Title 14—Aeronautics
and Space
(This book contains parts 1 to 59)
Part
Aviation Administration, Department
of Transportation ...............................................................
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CHAPTER I—Federal
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CHAPTER I—FEDERAL AVIATION
ADMINISTRATION, DEPARTMENT OF
TRANSPORTATION
SUBCHAPTER A—DEFINITIONS AND GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
Part
1
3
5
Page
Definitions and abbreviations .................................
General requirements ..............................................
Safety management systems ...................................
5
20
21
SUBCHAPTER B—PROCEDURAL RULES
11
13
14
15
16
17
General rulemaking procedures ..............................
Investigative and enforcement procedures ..............
Rules implementing the Equal Access to Justice
Act of 1980 ............................................................
Administrative claims under Federal Tort Claims
Act .......................................................................
Rules of practice for Federally-assisted airport enforcement proceedings. ........................................
Procedures for protests and contract disputes ........
26
37
82
88
93
114
SUBCHAPTER C—AIRCRAFT
21
23
25
26
27
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29
31
33
34
Certification procedures for products and parts .....
Airworthiness standards: Normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter category airplanes ..............
Airworthiness standards: Transport category airplanes ...................................................................
Continued airworthiness and safety improvements
for transport category airplanes ..........................
Airworthiness standards: Normal category rotorcraft .....................................................................
Airworthiness standards: Transport category
rotorcraft .............................................................
Airworthiness standards: Manned free balloons ......
Airworthiness standards: Aircraft engines ..............
Fuel venting and exhaust emission requirements
for turbine engine powered airplanes ...................
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131
176
366
639
654
740
859
866
911
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Part
35
36
39
43
45
47
48
49
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50–59
Page
Airworthiness standards: Propellers .......................
Noise standards: Aircraft type and airworthiness
certification .........................................................
Airworthiness directives .........................................
Maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding,
and alteration ......................................................
Identification and registration marking .................
Aircraft registration ...............................................
Registration and marking requirements for small
unmanned aircraft ...............................................
Recording of aircraft titles and security documents ...................................................................
[Reserved]
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931
1009
1011
1027
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1048
1052
SUBCHAPTER A—DEFINITIONS AND GENERAL
REQUIREMENTS
Airport means an area of land or
water that is used or intended to be
used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
Airship means an engine-driven lighter-than-air aircraft that can be steered.
Air traffic means aircraft operating in
the air or on an airport surface, exclusive of loading ramps and parking
areas.
Air traffic clearance means an authorization by air traffic control, for the
purpose of preventing collision between
known aircraft, for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions
within controlled airspace.
Air traffic control means a service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly, and expeditious
flow of air traffic.
Air Traffic Service (ATS) route is a
specified route designated for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary
for the provision of air traffic services.
The term ‘‘ATS route’’ refers to a variety of airways, including jet routes,
area navigation (RNAV) routes, and arrival and departure routes. An ATS
route is defined by route specifications,
which may include:
(1) An ATS route designator;
(2) The path to or from significant
points;
(3) Distance between significant
points;
(4) Reporting requirements; and
(5) The lowest safe altitude determined by the appropriate authority.
Air transportation means interstate,
overseas, or foreign air transportation
or the transportation of mail by aircraft.
Alert Area. An alert area is established to inform pilots of a specific
area wherein a high volume of pilot
training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted.
Alternate airport means an airport at
which an aircraft may land if a landing
at the intended airport becomes inadvisable.
Altitude engine means a reciprocating
aircraft engine having a rated takeoff
PART 1—DEFINITIONS AND
ABBREVIATIONS
Sec.
1.1 General definitions.
1.2 Abbreviations and symbols.
1.3 Rules of construction.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40113,
44701.
§ 1.1 General definitions.
As used in Subchapters A through K
of this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise:
Administrator means the Federal
Aviation Administrator or any person
to whom he has delegated his authority
in the matter concerned.
Aerodynamic coefficients means nondimensional coefficients for aerodynamic forces and moments.
Air carrier means a person who undertakes directly by lease, or other arrangement, to engage in air transportation.
Air commerce means interstate, overseas, or foreign air commerce or the
transportation of mail by aircraft or
any operation or navigation of aircraft
within the limits of any Federal airway
or any operation or navigation of aircraft which directly affects, or which
may endanger safety in, interstate,
overseas, or foreign air commerce.
Aircraft means a device that is used
or intended to be used for flight in the
air.
Aircraft engine means an engine that
is used or intended to be used for propelling aircraft. It includes turbosuperchargers, appurtenances, and accessories necessary for its functioning,
but does not include propellers.
Airframe means the fuselage, booms,
nacelles, cowlings, fairings, airfoil surfaces (including rotors but excluding
propellers and rotating airfoils of engines), and landing gear of an aircraft
and their accessories and controls.
Airplane means an engine-driven
fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air,
that is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its
wings.
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§ 1.1
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power that is producible from sea level
to an established higher altitude.
Amateur rocket means an unmanned
rocket that:
(1) Is propelled by a motor or motors
having a combined total impulse of
889,600 Newton-seconds (200,000 poundseconds) or less; and
(2) Cannot reach an altitude greater
than 150 kilometers (93.2 statute miles)
above the earth’s surface.
Appliance means any instrument,
mechanism, equipment, part, apparatus, appurtenance, or accessory, including communications equipment,
that is used or intended to be used in
operating or controlling an aircraft in
flight, is installed in or attached to the
aircraft, and is not part of an airframe,
engine, or propeller.
Approved, unless used with reference
to another person, means approved by
the FAA or any person to whom the
FAA has delegated its authority in the
matter concerned, or approved under
the provisions of a bilateral agreement
between the United States and a foreign country or jurisdiction.
Area navigation (RNAV) is a method
of navigation that permits aircraft operations on any desired flight path.
Area navigation (RNAV) route is an
ATS route based on RNAV that can be
used by suitably equipped aircraft.
Armed Forces means the Army, Navy,
Air Force, Marine Corps, and Coast
Guard, including their regular and reserve components and members serving
without component status.
Autorotation means a rotorcraft flight
condition in which the lifting rotor is
driven entirely by action of the air
when the rotorcraft is in motion.
Auxiliary rotor means a rotor that
serves either to counteract the effect of
the main rotor torque on a rotorcraft
or to maneuver the rotorcraft about
one or more of its three principal axes.
Balloon means a lighter-than-air aircraft that is not engine driven, and
that sustains flight through the use of
either gas buoyancy or an airborne
heater.
Brake horsepower means the power delivered at the propeller shaft (main
drive or main output) of an aircraft engine.
Calibrated airspeed means the indicated airspeed of an aircraft, corrected
for position and instrument error. Calibrated airspeed is equal to true airspeed in standard atmosphere at sea
level.
Canard means the forward wing of a
canard configuration and may be a
fixed, movable, or variable geometry
surface, with or without control surfaces.
Canard configuration means a configuration in which the span of the forward
wing is substantially less than that of
the main wing.
Category:
(1) As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a broad classification of aircraft. Examples include: airplane; rotorcraft; glider; and
lighter-than-air; and
(2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a grouping
of aircraft based upon intended use or
operating limitations. Examples include: transport, normal, utility, acrobatic, limited, restricted, and provisional.
Category A, with respect to transport
category rotorcraft, means multiengine rotorcraft designed with engine
and system isolation features specified
in Part 29 and utilizing scheduled takeoff and landing operations under a critical engine failure concept which
assures adequate designated surface
area and adequate performance capability for continued safe flight in the
event of engine failure.
Category B, with respect to transport
category rotorcraft, means single-engine or multiengine rotorcraft which
do not fully meet all Category A standards. Category B rotorcraft have no
guaranteed stay-up ability in the event
of engine failure and unscheduled landing is assumed.
Category II operations, with respect to
the operation of aircraft, means a
straight-in ILS approach to the runway
of an airport under a Category II ILS
instrument approach procedure issued
by the Administrator or other appropriate authority.
Category III operations, with respect
to the operation of aircraft, means an
ILS approach to, and landing on, the
runway of an airport using a Category
III ILS instrument approach procedure
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§ 1.1
Commercial operator means a person
who, for compensation or hire, engages
in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other
than as an air carrier or foreign air
carrier or under the authority of Part
375 of this title. Where it is doubtful
that an operation is for ‘‘compensation
or hire’’, the test applied is whether
the carriage by air is merely incidental
to the person’s other business or is, in
itself, a major enterprise for profit.
Configuration, Maintenance, and Procedures (CMP) document means a document approved by the FAA that contains minimum configuration, operating, and maintenance requirements,
hardware life-limits, and Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) constraints necessary for an airplane-engine combination to meet ETOPS type
design approval requirements.
Consensus standard means, for the
purpose of certificating light-sport aircraft, an industry-developed consensus
standard that applies to aircraft design, production, and airworthiness. It
includes, but is not limited to, standards for aircraft design and performance, required equipment, manufacturer quality assurance systems, production acceptance test procedures, operating instructions, maintenance and
inspection procedures, identification
and recording of major repairs and
major alterations, and continued airworthiness.
Controlled airspace means an airspace
of defined dimensions within which air
traffic control service is provided to
IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.
issued by the Administrator or other
appropriate authority.
Ceiling means the height above the
earth’s surface of the lowest layer of
clouds or obscuring phenomena that is
reported as ‘‘broken’’, ‘‘overcast’’, or
‘‘obscuration’’, and not classified as
‘‘thin’’ or ‘‘partial’’.
Civil aircraft means aircraft other
than public aircraft.
Class:
(1) As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics.
Examples include: single engine; multiengine; land; water; gyroplane; helicopter; airship; and free balloon; and
(2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means a broad
grouping of aircraft having similar
characteristics of propulsion, flight, or
landing. Examples include: airplane;
rotorcraft; glider; balloon; landplane;
and seaplane.
Clearway means:
(1) For turbine engine powered airplanes certificated after August 29,
1959, an area beyond the runway, not
less than 500 feet wide, centrally located about the extended centerline of
the runway, and under the control of
the airport authorities. The clearway
is expressed in terms of a clearway
plane, extending from the end of the
runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25 percent, above which no
object nor any terrain protrudes. However, threshold lights may protrude
above the plane if their height above
the end of the runway is 26 inches or
less and if they are located to each side
of the runway.
(2) For turbine engine powered airplanes certificated after September 30,
1958, but before August 30, 1959, an area
beyond the takeoff runway extending
no less than 300 feet on either side of
the extended centerline of the runway,
at an elevation no higher than the elevation of the end of the runway, clear
of all fixed obstacles, and under the
control of the airport authorities.
Climbout speed, with respect to rotorcraft, means a referenced airspeed
which results in a flight path clear of
the height-velocity envelope during
initial climbout.
NOTE: Controlled airspace is a generic term
that covers Class A, Class B, Class C, Class
D, and Class E airspace.
Controlled Firing Area. A controlled
firing area is established to contain activities, which if not conducted in a
controlled environment, would be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.
Crewmember means a person assigned
to perform duty in an aircraft during
flight time.
Critical altitude means the maximum
altitude at which, in standard atmosphere, it is possible to maintain, at a
specified rotational speed, a specified
power or a specified manifold pressure.
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Unless otherwise stated, the critical altitude is the maximum altitude at
which it is possible to maintain, at the
maximum continuous rotational speed,
one of the following:
(1) The maximum continuous power,
in the case of engines for which this
power rating is the same at sea level
and at the rated altitude.
(2) The maximum continuous rated
manifold pressure, in the case of engines, the maximum continuous power
of which is governed by a constant
manifold pressure.
Critical engine means the engine
whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft.
Decision altitude (DA) is a specified altitude in an instrument approach procedure at which the pilot must decide
whether to initiate an immediate
missed approach if the pilot does not
see the required visual reference, or to
continue the approach. Decision altitude is expressed in feet above mean
sea level.
Decision height (DH) is a specified
height above the ground in an instrument approach procedure at which the
pilot must decide whether to initiate
an immediate missed approach if the
pilot does not see the required visual
reference, or to continue the approach.
Decision height is expressed in feet
above ground level.
Early ETOPS means ETOPS type design approval obtained without gaining
non-ETOPS service experience on the
candidate airplane-engine combination
certified for ETOPS.
Enhanced flight visibility (EFV) means
the average forward horizontal distance, from the cockpit of an aircraft
in flight, at which prominent topographical objects may be clearly distinguished and identified by day or
night by a pilot using an enhanced
flight vision system.
Enhanced flight vision system (EFVS)
means an electronic means to provide a
display of the forward external scene
topography (the natural or manmade
features of a place or region especially
in a way to show their relative positions and elevation) through the use of
imaging sensors, such as a forward
looking infrared, millimeter wave
radiometry, millimeter wave radar,
low light level image intensifying.
Equivalent airspeed means the calibrated airspeed of an aircraft corrected
for adiabatic compressible flow for the
particular altitude. Equivalent airspeed is equal to calibrated airspeed in
standard atmosphere at sea level.
ETOPS Significant System means an
airplane system, including the propulsion system, the failure or malfunctioning of which could adversely affect
the safety of an ETOPS flight, or the
continued safe flight and landing of an
airplane during an ETOPS diversion.
Each ETOPS significant system is either an ETOPS group 1 significant system or an ETOPS group 2 significant
system.
(1) An ETOPS group 1 Significant
System—
(i) Has fail-safe characteristics directly linked to the degree of redundancy provided by the number of engines on the airplane.
(ii) Is a system, the failure or malfunction of which could result in an
IFSD, loss of thrust control, or other
power loss.
(iii) Contributes significantly to the
safety of an ETOPS diversion by providing additional redundancy for any
system power source lost as a result of
an inoperative engine.
(iv) Is essential for prolonged operation of an airplane at engine inoperative altitudes.
(2) An ETOPS group 2 significant system is an ETOPS significant system
that is not an ETOPS group 1 significant system.
Extended Operations (ETOPS) means
an airplane flight operation, other than
an all-cargo operation in an airplane
with more than two engines, during
which a portion of the flight is conducted beyond a time threshold identified in part 121 or part 135 of this chapter that is determined using an approved one-engine-inoperative cruise
speed under standard atmospheric conditions in still air.
Extended over-water operation means—
(1) With respect to aircraft other
than helicopters, an operation over
water at a horizontal distance of more
than 50 nautical miles from the nearest
shoreline; and
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§ 1.1
Flammable, with respect to a fluid or
gas, means susceptible to igniting readily or to exploding.
Flap extended speed means the highest
speed permissible with wing flaps in a
prescribed extended position.
Flash resistant means not susceptible
to burning violently when ignited.
Flightcrew member means a pilot,
flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during
flight time.
Flight level means a level of constant
atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. Each is stated in three digits
that represent hundreds of feet. For example, flight level 250 represents a barometric altimeter indication of 25,000
feet; flight level 255, an indication of
25,500 feet.
Flight plan means specified information, relating to the intended flight of
an aircraft, that is filed orally or in
writing with air traffic control.
Flight
simulation
training
device
(FSTD) means a flight simulator or a
flight training device.
Flight time means:
(1) Pilot time that commences when
an aircraft moves under its own power
for the purpose of flight and ends when
the aircraft comes to rest after landing; or
(2) For a glider without self-launch
capability, pilot time that commences
when the glider is towed for the purpose of flight and ends when the glider
comes to rest after landing.
Flight training device (FTD) means a
replica of aircraft instruments, equipment, panels, and controls in an open
flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft
cockpit replica. It includes the equipment and computer programs necessary to represent aircraft (or set of
aircraft) operations in ground and
flight conditions having the full range
of capabilities of the systems installed
in the device as described in part 60 of
this chapter and the qualification performance standard (QPS) for a specific
FTD qualification level.
Flight visibility means the average forward horizontal distance, from the
cockpit of an aircraft in flight, at
which prominent unlighted objects
may be seen and identified by day and
(2) With respect to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nautical miles
from the nearest shoreline and more
than 50 nautical miles from an offshore heliport structure.
External load means a load that is
carried, or extends, outside of the aircraft fuselage.
External-load attaching means means
the structural components used to attach an external load to an aircraft, including external-load containers, the
backup structure at the attachment
points, and any quick-release device
used to jettison the external load.
Final approach fix (FAF) defines the
beginning of the final approach segment and the point where final segment descent may begin.
Final takeoff speed means the speed of
the airplane that exists at the end of
the takeoff path in the en route configuration with one engine inoperative.
Fireproof—
(1) With respect to materials and
parts used to confine fire in a designated fire zone, means the capacity
to withstand at least as well as steel in
dimensions appropriate for the purpose
for which they are used, the heat produced when there is a severe fire of extended duration in that zone; and
(2) With respect to other materials
and parts, means the capacity to withstand the heat associated with fire at
least as well as steel in dimensions appropriate for the purpose for which
they are used.
Fire resistant—
(1) With respect to sheet or structural members means the capacity to
withstand the heat associated with fire
at least as well as aluminum alloy in
dimensions appropriate for the purpose
for which they are used; and
(2) With respect to fluid-carrying
lines, fluid system parts, wiring, air
ducts, fittings, and powerplant controls, means the capacity to perform
the intended functions under the heat
and other conditions likely to occur
when there is a fire at the place concerned.
Flame resistant means not susceptible
to combustion to the point of propagating a flame, beyond safe limits,
after the ignition source is removed.
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Ground visibility means prevailing
horizontal visibility near the earth’s
surface as reported by the United
States National Weather Service or an
accredited observer.
Go-around power or thrust setting
means the maximum allowable inflight power or thrust setting identified in the performance data.
Gyrodyne means a rotorcraft whose
rotors are normally engine-driven for
takeoff, hovering, and landing, and for
forward flight through part of its speed
range, and whose means of propulsion,
consisting usually of conventional propellers, is independent of the rotor system.
Gyroplane means a rotorcraft whose
rotors are not engine-driven, except for
initial starting, but are made to rotate
by action of the air when the rotorcraft
is moving; and whose means of propulsion, consisting usually of conventional propellers, is independent of the
rotor system.
Helicopter means a rotorcraft that,
for its horizontal motion, depends principally on its engine-driven rotors.
Heliport means an area of land, water,
or structure used or intended to be
used for the landing and takeoff of helicopters.
Idle thrust means the jet thrust obtained with the engine power control
level set at the stop for the least thrust
position at which it can be placed.
IFR conditions means weather conditions below the minimum for flight
under visual flight rules.
IFR over-the-top, with respect to the
operation of aircraft, means the operation of an aircraft over-the-top on an
IFR flight plan when cleared by air
traffic control to maintain ‘‘VFR conditions’’ or ‘‘VFR conditions on top’’.
Indicated airspeed means the speed of
an aircraft as shown on its pitot static
airspeed indicator calibrated to reflect
standard atmosphere adiabatic compressible flow at sea level uncorrected
for airspeed system errors.
In-flight shutdown (IFSD) means, for
ETOPS only, when an engine ceases to
function (when the airplane is airborne) and is shutdown, whether self
induced, flightcrew initiated or caused
by an external influence. The FAA considers IFSD for all causes: for example,
flameout, internal failure, flightcrew
prominent lighted objects may be seen
and identified by night.
Foreign air carrier means any person
other than a citizen of the United
States, who undertakes directly, by
lease or other arrangement, to engage
in air transportation.
Foreign air commerce means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property
for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, or the operation or navigation of aircraft in the
conduct or furtherance of a business or
vocation, in commerce between a place
in the United States and any place outside thereof; whether such commerce
moves wholly by aircraft or partly by
aircraft and partly by other forms of
transportation.
Foreign air transportation means the
carriage by aircraft of persons or property as a common carrier for compensation or hire, or the carriage of
mail by aircraft, in commerce between
a place in the United States and any
place outside of the United States,
whether that commerce moves wholly
by aircraft or partly by aircraft and
partly by other forms of transportation.
Forward wing means a forward lifting
surface of a canard configuration or
tandem-wing configuration airplane.
The surface may be a fixed, movable, or
variable geometry surface, with or
without control surfaces.
Full flight simulator (FFS) means a
replica of a specific type; or make,
model, and series aircraft cockpit. It
includes the assemblage of equipment
and computer programs necessary to
represent aircraft operations in ground
and flight conditions, a visual system
providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, a
system that provides cues at least
equivalent to those of a three-degreeof-freedom motion system, and has the
full range of capabilities of the systems
installed in the device as described in
part 60 of this chapter and the qualification performance standards (QPS)
for a specific FFS qualification level.
Glider means a heavier-than-air aircraft, that is supported in flight by the
dynamic reaction of the air against its
lifting surfaces and whose free flight
does not depend principally on an engine.
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§ 1.1
initiated shutdown, foreign object ingestion, icing, inability to obtain or
control desired thrust or power, and
cycling of the start control, however
briefly, even if the engine operates normally for the remainder of the flight.
This definition excludes the airborne
cessation of the functioning of an engine when immediately followed by an
automatic engine relight and when an
engine does not achieve desired thrust
or power but is not shutdown.
Instrument means a device using an
internal mechanism to show visually
or aurally the attitude, altitude, or operation of an aircraft or aircraft part.
It includes electronic devices for automatically controlling an aircraft in
flight.
Instrument approach procedure (IAP) is
a series of predetermined maneuvers by
reference to flight instruments with
specified protection from obstacles and
assurance of navigation signal reception capability. It begins from the initial approach fix, or where applicable,
from the beginning of a defined arrival
route to a point:
(1) From which a landing can be completed; or
(2) If a landing is not completed, to a
position at which holding or en route
obstacle clearance criteria apply.
Interstate air commerce means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property
for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, or the operation or navigation of aircraft in the
conduct or furtherance of a business or
vocation, in commerce between a place
in any State of the United States, or
the District of Columbia, and a place in
any other State of the United States,
or the District of Columbia; or between
places in the same State of the United
States through the airspace over any
place outside thereof; or between
places in the same territory or possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia.
Interstate air transportation means the
carriage by aircraft of persons or property as a common carrier for compensation or hire, or the carriage of
mail by aircraft in commerce:
(1) Between a place in a State or the
District of Columbia and another place
in another State or the District of Columbia;
(2) Between places in the same State
through the airspace over any place
outside that State; or
(3) Between places in the same possession of the United States;
Whether that commerce moves wholly
by aircraft of partly by aircraft and
partly by other forms of transportation.
Intrastate air transportation means the
carriage of persons or property as a
common carrier for compensation or
hire, by turbojet-powered aircraft capable of carrying thirty or more persons,
wholly within the same State of the
United States.
Kite means a framework, covered
with paper, cloth, metal, or other material, intended to be flown at the end
of a rope or cable, and having as its
only support the force of the wind moving past its surfaces.
Landing gear extended speed means
the maximum speed at which an aircraft can be safely flown with the landing gear extended.
Landing gear operating speed means
the maximum speed at which the landing gear can be safely extended or retracted.
Large aircraft means aircraft of more
than 12,500 pounds, maximum certificated takeoff weight.
Light-sport aircraft means an aircraft,
other than a helicopter or powered-lift
that, since its original certification,
has continued to meet the following:
(1) A maximum takeoff weight of not
more than—
(i) 1,320 pounds (600 kilograms) for
aircraft not intended for operation on
water; or
(ii) 1,430 pounds (650 kilograms) for
an aircraft intended for operation on
water.
(2) A maximum airspeed in level
flight with maximum continuous power
(VH) of not more than 120 knots CAS
under standard atmospheric conditions
at sea level.
(3) A maximum never-exceed speed
(VNE) of not more than 120 knots CAS
for a glider.
(4) A maximum stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed without the
use of lift-enhancing devices (VS1) of
not more than 45 knots CAS at the aircraft’s maximum certificated takeoff
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14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Major alteration means an alteration
not listed in the aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller specifications—
(1) That might appreciably affect
weight, balance, structural strength,
performance, powerplant operation,
flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or
(2) That is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by
elementary operations.
Major repair means a repair:
(1) That, if improperly done, might
appreciably affect weight, balance,
structural strength, performance, powerplant operation, flight characteristics, or other qualities affecting airworthiness; or
(2) That is not done according to accepted practices or cannot be done by
elementary operations.
Manifold pressure means absolute
pressure as measured at the appropriate point in the induction system
and usually expressed in inches of mercury.
Maximum engine overtorque, as it applies to turbopropeller and turboshaft
engines incorporating free power turbines for all ratings except one engine
inoperative (OEI) ratings of two minutes or less, means the maximum
torque of the free power turbine rotor
assembly, the inadvertent occurrence
of which, for periods of up to 20 seconds, will not require rejection of the
engine from service, or any maintenance action other than to correct the
cause.Maximum speed for stability characteristics, VFC/MFC means a speed that
may not be less than a speed midway
between maximum operating limit
speed (VMO/MMO) and demonstrated
flight diving speed (VDF/MDF), except
that, for altitudes where the Mach
number is the limiting factor, MFC need
not exceed the Mach number at which
effective speed warning occurs.
Medical certificate means acceptable
evidence of physical fitness on a form
prescribed by the Administrator.
Military operations area. A military
operations area (MOA) is airspace established outside Class A airspace to
separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR
Traffic and to identify for VFR traffic
where theses activities are conducted.
weight and most critical center of
gravity.
(5) A maximum seating capacity of
no more than two persons, including
the pilot.
(6) A single, reciprocating engine, if
powered.
(7) A fixed or ground-adjustable propeller if a powered aircraft other than
a powered glider.
(8) A fixed or feathering propeller
system if a powered glider.
(9) A fixed-pitch, semi-rigid, teetering, two-blade rotor system, if a gyroplane.
(10) A nonpressurized cabin, if
equipped with a cabin.
(11) Fixed landing gear, except for an
aircraft intended for operation on
water or a glider.
(12) Fixed or retractable landing
gear, or a hull, for an aircraft intended
for operation on water.
(13) Fixed or retractable landing gear
for a glider.
Lighter-than-air aircraft means aircraft that can rise and remain suspended by using contained gas weighing less than the air that is displaced
by the gas.
Load factor means the ratio of a specified load to the total weight of the aircraft. The specified load is expressed in
terms of any of the following: aerodynamic forces, inertia forces, or
ground or water reactions.
Long-range
communication
system
(LRCS). A system that uses satellite
relay, data link, high frequency, or another approved communication system
which extends beyond line of sight.
Long-range navigation system (LRNS).
An electronic navigation unit that is
approved for use under instrument
flight rules as a primary means of navigation, and has at least one source of
navigational input, such as inertial
navigation system, global positioning
system, Omega/very low frequency, or
Loran C.
Mach number means the ratio of true
airspeed to the speed of sound.
Main rotor means the rotor that supplies the principal lift to a rotorcraft.
Maintenance means inspection, overhaul, repair, preservation, and the replacement of parts, but excludes preventive maintenance.
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Minimum descent altitude (MDA) is the
lowest altitude specified in an instrument approach procedure, expressed in
feet above mean sea level, to which descent is authorized on final approach or
during
circle-to-land
maneuvering
until the pilot sees the required visual
references for the heliport or runway of
intended landing.
Minor alteration means an alteration
other than a major alteration.
Minor repair means a repair other
than a major repair.
Model aircraft means an unmanned
aircraft that is:
(1) Capable of sustained flight in the
atmosphere;
(2) Flown within visual line of sight
of the person operating the aircraft;
and
(3) Flown for hobby or recreational
purposes.
National defense airspace means airspace established by a regulation prescribed, or an order issued under, 49
U.S.C. 40103(b)(3).
Navigable airspace means airspace at
and above the minimum flight altitudes prescribed by or under this chapter, including airspace needed for safe
takeoff and landing.
Night means the time between the
end of evening civil twilight and the
beginning of morning civil twilight, as
published in the Air Almanac, converted to local time.
Nonprecision
approach
procedure
means a standard instrument approach
procedure in which no electronic glide
slope is provided.
Operate, with respect to aircraft,
means use, cause to use or authorize to
use aircraft, for the purpose (except as
provided in § 91.13 of this chapter) of air
navigation including the piloting of
aircraft, with or without the right of
legal control (as owner, lessee, or otherwise).
Operational control, with respect to a
flight, means the exercise of authority
over initiating, conducting or terminating a flight.
Overseas air commerce means the carriage by aircraft of persons or property
for compensation or hire, or the carriage of mail by aircraft, or the operation or navigation of aircraft in the
conduct or furtherance of a business or
vocation, in commerce between a place
in any State of the United States, or
the District of Columbia, and any place
in a territory or possession of the
United States; or between a place in a
territory or possession of the United
States, and a place in any other territory or possession of the United States.
Overseas air transportation means the
carriage by aircraft of persons or property as a common carrier for compensation or hire, or the carriage of
mail by aircraft, in commerce:
(1) Between a place in a State or the
District of Columbia and a place in a
possession of the United States; or
(2) Between a place in a possession of
the United States and a place in another possession of the United States;
whether that commerce moves wholly
by aircraft or partly by aircraft and
partly by other forms of transportation.
Over-the-top means above the layer of
clouds or other obscuring phenomena
forming the ceiling.
Parachute means a device used or intended to be used to retard the fall of
a body or object through the air.
Person means an individual, firm,
partnership, corporation, company, association, joint-stock association, or
governmental entity. It includes a
trustee, receiver, assignee, or similar
representative of any of them.
Pilotage means navigation by visual
reference to landmarks.
Pilot in command means the person
who:
(1) Has final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of
the flight;
(2) Has been designated as pilot in
command before or during the flight;
and
(3) Holds the appropriate category,
class, and type rating, if appropriate,
for the conduct of the flight.
Pitch setting means the propeller
blade setting as determined by the
blade angle measured in a manner, and
at a radius, specified by the instruction
manual for the propeller.
Positive control means control of all
air traffic, within designated airspace,
by air traffic control.
Powered parachute means a powered
aircraft comprised of a flexible or semirigid wing connected to a fuselage so
that the wing is not in position for
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flight until the aircraft is in motion.
The fuselage of a powered parachute
contains the aircraft engine, a seat for
each occupant and is attached to the
aircraft’s landing gear.
Powered-lift means a heavier-than-air
aircraft capable of vertical takeoff,
vertical landing, and low speed flight
that depends principally on enginedriven lift devices or engine thrust for
lift during these flight regimes and on
nonrotating airfoil(s) for lift during
horizontal flight.
Precision approach procedure means a
standard instrument approach procedure in which an electronic glide slope
is provided, such as ILS and PAR.
Preventive maintenance means simple
or minor preservation operations and
the replacement of small standard
parts not involving complex assembly
operations.
Prohibited area. A prohibited area is
airspace designated under part 73 within which no person may operate an aircraft without the permission of the
using agency.
Propeller means a device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on an
engine-driven shaft and that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air,
a thrust approximately perpendicular
to its plane of rotation. It includes control components normally supplied by
its manufacturer, but does not include
main and auxiliary rotors or rotating
airfoils of engines.
Public aircraft means any of the following aircraft when not being used for
a commercial purpose or to carry an
individual other than a crewmember or
qualified non-crewmenber:
(1) An aircraft used only for the
United States Government; an aircraft
owned by the Government and operated
by any person for purposes related to
crew training, equipment development,
or demonstration; an aircraft owned
and operated by the government of a
State, the District of Columbia, or a
territory or possession of the United
States or a political subdivision of one
of these governments; or an aircraft exclusively leased for at least 90 continuous days by the government of a
State, the District of Columbia, or a
territory or possession of the United
States or a political subdivision of one
of these governments.
(i) For the sole purpose of determining public aircraft status, commercial purposes means the transportation
of persons or property for compensation or hire, but does not include the
operation of an aircraft by the armed
forces for reimbursement when that reimbursement is required by any Federal statute, regulation, or directive, in
effect on November 1, 1999, or by one
government on behalf of another government under a cost reimbursement
agreement if the government on whose
behalf the operation is conducted certifies to the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration that the
operation is necessary to respond to a
significant and imminent threat to life
or property (including natural resources) and that no service by a private operator is reasonably available
to meet the threat.
(ii) For the sole purpose of determining public aircraft status, governmental function means an activity undertaken by a government, such as national defense, intelligence missions,
firefighting, search and rescue, law enforcement (including transport of prisoners, detainees, and illegal aliens),
aeronautical research, or biological or
geological resource management.
(iii) For the sole purpose of determining public aircraft status, qualified
non-crewmember means an individual,
other than a member of the crew,
aboard an aircraft operated by the
armed forces or an intelligence agency
of the United States Government, or
whose presence is required to perform,
or is associated with the performance
of, a governmental function.
(2) An aircraft owned or operated by
the armed forces or chartered to provide transportation to the armed forces
if—
(i) The aircraft is operated in accordance with title 10 of the United States
Code;
(ii) The aircraft is operated in the
performance of a governmental function under title 14, 31, 32, or 50 of the
United States Code and the aircraft is
not used for commercial purposes; or
(iii) The aircraft is chartered to provide transportation to the armed forces
and the Secretary of Defense (or the
Secretary of the department in which
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§ 1.1
the Coast Guard is operating) designates the operation of the aircraft as
being required in the national interest.
(3) An aircraft owned or operated by
the National Guard of a State, the District of Columbia, or any territory or
possession of the United States, and
that meets the criteria of paragraph (2)
of this definition, qualifies as a public
aircraft only to the extent that it is
operated under the direct control of
the Department of Defense.
Rated 30-second OEI Power, with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines,
means the approved brake horsepower
developed under static conditions at
specified altitudes and temperatures
within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of
this chapter, for continuation of one
flight operation after the failure or
shutdown of one engine in multiengine
rotorcraft, for up to three periods of
use no longer than 30 seconds each in
any one flight, and followed by mandatory inspection and prescribed maintenance action.
Rated 2-minute OEI Power, with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines,
means the approved brake horsepower
developed under static conditions at
specified altitudes and temperatures
within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of
this chapter, for continuation of one
flight operation after the failure or
shutdown of one engine in multiengine
rotorcraft, for up to three periods of
use no longer than 2 minutes each in
any one flight, and followed by mandatory inspection and prescribed maintenance action.
Rated continuous OEI power, with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines,
means the approved brake horsepower
developed under static conditions at
specified altitudes and temperatures
within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of
this chapter, and limited in use to the
time required to complete the flight
after the failure or shutdown of one engine of a multiengine rotorcraft.
Rated maximum continuous augmented
thrust, with respect to turbojet engine
type certification, means the approved
jet thrust that is developed statically
or in flight, in standard atmosphere at
a specified altitude, with fluid injec-
tion or with the burning of fuel in a
separate combustion chamber, within
the engine operating limitations established under Part 33 of this chapter,
and approved for unrestricted periods
of use.
Rated maximum continuous power,
with respect to reciprocating, turbopropeller, and turboshaft engines,
means the approved brake horsepower
that is developed statically or in flight,
in standard atmosphere at a specified
altitude, within the engine operating
limitations established under part 33,
and approved for unrestricted periods
of use.
Rated maximum continuous thrust,
with respect to turbojet engine type
certification, means the approved jet
thrust that is developed statically or in
flight, in standard atmosphere at a
specified altitude, without fluid injection and without the burning of fuel in
a separate combustion chamber, within
the engine operating limitations established under part 33 of this chapter,
and approved for unrestricted periods
of use.
Rated takeoff augmented thrust, with
respect to turbojet engine type certification, means the approved jet thrust
that is developed statically under
standard sea level conditions, with
fluid injection or with the burning of
fuel in a separate combustion chamber,
within the engine operating limitations established under part 33 of this
chapter, and limited in use to periods
of not over 5 minutes for takeoff operation.
Rated takeoff power, with respect to
reciprocating, turbopropeller, and turboshaft engine type certification,
means the approved brake horsepower
that is developed statically under
standard sea level conditions, within
the engine operating limitations established under part 33, and limited in use
to periods of not over 5 minutes for
takeoff operation.
Rated takeoff thrust, with respect to
turbojet engine type certification,
means the approved jet thrust that is
developed statically under standard sea
level conditions, without fluid injection and without the burning of fuel in
a separate combustion chamber, within
the engine operating limitations established under part 33 of this chapter,
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14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(1) Class A rotorcraft-load combination
means one in which the external load
cannot move freely, cannot be jettisoned, and does not extend below the
landing gear.
(2) Class B rotorcraft-load combination
means one in which the external load is
jettisonable and is lifted free of land or
water during the rotorcraft operation.
(3) Class C rotorcraft-load combination
means one in which the external load is
jettisonable and remains in contact
with land or water during the rotorcraft operation.
(4) Class D rotorcraft-load combination
means one in which the external-load
is other than a Class A, B, or C and has
been specifically approved by the Administrator for that operation.
Route segment is a portion of a route
bounded on each end by a fix or navigation aid (NAVAID).
Sea level engine means a reciprocating
aircraft engine having a rated takeoff
power that is producible only at sea
level.
Second in command means a pilot who
is designated to be second in command
of an aircraft during flight time.
Show, unless the context otherwise
requires, means to show to the satisfaction of the Administrator.
Small aircraft means aircraft of 12,500
pounds or less, maximum certificated
takeoff weight.
Small unmanned aircraft means an unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55
pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft.
Small unmanned aircraft system (small
UAS) means a small unmanned aircraft
and its associated elements (including
communication links and the components that control the small unmanned
aircraft) that are required for the safe
and efficient operation of the small unmanned aircraft in the national airspace system.
Special VFR conditions mean meteorological conditions that are less than
those required for basic VFR flight in
controlled airspace and in which some
aircraft are permitted flight under visual flight rules.
Special VFR operations means aircraft
operating in accordance with clearances within controlled airspace in meteorological conditions less than the
and limited in use to periods of not
over 5 minutes for takeoff operation.
Rated 30-minute OEI power, with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines,
means the approved brake horsepower
developed under static conditions at
specified altitudes and temperatures
within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of
this chapter, and limited in use to one
period of use no longer than 30 minutes
after the failure or shutdown of one engine of a multiengine rotorcraft.
Rated 21⁄2-minute OEI power, with respect to rotorcraft turbine engines,
means the approved brake horsepower
developed under static conditions at
specified altitudes and temperatures
within the operating limitations established for the engine under part 33 of
this chapter for periods of use no
longer than 21⁄2 minutes each after the
failure or shutdown of one engine of a
multiengine rotorcraft.
Rating means a statement that, as a
part of a certificate, sets forth special
conditions, privileges, or limitations.
Reference landing speed means the
speed of the airplane, in a specified
landing configuration, at the point
where it descends through the 50 foot
height in the determination of the
landing distance.
Reporting point means a geographical
location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported.
Restricted area. A restricted area is
airspace designated under Part 73 within which the flight of aircraft, while
not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction.
Rocket means an aircraft propelled by
ejected expanding gases generated in
the engine from self-contained propellants and not dependent on the intake
of outside substances. It includes any
part which becomes separated during
the operation.
Rotorcraft means a heavier-than-air
aircraft that depends principally for its
support in flight on the lift generated
by one or more rotors.
Rotorcraft-load combination means the
combination of a rotorcraft and an external-load, including the external-load
attaching means. Rotorcraft-load combinations are designated as Class A,
Class B, Class C, and Class D, as follows:
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§ 1.1
basic VFR weather minima. Such operations must be requested by the pilot
and approved by ATC.
Standard atmosphere means the atmosphere defined in U.S. Standard Atmosphere, 1962 (Geopotential altitude
tables).
Stopway means an area beyond the
takeoff runway, no less wide than the
runway and centered upon the extended centerline of the runway, able
to support the airplane during an
aborted takeoff, without causing structural damage to the airplane, and designated by the airport authorities for
use in decelerating the airplane during
an aborted takeoff.
Suitable RNAV system is an RNAV system that meets the required performance established for a type of operation, e.g. IFR; and is suitable for operation over the route to be flown in
terms of any performance criteria (including accuracy) established by the
air navigation service provider for certain routes (e.g. oceanic, ATS routes,
and IAPs). An RNAV system’s suitability is dependent upon the availability of ground and/or satellite navigation aids that are needed to meet
any route performance criteria that
may be prescribed in route specifications to navigate the aircraft along the
route to be flown. Information on suitable RNAV systems is published in
FAA guidance material.
Synthetic vision means a computergenerated image of the external scene
topography from the perspective of the
flight deck that is derived from aircraft attitude, high-precision navigation solution, and database of terrain,
obstacles and relevant cultural features.
Synthetic vision system means an
electronic means to display a synthetic
vision image of the external scene topography to the flight crew.
Takeoff power:
(1) With respect to reciprocating engines, means the brake horsepower
that is developed under standard sea
level conditions, and under the maximum conditions of crankshaft rotational speed and engine manifold pressure approved for the normal takeoff,
and limited in continuous use to the
period of time shown in the approved
engine specification; and
(2) With respect to turbine engines,
means the brake horsepower that is developed under static conditions at a
specified altitude and atmospheric
temperature, and under the maximum
conditions of rotor shaft rotational
speed and gas temperature approved for
the normal takeoff, and limited in continuous use to the period of time shown
in the approved engine specification.
Takeoff safety speed means a referenced airspeed obtained after lift-off
at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be
achieved.
Takeoff thrust, with respect to turbine engines, means the jet thrust that
is developed under static conditions at
a specific altitude and atmospheric
temperature under the maximum conditions of rotorshaft rotational speed
and gas temperature approved for the
normal takeoff, and limited in continuous use to the period of time shown in
the approved engine specification.
Tandem wing configuration means a
configuration having two wings of
similar span, mounted in tandem.
TCAS I means a TCAS that utilizes
interrogations of, and replies from, airborne radar beacon transponders and
provides traffic advisories to the pilot.
TCAS II means a TCAS that utilizes
interrogations of, and replies from airborne radar beacon transponders and
provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical plane.
TCAS III means a TCAS that utilizes
interrogation of, and replies from, airborne radar beacon transponders and
provides traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical and horizontal planes to the pilot.
Time in service, with respect to maintenance time records, means the time
from the moment an aircraft leaves the
surface of the earth until it touches it
at the next point of landing.
Traffic pattern means the traffic flow
that is prescribed for aircraft landing
at, taxiing on, or taking off from, an
airport.
True airspeed means the airspeed of
an aircraft relative to undisturbed air.
True airspeed is equal to equivalent
airspeed multiplied by (r0/r)1⁄2.
Type:
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Winglet or tip fin means an out-ofplane surface extending from a lifting
surface. The surface may or may not
have control surfaces.
(1) As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, means a specific
make and basic model of aircraft, including modifications thereto that do
not change its handling or flight characteristics. Examples include: DC–7,
1049, and F–27; and
(2) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft, means those aircraft which are similar in design. Examples include: DC–7 and DC–7C; 1049G
and 1049H; and F–27 and F–27F.
(3) As used with respect to the certification of aircraft engines means
those engines which are similar in design. For example, JT8D and JT8D–7
are engines of the same type, and
JT9D–3A and JT9D–7 are engines of the
same type.
United States, in a geographical sense,
means (1) the States, the District of
Columbia, Puerto Rico, and the possessions, including the territorial waters,
and (2) the airspace of those areas.
United States air carrier means a citizen of the United States who undertakes directly by lease, or other arrangement, to engage in air transportation.
Unmanned aircraft means an aircraft
operated without the possibility of direct human intervention from within
or on the aircraft.
VFR over-the-top, with respect to the
operation of aircraft, means the operation of an aircraft over-the-top under
VFR when it is not being operated on
an IFR flight plan.
Warning area. A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions, extending
from 3 nautical miles outward from the
coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous
to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such warning areas is to warn
nonparticipating pilots of the potential
danger. A warning area may be located
over domestic or international waters
or both.
Weight-shift-control aircraft means a
powered aircraft with a framed pivoting wing and a fuselage controllable
only in pitch and roll by the pilot’s
ability to change the aircraft’s center
of gravity with respect to the wing.
Flight control of the aircraft depends
on the wing’s ability to flexibly deform
rather than the use of control surfaces.
[Doc. No. 1150, 27 FR 4588, May 15, 1962]
EDITORIAL NOTE: For FEDERAL REGISTER citations affecting § 1.1, see the List of CFR
Sections Affected, which appears in the
Finding Aids section of the printed volume
and at www.fdsys.gov.
§ 1.2
Abbreviations and symbols.
In Subchapters A through K of this
chapter:
AFM means airplane flight manual.
AGL means above ground level.
ALS means approach light system.
APU means auxiliary power unit.
ASR means airport surveillance
radar.
ATC means air traffic control.
ATS means Air Traffic Service.
CAMP means continuous airworthiness maintenance program.
CAS means calibrated airspeed.
CAT II means Category II.
CHDO means an FAA Flight Standards certificate holding district office.
CMP means configuration, maintenance, and procedures.
CONSOL or CONSOLAN means a kind
of low or medium frequency long range
navigational aid.
DH means decision height.
DME means distance measuring
equipment compatible with TACAN.
EAS means equivalent airspeed.
EFVS means enhanced flight vision
system.
Equi-Time Point means a point on the
route of flight where the flight time,
considering wind, to each of two selected airports is equal.
ETOPS means extended operations.
EWIS, as defined by § 25.1701 of this
chapter, means electrical wiring interconnection system.
FAA means Federal Aviation Administration.
FFS means full flight simulator.
FM means fan marker.
FSTD means flight simulation training device.
FTD means flight training device.
GS means glide slope.
HIRL means high-intensity runway
light system.
IAS means indicated airspeed.
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ICAO means International Civil Aviation Organization.
IFR means instrument flight rules.
IFSD means in-flight shutdown.
ILS means instrument landing system.
IM means ILS inner marker.
INT means intersection.
LDA means localizer-type directional
aid.
LFR means low-frequency radio
range.
LMM means compass locator at middle marker.
LOC means ILS localizer.
LOM means compass locator at outer
marker.
M means mach number.
MAA means maximum authorized
IFR altitude.
MALS means medium intensity approach light system.
MALSR means medium intensity approach light system with runway alignment indicator lights.
MCA means minimum crossing altitude.
MDA means minimum descent altitude.
MEA means minimum en route IFR
altitude.
MEL means minimum equipment
list.
MM means ILS middle marker.
MOCA means minimum obstruction
clearance altitude.
MRA means minimum reception altitude.
MSL means mean sea level.
NDB (ADF) means nondirectional
beacon (automatic direction finder).
NM means nautical mile.
NOPAC means North Pacific area of
operation.
NOPT means no procedure turn required.
OEI means one engine inoperative.
OM means ILS outer marker.
OPSPECS means operations specifications.
PACOTS means Pacific Organized
Track System.
PAR means precision approach radar.
PMA means parts manufacturer approval.
PTRS means Performance Tracking
and Reporting System.
