. Myocarditis
D. Constrictive pericarditis
60. Which parasitic disease in pigs can mimic viral myocarditis grossly and is zoonotic?
A. Neospora caninum
B. Trichinella spiralis
C. Sarcocystis cruzi
D. Toxoplasma gondii
61. Which gross feature is most consistent with bovine chronic passive hepatic congestion?
A. Pale mottling and biliary hyperplasia
B. “Nutmeg liver” with centrilobular congestion
C. Diffuse fibrosis and cirrhosis
D. Fibrinous adhesions on the capsule
62. Which type of heart failure results in ascites and jugular distension?
A. Left-sided heart failure
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Forward heart failure
D. Diastolic dysfunction
63. Which viral agent causes hemorrhagic necrosis in the myocardium of young pigs
(mulberry heart disease)?
A. Porcine parvovirus
B. PRRS virus
C. Enterovirus
D. Encephalomyocarditis virus
64. Which organism causes caseating granulomatous pneumonia in ruminants and is acid-fast
positive?
A. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
B. Rhodococcus equi
C. Mycobacterium bovis
D. Nocardia asteroides
65. What lesion typically forms when left atrial thrombi embolize in cats?
A. Saddle thrombus
B. Pulmonary infarct
C. Ventricular rupture
D. Hepatic infarction
66. Which cardiac pathology is marked by fibro-fatty replacement of the right ventricular
myocardium?
A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
B. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
C. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
D. Endocardial fibroelastosis
67. Which vitamin deficiency contributes to white muscle disease in lambs and calves?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin B1
68. What is the primary cause of hyperplasia of pulmonary arterial endothelium in heartworm
disease?
A. Type III hypersensitivity
B. Mechanical irritation and antigen release
C. Parasite occlusion of lymphatics
D. Hypocalcemia
69. What lesion is associated with monensin toxicity in horses?
A. Endocardial mineralization
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Myocardial necrosis
D. Epicardial hemorrhage
70. Which fungal infection causes guttural pouch mycosis in horses?
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Coccidioides immitis
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
71. Which histologic feature characterizes HCM in cats?
A. Myocyte necrosis with mineralization
B. Fibrofatty replacement of myocardium
C. Myofiber disarray with interstitial fibrosis
D. Interstitial eosinophilic infiltrates
72. Which bacterium causes embolic pneumonia and meningitis in pigs?
A. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
B. Actinobacillus suis
C. Streptococcus suis
D. Pasteurella multocida
73. Which pericardial pathology is associated with extension of pleuropneumonia in cattle?
A. Serous atrophy of fat
B. Traumatic reticulopericarditis
C. Fibrinosuppurative pericarditis
D. Hemopericardium
74. What lesion is characteristic of embolic nephritis in bacterial septicemia?
A. Cortical mineralization
B. Glomerular amyloidosis
C. Multifocal suppurative lesions
D. Interstitial fibrosis
75. Which respiratory pathogen causes chronic nasal discharge, arthritis, and pneumonia in
goats?
A. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
B. Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. capri
C. Pasteurella multocida
D. Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus
✅ Answer Key: Questions 51–75
51. B
52. A
53. C
54. B
55. C
56. B
57. B
58. B
59. B
60. B
61. B
62. B
63. D
64. C
65. A
66. C
67. C
68. B
69. C
70. A
71. C
72. C
73. C
74. C
75. B
76. What gross finding is commonly associated with fibrinous bronchopneumonia in cattle?
A. Diffuse rubbery lungs
B. Cranioventral consolidation with fibrin on pleura
C. Caudodorsal lung necrosis
D. Interstitial fibrosis of alveolar septa
77. Which cardiomyopathy in Boxers is linked to a striatin gene mutation?
A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
D. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
78. What is a potential post-mortem finding in a cat that died of HCM-associated
thromboembolism?
A. Saddle thrombus at aortic trifurcation
B. Pleural hemorrhage
C. Pulmonary infarction
D. Interventricular septal rupture
79. Which feature best distinguishes endocarditis from endocardiosis grossly?
A. Thickened but smooth valve leaflets
B. Pale gelatinous endocardial masses
C. Friable vegetations with irregular surface
D. Valve mineralization
80. Which viral agent causes HARD (Heartworm-Associated Respiratory Disease) in cats
despite absence of adult worms?