RAIL means runway alignment indicator light system.
RBN means radio beacon.
RCLM means runway centerline
marking.
RCLS means runway centerline light
system.
REIL means runway end identification lights.
RFFS means rescue and firefighting
services.
RNAV means area navigation.
RR means low or medium frequency
radio range station.
RVR means runway visual range as
measured in the touchdown zone area.
SALS means short approach light system.
SATCOM means satellite communications.
SSALS means simplified short approach light system.
SSALSR means simplified short approach light system with runway alignment indicator lights.
TACAN means ultra-high frequency
tactical air navigational aid.
TAS means true airspeed.
TCAS means a traffic alert and collision avoidance system.
TDZL means touchdown zone lights.
TSO means technical standard order.
TVOR means very high frequency terminal omnirange station.
VA means
design
maneuvering
speed.
VB means design speed for maximum
gust intensity.
VC means design cruising speed.
VD means design diving speed.
VDF/MDF means demonstrated flight
diving speed.
VEF means the speed at which the
critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff.
VF means design flap speed.
VFC/MFC means maximum speed for
stability characteristics.
VFE means maximum flap extended
speed.
VFTO means final takeoff speed.
VH means maximum speed in level
flight with maximum continuous
power.
VLE means maximum landing gear
extended speed.
VLO means maximum landing gear
operating speed.
VLOF means lift-off speed.
VMC means minimum control speed
with the critical engine inoperative.
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§ 1.3
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
VMO/MMO means maximum operating
limit speed.
VMU means minimum unstick speed.
VNE means never-exceed speed.
VNO means
maximum
structural
cruising speed.
VR means rotation speed.
VREF means reference landing speed.
VS means the stalling speed or the
minimum steady flight speed at which
the airplane is controllable.
VS0 means the stalling speed or the
minimum steady flight speed in the
landing configuration.
VS1 means the stalling speed or the
minimum steady flight speed obtained
in a specific configuration.
VSR means reference stall speed.
VSRO means reference stall speed in
the landing configuration.
VSR1 means reference stall speed in a
specific configuration.
VSW means speed at which onset of
natural or artificial stall warning occurs.
VTOSS means takeoff safety speed for
Category A rotorcraft.
VX means speed for best angle of
climb.
VY means speed for best rate of
climb.
V1 means the maximum speed in the
takeoff at which the pilot must take
the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to
stop the airplane within the acceleratestop distance. V1 also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a
failure of the critical engine at VEF, at
which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height
above the takeoff surface within the
takeoff distance.
V2 means takeoff safety speed.
V2min means minimum takeoff safety
speed.
VFR means visual flight rules.
VHF means very high frequency.
VOR means very high frequency omnirange station.
VORTAC means collocated VOR and
TACAN.
§ 1.3
[Doc. No. 1150, 27 FR 4590, May 15, 1962, as
amended by Amdt. 1–10, 31 FR 5055, Mar. 29,
1966]
PART 3—GENERAL REQUIREMENTS
Sec.
3.1 Applicability.
3.5 Statements about products, parts, appliances and materials.
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701,
and 44704.
SOURCE: 70 FR 54832, Sept. 16, 2005, unless
otherwise noted.
§ 3.1
Applicability.
(a) This part applies to any person
who makes a record regarding:
(1) A type-certificated product, or
(2) A product, part, appliance or material that may be used on a type-certificated product.
(b) Section 3.5(b) does not apply to
records made under part 43 of this
chapter.
§ 3.5 Statements about products, parts,
appliances and materials.
(a) Definitions. The following terms
will have the stated meanings when
used in this section:
Airworthy means the aircraft conforms to its type design and is in a condition for safe operation.
[Doc. No. 1150, 27 FR 4590, May 15, 1962]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Rules of construction.
(a) In Subchapters A through K of
this chapter, unless the context requires otherwise:
(1) Words importing the singular include the plural;
(2) Words importing the plural include the singular; and
(3) Words importing the masculine
gender include the feminine.
(b) In Subchapters A through K of
this chapter, the word:
(1) Shall is used in an imperative
sense;
(2) May is used in a permissive sense
to state authority or permission to do
the act prescribed, and the words ‘‘no
person may * * *’’ or ‘‘a person may
not * * *’’ mean that no person is required, authorized, or permitted to do
the act prescribed; and
(3) Includes means ‘‘includes but is
not limited to’’.
EDITORIAL NOTE: For FEDERAL REGISTER citations affecting § 1.2, see the List of CFR
Sections Affected, which appears in the
Finding Aids section of the printed volume
and at www.fdsys.gov.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 5.1
Product means an aircraft, aircraft
engine, or aircraft propeller.
Record means any writing, drawing,
map, recording, tape, film, photograph
or other documentary material by
which information is preserved or conveyed in any format, including, but not
limited to, paper, microfilm, identification plates, stamped marks, bar codes
or electronic format, and can either be
separate from, attached to or inscribed
on any product, part, appliance or material.
(b) Prohibition against fraudulent and
intentionally false statements. When conveying information related to an advertisement or sales transaction, no person may make or cause to be made:
(1) Any fraudulent or intentionally
false statement in any record about the
airworthiness of a type-certificated
product, or the acceptability of any
product, part, appliance, or material
for installation on a type-certificated
product.
(2) Any fraudulent or intentionally
false reproduction or alteration of any
record about the airworthiness of any
type-certificated product, or the acceptability of any product, part, appliance, or material for installation on a
type-certificated product.
(c) Prohibition against intentionally
misleading statements. (1) When conveying information related to an advertisement or sales transaction, no person may make, or cause to be made, a
material representation that a typecertificated product is airworthy, or
that a product, part, appliance, or material is acceptable for installation on
a type-certificated product in any
record if that representation is likely
to mislead a consumer acting reasonably under the circumstances.
(2) When conveying information related to an advertisement or sales
transaction, no person may make, or
cause to be made, through the omission
of material information, a representation that a type-certificated product is
airworthy, or that a product, part, appliance, or material is acceptable for
installation on a type-certificated
product in any record if that representation is likely to mislead a consumer
acting reasonably under the circumstances.
(d) The provisions of § 3.5(b) and
§ 3.5(c) shall not apply if a person can
show that the product is airworthy or
that the product, part, appliance or
material is acceptable for installation
on a type-certificated product.
PART 5—SAFETY MANAGEMENT
SYSTEMS
Subpart A—General
Sec.
5.1 Applicability.
5.3 General requirements.
5.5 Definitions.
Subpart B—Safety Policy
5.21
5.23
5.25
Safety policy.
Safety accountability and authority.
Designation and responsibilities of required safety management personnel.
5.27 Coordination of emergency response
planning.
Subpart C—Safety Risk Management
5.51
5.53
Applicability.
System analysis and hazard identification.
5.55 Safety risk assessment and control.
Subpart D—Safety Assurance
5.71
Safety performance monitoring
measurement.
5.73 Safety performance assessment.
5.75 Continuous improvement.
Subpart E—Safety Promotion
5.91
5.93
Competencies and training.
Safety communication.
Subpart F—SMS Documentation and
Recordkeeping
5.95
5.97
SMS documentation.
SMS records.
AUTHORITY: Pub. L. 111–216, sec. 215 (Aug. 1,
2010); 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101, 40113,
40119, 41706, 44101, 44701–44702, 44705, 44709–
44711, 44713, 44716–44717, 44722, 46105.
SOURCE: 80 FR 1326, Jan. 8, 2015, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A—General
§ 5.1 Applicability.
(a) A certificate holder under part 119
of this chapter authorized to conduct
operations in accordance with the requirements of part 121 of this chapter
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§ 5.3
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Risk control means a means to reduce
or eliminate the effects of hazards.
Safety assurance means processes
within the SMS that function systematically to ensure the performance and
effectiveness of safety risk controls
and that the organization meets or exceeds its safety objectives through the
collection, analysis, and assessment of
information.
Safety Management System (SMS)
means the formal, top-down, organization-wide approach to managing safety
risk and assuring the effectiveness of
safety risk controls. It includes systematic procedures, practices, and policies for the management of safety risk.
Safety objective means a measurable
goal or desirable outcome related to
safety.
Safety performance means realized or
actual safety accomplishment relative
to the organization’s safety objectives.
Safety policy means the certificate
holder’s documented commitment to
safety, which defines its safety objectives and the accountabilities and responsibilities of its employees in regards to safety.
Safety promotion means a combination of training and communication of
safety information to support the implementation and operation of an SMS
in an organization.
Safety Risk Management means a process within the SMS composed of describing the system, identifying the
hazards, and analyzing, assessing and
controlling risk.
must have a Safety Management System that meets the requirements of
this part and is acceptable to the Administrator by March 9, 2018.
(b) A certificate holder must submit
an implementation plan to the FAA
Administrator for review no later than
September 9, 2015. The implementation
plan must be approved no later than
March 9, 2016.
(c) The implementation plan may include any of the certificate holder’s existing programs, policies, or procedures
that it intends to use to meet the requirements of this part, including components of an existing SMS.
[80 FR 1326, Jan. 8, 2015, as amended at 80 FR
1584, Jan. 13, 2015]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 5.3 General requirements.
(a) Any certificate holder required to
have a Safety Management System
under this part must submit the Safety
Management System to the Administrator for acceptance. The SMS must
be appropriate to the size, scope, and
complexity of the certificate holder’s
operation and include at least the following components:
(1) Safety policy in accordance with
the requirements of subpart B of this
part;
(2) Safety risk management in accordance with the requirements of subpart C of this part;
(3) Safety assurance in accordance
with the requirements of subpart D of
this part; and
(4) Safety promotion in accordance
with the requirements of subpart E of
this part.
(b) The Safety Management System
must be maintained in accordance with
the recordkeeping requirements in subpart F of this part.
(c) The Safety Management System
must ensure compliance with the relevant regulatory standards in chapter I
of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
Subpart B—Safety Policy
§ 5.21
Safety policy.
(a) The certificate holder must have
a safety policy that includes at least
the following:
(1) The safety objectives of the certificate holder.
(2) A commitment of the certificate
holder to fulfill the organization’s safety objectives.
(3) A clear statement about the provision of the necessary resources for
the implementation of the SMS.
(4) A safety reporting policy that defines requirements for employee reporting of safety hazards or issues.
§ 5.5 Definitions.
Hazard means a condition that could
foreseeably cause or contribute to an
aircraft accident as defined in 49 CFR
830.2.
Risk means the composite of predicted severity and likelihood of the
potential effect of a hazard.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 5.25
(5) A policy that defines unacceptable
behavior and conditions for disciplinary action.
(6) An emergency response plan that
provides for the safe transition from
normal to emergency operations in accordance with the requirements of
§ 5.27.
(b) The safety policy must be signed
by the accountable executive described
in § 5.25.
(c) The safety policy must be documented and communicated throughout
the certificate holder’s organization.
(d) The safety policy must be regularly reviewed by the accountable executive to ensure it remains relevant and
appropriate to the certificate holder.
under the certificate holder’s certificate(s).
(2) Controls the financial resources
required for the operations to be conducted under the certificate holder’s
certificate(s).
(3) Controls the human resources required for the operations authorized to
be conducted under the certificate
holder’s certificate(s).
(4) Retains ultimate responsibility
for the safety performance of the operations conducted under the certificate
holder’s certificate.
(b) Responsibilities of the accountable
executive. The accountable executive
must accomplish the following:
(1) Ensure that the SMS is properly
implemented and performing in all
areas of the certificate holder’s organization.
(2) Develop and sign the safety policy
of the certificate holder.
(3) Communicate the safety policy
throughout the certificate holder’s organization.
(4) Regularly review the certificate
holder’s safety policy to ensure it remains relevant and appropriate to the
certificate holder.
(5) Regularly review the safety performance of the certificate holder’s organization and direct actions necessary
to address substandard safety performance in accordance with § 5.75.
(c) Designation of management personnel. The accountable executive must
designate sufficient management personnel who, on behalf of the accountable executive, are responsible for the
following:
(1)
Coordinate
implementation,
maintenance, and integration of the
SMS throughout the certificate holder’s organization.
(2) Facilitate hazard identification
and safety risk analysis.
(3) Monitor the effectiveness of safety risk controls.
(4) Ensure safety promotion throughout the certificate holder’s organization as required in subpart E of this
part.
(5) Regularly report to the accountable executive on the performance of
the SMS and on any need for improvement.
§ 5.23 Safety accountability and authority.
(a) The certificate holder must define
accountability for safety within the organization’s safety policy for the following individuals:
(1) Accountable executive, as described in § 5.25.
(2) All members of management in
regard to developing, implementing,
and maintaining SMS processes within
their area of responsibility, including,
but not limited to:
(i) Hazard identification and safety
risk assessment.
(ii) Assuring the effectiveness of safety risk controls.
(iii) Promoting safety as required in
subpart E of this part.
(iv) Advising the accountable executive on the performance of the SMS
and on any need for improvement.
(3) Employees relative to the certificate holder’s safety performance.
(b) The certificate holder must identify the levels of management with the
authority to make decisions regarding
safety risk acceptance.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 5.25 Designation and responsibilities
of required safety management personnel.
(a) Designation of the accountable executive. The certificate holder must identify an accountable executive who, irrespective of other functions, satisfies
the following:
(1) Is the final authority over operations authorized to be conducted
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§ 5.27
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
tify hazards within the context of the
system analysis.
§ 5.27 Coordination of emergency response planning.
Where emergency response procedures are necessary, the certificate
holder must develop and the accountable executive must approve as part of
the safety policy, an emergency response plan that addresses at least the
following:
(a) Delegation of emergency authority throughout the certificate holder’s
organization;
(b) Assignment of employee responsibilities during the emergency; and
(c) Coordination of the certificate
holder’s emergency response plans with
the emergency response plans of other
organizations it must interface with
during the provision of its services.
§ 5.55 Safety risk assessment and control.
(a) The certificate holder must develop and maintain processes to analyze safety risk associated with the
hazards identified in § 5.53(c).
(b) The certificate holder must define
a process for conducting risk assessment that allows for the determination
of acceptable safety risk.
(c) The certificate holder must develop and maintain processes to develop safety risk controls that are necessary as a result of the safety risk assessment process under paragraph (b)
of this section.
(d) The certificate holder must evaluate whether the risk will be acceptable
with the proposed safety risk control
applied, before the safety risk control
is implemented.
Subpart C—Safety Risk
Management
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 5.51 Applicability.
A certificate holder must apply safety risk management to the following:
(a) Implementation of new systems.
(b) Revision of existing systems.
(c) Development of operational procedures.
(d) Identification of hazards or ineffective risk controls through the safety
assurance processes in subpart D of
this part.
Subpart D—Safety Assurance
§ 5.71 Safety performance monitoring
and measurement.
(a) The certificate holder must develop and maintain processes and systems to acquire data with respect to its
operations, products, and services to
monitor the safety performance of the
organization. These processes and systems must include, at a minimum, the
following:
(1) Monitoring of operational processes.
(2) Monitoring of the operational environment to detect changes.
(3) Auditing of operational processes
and systems.
(4) Evaluations of the SMS and operational processes and systems.
(5) Investigations of incidents and accidents.
(6) Investigations of reports regarding potential non-compliance with regulatory standards or other safety risk
controls established by the certificate
holder through the safety risk management process established in subpart B
of this part.
(7) A confidential employee reporting
system in which employees can report
hazards, issues, concerns, occurrences,
incidents, as well as propose solutions
and safety improvements.
§ 5.53 System analysis and hazard
identification.
(a) When applying safety risk management, the certificate holder must
analyze the systems identified in § 5.51.
Those system analyses must be used to
identify hazards under paragraph (c) of
this section, and in developing and implementing risk controls related to the
system under § 5.55(c).
(b) In conducting the system analysis, the following information must be
considered:
(1) Function and purpose of the system.
(2) The system’s operating environment.
(3) An outline of the system’s processes and procedures.
(4) The personnel, equipment, and facilities necessary for operation of the
system.
(c) The certificate holder must develop and maintain processes to iden-
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 5.97
(b) The certificate holder must develop and maintain processes that analyze the data acquired through the
processes and systems identified under
paragraph (a) of this section and any
other relevant data with respect to its
operations, products, and services.
§ 5.93
§ 5.73 Safety performance assessment.
(a) The certificate holder must conduct assessments of its safety performance against its safety objectives,
which include reviews by the accountable executive, to:
(1) Ensure compliance with the safety
risk controls established by the certificate holder.
(2) Evaluate the performance of the
SMS.
(3) Evaluate the effectiveness of the
safety risk controls established under
§ 5.55(c) and identify any ineffective
controls.
(4) Identify changes in the operational environment that may introduce new hazards.
(5) Identify new hazards.
(b) Upon completion of the assessment, if ineffective controls or new
hazards are identified under paragraphs
(a)(2) through (5) of this section, the
certificate holder must use the safety
risk management process described in
subpart C of this part.
Subpart F—SMS Documentation
and Recordkeeping
§ 5.95
SMS documentation.
The certificate holder must develop
and maintain SMS documentation that
describes the certificate holder’s:
(a) Safety policy.
(b) SMS processes and procedures.
§ 5.97
SMS records.
(a) The certificate holder must maintain records of outputs of safety risk
management processes as described in
subpart C of this part. Such records
must be retained for as long as the control remains relevant to the operation.
(b) The certificate holder must maintain records of outputs of safety assurance processes as described in subpart
D of this part. Such records must be retained for a minimum of 5 years.
(c) The certificate holder must maintain a record of all training provided
under § 5.91 for each individual. Such
records must be retained for as long as
the individual is employed by the certificate holder.
(d) The certificate holder must retain
records of all communications provided
under § 5.93 for a minimum of 24 consecutive calendar months.
§ 5.75 Continuous improvement.
The certificate holder must establish
and implement processes to correct
safety performance deficiencies identified in the assessments conducted
under § 5.73.
Subpart E—Safety Promotion
§ 5.91 Competencies and training.
The certificate holder must provide
training to each individual identified
in § 5.23 to ensure the individuals attain
and maintain the competencies necessary to perform their duties relevant
to the operation and performance of
the SMS.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Safety communication.
The certificate holder must develop
and maintain means for communicating safety information that, at a
minimum:
(a) Ensures that employees are aware
of the SMS policies, processes, and
tools that are relevant to their responsibilities.
(b) Conveys hazard information relevant to the employee’s responsibilities.
(c) Explains why safety actions have
been taken.
(d) Explains why safety procedures
are introduced or changed.
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SUBCHAPTER B—PROCEDURAL RULES
PUBLIC MEETINGS AND OTHER PROCEEDINGS
PART 11—GENERAL RULEMAKING
PROCEDURES
11.51 May I request that FAA hold a public
meeting on a rulemaking action?
11.53 What takes place at a public meeting?
Subpart A—Rulemaking Procedures
PETITIONS FOR RULEMAKING AND FOR
EXEMPTIONS
Sec.
11.1 To what does this part apply?
11.61 May I ask FAA to adopt, amend, or repeal a regulation, or grant relief from
the requirements of a current regulation?
11.63 How and to whom do I submit my petition for rulemaking or petition for exemption?
11.71 What information must I include in
my petition for rulemaking?
11.73 How does FAA process petitions for
rulemaking?
11.75 Does FAA invite public comment on
petitions for rulemaking?
11.77 Is there any additional information I
must include in my petition for designating airspace?
11.81 What information must I include in
my petition for an exemption?
11.83 How can I operate under an exemption
outside the United States?
11.85 Does FAA invite public comment on
petitions for exemption?
11.87 Are there circumstances in which FAA
may decide not to publish a summary of
my petition for exemption?
11.89 How much time do I have to submit
comments to FAA on a petition for exemption?
11.91 How does FAA inform me of its decision on my petition for exemption?
11.101 May I ask FAA to reconsider my petition for rulemaking or petition for exemption if it is denied?
11.103 What exemption relief may be available to federal, state, and local governments when operating aircraft that are
not public aircraft?
DEFINITION OF TERMS
11.3
What is an advance notice of proposed
rulemaking?
11.5 What is a notice of proposed rulemaking?
11.7 What is a supplemental notice of proposed rulemaking?
11.9 What is a final rule?
11.11 What is a final rule with request for
comments?
11.13 What is a direct final rule?
11.15 What is a petition for exemption?
11.17 What is a petition for rulemaking?
11.19 What is a special condition?
GENERAL
11.21 What are the most common kinds of
rulemaking actions for which FAA follows the Administrative Procedure Act?
11.23 Does FAA follow the same procedures
in issuing all types of rules?
11.25 How does FAA issue rules?
11.27 Are there other ways FAA collects
specific rulemaking recommendations
before we issue an NPRM?
11.29 May FAA change its regulations without first issuing an ANPRM or NPRM?
11.31 How does FAA process direct final
rules?
11.33 How can I track FAA’s rulemaking activities?
11.35 Does FAA include sensitive security
information and proprietary information
in the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS)?
11.37 Where can I find information about an
Airworthiness Directive, an airspace designation, or a petition handled in a region?
11.38 What public comment procedures does
FAA follow for Special Conditions?
11.39 How may I participate in FAA’s rulemaking process?
11.40 Can I get more information about a
rulemaking?
Subpart B—Paperwork Reduction Act
Control Numbers
11.201 Office of Management and Budget
(OMB) control numbers assigned under
the Paperwork Reduction Act.
APPENDIX 1 TO PART 11—ORAL COMMUNICATIONS WITH THE PUBLIC DURING RULEMAKING
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
WRITTEN COMMENTS
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(f), 106(g), 40101,
40103, 40105, 40109, 40113, 44110, 44502, 44701–
44702, 44711, and 46102.
11.41 Who may file comments?
11.43 What information must I put in my
written comments?
11.45 Where and when do I file my comments?
11.47 May I ask for more time to file my
comments?
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–1999–6622, 65 FR
50863, Aug. 21, 2000, unless otherwise noted.
EDITORIAL NOTE: Nomenclature changes to
part 11 appear at 61 FR 18052, April 24, 1996.
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§ 11.19
Subpart A—Rulemaking
Procedures
§ 11.1
§ 11.11 What is a final rule with request for comments?
A final rule with request for comment is a rule that the FAA issues in
final (with an effective date) that invites public comment on the rule. We
usually do this when we have not first
issued an ANPRM or NPRM, because
we have found that doing so would be
impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. We give
our reasons for our determination in
the preamble. The comment period
often ends after the effective date of
the rule. A final rule not preceded by
an ANPRM or NPRM is commonly
called an ‘‘immediately adopted final
rule.’’ We invite comments on these
rules only if we think that we will receive useful information. For example,
we would not invite comments when we
are just making an editorial clarification or correction.
To what does this part apply?
This part applies to the issuance,
amendment, and repeal of any regulation for which FAA (‘‘we’’) follows public rulemaking procedures under the
Administrative Procedure Act (‘‘APA’’)
(5 U.S.C. 553).
DEFINITION OF TERMS
§ 11.3 What is an advance notice of
proposed rulemaking?
An advance notice of proposed rulemaking (ANPRM) tells the public that
FAA is considering an area for rulemaking and requests written comments on the appropriate scope of the
rulemaking or on specific topics. An
advance notice of proposed rulemaking
may or may not include the text of potential changes to a regulation.
§ 11.13 What is a direct final rule?
A direct final rule is a type of final
rule with request for comments. Our
reason for issuing a direct final rule
without an NPRM is that we would not
expect to receive any adverse comments, and so an NPRM is unnecessary.
However, to be certain that we are correct, we set the comment period to end
before the effective date. If we receive
an adverse comment or notice of intent
to file an adverse comment, we then
withdraw the final rule before it becomes effective and may issue an
NPRM.
§ 11.5 What is a notice of proposed
rulemaking?
A notice of proposed rulemaking
(NPRM) proposes FAA’s specific regulatory changes for public comment and
contains supporting information. It includes proposed regulatory text.
§ 11.7 What is a supplemental notice of
proposed rulemaking?
On occasion, FAA may decide that it
needs more information on an issue, or
that we should take a different approach than we proposed. Also, we may
want to follow a commenter’s suggestion that goes beyond the scope of the
original proposed rule. In these cases,
FAA may issue a supplemental notice
of proposed rulemaking (SNPRM) to
give the public an opportunity to comment further or to give us more information.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 11.9
§ 11.15 What is a petition for exemption?
A petition for exemption is a request
to FAA by an individual or entity asking for relief from the requirements of
a current regulation.
§ 11.17 What is a petition for rulemaking?
A petition for rulemaking is a request to FAA by an individual or entity asking the FAA to adopt, amend, or
repeal a regulation.
What is a final rule?
A final rule sets out new or revised
requirements and their effective date.
It also may remove requirements.
When preceded by an NPRM, a final
rule will also identify significant substantive issues raised by commenters
in response to the NPRM and will give
the agency’s response.
§ 11.19 What is a special condition?
A special condition is a regulation
that applies to a particular aircraft design. The FAA issues special conditions
when we find that the airworthiness
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§ 11.21
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
regulations for an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller design do not contain
adequate or appropriate safety standards, because of a novel or unusual design feature.
(b) Each of the rulemaking documents in paragraph (a) of this section
generally contains the following information:
(1) The topic involved in the rulemaking document.
(2) FAA’s legal authority for issuing
the rulemaking document.
(3) How interested persons may participate in the rulemaking proceeding
(for example, by filing written comments or making oral presentations at
a public meeting).
(4) Whom to call if you have questions about the rulemaking document.
(5) The date, time, and place of any
public meetings FAA will hold to discuss the rulemaking document.
(6) The docket number and regulation
identifier number (RIN) for the rulemaking proceeding.
GENERAL
§ 11.21 What are the most common
kinds of rulemaking actions for
which FAA follows the Administrative Procedure Act?
FAA follows the Administrative Procedure Act (APA) procedures for these
common types of rules:
(a) Rules found in the Code of Federal
Regulations;
(b) Airworthiness directives issued
under part 39 of this chapter; and
(c) Airspace Designations issued
under various parts of this chapter.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 11.23 Does FAA follow the same procedures in issuing all types of
rules?
Yes, in general, FAA follows the
same procedures for all rule types.
There are some differences as to which
FAA official has authority to issue
each type, and where you send petitions for FAA to adopt, amend, or repeal each type. Assume that the procedures in this subpart apply to all rules,
except where we specify otherwise.
[Doc. No. 1999–6622, 65 FR 50863, Aug. 21, 2000,
as amended at 72 FR 68474, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 11.27 Are there other ways FAA collects
specific
rulemaking
recommendations before we issue an
NPRM?
Yes, the FAA obtains advice and recommendations from rulemaking advisory committees. One of these committees is the Aviation Rulemaking Advisory Committee (ARAC), which is a
formal standing committee comprised
of representatives of aviation associations and industry, consumer groups,
and interested individuals. In conducting its activities, ARAC complies
with the Federal Advisory Committee
Act and the direction of FAA. We task
ARAC with providing us with recommended rulemaking actions dealing
with specific areas and problems. If we
accept an ARAC recommendation to
change an FAA rule, we ordinarily publish an NPRM using the procedures in
this part. The FAA may establish other
rulemaking advisory committees as
needed to focus on specific issues for a
limited period of time.
§ 11.25 How does FAA issue rules?
(a) The FAA uses APA rulemaking
procedures to adopt, amend, or repeal
regulations. To propose or adopt a new
regulation, or to change a current regulation, FAA will issue one or more of
the following documents. We publish
these rulemaking documents in the
FEDERAL REGISTER unless we name and
personally serve a copy of a rule on
every person subject to it. We also
make all documents available to the
public by posting them in the Federal
Docket Management System at http://
www.regulations.gov.
(1) An advance notice of proposed
rulemaking (ANPRM).
(2) A notice of proposed rulemaking
(NPRM).
(3) A supplemental notice of proposed
rulemaking (SNPRM).
(4) A final rule.
(5) A final rule with request for comments.
(6) A direct final rule.
§ 11.29 May FAA change its regulations
without first issuing an ANPRM or
NPRM?
The FAA normally adds or changes a
regulation by issuing a final rule after
an NPRM. However, FAA may adopt,
amend, or repeal regulations without
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§ 11.33
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
first issuing an ANPRM or NPRM in
the following situations:
(a) We may issue a final rule without
first requesting public comment if, for
good cause, we find that an NPRM is
impracticable, unnecessary, or contrary to the public interest. We place
that finding and a brief statement of
the reasons for it in the final rule. For
example, we may issue a final rule in
response to a safety emergency.
(b) If an NPRM would be unnecessary
because we do not expect to receive adverse comment, we may issue a direct
final rule.
comment, we may incorporate the
commenter’s recommendation into another direct final rule or may publish a
notice of proposed rulemaking.
§ 11.33 How can I track FAA’s rulemaking activities?
The best ways to track FAA’s rulemaking activities are with the docket
number or the regulation identifier
number.
(a) Docket ID. We assign a docket ID
to each rulemaking document proceeding. Each rulemaking document
FAA issues in a particular rulemaking
proceeding, as well as public comments
on the proceeding, will display the
same docket ID. This ID allows you to
search the Federal Docket Management System (FDMS) for information
on most rulemaking proceedings. You
can view and copy docket materials
during regular business hours at the
U.S. Department of Transportation,
Docket Operations, West Building
Ground Floor, Room W12–140, 1200 New
Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC
20590. Or you can view and download
docketed materials through the Internet at http://www.regulations.gov. If you
can’t find the material in the electronic docket, contact the person listed
under FOR FURTHER INFORMATION
CONTACT in the document you are interested in.
(b) Regulation identifier number. DOT
publishes a semiannual agenda of all
current
and
projected
DOT
rulemakings, reviews of existing regulations, and completed actions. This
semiannual agenda appears in the Unified Agenda of Federal Regulations,
published in the FEDERAL REGISTER in
April and October of each year. The
semiannual agenda tells the public
about DOT’s—including FAA’s—regulatory activities. DOT assigns a regulation identifier number (RIN) to each
individual rulemaking proceeding in
the semiannual agenda. This number
appears on all rulemaking documents
published in the FEDERAL REGISTER
and makes it easy for you to track
those rulemaking proceedings in both
the FEDERAL REGISTER and the semiannual regulatory agenda.
§ 11.31 How does FAA process direct
final rules?
(a) A direct final rule will take effect
on a specified date unless FAA receives
an adverse comment or notice of intent
to file an adverse comment within the
comment period—generally 60 days
after the direct final rule is published
in the FEDERAL REGISTER. An adverse
comment explains why a rule would be
inappropriate, or would be ineffective
or unacceptable without a change. It
may challenge the rule’s underlying
premise or approach. Under the direct
final rule process, we do not consider
the following types of comments to be
adverse:
(1) A comment recommending another rule change, in addition to the
change in the direct final rule at issue.
We consider the comment adverse,
however, if the commenter states why
the direct final rule would be ineffective without the change.
(2) A frivolous or insubstantial comment.
(b) If FAA has not received an adverse comment or notice of intent to
file an adverse comment, we will publish a confirmation document in the
FEDERAL REGISTER, generally within 15
days after the comment period closes.
The confirmation document tells the
public the effective date of the rule.
(c) If we receive an adverse comment
or notice of intent to file an adverse
comment, we will advise the public by
publishing a document in the FEDERAL
REGISTER before the effective date of
the direct final rule. This document
may withdraw the direct final rule in
whole or in part. If we withdraw a direct final rule because of an adverse
[Doc. No. 1999–6622, 65 FR 50863, Aug. 21, 2000,
as amended at 72 FR 68474, Dec. 5, 2007]
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§ 11.35
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
following circumstances we may not
invite comment before we issue a special condition. If we don’t, we will invite comment when we publish the
final special condition.
(a) The FAA considers prior notice to
be impracticable if issuing a design approval would significantly delay delivery of the affected aircraft. We consider such a delay to be contrary to the
public interest.
(b) The FAA considers prior notice to
be unnecessary if we have provided previous opportunities to comment on
substantially identical proposed special conditions, and we are satisfied
that new comments are unlikely.
§ 11.35 Does FAA include sensitive security information and proprietary
information in the Federal Docket
Management System (FDMS)?
(a) Sensitive security information. You
should not submit sensitive security
information to the rulemaking docket,
unless you are invited to do so in our
request for comments. If we ask for
this information, we will tell you in
the specific document how to submit
this information, and we will provide a
separate non-public docket for it. For
all proposed rule changes involving
civil aviation security, we review comments as we receive them, before they
are placed in the docket. If we find that
a comment contains sensitive security
information, we remove that information before placing the comment in the
general docket.
(b) Proprietary information. When we
are aware of proprietary information
filed with a comment, we do not place
it in the docket. We hold it in a separate file to which the public does not
have access, and place a note in the
docket that we have received it. If we
receive a request to examine or copy
this information, we treat it as any
other request under the Freedom of Information Act (5 U.S.C. 552). We process such a request under the DOT procedures found in 49 CFR part 7.
§ 11.39 How may I participate in FAA’s
rulemaking process?
You may participate in FAA’s rulemaking process by doing any of the following:
(a) File written comments on any
rulemaking document that asks for
comments, including an ANPRM,
NPRM, SNPRM, a final rule with request for comments, or a direct final
rule. Follow the directions for commenting found in each rulemaking document.
(b) Ask that we hold a public meeting
on any rulemaking, and participate in
any public meeting that we hold.
(c) File a petition for rulemaking
that asks us to adopt, amend, or repeal
a regulation.
[Doc. No. 1999–6622, 65 FR 50863, Aug. 21, 2000,
as amended at 72 FR 68474, Dec. 5, 2007]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 11.37 Where can I find information
about an Airworthiness Directive,
an airspace designation, or a petition handled in a region?
The FAA includes most documents
concerning Airworthiness Directives,
airspace designations, or petitions handled in a region in the electronic docket. If the information isn’t in the docket, contact the person listed under FOR
FURTHER INFORMATION CONTACT
in the FEDERAL REGISTER document
about the action.
§ 11.40 Can I get more information
about a rulemaking?
You can contact the person listed
under FOR FURTHER INFORMATION
CONTACT in the preamble of a rule.
That person can explain the meaning
and intent of a proposed rule, the technical aspects of a document, the terminology in a document, and can tell you
our published schedule for the rulemaking process. We cannot give you information that is not already available
to other members of the public. Department of Transportation policy on
oral communications with the public
during rulemaking appears in appendix
1 of this part.
§ 11.38 What public comment procedures does the FAA follow for Special Conditions?
Even though the Administrative Procedure Act does not require notice and
comment for rules of particular applicability, FAA does publish proposed
special conditions for comment. In the
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 11.51
WRITTEN COMMENTS
only if they do not significantly delay
the rulemaking process.
(c) We may reject your paper or electronic comments if they are frivolous,
abusive, or repetitious. We may reject
comments you file electronically if you
do not follow the electronic filing instructions at the Federal Docket Management System Web site.
§ 11.41 Who may file comments?
Anyone may file written comments
about proposals and final rules that request public comments.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 11.43 What information must I put in
my written comments?
(a) Your written comments must be
in English and must contain the following:
(1) The docket number of the rulemaking document you are commenting
on, clearly set out at the beginning of
your comments.
(2) Your name and mailing address,
and, if you wish, other contact information, such as a fax number, telephone number, or e-mail address.
(3) Your information, views, or arguments, following the instructions for
participation in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting.
(b) You should also include all material relevant to any statement of fact
or argument in your comments, to the
extent that the material is available to
you and reasonable for you to submit.
Include a copy of the title page of the
document. Whether or not you submit
a copy of the material to which you
refer, you should indicate specific
places in the material that support
your position.
[Doc. No. 1999–6622, 65 FR 50863, Aug. 21, 2000,
as amended at 72 FR 68474, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 11.47 May I ask for more time to file
my comments?
Yes, if FAA grants your request for
more time to file comments, we grant
all persons the same amount of time.
We will notify the public of the extension by a document in the FEDERAL
REGISTER. If FAA denies your request,
we will notify you of the denial. To ask
for more time, you must file a written
or electronic request for extension at
least 10 days before the end of the comment period. Your letter or message
must—
(a) Show the docket number of the
rule at the top of the first page;
(b) State, at the beginning, that you
are requesting an extension of the comment period;
(c) Show that you have good cause
for the extension and that an extension
is in the public interest;
(d) Be sent to the address specified
for comments in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting.
§ 11.45 Where and when do I file my
comments?
(a) Send your comments to the location specified in the rulemaking document on which you are commenting. If
you are asked to send your comments
to the Federal Document Management
System, you may send them in either
of the following ways:
(1) By mail to: U.S. Department of
Transportation, Docket Operations,
West Building Ground Floor, Room
W12–140, 1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE.,
Washington, DC 20590.
(2) Through the Internet to http://
www.regulations.gov.
(3) In any other manner designated
by FAA.
(b) Make sure that your comments
reach us by the deadline set out in the
rulemaking document on which you
are commenting. We will consider latefiled comments to the extent possible
PUBLIC MEETINGS AND OTHER
PROCEEDINGS
§ 11.51 May I request that FAA hold a
public meeting on a rulemaking action?
Yes, you may request that we hold a
public meeting. FAA holds a public
meeting when we need more than written comments to make a fully informed decision. Submit your written
request to the address specified in the
rulemaking document on which you
are commenting. Specify at the top of
your letter or message that you are requesting that the agency hold a public
meeting. Submit your request no later
than 30 days after our rulemaking notice. If we find good cause for a meeting, we will notify you and publish a
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§ 11.53
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
notice of the meeting in the FEDERAL
REGISTER.
(1) To the appropriate FAA airport
field office in whose area your airport
is, or will be, established; and
(2) To the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West
Building Ground Floor, Room W12–140,
1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590 or by electronic submission to this Internet address: http://
www.regulations.gov.
(c) The FAA may designate other
means by which you can submit petitions in the future.
(d) Submit your petition for exemption 120 days before you need the exemption to take effect.
§ 11.53 What takes place at a public
meeting?
A public meeting is a non-adversarial, fact-finding proceeding conducted by an FAA representative. Public meetings are announced in the FEDERAL REGISTER. We invite interested
persons to attend and to present their
views to the agency on specific issues.
There are no formal pleadings and no
adverse parties, and any regulation
issued afterward is not necessarily
based exclusively on the record of the
meeting.
[Amdt. 11–50, 69 FR 22386, Apr. 26, 2004, as
amended at 72 FR 68474, Dec. 5, 2007; Amdt.
11–55, 74 FR 202, Jan. 5, 2009]
PETITIONS FOR RULEMAKING AND FOR
EXEMPTION
§ 11.71 What information must I include in my petition for rulemaking?
§ 11.61 May I ask FAA to adopt, amend,
or repeal a regulation, or grant relief from the requirements of a current regulation?
(a) You must include the following
information in your petition for rulemaking:
(1) Your name and mailing address
and, if you wish, other contact information such as a fax number, telephone number, or e-mail address.
(2) An explanation of your proposed
action and its purpose.
(3) The language you propose for a
new or amended rule, or the language
you would remove from a current rule.
(4) An explanation of why your proposed action would be in the public interest.
(5) Information and arguments that
support your proposed action, including relevant technical and scientific
data available to you.
(6) Any specific facts or circumstances that support or demonstrate the need for the action you
propose.
(b) In the process of considering your
petition, we may ask that you provide
information or data available to you
about the following:
(1) The costs and benefits of your proposed action to society in general, and
identifiable groups within society in
particular.
(2) The regulatory burden of your
proposed action on small businesses,
small organizations, small governmental jurisdictions, and Indian tribes.
(a) Using a petition for rulemaking,
you may ask FAA to add a new regulation to title 14 of the Code of Federal
Regulations (14 CFR) or ask FAA to
amend or repeal a current regulation in
14 CFR.
(b) Using a petition for exemption,
you may ask FAA to grant you relief
from current regulations in 14 CFR.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 11.63 How and to whom do I submit
my petition for rulemaking or petition for exemption?
(a) To submit a petition for rulemaking or exemption—
(1) By electronic submission, submit
your petition for rulemaking or exemption to FAA through the Internet at
http://www.regulations.gov, the Federal
Docket Management System Web site.
For additional instructions, you may
visit http://www.faa.gov/regulations.
(2) By paper submission, send the
original signed copy of your petition
for rulemaking or exemption to this
address: U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West Building Ground Floor, Room W12–140, 1200
New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington,
DC 20590.
(b) Submit a petition for rulemaking
or exemption from part 139 of this
chapter—
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 11.81
(3) The recordkeeping and reporting
burdens of your proposed action and
whom the burdens would affect.
(4) The effect of your proposed action
on the quality of the natural and social
environments.
§ 11.75 Does FAA invite public comment on petitions for rulemaking?
Generally, FAA does not invite public comment on petitions for rulemaking.
§ 11.77 Is there any additional information I must include in my petition for designating airspace?
In petitions asking FAA to establish,
amend, or repeal a designation of airspace, including special use airspace,
you must include all the information
specified by § 11.71 and also:
(a) The location and a description of
the airspace you want assigned or designated;
(b) A complete description of the activity or use to be made of that airspace, including a detailed description
of the type, volume, duration, time,
and place of the operations to be conducted in the area;
(c) A description of the air navigation, air traffic control, surveillance,
and communication facilities available
and to be provided if we grant the designation; and
(d) The name and location of the
agency, office, facility, or person who
would have authority to permit the use
of the airspace when it was not in use
for the purpose to which you want it
assigned.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 11.73 How does FAA process petitions for rulemaking?
After we have determined the disposition of your petition, we will contact you in writing about our decision.
The FAA may respond to your petition
for rulemaking in one of the following
ways:
(a) If we determine that your petition
justifies our taking the action you suggest, we may issue an NPRM or
ANPRM. We will do so no later than 6
months after the date we receive your
petition. In making our decision, we
consider:
(1) The immediacy of the safety or security concerns you raise;
(2) The priority of other issues the
FAA must deal with; and
(3) The resources we have available
to address these issues.
(b) If we have issued an ANPRM or
NPRM on the subject matter of your
petition, we will consider your arguments for a rule change as a comment
in connection with the rulemaking proceeding. We will not treat your petition as a separate action.
(c) If we have begun a rulemaking
project in the subject area of your petition, we will consider your comments
and arguments for a rule change as
part of that project. We will not treat
your petition as a separate action.
(d) If we have tasked ARAC to study
the general subject area of your petition, we will ask ARAC to review and
evaluate your proposed action. We will
not treat your petition as a separate
action.
(e) If we determine that the issues
you identify in your petition may have
merit, but do not address an immediate
safety concern or cannot be addressed
because of other priorities and resource
constraints, we may dismiss your petition. Your comments and arguments
for a rule change will be placed in a
database, which we will examine when
we consider future rulemaking.
§ 11.81 What information must I include in my petition for an exemption?
You must include the following information in your petition for an exemption and submit it to FAA as soon as
you know you need an exemption.
(a) Your name and mailing address
and, if you wish, other contact information such as a fax number, telephone number, or e-mail address;
(b) The specific section or sections of
14 CFR from which you seek an exemption;
(c) The extent of relief you seek, and
the reason you seek the relief;
(d) The reasons why granting your request would be in the public interest;
that is, how it would benefit the public
as a whole;
(e) The reasons why granting the exemption would not adversely affect
safety, or how the exemption would
provide a level of safety at least equal
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§ 11.83
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
to that provided by the rule from
which you seek the exemption;
(f) A summary we can publish in the
FEDERAL REGISTER, stating:
(1) The rule from which you seek the
exemption; and
(2) A brief description of the nature
of the exemption you seek;
(g) Any additional information, views
or arguments available to support your
request; and
(h) If you want to exercise the privileges of your exemption outside the
United States, the reason why you
need to do so.
§ 11.87 Are there circumstances in
which FAA may decide not to publish a summary of my petition for
exemption?
The FAA may not publish a summary
of your petition for exemption and request comments if you present or we
find good cause why we should not
delay action on your petition. The factors we consider in deciding not to request comment include:
(a) Whether granting your petition
would set a precedent.
(b) Whether the relief requested is
identical to exemptions granted previously.
(c) Whether our delaying action on
your petition would affect you adversely.
(d) Whether you filed your petition in
a timely manner.
§ 11.83 How can I operate under an exemption outside the United States?
If you want to be able to operate
under your exemption outside the
United States, you must request this
when you petition for relief and give us
the reason for this use. If you do not
provide your reason or we determine
that it does not justify this relief, we
will limit your exemption to use within
the United States. Before we extend
your exemption for use outside the
United States, we will verify that the
exemption would be in compliance with
the Standards of the International
Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). If
it would not, but we still believe it
would be in the public interest to allow
you to do so, we will file a difference
with ICAO. However, a foreign country
still may not allow you to operate in
that country without meeting the
ICAO standard.
§ 11.89 How much time do I have to
submit comments to FAA on a petition for exemption?
The FAA states the specific time allowed for comments in the FEDERAL
REGISTER notice about the petition. We
usually allow 20 days to comment on a
petition for exemption.
§ 11.91 How does FAA inform me of its
decision on my petition for exemption?
The FAA will notify you in writing
about its decision on your petition. A
copy of this decision is also placed in
the public docket. We will include the
docket number associated with your
petition in our letter to you.
[Doc. No. FAA–2005–22982, 71 FR 1485, Jan. 10,
2006]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 11.85 Does FAA invite public comment on petitions for exemption?
§ 11.101 May I ask FAA to reconsider
my petition for rulemaking or petition for exemption if it is denied?
Yes, you may petition FAA to reconsider your petition denial. You must
submit your request to the address to
which you sent your original petition,
and FAA must receive it within 60 days
after we issued the denial. For us to accept your petition, show the following:
(a) That you have a significant additional fact and why you did not present
it in your original petition;
(b) That we made an important factual error in our denial of your original
petition; or
Yes, FAA publishes information
about petitions for exemption in the
FEDERAL REGISTER. The information
includes—
(a) The docket number of the petition;
(b) The citation to the rule or rules
from which the petitioner requested relief;
(c) The name of the petitioner;
(d) The petitioner’s summary of the
action requested and the reasons for requesting it; and
(e) A request for comments to assist
FAA in evaluating the petition.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 11.201
(c) That we did not correctly interpret a law, regulation, or precedent.
14 CFR part or
section identified
and described
§ 11.103 What exemption relief may be
available to federal, state, and local
governments when operating aircraft that are not public aircraft?
The Federal Aviation Administration
may grant a federal, state, or local
government an exemption from part A
of subtitle VII of title 49 United States
Code, and any regulation issued under
that authority that is applicable to an
aircraft as a result of the Independent
Safety Board Act Amendments of 1994,
Public Law 103–411, if—
(a) The Administrator finds that
granting the exemption is necessary to
prevent an undue economic burden on
the unit of government; and
(b) The Administrator certifies that
the aviation safety program of the unit
of government is effective and appropriate to ensure safe operations of the
type of aircraft operated by the unit of
government.
Part 61 ...............
Part 63 ...............
Part 65 ...............
Part 67 ...............
Part 77 ...............
Part 91 ...............
Part 93 ...............
Part 101 .............
Part 105 .............
Part 107 .............
Part 108 .............
Part 109 .............
Part 119 .............
Part 121 .............
Part 125 .............
Part 129 .............
Part 133 .............
Part 135 .............
[68 FR 25488, May 13, 2003]
Subpart B—Paperwork Reduction
Act Control Numbers
Part 137 .............
Part 139 .............
Part 141 .............
Part 142 .............
Part 145 .............
Part 147 .............
Part 150 .............
Part 157 .............
Part 158 .............
Part 161 .............
Part 171 .............
Part 183 .............
Part 193 .............
Part 198 .............
Part 400 .............
Part 401 .............
Part 440 .............
SFAR 36 ............
SFAR 71 ............
§ 11.201 Office of Management and
Budget (OMB) control numbers assigned under the Paperwork Reduction Act.
(a) The Paperwork Reduction Act of
1995 (44 U.S.C. 3501–3520) requires FAA
to get approval from OMB for our information collection activities, and to
list a record of those approvals in the
FEDERAL REGISTER. This subpart lists
the control numbers OMB assigned to
FAA’s information collection activities.
(b) The table listing OMB control
numbers assigned to FAA’s information collection activities follows:
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
14 CFR part or
section identified
and described
Part 14 ...............
Part 17 ...............
Part 21 ...............
Part 34 ...............
Part 39 ...............
Part 43 ...............
Part 45 ...............
Part 47 ...............
Part 48 ...............
Part 49 ...............
Part 60 ...............
Current OMB control number
2120–0021,
2120–0034,
2120–0543,
2120–0571
2120–0007
2120–0022,
2120–0535,
2120–0571,
2120–0648
2120–0034, 2120–0543
2120–0001
2120–0005,
2120–0026,
2120–0027,
2120–0573, 2120–0606, 2120–0620,
2120–0631, 2120–0651
2120–0524, 2120–0606, 2120–0639
2120–0027
2120–0027, 2120–0641
2120–0075, 2120–0554, 2120–0628
2120–0098,
2120–0554,
2120–0577,
2120–0628, 2120–0642
2120–0505
2120–0593
2120–0008,
2120–0028,
2120–0535,
2120–0571, 2120–0600, 2120–0606,
2120–0614, 2120–0616, 2120–0631,
2120–0651, 2120–0653, 2120–0691,
2120–0702, 2120–0739, 2120–0760
2120–0028,
2120–0085,
2120–0616,
2120–0651
2120–0028,
2120–0536,
2120–0616,
2120–0638
2120–0044
2120–0003,
2120–0028,
2120–0039,
2120–0535, 2120–0571, 2120–0600,
2120–0606, 2120–0614, 2120–0616,
2120–0620, 2120–0631, 2120–0653
2120–0049
2120–0045, 2120–0063
2120–0009
2120–0570
2120–0003, 2120–0010, 2120–0571
2120–0040
2120–0517
2120–0036
2120–0557
2120–0563
2120–0014
2120–0033, 2120–0604
2120–0646
2120–0514
2120–0643, 2120–0644, 0649
2120–0608
2120–0601
2120–0507
2120–0620
[Doc. No. 1999–6622, 65 FR 50863, Aug. 21, 2000,
as amended by Amdt. 11–47, 67 FR 9553, Mar.
1, 2002; Amdt. 11–49, 68 FR 61321, Oct. 27, 2003;
Amdt. 11–49, 68 FR 70132, Dec. 17, 2003; 70 FR
40163, July 12, 2005; 71 FR 63426, Oct. 30, 2006;
72 FR 59599, Oct. 22, 2007; Amdt. 11–56, 79 FR
12937, Mar. 7, 2014; Amdt. 11–57, 80 FR 58586,
Sept. 30, 2015; Doc. FAA–2015–7396, Amdt. 11–
58, 80 FR 79255, Dec. 21, 2015]
Current OMB control number
2120–0539
2120–0632
2120–0018, 2120–0552
2120–0508
2120–0056
2120–0020
2120–0508
2120–0024, 2120–0042
2120–0765
2120–0043
2120–0680
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Pt. 11, App. 1
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
each contact or group of related contacts in
the rulemaking docket when it is opened.
APPENDIX 1 TO PART 11—ORAL COMMUNICATIONS WITH THE PUBLIC DURING
RULEMAKING
5. Does DOT policy permit ex parte contacts
during the comment period?
1. What is an ex parte contact?
No, during the comment period, the public
docket is available for written comments
from any member of the public. These comments can be examined and responded to by
any interested person. Because this public
forum is available, DOT policy discourages
ex parte contacts during the comment period. They are not necessary to collect the
information the agency needs to make its decision.
‘‘Ex parte’’ is a Latin term that means
‘‘one sided,’’ and indicates that not all parties to an issue were present when it was discussed. An ex parte contact involving rulemaking is any communication between FAA
and someone outside the government regarding a specific rulemaking proceeding, before
that proceeding closes. A rulemaking proceeding does not close until we publish the
final rule or withdraw the NPRM. Because
an ex parte contact excludes other interested
persons, including the rest of the public,
from the communication, it may give an unfair advantage to one party, or appear to do
so.
6. What if the FAA believes it needs to meet with
members of the public to discuss the proposal?
If the FAA determines that it would be
helpful to invite members of the public to
make oral presentations to it regarding the
proposal, we will announce a public meeting
in the FEDERAL REGISTER.
2. Are written comments to the docket ex parte
contacts?
Written comments submitted to the docket
are not ex parte contacts because they are
available for inspection by all members of
the public.
7. Are any oral contacts concerning the proposal
permitted during the comment period?
If you contact the agency with questions
regarding the proposal during the comment
period, we can only provide you with information that has already been made available
to the general public. If you contact the
agency to discuss the proposal, you will be
told that the proper avenue of communication during the comment period is a written
communication to the docket.
3. What is DOT policy on ex parte contacts?
It is DOT policy to provide for open development of rules and to encourage full public
participation in rulemaking actions. In addition to providing opportunity to respond in
writing to an NPRM and to appear and be
heard at a hearing, DOT policy encourages
agencies to contact the public directly when
we need factual information to resolve questions of substance. It also encourages DOT
agencies to be receptive to appropriate contacts from persons affected by or interested
in a proposed action. But under some circumstances an ex parte contact could affect
the basic openness and fairness of the rulemaking process. Even the appearance of impropriety can affect public confidence in the
process. For this reason, DOT policy sets
careful guidelines for these contacts. The
kind of ex parte contacts permitted and the
procedures we follow depend on when the
contact occurs in the rulemaking process.
8. If a substantive ex parte contact does occur
during the comment period, what does FAA do?
While FAA tries to ensure that FAA personnel and the public are aware of DOT policy, substantive ex parte contacts do occasionally occur, for example, at meetings not
intended for that purpose. In such a case, we
place a summary of the contact and a copy
of any materials provided at the meeting in
the rulemaking docket. We encourage participants in such a meeting to file written
comments in the docket.
9. Does DOT policy permit ex parte contacts the
comment period has closed?
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
4. What kinds of ex parte contacts does DOT
policy permit before we issue an ANPRM,
NPRM, Supplemental NPRM, or immediately
adopted final rule?
DOT policy strongly discourages ex parte
contacts initiated by commenters to discuss
their position on the proposal once the comment period has closed. Such a contact at
this time would be improper, since other interested persons would not have an opportunity to respond. If we need further information regarding a comment in the docket,
we may request this from a commenter. A
record of this contact and the information
provided is placed in the docket. If we need
to make other contacts to update factual information, such as economic data, we will
disclose this information in the final rule
The DOT policy authorizes ex parte contacts that we need to obtain technical and
economic information. We need this information to decide whether to issue a regulation
and what it should say. Each contact that influences our development of the regulation is
noted in the preamble. For multiple contacts
that are similar, we may provide only a general discussion. For contacts not discussed in
the preamble, we place a report discussing
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
Pt. 13
docket or in the economic studies accompanying it, which are available in the docket.
Subpart C—Legal Enforcement Actions
13.13 Consent orders.
13.14 Civil penalties: General.
13.15 Civil penalties: Other than by administrative assessment.
13.16 Civil penalties: Administrative assessment against a person other than an individual acting as a pilot, flight engineer, mechanic, or repairman. Administrative assessment against all persons
for hazardous materials violations.
13.17 Seizure of aircraft.
13.18 Civil penalties: Administrative assessment against an individual acting as a
pilot, flight engineer, mechanic, or repairman.
13.19 Certificate action.
13.20 Orders of compliance, cease and desist
orders, orders of denial, and other orders.
13.21 Military personnel.
13.23 Criminal penalties.
13.25 Injunctions.
13.27 Final order of Hearing Officer in certificate of aircraft registration proceedings.
13.29 Civil penalties: Streamlined enforcement procedures for certain security violations.
10. What if FAA needs to meet with interested
persons to discuss the proposal after the comment period has closed?
If FAA determines that it would be helpful
to meet with a person or group after the
close of the comment period to discuss a
course of action to be taken, we will announce the meeting in the FEDERAL REGISTER. We will also consider reopening the
comment period. If an inappropriate ex parte
contact does occur after the comment period
closes, a summary of the contact and a copy
of any material distributed during meeting
will be placed in the docket if it could be
seen as influencing the rulemaking process.
11. Under what circumstances will FAA reopen
the comment period?
If we receive an ex parte communication
after the comment period has closed that
could substantially influence the rulemaking, we may reopen the comment period.
DOT policy requires the agency to carefully
consider whether the substance of the contact will give the commenter an unfair advantage, since the rest of the public may not
see the record of the contact in the docket.
When the substance of a proposed rule is significantly changed as a result of such an oral
communication, DOT policy and practice requires that the comment period be reopened
by issuing a supplemental NPRM in which
the reasons for the change are discussed.
Subpart D—Rules of Practice for FAA
Hearings
13.31 Applicability.
13.33 Appearances.
13.35 Request for hearing.
13.37 Hearing Officer’s powers.
13.39 Disqualification of Hearing Officer.
13.41 [Reserved]
13.43 Service and filing of pleadings, motions, and documents.
13.44 Computation of time and extension of
time.
13.45 Amendment of notice and answer.
13.47 Withdrawal of notice or request for
hearing.
13.49 Motions.
13.51 Intervention.
13.53 Depositions.
13.55 Notice of hearing.
13.57 Subpoenas and witness fees.
13.59 Evidence.
13.61 Argument and submittals.
13.63 Record.
12. What if I have important information for
FAA and the comment period is closed?
You may always provide FAA with written
information after the close of the comment
period and it will be considered if time permits. Because contacts after the close of the
comment may not be seen by other interested persons, if they substantially and specifically influence the FAA’s decision, we
may need to reopen the comment period.
PART 13—INVESTIGATIVE AND
ENFORCEMENT PROCEDURES
Subpart E—Orders of Compliance Under
the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act
Subpart A—Investigative Procedures
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Sec.
13.1 Reports of violations.
13.3 Investigations (general).
13.5 Formal complaints.
13.7 Records, documents and reports.
13.71 Applicability.
13.73 Notice of proposed order of compliance.
13.75 Reply or request for hearing.
13.77 Consent order of compliance.
13.79 Hearing.
13.81 Order of immediate compliance.
13.83 Appeal.
13.85 Filing, service and computation of
time.
Subpart B—Administrative Actions
13.11 Administrative disposition of certain
violations.
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§ 13.1
13.87
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Extension of time.
13.235 Judicial review of a final decision and
order.
Subpart F—Formal Fact-Finding Investigation Under an Order of Investigation
Subpart H—Civil Monetary Penalty Inflation
Adjustment
13.101 Applicability.
13.103 Order of investigation.
13.105 Notification.
13.107 Designation of additional parties.
13.109 Convening the investigation.
13.111 Subpoenas.
13.113 Noncompliance with the investigative
process.
13.115 Public proceedings.
13.117 Conduct of investigative proceeding
or deposition.
13.119 Rights of persons against self-incrimination.
13.121 Witness fees.
13.123 Submission by party to the investigation.
13.125 Depositions.
13.127 Reports, decisions and orders.
13.129 Post-investigation action.
13.131 Other procedures.
13.301 Scope and purpose.
13.303 Definitions.
13.305 Cost of living adjustments of civil
monetary penalties.
Subpart I—Flight Operational Quality
Assurance Programs
13.401 Flight Operational Quality Assurance
program: Prohibition against use of data
for enforcement purposes.
AUTHORITY: 18 U.S.C. 6002; 28 U.S.C. 2461
(note); 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 5121–5128, 40113–40114,
44103–44106, 44701–44703, 44709–44710, 44713,
46101–46111, 46301, 46302 (for a violation of 49
U.S.C. 46504), 46304–46316, 46318, 46501–46502,
46504–46507, 47106, 47107, 47111, 47122, 47306,
47531–47532; 49 CFR 1.47.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Subpart G—Rules of Practice in FAA Civil
Penalty Actions
SOURCE: Docket No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov.
5, 1979, unless otherwise noted.
13.201 Applicability.
13.202 Definitions.
13.203 Separation of functions.
13.204 Appearances and rights of parties.
13.205 Administrative law judges.
13.206 Intervention.
13.207 Certification of documents.
13.208 Complaint.
13.209 Answer.
13.210 Filing of documents.
13.211 Service of documents.
13.212 Computation of time.
13.213 Extension of time.
13.214 Amendment of pleadings.
13.215 Withdrawal of complaint or request
for hearing.
13.216 Waivers.
13.217 Joint procedural or discovery schedule.
13.218 Motions.
13.219 Interlocutory appeals.
13.220 Discovery.
13.221 Notice of hearing.
13.222 Evidence.
13.223 Standard of proof.
13.224 Burden of proof.
13.225 Offer of proof.
13.226 Public disclosure of evidence.
13.227 Expert or opinion witnesses.
13.228 Subpoenas.
13.229 Witness fees.
13.230 Record.
13.231 Argument before the administrative
law judge.
13.232 Initial decision.
13.233 Appeal from initial decision.
13.234 Petition to reconsider or modify a
final decision and order of the FAA decisionmaker on appeal.
Subpart A—Investigative
Procedures
§ 13.1
Reports of violations.
(a) Any person who knows of a violation of the Federal Aviation Act of
1958, as amended, the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act relating to
the transportation or shipment by air
of hazardous materials, the Airport and
Airway Development Act of 1970, the
Airport and Airway Improvement Act
of 1982, the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982 as amended by
the Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987, or any
rule, regulation, or order issued thereunder, should report it to appropriate
personnel of any FAA regional or district office.
(b) Each report made under this section, together with any other information the FAA may have that is relevant to the matter reported, will be
reviewed by FAA personnel to determine the nature and type of any additional investigation or enforcement action the FAA will take.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–17, 53 FR 33783, Aug. 31,
1988]
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jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.5
the legal authorities listed in § 16.1 of
this chapter shall be filed in accordance with the provisions of part 16 of
this chapter, except in the case of complaints, investigations, and proceedings
initiated before December 16, 1996, the
effective date of part 16 of this chapter.
§ 13.3 Investigations (general).
(a) Under the Federal Aviation Act of
1958, as amended, (49 U.S.C. 1301 et seq.),
the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1801 et seq.), the
Airport and Airway Development Act
of 1970 (49 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.), the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of
1982 (49 U.S.C. 2201 et seq.), the Airport
and Airway Improvement Act of 1982
(as amended, 49 U.S.C. App. 2201 et seq.,
Airport and Airway Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of 1987), and the
Regulations of the Office of the Secretary of Transportation (49 CFR 1 et
seq.), the Administrator may conduct
investigations, hold hearings, issue
subpoenas, require the production of
relevant documents, records, and property, and take evidence and depositions.
(b) For the purpose of investigating
alleged violations of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as amended the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act,
the Airport and Airway Development
Act of 1970, the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982, the Airport and
Airway Improvement Act of 1982 as
amended by the Airport and Airway
Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of
1987, or any rule, regulation, or order
issued thereunder, the Administrator’s
authority has been delegated to the
various services and or offices for matters within their respective areas for
all routine investigations. When the
compulsory processes of sections 313
and 1004 (49 U.S.C. 1354 and 1484) of the
Federal Aviation Act, or section 109 of
the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1808) are invoked,
the Administrator’s authority has been
delegated to the Chief Counsel, the
Deputy Chief Counsel, each Assistant
Chief Counsel, each Regional Counsel,
the Aeronautical Center Counsel, and
the Technical Center Counsel.
(c) In conducting formal investigations, the Chief Counsel, the Deputy
Chief Counsel, each Assistant Chief
Counsel, each Regional Counsel, the
Aeronautical Center Counsel, and the
Technical Center Counsel may issue an
order of investigation in accordance
with subpart F of this part.
(d) A complaint against the sponsor,
proprietor, or operator of a Federallyassisted airport involving violations of
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–17, 53 FR 33783, Aug. 31,
1988; 53 FR 35255, Sept. 12, 1988; Amdt. 13–19,
54 FR 39290, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt. 13–27, 61 FR
54004, Oct. 16, 1996; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46865,
Sept. 4, 1997]
§ 13.5
Formal complaints.
(a) Any person may file a complaint
with the Administrator with respect to
anything done or omitted to be done by
any person in contravention of any
provision of any Act or of any regulation or order issued under it, as to matters within the jurisdiction of the Administrator. This section does not
apply to complaints against the Administrator or employees of the FAA
acting within the scope of their employment.
(b) Complaints filed under this section must—
(1) Be submitted in writing and identified as a complaint filed for the purpose of seeking an appropriate order or
other enforcement action;
(2) Be submitted to the Federal Aviation Administration, Office of the Chief
Counsel, Attention: Enforcement Docket (AGC–10), 800 Independence Avenue,
S.W., Washington, DC 20591;
(3) Set forth the name and address, if
known, of each person who is the subject of the complaint and, with respect
to each person, the specific provisions
of the Act or regulation or order that
the complainant believes were violated;
(4) Contain a concise but complete
statement of the facts relied upon to
substantiate each allegation;
(5) State the name, address and telephone number of the person filing the
complaint; and
(6) Be signed by the person filing the
complaint or a duly authorized representative.
(c) Complaints which do not meet the
requirements of paragraph (b) of this
section will be considered reports
under § 13.1.
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§ 13.7
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(d) Complaints which meet the requirements of paragraph (b) of this section will be docketed and a copy
mailed to each person named in the
complaint.
(e) Any complaint filed against a
member of the Armed Forces of the
United States acting in the performance of official duties shall be referred
to the Secretary of the Department
concerned for action in accordance
with the procedures set forth in § 13.21
of this part.
(f) The person named in the complaint shall file an answer within 20
days after service of a copy of the complaint.
(g) After the complaint has been answered or after the allotted time in
which to file an answer has expired, the
Administrator shall determine if there
are reasonable grounds for investigating the complaint.
(h) If the Administrator determines
that a complaint does not state facts
which warrant an investigation or action, the complaint may be dismissed
without a hearing and the reason for
the dismissal shall be given, in writing,
to the person who filed the complaint
and the person named in the complaint.
(i) If the Administrator determines
that reasonable grounds exist, an informal investigation may be initiated or
an order of investigation may be issued
in accordance with subpart F of this
part, or both. Each person named in
the complaint shall be advised which
official has been delegated the responsibility under § 13.3(b) or (c) for conducting the investigation.
(j) If the investigation substantiates
the allegations set forth in the complaint, a notice of proposed order may
be issued or other enforcement action
taken in accordance with this part.
(k) The complaint and other pleadings and official FAA records relating
to the disposition of the complaint are
maintained in current docket form in
the Enforcement Docket (AGC–10), Office of the Chief Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence
Avenue, S.W., Washington, D. C. 20591.
Any interested person may examine
any docketed material at that office,
at any time after the docket is established, except material that is ordered
withheld from the public under applicable law or regulations, and may obtain a photostatic or duplicate copy
upon paying the cost of the copy.
(Secs. 313(a), 314(a), 601 through 610, and 1102
of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C.
1354(a), 1421 through 1430, 1502); sec. 6(c),
Dept. of Transportation Act (49 U.S.C.
1655(c)))
[Doc. No. 13–14, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–16, 45 FR 35307, May 27,
1980; Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept. 25, 1989]
§ 13.7
Records, documents and reports.
Each record, document and report
that the Federal Aviation Regulations
require to be maintained, exhibited or
submitted to the Administrator may be
used in any investigation conducted by
the Administrator; and, except to the
extent the use may be specifically limited or prohibited by the section which
imposes the requirement, the records,
documents and reports may be used in
any civil penalty action, certificate action, or other legal proceeding.
Subpart B—Administrative Actions
§ 13.11 Administrative
certain violations.
disposition
(a) If it is determined that a violation or an alleged violation of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, or an order or
regulation issued under it, or of the
Hazardous Materials Transportation
Act, or an order or regulation issued
under it, does not require legal enforcement action, an appropriate official of
the FAA field office responsible for
processing the enforcement case or
other appropriate FAA official may
take administrative action in disposition of the case.
(b) An administrative action under
this section does not constitute a formal adjudication of the matter, and
may be taken by issuing the alleged violator—
(1) A ‘‘Warning Notice’’ which recites
available facts and information about
the incident or condition and indicates
that it may have been a violation; or
(2) A ‘‘Letter of Correction’’ which
confirms the FAA decision in the matter and states the necessary corrective
action the alleged violator has taken
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.15
or agrees to take. If the agreed corrective action is not fully completed, legal
enforcement action may be taken.
chapter 51 or a regulation prescribed or
order issued under that chapter, is subject to a civil penalty under 49 U.S.C.
5123.
(c) The minimum and maximum
amounts of civil penalties for violations of the statutory provisions specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this
section, or rules, regulations, or orders
issued thereunder, are periodically adjusted for inflation in accordance with
the formula established in 28 U.S.C.
2461 note and implemented in 14 CFR
part 13, subpart H.
Subpart C—Legal Enforcement
Actions
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.13 Consent orders.
(a) At any time before the issuance of
an order under this subpart, the official
who issued the notice and the person
subject to the notice may agree to dispose of the case by the issuance of a
consent order by the official.
(b) A proposal for a consent order,
submitted to the official who issued
the notice, under this section must include—
(1) A proposed order;
(2) An admission of all jurisdictional
facts;
(3) An express waiver of the right to
further procedural steps and of all
rights to judicial review; and
(4) An incorporation by reference of
the notice and an acknowledgment
that the notice may be used to construe the terms of the order.
(c) If the issuance of a consent order
has been agreed upon after the filing of
a request for hearing in accordance
with subpart D of this part, the proposal for a consent order shall include
a request to be filed with the Hearing
Officer withdrawing the request for a
hearing and requesting that the case be
dismissed.
[Amdt. 13–32; 69 FR 59495, Oct. 4, 2004; Amdt.
13–32; 70 FR 1813, Jan. 11, 2005; 71 FR 70464,
Dec. 5, 2006]
§ 13.15 Civil penalties: Other than by
administrative assessment.
(a) The FAA uses the procedures in
this section when it seeks a civil penalty other than by the administrative
assessment procedures in §§ 13.16 or
13.18.
(b) The authority of the Administrator, under 49 U.S.C. chapter 463, to
seek a civil penalty for a violation
cited in § 13.14(a), and the ability to
refer cases to the United States Attorney General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, for prosecution of civil
penalty actions sought by the Administrator is delegated to the Chief Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for
Enforcement; the Assistant Chief
Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle
East Area Office; the Regional Counsel;
the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and
the Technical Center Counsel. This delegation applies to cases involving:
(1) An amount in controversy in excess of:
(i) $50,000, if the violation was committed by any person before December
12, 2003;
(ii) $400,000, if the violation was committed by a person other than an individual or small business concern on or
after December 12, 2003;
(iii) $50,000, if the violation was committed by an individual or small business concern on or after December 12,
2003; or
(2) An in rem action, seizure of aircraft subject to lien, suit for injunctive
relief, or for collection of an assessed
civil penalty.
§ 13.14 Civil penalties: General.
(a) Any person who violates any of
the following statutory provisions, or
any rule, regulation, or order issued
thereunder, is subject to a civil penalty
of not more than the amount specified
in 49 U.S.C. chapter 463 for each violation:
(1) Chapter 401 (except sections
40103(a) and (d), 40105, 40116, and 40117);
(2) Chapter 441 (except section 44109);
(3) Section 44502(b) or (c);
(4) Chapter 447 (except sections 44717
and 44719–44723);
(5) Chapter 451;
(6) Sections 46301(b), 46302 (for a violation of 49 U.S.C. 46504), or 46318;
(7) Section 47107(b); or
(8) Sections 47528 through 47530.
(b) Any person who knowingly commits an act in violation of 49 U.S.C.
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(c) The Administrator may compromise any civil penalty proposed
under this section, before referral to
the United States Attorney General, or
the delegate of the Attorney General,
for prosecution.
(1) The Administrator, through the
Chief Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief
Counsel for Enforcement; the Assistant
Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional
Counsel; the Aeronautical Center
Counsel; or the Technical Center Counsel sends a civil penalty letter to the
person charged with a violation cited
in § 13.14(a). The civil penalty letter
contains a statement of the charges,
the applicable law, rule, regulation, or
order, the amount of civil penalty that
the Administrator will accept in full
settlement of the action or an offer to
compromise the civil penalty.
(2) Not later than 30 days after receipt of the civil penalty letter, the
person charged with a violation may
present any material or information in
answer to the charges to the agency attorney, either orally or in writing, that
may explain, mitigate, or deny the violation or that may show extenuating
circumstances. The Administrator will
consider any material or information
submitted in accordance with this
paragraph to determine whether the
person is subject to a civil penalty or
to determine the amount for which the
Administrator will compromise the action.
(3) If the person charged with the violation offers to compromise for a specific amount, that person must send to
the agency attorney a certified check
or money order for that amount, payable to the Federal Aviation Administration. The Chief Counsel; the Deputy
Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement;
the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe,
Africa, and Middle East Area Office;
the Regional Counsel; Aeronautical
Center Counsel; or the Technical Center Counsel may accept the certified
check or money order or may refuse
and return the certified check or
money order.
(4) If the offer to compromise is accepted by the Administrator, the agency attorney will send a letter to the
person charged with the violation stating that the certified check or money
order is accepted in full settlement of
the civil penalty action.
(5) If the parties cannot agree to
compromise the civil penalty action or
the offer to compromise is rejected and
the certified check or money order submitted in compromise is returned, the
Administrator may refer the civil penalty action to the United States Attorney General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, to begin proceedings in
a United States district court, pursuant to the authority in 49 U.S.C. 46305,
to prosecute and collect the civil penalty.
[Amdt. 13–18, 53 FR 34653, Sept. 7, 1988, as
amended by Amdt. 13–20, 55 FR 15128, Apr. 20,
1990; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46865, Sept. 4, 1997;
Amdt. 13–32; 69 FR 59495, Oct. 4, 2004]
§ 13.16 Civil Penalties: Administrative
assessment against a person other
than an individual acting as a pilot,
flight engineer, mechanic, or repairman. Administrative assessment against all persons for hazardous materials violations.
(a) The FAA uses these procedures
when it assesses a civil penalty against
a person other than an individual acting as a pilot, flight engineer, mechanic, or repairman for a violation
cited in the first sentence of 49 U.S.C.
46301(d)(2) or in 49 U.S.C. 47531, or any
implementing rule, regulation or order.
(b) District court jurisdiction. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph
(a) of this section, the United States
district courts have exclusive jurisdiction of any civil penalty action initiated by the FAA for violations described in those paragraphs, under 49
U.S.C. 46301(d)(4), if—
(1) The amount in controversy is
more than $50,000 for a violation committed by any person before December
12, 2003;
(2) The amount in controversy is
more than $400,000 for a violation committed by a person other than an individual or small business concern on or
after December 12, 2003;
(3) The amount in controversy is
more than $50,000 for a violation committed by an individual or a small
business concern on or after December
12, 2003;
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(4) The action is in rem or another
action in rem based on the same violation has been brought;
(5) The action involves an aircraft
subject to a lien that has been seized
by the Government; or
(6) Another action has been brought
for an injunction based on the same
violation.
(c) Hazardous materials violations. The
FAA may assess a civil penalty against
any person who knowingly commits an
act in violation of 49 U.S.C. chapter 51
or a regulation prescribed or order
issued under that chapter, under 49
U.S.C. 5123 and 49 CFR 1.47(k). An order
assessing a civil penalty for a violation
under 49 U.S.C. chapter 51, or a rule,
regulation, or order issued thereunder,
is issued only after the following factors have been considered:
(1) The nature, circumstances, extent, and gravity of the violation;
(2) With respect to the violator, the
degree of culpability, any history of
prior violations, the ability to pay, and
any effect on the ability to continue to
do business; and
(3) Such other matters as justice may
require.
(d) Order assessing civil penalty. An
order assessing civil penalty may be
issued for a violation described in paragraphs (a) or (c) of this section, or as
otherwise provided by statute, after
notice and opportunity for a hearing. A
person charged with a violation may be
subject to an order assessing civil penalty in the following circumstances:
(1) An order assessing civil penalty
may be issued if a person charged with
a violation submits or agrees to submit
a civil penalty for a violation.
(2) An order assessing civil penalty
may be issued if a person charged with
a violation does not request a hearing
under paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section within 15 days after receipt of a
final notice of proposed civil penalty.
(3) Unless an appeal is filed with the
FAA decisionmaker in a timely manner, an initial decision or order of an
administrative law judge shall be considered an order assessing civil penalty
if an administrative law judge finds
that an alleged violation occurred and
determines that a civil penalty, in an
amount found appropriate by the administrative law judge, is warranted.
(4) Unless a petition for review is
filed with a U.S. Court of Appeals in a
timely manner, a final decision and
order of the Administrator shall be
considered an order assessing civil penalty if the FAA decisionmaker finds
that an alleged violation occurred and
a civil penalty is warranted.
(e) Delegation of authority. (1) The authority of the Administrator under 49
U.S.C. 46301(d), 47531, and 5123, and 49
CFR 1.47(k) to initiate and assess civil
penalties for a violation of those statutes or a rule, regulation, or order
issued thereunder, is delegated to the
Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations;
the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; the Assistant Chief Counsel,
Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area
Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(2) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 5123, 49 CFR
1.47(k), 49 U.S.C. 46301(d), and 49 U.S.C.
46305 to refer cases to the Attorney
General of the United States, or the
delegate of the Attorney General, for
collection of civil penalties is delegated to the Deputy Chief Counsel for
Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief
Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle
East Area Office; the Regional Counsel;
the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and
the Technical Center Counsel.
(3) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 46301(f) to compromise the amount of a civil penalty
imposed is delegated to the Deputy
Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement;
Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the
Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical
Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(4) The authority of the Administrator under 49 U.S.C. 5123 (e) and (f)
and 49 CFR 1.47(k) to compromise the
amount of a civil penalty imposed is
delegated to the Deputy Chief Counsel
for Operations; the Assistant Chief
Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant
Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the Regional
Counsel; the Aeronautical Center
Counsel; and the Technical Center
Counsel.
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(f) Notice of proposed civil penalty. A
civil penalty action is initiated by
sending a notice of proposed civil penalty to the person charged with a violation or to the agent for services for the
person under 49 U.S.C. 46103. A notice
of proposed civil penalty will be sent to
the individual charged with a violation
or to the president of the corporation
or company charged with a violation.
In response to a notice of proposed civil
penalty, a corporation or company may
designate in writing another person to
receive documents in that civil penalty
action. The notice of proposed civil
penalty contains a statement of the
charges and the amount of the proposed civil penalty. Not later than 30
days after receipt of the notice of proposed civil penalty, the person charged
with a violation shall—
(1) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-upon
amount, in which case either an order
assessing civil penalty or compromise
order shall be issued in that amount;
(2) Submit to the agency attorney
one of the following:
(i) Written information, including
documents and witness statements,
demonstrating that a violation of the
regulations did not occur or that a penalty or the amount of the penalty is
not warranted by the circumstances.
(ii) A written request to reduce the
proposed civil penalty, the amount of
reduction, and the reasons and any
documents supporting a reduction of
the proposed civil penalty, including
records indicating a financial inability
to pay or records showing that payment of the proposed civil penalty
would prevent the person from continuing in business.
(iii) A written request for an informal conference to discuss the matter
with the agency attorney and to submit relevant information or documents; or
(3) Request a hearing, in which case a
complaint shall be filed with the hearing docket clerk.
(g) Final notice of proposed civil penalty. A final notice of proposed civil
penalty may be issued after participation in informal procedures provided in
paragraph (f)(2) of this section or failure to respond in a timely manner to a
notice of proposed civil penalty. A final
notice of proposed civil penalty will be
sent to the individual charged with a
violation, to the president of the corporation or company charged with a
violation, or a person previously designated in writing by the individual,
corporation, or company to receive
documents in that civil penalty action.
If not previously done in response to a
notice of proposed civil penalty, a corporation or company may designate in
writing another person to receive documents in that civil penalty action. The
final notice of proposed civil penalty
contains a statement of the charges
and the amount of the proposed civil
penalty and, as a result of information
submitted to the agency attorney during informal procedures, may modify
an allegation or a proposed civil penalty contained in a notice of proposed
civil penalty.
(1) A final notice of proposed civil
penalty may be issued—
(i) If the person charged with a violation fails to respond to the notice of
proposed civil penalty within 30 days
after receipt of that notice; or
(ii) If the parties participated in any
informal procedures under paragraph
(f)(2) of this section and the parties
have not agreed to compromise the action or the agency attorney has not
agreed to withdraw the notice of proposed civil penalty.
(2) Not later than 15 days after receipt of the final notice of proposed
civil penalty, the person charged with
a violation shall do one of the following—
(i) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-upon
amount, in which case either an order
assessing civil penalty or a compromise order shall be issued in that
amount; or
(ii) Request a hearing, in which case
a complaint shall be filed with the
hearing docket clerk.
(h) Request for a hearing. Any person
charged with a violation may request a
hearing, pursuant to paragraph (f)(3) or
paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, to
be conducted in accordance with the
procedures in subpart G of this part. A
person requesting a hearing shall file a
written request for a hearing with the
hearing docket clerk, using the appropriate address set forth in § 13.210(a) of
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this part, and shall mail a copy of the
request to the agency attorney. The request for a hearing may be in the form
of a letter but must be dated and
signed by the person requesting a hearing. The request for a hearing may be
typewritten or may be legibly handwritten.
(i) Hearing. If the person charged
with a violation requests a hearing
pursuant to paragraph (f)(3) or paragraph (g)(2)(ii) of this section, the
original complaint shall be filed with
the hearing docket clerk and a copy
shall be sent to the person requesting
the hearing. The procedural rules in
subpart G of this part apply to the
hearing and any appeal. At the close of
the hearing, the administrative law
judge shall issue, either orally on the
record or in writing, an initial decision, including the reasons for the decision, that contains findings or conclusions on the allegations contained, and
the civil penalty sought, in the complaint.
(j) Appeal. Either party may appeal
the administrative law judge’s initial
decision to the FAA decisionmaker
pursuant to the procedures in subpart
G of this part. If a party files a notice
of appeal pursuant to § 13.233 of subpart
G, the effectiveness of the initial decision is stayed until a final decision and
order of the Administrator have been
entered on the record. The FAA decisionmaker shall review the record and
issue a final decision and order of the
Administrator that affirm, modify, or
reverse the initial decision. The FAA
decisionmaker may assess a civil penalty but shall not assess a civil penalty
in an amount greater than that sought
in the complaint.
(k) Payment. A person shall pay a
civil penalty by sending a certified
check or money order, payable to the
Federal Aviation Administration, to
the agency attorney.
(l) Collection of civil penalties. If an individual does not pay a civil penalty
imposed by an order assessing civil
penalty or other final order, the Administrator may take action provided
under the law to collect the penalty.
(m) A party may seek review only of
a final decision and order of the FAA
decisionmaker involving a violation of
the Federal aviation statute or the
Federal hazardous materials transportation law. Judicial review is in the
United States Court of Appeals for the
District of Columbia Circuit or the
United States court of appeals for the
circuit in which the party resides or
has the party’s principal place of business as provided in § 13.235 of this part.
Neither an initial decision or an order
issued by an administrative law judge
that has not been appealed to the FAA
decisionmaker, nor an order compromising a civil penalty action, may be
appealed under any of those sections.
(n) Compromise. The FAA may compromise the amount of any civil penalty imposed under this section, under
49 U.S.C. 5123(e), 46031(f), 46303(b), or
46318 at any time before referring the
action to the United States Attorney
General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, for collection.
(1) An agency attorney may compromise any civil penalty action where
a person charged with a violation
agrees to pay a civil penalty and the
FAA agrees not to make a finding of
violation. Under such agreement, a
compromise order is issued following
the payment of the agreed-on amount
or the signing of a promissory note.
The compromise order states the following:
(i) The person has paid a civil penalty
or has signed a promissory note providing for installment payments.
(ii) The FAA makes no finding of a
violation.
(iii) The compromise order shall not
be used as evidence of a prior violation
in any subsequent civil penalty proceeding or certificate action proceeding.
(2) An agency attorney may compromise the amount of a civil penalty
proposed in a notice, assessed in an
order, or imposed in a compromise
order.
[Amdt. 13–32; 70 FR 1813, Jan. 11, 2005; 70 FR
2925, Jan. 18, 2005, as amended at 70 FR 8238,
Feb. 18, 2005; 71 FR 70464, Dec. 5, 2006]
§ 13.17 Seizure of aircraft.
(a) Under section 903 of the Federal
Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1473), a
State or Federal law enforcement officer, or a Federal Aviation Administration safety inspector, authorized in an
order of seizure issued by the Regional
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Administrator of the region, or by the
Chief Counsel, may summarily seize an
aircraft that is involved in a violation
for which a civil penalty may be imposed on its owner or operator.
(b) Each person seizing an aircraft
under this section shall place it in the
nearest available and adequate public
storage facility in the judicial district
in which it was seized.
(c) The Regional Administrator or
Chief Counsel, without delay, sends a
written notice and a copy of this section, to the registered owner of the
seized aircraft, and to each other persons shown by FAA records to have an
interest in it, stating the—
(1) Time, date, and place of seizure;
(2) Name and address of the custodian
of the aircraft;
(3) Reasons for the seizure, including
the violations believed, or judicially
determined, to have been committed;
and
(4) Amount that may be tendered
as—
(i) A compromise of a civil penalty
for the alleged violation; or
(ii) Payment for a civil penalty imposed by a Federal court for a proven
violation.
(d) The Chief Counsel, or the Regional Counsel or Assistant Chief
Counsel for the region or area in which
an aircraft is seized under this section,
immediately sends a report to the
United States District Attorney for the
judicial district in which it was seized,
requesting the District Attorney to institute proceedings to enforce a lien
against the aircraft.
(e) The Regional Administrator or
Chief Counsel directs the release of a
seized aircraft whenever—
(1) The alleged violator pays a civil
penalty or an amount agreed upon in
compromise, and the costs of seizing,
storing, and maintaining the aircraft;
(2) The aircraft is seized under an
order of a Federal Court in proceedings
in rem to enforce a lien against the aircraft, or the United States District Attorney for the judicial district concerned notifies the FAA that the District Attorney refuses to institute
those proceedings; or
(3) A bond in the amount and with
the sureties prescribed by the Chief
Counsel, the Regional Counsel, or the
Assistant Chief Counsel is deposited,
conditioned on payment of the penalty,
or the compromise amount, and the
costs of seizing, storing, and maintaining the aircraft.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46865, Sept. 4,
1997]
§ 13.18 Civil penalties: Administrative
assessment against an individual
acting as a pilot, flight engineer,
mechanic, or repairman.
(a) General. (1) This section applies to
each action in which the FAA seeks to
assess a civil penalty by administrative
procedures against an individual acting
as a pilot, flight engineer, mechanic, or
repairman, under 49 U.S.C. 46301(d)(5),
for a violation listed in 49 U.S.C.
46301(d)(2). This section does not apply
to a civil penalty assessed for violation
of 49 U.S.C. chapter 51, or a rule, regulation, or order issued thereunder.
(2) District court jurisdiction. Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph
(a)(1) of this section, the United States
district courts have exclusive jurisdiction of any civil penalty action involving an individual acting as a pilot,
flight engineer, mechanic, or repairman for violations described in that
paragraph, under 49 U.S.C. 46301(d)(4),
if:
(i) The amount in controversy is
more than $50,000.
(ii) The action involves an aircraft
subject to a lien that has been seized
by the Government; or
(iii) Another action has been brought
for an injunction based on the same
violation.
(b) Definitions. As used in this part,
the following definitions apply:
(1) Flight engineer means an individual who holds a flight engineer certificate issued under part 63 of this
chapter.
(2) Individual acting as a pilot, flight
engineer, mechanic, or repairman means
an individual acting in such capacity,
whether or not that individual holds
the
respective
airman
certificate
issued by the FAA.
(3) Mechanic means an individual who
holds a mechanic certificate issued
under part 65 of this chapter.
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(4) Pilot means an individual who
holds a pilot certificate issued under
part 61 of this chapter.
(5) Repairman means an individual
who holds a repairman certificate
issued under part 65 of this chapter.
(c) Delegation of authority. (1) The authority of the Administrator under 49
U.S.C. 46301(d)(5), to initiate and assess
civil penalties is delegated to the Chief
Counsel; the Deputy Chief Counsel for
Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief
Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle
East Area Office; the Regional Counsel;
the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and
the Technical Center Counsel.
(2) The authority of the Administrator to refer cases to the Attorney
General of the United States, or the
delegate of the Attorney General, for
collection of civil penalties is delegated to the Chief Counsel; the Deputy
Chief Counsel for Operations; the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement;
Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office; the
Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical
Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(3) The authority of the Administrator to compromise the amount of a
civil penalty under 49 U.S.C. 46301(f) is
delegated to the Chief Counsel; the
Deputy Chief Counsel for Operations;
the Assistant Chief Counsel for Enforcement; Assistant Chief Counsel,
Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area
Office; the Regional Counsel; the Aeronautical Center Counsel; and the Technical Center Counsel.
(d) Notice of proposed assessment. A
civil penalty action is initiated by
sending a notice of proposed assessment to the individual charged with a
violation specified in paragraph (a) of
this section. The notice of proposed assessment contains a statement of the
charges and the amount of the proposed civil penalty. The individual
charged with a violation may do the
following:
(1) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-on
amount, in which case either an order
of assessment or a compromise order
will be issued in that amount.
(2) Answer the charges in writing.
(3) Submit a written request for an
informal conference to discuss the
matter with an agency attorney and
submit relevant information or documents.
(4) Request that an order be issued in
accordance with the notice of proposed
assessment so that the individual
charged may appeal to the National
Transportation Safety Board.
(e) Failure to respond to notice of proposed assessment. An order of assessment may be issued if the individual
charged with a violation fails to respond to the notice of proposed assessment within 15 days after receipt of
that notice.
(f) Order of assessment. An order of assessment, which assesses a civil penalty, may be issued for a violation described in paragraph (a) of this section
after notice and an opportunity to answer any charges and be heard as to
why such order should not be issued.
(g) Appeal. Any individual who receives an order of assessment issued
under this section may appeal the
order to the National Transportation
Safety Board. The appeal stays the effectiveness of the Administrator’s
order.
(h) Exhaustion of administrative remedies. An individual substantially affected by an order of the NTSB or the
Administrator may petition for review
only of a final decision and order of the
National Transportation Safety Board
to a court of appeals of the United
States for the circuit in which the individual charged resides or has his or her
principal place of business or the
United States Court of Appeals for the
District of Columbia Circuit, under 49
U.S.C. 46110 and 46301(d)(6). Neither an
order of assessment that has not been
appealed to the National Transportation Board, nor an order compromising a civil penalty action, may be
appealed under those sections.
(i) Compromise. The FAA may compromise any civil penalty action initiated under this section, in accordance
with 49 U.S.C. 46301(f).
(1) An agency attorney may compromise any civil penalty action where
an individual charged with a violation
agrees to pay a civil penalty and the
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FAA agrees to make no finding of violation. Under such agreement, a compromise order is issued following the
payment of the agreed-on amount or
the signing of a promissory note. The
compromise order states the following:
(i) The individual has paid a civil
penalty or has signed a promissory
note providing for installment payments;
(ii) The FAA makes no finding of violation; and
(iii) The compromise order will not
be used as evidence of a prior violation
in any subsequent civil penalty proceeding or certificate action proceeding.
(2) An agency attorney may compromise the amount of any civil penalty proposed or assessed in an order.
(j) Payment. (1) An individual must
pay a civil penalty by:
(i) Sending a certified check or
money order, payable to the Federal
Aviation Administration, to the FAA
office identified in the order of assessment, or
(ii) Making an electronic funds transfer according to the directions specified in the order of assessment.
(2) The civil penalty must be paid
within 30 days after service of the order
of assessment, unless an appeal is filed
with the National Transportation Safety Board. The civil penalty must be
paid within 30 days after a final order
of the Board or the Court of Appeals affirms the order of assessment in whole
or in part.
(k) Collection of civil penalties. If an
individual does not pay a civil penalty
imposed by an order of assessment or
other final order, the Administrator
may take action provided under the
law to collect the penalty.
that renders the aircraft ineligible for
registration.
(b) If, as a result of such a reinspection re-examination, or other investigation made by the Administrator
under section 609 of the FA Act, the
Administrator determines that the
public interest and safety in air commerce requires it, the Administrator
may issue an order amending, suspending, or revoking, all or part of any
type certificate, production certificate,
airworthiness certificate, airman certificate, air carrier operating certificate, air navigation facility certificate,
or air agency certificate. This authority may be exercised for remedial purposes in cases involving the Hazardous
Materials
Transportation
Act
(49
U.S.C. 1801 et seq.) or regulations issued
under that Act. This authority is also
exercised by the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement,
the Assistant Chief Counsel, Regulations, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, and the
Aeronautical Center Counsel. If the Administrator finds that any aircraft registered under Part 47 of this chapter is
ineligible for registration, the Administrator issues an order suspending or
revoking that certificate. This authority as to aircraft found ineligible for
registration is also exercised by each
Regional Counsel, the Aeronautical
Center Counsel, and the Assistant
Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office.