A. Feline calicivirus
B. Dirofilaria immitis
C. Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus
D. Feline infectious peritonitis virus
81. Which of the following cardiac diseases can result from taurine deficiency in cats?
A. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
C. Dilated cardiomyopathy
D. Endocardial fibroelastosis
82. Which bone disorder is associated with hyperparathyroidism in reptiles and growing
animals?
A. Osteopetrosis
B. Fibrous osteodystrophy
C. Osteochondrosis
D. Rickets
83. What is the most likely pathogenesis of myocardial necrosis in ionophore toxicity?
A. Autoimmune T-cell infiltration
B. Parasite-induced eosinophilic damage
C. Increased intracellular calcium and cell swelling
D. Endotoxin-mediated microvascular thrombosis
84. Which type of pneumonia is most often caused by aspiration of gastric contents?
A. Granulomatous pneumonia
B. Interstitial pneumonia
C. Bronchopneumonia
D. Aspiration pneumonia
85. Which bacterium is most associated with Glässer’s disease in pigs, including fibrinous
polyserositis and pericarditis?
A. Glaesserella parasuis
B. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
C. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
D. Streptococcus suis
86. Which neoplasm of the heart arises from neuroendocrine tissue and is common at the base
of the heart in dogs?
A. Rhabdomyoma
B. Aortic body tumour (chemodectoma)
C. Lymphoma
D. Myxoma
87. Which cytokine is a major mediator of chronic inflammation and insulin resistance in
visceral obesity?
A. IL-4
B. TNF-alpha
C. IL-10
D. IFN-gamma
88. What is the best description of “lines of Zahn” seen in a thrombus?
A. Calcified laminations
B. Alternating layers of fibrin/platelets and RBCs
C. Granulation tissue and collagen
D. Bacterial colonies and fibrin
89. Which histological finding is typical in chronic passive congestion of the liver?
A. Bridging necrosis
B. Bile duct proliferation
C. Centrilobular congestion and atrophy
D. Portal fibrosis
90. What lesion is commonly found in the nasal cavity of dogs with nasal aspergillosis?
A. Epistaxis with purulent exudate
B. Ulcerative crusting of external nares
C. Bone lysis and fungal plaques
D. Nasopharyngeal polyp
91. What type of cardiomyopathy is most commonly seen in large breed dogs and associated
with systolic dysfunction?
A. Hypertrophic
B. Dilated
C. Restrictive
D. Arrhythmogenic
92. Which joint condition is marked by erosion and pannus formation in immune-mediated
disease?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Rheumatoid-like arthritis
D. Hip dysplasia
93. What histologic feature is typical of embolic bacterial nephritis?
A. Granulomatous interstitial inflammation
B. Glomerular amyloid deposition
C. Multifocal suppurative foci in cortex
D. Perivascular eosinophils
94. Which organism causes zoonotic, chronic granulomatous pneumonia in cattle?
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Rhodococcus equi
D. Histophilus somni
95. Which lesion is common in aspiration pneumonia in monogastrics?
A. Diffuse pulmonary edema
B. Cranioventral consolidation
C. Fibrinous pleuritis
D. Interstitial nodules
96. Which parasite can cause CNS migration and myocarditis in dogs and livestock?
A. Toxoplasma gondii
B. Dirofilaria immitis
C. Neospora caninum
D. Strongylus vulgaris
97. Which hormone contributes to tachycardia, arrhythmias, and hypertrophy in feline
thyrotoxic heart disease?
A. Insulin
B. Cortisol
C. Parathyroid hormone
D. Thyroxine (T4)
98. Which viral infection is associated with necrotizing myocarditis in puppies?
A. Canine parvovirus
B. Canine distemper virus
C. Rabies virus
D. Canine herpesvirus
99. What pathophysiological process leads to interstitial pneumonia from viral infections?
A. Mucosal sloughing
B. Inflammatory edema in alveolar septa
C. Bronchial obstruction
D. Necrosis of surfactant-producing cells
100. Which of the following results in concentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle?
A. Mitral valve regurgitation
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Tricuspid valve dysplasia
D. Right ventricular overload
76. B
77. C
78. A
79. C
80. B
81. C
82. B
83. C
84. D
85. A
86. B
87. B
88. B
89. C
90. C
91. B
92. C
93. C
94. B
95. B
96. C
97. D
98. A
99. B
100. B