(c) Before issuing an order under
paragraph (b) of this section, the Chief
Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel,
Enforcement, the Assistant Chief
Counsel, Regulations, the Assistant
Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional
Counsel, or the Aeronautical Center
Counsel advises the certificate holder
of the charges or other reasons upon
which the Administrator bases the proposed action and, except in an emergency, allows the holder to answer any
charges and to be heard as to why the
certificate should not be amended, suspended, or revoked. The holder may, by
checking the appropriate box on the
form that is sent to the holder with the
notice of proposed certificate action,
elect to—
[Amdt. 13–32; 69 FR 59497, Oct. 4, 2004]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.19
Certificate action.
(a) Under section 609 of the Federal
Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1429), the
Administrator may reinspect any civil
aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, air navigation facility, or air
agency, and may re-examine any civil
airman. Under section 501(e) of the FA
Act, any Certificate of Aircraft Registration may be suspended or revoked
by the Administrator for any cause
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.20
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(1) Admit the charges and surrender
his or her certificate;
(2) Answer the charges in writing;
(3) Request that an order be issued in
accordance with the notice of proposed
certificate action so that the certificate holder may appeal to the National
Transportation Safety Board, if the
charges concerning a matter under
Title VI of the FA Act;
(4) Request an opportunity to be
heard in an informal conference with
the FAA counsel; or
(5) Request a hearing in accordance
with Subpart D of this part if the
charges concern a matter under Title V
of the FA Act.
the advice. This paragraph does not
apply to any person whose Certificate
of Aircraft Registration is affected by
an order issued under this section.
[Doc. No. 13–14, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–15, 45 FR 20773, Mar. 31,
1980; Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept. 25, 1989;
Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46865, Sept. 4, 1997; 75 FR
41979, July 20, 2010]
§ 13.20 Orders of compliance, cease
and desist orders, orders of denial,
and other orders.
(a) This section applies to orders of
compliance, cease and desist orders, orders of denial, and other orders issued
by the Administrator to carry out the
provisions of the Federal Aviation Act
of 1958, as amended, the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act, the Airport
and Airway Development Act of 1970,
and the Airport and Airway Improvement Act of 1982, or the Airport and
Airway Improvement Act of 1982 as
amended by the Airport and Airway
Safety and Capacity Expansion Act of
1987. This section does not apply to orders issued pursuant to section 602 or
section 609 of the Federal Aviation Act
of 1958, as amended.
(b) Unless the Administrator determines that an emergency exists and
safety in air commerce requires the
immediate issuance of an order under
this section, the person subject to the
order shall be provided with notice
prior to issuance.
(c) Within 30 days after service of the
notice, the person subject to the order
may’’
(1) Request an opportunity to be
heard in an informal conference with
an FAA attorney;
(2) Reply in writing; or
(3) Request a hearing in accordance
with subpart D of this part.
(d) If an informal conference is held
or a reply is filed, as to any charges
not withdrawn or not subject to a consent order, the person subject to the
order may, within 10 days after receipt
of notice that the remaining charges
are not withdrawn, request a hearing
in accordance with subpart D of this
part.
(e) Failure to request a hearing within the period provided in paragraphs (c)
or (d) of this section—
Except as provided in § 13.35(b), unless
the certificate holder returns the form
and, where required, an answer or motion, with a postmark of not later than
15 days after the date of receipt of the
notice, the order of the Administrator
is issued as proposed. If the certificate
holder has requested an informal conference with the FAA counsel and the
charges concern a matter under Title V
of the FA Act, the holder may after
that conference also request a formal
hearing in writing with a postmark of
not later than 10 days after the close of
the conference. After considering any
information submitted by the certificate holder, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel for Regulations
and Enforcement, the Regional Counsel
concerned, or the Aeronautical Center
Counsel (as to matters under Title V of
the FA Act) issues the order of the Administrator, except that if the holder
has made a valid request for a formal
hearing on a matter under Title V of
the FA Act initially or after an informal conference, Subpart D of this part
governs further proceedings.
(d) Any person whose certificate is
affected by an order issued under this
section may appeal to the National
Transportation Safety Board. If the
certificate holder files an appeal with
the Board, the Administrator’s order is
stayed unless the Administrator advises the Board that an emergency exists and safety in air commerce requires that the order become effective
immediately. If the Board is so advised,
the order remains effective and the
Board shall finally dispose of the appeal within 60 days after the date of
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§ 13.21
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(1) Constitutes a waiver of the right
to appeal and the right to a hearing,
and
(2) Authorizes the official who issued
the notice to find the facts to be as alleged in the notice, or as modified as
the official may determine necessary
based on any written response, and to
issue an appropriate order, without further notice or proceedings.
(f) If a hearing is requested in accordance with paragraph (c) or (d) of this
section, the procedure of Subpart D of
this part applies. At the close of the
hearing, the Hearing Officer, on the
record or subsequently in writing, shall
set forth findings and conclusions and
the reasons therefor, and either—
(1) Dismiss the notice; or
(2) Issue an order.
(g) Any party to the hearing may appeal from the order of the Hearing Officer by filing a notice of appeal with the
Administrator within 20 days after the
date of issuance of the order.
(h) If a notice of appeal is not filed
from the order issued by a Hearing Officer, such order is the final agency
order.
(i) Any person filing an appeal authorized by paragraph (g) of this section shall file an appeal brief with the
Administrator within 40 days after the
date of issuance of the order, and serve
a copy on the other party. A reply brief
must be filed within 20 days after service of the appeal brief and a copy
served on the appellant.
(j) On appeal the Administrator reviews the available record of the proceeding, and issues an order dismissing,
reversing, modifying or affirming the
order. The Administrator’s order includes the reasons for the Administrator’s action.
(k) For good cause shown, requests
for extensions of time to file any document under this section may be granted by—
(1) The official who issued the order,
if the request is filed prior to the designation of a Hearing Officer; or
(2) The Hearing Officer, if the request
is filed prior to the filing of a notice of
appeal; or
(3) The Administrator, if the request
is filed after the filing of a notice of appeal.
(l) Except in the case of an appeal
from the decision of a Hearing Officer,
the authority of the Administrator
under this section is also exercised by
the Chief Counsel, Deputy Chief Counsel, each Assistant Chief Counsel, each
Regional Counsel, and the Aeronautical Center Counsel (as to matters
under Title V of the Federal Aviation
Act of 1958).
(m) Filing and service of documents
under this section shall be accomplished in accordance with § 13.43; and
the periods of time specified in this
section shall be computed in accordance with § 13.44.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–17, 53 FR 33783, Aug. 31,
1988; Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept. 25, 1989;
Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46865, Sept. 4, 1997; Amdt.
13–36, 79 FR 46967, Aug. 12, 2014]
§ 13.21 Military personnel.
If a report made under this part indicates that, while performing official
duties, a member of the Armed Forces,
or a civilian employee of the Department of Defense who is subject to the
Uniform Code of Military Justice (10
U.S.C. Ch. 47), has violated the Federal
Aviation Act of 1958, or a regulation or
order issued under it, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel,
Regulations, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East
Area Office, each Regional Counsel,
and the Aeronautical Center Counsel
send a copy of the report to the appropriate military authority for such disciplinary action as that authority considers appropriate and a report to the
Administrator thereon.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4,
1997]
§ 13.23 Criminal penalties.
(a) Sections 902 and 1203 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49 U.S.C. 1472
and 1523), provide criminal penalties
for any person who knowingly and willfully violates specified provisions of
that Act, or any regulation or order
issued under those provisions. Section
110(b) of the Hazardous Materials
Transportation Act (49 U.S.C. 1809(b))
provides for a criminal penalty of a
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.27
fine of not more than $25,000, imprisonment for not more than five years, or
both, for any person who willfully violates a provision of that Act or a regulation or order issued under it.
(b) If an inspector or other employee
of the FAA becomes aware of a possible
violation of any criminal provision of
the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (except a violation of section 902 (i)
through (m) which is reported directly
to the Federal Bureau of Investigation), or of the Hazardous Materials
Transportation Act, relating to the
transportation or shipment by air of
hazardous materials, he or she shall report it to the Office of the Chief Counsel or the Regional Counsel or Assistant Chief Counsel for the region or area
concerned. If appropriate, that office
refers the report to the Department of
Justice for criminal prosecution of the
offender. If such an inspector or other
employee becomes aware of a possible
violation of a Federal statute that is
within the investigatory jurisdiction of
another Federal agency, he or she shall
immediately report it to that agency
according to standard FAA practices.
tion in the appropriate United States
District Court for such relief as is necessary or appropriate, including mandatory or prohibitive injunctive relief,
interim equitable relief, and punitive
damages, as provided by section 1007 of
the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49
U.S.C. 1487) and section 111(a) of the
Hazardous Materials Transportation
Act (49 U.S.C. 1810).
(b) Whenever it is determined that
there is substantial likelihood that
death, serious illness, or severe personal injury, will result from the transportation by air of a particular hazardous material before an order of compliance proceeding, or other administrative hearing or formal proceeding to
abate the risk of the harm can be completed, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant
Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Regulations, the
Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each
Regional Counsel, and the Aeronautical Center Counsel may bring, or
request the United States Attorney
General to bring, an action in the appropriate United States District Court
for an order suspending or restricting
the transportation by air of the hazardous material or for such other order
as is necessary to eliminate or ameliorate the imminent hazard, as provided
by section 111(b) of the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act (49 U.S.C.
1810).
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4,
1997]
§ 13.25 Injunctions.
(a) Whenever it is determined that a
person has engaged, or is about to engage, in any act or practice constituting a violation of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, or any regulation or
order issued under it for which the
FAA exercises enforcement responsibility, or, with respect to the transportation or shipment by air of any hazardous materials, in any act or practice constituting a violation of the
Hazardous Materials Transportation
Act, or any regulation or order issued
under it for which the FAA exercises
enforcement responsibility, the Chief
Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel,
Enforcement, the Assistant Chief
Counsel, Regulations, the Assistant
Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office, each Regional
Counsel, and the Aeronautical Center
Counsel may request the United States
Attorney General, or the delegate of
the Attorney General, to bring an ac-
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4,
1997]
§ 13.27 Final order of Hearing Officer
in certificate of aircraft registration
proceedings.
(a) If, in proceedings under section
501(b) of the Federal Aviation Act of
1958 (49 U.S.C. 1401), the Hearing Officer
determines that the aircraft is ineligible for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration, the Hearing Officer shall suspend or revoke the respondent’s certificate, as proposed in the notice of proposed certificate action.
(b) If the final order of the Hearing
Officer makes a decision on the merits,
it shall contain a statement of the
findings and conclusions of law on all
material issues of fact and law. If the
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§ 13.29
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Hearing Officer finds that the allegations of the notice have been proven,
but that no sanction is required, the
Hearing Officer shall make appropriate
findings and issue an order terminating
the notice. If the Hearing Officer finds
that the allegations of the notice have
not been proven, the Hearing Officer
shall issue an order dismissing the notice. If the Hearing Officer finds it to
be equitable and in the public interest,
the Hearing Officer shall issue an order
terminating the proceeding upon payment by the respondent of a civil penalty in an amount agreed upon by the
parties.
(c) If the order is issued in writing, it
shall be served upon the parties.
contains a statement of the charges
and the amount of the proposed civil
penalty. Not later than 30 days after
receipt of the notice of violation, the
person charged with a violation shall:
(1) Submit the amount of the proposed civil penalty or an agreed-upon
amount, in which case either an order
assessing a civil penalty or a compromise order shall be issued in that
amount; or
(2) Submit to the agency attorney
identified in the material accompanying the notice any of the following:
(i) Written information, including
documents and witness statements,
demonstrating that a violation of the
regulations did not occur or that a penalty or the penalty amount is not warranted by the circumstances; or
(ii) A written request to reduce the
proposed civil penalty, the amount of
reduction, and the reasons and any
documents supporting a reduction of
the proposed civil penalty, including
records indicating a financial inability
to pay or records showing that payment of the proposed civil penalty
would prevent the person from continuing in business; or
(iii) A written request for an informal conference to discuss the matter
with an agency attorney and submit
relevant information or documents; or
(3) Request a hearing in which case a
complaint shall be filed with the hearing docket clerk.
(c) Final notice of violation and civil
penalty assessment order. A final notice
of violation and civil penalty assessment order (‘‘final notice and order’’)
may be issued after participation in
any informal proceedings as provided
in paragraph (b)(2) of this section, or
after failure of the respondent to respond in a timely manner to a notice of
violation. A final notice and order will
be sent to the individual charged with
a violation. The final notice and order
will contain a statement of the charges
and the amount of the proposed civil
penalty and, as a result of information
submitted to the agency attorney during any informal procedures, may reflect a modified allegation or proposed
civil penalty.
A final notice and order may be
issued—
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 13–14, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–15, 45 FR 20773, Mar. 31,
1980; Amdt. 13–34, 75 FR 41979, July 20, 2010]
§ 13.29 Civil penalties: Streamlined enforcement procedures for certain
security violations.
This section may be used, at the
agency’s discretion, in enforcement actions involving individuals presenting
dangerous or deadly weapons for
screening at airports or in checked
baggage where the amount of the proposed civil penalty is less than $5,000.
In these cases, sections 13.16(a),
13.16(c), and 13.16 (f) through (l) of this
chapter are used, as well as paragraphs
(a) through (d) of this section:
(a) Delegation of authority. The authority of the Administrator, under 49
U.S.C. 46301, to initiate the assessment
of civil penalties for a violation of 49
U.S.C. Subtitle VII, or a rule, regulation, or order issued thereunder, is delegated to the regional Civil Aviation
Security Division Manager and the regional Civil Aviation Security Deputy
Division Manager for the purpose of
issuing notices of violation in cases involving violations of 49 U.S.C. Subtitle
VII and the FAA’s regulations by individuals presenting dangerous or deadly
weapons for screening at airport checkpoints or in checked baggage. This authority may not be delegated below the
level of the regional Civil Aviation Security Deputy Division Manager.
(b) Notice of violation. A civil penalty
action is initiated by sending a notice
of violation to the person charged with
the violation. The notice of violation
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.35
(1) If the person charged with a violation fails to respond to the notice of
violation within 30 days after receipt of
that notice; or
(2) If the parties participated in any
informal procedures under paragraph
(b)(2) of this section and the parties
have not agreed to compromise the action or the agency attorney has not
agreed to withdraw the notice of violation.
(d) Order assessing civil penalty. An
order assessing civil penalty may be
issued after notice and opportunity for
a hearing. A person charged with a violation may be subject to an order assessing civil penalty in the following
circumstances:
(1) An order assessing civil penalty
may be issued if a person charged with
a violation submits, or agrees to submit, the amount of civil penalty proposed in the notice of violation.
(2) An order assessing civil penalty
may be issued if a person charged with
a violation submits, or agrees to submit, an agreed-upon amount of civil
penalty that is not reflected in either
the notice of violation or the final notice and order.
(3) The final notice and order becomes (and contains a statement so indicating) an order assessing a civil penalty when the person charged with a
violation submits the amount of the
proposed civil penalty that is reflected
in the final notice and order.
(4) The final notice and order becomes (and contains a statement so indicating) an order assessing a civil penalty 16 days after receipt of the final
notice and order, unless not later than
15 days after receipt of the final notice
and order, the person charged with a
violation does one of the following—
(i) Submits an agreed-upon amount
of civil penalty that is not reflected in
the final notice and order, in which
case an order assessing civil penalty or
a compromise order shall be issued in
that amount; or
(ii) Requests a hearing in which case
a complaint shall be filed with the
hearing docket clerk.
(5) Unless an appeal is filed with the
FAA decisionmaker in a timely manner, an initial decision or order of an
administrative law judge shall be considered an order assessing civil penalty
if an administrative law judge finds
that an alleged violation occurred and
determines that a civil penalty, in an
amount found to be appropriate by the
administrative law judge, is warranted.
(6) Unless a petition for review is
filed with a U.S. Court of Appeals in a
timely manner, a final decision and
order of the Administrator shall be
considered an order assessing civil penalty if the FAA decisionmaker finds
that an alleged violation occurred and
a civil penalty is warranted.
[Doc. No. 27873, 61 FR 44155, Aug. 28, 1996]
Subpart D—Rules of Practice for
FAA Hearings
§ 13.31 Applicability.
This subpart applies to proceedings
in which a hearing has been requested
in
accordance
with
§§ 13.19(c)(5),
13.20(c), 13.20(d), 13.75(a)(2), 13.75(b), or
13.81(e).
[Amdt. 13–18, 53 FR 34655, Sept. 7, 1988]
§ 13.33 Appearances.
Any party to a proceeding under this
subpart may appear and be heard in
person or by attorney.
§ 13.35 Request for hearing.
(a) A request for hearing must be
made in writing and filed in the Hearing Docket.
(1) If delivery is in person, or by expedited courier service. A person delivering
the request for hearing in person or
sending the request for hearing by
commercial expedited courier (for example, Federal Express or United Parcel Service), should use the following
address: Federal Aviation Administration, 600 Independence Avenue, SW.,
Wilbur Wright Building—Suite 2W1000,
Washington, DC 20591; Attention: Hearing Docket Clerk, AGC–430.
(2) If delivery is by U.S. Mail: If the request for hearing is sent by U.S. Mail,
then it should be addressed as follows:
Federal Aviation Administration, 800
Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591: Attention: Hearing
Docket Clerk, AGC–430, Wilbur Wright
Building—Suite 2W1000.
(b) The request for hearing must describe the action proposed by the FAA,
and must contain a statement that a
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§ 13.37
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
hearing is requested. A copy of the request for hearing and a copy of the answer required by paragraph (c) of this
section must be served on the official
who issued the notice of proposed action.
(c) An answer to the notice of proposed action must be filed with the request for hearing. All allegations in the
notice not specifically denied in the
answer are deemed admitted.
(d) Within 15 days after service of the
copy of the request for hearing, the official who issued the notice of proposed
action forwards a copy of that notice,
which serves as the complaint, to the
Hearing Docket.
to the proceedings by the person filing
them.
(b) Service may be made by personal
delivery or by mail.
(c) A certificate of service shall accompany all documents when they are
tendered for filing and shall consist of
a certificate of personal delivery or a
certificate of mailing, executed by the
person making the personal delivery or
mailing the document.
(d) Whenever proof of service by mail
is made, the date of mailing or the date
as shown on the postmark shall be the
date of service, and where personal
service is made, the date of personal
delivery shall be the date of service.
(e) The date of filing is the date the
document is actually received.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; 71 FR 70464, Dec. 5, 2006]
§ 13.37
§ 13.44 Computation of time and extension of time.
Hearing Officer’s powers.
Any Hearing Officer may—
(a) Give notice concerning, and hold,
prehearing conferences and hearings;
(b) Administrator oaths and affirmations;
(c) Examine witnesses;
(d) Adopt procedures for the submission of evidence in written form;
(e) Issue subpoenas and take depositions or cause them to be taken;
(f) Rule on offers of proof;
(g) Receive evidence;
(h) Regulate the course of the hearing;
(i) Hold conferences, before and during the hearing, to settle and simplify
issues by consent of the parties;
(j) Dispose of procedural requests and
similar matters; and
(k) Issue decisions, make findings of
fact, make assessments, and issue orders, as appropriate.
(a) In computing any period of time
prescribed or allowed by this subpart,
the date of the act, event, default, notice or order after which the designated
period of time begins to run is not to
be included in the computation. The
last day of the period so computed is to
be included unless it is a Saturday,
Sunday, or legal holiday for the FAA,
in which event the period runs until
the end of the next day which is neither a Saturday, Sunday nor a legal
holiday.
(b) Upon written request filed with
the Hearing Docket and served upon all
parties, and for good cause shown, a
Hearing Officer may grant an extension
of time to file any documents specified
in this subpart.
§ 13.45 Amendment of notice and answer.
At any time more than 10 days before
the date of hearing, any party may
amend his or her notice, answer, or
other pleading, by filing the amendment with the Hearing Officer and
serving a copy of it on each other
party. After that time, amendments
may be allowed only in the discretion
of the Hearing Officer. If an amendment to an initial pleading has been allowed, the Hearing Officer shall allow
the other parties a reasonable opportunity to answer.
§ 13.39 Disqualification of Hearing Officer.
If disqualified for any reason, the
Hearing Officer shall withdraw from
the case.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.41
[Reserved]
§ 13.43 Service and filing of pleadings,
motions, and documents.
(a) Copies of all pleadings, motions,
and documents filed with the Hearing
Docket must be served upon all parties
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§ 13.57
§ 13.47 Withdrawal of notice or request
for hearing.
At any time before the hearing, the
FAA counsel may withdraw the notice
of proposed action, and the party requesting the hearing may withdraw the
request for hearing.
Any objection that is not so raised is
considered to be waived.
(h) Answers to motions. Any party
may file an answer to any motion
under this section within 5 days after
service of the motion.
§ 13.49 Motions.
(a) Motion to dismiss for insufficiency.
A respondent who requests a formal
hearing may, in place of an answer, file
a motion to dismiss for failure of the
allegations in the notice of proposed
action to state a violation of the FA
Act or of this chapter or to show lack
of qualification of the respondent. If
the Hearing Officer denies the motion,
the respondent shall file an answer
within 10 days.
(b) [Reserved]
(c) Motion for more definite statement.
The certificate holder may, in place of
an answer, file a motion that the allegations in the notice be made more
definite and certain. If the Hearing Officer grants the motion, the FAA counsel shall comply within 10 days after
the date it is granted. If the Hearing
Officer denies the motion the certificate holder shall file an answer within
10 days after the date it is denied.
(d) Motion for judgment on the pleadings. After the pleadings are closed, either party may move for a judgment on
the pleadings.
(e) Motion to strike. Upon motion of
either party, the Hearing Officer may
order stricken, from any pleadings, any
insufficient allegation or defense, or
any immaterial, impertinent, or scandalous matter.
(f) Motion for production of documents.
Upon motion of any party showing
good cause, the Hearing Officer may, in
the manner provided by Rule 34, Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, order any
party to produce any designated document, paper, book, account, letter,
photograph, object, or other tangible
thing, that is not privileged, that constitutes or contains evidence relevant
to the subject matter of the hearings,
and that is in the party’s possession,
custody, or control.
(g) Consolidation of motions. A party
who makes a motion under this section
shall join with it all other motions
that are then available to the party.
Any person may move for leave to intervene in a proceeding and may become a party thereto, if the Hearing
Officer, after the case is sent to the
Hearing Officer for hearing, finds that
the person may be bound by the order
to be issued in the proceedings or has a
property or financial interest that may
not be adequately represented by existing parties, and that the intervention
will not unduly broaden the issues or
delay the proceedings. Except for good
cause shown, a motion for leave to intervene may not be considered if it is
filed less than 10 days before the hearing.
§ 13.51
§ 13.53
Intervention.
Depositions.
After the respondent has filed a request for hearing and an answer, either
party may take testimony by deposition in accordance with section 1004 of
the Federal Aviation Act of 1958 (49
U.S.C. 1484) or Rule 26, Federal Rules of
Civil Procedure.
§ 13.55
Notice of hearing.
The Hearing Officer shall set a reasonable date, time, and place for the
hearing, and shall give the parties adequate notice thereof and of the nature
of the hearing. Due regard shall be
given to the convenience of the parties
with respect to the place of the hearing.
§ 13.57
Subpoenas and witness fees.
(a) The Hearing Officer to whom a
case is assigned may, upon application
by any party to the proceeding, issue
subpoenas requiring the attendance of
witnesses or the production of documentary or tangible evidence at a hearing or for the purpose of taking depositions. However, the application for producing evidence must show its general
relevance and reasonable scope. This
paragraph does not apply to the attendance of FAA employees or to the
production of documentary evidence in
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§ 13.59
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
the custody of such an employee at a
hearing.
(b) A person who applies for the production of a document in the custody
of an FAA employee must follow the
procedure in § 13.49(f). A person who applies for the attendance of an FAA employee must send the application, in
writing, to the Hearing Officer setting
forth the need for that employee’s attendance.
(c) A witness in a proceeding under
this subpart is entitled to the same
fees and mileage as is paid to a witness
in a court of the United States under
comparable circumstances. The party
at whose instance the witness is subpoenaed or appears shall pay the witness fees.
(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of
paragraph (c) of this section, the FAA
pays the witness fees and mileage if the
Hearing Officer who issued the subpoena determines, on the basis of a
written request and good cause shown,
that—
(1) The presence of the witness will
materially advance the proceeding; and
(2) The party at whose instance the
witness is subpoenaed would suffer a
serious hardship if required to pay the
witness fees and mileage.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.59
§ 13.61
Argument and submittals.
The Hearing Officer shall give the
parties
adequate
opportunity
to
present arguments in support of motions, objections, and the final order.
The Hearing Officer may determine
whether arguments are to be oral or
written. At the end of the hearing the
Hearing Officer may, in the discretion
of the Hearing Officer, allow each party
to submit written proposed findings
and conclusions and supporting reasons
for them.
§ 13.63
Record.
The testimony and exhibits presented
at a hearing, together with all papers,
requests, and rulings filed in the proceedings are the exclusive basis for the
issuance of an order. Either party may
obtain a transcript from the official reporter upon payment of the fees fixed
therefor.
Subpart E—Orders of Compliance
Under the Hazardous Materials Transportation Act
§ 13.71
Applicability.
Whenever the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement,
the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe,
Africa, and Middle East Area Office, or
a Regional Counsel has reason to believe that a person is engaging in the
transportation or shipment by air of
hazardous materials in violation of the
Hazardous Materials Transportation
Act, or any regulation or order issued
under it for which the FAA exercises
enforcement responsibility, and the
circumstances do not require the
issuance of an order of immediate compliance, he may conduct proceedings
pursuant to section 109 of that Act (49
U.S.C. 1808) to determine the nature
and extent of the violation, and may
thereafter issue an order directing
compliance.
Evidence.
(a) Each party to a hearing may
present the party’s case or defense by
oral or documentary evidence, submit
evidence in rebuttal, and conduct such
cross-examination as may be needed
for a full disclosure of the facts.
(b) Except with respect to affirmative defenses and orders of denial, the
burden of proof is upon the FAA counsel.
(c) The Hearing Officer may order information contained in any report or
document filed or in any testimony
given pursuant to this subpart withheld from public disclosure when, in
the judgment of the Hearing Officer,
disclosure would adversely affect the
interests of any person and is not required in the public interest or is not
otherwise required by statute to be
made available to the public. Any person may make written objection to the
public disclosure of such information,
stating the ground for such objection.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4,
1997]
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§ 13.81
(1) A proposed order of compliance;
(2) An admission of all jurisdictional
facts;
(3) An express waiver of right to further procedural steps and of all rights
to judicial review;
(4) An incorporation by reference of
the notice and an acknowledgement
that the notice may be used to construe the terms of the order of compliance; and
(5) If the issuance of a consent order
has been agreed upon after the filing of
a request for hearing in accordance
with subpart D of this part, the proposal for a consent order shall include
a request to be filed with the Hearing
Officer withdrawing the request for a
hearing and requesting that the case be
dismissed.
§ 13.73 Notice of proposed order of
compliance.
A compliance order proceeding commences when the Chief Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement,
the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe,
Africa, and Middle East Area Office, or
a Regional Counsel sends the alleged
violator a notice of proposed order of
compliance advising the alleged violator of the charges and setting forth the
remedial action sought in the form of a
proposed order of compliance.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4,
1997]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.75 Reply or request for hearing.
(a) Within 30 days after service upon
the alleged violator of a notice of proposed order of compliance, the alleged
violator may—
(1) File a reply in writing with the official who issued the notice; or
(2) Request a hearing in accordance
with subpart D of this part.
(b) If a reply is filed, as to any
charges not dismissed or not subject to
a consent order of compliance, the alleged violator may, within 10 days
after receipt of notice that the remaining charges are not dismissed, request
a hearing in accordance with subpart D
of this part.
(c) Failure of the alleged violator to
file a reply or request a hearing within
the period provided in paragraph (a) or
(b) of this section—
(1) Constitutes a waiver of the right
to a hearing and the right to an appeal,
and
(2) Authorizes the official who issued
the notice to find the facts to be as alleged in the notice and to issue an appropriate order directing compliance,
without further notice or proceedings.
§ 13.79 Hearing.
If an alleged violator requests a hearing in accordance with § 13.75, the procedure of subpart D of this part applies.
At the close of the hearing, the Hearing Officer, on the record or subsequently in writing, sets forth the Hearing Officer’s findings and conclusion
and the reasons therefor, and either—
(a) Dismisses the notice of proposed
order of compliance; or
(b) Issues an order of compliance.
§ 13.81 Order of immediate compliance.
(a) Notwithstanding §§ 13.73 through
13.79, the Chief Counsel, the Assistant
Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa,
and Middle East Area Office, or a Regional Counsel may issue an order of
immediate compliance, which is effective upon issuance, if the person who
issues the order finds that—
(1) There is strong probability that a
violation is occurring or is about to
occur;
(2) The violation poses a substantial
risk to health or to safety of life or
property; and
(3) The public interest requires the
avoidance or amelioration of that risk
through immediate compliance and
waiver of the procedures afforded under
§§ 13.73 through 13.79.
(b) An order of immediate compliance is served promptly upon the person against whom the order is issued
§ 13.77 Consent order of compliance.
(a) At any time before the issuance of
an order of compliance, the official
who issued the notice and the alleged
violator may agree to dispose of the
case by the issuance of a consent order
of compliance by the official.
(b) A proposal for a consent order
submitted to the official who issued
the notice under this section must include—
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§ 13.83
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
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by telephone or telegram, and a written statement of the relevant facts and
the legal basis for the order, including
the findings required by paragraph (a)
of this section, is served promptly by
personal service or by mail.
(c) The official who issued the order
of immediate compliance may rescind
or suspend the order if it appears that
the criteria set forth in paragraph (a)
of this section are no longer satisfied,
and, when appropriate, may issue a notice of proposed order of compliance
under § 13.73 in lieu thereof.
(d) If at any time in the course of a
proceeding commenced in accordance
with § 13.73 the criteria set forth in
paragraph (a) of this section are satisfied, the official who issued the notice
may issue an order of immediate compliance, even if the period for filing a
reply or requesting a hearing specified
in § 13.75 has not expired.
(e) Within three days after receipt of
service of an order of immediate compliance, the alleged violator may request a hearing in accordance with
Subpart D of this part and the procedure in that subpart will apply except
that—
(1) The case will be heard within fifteen days after the date of the order of
immediate compliance unless the alleged violator requests a later date;
(2) The order will serve as the complaint; and
(3) The Hearing Officer shall issue his
decision and order dismissing, reversing, modifying, or affirming the order
of immediate compliance on the record
at the close of the hearing.
(f) The filing of a request for hearing
in accordance with paragraph (e) of
this section does not stay the effectiveness of an order of immediate compliance.
(g) At any time after an order of immediate compliance has become effective, the official who issued the order
may request the United States Attorney General, or the delegate of the Attorney General, to bring an action for
appropriate relief in accordance with
§ 13.25.
§ 13.83
Appeal.
(a) Any party to the hearing may appeal from the order of the Hearing Officer by filing a notice of appeal with the
Administrator within 20 days after the
date of issuance of the order.
(b) Any person against whom an
order of immediate compliance has
been issued in accordance with § 13.81
or the official who issued the order of
immediate compliance may appeal
from the order of the Hearing Officer
by filing a notice of appeal with the
Administrator within three days after
the date of issuance of the order by the
Hearing Officer.
(c) Unless the Administrator expressly so provides, the filing of a notice of appeal does not stay the effectiveness of an order of immediate compliance.
(d) If a notice of appeal is not filed
from the order of compliance issued by
a Hearing Officer, such order is the
final agency order of compliance.
(e) Any person filing an appeal authorized by paragraph (a) of this section shall file an appeal brief with the
Administrator within 40 days after the
date of the issuance of the order, and
serve a copy on the other party. Any
reply brief must be filed within 20 days
after service of the appeal brief. A copy
of the reply brief must be served on the
appellant.
(f) Any person filing an appeal authorized by paragraph (b) of this section shall file an appeal brief with the
Administrator with the notice of appeal and serve a copy on the other
party. Any reply brief must be filed
within 3 days after receipt of the appeal brief. A copy of the reply brief
must be served on the appellant.
(g) On appeal the Administrator reviews the available record of the proceeding, and issues an order dismissing,
reversing, modifying or affirming the
order of compliance or the order of immediate compliance. The Administrator’s order includes the reasons for the
action.
(h) In cases involving an order of immediate compliance, the Administrator’s order on appeal is issued within
ten days after the filing of the notice of
appeal.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 13–19, 54 FR 39290, Sept.
25, 1989; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4,
1997]
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§ 13.111
§ 13.85 Filing, service and computation
of time.
Filing and service of documents
under this subpart shall be accomplished in accordance with § 13.43 except service of orders of immediate
compliance under § 13.81(b); and the periods of time specified in this subpart
shall be computed in accordance with
§ 13.44.
§ 13.105
§ 13.87 Extension of time.
(a) The official who issued the notice
of proposed order of compliance, for
good cause shown, may grant an extension of time to file any document specified in this subpart, except documents
to be filed with the Administrator.
(b) Extensions of time to file documents with the Administrator may be
granted by the Administrator upon
written request, served upon all parties, and for good cause shown.
§ 13.107 Designation of additional parties.
(a) The Presiding Officer may designate additional persons as parties to
the investigation, if in the discretion of
the Presiding Officer, it will aid in the
conduct of the investigation.
(b) The Presiding Officer may designate any person as a party to the investigation if that person—
(1) Petitions the Presiding Officer to
participate as a party; and
(2) Is so situated that the disposition
of the investigation may as a practical
matter impair the ability to protect
that person’s interest unless allowed to
participate as a party, and
(3) Is not adequately represented by
existing parties.
Subpart F—Formal Fact-Finding Investigation Under an Order of
Investigation
§ 13.101 Applicability.
(a) This subpart applies to fact-finding investigations in which an order of
investigation has been issued under
§ 13.3(c) or § 13.5(i) of this part.
(b) This subpart does not limit the
authority of duly designated persons to
issue subpoenas, administer oaths, examine witnesses and receive evidence
in any informal investigation as provided for in sections 313 and 1004(a) of
the Federal Aviation Act (49 U.S.C. 1354
and 1484(a)) and section 109(a) of the
Hazardous Materials Transportation
Act (49 U.S.C. 1808(a)).
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Notification.
Any person under investigation and
any person required to testify and
produce documentary or physical evidence during the investigation will be
advised of the purpose of the investigation, and of the place where the investigative proceeding or deposition will
be convened. This may be accomplished
by a notice of investigation or by a
subpoena. A copy of the order of investigation may be sent to such persons,
when appropriate.
§ 13.109
Convening the investigation.
The investigation shall be conducted
at such place or places designated by
the Presiding Officer, and as convenient to the parties involved as expeditious and efficient handling of the investigation permits.
§ 13.111
Subpoenas.
(a) Upon motion of the Presiding Officer, or upon the request of a party to
the investigation, the Presiding Officer
may issue a subpoena directing any
person to appear at a designated time
and place to testify or to produce documentary or physical evidence relating
to any matter under investigation.
(b) Subpoenas shall be served by personal service, or upon an agent designated in writing for the purpose, or
by registered or certified mail addressed to such person or agent. Whenever service is made by registered or
certified mail, the date of mailing shall
§ 13.103 Order of investigation.
The order of investigation—
(a) Defines the scope of the investigation by describing the information
sought in terms of its subject matter
or its relevancy to specified FAA functions;
(b) Sets forth the form of the investigation which may be either by individual deposition or investigative proceeding or both; and
(c) Names the official who is authorized to conduct the investigation and
serve as the Presiding Officer.
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§ 13.113
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be considered as the time when service
is made.
(c) Subpoenas shall extend in jurisdiction throughout the United States
or any territory or possession thereof.
§ 13.119 Rights of persons against selfincrimination.
(a) Whenever a person refuses, on the
basis of a privilege against self-incrimination, to testify or provide other
information during the course of any
investigation conducted under this subpart, the Presiding Officer may, with
the approval of the Attorney General
of the United States, issue an order requiring the person to give testimony or
provide other information. However, no
testimony or other information so
compelled (or any information directly
or indirectly derived from such testimony or other information) may be
used against the person in any criminal
case, except in a prosecution for perjury, giving a false statement, or otherwise failing to comply with the
order.
(b) The Presiding Officer may issue
an order under this section if—
(1) The testimony or other information from the witness may be necessary
to the public interest; and
(2) The witness has refused or is likely to refuse to testify or provide other
information on the basis of a privilege
against self-incrimination.
(c) Immunity provided by this section will not become effective until the
person has refused to testify or provide
other information on the basis of a
privilege against self-incrimination,
and an order under this section has
been issued. An order, however, may be
issued prospectively to become effective in the event of a claim of the
privilege.
§ 13.113 Noncompliance with the investigative process.
If any person fails to comply with the
provisions of this subpart or with any
subpoena or order issued by the Presiding Officer or the designee of the
Presiding Officer, judicial enforcement
may be initiated against that person
under applicable statutes.
§ 13.115
Public proceedings.
(a) All investigative proceedings and
depositions shall be public unless the
Presiding Officer determines that the
public interest requires otherwise.
(b) The Presiding Officer may order
information contained in any report or
document filed or in any testimony
given pursuant to this subpart withheld from public disclosure when, in
the judgment of the Presiding Officer,
disclosure would adversely affect the
interests of any person and is not required in the public interest or is not
otherwise required by statute to be
made available to the public. Any person may make written objection to the
public disclosure of such information,
stating the grounds for such objection.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.117 Conduct of investigative proceeding or deposition.
(a) The Presiding Officer or the designee of the Presiding Officer may
question witnesses.
(b) Any witness may be accompanied
by counsel.
(c) Any party may be accompanied by
counsel and either the party or counsel
may—
(1) Question witnesses, provided the
questions are relevant and material to
the matters under investigation and
would not unduly impede the progress
of the investigation; and
(2) Make objections on the record and
argue the basis for such objections.
(d) Copies of all notices or written
communications sent to a party or witness shall upon request be sent to that
person’s attorney of record.
§ 13.121 Witness fees.
All witnesses appearing shall be compensated at the same rate as a witness
appearing before a United States District Court.
§ 13.123 Submission by party to the investigation.
(a) During an investigation conducted under this subpart, a party may
submit to the Presiding Officer—
(1) A list of witnesses to be called,
specifying the subject matter of the expected testimony of each witness, and
(2) A list of exhibits to be considered
for inclusion in the record.
(b) If the Presiding Officer determines that the testimony of a witness
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§ 13.202
or the receipt of an exhibit in accordance with paragraph (a) of this section
will be relevant, competent and material to the investigation, the Presiding
Officer may subpoena the witness or
use the exhibit during the investigation.
of a party or a person testifying or producing evidence.
Subpart G—Rules of Practice in
FAA Civil Penalty Actions
SOURCE: Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3,
1990, unless otherwise noted.
§ 13.125 Depositions.
Depositions for investigative purposes may be taken at the discretion of
the Presiding Officer with reasonable
notice to the party under investigation. Such depositions shall be taken
before the Presiding Officer or other
person authorized to administer oaths
and designated by the Presiding Officer. The testimony shall be reduced to
writing by the person taking the deposition, or under the direction of that
person, and where possible shall then
be subscribed by the deponent. Any
person may be compelled to appear and
testify and to produce physical and
documentary evidence.
§ 13.201
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by Amdt. 13–32; 69 FR 59497, Oct. 4,
2004]
§ 13.202
§ 13.127 Reports, decisions and orders.
The Presiding Officer shall issue a
written report based on the record developed during the formal investigation, including a summary of principal
conclusions. A summary of principal
conclusions shall be prepared by the official who issued the order of investigation in every case which results in no
action, or no action as to a particular
party to the investigation. All such reports shall be furnished to the parties
to the investigation and filed in the
public docket. Insertion of the report
in the Public Docket shall constitute
‘‘entering of record’’ and publication as
prescribed by section 313(b) of the Federal Aviation Act.
Definitions.
Administrative law judge means an administrative law judge appointed pursuant to the provisions of 5 U.S.C. 3105.
Agency attorney means the Deputy
Chief Counsel for Operations, the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement,
the Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe,
Africa, and Middle East Area Office,
each Regional Counsel, the Aeronautical Center Counsel, or the Technical Center Counsel, or an attorney on
the staff of the Assistant Chief Counsel, Enforcement, the Assistant Chief
Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle
East Area Office, each Regional Counsel, the Aeronautical Center Counsel,
or the Technical Center Counsel who
prosecutes a civil penalty action. An
agency attorney shall not include:
(1) The Chief Counsel, the Deputy
Chief Counsel for Policy and Adjudication, or the Assistant Chief Counsel for
Litigation;
(2) Any attorney on the staff of the
Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation;
(3) Any attorney who is supervised in
a civil penalty action by a person who
provides such advice to the FAA decisionmaker in that action or a factually-related action.
Attorney means a person licensed by a
state, the District of Columbia, or a
§ 13.129 Post-investigation action.
A decision on whether to initiate
subsequent action shall be made on the
basis of the record developed during
the formal investigation and any other
information in the possession of the
Administrator.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Applicability.
(a) This subpart applies to all civil
penalty actions initiated under § 13.16
of this part in which a hearing has been
requested.
(b) This subpart applies only to proceedings initiated after September 7,
1988. All other cases, hearings, or other
proceedings pending or in progress before September 7, 1988, are not affected
by the rules in this subpart.
§ 13.131 Other procedures.
Any question concerning the scope or
conduct of a formal investigation not
covered in this subpart may be ruled on
by the Presiding Officer on motion of
the Presiding Officer, or on the motion
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§ 13.203
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Party means the respondent or the
Federal
Aviation
Administration
(FAA).
Personal delivery includes hand-delivery or use of a contract or express messenger service. ‘‘Personal delivery’’
does not include the use of Government
interoffice mail service.
Pleading means a complaint, an answer, and any amendment of these documents permitted under this subpart.
Properly addressed means a document
that shows an address contained in
agency records, a residential, business,
or other address submitted by a person
on any document provided under this
subpart, or any other address shown by
other reasonable and available means.
Respondent means a person, corporation, or company named in a complaint.
territory of the United States to practice law or appear before the courts of
that state or territory.
Complaint means a document issued
by an agency attorney alleging a violation of a provision of the Federal aviation statute listed in the first sentence
of 49 U.S.C. 46301(d)(2) or in 49 U.S.C.
47531, or of the Federal hazardous materials
transportation
statute,
49
U.S.C. 5121–5128, or a rule, regulation,
or order issued under those statutes,
that has been filed with the Hearing
Docket after a hearing has been requested under § 13.16(f)(3) or (g)(2)(ii) of
this part.
FAA decisionmaker means the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration, acting in the capacity of
the decisionmaker on appeal, or any
person to whom the Administrator has
delegated the Administrator’s decisionmaking authority in a civil penalty action. As used in this subpart, the FAA
decisionmaker is the official authorized to issue a final decision and order
of the Administrator in a civil penalty
action.
Mail includes U.S. certified mail, U.S.
registered mail, or use of an overnight
express courier service.
Order assessing civil penalty means a
document that contains a finding of a
violation of a provision of the Federal
aviation statute listed in the first sentence of 49 U.S.C. 46301(d)(2) or in 49
U.S.C. 47531, or of the Federal hazardous materials transportation statute, 49 U.S.C. 5121–5128, or a rule, regulation or order issued under those statutes, and may direct payment of a civil
penalty. Unless an appeal is filed with
the FAA decisionmaker in a timely
manner, an initial decision or order of
an administrative law judge shall be
considered an order assessing civil penalty if an administrative law judge
finds that an alleged violation occurred
and determines that a civil penalty, in
an amount found appropriate by the
administrative law judge, is warranted.
Unless a petition for review is filed
with a U.S. Court of Appeals in a timely manner, a final decision and order of
the Administrator shall be considered
an order assessing civil penalty if the
FAA decisionmaker finds that an alleged violation occurred and a civil
penalty is warranted.
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by Amdt. 13–24, 58 FR 50241, Sept.
24, 1993; Amdt. 13–29, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4,
1997; 70 FR 8238, Feb. 18, 2005; 71 FR 70464,
Dec. 5, 2006]
§ 13.203 Separation of functions.
(a) Civil penalty proceedings, including hearings, shall be prosecuted by an
agency attorney.
(b) An agency employee engaged in
the performance of investigative or
prosecutorial functions in a civil penalty action shall not, in that case or a
factually-related case, participate or
give advice in a decision by the administrative law judge or by the FAA decisionmaker on appeal, except as counsel
or a witness in the public proceedings.
(c) The Chief Counsel, the Deputy
Chief Counsel for Policy and Adjudication, and the Assistant Chief Counsel
for Litigation, or an attorney on the
staff of the Assistant Chief Counsel for
Litigation will advise the FAA decisionmaker regarding an initial decision
or any appeal of a civil penalty action
to the FAA decisionmaker.
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by Amdt. 13–24, 58 FR 50241, Sept.
24, 1993; 70 FR 8238, Feb. 18, 2005]
§ 13.204 Appearances and rights of
parties.
(a) Any party may appear and be
heard in person.
(b) Any party may be accompanied,
represented, or advised by an attorney
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§ 13.207
interlocutory appeal of right with the
FAA
decisionmaker
pursuant
to
§ 13.219(c)(4) of this subpart. This section does not preclude an administrative law judge from issuing an order
that bars a person from a specific proceeding based on a finding of obstreperous or disruptive behavior in that
specific proceeding.
(c) Disqualification. The administrative law judge may disqualify himself
or herself at any time. A party may file
a motion, pursuant to § 13.218(f)(6), requesting that an administrative law
judge be disqualified from the proceedings.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
or representative designated by the
party and may be examined by that attorney or representative in any proceeding governed by this subpart. An
attorney or representative who represents a party may file a notice of appearance in the action, in the manner
provided in § 13.210 of this subpart, and
shall serve a copy of the notice of appearance on each party, in the manner
provided in § 13.211 of this subpart, before participating in any proceeding
governed by this subpart. The attorney
or representative shall include the
name, address, and telephone number
of the attorney or representative in the
notice of appearance.
(c) Any person may request a copy of
a document upon payment of reasonable costs. A person may keep an original document, data, or evidence, with
the consent of the administrative law
judge, by substituting a legible copy of
the document for the record.
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990; 55 FR
29293, July 18, 1990]
§ 13.206 Intervention.
(a) A person may submit a motion for
leave to intervene as a party in a civil
penalty action. Except for good cause
shown, a motion for leave to intervene
shall be submitted not later than 10
days before the hearing.
(b) If the administrative law judge
finds that intervention will not unduly
broaden the issues or delay the proceedings, the administrative law judge
may grant a motion for leave to intervene if the person will be bound by any
order or decision entered in the action
or the person has a property, financial,
or other legitimate interest that may
not be addressed adequately by the parties. The administrative law judge may
determine the extent to which an intervenor may participate in the proceedings.
§ 13.205 Administrative law judges.
(a) Powers of an administrative law
judge. In accordance with the rules of
this subpart, an administrative law
judge may:
(1) Give notice of, and hold, prehearing conferences and hearings;
(2) Administer oaths and affirmations;
(3) Issue subpoenas authorized by law
and issue notices of deposition requested by the parties;
(4) Rule on offers of proof;
(5) Receive relevant and material evidence;
(6) Regulate the course of the hearing
in accordance with the rules of this
subpart;
(7) Hold conferences to settle or to
simplify the issues by consent of the
parties;
(8) Dispose of procedural motions and
requests; and
(9) Make findings of fact and conclusions of law, and issue an initial decision.
(b) Limitations on the power of the administrative law judge. The administrative law judge shall not issue an order
of contempt, award costs to any party,
or impose any sanction not specified in
this subpart. If the administrative law
judge imposes any sanction not specified in this subpart, a party may file an
§ 13.207 Certification of documents.
(a) Signature required. The attorney of
record, the party, or the party’s representative shall sign each document
tendered for filing with the hearing
docket clerk, the administrative law
judge, the FAA decisionmaker on appeal, or served on each party.
(b) Effect of signing a document. By
signing a document, the attorney of
record, the party, or the party’s representative certifies that the attorney,
the party, or the party’s representative
has read the document and, based on
reasonable inquiry and to the best of
that person’s knowledge, information,
and belief, the document is—
(1) Consistent with these rules;
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§ 13.208
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
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(2) Warranted by existing law or that
a good faith argument exists for extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and
(3) Not unreasonable or unduly burdensome or expensive, not made to harass any person, not made to cause unnecessary delay, not made to cause
needless increase in the cost of the proceedings, or for any other improper
purpose.
(c) Sanctions. If the attorney of
record, the party, or the party’s representative signs a document in violation of this section, the administrative
law judge or the FAA decisionmaker
shall:
(1) Strike the pleading signed in violation of this section;
(2) Strike the request for discovery or
the discovery response signed in violation of this section and preclude further discovery by the party;
(3) Deny the motion or request signed
in violation of this section;
(4) Exclude the document signed in
violation of this section from the
record;
(5) Dismiss the interlocutory appeal
and preclude further appeal on that
issue by the party who filed the appeal
until an initial decision has been entered on the record; or
(6) Dismiss the appeal of the administrative law judge’s initial decision to
the FAA decisionmaker.
allegedly violated by the respondent,
and the proposed civil penalty in sufficient detail to provide notice of any
factual or legal allegation and proposed civil penalty.
(d) Motion to dismiss allegations or complaint. Instead of filing an answer to
the complaint, a respondent may move
to dismiss the complaint, or that part
of the complaint, alleging a violation
that occurred on or after August 2,
1990, and more than 2 years before an
agency attorney issued a notice of proposed civil penalty to the respondent.
(1) An administrative law judge may
not grant the motion and dismiss the
complaint or part of the complaint if
the administrative law judge finds that
the agency has shown good cause for
any delay in issuing the notice of proposed civil penalty.
(2) If the agency fails to show good
cause for any delay, an administrative
law judge may dismiss the complaint,
or that part of the complaint, alleging
a violation that occurred more than 2
years before an agency attorney issued
the notice of proposed civil penalty to
the respondent.
(3) A party may appeal the administrative law judge’s ruling on the motion to dismiss the complaint or any
part of the complaint in accordance
with § 13.219(b) of this subpart.
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by Amdt. 13–22, 55 FR 31176, Aug. 1,
1990]
§ 13.208 Complaint.
(a) Filing. The agency attorney shall
file the original and one copy of the
complaint with the hearing docket
clerk, or may file a written motion
pursuant to § l3.218(f)(2)(i) of this subpart instead of filing a complaint, not
later than 20 days after receipt by the
agency attorney of a request for hearing. The agency attorney should suggest a location for the hearing when
filing the complaint.
(b) Service. An agency attorney shall
personally deliver or mail a copy of the
complaint on the respondent, the president of the corporation or company
named as a respondent, or a person designated by the respondent to accept
service of documents in the civil penalty action.
(c) Contents. A complaint shall set
forth the facts alleged, any regulation
§ 13.209
Answer.
(a) Writing required. A respondent
shall file a written answer to the complaint, or may file a written motion
pursuant to § 13.208(d) or § 13.218(f)(1–4)
of this subpart instead of filing an answer, not later than 30 days after service of the complaint. The answer may
be in the form of a letter but must be
dated and signed by the person responding to the complaint. An answer
may be typewritten or may be legibly
handwritten.
(b) Filing and address. A person filing
an answer shall personally deliver or
mail the original and one copy of the
answer for filing with the hearing
docket clerk, not later than 30 days
after service of the complaint to the
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§ 13.211
Hearing Docket at the appropriate address set forth in § 13.210(a) of this subpart. The person filing an answer
should suggest a location for the hearing when filing the answer.
(c) Service. A person filing an answer
shall serve a copy of the answer on the
agency attorney who filed the complaint.
(d) Contents. An answer shall specifically state any affirmative defense
that the respondent intends to assert
at the hearing. A person filing an answer may include a brief statement of
any relief requested in the answer.
(e) Specific denial of allegations required. A person filing an answer shall
admit, deny, or state that the person is
without sufficient knowledge or information to admit or deny, each numbered paragraph of the complaint. Any
statement or allegation contained in
the complaint that is not specifically
denied in the answer may be deemed an
admission of the truth of that allegation. A general denial of the complaint
is deemed a failure to file an answer.
(f) Failure to file answer. A person’s
failure to file an answer without good
cause shall be deemed an admission of
the truth of each allegation contained
in the complaint.
of service, the date shown on the postmark if there is no certificate of service, or other mailing date shown by
other evidence if there is no certificate
of service or postmark.
(c) Form. Each document shall be
typewritten or legibly handwritten.
(d) Contents. Unless otherwise specified in this subpart, each document
must contain a short, plain statement
of the facts on which the person’s case
rests and a brief statement of the action requested in the document.
(e) Internet accessibility of documents
filed in the Hearing Docket. (1) Unless
protected from public disclosure by an
order of the ALJ under 13.226, all documents filed in the Hearing Docket are
accessible through the Federal Docket
Management System (FDMS): http://
www.regulations.gov. To access a particular case file, use the FDMS number
assigned to the case.
(2) Decisions and orders issued by the
Administrator in civil penalty cases,
indexes of decisions, contact information for the FAA Hearing Docket and
the administrative law judges, the
rules of practice, and other information are available on the FAA civil
penalty adjudication Web site at: http://
www.faa.gov/about/officelorg/
headquartersloffices/agc/
polladjudication/AGC400/CivillPenalty.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended at 70 FR 8238, Feb. 18, 2005]
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990; 55 FR
29293, July 18, 1990, as amended at 70 FR 8238,
Feb. 18, 2005; 71 FR 70464, Dec. 5, 2006; 72 FR
14668, Mar. 29, 2007; 72 FR 68474, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 13.210 Filing of documents.
(a) Address and method of filing. A person tendering a document for filing
shall personally deliver or mail the
signed original and one copy of each
document to the Hearing Docket using
the appropriate address:
(1) If delivery is in person, or via expedited courier service: Federal Aviation
Administration, 600 Independence Avenue, SW., Wilbur Wright Building—
Suite 2W1000, Washington, DC 20591;
Attention: Hearing Docket Clerk,
AGC–430.
(2) If delivery is via U.S. Mail: Federal
Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC
20591; Attention: Hearing Docket Clerk,
AGC–430, Wilbur Wright Building—
Suite 2W1000.
(b) Date of filing. A document shall be
considered to be filed on the date of
personal delivery; or if mailed, the
mailing date shown on the certificate
§ 13.211 Service of documents.
(a) General. A person shall serve a
copy of any document filed with the
Hearing Docket on each party at the
time of filing. Service on a party’s attorney of record or a party’s designated
representative may be considered adequate service on the party.
(b) Type of service. A person may
serve documents by personal delivery
or by mail.
(c) Certificate of service. A person may
attach a certificate of service to a document tendered for filing with the
hearing docket clerk. A certificate of
service shall consist of a statement,
dated and signed by the person filing
the document, that the document was
personally delivered or mailed to each
party on a specific date.
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§ 13.212
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(d) Date of service. The date of service
shall be the date of personal delivery;
or if mailed, the mailing date shown on
the certificate of service, the date
shown on the postmark if there is no
certificate of service, or other mailing
date shown by other evidence if there
is no certificate of service or postmark.
(e) Additional time after service by mail.
Whenever a party has a right or a duty
to act or to make any response within
a prescribed period after service by
mail, or on a date certain after service
by mail, 5 days shall be added to the
prescribed period.
(f) Service by the administrative law
judge. The administrative law judge
shall serve a copy of each document including, but not limited to, notices of
prehearing conferences and hearings,
rulings on motions, decisions, and orders, upon each party to the proceedings by personal delivery or by
mail.
(g) Valid service. A document that was
properly addressed, was sent in accordance with this subpart, and that was
returned, that was not claimed, or that
was refused, is deemed to have been
served in accordance with this subpart.
The service shall be considered valid as
of the date and the time that the document was deposited with a contract or
express messenger, the document was
mailed, or personal delivery of the document was refused.
(h) Presumption of service. There shall
be a presumption of service where a
party or a person, who customarily receives mail, or receives it in the ordinary course of business, at either the
person’s residence or the person’s principal place of business, acknowledges
receipt of the document.
iday. If the last day of the time period
is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday, the time period runs until the end
of the next day that is not a Saturday,
Sunday, or legal holiday.
§ 13.213
Extension of time.
(a) Oral requests. The parties may
agree to extend for a reasonable period
the time for filing a document under
this subpart. If the parties agree, the
administrative law judge shall grant
one extension of time to each party.
The party seeking the extension of
time shall submit a draft order to the
administrative law judge to be signed
by the administrative law judge and
filed with the hearing docket clerk.
The administrative law judge may
grant additional oral requests for an
extension of time where the parties
agree to the extension.
(b) Written motion. A party shall file a
written motion for an extension of
time with the administrative law judge
not later than 7 days before the document is due unless good cause for the
late filing is shown. A party filing a
written motion for an extension of
time shall serve a copy of the motion
on each party. The administrative law
judge may grant the extension of time
if good cause for the extension is
shown.
(c) Failure to rule. If the administrative law judge fails to rule on a written
motion for an extension of time by the
date the document was due, the motion
for an extension of time is deemed
granted for no more than 20 days after
the original date the document was to
be filed.
§ 13.214
§ 13.212 Computation of time.
(a) This section applies to any period
of time prescribed or allowed by this
subpart, by notice or order of the administrative law judge, or by any applicable statute.
(b) The date of an act, event, or default, after which a designated time period begins to run, is not included in a
computation of time under this subpart.
(c) The last day of a time period is included in a computation of time unless
it is a Saturday, Sunday, or a legal hol-
Amendment of pleadings.
(a) Filing and service. A party shall
file the amendment with the administrative law judge and shall serve a copy
of the amendment on all parties to the
proceeding.
(b) Time. A party shall file an amendment to a complaint or an answer
within the following:
(1) Not later than 15 days before the
scheduled date of a hearing, a party
may amend a complaint or an answer
without the consent of the administrative law judge.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.218
tions, responses to prehearing motions,
exchange of exhibits to be introduced
at the hearing, and a list of witnesses
that may be called at the hearing.
(2) Each party shall sign the original
joint schedule to be filed with the administrative law judge.
(c) Time. The parties may agree to
submit all prehearing motions and responses and may agree to close discovery in the proceedings under the
joint schedule within a reasonable time
before the date of the hearing, but not
later than 15 days before the hearing.
(d) Order establishing joint schedule.
The administrative law judge shall approve the joint schedule filed by the
parties. One party shall submit a draft
order establishing a joint schedule to
the administrative law judge to be
signed by the administrative law judge
and filed with the hearing docket
clerk.
(e) Disputes. The administrative law
judge shall resolve disputes regarding
discovery or disputes regarding compliance with the joint schedule as soon as
possible so that the parties may continue to comply with the joint schedule.
(f) Sanctions for failure to comply with
joint schedule. If a party fails to comply
with the administrative law judge’s
order establishing a joint schedule, the
administrative law judge may direct
that party to comply with a motion to
discovery request or, limited to the extent of the party’s failure to comply
with a motion or discovery request, the
administrative law judge may:
(1) Strike that portion of a party’s
pleadings;
(2) Preclude prehearing or discovery
motions by that party;
(3) Preclude admission of that portion of a party’s evidence at the hearing, or
(4) Preclude that portion of the testimony of that party’s witnesses at the
hearing.
(2) Less than 15 days before the
scheduled date of a hearing, the administrative law judge may allow amendment of a complaint or an answer only
for good cause shown in a motion to
amend.
(c) Responses. The administrative law
judge shall allow a reasonable time,
but not more than 20 days from the
date of filing, for other parties to respond if an amendment to a complaint,
answer, or other pleading has been filed
with the administrative law judge.
§ 13.215 Withdrawal of complaint or
request for hearing.
At any time before or during a hearing, an agency attorney may withdraw
a complaint or a party may withdraw a
request for a hearing without the consent of the administrative law judge. If
an agency attorney withdraws the
complaint or a party withdraws the request for a hearing and the answer, the
administrative law judge shall dismiss
the proceedings under this subpart
with prejudice.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.216 Waivers.
Waivers of any rights provided by
statute or regulation shall be in writing or by stipulation made at a hearing
and entered into the record. The parties shall set forth the precise terms of
the waiver and any conditions.
§ 13.217 Joint procedural or discovery
schedule.
(a) General. The parties may agree to
submit a schedule for filing all prehearing motions, a schedule for conducting discovery in the proceedings,
or a schedule that will govern all prehearing motions and discovery in the
proceedings.
(b) Form and content of schedule. If the
parties agree to a joint procedural or
discovery schedule, one of the parties
shall file the joint schedule with the
administrative law judge, setting forth
the dates to which the parties have
agreed, and shall serve a copy of the
joint schedule on each party.
(1) The joint schedule may include,
but need not be limited to, requests for
discovery, any objections to discovery
requests, responses to discovery requests to which there are no objections, submission of prehearing mo-
§ 13.218
Motions.
(a) General. A party applying for an
order or ruling not specifically provided in this subpart shall do so by motion. A party shall comply with the requirements of this section when filing
a motion with the administrative law
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§ 13.218
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(1) Motion to dismiss for insufficiency.
A respondent may file a motion to dismiss the complaint for insufficiency instead of filing an answer. If the administrative law judge denies the motion
to dismiss the complaint for insufficiency, the respondent shall file an answer not later than 10 days after service of the administrative law judge’s
denial of the motion.A motion to dismiss the complaint for insufficiency
must show that the complaint fails to
state a violation of a provision of the
Federal aviation statute listed in the
first sentence in 49 U.S.C. 46301(d)(2) or
in 49 U.S.C. 47531, or any implementing
rule, regulation, or order, or a violation of the Federal hazardous materials
transportation statute, 49 U.S.C. 5121–
5128, or any implementing rule, regulation or order.
(2) Motion to dismiss. A party may file
a motion to dismiss, specifying the
grounds for dismissal. If an administrative law judge grants a motion to dismiss in part, a party may appeal the
administrative law judge’s ruling on
the motion to dismiss under § 13.219(b)
of this subpart.
(i) Motion to dismiss a request for a
hearing. An agency attorney may file a
motion to dismiss a request for a hearing instead of filing a complaint. If the
motion to dismiss is not granted, the
agency attorney shall file the complaint and shall serve a copy of the
complaint on each party not later than
10 days after service of the administrative law judge’s ruling or order on the
motion to dismiss. If the motion to dismiss is granted and the proceedings are
terminated without a hearing, the respondent may file an appeal pursuant
to § 13.233 of this subpart. If required by
the decision on appeal, the agency attorney shall file a complaint and shall
serve a copy of the complaint on each
party not later than 10 days after service of the decision on appeal.
(ii) Motion to dismiss a complaint. A respondent may file a motion to dismiss
a complaint instead of filing an answer.
If the motion to dismiss is not granted,
the respondent shall file an answer and
shall serve a copy of the answer on
each party not later than 10 days after
service of the administrative law
judge’s ruling or order on the motion
to dismiss. If the motion to dismiss is
judge. A party shall serve a copy of
each motion on each party.
(b) Form and contents. A party shall
state the relief sought by the motion
and the particular grounds supporting
that relief. If a party has evidence in
support of a motion, the party shall attach any supporting evidence, including affidavits, to the motion.
(c) Filing of motions. A motion made
prior to the hearing must be in writing.
Unless otherwise agreed by the parties
or for good cause shown, a party shall
file any prehearing motion, and shall
serve a copy on each party, not later
than 30 days before the hearing. Motions introduced during a hearing may
be made orally on the record unless the
administrative law judge directs otherwise.
(d) Answers to motions. Any party may
file an answer, with affidavits or other
evidence in support of the answer, not
later than 10 days after service of a
written motion on that party. When a
motion is made during a hearing, the
answer may be made at the hearing on
the record, orally or in writing, within
a reasonable time determined by the
administrative law judge.
(e) Rulings on motions. The administrative law judge shall rule on all motions as follows:
(1) Discovery motions. The administrative law judge shall resolve all pending
discovery motions not later than 10
days before the hearing.
(2) Prehearing motions. The administrative law judge shall resolve all pending prehearing motions not later than 7
days before the hearing. If the administrative law judge issues a ruling or
order orally, the administrative law
judge shall serve a written copy of the
ruling or order, within 3 days, on each
party. In all other cases, the administrative law judge shall issue rulings
and orders in writing and shall serve a
copy of the ruling or order on each
party.
(3) Motions made during the hearing.
The administrative law judge may
issue rulings and orders on motions
made during the hearing orally. Oral
rulings or orders on motions must be
made on the record.
(f) Specific motions. A party may file
the following motions with the administrative law judge:
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§ 13.218
granted and the proceedings are terminated without a hearing, the agency
attorney may file an appeal pursuant
to § 13.233 of this subpart. If required by
the decision on appeal, the respondent
shall file an answer and shall serve a
copy of the answer on each party not
later than 10 days after service of the
decision on appeal.
(3) Motion for more definite statement.
A party may file a motion for more
definite statement of any pleading
which requires a response under this
subpart. A party shall set forth, in detail, the indefinite or uncertain allegations contained in a complaint or response to any pleading and shall submit the details that the party believes
would make the allegation or response
definite and certain.
(i) Complaint. A respondent may file a
motion requesting a more definite
statement of the allegations contained
in the complaint instead of filing an
answer. If the administrative law judge
grants the motion, the agency attorney
shall supply a more definite statement
not later than 15 days after service of
the ruling granting the motion. If the
agency attorney fails to supply a more
definite statement, the administrative
law judge shall strike the allegations
in the complaint to which the motion
is directed. If the administrative law
judge denies the motion, the respondent shall file an answer and shall serve
a copy of the answer on each party not
later than 10 days after service of the
order of denial.
(ii) Answer. An agency attorney may
file a motion requesting a more definite statement if an answer fails to respond clearly to the allegations in the
complaint. If the administrative law
judge grants the motion, the respondent shall supply a more definite statement not later than 15 days after service of the ruling on the motion. If the
respondent fails to supply a more definite statement, the administrative law
judge shall strike those statements in
the answer to which the motion is directed. The respondent’s failure to supply a more definite statement may be
deemed an admission of unanswered allegations in the complaint.
(4) Motion to strike. Any party may
make a motion to strike any insufficient allegation or defense, or any re-
dundant, immaterial, or irrelevant
matter in a pleading. A party shall file
a motion to strike with the administrative law judge and shall serve a copy
on each party before a response is required under this subpart or, if a response is not required, not later than 10
days after service of the pleading.
(5) Motion for decision. A party may
make a motion for decision, regarding
all or any part of the proceedings, at
any time before the administrative law
judge has issued an initial decision in
the proceedings. The administrative
law judge shall grant a party’s motion
for decision if the pleadings, depositions, answers to interrogatories, admissions, matters that the administrative law judge has officially noticed, or
evidence introduced during the hearing
show that there is no genuine issue of
material fact and that the party making the motion is entitled to a decision
as a matter of law. The party making
the motion for decision has the burden
of showing that there is no genuine
issue of material fact disputed by the
parties.
(6) Motion for disqualification. A party
may file a motion for disqualification
with the administrative law judge and
shall serve a copy on each party. A
party may file the motion at any time
after the administrative law judge has
been assigned to the proceedings but
shall make the motion before the administrative law judge files an initial
decision in the proceedings.
(i) Motion and supporting affidavit. A
party shall state the grounds for disqualification, including, but not limited to, personal bias, pecuniary interest, or other factors showing disqualification, in the motion for disqualification. A party shall submit an affidavit
with the motion for disqualification
that sets forth, in detail, the matters
alleged to constitute grounds for disqualification.
(ii) Answer. A party shall respond to
the motion for disqualification not
later than 5 days after service of the
motion for disqualification.
(iii) Decision on motion for disqualification. The administrative law judge
shall render a decision on the motion
for disqualification not later than 15
days after the motion has been filed. If
the administrative law judge finds that
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§ 13.219
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
the motion for disqualification and
supporting affidavit show a basis for
disqualification, the administrative
law judge shall withdraw from the proceedings immediately. If the administrative law judge finds that disqualification is not warranted, the administrative law judge shall deny the motion
and state the grounds for the denial on
the record. If the administrative law
judge fails to rule on a party’s motion
for disqualification within 15 days after
the motion has been filed, the motion
is deemed granted.
(iv) Appeal. A party may appeal the
administrative law judge’s denial of
the motion for disqualification in accordance with § 13.219(b) of this subpart.
party may file an interlocutory appeal
with the FAA decisionmaker, without
the consent of the administrative law
judge, before an initial decision has
been entered in the case of:
(1) A ruling or order by the administrative law judge barring a person from
the proceedings.
(2) Failure of the administrative law
judge to dismiss the proceedings in accordance with § 13.215 of this subpart.
(3) A ruling or order by the administrative law judge in violation of
§ 13.205(b) of this subpart.
(d) Procedure. A party shall file a notice of interlocutory appeal, with supporting documents, with the FAA decisionmaker and the hearing docket
clerk, and shall serve a copy of the notice and supporting documents on each
party and the administrative law
judge, not later than 10 days after the
administrative law judge’s decision
forming the basis of an interlocutory
appeal of right or not later than 10
days after the administrative law
judge’s decision granting an interlocutory appeal for cause, whichever is appropriate. A party shall file a reply
brief, if any, with the FAA decisionmaker and serve a copy of the reply
brief on each party, not later than 10
days after service of the appeal brief.
The FAA decisionmaker shall render a
decision on the interlocutory appeal,
on the record and as a part of the decision in the proceedings, within a reasonable time after receipt of the interlocutory appeal.
(e) The FAA decisionmaker may reject frivolous, repetitive, or dilatory
appeals, and may issue an order precluding one or more parties from making further interlocutory appeals in a
proceeding in which there have been
frivolous, repetitive, or dilatory interlocutory appeals.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by 71 FR 70464, Dec. 5, 2006]
§ 13.219 Interlocutory appeals.
(a) General. Unless otherwise provided in this subpart, a party may not
appeal a ruling or decision of the administrative law judge to the FAA decisionmaker until the initial decision
has been entered on the record. A decision or order of the FAA decisionmaker
on the interlocutory appeal does not
constitute a final order of the Administrator for the purposes of judicial appellate review as provided in § 13.235 of
this subpart.
(b) Interlocutory appeal for cause. If a
party files a written request for an interlocutory appeal for cause with the
administrative law judge, or orally requests an interlocutory appeal for
cause, the proceedings are stayed until
the administrative law judge issues a
decision on the request. If the administrative law judge grants the request,
the proceedings are stayed until the
FAA decisionmaker issues a decision
on the interlocutory appeal. The administrative law judge shall grant an
interlocutory appeal for cause if a
party shows that delay of the appeal
would be detrimental to the public interest or would result in undue prejudice to any party.
(c) Interlocutory appeals of right. If a
party notifies the administrative law
judge of an interlocutory appeal of
right, the proceedings are stayed until
the FAA decisionmaker issues a decision on the interlocutory appeal. A
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by Amdt. 13–23, 55 FR 45983, Oct. 31,
1990; 71 FR 70464, Dec. 5, 2006]
§ 13.220
Discovery.
(a) Initiation of discovery. Any party
may initiate discovery described in
this section, without the consent or approval of the administrative law judge,
at any time after a complaint has been
filed in the proceedings.
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§ 13.220
(b) Methods of discovery. The following methods of discovery are permitted under this section: depositions
on oral examination or written questions of any person; written interrogatories directed to a party; requests for
production of documents or tangible
items to any person; and requests for
admission by a party. A party is not required to file written interrogatories
and responses, requests for production
of documents or tangible items and responses, and requests for admission and
response with the administrative law
judge or the hearing docket clerk. In
the event of a discovery dispute, a
party shall attach a copy of these documents in support of a motion made
under this section.
(c) Service on the agency. A party
shall serve each discovery request directed to the agency or any agency employee on the agency attorney of
record.
(d) Time for response to discovery requests. Unless otherwise directed by
this subpart or agreed by the parties, a
party shall respond to a request for discovery, including filing objections to a
request for discovery, not later than 30
days of service of the request.
(e) Scope of discovery. Subject to the
limits on discovery set forth in paragraph (f) of this section, a party may
discover any matter that is not privileged and that is relevant to the subject matter of the proceeding. A party
may discover information that relates
to the claim or defense of any party including the existence, description, nature, custody, condition, and location
of any document or other tangible item
and the identity and location of any
person having knowledge of discoverable matter. A party may discover
facts known, or opinions held, by an
expert who any other party expects to
call to testify at the hearing. A party
has no ground to object to a discovery
request on the basis that the information sought would not be admissible at
the hearing if the information sought
during discovery is reasonably calculated to lead to the discovery of admissible evidence.
(f) Limiting discovery. The administrative law judge shall limit the frequency
and extent of discovery permitted by
this section if a party shows that—
(1) The information requested is cumulative or repetitious;
(2) The information requested can be
obtained from another less burdensome
and more convenient source;
(3) The party requesting the information has had ample opportunity to obtain the information through other discovery methods permitted under this
section; or
(4) The method or scope of discovery
requested by the party is unduly burdensome or expensive.
(g) Confidential orders. A party or person who has received a discovery request for information that is related to
a trade secret, confidential or sensitive
material, competitive or commercial
information, proprietary data, or information on research and development,
may file a motion for a confidential
order with the administrative law
judge and shall serve a copy of the motion for a confidential order on each
party.
(1) The party or person making the
motion must show that the confidential order is necessary to protect the
information from disclosure to the public.
(2) If the administrative law judge determines that the requested material is
not necessary to decide the case, the
administrative law judge shall preclude
any inquiry into the matter by any
party.
(3) If the administrative law judge determines that the requested material
may be disclosed during discovery, the
administrative law judge may order
that the material may be discovered
and disclosed under limited conditions
or may be used only under certain
terms and conditions.
(4) If the administrative law judge determines that the requested material is
necessary to decide the case and that a
confidential order is warranted, the administrative law judge shall provide:
(i) An opportunity for review of the
document by the parties off the record;
(ii) Procedures for excluding the information from the record; and
(iii) Order that the parties shall not
disclose the information in any manner
and the parties shall not use the information in any other proceeding.
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§ 13.220
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(h) Protective orders. A party or a person who has received a request for discovery may file a motion for protective
order with the administrative law
judge and shall serve a copy of the motion for protective order on each party.
The party or person making the motion must show that the protective
order is necessary to protect the party
or the person from annoyance, embarrassment, oppression, or undue burden
or expense. As part of the protective
order, the administrative law judge
may:
(1) Deny the discovery request;
(2) Order that discovery be conducted
only on specified terms and conditions,
including a designation of the time or
place for discovery or a determination
of the method of discovery; or
(3) Limit the scope of discovery or
preclude any inquiry into certain matters during discovery.
(i) Duty to supplement or amend responses. A party who has responded to a
discovery request has a duty to supplement or amend the response, as soon as
the information is known, as follows:
(1) A party shall supplement or
amend any response to a question requesting the identity and location of
any person having knowledge of discoverable matters.
(2) A party shall supplement or
amend any response to a question requesting the identity of each person
who will be called to testify at the
hearing as an expert witness and the
subject matter and substance of that
witness’ testimony.
(3) A party shall supplement or
amend any response that was incorrect
when made or any response that was
correct when made but is no longer
correct, accurate, or complete.
(j) Depositions. The following rules
apply to depositions taken pursuant to
this section:
(1) Form. A deposition shall be taken
on the record and reduced to writing.
The person being deposed shall sign the
deposition unless the parties agree to
waive the requirement of a signature.
(2) Administration of oaths. Within the
United States, or a territory or possession subject to the jurisdiction of the
United States, a party shall take a deposition before a person authorized to
administer oaths by the laws of the
United States or authorized by the law
of the place where the examination is
held. In foreign countries, a party shall
take a deposition in any manner allowed by the Federal Rules of Civil
Procedure.
(3) Notice of deposition. A party shall
serve a notice of deposition, stating the
time and place of the deposition and
the name and address of each person to
be examined, on the person to be deposed, on the administrative law judge,
on the hearing docket clerk, and on
each party not later than 7 days before
the deposition. A party may serve a notice of deposition less than 7 days before the deposition only with consent
of the administrative law judge. If a
subpoena duces tecum is to be served on
the person to be examined, the party
shall attach a copy of the subpoena
duces tecum that describes the materials to be produced at the deposition
to the notice of deposition.
(4) Use of depositions. A party may use
any part or all of a deposition at a
hearing authorized under this subpart
only upon a showing of good cause. The
deposition may be used against any
party who was present or represented
at the deposition or who had reasonable notice of the deposition.
(k) Interrogatories. A party, the party’s attorney, or the party’s representative may sign the party’s responses to
interrogatories. A party shall answer
each interrogatory separately and completely in writing. If a party objects to
an interrogatory, the party shall state
the objection and the reasons for the
objection. An opposing party may use
any part or all of a party’s responses to
interrogatories at a hearing authorized
under this subpart to the extent that
the response is relevant, material, and
not repetitious.
(1) A party shall not serve more than
30 interrogatories to each other party.
Each subpart of an interrogatory shall
be counted as a separate interrogatory.
(2) A party shall file a motion for
leave to serve additional interrogatories on a party with the administrative law judge before serving additional
interrogatories on a party. The administrative law judge shall grant the motion only if the party shows good cause
for the party’s failure to inquire about
the information previously and that
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§ 13.221
the information cannot reasonably be
obtained using less burdensome discovery methods or be obtained from
other sources.
(l) Requests for admission. A party
may serve a written request for admission of the truth of any matter within
the scope of discovery under this section or the authenticity of any document described in the request. A party
shall set forth each request for admission separately. A party shall serve
copies of documents referenced in the
request for admission unless the documents have been provided or are reasonably available for inspection and
copying.
(1) Time. A party’s failure to respond
to a request for admission, in writing
and signed by the attorney or the
party, not later than 30 days after service of the request, is deemed an admission of the truth of the statement or
statements contained in the request for
admission. The administrative law
judge may determine that a failure to
respond to a request for admission is
not deemed an admission of the truth if
a party shows that the failure was due
to circumstances beyond the control of
the party or the party’s attorney.
(2) Response. A party may object to a
request for admission and shall state
the reasons for objection. A party may
specifically deny the truth of the matter or describe the reasons why the
party is unable to truthfully deny or
admit the matter. If a party is unable
to deny or admit the truth of the matter, the party shall show that the party
has made reasonable inquiry into the
matter or that the information known
to, or readily obtainable by, the party
is insufficient to enable the party to
admit or deny the matter. A party may
admit or deny any part of the request
for admission. If the administrative
law judge determines that a response
does not comply with the requirements
of this rule or that the response is insufficient, the matter is deemed admitted.
(3) Effect of admission. Any matter admitted or deemed admitted under this
section is conclusively established for
the purpose of the hearing and appeal.
(m) Motion to compel discovery. A
party may make a motion to compel
discovery if a person refuses to answer
a question during a deposition, a party
fails or refuses to answer an interrogatory, if a person gives an evasive or
incomplete answer during a deposition
or when responding to an interrogatory, or a party fails or refuses to
produce documents or tangible items.
During a deposition, the proponent of a
question may complete the deposition
or may adjourn the examination before
making a motion to compel if a person
refuses to answer.
(n) Failure to comply with a discovery
order or order to compel. If a party fails
to comply with a discovery order or an
order to compel, the administrative
law judge, limited to the extent of the
party’s failure to comply with the discovery order or motion to compel,
may:
(1) Strike that portion of a party’s
pleadings;
(2) Preclude prehearing or discovery
motions by that party;
(3) Preclude admission of that portion of a party’s evidence at the hearing; or
(4) Preclude that portion of the testimony of that party’s witnesses at the
hearing.
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by Amdt. 13–23, 55 FR 45983, Oct. 31,
1990]
§ 13.221
Notice of hearing.
(a) Notice. The administrative law
judge shall give each party at least 60
days notice of the date, time, and location of the hearing.
(b) Date, time, and location of the hearing. The administrative law judge to
whom the proceedings have been assigned shall set a reasonable date,
time, and location for the hearing. The
administrative law judge shall consider
the need for discovery and any joint
procedural or discovery schedule submitted by the parties when determining the hearing date. The administrative law judge shall give due regard
to the convenience of the parties, the
location where the majority of the witnesses reside or work, and whether the
location is served by a scheduled air
carrier.
(c) Earlier hearing. With the consent
of the administrative law judge, the
parties may agree to hold the hearing
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§ 13.222
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
on an earlier date than the date specified in the notice of hearing.
§ 13.222
§ 13.226 Public disclosure of evidence.
(a) The administrative law judge may
order that any information contained
in the record be withheld from public
disclosure. Any person may object to
disclosure of information in the record
by filing a written motion to withhold
specific information with the administrative law judge and serving a copy of
the motion on each party. The party
shall state the specific grounds for nondisclosure in the motion.
(b) The administrative law judge
shall grant the motion to withhold information in the record if, based on the
motion and any response to the motion, the administrative law judge determines that disclosure would be detrimental to aviation safety, disclosure
would not be in the public interest, or
that the information is not otherwise
required to be made available to the
public.
Evidence.
(a) General. A party is entitled to
present the party’s case or defense by
oral, documentary, or demonstrative
evidence, to submit rebuttal evidence,
and to conduct any cross-examination
that may be required for a full and true
disclosure of the facts.
(b) Admissibility. A party may introduce any oral, documentary, or demonstrative evidence in support of the party’s case or defense. The administrative law judge shall admit any oral,
documentary, or demonstrative evidence introduced by a party but shall
exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious evidence.
(c) Hearsay evidence. Hearsay evidence is admissible in proceedings governed by this subpart. The fact that
evidence submitted by a party is hearsay goes only to the weight of the evidence and does not affect its admissibility.
§ 13.223
§ 13.227 Expert or opinion witnesses.
An employee of the agency may not
be called as an expert or opinion witness, for any party other than the
FAA, in any proceeding governed by
this subpart. An employee of a respondent may not be called by an agency attorney as an expert or opinion witness
for the FAA in any proceeding governed by this subpart to which the respondent is a party.
Standard of proof.
The administrative law judge shall
issue an initial decision or shall rule in
a party’s favor only if the decision or
ruling is supported by, and in accordance with, the reliable, probative, and
substantial evidence contained in the
record. In order to prevail, the party
with the burden of proof shall prove
the party’s case or defense by a preponderance of reliable, probative, and substantial evidence.
§ 13.224
§ 13.228 Subpoenas.
(a) Request for subpoena. A party may
obtain a subpoena to compel the attendance of a witness at a deposition or
hearing or to require the production of
documents or tangible items from the
hearing docket clerk. The hearing
docket clerk shall deliver the subpoena, signed by the hearing docket
clerk or an administrative law judge
but otherwise in blank, to the party.
The party shall complete the subpoena,
stating the title of the action and the
date and time for the witness’ attendance or production of documents or
items. The party who obtained the subpoena shall serve the subpoena on the
witness.
(b) Motion to quash or modify the subpoena. A party, or any person upon
whom a subpoena has been served, may
file a motion to quash or modify the
subpoena with the administrative law
Burden of proof.
(a) Except in the case of an affirmative defense, the burden of proof is on
the agency.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by
statute or rule, the proponent of a motion, request, or order has the burden
of proof.
(c) A party who has asserted an affirmative defense has the burden of
proving the affirmative defense.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.225
Offer of proof.
A party whose evidence has been excluded by a ruling of the administrative law judge may offer the evidence
for the record on appeal.
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§ 13.231
judge at or before the time specified in
the subpoena for compliance. The applicant shall describe, in detail, the
basis for the application to quash or
modify the supoena including, but not
limited to, a statement that the testimony, document, or tangible evidence
is not relevant to the proceeding, that
the subpoena is not reasonably tailored
to the scope of the proceeding, or that
the subpoena is unreasonable and oppressive. A motion to quash or modify
the subpoena will stay the effect of the
subpoena pending a decision by the administrative law judge on the motion.
(c) Enforcement of subpoena. Upon a
showing that a person has failed or refused to comply with a subpoena, a
party may apply to the local federal
district court to seek judicial enforcement of the subpoena in accordance
with 49 U.S.C. 46104 in cases under the
Federal aviation statute.
Administration, 600 Independence Avenue, SW., Wilbur Wright Building—
Room 2014, Washington, DC 20591. Documents may also be examined and copied at the U.S. Department of Transportation, Docket Operations, West
Building Ground Floor, Room W12–140,
1200 New Jersey Avenue, SE., Washington, DC 20590. Any person may have
a copy of the record after payment of
reasonable costs to copy the record.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended at 70 FR 8238, Feb. 18, 2005; 72 FR
68474, Dec. 5, 2007]
§ 13.231 Argument before the administrative law judge.
(a) Arguments during the hearing. During the hearing, the administrative law
judge shall give the parties a reasonable opportunity to present arguments
on the record supporting or opposing
motions, objections, and rulings if the
parties request an opportunity for argument. The administrative law judge
may request written arguments during
the hearing if the administrative law
judge finds that submission of written
arguments would be reasonable.
(b) Final oral argument. At the conclusion of the hearing and before the administrative law judge issues an initial
decision in the proceedings, the parties
are entitled to submit oral proposed
findings of fact and conclusions of law,
exceptions to rulings of the administrative law judge, and supporting arguments for the findings, conclusions, or
exceptions. At the conclusion of the
hearing, a party may waive final oral
argument.
(c) Posthearing briefs. The administrative law judge may request written
posthearing briefs before the administrative law judge issues an initial decision in the proceedings if the administrative law judge finds that submission
of written arguments would be reasonable. If a party files a written
posthearing brief, the party shall include proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, exceptions to rulings of
the administrative law judge, and supporting arguments for the findings,
conclusions, or exceptions. The administrative law judge shall give the parties a reasonable opportunity, not
more than 30 days after receipt of the
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended at 71 FR 70465, Dec. 5, 2006]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.229 Witness fees.
(a) General. Unless otherwise authorized by the administrative law judge,
the party who applies for a subpoena to
compel the attendance of a witness at
a deposition or hearing, or the party at
whose request a witness appears at a
deposition or hearing, shall pay the
witness fees described in this section.
(b) Amount. Except for an employee
of the agency who appears at the direction of the agency, a witness who appears at a deposition or hearing is entitled to the same fees and mileage expenses as are paid to a witness in a
court of the United States in comparable circumstances.
§ 13.230 Record.
(a) Exclusive record. The transcript of
all testimony in the hearing, all exhibits received into evidence, and all motions, applications, requests, and rulings shall constitute the exclusive
record for decision of the proceedings
and the basis for the issuance of any
orders in the proceeding. Any proceedings regarding the disqualification
of an administrative law judge shall be
included in the record.
(b) Examination and copying of record.
Any person may examine the record at
the Hearing Docket, Federal Aviation
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§ 13.232
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
transcript, to prepare and submit the
briefs.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.232
§ 13.233
Appeal from initial decision.
(a) Notice of appeal. A party may appeal the initial decision, and any decision not previously appealed pursuant
to § 13.219, by filing a notice of appeal
with the FAA decisionmaker. A party
must file the notice of appeal in the
FAA Hearing Docket using the appropriate address listed in § 13.210(a). A
party shall file the notice of appeal not
later than 10 days after entry of the
oral initial decision on the record or
service of the written initial decision
on the parties and shall serve a copy of
the notice of appeal on each party.
(b) Issues on appeal. In any appeal
from a decision of an administrative
law judge, the FAA decisionmaker considers only the following issues:
(1) Whether each finding of fact is
supported by a preponderance of reliable, probative, and substantial evidence;
(2) Whether each conclusion of law is
made in accordance with applicable
law, precedent, and public policy; and
(3) Whether the administrative law
judge committed any prejudicial errors
that support the appeal.
(c) Perfecting an appeal. Unless otherwise agreed by the parties, a party
shall perfect an appeal, not later than
50 days after entry of the oral initial
decision on the record or service of the
written initial decision on the party,
by filing an appeal brief with the FAA
decisionmaker.
(1) Extension of time by agreement of
the parties. The parties may agree to
extend the time for perfecting the appeal with the consent of the FAA decisionmaker. If the FAA decisionmaker
grants an extension of time to perfect
the appeal, the appellate docket clerk
shall serve a letter confirming the extension of time on each party.
(2) Written motion for extension. If the
parties do not agree to an extension of
time for perfecting an appeal, a party
desiring an extension of time may file
a written motion for an extension with
the FAA decisionmaker and shall serve
a copy of the motion on each party.
The FAA decisionmaker may grant an
extension if good cause for the extension is shown in the motion.
Initial decision.
(a) Contents. The administrative law
judge shall issue an initial decision at
the conclusion of the hearing. In each
oral or written decision, the administrative law judge shall include findings
of fact and conclusions of law, and the
grounds supporting those findings and
conclusions, upon all material issues of
fact, the credibility of witnesses, the
applicable law, any exercise of the administrative law judge’s discretion, the
amount of any civil penalty found appropriate by the administrative law
judge, and a discussion of the basis for
any order issued in the proceedings.
The administrative law judge is not required to provide a written explanation
for rulings on objections, procedural
motions, and other matters not directly relevant to the substance of the
initial decision. If the administrative
law judge refers to any previous unreported or unpublished initial decision,
the administrative law judge shall
make copies of that initial decision
available to all parties and the FAA decisionmaker.
(b) Oral decision. Except as provided
in paragraph (c) of this section, at the
conclusion of the hearing, the administrative law judge shall issue the initial
decision and order orally on the record.
(c) Written decision. The administrative law judge may issue a written initial decision not later than 30 days
after the conclusion of the hearing or
submission of the last posthearing brief
if the administrative law judge finds
that issuing a written initial decision
is reasonable. The administrative law
judge shall serve a copy of any written
initial decision on each party.
(d) Order assessing civil penalty. Unless
appealed pursuant to § 13.233 of this
subpart, the initial decision issued by
the administrative law judge shall be
considered an order assessing civil penalty if the administrative law judge
finds that an alleged violation occurred
and determines that a civil penalty, in
an amount found appropriate by the
administrative law judge, is warranted.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.233
(d) Appeal briefs. A party shall file the
appeal brief with the FAA decisionmaker and shall serve a copy of the appeal brief on each party.
(1) A party shall set forth, in detail,
the party’s specific objections to the
initial decision or rulings in the appeal
brief. A party also shall set forth, in
detail, the basis for the appeal, the reasons supporting the appeal, and the relief requested in the appeal. If the
party relies on evidence contained in
the record for the appeal, the party
shall specifically refer to the pertinent
evidence contained in the transcript in
the appeal brief.
(2) The FAA decisionmaker may dismiss an appeal, on the FAA decisionmaker’s own initiative or upon motion
of any other party, where a party has
filed a notice of appeal but fails to perfect the appeal by timely filing an appeal brief with the FAA decisionmaker.
(e) Reply brief. Unless otherwise
agreed by the parties, any party may
file a reply brief with the FAA decisionmaker not later than 35 days after
the appeal brief has been served on
that party. The party filing the reply
brief shall serve a copy of the reply
brief on each party. If the party relies
on evidence contained in the record for
the reply, the party shall specifically
refer to the pertinent evidence contained in the transcript in the reply
brief.
(1) Extension of time by agreement of
the parties. The parties may agree to
extend the time for filing a reply brief
with the consent of the FAA decisionmaker. If the FAA decisionmaker
grants an extension of time to file the
reply brief, the appellate docket clerk
shall serve a letter confirming the extension of time on each party.
(2) Written motion for extension. If the
parties do not agree to an extension of
time for filing a reply brief, a party desiring an extension of time may file a
written motion for an extension with
the FAA decisionmaker and shall serve
a copy of the motion on each party.
The FAA decisionmaker may grant an
extension if good cause for the extension is shown in the motion.
(f) Other briefs. The FAA decisionmaker may allow any person to submit
an amicus curiae brief in an appeal of an
initial decision. A party may not file
more than one appeal brief or reply
brief. A party may petition the FAA
decisionmaker, in writing, for leave to
file an additional brief and shall serve
a copy of the petition on each party.
The party may not file the additional
brief with the petition. The FAA decisionmaker may grant leave to file an
additional brief if the party demonstrates good cause for allowing additional argument on the appeal. The
FAA decisionmaker will allow a reasonable time for the party to file the
additional brief.
(g) Number of copies. A party shall file
the original appeal brief or the original
reply brief, and two copies of the brief,
with the FAA decisionmaker.
(h) Oral argument. The FAA decisionmaker has sole discretion to permit
oral argument on the appeal. On the
FAA decisionmaker’s own initiative or
upon written motion by any party, the
FAA decisionmaker may find that oral
argument will contribute substantially
to the development of the issues on appeal and may grant the parties an opportunity for oral argument.
(i) Waiver of objections on appeal. If a
party fails to object to any alleged
error regarding the proceedings in an
appeal or a reply brief, the party
waives any objection to the alleged
error. The FAA decisionmaker is not
required to consider any objection in
an appeal brief or any argument in the
reply brief if a party’s objection is
based on evidence contained on the
record and the party does not specifically refer to the pertinent evidence
from the record in the brief.
(j) FAA decisionmaker’s decision on appeal. The FAA decisionmaker will review the record, the briefs on appeal,
and the oral argument, if any, when
considering the issues on appeal. The
FAA decisionmaker may affirm, modify, or reverse the initial decision,
make any necessary findings, or may
remand the case for any proceedings
that the FAA decisionmaker determines may be necessary.
(1) The FAA decisionmaker may raise
any issue, on the FAA decisionmaker’s
own initiative, that is required for
proper disposition of the proceedings.
The FAA decisionmaker will give the
parties a reasonable opportunity to
submit arguments on the new issues
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§ 13.234
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
before making a decision on appeal. If
an issue raised by the FAA decisionmaker requires the consideration of additional testimony or evidence, the
FAA decisionmaker will remand the
case to the administrative law judge
for further proceedings and an initial
decision related to that issue. If an
issue raised by the FAA decisionmaker
is solely an issue of law or the issue
was addressed at the hearing but was
not raised by a party in the briefs on
appeal, a remand of the case to the administrative law judge for further proceedings is not required but may be
provided in the discretion of the FAA
decisionmaker.
(2) The FAA decisionmaker will issue
the final decision and order of the Administrator on appeal in writing and
will serve a copy of the decision and
order on each party. Unless a petition
for review is filed pursuant to § 13.235, a
final decision and order of the Administrator shall be considered an order
assessing civil penalty if the FAA decisionmaker finds that an alleged violation occurred and a civil penalty is
warranted.
(3) A final decision and order of the
Administrator after appeal is precedent
in any other civil penalty action. Any
issue, finding or conclusion, order, ruling, or initial decision of an administrative law judge that has not been appealed to the FAA decisionmaker is
not precedent in any other civil penalty action.
that has not been appealed by any
party to the FAA decisionmaker.
(b) Form and number of copies. A party
shall file a petition to reconsider or
modify, in writing, with the FAA decisionmaker. The party shall file the
original petition with the FAA decisionmaker and shall serve a copy of the
petition on each party.
(c) Contents. A party shall state briefly and specifically the alleged errors in
the final decision and order on appeal,
the relief sought by the party, and the
grounds that support, the petition to
reconsider or modify.
(1) If the petition is based, in whole
or in part, on allegations regarding the
consequences of the FAA decisionmaker’s decision, the party shall describe these allegations and shall describe, and support, the basis for the
allegations.
(2) If the petition is based, in whole
or in part, on new material not previously raised in the proceedings, the
party shall set forth the new material
and include affidavits of prospective
witnesses and authenticated documents that would be introduced in support of the new material. The party
shall explain, in detail, why the new
material was not discovered through
due diligence prior to the hearing.
(d) Repetitious and frivolous petitions.
The FAA decisionmaker will not consider repetitious or frivolous petitions.
The FAA decisionmaker may summarily dismiss repetitious or frivolous
petitions to reconsider or modify.
(e) Reply petitions. Any other party
may reply to a petition to reconsider
or modify, not later than 10 days after
service of the petition on that party,
by filing a reply with the FAA decisionmaker. A party shall serve a copy
of the reply on each party.
(f) Effect of filing petition. Unless otherwise ordered by the FAA decisionmaker, filing of a petition pursuant to
this section will not stay or delay the
effective date of the FAA decisionmaker’s final decision and order on appeal and shall not toll the time allowed
for judicial review.
(g) FAA decisionmaker’s decision on petition. The FAA decisionmaker has sole
discretion to grant or deny a petition
to reconsider or modify. The FAA decisionmaker will grant or deny a petition
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990, as
amended by Amdt. 13–32; 69 FR 59498, Oct. 4,
2004; 70 FR 13345, Mar. 21, 2005]
§ 13.234 Petition to reconsider or modify a final decision and order of the
FAA decisionmaker on appeal.
(a) General. Any party may petition
the FAA decisionmaker to reconsider
or modify a final decision and order
issued by the FAA decisionmaker on
appeal from an initial decision. A party
shall file a petition to reconsider or
modify with the FAA decisionmaker
not later than 30 days after service of
the FAA decisionmaker’s final decision
and order on appeal and shall serve a
copy of the petition on each party. The
FAA decisionmaker will not reconsider
or modify an initial decision and order
issued by an administrative law judge
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.305
to reconsider or modify within a reasonable time after receipt of the petition or receipt of the reply petition, if
any. The FAA decisionmaker may affirm, modify, or reverse the final decision and order on appeal, or may remand the case for any proceedings that
the FAA decisionmaker determines
may be necessary.
in order to maintain the deterrent effect of civil monetary penalties and to
promote compliance with the law. This
subpart also sets out the current adjusted maximum civil monetary penalties or range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties for each
statutory civil penalty subject to the
FAA’s jurisdiction.
(b) Each adjustment to the maximum
civil monetary penalty or the range of
minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties, as applicable, made in
accordance with this subpart applies
prospectively from the date it becomes
effective to actions initiated under this
part, notwithstanding references to a
specific maximum civil monetary penalty or range of minimum and maximum civil monetary penalties contained elsewhere in this part.
[Amdt. 13–21, 55 FR 27575, July 3, 1990; 55 FR
29293, July 18, 1990; Amdt. 13–23, 55 FR 45983,
Oct. 31, 1990]
§ 13.235 Judicial review of a final decision and order.
(a) In cases under the Federal aviation statute, a party may seek judicial
review of a final decision and order of
the Administrator, as provided in 49
U.S.C. 46110(a), and, as applicable, in 49
U.S.C. 46301(d)(7)(D)(iii), 46301(g), or
47532.
(b) In cases under the Federal hazardous materials transportation statute, a party may seek judicial review
of a final decision and order of the Administrator, as provided in 49 U.S.C.
5127.
(c) A party seeking judicial review of
a final order issued by the Administrator may file a petition for review in
the United States Court of Appeals for
the District of Columbia Circuit or in
the United States Court of Appeals for
the circuit in which the party resides
or has its principal place of business.
(d) The party must file the petition
for review no later than 60 days after
service of the Administrator’s final decision and order.
§ 13.303
§ 13.305 Cost of living adjustments of
civil monetary penalties.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–26477, 71 FR 70465, Dec. 5,
2006]
(a) Except for the limitation to the
initial adjustment to statutory maximum civil monetary penalties or
range of minimum and maximum civil
monetary penalties set forth in paragraph (c) of this section, the inflation
adjustment under this subpart is determined by increasing the maximum
civil monetary penalty or range of
minimum and maximum civil monetary penalty for each civil monetary
penalty by the cost-of-living adjustment. Any increase determined under
paragraph (a) of this section is rounded
to the nearest:
(1) Multiple of $10 in the case of penalties less than or equal to $100;
Subpart H—Civil Monetary Penalty
Inflation Adjustment
SOURCE: Docket No. 28762, 61 FR 67445, Dec.
20, 1996, unless otherwise noted.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Definitions.
(a) Civil Monetary Penalty means any
penalty, fine, or other sanction that:
(1) Is for a specific monetary amount
as provided by Federal law or has a
maximum amount provided by Federal
law;
(2) Is assessed or enforced by the FAA
pursuant to Federal law; and
(3) Is assessed or enforced pursuant
to an administrative proceeding or a
civil action in the Federal courts.
(b) Consumer Price Index means the
Consumer Price Index for all urban
consumers published by the Department of Labor.
§ 13.301 Scope and purpose.
(a) This subpart provides a mechanism for the regular adjustment for inflation of civil monetary penalties in
conformity with the Federal Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Act of 1990,
28 U.S.C. 2461 (note), as amended by the
Debt Collection Improvement Act of
1996, Public Law 104–134, April 26, 1996,
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§ 13.305
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(2) Multiple of $100 in the case of penalties greater than $100 but less than or
equal to $1,000;
(3) Multiple of $1,000 in the case of
penalties greater than $1,000 but less
than or equal to $10,000;
(4) Multiple of $5,000 in the case of
penalties greater than $10,000 but less
than or equal to $100,000;
(5) Multiple of $10,000 in the case of
penalties greater than $100,000 but less
than or equal to $200,000; and
(6) Multiple of $25,000 in the case of
penalties greater than $200,000.
(b) For purposes of paragraph (a) of
this section, the term ‘‘cost-of-living
adjustment’’ means the percentage (if
any) for each civil monetary penalty
by which the Consumer Price Index for
the month of June of the calendar year
preceding the adjustment exceeds the
Consumer Price Index for the month of
June of the calendar year in which the
amount of such civil monetary penalty
was last set or adjusted pursuant to
law.
(c) Limitation on initial adjustment.
The initial adjustment of a civil monetary penalty under this subpart does
not exceed 10 percent of the civil penalty amount.
(d) Inflation adjustment. Minimum and
maximum civil monetary penalties
within the jurisdiction of the FAA are
adjusted for inflation as follows: Minimum and Maximum Civil PenaltiesAdjusted for Inflation.
TABLE OF MINIMUM AND MAXIMUM CIVIL MONETARY PENALTY AMOUNTS FOR CERTAIN VIOLATIONS
OCCURRING ON OR AFTER DECEMBER 29, 2010
United States Code cite
Civil monetary penalty
description
Minimum
penalty
amount
New or adjusted minimum penalty amount
Maximum penalty
amount when last set or
adjusted pursuant to
law
New or adjusted maximum penalty amount
49 U.S.C. 5123(a), subparagraph (1).
Violation of hazardous materials
transportation law.
No change
$50,000 per violation,
reset 8/10/2005.
$55,000 per
violation.
49 U.S.C. 5123(a), subparagraph (2).
Violation of hazardous materials
transportation law resulting in
death, serious illness, severe
injury, or substantial property
destruction.
Violation of hazardous materials
transportation law relating to
training.
$250 per
violation,
reset 8/
10/2005.
$250 per
violation,
reset 8/
10/2005.
No change
$100,000 per violation,
set 8/10/2005.
$110,000
per violation.
$450 per
violation,
set 8/10/
2005.
N/A ............
No change
$50,000 per violation,
set 8/10/2005.
$55,000 per
violation.
N/A ............
$25,000 per violation,
reset 12/12/2003.
$27,500 per
violation.
N/A ............
N/A ............
$1,100 per violation,
reset 12/12/2003.
No change.
N/A ............
N/A ............
$1,100 per violation,
reset 12/12/2003.
No change.
N/A ............
N/A ............
No change.
N/A ............
N/A ............
Increase above otherwise applicable maximum amount not to
exceed 3 times the
amount of revenues
that are used in violation of such section.
$11,000 per violation,
adjusted 6/15/2006.
N/A ............
N/A ............
$11,000 per violation,
adjusted 6/15/2006.
No change.
49 U.S.C. 5123(a), subparagraph (3).
49 U.S.C. 46301(a)(1) ..
49 U.S.C. 46301(a)(1) ..
49 U.S.C. 46301(a)(1) ..
49 U.S.C. 46301(a)(3) ..
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
49 U.S.C.
46301(a)(5)(A).
49 U.S.C.
46301(a)(5)(B)(i).
Violation by a person other than
an individual or small business concern under 49 CFR
46301(a)(1)(A) or (B).
Violation by an airman serving
as an airman under 49
U.S.C. 46301(a)(1)(A) or (B)
(but
not
covered
by
46301(a)(5)(A) or (B).
Violation by an individual or
small business concern under
49 U.S.C. 46301(a)(1)(A) or
(B) (but not covered in 49
U.S.C. 46301(a)(5)).
Violation of 49 U.S.C. 47107(b)
(or any assurance made
under such section) or 49
U.S.C. 47133.
Violation by an individual or
small business concern (except an airman serving as an
airman) under 49 U.S.C.
46301(a)(5)(A)(i) or (ii).
Violation by an individual or
small business concern related to the transportation of
hazardous materials.
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No change.
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 13.401
TABLE OF MINIMUM AND MAXIMUM CIVIL MONETARY PENALTY AMOUNTS FOR CERTAIN VIOLATIONS
OCCURRING ON OR AFTER DECEMBER 29, 2010—Continued
United States Code cite
49 U.S.C.
46301(a)(5)(B)(ii).
49 U.S.C.
46301(a)(5)(B)(iii).
49 U.S.C.
46301(a)(5)(B)(iv).
49 U.S.C. 46301(b) ......
49 U.S.C. 46302 ..........
49 U.S.C. 46318 ..........
49 U.S.C. 46319 ..........
49 U.S.C. 47531 ..........
Civil monetary penalty
description
Minimum
penalty
amount
New or adjusted minimum penalty amount
Maximum penalty
amount when last set or
adjusted pursuant to
law
New or adjusted maximum penalty amount
Violation by an individual or
small business concern related to the registration or
recordation under 49 U.S.C.
chapter 441, of an aircraft not
used to provide air transportation.
Violation by an individual or
small business concern of 49
U.S.C. 44718(d), relating to
limitation on construction or
establishment of landfills.
Violation by an individual or
small business concern of 49
U.S.C. 44725, relating to the
safe disposal of life-limited
aircraft parts.
Tampering with a smoke alarm
device.
Knowingly providing false information about alleged violation
involving the special aircraft
jurisdiction of the United
States.
Interference with cabin or flight
crew.
Permanent closure of an airport
without providing sufficient
notice.
Violation of 49 U.S.C. 47528–
47530, relating to the prohibition of operating certain aircraft not complying with stage
3 noise levels.
N/A ............
N/A ............
$11,000 per violation,
adjusted 6/16/2006.
No change.
N/A ............
N/A ............
$11,000 per violation,
adjusted 6/15/2006.
No change.
N/A ............
N/A ............
$11,000 per violation,
adjusted 6/15/2006.
No change.
N/A ............
N/A ............
N/A ............
N/A ............
$2,200 per violation,
adjusted 1/21/1997.
$11,000 per violation,
adjusted 1/21/1997.
$3,200 per
violation.
$16,000 per
violation.
N/A ............
N/A ............
No change.
N/A ............
N/A ............
$27,500, adjusted 6/15/
2006.
$11,000 per day, adjusted 6/15/2006.
N/A ............
N/A ............
See 49 U.S.C.
46301(a)(1)(A) and
(a)(5), above.
No change.
No change.
[61 FR 67445, Dec. 20, 1996, as amended by Amdt. 13–28, 62 FR 4134, Jan. 29, 1997; 67 FR 6366,
Feb. 11, 2002; Amdt. 13–33, 71 FR 28522, May 16, 2006; 71 FR 47077, Aug. 16, 2006; 71 FR 52407,
Sept. 6, 2006; 75 FR 72938, Nov. 29, 2010]
lected pursuant to existing regulatory
provisions, when such data is included
in an approved FOQA program.
(2) FOQA data means any digital
flight data that has been collected
from an individual aircraft pursuant to
an FAA-approved FOQA program, regardless of the electronic format of
that data.
(3) Aggregate FOQA data means the
summary statistical indices that are
associated with FOQA event categories, based on an analysis of FOQA
data from multiple aircraft operations.
(c) Requirements. In order for paragraph (e) of this section to apply, the
operator must submit, maintain, and
adhere to a FOQA Implementation and
Operation Plan that is approved by the
Subpart I—Flight Operational
Quality Assurance Programs
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 13.401 Flight Operational Quality Assurance
Program:
Prohibition
against use of data for enforcement
purposes.
(a) Applicability. This section applies
to any operator of an aircraft who operates such aircraft under an approved
Flight Operational Quality Assurance
(FOQA) program.
(b) Definitions. For the purpose of this
section, the terms—
(1) Flight Operational Quality Assurance (FOQA) program means an FAAapproved program for the routine collection and analysis of digital flight
data gathered during aircraft operations, including data currently col-
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Pt. 14
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Administrator and which contains the
following elements:
(1) A description of the operator’s
plan for collecting and analyzing flight
recorded data from line operations on a
routine basis, including identification
of the data to be collected;
(2) Procedures for taking corrective
action that analysis of the data indicates is necessary in the interest of
safety;
(3) Procedures for providing the FAA
with aggregate FOQA data;
(4) Procedures for informing the FAA
as to any corrective action being undertaken pursuant to paragraph (c)(2)
of this section.
(d) Submission of aggregate data. The
operator will provide the FAA with aggregate FOQA data in a form and manner acceptable to the Administrator.
(e) Enforcement. Except for criminal
or deliberate acts, the Administrator
will not use an operator’s FOQA data
or aggregate FOQA data in an enforcement action against that operator or
its employees when such FOQA data or
aggregate FOQA data is obtained from
a FOQA program that is approved by
the Administrator.
(f) Disclosure. FOQA data and aggregate FOQA data, if submitted in accordance with an order designating the
information as protected under part 193
of this chapter, will be afforded the
nondisclosure protections of part 193 of
this chapter.
(g) Withdrawal of program approval.
The Administrator may withdraw approval of a previously approved FOQA
program for failure to comply with the
requirements of this chapter. Grounds
for withdrawal of approval may include, but are not limited to—
(1) Failure to implement corrective
action that analysis of available FOQA
data indicates is necessary in the interest of safety; or
(2) Failure to correct a continuing
pattern of violations following notice
by the agency; or also
(3) Willful misconduct or willful violation of the FAA regulations in this
chapter.
PART 14—RULES IMPLEMENTING
THE EQUAL ACCESS TO JUSTICE
ACT OF 1980
Subpart A—General Provisions
Sec.
14.01
14.02
14.03
14.04
14.05
Purpose of these rules.
Proceedings covered.
Eligibility of applicants.
Standards for awards.
Allowance fees and expenses.
Subpart B—Information Required From
Applicants
14.10
14.11
14.12
Contents of application.
Net worth exhibit.
Documentation of fees and expenses.
Subpart C—Procedures for Considering
Applications
14.20 When an application may be filed.
14.21 Filing and service of documents.
14.22 Answer to application.
14.23 Reply.
14.24 Comments by other parties.
14.25 Settlement.
14.26 Further proceedings.
14.27 Decision.
14.28 Review by FAA decisionmaker.
14.29 Judicial review.
14.30 Payment of award.
AUTHORITY: 5 U.S.C. 504; 49 U.S.C. 106(f),
40113, 46104 and 47122.
SOURCE: Docket No. 25958, 54 FR 46199, Nov.
1, 1989, unless otherwise noted.
Subpart A—General Provisions
§ 14.01
Purpose of these rules.
The Equal Access to Justice Act, 5
U.S.C. 504 (the Act), provides for the
award of attorney fees and other expenses to eligible individuals and entities who are parties to certain administrative proceedings (adversary adjudications) before the Federal Aviation
Administration (FAA). An eligible
party may receive an award when it
prevails over the FAA, unless the agency’s position in the proceeding was substantially justified or special circumstances make an award unjust. The
rules in this part describe the parties
eligible for awards and the proceedings
that are covered. They also explain
how to apply for awards, and the procedures and standards that the FAA Decisionmaker will use to make them. As
[Doc. No. FAA–2000–7554, 66 FR 55048, Oct. 31,
2001; Amdt. 13–30, 67 FR 31401, May 9, 2002]
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 14.03
used hereinafter, the term ‘‘agency’’
applies to the FAA.
§ 14.02
500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated; and
(4) A cooperative association as defined in section 15(a) of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12 U.S.C. 1141j(a))
with not more than 500 employees at
the time the adversary adjudication
was initiated; and
(5) Any other partnership, corporation, association, or public or private
organization with a net worth of not
more than $7 million and not more
than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated.
(c) For the purpose of eligibility, the
net worth and number of employees of
an applicant shall be determined as of
the date the proceeding was initiated.
(d) An applicant who owns an unincorporated business will be considered
an ‘‘individual’’ rather than a ‘‘sole
owner of an unincorporated business’’
if the issues on which the applicant
prevails are related primarily to personal interests rather than to business
interest.
(e) The employees of an applicant include all persons who regularly perform services for remuneration for the
applicant, under the applicant’s direction and control. Part-time employees
shall be included on a proportional
basis.
(f) The net worth and number of employees of the applicant and all of its
affiliates shall be aggregated to determine eligibility. Any individual, corporation, or other entity that directly
or indirectly controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or any corporation
or other entity of which the applicant
directly or indirectly owns or controls
a majority of the voting shares or
other interest, will be considered an affiliate for purposes of this part, unless
the ALJ or adjudicative officer determines that such treatment would be
unjust and contrary to the purposes of
the Act in light of the actual relationship between the affiliated entities. In
addition, the ALJ or adjudicative officer may determine that financial relationships of the applicant, other than
those described in this paragraph, constitute special circumstances that
would make an award unjust.
(g) An applicant that participates in
a proceeding primarily on behalf of one
Proceedings covered.
(a) The Act applies to certain adversary adjudications conducted by the
FAA under 49 CFR part 17 and the Acquisition Management System (AMS).
These are adjudications under 5 U.S.C.
554, in which the position of the FAA is
represented by an attorney or other
representative who enters an appearance and participates in the proceeding. This subpart applies to proceedings under 49 U.S.C. 46301, 46302,
and 46303 and to the Default Adjudicative Process under part 17 of this chapter and the AMS.
(b) If a proceeding includes both matters covered by the Act and matters
specifically excluded from coverage,
any award made will include only fees
and expenses related to covered issues.
(c) Fees and other expenses may not
be awarded to a party for any portion
of the adversary adjudication in which
such party has unreasonably protracted the proceedings.
[54 FR 46199, Nov. 1, 1989, as amended by
Amdt. 14–03, 64 FR 32935, June 18, 1999]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 14.03
Eligibility of applicants.
(a) To be eligible for an award of attorney fees and other expenses under
the Act, the applicant must be a party
to the adversary adjudication for which
it seeks an award. The term ‘‘party’’ is
defined in 5 U.S.C. 504(b)(1)(B) and 5
U.S.C. 551(3). The applicant must show
that it meets all conditions or eligibility set out in this subpart.
(b) The types of eligible applicants
are as follows:
(1) An individual with a net worth of
not more than $2 million at the time
the adversary adjudication was initiated;
(2) The sole owner of an unincorporated business who has a net worth
of not more than $7 million, including
both personal and business interests,
and not more than 500 employees at the
time the adversary adjudication was
initiated;
(3) A charitable or other tax-exempt
organization
described
in
section
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code
(26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)) with not more than
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§ 14.04
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
or more other persons or entities that
would be ineligible if not itself eligible
for an award.
adjudicative officer shall consider the
following:
(1) If the attorney, agent, or witness
is in private practice, his or her customary fee for similar services, or if an
employee of the applicant, the fully allocated cost of the services;
(2) The prevailing rate for similar
services in the community in which the
attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily
performs services;
(3) The time actually spent in the
representation of the applicant;
(4) The time reasonably spent in light
of the difficulty or complexity of the
issues in the proceeding; and
(5) Such other factors as may bear on
the value of the services provided.
(d) The reasonable cost of any study,
analysis, engineering report, test,
project, or similar matter prepared on
behalf of a party may be awarded, to
the extent that the charge for the service does not exceed the prevailing rate
for similar services, and the study or
other matter was necessary for preparation of the applicant’s case.
(e) Fees may be awarded only for
work performed after the issuance of a
complaint, or in the Default Adjudicative Process for a protest or contract
dispute under part 17 of this chapter
and the AMS.
[54 FR 46199, Nov. 1, 1989, as amended by
Amdt. 14–03, 64 FR 32935, June 18, 1999]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 14.04 Standards for awards.
(a) A prevailing applicant may receive an award for attorney fees and
other expenses incurred in connection
with a proceeding, or in a significant
and discrete substantive portion of the
proceeding, unless the position of the
agency over which the applicant has
prevailed was substantially justified.
Whether or not the position of the FAA
was substantially justified shall be determined on the basis of the record (including the record with respect to the
action or failure to act by the agency
upon which the civil action is based)
which was made in the civil action for
which fees and other expenses are
sought. The burden of proof that an
award should not be made to an eligible prevailing applicant is on the agency counsel, who may avoid an award by
showing that the agency’s position was
reasonable in law and fact.
(b) An award will be reduced or denied if the applicant has unduly or unreasonably protracted the proceeding
or if special circumstances make the
award sought unjust.
[Amdt. 13–18, 53 FR 34655, Sept. 7, 1988, as
amended by Amdt. 14–1, 55 FR 15131, Apr. 20,
1990; Amdt. 14–03, 64 FR 32935, June 18, 1999]
§ 14.05 Allowance fees and expenses.
(a) Awards will be based on rates customarily charged by persons engaged
in the business of acting as attorneys,
agents, and expert witnesses, even if
the services were made available without charge or at a reduced rate to the
applicant.
(b) No award for the fee of an attorney or agent under this part may exceed $125 per hour, or such rate as prescribed by 5 U.S.C. 504. No award to
compensate an expert witness may exceed the highest rate at which the
agency pays expert witnesses. However,
an award may also include the reasonable expenses of the attorney, agent, or
witness as a separate item, if the attorney, agent, or witness ordinarily
charges clients separately for such expenses.
(c) In determining the reasonableness
of the fee sought for an attorney,
agent, or expert witness, the ALJ or
Subpart B—Information Required
From Applicants
§ 14.10 Contents of application.
(a) An application for an award of
fees and expenses under the Act shall
identify the applicant and the proceeding for which an award is sought.
The application shall show that the applicant has prevailed and identify the
position of the agency in the proceeding that the applicant alleges was
not substantially justified. Unless the
applicant is an individual, the application shall also state the number of employees of the applicant and describe
briefly the type and purpose of its organization or business.
(b) The application shall also include
a statement that the applicant’s net
worth does not exceed $2 million (if an
individual) or $7 million (for all other
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§ 14.11
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
applicants, including their affiliates)
at the time the adversary adjudication
was initiated. However, an applicant
may omit this statement if:
(1) It attaches a copy of a ruling by
the Internal Revenue Service that it
qualifies as an organization described
in section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code (26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3)), or in the
case of a tax-exempt organization not
required to obtain a ruling from the Internal Revenue Service on its exempt
status, a statement that describes the
basis for the applicant’s belief that it
qualifies under such section; or
(2) It states that it is a cooperative
association as defined in section 15(a)
of the Agricultural Marketing Act (12
U.S.C. 1141j(a)).
(c) The application shall state the
amount of fees and expenses for which
an award is sought.
(d) The application may also include
any other matters that the applicant
wishes this agency to consider in determining whether and in what amount an
award should be made.
(e) The application shall be signed by
the applicant or an authorized officer
or attorney for the applicant. It shall
also contain or be accompanied by a
written verification under oath or
under penalty of perjury that the information provided in the application is
true and correct.
(f) If the applicant is a partnership,
corporation, association, organization,
or sole owner of an unincorporated
business, the application shall state
that the applicant did not have more
than 500 employees at the time the adversary adjudication was initiated, giving the number of its employees and
describing briefly the type and purpose
of its organization or business.
of the voting shares or other interest of
any corporation or other entity, the
exhibit must include a showing of the
net worth of all such affiliates or of the
applicant including the affiliates. The
exhibit may be in any form convenient
to the applicant that provides full disclosure of the applicant’s and its affiliates’ assets and liabilities and is sufficient to determine whether the applicant qualifies under the standards in
this part. The administrative law judge
may require an applicant to file additional information to determine the
eligibility for an award.
(b) The net worth exhibit shall describe any transfers of assets from, or
obligations incurred by, the applicant
or any affiliate, occurring in the oneyear period prior to the date on which
the proceeding was initiated, that reduced the net worth of the applicant
and its affiliates below the applicable
net worth ceiling. If there were no such
transactions, the applicant shall so
state.
(c) Ordinarily, the net worth exhibit
will be included in the public record of
the proceeding. However, an applicant
that objects to public disclosure of the
net worth exhibit, or any part of it,
may submit that portion of the exhibit
directly to the ALJ or adjudicative officer in a sealed envelope labeled
‘‘Confidential Financial Information,’’
accompanied by a motion to withhold
the information.
(1) The motion shall describe the information sought to be withheld and
explain, in detail, why it should be exempt under applicable law or regulation, why public disclosure would adversely affect the applicant, and why
disclosure is not required in the public
interest.
(2) The net worth exhibit shall be
served on the FAA counsel, but need
not be served on any other party to the
proceeding.
(3) If the ALJ or adjudicative officer
finds that the net worth exhibit, or any
part of it, should not be withheld from
disclosure, it shall be placed in the
public record of the proceeding. Otherwise, any request to inspect or copy
§ 14.11 Net worth exhibit.
(a) Each applicant except a qualified
tax-exempt organization or cooperative
association must provide with its application a detailed exhibit showing
the net worth of the applicant and any
affiliates when the proceeding was initiated. If any individual, corporation,
or other entity directly or indirectly
controls or owns a majority of the voting shares or other interest of the applicant, or if the applicant directly or
indirectly owns or controls a majority
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§ 14.12
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
the exhibit shall be disposed of in accordance with the FAA’s established
procedures.
(3) Issuance of an order disposing of
any petitions for reconsideration of the
FAA Decisionmaker’s final order in the
proceeding;
(4) If no petition for reconsideration
is filed, the last date on which such a
petition could have been filed; or
(5) Issuance of a final order or any
other final resolution of a proceeding,
such as a settlement or voluntary dismissal, which is not subject to a petition for reconsideration.
[54 FR 46199, Nov. 1, 1989, as amended by
Amdt. 14–03, 64 FR 32935, June 18, 1999]
§ 14.12 Documentation of fees and expenses.
The application shall be accompanied
by full documentation of the fees and
expenses, including the cost of any
study, analysis, engineering report,
test, project or similar matter, for
which an award is sought. A separate
itemized statement shall be submitted
for each professional firm or individual
whose services are covered by the application, showing the hours spent in
connection with the proceedings by
each individual, a description of the
specific services performed, the rate at
which each fee has been computed, any
expenses for which reimbursement is
sought, the total amount claimed, and
the total amount paid or payable by
the applicant or by any other person or
entity for the services provided. The
administrative law judge may require
the applicant to provide vouchers, receipts, or other substantiation for any
expenses claimed.
[54 FR 46199, Nov. 1, 1989, as amended by
Amdt. 14–03, 64 FR 32936, June 18, 1999]
§ 14.21 Filing
ments.
service
of
[Doc. No. FAA–1998–4379, 64 FR 32936, June 18,
1999]
§ 14.22
Answer to application.
(a) Within 30 days after service of an
application, counsel representing the
agency against which an award is
sought may file an answer to the application. Unless agency counsel requests
an extension of time for filing or files
a statement of intent to negotiate
under paragraph (b) of the section, failure to file an answer within the 30-day
period may be treated as a consent to
the award requested.
(b) If the FAA’s counsel and the applicant believe that the issues in the
fee application can be settled, they
may jointly file a statement of their
intent to negotiate a settlement. The
filing of this statement shall extend
the time for filing an answer for an additional 30 days, and further extensions
may be granted by the ALJ or adjudicative officer upon request by the
FAA’s counsel and the applicant.
(c) The answer shall explain in detail
any objections to the award requested
§ 14.20 When an application may be
filed.
(a) An application may be filed whenever the applicant has prevailed in the
proceeding, but in no case later than 30
days after the FAA Decisionmaker’s
final disposition of the proceeding, or
service of the order of the Administrator in a proceeding under the AMS.
(b) If review or reconsideration is
sought or taken of a decision to which
an applicant believes it has prevailed,
proceedings for the award of fees shall
be stayed pending final disposition of
the underlying controversy.
(c) For purposes of this part, final
disposition means the later of:
(1) Under part 17 of this chapter and
the AMS, the date on which the order
of the Administrator is served;
(2) The date on which an unappealed
initial decision becomes administratively final;
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Any application for an award or
other pleading or document related to
an application shall be filed and served
on all parties to the proceeding in the
same manner as other pleadings in the
proceeding, except as provided in
§ 14.11(b) for confidential financial information. Where the proceeding was
held under part 17 of this chapter and
the AMS, the application shall be filed
with the FAA’s attorney and with the
Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
Subpart C—Procedures for
Considering Applications
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§ 14.28
and identify the facts relied on in support of agency counsel’s position. If the
answer is based on any alleged facts
not already in the record of the proceeding, agency counsel shall include
with the answer either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 14.26.
the matter may order further proceedings, such as an informal conference, oral argument, additional
written submissions, or an evidentiary
hearing. Such further proceedings shall
be held only when necessary for full
and fair resolution of the issues arising
from the application and shall be conducted as promptly as possible.
(b) A request that the administrative
law judge order further proceedings
under this section shall specifically
identify the information sought or the
disputed issues and shall explain why
the additional proceedings are necessary to resolve the issues.
[54 FR 46199, Nov. 1, 1989, as amended by
Amdt. 14–03, 64 FR 32936, June 18, 1999]
§ 14.23 Reply.
Within 15 days after service of an answer, the applicant may file a reply. If
the reply is based on any alleged facts
not already in the record of the proceeding, the applicant shall include
with the reply either supporting affidavits or a request for further proceedings under § 14.26.
[54 FR 46199, Nov. 1, 1989, as amended by
Amdt. 14–03, 64 FR 32936, June 18, 1999]
§ 14.27
§ 14.24 Comments by other parties.
Any party to a proceeding other than
the applicant and the FAA’s counsel
may file comments on an application
within 30 days after it is served, or on
an answer within 15 days after it is
served. A commenting party may not
participate further in proceedings on
the application unless the ALJ or adjudicative officer determines that the
public interest requires such participation in order to permit full exploration
of matters raised in the comments.
[Doc. No. FAA–1998–4379, 64 FR 32936, June 18,
1999]
§ 14.25 Settlement.
The applicant and agency counsel
may agree on a proposed settlement of
the award before final action on the application, either in connection with a
settlement of the underlying proceeding, or after the underlying proceeding has been concluded. If a prevailing party and agency counsel agree
on a proposed settlement of an award
before an application has been filed,
the application shall be filed with the
proposed settlement.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Decision.
(a) The ALJ shall issue an initial decision on the application within 60 days
after completion of proceedings on the
application.
(b) An adjudicative officer in a proceeding under part 17 of this chapter
and the AMS shall prepare a findings
and recommendations for the Office of
Dispute Resolution for Acquisition.
(c) A decision under paragraph (a) or
(b) of this section shall include written
findings and conclusions on the applicant’s eligibility and status as prevailing party and an explanation of the
reasons for any difference between the
amount requested and the amount
awarded. The decision shall also include, if at issue, findings on whether
the FAA’s position was substantially
justified, or whether special circumstances make an award unjust.
[Doc. No. FAA–1998–4379, 64 FR 32936, June 18,
1999]
§ 14.28
Review by FAA decisionmaker.
(a) In proceedings other than those
under part 17 of this chapter and the
AMS, either the applicant or the FAA
counsel may seek review of the initial
decision on the fee application in accordance with subpart G of part 13 of
this chapter, specifically § 13.233. Additionally, the FAA Decisionmaker may
decide to review the decision on his/her
own initiative. If neither the applicant
nor the FAA’s counsel seeks review
within 30 days after the decision is
issued, it shall become final. Whether
§ 14.26 Further proceedings.
(a) Ordinarily the determination of
an award will be made on the basis of
the written record; however, on request
of either the applicant or agency counsel, or on his or her own initiative, the
ALJ or adjudicative officer assigned to
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§ 14.29
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
to review a decision is a matter within
the discretion of the FAA Decisionmaker. If review is taken, the FAA Decisionmaker will issue a final decision
on the application or remand the application to the ALJ who issue the initial
fee award determination for further
proceedings.
(b) In proceedings under part 17 of
this chapter and the AMS, the adjudicative officer shall prepare findings
and recommendations for the Office of
Dispute Resolution for Acquisition
with recommendations as to whether
or not an award should be made, the
amount of the award, and the reasons
therefor. The Office of Dispute Resolution for Acquisition shall submit a recommended order to the Administrator
after the completion of all submissions
related to the EAJA application. Upon
the Administrator’s action, the order
shall become final, and may be reviewed under 49 U.S.C. 46110.
grants in cases involving the FAA shall
be sent to: The Office of Accounting
and Audit, AAA–1, Federal Aviation
Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC 20591. The
agency will pay the amount awarded to
the applicant within 60 days, unless judicial review of the award or of the underlying decision of the adversary adjudication has been sought by the applicant or any other party to the proceeding.
PART 15—ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS
UNDER FEDERAL TORT CLAIMS ACT
Subpart A—General Procedures
Sec.
15.1 Scope of regulations.
15.3 Administrative claim, when presented;
appropriate office.
15.5 Administrative claim, who may file.
15.7 Administrative claims; evidence and information to be submitted.
15.9 Investigation and examination.
[Doc. No. FAA–1998–4379, 64 FR 32936, June 18,
1999, as amended at 70 FR 8238, Feb. 18, 2005]
Subpart B—Indemnification Under Section
1118 of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 14.29 Judicial review.
If an applicant is dissatisfied with
the determination of fees and other expenses made under this subsection,
pursuant 5 U.S.C. 504(c)(2), that applicant may, within thirty (30) days after
the determination is made, appeal the
determination to the court of the
United States having jurisdiction to review the merits of the underlying decision of the FAA adversary adjudication. The court’s determination on any
appeal heard under this paragraph
shall be based solely on the factual
record made before the FAA. The court
may modify the determination of fees
and other expenses only if the court
finds that the failure to make an award
of fees and other expenses, or the calculation of the amount of the award,
was unsupported by substantial evidence.
15.101 Applicability.
15.103 Exclusions.
15.105 Filing of requests for indemnification.
15.107 Notification requirements.
15.109 Settlements.
15.111 Conduct of litigation.
15.113 Indemnification agreements.
15.115 Payment.
AUTHORITY: 5 U.S.C. 301; 28 U.S.C. 2672, 2675;
49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44721.
Subpart A—General Procedures
SOURCE: Docket No. 25264, 52 FR 18171, May
13, 1987, unless otherwise noted.
§ 15.1 Scope of regulations.
(a) These regulations apply to claims
asserted under the Federal Tort Claims
Act, as amended, for money damages
against the United States for injury to,
or loss of property, or for personal injury or death, caused by the negligent
or wrongful act or omission of an employee of the FAA acting within the
scope of office or employment. The regulations in this part supplement the
Attorney General’s regulations in 28
CFR part 14, as amended. The regulations in 28 CFR part 14, as amended,
§ 14.30 Payment of award.
An applicant seeking payment of an
award shall submit to the disbursing
official of the FAA a copy of the FAA
Decisionmaker’s final decision granting the award, accompanied by a statement that the applicant will not seek
review of the decision in the United
States courts. Applications for award
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§ 15.7
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
and the regulations in this part apply
to consideration by the FAA of administrative claims under the Federal Tort
Claims Act.
ant’s option under 28 U.S.C. 2675(a) does
not accrue until 6 months after the filing of the amendment.
[Doc. No. 18884, 44 FR 63723, Nov. 5, 1979, as
amended by Amdt. 15–1, 54 FR 39290, Sept. 25,
1989; Amdt. 15–4, 62 FR 46866, Sept. 4, 1997]
§ 15.3 Administrative claim, when presented; appropriate office.
(a) A claim is deemed to have been
presented when the FAA receives, at a
place designated in paragraph (b) of
this section, an executed Standard
Form 95 or other written notification
of an incident, accompanied by a claim
for money damages in a sum certain
for injury to, or loss of, property or for
personal injury or death, alleged to
have occurred by reason of the incident. A claim which should have been
presented to the FAA but which was
mistakenly filed with another Federal
agency, is deemed presented to the
FAA on the date the claim is received
by the FAA at a place designated in
paragraph (b) of this section. A claim
addressed to, or filed with, the FAA by
mistake will be transferred to the appropriate Federal agency, if that agency can be determined, or returned to
the claimant.
(b) Claims shall be delivered or
mailed to the Assistant Chief Counsel,
Litigation Division, AGC–400, Federal
Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Washington, DC
20591, or alternatively, may be mailed
or delivered to the Regional Counsel in
any of the FAA Regional Offices or the
Assistant Chief Counsel, Europe, Africa, and Middle East Area Office.
(c) Claim forms are available at each
location listed in paragraph (b) of this
section.
(d) A claim presented in accordance
with this section may be amended by
the claimant at any time prior to final
FAA action or prior to the exercise of
the claimant’s option, under 28 U.S.C.
2675(a), to deem the agency’s failure to
make a final disposition of his or her
claim within 6 months after it was filed
as a final denial. Each amendment to a
claim shall be submitted in writing and
signed by the claimant or the claimant’s duly authorized agent or legal
representative. Upon the timely filing
of an amendment to a pending claim,
the FAA has 6 months thereafter in
which to make a final disposition of
the claim as amended, and the claim-
§ 15.5 Administrative claim, who may
file.
(a) A claim for injury to, or loss of,
property may be presented by the
owner of the property interest which is
the subject of the claim or by the owner’s duly authorized agent or legal representative.
(b) A claim for personal injury may
be presented by the injured person or
that person’s duly authorized agent or
legal representative.
(c) A claim based on death may be
presented by the executor or administrator of the decedent’s estate or by
any other person legally entitled to assert such a claim under applicable
State law.
(d) A claim for loss wholly compensated by an insurer with the rights
of a subrogee may be presented by the
insurer. A claim for loss partially compensated by an insurer with the rights
of a subrogee may be presented by the
insurer or the insured individually, as
their respective interest appear, or
jointly. Whenever an insurer presents a
claim asserting the rights of a
subrogee, it shall present with its
claim appropriate evidence that it has
the rights of a subrogee.
(e) A claim presented by an agent or
legal representative shall be presented
in the name of the claimant, be signed
by the agent or legal representative,
show the title or legal capacity of the
person signing, and be accompanied by
evidence of authority to present a
claim on behalf of the claimant as
agent, executor, administrator, parent,
guardian, or other representative.
§ 15.7 Administrative claims; evidence
and information to be submitted.
(a) Death. In support of a claim based
on death, the claimant may be required
to submit the following evidence or information:
(1) An authenticated death certificate or other competent evidence showing cause of death, date of death, and
age of the decedent.
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§ 15.9
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(2) The decedent’s employment or occupation at time of death, including
monthly or yearly salary or earnings
(if any), and the duration of last employment or occupation.
(3) Full names, addresses, birth dates,
kinship, and marital status of the decedent’s survivors, including identification of those survivors who were dependent for support upon the decedent
at the time of death.
(4) Degree of support afforded by the
decedent to each survivor dependent
upon decedent for support at the time
of death.
(5) Decedent’s general, physical, and
mental conditions before death.
(6) Itemized bills for medical and burial expenses incurred by reason of the
incident causing death or itemized receipts of payment for such expenses.
(7) If damages for pain and suffering
prior to death are claimed, a physician’s detailed statement specifying
the injuries suffered, duration of pain
and suffering, any drugs administered
for pain, and the decedent’s physical
condition in the interval between injury and death.
(8) Any other evidence or information
which may have a bearing on either the
responsibility of the United States for
the death or the amount of damages
claimed.
(b) Personal injury. In support of a
claim for personal injury, including
pain and suffering, the claimant may
be required to submit the following
evidence or information:
(1) A written report by the attending
physician or dentist setting forth the
nature and extent of the injuries, nature and extent of treatment, any degree of temporary or permanent disability, the prognosis, period of hospitalization, and any diminished earning capacity.
(2) In addition to the report required
by paragraph (b)(1) of this section, the
claimant may be required to submit to
a physical or mental examination by a
physician employed by the FAA or another Federal agency. A copy of the report of the examining physician is
made available to the claimant upon
the claimant’s written request if the
claimant has, upon request, furnished
the report required by paragraph (b)(1),
and has made or agrees to make avail-
able to the FAA any other physician’s
reports previously or thereafter made
on the physical or mental condition
which is the subject matter of the
claim.
(3) Itemized bills for medical, dental,
and hospital expenses incurred or
itemized receipts of payment for such
expenses.
(4) If the prognosis reveals the necessity for future treatment, a statement
of expected expenses for such treatment.
(5) If a claim is made for loss of time
from employment, a written statement
from the claimant’s employer showing
actual time lost from employment,
whether the claimant is a full or parttime employee, and wages or salary actually lost.
(6) If a claim is made for loss of income and the claimant is self-employed, documentary evidence showing
the amount of earnings actually lost.
(7) Any other evidence or information
which may have a bearing on the responsibility of the United States for
the personal injury or the damages
claimed.
(c) Property damage. In support of a
claim for injury to or loss of property,
real or personal, the claimant may be
required to submit the following evidence or information:
(1) Proof of ownership of the property
interest which is the subject of the
claim.
(2) A detailed statement of the
amount claimed with respect to each
item of property.
(3) An itemized receipt of payment
for necessary repairs or itemized written estimates of the cost of such repairs.
(4) A statement listing date of purchase, purchase price, and salvage
value, where repair is not economical.
(5) Any other evidence or information
which may have a bearing on either the
responsibility of the United States for
the injury to or loss of property or the
damages claimed.
§ 15.9
Investigation and examination.
The FAA may investigate a claim or
conduct a physical examination of a
claimant. The FAA may request any
other Federal agency to investigate a
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 15.107
claim or conduct a physical examination of a claimant and provide a report
of the investigation or examination to
the FAA.
quest by the Administrator
§ 15.111(d)(2) of this part.
Subpart B—Indemnification Under
Section 1118 of the Federal
Aviation Act of 1958
A request for indemnification under
this part—
(a) May be filed by—
(1) A publisher described in § 15.101 of
this part; or
(2) The publisher’s duly authorized
agent or legal representative;
(b) Shall be filed with the Chief
Counsel, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue SW.,
Washington, DC 20591; and
(c) Shall state the basis for the publisher’s assertion that indemnification
under this part is required.
§ 15.105 Filing of requests for indemnification.
SOURCE: Amdt. 15–2, 55 FR 18710, May 3,
1990, unless otherwise noted.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 15.101 Applicability.
This subpart prescribes procedural
requirements for the indemnification
of a publisher of aeronautical charts or
maps under section 1118 of the Federal
Aviation Act of 1958, as amended, when
the publisher incurs liability as a result of publishing—
(a) A chart or map accurately depicting a defective or deficient flight procedure or airway that was promulgated
by the FAA; or
(b) Aeronautical data that—
(1) Is visually displayed in the cockpit of an aircraft; and
(2) When visually displayed, accurately depicts a defective or deficient
flight procedure or airway promulgated
by the FAA.
§ 15.107
Notification requirements.
A request for indemnification will
not be considered by the FAA unless
the following conditions are met:
(a) The publisher must notify the
Chief Counsel of the FAA, within the
time limits prescribed in paragraph (b)
or (c) of this section, of the publisher’s
first receipt of a demand for payment,
or service of a complaint in any proceeding, federal or state, in which it
appears that indemnification under
this part may be required.
(b) For each complaint filed, or demand for payment made, on or after
December 19, 1985, and before June 4,
1990, the notice required by paragraph
(a) of this section must be received by
the FAA on or before July 2, 1990.
(c) For each complaint filed, or demand for payment made, on or after
June 4, 1990, the notice required by
paragraph (a) of this section must be
received by the FAA within 60 days
after the day the publisher first receives the demand for payment or service of the complaint.
(d) Within 5 days after the day a
judgment is rendered against the publisher in any proceeding, or within 30
days of the denial of an appeal, whichever is later, the publisher must notify
the FAA Chief Counsel that—
(1) There is an adverse judgment
against the publisher; and
(2) The publisher has a claim for indemnification against the FAA arising
out of that judgment.
§ 15.103 Exclusions.
A publisher that requests indemnification under this part will not be
indemnified if—
(a) The complaint filed against the
publisher, or demand for payment
against the publisher, first occurred before December 19, 1985;
(b) The publisher does not negotiate
a good faith settlement;
(c) The publisher does not conduct a
good faith defense;
(d) The defective or deficient flight
procedure or airway—
(1) Was not promulgated by the FAA;
(2) Was not accurately depicted on
the publisher’s chart or map;
(3) Was not accurately displayed on a
visual display in the cockpit, or
(4) Was obviously defective or deficient;
(e) The publisher does not give notice
as required by § 15.107 of this part and
that failure is prejudicial to the Government; or
(f) The publisher does not appeal a
lower court’s decision pursuant to a re-
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§ 15.109
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(b) If the lawsuit filed against the
publisher results in a proposed settlement, the publisher shall submit that
proposed settlement to the FAA for approval in accordance with § 15.109 of
this part.
(c) If the lawsuit filed against the
publisher results in a judgment against
the publisher and the publisher has
sought, or intends to seek, indemnification under this part as a result of
the adverse judgment, the publisher
shall—
(1) Give notice to the FAA as required by § 15.107(d) of this part;
(2) Submit a copy of the trial court’s
decision to the FAA Chief Counsel not
more than 5 business days after the adverse judgment is rendered; and
(3) If an appeal is taken from the adverse judgment, submit a copy of the
appellate decision to the FAA Chief
Counsel not more than 30 days after
that decision is rendered.
(d) Within 60 days after receipt of the
trial court’s decision, the Administrator by registered mail will—
(1) Notify the publisher that indemnification is required under this part;
(2) Request that the publisher appeal
the trial court’s adverse decision; or
(3) Notify the publisher that it is not
entitled to indemnification under this
part and briefly state the basis for the
denial.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 15.109 Settlements.
(a) A publisher may not settle a
claim with another party, for which
the publisher has sought, or intends to
seek, indemnification under this part,
unless—
(1) The publisher submits a copy of
the proposed settlement, and a statement justifying the settlement, to the
Chief Counsel of the FAA; and
(2) The Administrator and where necessary, the appropriate official of the
Department of Justice, approves the
proposed settlement.
(3) The publisher submits a signed release that clearly releases the United
States from any further liability to the
publisher and the claimant.
(b) If the Administrator does not approve the proposed settlement, the Administrator will—
(1) So notify the publisher by registered mail within 60 days of receipt of
the proposed settlement; and
(2) Explain why the request for indemnification was not approved.
(c) If the Administrator approves the
proposed settlement, the Administrator will so notify the publisher by
registered mail within 60 days after the
FAA’s receipt of the proposed settlement.
(d) If the Administrator does not
have sufficient information to approve
or disapprove the proposed settlement,
the Administrator will request, within
60 days after receipt of the proposed
settlement, the additional information
needed to make a determination.
§ 15.113
Indemnification agreements.
(a) Upon a finding of the Administrator that indemnification is required
under this part, and after obtaining the
concurrence of the United States Department of Justice, the FAA will
promptly enter into an indemnification
agreement providing for the payment
of the costs specified in paragraph (c)
of this section.
(b) The indemnification agreement
will be signed by the Chief Counsel and
the publisher.
(c) The FAA will indemnify the publisher for—
(1) Compensatory damages awarded
by the court against the publisher;
(2) Reasonable costs and fees, including reasonable attorney fees at a rate
not to exceed that permitted under the
Equal Access to Justice Act (5 U.S.C.
504), and any postjudgment interest, if
§ 15.111 Conduct of litigation.
(a) If a lawsuit is filed against the
publisher and the publisher has sought,
or intends to seek, indemnification
under this part, the publisher shall—
(1) Give notice as required by § 15.107
of this part;
(2) If requested by the United
States—
(i) Implead the United States as a
third-party defendant in the action;
and
(ii) Arrange for the removal of the
action to Federal Court;
(3) Promptly provide any additional
information requested by the United
States; and
(4) Cooperate with the United States
in the defense of the lawsuit.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
Pt. 16
16.31 Director’s determinations after investigations.
16.33 Final decisions without hearing.
16.34 Consent orders.
the publisher conducts a good faith defense, or pursues a good faith appeal, at
the request, or with the concurrence, of
the FAA.
(d) Except as otherwise provided in
this section, the FAA will not indemnify the publisher for—
(1) Punitive or exemplary damages;
(2) Civil or criminal fines or any
other litigation sanctions;
(3) Postjudgment interest;
(4) Costs;
(5) Attorney fees; or
(6) Other incidental expenses.
(e) The indemnification agreement
must provide that the Government will
be subrogated to all claims or rights of
the publisher, including third-party
claims, cross-claims, and counterclaims.
§ 15.115
Subpart D—Special Rules Applicable to
Proceedings Initiated by the FAA
16.101 Basis for the initiation of agency action.
16.103 Notice of investigation.
16.105 Failure to resolve informally.
Subpart E—Proposed Orders of
Compliance
16.109 Orders terminating eligibility for
grants, cease and desist orders, and other
compliance orders.
Subpart F—Hearings
16.201 Notice and order of hearing.
16.202 Powers of a hearing officer.
16.203 Appearances, parties, and rights of
parties.
16.207 Intervention and other participation.
16.209 Extension of time.
16.211 Prehearing conference.
16.213 Discovery.
16.215 Depositions.
16.217 Witnesses.
16.219 Subpoenas.
16.221 Witness fees.
16.223 Evidence.
16.225 Public disclosure of evidence.
16.227 Standard of proof.
16.229 Burden of proof.
16.231 Offer of proof.
16.233 Record.
16.235 Argument before the hearing officer.
16.237 Waiver of procedures.
16.241 Initial decisions, orders, and appeals.
16.243 Consent orders.
16.245 Associate Administrator review after
a hearing.
Payment.
After execution of the indemnification agreement, the FAA will submit
the agreement to the United States Department of Justice and request payment, in accordance with the agreement, from the Judgment Fund.
PART 16—RULES OF PRACTICE FOR
FEDERALLY-ASSISTED
AIRPORT
ENFORCEMENT PROCEEDINGS
Subpart A—General Provisions
Sec.
16.1 Applicability and description of part.
16.3 Definitions.
16.5 Separation of functions.
Subpart B—General Rules Applicable to
Complaints, Proceedings Initiated by
the FAA, and Appeals
Subpart G—Judicial Review
16.247 Judicial review of a final decision and
order.
16.11 General processes.
16.13 Filing of documents.
16.15 Service of documents on the parties
and the agency.
16.17 Computation of time.
16.19 Motions.
Subpart H—Ex Parte Communications
16.301 Prohibited ex parte communications.
16.303 Procedures for handling ex parte
communications.
16.305 Requirement to show cause and imposition of sanction.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Subpart C—Special Rules Applicable to
Complaints
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 322, 1110, 1111,
1115, 1116, 1718(a) and (b), 1719, 1723, 1726, 1727,
40103(e), 40113, 40116, 44502(b), 46101, 46104,
46110, 47104, 47106(e), 47107, 47108, 47111(d),
47122, 47123–47125, 47133, 47151–47153, 48103.
16.21 Pre-complaint resolution.
16.23 Pleadings.
16.25 Dismissals.
16.26 Motions to dismiss and motions for
summary judgment.
16.27 Incomplete complaints.
16.29 Investigations.
SOURCE: Docket No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct.
16, 1996, unless otherwise noted.
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§ 16.1
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(8) Obligations contained in property
deeds for property transferred under
the Surplus Property Act (49 U.S.C.
47151–47153).
(b) Other agencies. Where a grant assurance concerns a statute, executive
order, regulation, or other authority
that provides an administrative process for the investigation or adjudication of complaints by a Federal agency
other than the FAA, persons shall use
the administrative process established
by those authorities. Where a grant assurance concerns a statute, executive
order, regulation, or other authority
that enables a Federal agency other
than the FAA to investigate, adjudicate, and enforce compliance under
those authorities on its own initiative,
the FAA may defer to that Federal
agency.
(c) Other enforcement. If a complaint
or action initiated by the FAA involves
a violation of the 49 U.S.C. subtitle VII
or FAA regulations, except as specified
in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this
section, the FAA may take investigative and enforcement action under 14
CFR part 13, ‘‘Investigative and Enforcement Procedures.’’
(d) Effective date. This part applies to
a complaint filed with the FAA and to
an investigation initiated by the FAA
on or after December 16, 1996.
Subpart A—General Provisions
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 16.1 Applicability and description of
part.
(a) General. The provisions of this
part govern all Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) proceedings involving Federally-assisted airports, except
for complaints or requests for determination filed with the Secretary
under 14 CFR part 302, whether the proceedings are instituted by order of the
FAA or by filing a complaint with the
FAA under the following authorities:
(1) 49 U.S.C. 40103(e), prohibiting the
grant of exclusive rights for the use of
any landing area or air navigation facility on which Federal funds have
been expended (formerly section 308 of
the Federal Aviation Act of 1958, as
amended).
(2) Requirements of the Anti-Head
Tax Act, 49 U.S.C. 40116.
(3) The assurances and other Federal
obligations contained in grant-in-aid
agreements issued under the Federal
Airport Act of 1946, 49 U.S.C. 1101 et seq.
(repealed 1970).
(4) The assurances and other Federal
obligations contained in grant-in-aid
agreements issued under the Airport
and Airway Development Act of 1970,
as amended, 49 U.S.C. 1701 et seq.
(5) The assurances and other Federal
obligations contained in grant-in-aid
agreements issued under the Airport
and Airway Improvement Act of 1982
(AAIA), as amended and recodified, 49
U.S.C. 47101 et seq., specifically section
511(a), 49 U.S.C. 47107, and 49 U.S.C.
47133.
(6) Section 505(d) of the Airport and
Airway Improvement Act of 1982, and
the requirements concerning civil
rights and/or Disadvantaged Business
Enterprise (DBE) issues contained in 49
U.S.C. 47107(e) and 49 U.S.C. 47113; 49
U.S.C. 47123; 49 U.S.C. 322, as amended;
49 CFR parts 23 and/or 26; and/or grant
assurance 30 and/or grant assurance 37.
(7) Obligations contained in property
deeds for property transferred pursuant
to section 16 of the Federal Airport Act
(49 U.S.C. 1115), section 23 of the Airport and Airway Development Act (49
U.S.C. 1723), or section 516 of the Airport and Airway Improvement Act (49
U.S.C. 47125).
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56141, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.3
Definitions.
Terms defined in the Acts are used as
so defined. As used in this part:
Act means a statute listed in § 16.1
and any regulation, agreement, or document of conveyance issued or made
under that statute.
Administrator means the Administrator of the FAA.
Agency means the FAA.
Agency attorney means the Deputy
Chief Counsel; the Assistant Chief
Counsel and attorneys in the Airports/
Environmental Law Division of the Office of the Chief Counsel; the Assistant
Chief Counsel and attorneys in an FAA
region or center who represent the
FAA during the investigation of a complaint or at a hearing on a complaint,
and who prosecute on behalf of the
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 16.3
Electronic filing means the process of
sending electronic mail (email) to the
FAA Part 16 Docket Clerk, with
scanned documents attached, as a
Portable Document Format (PDF) file.
Ex parte communication means an oral
or written communication not on the
public record with respect to which
reasonable prior notice to all parties is
not given, but it shall not include requests for status reports on any matter
or proceeding covered by this part, or
communications between FAA employees who participate as parties to a
hearing pursuant to 16.203(b) of this
part and other parties to a hearing.
Hearing officer means an attorney
designated by the Deputy Chief Counsel in a hearing order to serve as a
hearing officer in a hearing under this
part. The following are not designated
as hearing officers: the Chief Counsel
and Deputy Chief Counsel; the Regional or Center Counsel and attorneys
in the FAA region or center in which
the noncompliance has allegedly occurred or is occurring; the Assistant
Chief Counsel and attorneys in the Airports and Environmental Law Division
of the FAA Office of the Chief Counsel;
and the Assistant Chief Counsel and attorneys in the Litigation Division of
the FAA Office of Chief Counsel.
Initial decision means a decision made
by the hearing officer in a hearing
under subpart F of this part.
Mail means U.S. first class mail; U.S.
certified mail; and U.S. express mail.
Unless otherwise noted, mail also
means electronic mail containing PDF
copies of pleadings or documents required herein.
Noncompliance means anything done
or omitted to be done by any person in
contravention of any provision of any
Act, as defined in this section, as to
matters within the jurisdiction of the
Administrator.
Party means the complainant(s) and
the respondent(s) named in the complaint and, after an initial determination providing an opportunity for hearing is issued under § 16.31 and subpart E
of this part, the agency.
Person in addition to its meaning
under 49 U.S.C. 40102(a)(33), includes a
public agency as defined in 49 U.S.C.
47102(a)(15).
FAA, as appropriate. An agency attorney shall not include the Chief Counsel; the Assistant Chief Counsel for
Litigation, or any attorney on the staff
of the Assistant Chief Counsel for Litigation, who advises the Associate Administrator regarding an initial decision of the hearing officer or any appeal to the Associate Administrator or
who is supervised in that action by a
person who provides such advice in an
action covered by this part.
Agency employee means any employee
of the FAA.
Associate Administrator means the
FAA Associate Administrator for Airports or a designee. For the purposes of
this part only, Associate Administrator also means the Assistant Administrator for Civil Rights or a designee for complaints that the FAA Associate Administrator for Airports
transfers to the Assistant Administrator for Civil Rights.
Complainant means the person submitting a complaint.
Complaint means a written document
meeting the requirements of this part
and filed under this part:
(1) By a person directly and substantially affected by anything allegedly
done or omitted to be done by any person in contravention of any provision
of any Act, as defined in this section,
as to matters within the jurisdiction of
the Administrator, or
(2) By a person under 49 CFR 26.105(c)
against a recipient of FAA funds alleged to have violated a provision of 49
CFR parts 23 and/or 26.
Decisional employee means the Administrator, Deputy Administrator, Associate Administrator, Director, hearing
officer, or other FAA employee who is
or who may reasonably be expected to
be involved in the decisional process of
the proceeding.
Director means the Director of the
FAA Office of Airport Compliance and
Management Analysis, or a designee.
For the purposes of this part only, Director also means the Deputy Assistant
Administrator for Civil Rights for complaints that the Director of the FAA
Office of Airport Compliance and Management Analysis transfers to the Deputy Assistant Administrator for Civil
Rights or designee.
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§ 16.5
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Personal delivery means same-day
hand delivery or overnight express delivery service.
Respondent means any person named
in a complaint as a person responsible
for noncompliance.
Sponsor means:
(1) Any public agency which, either
individually or jointly with one or
more other public agencies, has received Federal financial assistance for
airport development or planning under
the Federal Airport Act, Airport and
Airway Development Act or Airport
and Airway Improvement Act;
(2) Any private owner of a public-use
airport that has received financial assistance from the FAA for such airport;
and
(3) Any person to whom the Federal
Government has conveyed property for
airport purposes under section 13(g) of
the Surplus Property Act of 1944, as
amended.
Writing or written includes paper documents that are filed and/or served by
mail, personal delivery, facsimile, or
email (as attached PDF files).
torney on the staff of the Assistant
Chief Counsel for Litigation advises
the Associate Administrator regarding
an initial decision, an appeal, or a final
decision regarding any case brought
under this part.
Subpart B—General Rules Applicable to Complaints, Proceedings Initiated by the FAA,
and Appeals
§ 16.11 General processes.
(a) Under the authority of 49 U.S.C.
40113 and 47121, the Director may conduct investigations, issue orders, and
take such other actions as are necessary to fulfill the purposes of this
part. This includes the extension of
any time period prescribed, where necessary or appropriate for a fair and
complete consideration of matters before the agency, prior to issuance of
the Director’s Determination.
(b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this part, upon finding that circumstances require expedited handling
of a particular case or controversy, the
Director may issue an order directing
any of the following prior to the
issuance of the Director’s Determination:
(1) Shortening the time period for
any action under this part consistent
with due process;
(2) If other adequate opportunity to
respond to pleadings is available,
eliminating the reply, rebuttal, or
other actions prescribed by this part;
(3) Designating alternative methods
of service; or
(4) Directing such other measures as
may be required.
(c) Other than those matters concerning a Corrective Action Plan, the
jurisdiction of the Director terminates
upon the issuance of the Director’s Determination. All matters arising during the appeal period, such as requests
for extension of time to make an appeal, will be addressed by the Associate
Administrator.
(d) The Director may transfer to the
FAA Deputy Assistant Administrator
for Civil Rights or Office of Civil
Rights designee the authority to prepare and issue Director’s Determinations pursuant to § 16.31 for complaints
alleging violations of section 505(d) of
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56141, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.5 Separation of functions.
(a) Proceedings under this part, including hearings under subpart F of
this part, will be prosecuted by an
agency attorney.
(b) After issuance of an initial determination in which the FAA provides
the opportunity for a hearing, an agency employee engaged in the performance of investigative or prosecutorial
functions in a proceeding under this
part will not, in that case or a factually related case, participate or give
advice in an initial decision by the
hearing officer, or a final decision by
the Associate Administrator or designee on written appeal, and will not,
except as counsel or as witness in the
public proceedings, engage in any substantive communication regarding that
case or a related case with the hearing
officer, the Associate Administrator on
written appeal, or agency employees
advising those officials in that capacity.
(c) The Chief Counsel, the Assistant
Chief Counsel for Litigation, or an at-
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 16.13
the Airport and Airway Improvement
Act of 1982, and the requirements concerning civil rights and/or Disadvantaged Business Enterprise (DBE) issues
contained in 49 U.S.C. 47107(e) and 49
U.S.C. 47113; 49 U.S.C. 47123; 49 U.S.C.
322, as amended; 49 CFR parts 23 and/or
26; and/or grant assurance 30 and/or
grant assurance 37.
Docket Clerk. One of the three copies
shall not be stapled, bound or holepunched. Copies need not be signed, but
the name of the person signing the
original shall be shown. If a hearing
order has been issued in the case, one
of the three copies shall be filed with
the hearing officer unless otherwise
prescribed by the hearing officer.
(d) Form. Documents filed under this
part shall:
(1) Be typewritten or legibly printed;
(2) Include, in the case of docketed
proceedings, the docket number of the
proceeding on the front page; and
(3) Be marked to identify personal,
privileged or proprietary information.
Decisions for the publication and release of these documents will be made
in accordance with 5 U.S.C. 552 and 49
CFR part 7.
(e) Signing of documents and other papers. The original of every document
filed shall be signed by the person filing it or the person’s duly authorized
representative. The signature shall
serve as a certification that the signer
has read the document and, based on
reasonable inquiry and to the best of
the signer’s knowledge, information,
and belief, the document is—
(1) Consistent with this part;
(2) Warranted by existing law or that
a good faith argument exists for extension, modification, or reversal of existing law; and
(3) Not interposed for any improper
purpose, such as to harass or to cause
unnecessary delay or needless increase
in the cost of the administrative process.
(f) Designation of person to receive service. The initial document filed by any
person shall state on the first page the
name, physical address, telephone
number, facsimile number, if any, and
email address, if filing electronically,
of the person(s) to be served with documents in the proceeding. If any of these
items change during the proceeding,
the person shall promptly file notice of
the change with the FAA Part 16 Docket Clerk and the hearing officer and
shall serve the notice on all parties.
(g) Docket numbers. Each submission
identified as a complaint under this
part by the submitting person will be
assigned a docket number.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56142, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.13 Filing of documents.
Except as otherwise provided in this
part, documents shall be filed with the
FAA during a proceeding under this
part as follows:
(a) Filing address. Documents filed
under this Part shall be filed with the
Office of the Chief Counsel, Attention:
FAA Part 16 Docket Clerk, AGC–600,
Federal Aviation Administration, 800
Independence Avenue SW., Washington,
DC 20591. Documents to be filed with a
hearing officer shall be filed at the address and in the manner stated in the
hearing order.
(b) Date and method of filing. Filing of
any document shall be by personal delivery or mail as defined in this part,
by facsimile (when confirmed by filing
on the same date by one of the foregoing methods), or electronically as set
forth in paragraph (h) of this section.
Unless the date is shown to be inaccurate, documents filed with the FAA
shall be deemed to be filed on the date
of personal delivery, on the mailing
date shown on the certificate of service, on the date shown on the postmark
if there is no certificate of service, on
the send date shown on the facsimile
(provided filing has been confirmed
through one of the foregoing methods),
or on the mailing date shown by other
evidence if there is no certificate of
service and no postmark. Unless the
date is shown to be inaccurate, documents filed electronically shall be
deemed to be filed on the date shown
on the certificate of service or, if none,
the date of electronic transmission to
the last party required to be served.
(c) Number of copies. With the exception of electronic filing or unless otherwise specified, an executed original
and three copies of each document
shall be filed with the FAA Part 16
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jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 16.15
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(h) Electronic filing. (1) The initial
complaint may be served electronically
upon the respondent only if the respondent has previously agreed with
the complainant in writing to participate in electronic filing. Documents
may be filed under this Part electronically by sending an email containing
(an) attachment(s) of (a) PDF file(s) of
the required pleading to the FAA
Docket Clerk, and the person designated in paragraph (h)(3) of this section.
(2) The subject line of the email must
contain the names of the complainant
and respondent, and must contain the
FAA docket number (if assigned). The
size of each email must be less than 10
MB. Email attachments containing
executable files (e.g., .exe and .vbs
files) will not be accepted.
(3) The email address at which the
parties may file the documents described in this section is 9-AWA-AGCPart-16@faa.gov. No acknowledgement
or receipt will be provided by the FAA
to parties using this method. A party
filing electronically as described in
this section must provide to the FAA
Part 16 Docket Clerk and the opposing
party an email address of the person
designated by the party to receive
pleadings.
(4) By filing a pleading or document
electronically as described in this section, a party waives the rights under
this part for service by the opposing
party and the FAA by methods other
than email. If a party subsequently decides to ‘‘opt-out’’ of electronic filing,
that party must so notify the FAA
Part 16 Docket Clerk and the other
party in writing, from which time the
FAA and the parties will begin serving
the opting-out party in accordance
with §§ 16.13 and 16.15. This subsection
only exempts the parties from the filing and service requirements in
§ 16.13(a) (with the exception that
‘‘Documents to be filed with a hearing
officer shall be filed at the address and
in the manner stated in the hearing
order.’’), the method of filing requirements in § 16.13(b), and the number of
documents requirements in § 16.13(c).
(i) Internet accessibility of documents
filed in the Hearing Docket. (1) Unless
protected from public disclosure, all
documents filed in the Hearing Docket
are accessible through the Federal
Docket Management System (FDMS):
http://www.regulations.gov. To access a
particular case file, use the FDMS
number assigned to the case.
(2) Determinations issued by the Director and Associate Administrator in
Part 16 cases, indexes of decisions, contact information for the FAA Hearing
Docket, the rules of practice, and other
information are available on the FAA
Office of Airports’ Web site at: http://
part16.airports.faa.gov/index.cfm.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56142, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.15 Service of documents on the
parties and the agency.
Except as otherwise provided in this
part, documents shall be served as follows:
(a) Whom must be served. Copies of all
documents filed with the FAA Part 16
Docket Clerk shall be served by the
persons filing them on all parties to
the proceeding. A certificate of service
shall accompany all documents when
they are tendered for filing and shall
certify concurrent service on the FAA
and all parties. Certificates of service
shall be in substantially the following
form:
I hereby certify that I have this day served
the foregoing [name of document] on the following persons at the following addresses,
facsimile numbers (if also served by facsimile), or email address (if served electronically in accordance with § 16.13(h)), by [specify method of service]:
[list persons, addresses, facsimile numbers,
email addresses (as applicable)]
Dated this lday of l, 20l.
[signature], for [party]
(b) Method of service. Except as otherwise agreed by the parties and, if applicable, the hearing officer, the method of service is the same as set forth in
§ 16.13(b) for filing documents.
(c) Where service shall be made. Service shall be made to the persons identified in accordance with § 16.13(f). If no
such person has been designated, service shall be made on the party.
(d) Presumption of service. There shall
be a presumption of lawful service—
(1) When acknowledgment of receipt
is by a person who customarily or in
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 16.21
the ordinary course of business receives mail at the address of the party
or of the person designated under
§ 16.13(f);
(2) When a properly addressed envelope, sent to the most current address
submitted under § 16.13(f), has been returned as undeliverable, unclaimed, or
refused; or
(3) When the party serving the document electronically has a confirmation
statement demonstrating that the
email was properly sent to a party correctly addressed.
(e) Date of service. The date of service
shall be determined in the same manner as the filing date under § 16.13(b).
ticularity the relief sought and the
grounds for the relief sought, and shall
be accompanied by affidavits or other
evidence relied upon. Motions introduced during hearings may be made
orally on the record, unless the hearing
officer directs otherwise.
(c) Answers to motions. Except as otherwise provided in this part, or except
when a motion is made during a hearing, any party may file an answer in
support of or in opposition to a motion,
accompanied by affidavits or other evidence relied upon, provided that the
answer to the motion is filed within 10
days after the motion has been served
upon the person answering, or any
other period set by the hearing officer.
Where a motion is made during a hearing, the answer and the ruling thereon
may be made at the hearing, or orally
or in writing within the time set by the
hearing officer.
(d) Deferred actions on motions. A ruling on a motion made before the time
set for the issuance of the Director’s
Determination may be deferred to and
included with the Director’s Determination.
(e) Extension by motion. A party shall
file a written motion for an extension
of time not later than 3 business days
before the document is due unless good
cause for the late filing is shown. A
party filing a motion for extension
should attempt to obtain the concurrence of the opposing party. A party
filing a written motion for an extension of time shall file the motion as required under § 16.13, and serve a copy of
the motion on all parties and the docket clerk as required under § 16.15.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56143, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.17 Computation of time.
This section applies to any period of
time prescribed or allowed by this part,
by notice or order of the hearing officer, or by an applicable statute.
(a) The date of an act, event, or default, after which a designated time period begins to run, is not included in a
computation of time under this part.
(b) The last day of a time period is
included in a computation of time unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or legal
holiday for the FAA, in which case, the
time period runs until the end of the
next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.
(c) Whenever a party has the right or
is required to do some act within a prescribed period after service of a document upon the party, and the document is served on the party by first
class mail or certified mail, 5 days
shall be added to the prescribed period.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56143, Sept. 12,
2013]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56143, Sept. 12,
2013]
Subpart C—Special Rules
Applicable to Complaints
§ 16.19 Motions.
(a) General. An application for an
order or ruling not otherwise specifically provided for in this part shall be
by motion. Unless otherwise ordered by
the agency, the filing of a motion will
not stay the date that any action is
permitted or required by this part.
(b) Form and contents. Unless made
during a hearing, motions shall be
made in writing, shall state with par-
§ 16.21
Pre-complaint resolution.
(a) Except for those persons filing
under 49 CFR 26.105(c), prior to filing a
complaint under this part, a person directly and substantially affected by the
alleged noncompliance shall initiate
and engage in good faith efforts to resolve the disputed matter informally
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§ 16.23
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
with those individuals or entities believed responsible for the noncompliance. These efforts at informal resolution may include, without limitation,
at the parties’ expense, mediation, arbitration, or the use of a dispute resolution board, or other form of third
party assistance. The FAA Airports
District Office, FAA Airports Field Office, FAA Regional Airports Division
responsible for administering financial
assistance to the sponsor, or the FAA
Office of Civil Rights will be available
upon request to assist the parties with
informal resolution.
(b) Except for complaints filed under
49 CFR 26.105(c), a complaint will be
dismissed under § 16.27 unless the person or authorized representative filing
the complaint certifies that:
(1) The complainant has made substantial and reasonable good faith efforts to resolve the disputed matter informally prior to filing the complaint;
and
(2) There is no reasonable prospect
for practical and timely resolution of
the dispute.
(c) The certification required under
paragraph (b) of this section, shall include a brief description of the party’s
efforts to obtain informal resolution
but shall not include information on
monetary or other settlement offers
made but not agreed upon in writing by
all parties. Such efforts to resolve informally should be relatively recent
and be demonstrated by pertinent documentation. There is no required form
or process for informal resolution, but
in each case the requirements to resolve the matter informally must meet
the requirements of this paragraph.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56143, Sept. 12,
2013]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 16.23
Pleadings.
(a) A person directly and substantially affected by any alleged noncompliance or a person qualified under
49 CFR 26.105(c) may file a complaint
under this part. A person doing business with an airport and paying fees or
rentals to the airport shall be considered directly and substantially affected
by alleged revenue diversion as defined
in 49 U.S.C. 47107(b).
(b) Complaints filed under this part
shall—
(1) State the name and address of
each person who is the subject of the
complaint and, with respect to each
person, the specific provisions of each
Act that the complainant believes were
violated;
(2) Include all documents then available in the exercise of reasonable diligence, to be offered in support of the
complaint, and to be served upon all
persons named in the complaint as persons responsible for the alleged action(s) or omission(s) upon which the
complaint is based;
(3) Provide a concise but complete
statement of the facts relied upon to
substantiate each allegation; and
(4) Except for complaints filed under
49 CFR 26.105(c), describe how the complainant was directly and substantially
affected by the things done or omitted
to be done by the respondents.
(c) Unless the complaint is dismissed
pursuant to § 16.25 or § 16.27, the FAA
notifies the complainant and respondent in writing within 20 days after the
date the FAA receives the complaint
that the complaint has been docketed.
(d) The respondent shall file an answer within 20 days of the date of service of the FAA notification or, if a motion is filed under § 16.26, within 20 days
of the date of service of an FAA order
denying all or part of that motion.
(e) The complainant may file a reply
within 10 days of the date of service of
the answer.
(f) The respondent may file a rebuttal
within 10 days of the date of service of
the complainant’s reply.
(g) The answer, reply, and rebuttal
shall, like the complaint, be accompanied by supporting documentation
upon which the parties rely.
(h) The answer shall deny or admit
the allegations made in the complaint
or state that the person filing the document is without sufficient knowledge
or information to admit or deny an allegation, and shall assert any affirmative defense.
(i) The answer, reply, and rebuttal
shall each contain a concise but complete statement of the facts relied upon
to substantiate the answers, admissions, denials, or averments made.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 16.26
(j) Amendments or supplements to
the pleadings described in this section
will not be allowed without showing
good cause through a motion and supporting documents.
(k) Burden of proof. Except as used in
subpart F of this part,
(1) The burden of proof is on the complainant to show noncompliance with
an Act or any regulation, order, agreement or document of conveyance
issued under the authority of an Act.
(2) Except as otherwise provided by
statute or rule, the proponent of a motion, request, or order has the burden
of proof.
(3) A party who has asserted an affirmative defense has the burden of
proving the affirmative defense.
(l) Except for good cause shown
through motion and supporting documents, discovery is not permitted except as provided in §§ 16.213 and 16.215.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56143, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.25 Dismissals.
(a) Within 20 days after the receipt of
the complaint, unless a motion has
been filed under § 16.26, the Director
will dismiss a complaint, or any claim
made in a complaint, with prejudice if:
(1) It appears on its face to be outside
the jurisdiction of the Administrator
under the Acts listed in § 16.1;
(2) On its face it does not state a
claim that warrants an investigation
or further action by the FAA; or
(3) The complainant lacks standing
to file a complaint under §§ 16.3 and
16.23.
(b) A dismissal under this section
will include the reasons for the dismissal.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56144, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.26 Motions to dismiss and motions
for summary judgment.
(a) In lieu of an answer, the respondent may file a motion to dismiss the
complaint or a motion for summary
judgment on the complaint. The respondent may move for dismissal of the
entire complaint or move for dismissal
of particular issues from adjudication.
The motion must be filed within 20
days after the date of service of the
FAA notification of docketing.
(b) Motions to dismiss. (1) A motion to
dismiss shall be accompanied by a concise statement of the reasons for seeking dismissal. The respondent must
show that the complaint should be dismissed, with prejudice, if:
(i) It appears on its face to be outside
the jurisdiction of the Administrator
under the Acts listed in § 16.1;
(ii) On its face it does not state a
claim that warrants an investigation
or further action by the FAA; or
(iii) The complainant lacks standing
to file a complaint under §§ 16.3 and
16.23.
(2) A motion to dismiss may seek dismissal of the entire complaint or the
dismissal of specified claims in the
complaint. A motion to dismiss shall
be accompanied by a supporting memorandum of points and authorities.
(3) A complainant may file an answer
to the motion to dismiss within 10 days
of the date the motion is served on the
complainant, or within any other period set by the Director. The answer
shall be accompanied by a concise
statement of reasons for opposing dismissal, and may be accompanied by affidavits and other documentary evidence in support of that contention.
(4) Within 30 days of the date an answer to a motion to dismiss is due
under this section, the Director may
issue an order disposing of the motion.
If the Director denies the motion to
dismiss in whole or in part, or grants
the motion in part, then within 20 days
of when the order is served on the respondent, the respondent shall file an
answer to the complaint.
(5) If the Director does not act on the
motion to dismiss within 30 days of the
date an answer to a motion is due
under this section, the respondent shall
file an answer to the complaint within
the next 20 days.
(c) Motions for summary judgment. (1)
A motion for summary judgment may
be based upon the ground that there is
no genuine issue of material fact for
adjudication and that the complaint,
when viewed in the light most favorable to the complainant, should be
summarily adjudicated in favor of the
respondent as a matter of law. A motion for summary judgment may seek
dismissal of the entire complaint or
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§ 16.27
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
dismissal of specified claims or issues
in the complaint.
(2) The motion for summary judgment shall be accompanied by a concise statement of the material facts as
to which the respondent contends there
is no genuine issue of material fact.
The motion may include affidavits and
documentary evidence in support of the
contention that there is no genuine
issue of material fact in dispute.
(3) A complainant may file an answer
to the motion for summary judgment
within 10 days of the date the motion is
served on the complainant, or within
any other period set by the Director.
The answer shall be accompanied by a
concise statement of the material facts
as to which the complainant contends
there is a genuine issue, and may be accompanied by affidavits and other documentary evidence in support of that
contention.
(4) Within 30 days of the date an answer to a motion for summary judgment is due under this section, the Director may issue an order disposing of
the motion. If the Director denies the
motion in whole or in part, or grants
the motion in part, then within 20 days
of when the order is served on the respondent, the respondent shall file an
answer to the complaint.
(5) If the Director does not act on the
motion for summary judgment within
30 days of the date an answer to a motion is due under this section, the respondent shall file an answer to the
complaint within the next 20 days.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56144, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.27 Incomplete complaints.
(a) If a complaint is not dismissed
pursuant to § 16.25, but is deficient as to
one or more of the requirements set
forth in § 16.21 or § 16.23(b), the Director
will dismiss the complaint within 20
days after receiving it. Dismissal will
be without prejudice to the refiling of
the complaint after amendment to correct the deficiencies. The Director’s
dismissal will include the reasons for
the dismissal.
(b) Dismissals under this section are
not initial determinations, and appeals
from decisions under this section will
not be permitted.
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56144, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.29 Investigations.
(a) If, based on the pleadings, there
appears to be a reasonable basis for further investigation, the FAA investigates the subject matter of the complaint.
(b) The investigation may include
one or more of the following, at the
sole discretion of the FAA:
(1) A review of the written submissions or pleadings of the parties, as
supplemented by any informal investigation the FAA considers necessary
and by additional information furnished by the parties at FAA request.
In rendering its initial determination,
the FAA may rely entirely on the complaint and the responsive pleadings
provided under this subpart. Each
party shall file documents that it considers sufficient to present all relevant
facts and argument necessary for the
FAA to determine whether the sponsor
is in compliance.
(2) Obtaining additional oral and documentary evidence by use of the agency’s authority to compel production of
such evidence under 49 U.S.C. 40113 and
46104, and 49 U.S.C. 47122. The Administrator’s statutory authority to issue
compulsory process has been delegated
to the Chief Counsel, the Deputy Chief
Counsel, the Assistant Chief Counsel
for Airports and Environmental Law,
and each Assistant Chief Counsel for a
region or center.
(3) Conducting or requiring that a
sponsor conduct an audit of airport financial records and transactions as
provided in 49 U.S.C. 47107 and 47121.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1 78 FR 56145, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.31 Director’s Determinations after
investigations.
(a) After consideration of the pleadings and other information obtained by
the FAA after investigation, the Director will render an initial determination
and serve it upon each party within 120
days of the date the last pleading specified in § 16.23 was due.
(b)(1) The Director’s Determination
shall include findings of fact and conclusions of law, accompanied by explanations and based upon all material
issues of fact, credibility of the evidence, law and discretion presented on
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 16.33
the record, together with a statement
of the reasons therefor.
(2) The Director shall issue a determination or rule in a party’s favor only
if the determination or ruling is in accordance with law and supported by a
preponderance of the reliable, probative, and substantial evidence contained in the record.
(c) A party adversely affected by the
Director’s Determination may appeal
the initial determination as provided
in § 16.33. However, if the Director’s Determination that is appealed contains a
Corrective Action Plan, the Director
has the discretion to suspend the Corrective Action Plan until the appeal is
resolved.
(d) If the Director’s Determination
finds the respondent in noncompliance
and proposes the issuance of a compliance order, the initial determination
will include notice of opportunity for a
hearing under subpart F of this part if
a hearing is required by statute or otherwise provided by the FAA. A hearing
may be required by statute if the FAA
determination would terminate eligibility for grants under 49 U.S.C.
47114(c) or (e), or terminate payments
on a grant agreement under 49 U.S.C.
subchapter 471. The respondent may
elect or waive a hearing, as provided in
subpart E of this part.
(e) The Director will not consider requests for rehearing, reargument, reconsideration, or modification of a Director’s Determination without a finding of good cause.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56145, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.33 Final decisions without hearing.
(a) The Associate Administrator may
transfer to the FAA Assistant Administrator for Civil Rights the responsibility to prepare and issue Final Agency Decisions pursuant to this section
for appeals with issues concerning civil
rights.
(b) The Associate Administrator will
issue a final decision on appeal from
the Director’s Determination, without
a hearing, where—
(1) The complaint is dismissed after
investigation;
(2) A hearing is not required by statute and is not otherwise made available by the FAA; or
(3) The FAA provides opportunity for
a hearing to the respondent and the respondent waives the opportunity for a
hearing as provided in subpart E of this
part.
(c) In the cases described in paragraph (b) of this section, within 30 days
after the date of service of the initial
determination, a party adversely affected by the Director’s Determination
may file in accordance with § 16.13 and
serve in accordance with § 16.15 a simultaneous Notice of Appeal and Brief.
(d) A reply to an appeal brief may be
filed within 20 days after the date of
service of the appeal.
(e) On appeal, the Associate Administrator will consider the issues addressed in any order on a motion to
dismiss or motion for summary judgment and any issues accepted in the
Director’s Determination using the following analysis:
(1) Are the findings of fact each supported by a preponderance of reliable,
probative, and substantial evidence
contained in the record?
(2) Are conclusions made in accordance with law, precedent and policy?
(3) Are the questions on appeal substantial?
(4) Have any prejudicial errors occurred?
(f) Any new issues or evidence presented in an appeal or reply will not be
considered unless accompanied by a petition and good cause found as to why
the new issue or evidence was not presented to the Director. Such a petition
must:
(1) Set forth the new matter;
(2) Contain affidavits of prospective
witnesses, authenticated documents, or
both, or an explanation of why such
substantiation is unavailable; and
(3) Contain a statement explaining
why such new issue or evidence could
not have been discovered in the exercise of due diligence prior to the date
on which the evidentiary record closed.
(g) The Associate Administrator will
issue a final decision and order within
60 days after the due date of the reply.
(h) If no appeal is filed within the
time period specified in paragraph (c)
of this section, the Director’s Determination becomes the final decision
and order of the FAA without further
action. A Director’s Determination
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§ 16.34
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
that becomes final, because there is no
administrative appeal, is not judicially
reviewable.
(i) No requests for rehearing, reargument, reconsideration, or modification
of a final order will be considered without a finding of good cause.
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56145, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.34
Consent orders.
(a) The parties may agree at any
time before the issuance of a final
agency decision to dispose of the case
by proposing a consent order. Good
faith efforts to resolve a complaint
through issuance of a consent order
may continue throughout the administrative process. However, except as
provided in § 16.11(a), such efforts may
not serve as the basis for extensions of
the times set forth in this part.
(b) A proposal for a consent order,
specified in paragraph (a) of this section, shall include:
(1) A proposed consent order;
(2) An admission of all jurisdictional
facts; and
(3) An express waiver of the right to
further procedural steps and of all
rights of judicial review.
(c) If the parties agree to dispose of a
case by issuance of a consent order before the FAA issues a Director’s Determination, the proposal for a consent
order is submitted jointly by the parties to the Director, together with a request to adopt the consent order and
dismiss the case. The Director may
issue the consent order as an order of
the FAA and terminate the proceeding.
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56145, Sept. 12, 2013]
Subpart D—Special Rules Applicable to Proceedings Initiated
by the FAA
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 16.101 Basis for
agency action.
the
initiation
of
The FAA may initiate its own investigation of any matter within the applicability of this part without having
received a complaint. The investigation may include, without limitation,
any of the actions described in
§ 16.29(b).
§ 16.103 Notice of investigation.
Following the initiation of an investigation under § 16.101, the FAA sends a
notice to the person(s) subject to investigation. The notice will set forth the
areas of the agency’s concern and the
reasons therefor; request a response to
the notice within 30 days of the date of
service; and inform the respondent that
the FAA will, in its discretion, invite
good faith efforts to resolve the matter.
§ 16.105 Failure to resolve informally.
If the matters addressed in the FAA
notices are not resolved informally, the
FAA may issue a Director’s Determination under § 16.31.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56146, Sept. 12,
2013]
Subpart E—Proposed Orders of
Compliance
§ 16.109 Orders terminating eligibility
for grants, cease and desist orders,
and other compliance orders.
(a) The agency will provide the opportunity for a hearing if, in the Director’s determination, the agency issues
or proposes to issue an order terminating eligibility for grants pursuant
to 49 U.S.C. 47106(d), an order suspending the payment of grant funds
pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 47111(d); an order
withholding approval of any new application to impose a passenger facility
charge pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 47111(e); a
cease and desist order; an order directing the refund of fees unlawfully collected; or any other compliance order
issued by the Administrator to carry
out the provisions of the Acts, and required to be issued after notice and opportunity for a hearing. In cases in
which a hearing is not required by statute, the FAA may provide opportunity
for a hearing at its discretion.
(b) In a case in which the agency provides the opportunity for a hearing, the
Director’s Determination issued under
§ 16.31 will include a statement of the
availability of a hearing under subpart
F of this part.
(1) Within 20 days after service of a
Director’s Determination under § 16.31
that provides an opportunity for a
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 16.202
hearing a person subject to the proposed compliance order may—
(i) Request a hearing under subpart F
of this part;
(ii) Waive hearing and appeal the Director’s Determination in writing, as
provided in § 16.33;
(iii) File, jointly with a complainant,
a motion to withdraw the complaint
and to dismiss the proposed compliance
action; or
(iv) Submit, jointly with the agency,
a proposed consent order under
§ 16.34(c).
(2) If the respondent fails to file an
appeal in writing within the time periods provided in paragraph (c) of this
section, the Director’s Determination
becomes final.
(c) The Director may either direct
the respondent to submit a Corrective
Action Plan or initiate proceedings to
revoke and/or deny the respondent’s
application for Airport Improvement
Program discretionary grants under 49
U.S.C. 47115 and general aviation airport grants under 49 U.S.C. 47114(d)
when a Director’s Determination finds
a respondent in noncompliance and
does not provide for a hearing.
(d) In the event that the respondent
fails to submit, in accordance with a
Director’s Determination, a Corrective
Action Plan acceptable to the FAA
within the time provided, unless extended by the FAA for good cause, and/
or if the respondent fails to complete
the Corrective Action Plan as specified
therein, the Director may initiate action to revoke and/or deny applications
for Airport Improvement Program discretionary grants under 49 U.S.C. 47115
and general aviation airport grants
under 49 U.S.C. 47114(d).
(e) For those violations that cannot
be remedied through corrective action,
the Director may initiate action to revoke and/or deny the respondent’s applications for Airport Improvement
Program discretionary grants under 49
U.S.C. 47115 and general aviation airport grants under 49 U.S.C. 47114(d).
(f) When the Director concludes that
the respondent has fully complied with
the Corrective Action Plan and/or when
the Director determines that the respondent has corrected the areas of
noncompliance, the Director will terminate the proceeding.
(g) A complainant’s standing terminates upon the issuance of a Director’s
Determination that finds a respondent
in noncompliance on all identified
issues. The complainant may not appeal the Director’s Determination if
the Director finds noncompliance on
all identified issues.
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56146, Sept. 12, 2013]
Subpart F—Hearings
§ 16.201
Notice and order of hearing.
(a) If a respondent is provided the opportunity for hearing in an initial determination and does not waive hearing, the Deputy Chief Counsel within 10
days after the respondent elects a hearing will issue and serve on the respondent and complainant a hearing order.
The hearing order will set forth:
(1) The allegations in the complaint,
or notice of investigation, and the
chronology and results of the investigation preliminary to the hearing;
(2) The relevant statutory, judicial,
regulatory, and other authorities;
(3) The issues to be decided;
(4) Such rules of procedure as may be
necessary to supplement the provisions
of this part;
(5) The name and address of the person designated as hearing officer, and
the assignment of authority to the
hearing officer to conduct the hearing
in accordance with the procedures set
forth in this part; and
(6) The date by which the hearing officer is directed to issue an initial decision.
(b) Where there are no genuine issues
of material fact requiring oral examination of witnesses, the hearing order
may contain a direction to the hearing
officer to conduct a hearing by submission of briefs and oral argument without the presentation of testimony or
other evidence.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56146, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.202
Powers of a hearing officer.
In accordance with the rules of this
subpart, a hearing officer may:
(a) Give notice of, and hold, prehearing conferences and hearings;
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§ 16.203
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(b) Administer oaths and affirmations;
(c) Issue subpoenas authorized by law
and issue notices of deposition requested by the parties;
(d) Limit the frequency and extent of
discovery;
(e) Rule on offers of proof;
(f) Receive relevant and material evidence;
(g) Regulate the course of the hearing in accordance with the rules of this
part to avoid unnecessary and duplicative proceedings in the interest of
prompt and fair resolution of the matters at issue;
(h) Hold conferences to settle or to
simplify the issues by consent of the
parties;
(i) Dispose of procedural motions and
requests;
(j) Examine witnesses; and
(k) Make findings of fact and conclusions of law, and issue an initial decision.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 16.203 Appearances,
rights of parties.
parties,
and
(a) Appearances. Any party may appear and be heard in person.
(1) Any party may be accompanied,
represented, or advised by an attorney
licensed by a State, the District of Columbia, or a territory of the United
States to practice law or appear before
the courts of that State or territory, or
by another person authorized by the
hearing officer to be the party’s representative.
(2) An attorney, or other duly authorized representative, who represents a
party shall file a notice of appearance
in accordance with § 16.13.
(b) Parties and agency participation. (1)
The parties to the hearing are the complainant(s) and respondent(s) named in
the hearing order, and the agency. The
style of any pleadings filed under this
Subpart shall name the respondent as
the Appellant, and the Federal Aviation Administration as the Agency.
(2) Unless otherwise specified in the
hearing order, the agency attorney will
serve as prosecutor for the agency from
the date of issuance of the Director’s
Determination providing
tunity for hearing.
an
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56146, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.207 Intervention and other participation.
(a) Intervention and participation by
other persons are permitted only at the
hearing stage of the complaint process
and with the written approval of the
hearing officer.
(b) A person may submit a written
motion for leave to intervene as a
party. Except for good cause shown, a
motion for leave to intervene shall be
submitted not later than 10 days after
the notice of hearing and hearing
order.
(c) If the hearing officer finds that
intervention will not unduly broaden
the issues or delay the proceedings and,
if the person has an interest that will
benefit the proceedings, the hearing officer may grant a motion for leave to
intervene. The hearing officer may determine the extent to which an intervenor may participate in the proceedings.
(d) Other persons may petition the
hearing officer for leave to participate
in the hearing. Participation is limited
to the filing of a posthearing brief and
reply to the hearing officer and the Associate Administrator. Such a brief
shall be filed and served on all parties
in the same manner as the parties’
posthearing briefs are filed.
(e) Participation under this section is
at the discretion of the hearing officer,
and no decision permitting participation shall be deemed to constitute an
expression that the participant has
such a substantial interest in the proceeding as would entitle it to judicial
review of such decision.
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56146, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.209
Extension of time.
(a) Extension by oral agreement. The
parties may agree to extend for a reasonable period of time for filing a document under this part. If the parties
agree, the hearing officer shall grant
one extension of time to each party.
The party seeking the extension of
time shall submit a draft order to the
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§ 16.213
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
hearing officer to be signed by the
hearing officer and filed with the hearing docket. The hearing officer may
grant additional oral requests for an
extension of time where the parties
agree to the extension.
(b) Extension by motion. A party shall
file a written motion for an extension
of time with the hearing officer not
later than 7 days before the document
is due unless good cause for the late filing is shown. A party filing a written
motion for an extension of time shall
serve a copy of the motion on each
party.
(c) Failure to rule. If the hearing officer fails to rule on a written motion for
an extension of time by the date the
document was due, the motion for an
extension of time is deemed denied.
(d) Effect on time limits. In a hearing
required by section 519(b) of the Airport and Airways Improvement Act, as
amended in 1987, 49 U.S.C. 47106(e) and
47111(d), the due date for the hearing
officer’s initial decision and for the
final agency decision are extended by
the length of the extension granted by
the hearing officer only if the hearing
officer grants an extension of time as a
result of an agreement by the parties
as specified in paragraph (a) of this section or, if the hearing officer grants an
extension of time as a result of the
sponsor’s failure to adhere to the hearing schedule. In any other hearing, an
extension of time granted by the hearing officer for any reason extends the
due date for the hearing officer’s initial decision and for the final agency
decision by the length of time of the
hearing officer’s decision.
§ 16.211 Prehearing conference.
(a) Prehearing conference notice. The
hearing officer schedules a prehearing
conference and serves a prehearing conference notice on the parties promptly
after being designated as a hearing officer.
(1) The prehearing conference notice
specifies the date, time, place, and
manner (in person or by telephone) of
the prehearing conference.
(2) The prehearing conference notice
may direct the parties to exchange proposed witness lists, requests for evidence and the production of documents
in the possession of another party, re-
sponses to interrogatories, admissions,
proposed procedural schedules, and proposed stipulations before the date of
the prehearing conference.
(b) The prehearing conference. The prehearing conference is conducted by
telephone or in person, at the hearing
officer’s discretion. The prehearing
conference addresses matters raised in
the prehearing conference notice and
such other matters as the hearing officer determines will assist in a prompt,
full and fair hearing of the issues.
(c) Prehearing conference report. At
the close of the prehearing conference,
the hearing officer rules on any requests for evidence and the production
of documents in the possession of other
parties, responses to interrogatories,
and admissions; on any requests for
depositions; on any proposed stipulations; and on any pending applications
for subpoenas as permitted by § 16.219.
In addition, the hearing officer establishes the schedule, which shall provide
for the issuance of an initial decision
not later than 110 days after issuance
of the Director’s Determination order
unless otherwise provided in the hearing order.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.213
Discovery.
(a) Discovery is limited to requests
for admissions, requests for production
of documents, interrogatories, and
depositions as authorized by § 16.215.
(b) The hearing officer shall limit the
frequency and extent of discovery permitted by this section if a party shows
that—
(1) The information requested is cumulative or repetitious;
(2) The information requested may be
obtained from another less burdensome
and more convenient source;
(3) The party requesting the information has had ample opportunity to obtain the information through other discovery methods permitted under this
section; or
(4) The method or scope of discovery
requested by the party is unduly burdensome or expensive.
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§ 16.215
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
§ 16.215 Depositions.
(a) General. For good cause shown,
the hearing officer may order that the
testimony of a witness may be taken
by deposition and that the witness
produce documentary evidence in connection with such testimony. Generally, an order to take the deposition
of a witness is entered only if:
(1) The person whose deposition is to
be taken would be unavailable at the
hearing;
(2) The deposition is deemed necessary to perpetuate the testimony of
the witness; or
(3) The taking of the deposition is
necessary to prevent undue and excessive expense to a party and will not result in undue burden to other parties or
in undue delay.
(b) Application for deposition. Any
party desiring to take the deposition of
a witness shall make application therefor to the hearing officer in writing,
with a copy of the application served
on each party. The application shall include:
(1) The name and residence of the
witness;
(2) The time and place for the taking
of the proposed deposition;
(3) The reasons why such deposition
should be taken; and
(4) A general description of the matters concerning which the witness will
be asked to testify.
(c) Order authorizing deposition. If
good cause is shown, the hearing officer, in his or her discretion, issues an
order authorizing the deposition and
specifying the name of the witness to
be deposed, the location and time of
the deposition and the general scope
and subject matter of the testimony to
be taken.
(d) Procedures for deposition. (1) Witnesses whose testimony is taken by
deposition shall be sworn or shall affirm before any questions are put to
them. Each question propounded shall
be recorded and the answers of the witness transcribed verbatim.
(2) Objections to questions or evidence shall be recorded in the transcript of the deposition. The interposing of an objection shall not relieve
the witness of the obligation to answer
questions, except where the answer
would violate a privilege.
(3) The written transcript shall be
subscribed by the witness, unless the
parties by stipulation waive the signing, or the witness is ill, cannot be
found, or refuses to sign. The reporter
shall note the reason for failure to
sign.
(e) Depositions of agency employees. (1)
Depositions of Agency Employees will
not be allowed except under the provisions of 49 CFR part 9.
(2) Such depositions will be allowed
only with the specific written permission of the Chief Counsel or his or her
designee.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.217
Witnesses.
(a) Each party may designate as a
witness any person who is able and
willing to give testimony that is relevant and material to the issues in the
hearing case, subject to the limitation
set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
(b) The hearing officer may exclude
testimony of witnesses that would be
irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly repetitious.
(c) Any witness may be accompanied
by counsel. Counsel representing a
nonparty witness has no right to examine the witness or otherwise participate in the development of testimony.
§ 16.219
Subpoenas.
(a) Request for subpoena. A party may
apply to the hearing officer, within the
time specified for such applications in
the prehearing conference report, for a
subpoena to compel testimony at a
hearing or to require the production of
documents only from the following persons:
(1) Another party;
(2) An officer, employee, or agent of
another party;
(3) Any other person named in the
complaint as participating in or benefiting from the actions of the respondent alleged to have violated any Act;
(4) An officer, employee, or agent of
any other person named in the complaint as participating in or benefiting
from the actions of the respondent alleged to have violated any Act.
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§ 16.225
(b) Issuance and service of subpoena.
(1) The hearing officer issues the subpoena if the hearing officer determines
that the evidence to be obtained by the
subpoena is relevant and material to
the resolution of the issues in the case.
(2) Subpoenas shall be served by personal service, or upon an agent designated in writing for the purpose, or
by certified mail, return receipt addressed to such person or agent. Whenever service is made by registered or
certified mail, the date of mailing shall
be considered as the time when service
is made.
(3) A subpoena issued under this part
is effective throughout the United
States or any territory or possession
thereof.
(c) Motions to quash or modify subpoena. (1) A party or any person upon
whom a subpoena has been served may
file a motion to quash or modify the
subpoena with the hearing officer at or
before the time specified in the subpoena for the filing of such motions.
The applicant shall describe in detail
the basis for the application to quash
or modify the subpoena including, but
not limited to, a statement that the
testimony, document, or tangible evidence is not relevant to the proceeding,
that the subpoena is not reasonably
tailored to the scope of the proceeding,
or that the subpoena is unreasonable
and oppressive.
(2) A motion to quash or modify the
subpoena stays the effect of the subpoena pending a decision by the hearing officer on the motion.
§ 16.221
Witness fees.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(a) The party on whose behalf a witness appears is responsible for paying
any witness fees and mileage expenses.
(b) Except for employees of the
United States summoned to testify as
to matters related to their public employment, witnesses summoned by subpoena shall be paid the same fees and
mileage expenses as are paid to a witness in a court of the United States in
comparable circumstances.
§ 16.223
Evidence.
(a) General. A party may submit direct and rebuttal evidence in accordance with this section.
(b) Requirement for written testimony
and evidence. Except in the case of evidence obtained by subpoena, or in the
case of a special ruling by the hearing
officer to admit oral testimony, a party’s direct and rebuttal evidence shall
be submitted in written form in advance of the oral hearing pursuant to
the schedule established in the hearing
officer’s prehearing conference report.
Written direct and rebuttal fact testimony shall be certified by the witness
as true and correct. Subject to the
same exception (for evidence obtained
by subpoena or subject to a special ruling by the hearing officer), oral examination of a party’s own witness is limited to certification of the accuracy of
written evidence, including correction
and updating, if necessary, and reexamination following cross-examination by
other parties.
(c) Subpoenaed testimony. Testimony
of witnesses appearing under subpoena
may be obtained orally.
(d) Cross-examination. A party may
conduct cross-examination that may be
required for disclosure of the facts,
subject to control by the hearing officer for fairness, expedition and exclusion of extraneous matters.
(e) Hearsay evidence. Hearsay evidence is admissible in proceedings governed by this part. The fact that evidence is hearsay goes to the weight of
evidence and does not affect its admissibility.
(f) Admission of evidence. The hearing
officer admits evidence introduced by a
party in support of its case in accordance with this section, but may exclude irrelevant, immaterial, or unduly
repetitious evidence.
(g) Expert or opinion witnesses. An employee of the FAA or DOT may not be
called as an expert or opinion witness
for any party other than the agency except as provided in Department of
Transportation regulations at 49 CFR
part 9.
§ 16.225
Public disclosure of evidence.
(a) Except as provided in this section,
the hearing shall be open to the public.
(b) The hearing officer may order
that any information contained in the
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§ 16.227
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
record be withheld from public disclosure. Any person may object to disclosure of information in the record by filing a written motion to withhold specific information with the hearing officer. The person shall state specific
grounds for nondisclosure in the motion.
(c) The hearing officer shall grant the
motion to withhold information from
public disclosure if the hearing officer
determines that disclosure would be in
violation of the Privacy Act, would reveal trade secrets or privileged or confidential commercial or financial information, or is otherwise prohibited by
law.
§ 16.227 Standard of proof.
The hearing officer shall issue an initial decision or rule in a party’s favor
only if the decision or ruling is in accordance with law and supported by a
preponderance of the reliable, probative, and substantial evidence contained in the record.
[Amdt. 16–1, as amended at 78 FR 56147, Sept.
12, 2013]
§ 16.229 Burden of proof.
As used in this subpart, the burden of
proof is as follows:
(a) The burden of proof of noncompliance with an Act or any regulation,
order, agreement or document of conveyance issued under the authority of
an Act is on the agency.
(b) Except as otherwise provided by
statute or rule, the proponent of a motion, request, or order has the burden
of proof.
(c) A party who has asserted an affirmative defense has the burden of
proving the affirmative defense.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12,
2013]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 16.231 Offer of proof.
A party whose evidence has been excluded by a ruling of the hearing officer may offer the evidence on the
record when filing an appeal.
§ 16.233 Record.
(a) Exclusive record. The transcript of
all testimony in the hearing, all exhibits received into evidence, all motions,
applications requests and rulings, all
documents included in the hearing
record and the Director’s Determination shall constitute the exclusive
record for decision in the proceedings
and the basis for the issuance of any
orders.
(b) Examination and copy of record. A
copy of the record will be filed by the
FAA Part 16 Docket Clerk in the Federal Docket Management System
(FDMS). Any person desiring to review
the record may then do so at http://
www.regulations.gov.
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.235 Argument before the hearing
officer.
(a) Argument during the hearing. During the hearing, the hearing officer
shall give the parties reasonable opportunity to present oral argument on the
record supporting or opposing motions,
objections, and rulings if the parties
request an opportunity for argument.
The hearing officer may direct written
argument during the hearing if the
hearing officer finds that submission of
written arguments would not delay the
hearing.
(b) Posthearing briefs. The hearing officer may request or permit the parties
to submit posthearing briefs. The hearing officer may provide for the filing of
simultaneous reply briefs as well, if
such filing will not unduly delay the
issuance of the hearing officer’s initial
decision. Posthearing briefs shall include proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law; exceptions to rulings of
the hearing officer; references to the
record in support of the findings of
fact; and supporting arguments for the
proposed findings, proposed conclusions, and exceptions.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.237
Waiver of procedures.
(a) The hearing officer shall waive
such procedural steps as all parties to
the hearing agree to waive before
issuance of an initial decision.
(b) Consent to a waiver of any procedural step bars the raising of this issue
on appeal.
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§ 16.243
(c) The parties may not by consent
waive the obligation of the hearing officer to enter an initial decision on the
record.
Consent orders.
(a) The hearing officer shall issue an
initial decision based on the record developed during the proceeding and shall
send the initial decision to the parties
not later than 110 days after the Director’s Determination unless otherwise
provided in the hearing order.
(b) Each party adversely affected by
the hearing officer’s initial decision
may file an appeal with the Associate
Administrator within 15 days of the
date the initial decision is issued. Each
party may file a reply to an appeal
within 10 days after it is served on the
party. Filing and service of appeals and
replies shall be by personal delivery.
(c) If an appeal is filed, the Associate
Administrator reviews the entire
record and issues a final agency decision and order within 60 days of the due
date of the reply. If no appeal is filed,
the Associate Administrator may take
review of the case on his or her own
motion. If the Associate Administrator
finds that the respondent is not in
compliance with any Act or any regulation, agreement, or document of conveyance issued or made under such
Act, the final agency order includes, in
accordance with § 16.245(d), a statement
of corrective action, if appropriate, and
identifies sanctions for continued noncompliance.
(d) If no appeal is filed, and the Associate Administrator does not take review of the initial decision on the Associate Administrator’s own motion, the
initial decision shall take effect as the
final agency decision and order on the
sixteenth day after the actual date the
initial decision is issued.
(e) The failure to file an appeal is
deemed a waiver of any rights to seek
judicial review of an initial decision
that becomes a final agency decision
by operation of paragraph (d) of this
section.
(a) The agency attorney and the respondents may agree at any time before the issuance of a final decision and
order to dispose of the case by issuance
of a consent order. Good faith efforts to
resolve a complaint through issuance
of a consent order may continue
throughout the administrative process.
Except as provided in § 16.209, such efforts may not serve as the basis for extensions of the times set forth in this
part.
(b) A proposal for a consent order,
specified in paragraph (a) of this section, shall include:
(1) A proposed consent order;
(2) An admission of all jurisdictional
facts;
(3) An express waiver of the right to
further procedural steps and of all
rights of judicial review; and
(4) The hearing order, if issued, and
an acknowledgment that the hearing
order may be used to construe the
terms of the consent order.
(c) If the issuance of a consent order
has been agreed upon by all parties to
the hearing, the proposed consent order
shall be filed with the hearing officer,
along with a draft order adopting the
consent decree and dismissing the case,
for the hearing officer’s adoption.
(d) The deadline for the hearing officer’s initial decision and the final
agency decision is extended by the
amount of days elapsed between the filing of the proposed consent order with
the hearing officer and the issuance of
the hearing officer’s order continuing
the hearing.
(e) If the agency attorney and sponsor agree to dispose of a case by
issuance of a consent order before the
FAA issues a hearing order, the proposal for a consent order is submitted
jointly to the official authorized to
issue a hearing order, together with a
request to adopt the consent order and
dismiss the case. The official authorized to issue the hearing order issues
the consent order as an order of the
FAA and terminates the proceeding.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12,
2013]
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996, as
amended at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12,
2013]
§ 16.241 Initial decisions, order, and
appeals.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 16.243
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§ 16.245
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
§ 16.245 Associate Administrator review after a hearing.
(a) The Associate Administrator may
transfer to the FAA Assistant Administrator for Civil Rights the authority to
prepare and issue Final Agency Decisions pursuant to § 16.241 for appeals
from a hearing concerning civil rights
issues.
(b) After a hearing is held, and, after
considering the issues as set forth in
§ 16.245(e), if the Associate Administrator determines that the hearing officer’s initial decision or order should be
changed, the Associate Administrator
may:
(1) Make any necessary findings and
issue an order in lieu of the hearing officer’s initial decision or order, or
(2) Remand the proceeding for any
such purpose as the Associate Administrator may deem necessary.
(c) If the Associate Administrator
takes review of the hearing officer’s
initial decision on the Associate Administrator’s own motion, the Associate Administrator will issue a notice
of review within 20 days of the actual
date the initial decision is issued.
(1) The notice sets forth the specific
findings of fact and conclusions of law
in the initial decision that are subject
to review by the Associate Administrator.
(2) Parties may file one brief on review to the Associate Administrator or
rely on their posthearing brief to the
hearing officer. A brief on review shall
be filed not later than 10 days after
service of the notice of review. Filing
and service of a brief on review shall be
by personal delivery.
(3) The Associate Administrator
issues a final agency decision and order
within 30 days of the due date of the
brief. If the Associate Administrator
finds that the respondent is not in
compliance with any Act or any regulation, agreement or document of conveyance issued under such Act, the
final agency order includes a statement
of corrective action, if appropriate.
(d) When the final agency decision
finds a respondent in noncompliance,
and where a respondent fails to properly seek judicial review of the final
agency decision as set forth in subpart
G of this part, the Associate Administrator will issue an order remanding
the case to the Director for the following action:
(1) In the event that the respondent
fails to submit, in accordance with the
final agency decision, a Corrective Action Plan acceptable to the FAA within
the time provided, unless extended by
the FAA for good cause, and/or if the
respondent fails to complete the Corrective Action Plan as specified therein, the Director may initiate action to
revoke and/or deny applications for
Airport Improvement Program grants
issued under 49 U.S.C. 47114(c)–(e) and
47115. When the Director concludes
that the respondent has fully complied
with the Corrective Action Plan, the
Director will issue an Order terminating the proceeding.
(2) For those violations that cannot
be remedied through corrective action,
the Director may initiate action to revoke and/or deny the respondent’s applications for Airport Improvement
Program grants issued under 49 U.S.C.
47114(c)–(e) and 47115.
(e) On appeal from a hearing officer’s
initial decision, the Associate Administrator will consider the following questions:
(1) Are the findings of fact each supported by a preponderance of reliable,
probative and substantial evidence?
(2) Are conclusions made in accordance with law, precedent and policy?
(3) Are the questions on appeal substantial?
(4) Have any prejudicial errors occurred?
(f) Any new issues or evidence presented in an appeal or reply will not be
allowed unless accompanied by a certified petition and good cause found as
to why the new matter was not presented to the Director. Such a petition
must:
(1) Set forth the new issues or evidence;
(2) Contain affidavits of prospective
witnesses, authenticated documents, or
both, or an explanation of why such
substantiation is unavailable; and
(3) Contain a statement explaining
why such new matter could not have
been discovered in the exercise of due
diligence prior to the date on which the
evidentiary record closed.
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§ 16.305
(g) A Final Agency Decision may be
appealed in accordance with subpart G
of this part.
[Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56147, Sept. 12, 2013]
Subpart G—Judicial Review
SOURCE: Docket No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct.
16, 1996, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated by Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56148, Sept. 12,
2013.
§ 16.247 Judicial review of a final decision and order.
(a) A person may seek judicial review, in a United States Court of Appeals, of a final decision and order of
the Associate Administrator, and of an
order of dismissal with prejudice issued
by the Director, as provided in 49
U.S.C. 46110 or 49 U.S.C. 47106(d) and
47111(d). A party seeking judicial review shall file a petition for review
with the Court not later than 60 days
after the order has been served on the
party or within 60 days after the entry
of an order under 49 U.S.C. 46110.
(b) The following do not constitute
final decisions and orders subject to judicial review:
(1) An FAA decision to dismiss a
complaint without prejudice, as set
forth in § 16.27;
(2) A Director’s Determination;
(3) An initial decision issued by a
hearing officer at the conclusion of a
hearing;
(4) A Director’s Determination or an
initial decision of a hearing officer becomes the final decision of the Associate Administrator because it was not
appealed within the applicable time periods provided under §§ 16.33(c) and
16.241(b).
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[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996. Redesignated and amended by Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR
56148, Sept. 12, 2013]
§ 16.301 Prohibited ex parte communications.
(a) The prohibitions of this section
shall apply from the time a proceeding
is noticed for hearing unless the person
responsible for the communication has
knowledge that it will be noticed, in
which case the prohibitions shall apply
at the time of the acquisition of such
knowledge.
(b) Except to the extent required for
the disposition of ex parte matters as
authorized by law:
(1) No interested person outside the
FAA and no FAA employee participating as a party shall make or knowingly cause to be made to any
decisional employee an ex parte communication relevant to the merits of
the proceeding;
(2) No FAA employee shall make or
knowingly cause to be made to any interested person outside the FAA an ex
parte communication relevant to the
merits of the proceeding; or
(3) Ex parte communications regarding solely matters of agency procedure
or practice are not prohibited by this
section.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996. Redesignated at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56148, Sept.
12, 2013]
§ 16.303 Procedures for handling ex
parte communications.
A decisional employee who receives
or who makes or knowingly causes to
be made a communication prohibited
by § 16.303 shall place in the public
record of the proceeding:
(a) All such written communications;
(b) Memoranda stating the substance
of all such oral communications; and
(c) All written responses, and memoranda stating the substance of all oral
responses, to the materials described in
paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996. Redesignated at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56148, Sept.
12, 2013]
Subpart H—Ex Parte
Communications
§ 16.305 Requirement to show cause
and imposition of sanction.
SOURCE: Docket No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct.
16, 1996, unless otherwise noted. Redesignated at 78 FR 56148, Sept. 12, 2013.
(a) Upon receipt of a communication
knowingly made or knowingly caused
to be made by a party in violation of
§ 16.303, the Associate Administrator or
his designee or the hearing officer may,
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to the extent consistent with the interests of justice and the policy of the underlying statutes, require the party to
show cause why his or her claim or interest in the proceeding should not be
dismissed, denied, disregarded, or otherwise adversely affected on account of
such violation.
(b) The Associate Administrator
may, to the extent consistent with the
interests of justice and the policy of
the underlying statutes administered
by the FAA, consider a violation of
this subpart sufficient grounds for a decision adverse to a party who has
knowingly committed such violation or
knowingly caused such violation to
occur.
[Doc. No. 27783, 61 FR 54004, Oct. 16, 1996. Redesignated at Amdt. 16–1, 78 FR 56148, Sept.
12, 2013]
PART 17—PROCEDURES FOR PROTESTS AND CONTRACT DISPUTES
Final orders.
Judicial review.
Conforming amendments.
Reconsideration.
Subpart F—Other Matters
17.49 Sanctions.
17.51 Decorum and professional conduct.
17.53 Orders and subpoenas for testimony
and document production.
17.55 Standing orders of the ODRA director.
Subpart G—Pre-Disputes
17.57 Dispute resolution process for Pre-disputes.
17.59 Filing a Pre-dispute.
17.61 Use of alternative dispute resolution.
APPENDIX A TO PART 17—ALTERNATIVE DISPUTE RESOLUTION (ADR)
AUTHORITY: 5 U.S.C. 570–581, 49 U.S.C.
106(f)(2), 40110, 40111, 40112, 46102, 46014, 46105,
46109, and 46110.
SOURCE: 76 FR 55221, Sept. 7, 2011, unless
otherwise noted.
Subpart A—General
Sec.
17.1 Applicability.
17.3 Definitions.
17.5 Delegation of authority.
17.7 Filing and computation of time.
17.9 Protective orders.
Subpart A—General
§ 17.1
Subpart B—Protests
17.11 Matters not subject to protest.
17.13 Dispute resolution process for protests.
17.15 Filing a protest.
17.17 Initial protest procedures.
17.19 Motions practice and dismissal or
summary decision of protests.
17.21 Adjudicative Process for protests.
17.23 Protest remedies.
Subpart C—Contract Disputes
17.25 Dispute resolution process for contract disputes.
17.27 Filing a contract dispute.
17.29 Informal resolution period.
17.31 Dismissal or summary decision of contract disputes.
17.33 Adjudicative Process for contract disputes.
Subpart D—Alternative Dispute Resolution
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Subpart E—Finality and Review
17.41
17.43
17.45
17.47
17.35 Use of alternative dispute resolution.
17.37 Election of alternative dispute resolution process.
17.39 Confidentiality of ADR.
Applicability.
This part applies to all Acquisition
Management System (AMS) bid protests and contract disputes involving
the FAA that are filed at the Office of
Dispute Resolution for Acquisition
(ODRA) on or after October 7, 2011,
with the exception of those contract
disputes arising under or related to
FAA contracts entered into prior to
April 1, 1996, where such contracts have
not been modified to be made subject
to the FAA AMS. This part also applies
to pre-disputes as described in subpart
G of this part.
§ 17.3
Definitions.
(a) Accrual means to come into existence as a legally enforceable claim.
(b) Accrual of a contract claim means
that all events relating to a claim have
occurred, which fix liability of either
the government or the contractor and
permit assertion of the claim, regardless of when the claimant actually discovered those events. For liability to
be fixed, some injury must have occurred. Monetary damages need not
have been incurred, but if the claim is
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§ 17.3
for money, such damages must be capable of reasonable estimation. The accrual of a claim or the running of the
limitations period may be tolled on equitable grounds, including but not limited to active concealment, fraud, or if
the facts were inherently unknowable.
(c) Acquisition Management System
(AMS) establishes the policies, guiding
principles, and internal procedures for
the FAA’s acquisition system.
(d) Adjudicative Process is an administrative adjudicatory process used to decide protests and contract disputes
where the parties have not achieved
resolution through informal communication or the use of ADR. The Adjudicative Process is conducted by a Dispute Resolution Officer (DRO) or Special Master selected by the ODRA Director to preside over the case in accordance with Public Law 108–176, Section 224, Codified at 49 U.S.C.
40110(d)(4).
(e) Administrator means the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration.
(f) Alternative Dispute Resolution
(ADR) is the primary means of voluntary dispute resolution that is employed by the ODRA. See Appendix A
of this part.
(g) Compensated Neutral refers to an
impartial third party chosen by the
parties to act as a facilitator, mediator, or arbitrator functioning to resolve the protest or contract dispute
under the auspices of the ODRA. The
parties pay equally for the services of a
compensated neutral, unless otherwise
agreed to by the parties. An ODRA
DRO or neutral cannot be a compensated neutral.
(h) Contract Dispute, as used in this
part, means a written request to the
ODRA seeking, as a matter of right
under an FAA contract subject to the
AMS, the payment of money in a sum
certain, the adjustment or interpretation of contract terms, or for other relief arising under, relating to, or involving an alleged breach of that contract. A contract dispute does not require, as a prerequisite, the issuance of
a Contracting Officer final decision.
Contract disputes, for purposes of ADR
only, may also involve contracts not
subject to the AMS.
(i) Counsel refers to a Legal Representative who is an attorney licensed
by a State, the District of Columbia, or
a territory of the United States to
practice law or appear before the
courts of that State or territory.
(j) Contractor is a party in contractual privity with the FAA and responsible for performance of a contract’s
requirements.
(k) Discovery is the procedure whereby opposing parties in a protest or contract dispute may, either voluntarily
or to the extent ordered by the ODRA,
obtain testimony from, or documents
and information held by, other parties
or non-parties.
(l) Dispute Resolution Officer (DRO) is
an attorney and member of the ODRA
staff. The term DRO can include the
Director of the ODRA.
(m) Interested party, in the context of
a bid protest, is one whose direct economic interest has been or would be affected by the award or failure to award
an FAA contract. Proposed subcontractors are not ‘‘interested parties’’ within this definition and are not eligible
to submit protests to the ODRA. Subcontractors not in privity with the
FAA are not interested parties in the
context of a contract dispute.
(n) Intervenor is an interested party
other than the protester whose participation in a protest is allowed by the
ODRA. For a post-award protest, the
awardee of the contract that is the subject of the protest will be allowed, upon
timely request, to participate as an intervenor in the protest. In such a protest, no other interested parties will be
allowed to participate as intervenors.
(o) Legal Representative is an individual(s) designated to act on behalf of
a party in matters before the ODRA.
Unless
otherwise
provided
under
§§ 17.15(c)(2), 17.27(a)(1), or 17.59(a)(6), a
Notice of Appearance must be filed
with the ODRA containing the name,
address, telephone and facsimile (Fax)
numbers of a party’s legal representative.
(p) Neutral refers to an impartial
third party in the ADR process chosen
by the parties to act as a facilitator,
mediator, arbitrator, or otherwise to
aid the parties in resolving a protest or
contract dispute. A neutral can be a
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14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
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DRO or a person not an employee of
the ODRA.
(q) ODRA is the FAA’s exclusive
forum acting on behalf of the Administrator, pursuant to the statutory authority granted by Public Law 108–176,
Section 224, to provide dispute resolution services and to adjudicate matters
within its jurisdiction. The ODRA may
also provide non-binding dispute resolution services in matters outside of its
jurisdiction where mutually requested
to do so by the parties involved.
(r) Parties include the protester(s) or
the contractor, the FAA, and any intervenor(s).
(s) Pre-Disputes mean an issue(s) in
controversy concerning an FAA contract or solicitation that, by mutual
agreement of the parties, is filed with
the ODRA. See subpart G of this part.
(t) Product Team, as used in these
rules, refers to the FAA organization(s)
responsible for the procurement or contracting activity, without regard to
funding source, and includes the Contracting Officer (CO). The Product
Team, acting through assigned FAA
counsel, is responsible for all communications with and submissions to the
ODRA in pending matters.
(u) Screening Information Request (SIR
or Solicitation) means a request by the
FAA for documentation, information,
presentations, proposals, or binding offers concerning an approach to meeting
potential acquisition requirements established by the FAA.
(v) A Special Master is a non-FAA attorney or judge who has been assigned
by the ODRA to act as its finder of
fact, and to make findings and recommendations based upon AMS policy
and applicable law and authorities in
the Adjudicative Process.
§ 17.5 Delegation of authority.
(a) The authority of the Administrator to conduct dispute resolution
and adjudicative proceedings concerning acquisition matters is delegated to the Director of the ODRA.
(b) The Director of the ODRA may redelegate to Special Masters and DROs
such delegated authority in paragraph
(a) of this section as deemed necessary
by the Director for efficient resolution
of an assigned protest or contract dispute, including the imposition of sanc-
tions for the filing of frivolous pleadings, making false statements, or other
disciplinary actions. See subpart F of
this part.
§ 17.7
Filing and computation of time.
(a) Filing of a protest or contract dispute may be accomplished by overnight
delivery, by hand delivery, by Fax, or,
if permitted by Order of the ODRA, by
electronic filing. A protest or contract
dispute is considered to be filed on the
date it is received by the ODRA during
normal business hours. The ODRA’s
normal business hours are from 8:30
a.m. to 5 p.m. Eastern Time. A protest
or contract dispute received after the
time period prescribed for filing shall
not be considered timely filed. Service
shall also be made on the Contracting
Officer (CO) pursuant to §§ 17.15(e) and
17.27(d).
(b) Submissions to the ODRA after
the initial filing of a protest or contract dispute may be accomplished by
any means available in paragraph (a) of
this section. Copies of all such submissions shall be served on the opposing
party or parties.
(c) The time limits stated in this part
are calculated in business days, which
exclude weekends, Federal holidays
and other days on which Federal Government offices in Washington, DC are
not open. In computing time, the day
of the event beginning a period of time
shall not be included. If the last day of
a period falls on a weekend or a Federal holiday, the first business day following the weekend or holiday shall be
considered the last day of the period.
(d) Electronic Filing—Procedures for
electronic filing may be utilized where
permitted by Order of the ODRA on a
case-by-case basis or pursuant to a
Standing Order of the ODRA permitting electronic filing.
§ 17.9
Protective orders.
(a) The ODRA may issue protective
orders addressing the treatment of protected information, including protected information in electronic form,
either at the request of a party or upon
its own initiative. Such information
may include proprietary, confidential,
or source-selection-sensitive material,
or other information the release of
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§ 17.13
which could result in a competitive advantage to one or more firms.
(b) The terms of the ODRA’s standard
protective order may be altered to suit
particular circumstances, by negotiation of the parties, subject to the approval of the ODRA. The protective
order establishes procedures for application for access to protected information, identification and safeguarding of
that information, and submission of redacted copies of documents omitting
protected information.
(c) After a protective order has been
issued, counsel or consultants retained
by counsel appearing on behalf of a
party may apply for access to the material under the order by submitting an
application to the ODRA, with copies
furnished simultaneously to all parties.
The application shall establish that the
applicant is not involved in competitive decision-making for any firm that
could gain a competitive advantage
from access to the protected information and that the applicant will diligently protect any protected information received from inadvertent disclosure. Objections to an applicant’s admission shall be raised within two (2)
days of the application, although the
ODRA may consider objections raised
after that time for good cause.
(d) Any violation of the terms of a
protective order may result in the imposition of sanctions, including but not
limited to removal of the violator from
the protective order and reporting of
the violator to his or her bar association(s), and the taking of other actions
as the ODRA deems appropriate. Additional civil or criminal penalties may
apply.
Subpart B—Protests
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§ 17.11
Matters not subject to protest.
The following matters may not be
protested before the ODRA, except for
review of compliance with the AMS:
(a) FAA purchases from or through,
State, local, and tribal governments
and public authorities;
(b) FAA purchases from or through
other Federal agencies;
(c) Grants;
(d) Cooperative agreements;
(e) Other transactions.
§ 17.13 Dispute resolution process for
protests.
(a) Protests concerning FAA SIRs,
solicitations, or contract awards shall
be resolved pursuant to this part.
(b) Potential protestors should,
where possible, attempt to resolve any
issues concerning potential protests
with the CO. Such attempts are not a
prerequisite to filing a protest with the
ODRA.
(c) Offerors or prospective offerors
shall file a protest with the ODRA in
accordance with § 17.15. The protest
time limitations set forth in § 17.15 will
not be extended by attempts to resolve
a potential protest with the CO. Other
than the time limitations specified in
§ 17.15 for the filing of protests, the
ODRA retains the discretion to modify
any timeframes established herein in
connection with protests.
(d) In accordance with § 17.17(b), the
ODRA shall convene an initial status
conference for the purpose of scheduling proceedings in the protest and to
encourage the parties to consider using
the ODRA’s ADR process to attempt to
resolve the protest, pursuant to subpart D of this part. It is the Agency’s
policy to use voluntary ADR to the
maximum extent practicable. If the
parties elect not to attempt ADR, or if
ADR efforts do not completely resolve
the protest, the protest will proceed
under the ODRA Adjudicative Process
set forth in subpart E of this part. Informal ADR techniques may be utilized
simultaneously with ongoing adjudication.
(e) The ODRA Director shall designate DROs, outside neutrals or Special Masters as potential neutrals for
the resolution of protests through
ADR. The ultimate choice of an ADR
neutral is made by the parties participating in the ADR. The ODRA Director
also shall, at his or her sole discretion,
designate an adjudicating DRO or Special Master for each matter. A person
serving as a neutral in an ADR effort
in a matter, shall not serve as an adjudicating DRO or Special Master for
that matter.
(f) Multiple protests concerning the
same SIR, solicitation, or contract
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award may be consolidated at the discretion of the ODRA Director, and assigned to a single DRO or Special Master for adjudication.
(g) Procurement activities, and,
where applicable, contractor performance pending resolution of a protest,
shall continue during the pendency of a
protest, unless there is a compelling
reason to suspend all or part of the procurement activities or contractor performance. Pursuant to §§ 17.15(d) and
17.17(a), the ODRA may impose a temporary suspension and recommend suspension of award or contract performance, in whole or in part, for a compelling reason. A decision to suspend procurement activities or contractor performance is made in writing by the Administrator or the Administrator’s
delegee upon recommendation of the
ODRA.
§ 17.15 Filing a protest.
(a) An interested party may initiate
a protest by filing with the ODRA in
accordance with § 17.7(a) within the
timeframes set forth in this Section.
Protests that are not timely filed shall
be dismissed. The timeframes applicable to the filing of protests are as follows:
(1) Protests based upon alleged SIR
or solicitation improprieties that are
apparent prior to bid opening or the
time set for receipt of initial proposals
shall be filed prior to bid opening or
the time set for the receipt of initial
proposals.
(2) In procurements where proposals
are requested, alleged improprieties
that do not exist in the initial solicitation, but which are subsequently incorporated into the solicitation, must be
protested not later than the next closing time for receipt of proposals following the incorporation.
(3) For protests other than those related to alleged solicitation improprieties, the protest must be filed on the
later of the following two dates:
(i) Not later than seven (7) business
days after the date the protester knew
or should have known of the grounds
for the protest; or
(ii) If the protester has requested a
post-award debriefing from the FAA
Product Team, not later than five (5)
business days after the date on which
the Product Team holds that debriefing.
(b) Protests shall be filed at:
(1) ODRA, AGC–70, Federal Aviation
Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Room 323, Washington, DC
20591; Telephone: (202) 267–3290, Fax:
(202) 267–3720; or
(2) Other address as shall be published from time to time in the FEDERAL REGISTER.
(c) A protest shall be in writing, and
set forth:
(1) The protester’s name, address,
telephone number, and FAX number;
(2) The name, address, telephone
number, and FAX number of the protester’s legal representative, and who
shall be duly authorized to represent
the protester, to be the point of contact;
(3) The SIR number or, if available,
the contract number and the name of
the CO;
(4) The basis for the protester’s status as an interested party;
(5) The facts supporting the timeliness of the protest;
(6) Whether the protester requests a
protective order, the material to be
protected, and attach a redacted copy
of that material;
(7) A detailed statement of both the
legal and factual grounds of the protest, and one (1) copy of each relevant
document;
(8) The remedy or remedies sought by
the protester, as set forth in § 17.23;
(9) The signature of the legal representative, or another person duly authorized to represent the protester.
(d) If the protester wishes to request
a suspension of the procurement or
contract performance, in whole or in
part, and believes that a compelling
reason(s) exists to suspend the procurement or contract performance because
of the protested action, the protester
shall, in its initial filing:
(1) Set forth such compelling reason(s), supply all facts and documents
supporting the protester’s position; and
(2) Demonstrate—
(i) The protester has alleged a substantial case;
(ii) The lack of a suspension would be
likely to cause irreparable injury;
(iii) The relative hardships on the
parties favor a suspension; and
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(iv) That a suspension is in the public
interest.
(3) Failure of a protester to provide
information or documents in support of
a requested suspension or failure to address the elements of paragraph (d)(2)
of this section may result in the summary rejection of the request for suspension, or a requirement that the protester supplement its request prior to
the scheduling of a Product Team response to the request under § 17.17(a).
(e) Concurrent with the filing of a
protest with the ODRA, the protester
shall serve a copy of the protest on the
CO and any other official designated in
the SIR for receipt of protests, by
means reasonably calculated to be received by the CO on the same day as it
is to be received by the ODRA. The protest shall include a signed statement
from the protester, certifying to the
ODRA the manner of service, date, and
time when a copy of the protest was
served on the CO and other designated
official(s).
(f) Upon receipt of the protest, the
CO shall notify the awardee of a challenged contract award in writing of the
existence of the protest. The awardee
and/or interested parties shall notify
the ODRA in writing, of their interest
in participating in the protest as intervenors within two (2) business days of
receipt of the CO’s notification, and
shall, in such notice, designate a person as the point of contact for the
ODRA.
(g) The ODRA has discretion to designate the parties who shall participate
in the protest as intervenors. In protests of awarded contracts, only the
awardee may participate as an intervenor as a matter of right.
§ 17.17 Initial protest procedures.
(a) If, as part of its initial protest filing, the protester requests a suspension
of procurement activities or contractor
performance in whole or in part, in accordance with § 17.15(d), the Product
Team shall submit a response to the request to the ODRA by no later than the
close of business on the date of the initial scheduling conference or on such
other date as is established by the
ODRA. Copies of the response shall be
furnished to the protester and any intervenor(s) so as to be received within
the same timeframe. The protester and
any intervenor(s) shall have the opportunity of providing additional comments on the response within two (2)
business days of receiving it. Based on
its review of such submissions, the
ODRA, in its discretion, may—
(1) Decline the suspension request; or
(2) Recommend such suspension to
the Administrator or the Administrator’s designee. The ODRA also may impose a temporary suspension of no
more than ten (10) business days, where
it is recommending that the Administrator impose a suspension.
(b) Within five (5) business days of
the filing of a protest, or as soon thereafter as practicable, the ODRA shall
convene an initial status conference for
purposes of:
(1) Reviewing the ODRA’s ADR and
adjudication procedures and establishing a preliminary schedule;
(2) Identifying legal or other preliminary or potentially dispositive issues
and answering the parties’ questions
regarding the ODRA process;
(3) Dealing with issues related to protected information and the issuance of
any needed protective order;
(4) Encouraging the parties to consider using ADR;
(5) Appointing a DRO as a potential
ADR neutral to assist the parties in
considering ADR options and developing an ADR agreement; and
(6) For any other reason deemed appropriate by the DRO or by the ODRA.
(c) The Product Team and protester
will have five (5) business days from
the date of the initial status conference to decide whether they will attempt to use an ADR process in the
case. With the agreement of the ODRA,
ADR may be used concurrently with
the adjudication of a protest. See
§ 17.37(e).
(d) If the Product Team and protester
elect to use ADR proceedings to resolve
the protest, they will agree upon the
neutral to conduct the ADR proceedings (either an ODRA DRO or a
compensated neutral of their own
choosing) pursuant to § 17.37, and shall
execute and file with the ODRA a written ADR agreement. Agreement of any
intervenor(s) to the use of ADR or the
resolution of a dispute through ADR
shall not be required.
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§ 17.19
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(e) If the Product Team or protester
indicate that ADR proceedings will not
be used, or if ADR is not successful in
resolving the entire protest, the ODRA
Director upon being informed of the
situation, will schedule an adjudication
of the protest.
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§ 17.19 Motions practice and dismissal
or summary decision of protests.
(a) Separate motions generally are
discouraged in ODRA bid protests.
Counsel and parties are encouraged to
incorporate any such motions in their
respective agency responses or comments. Parties and counsel are encouraged to attempt to resolve typical motions issues through the ODRA ADR
process. The ODRA may rule on any
non-dispositive motion, where appropriate and necessary, after providing
an opportunity for briefing on the motion by all affected parties. Unjustifiable, inappropriate use of motions may
result in the imposition of sanctions.
Where appropriate, a party may request by dispositive motion to the
ODRA, or the ODRA may recommend
or order, that:
(1) The protest, or any count or portion of a protest, be dismissed for lack
of jurisdiction, timeliness, or standing
to pursue the protest;
(2) The protest, or any count or portion of a protest, be dismissed, if frivolous or without basis in fact or law, or
for failure to state a claim upon which
relief may be had;
(3) A summary decision be issued
with respect to the protest, or any
count or portion of a protest, if there
are no material facts in dispute and a
party is entitled to summary decision
as a matter of law.
(b) In connection with consideration
of possible dismissal or summary decision, the ODRA shall consider any material facts in dispute, in a light most
favorable to the party against whom
the dismissal or summary decision
would operate and draw all factual inferences in favor of the non-moving
party.
(c) Either upon motion by a party or
on its own initiative, the ODRA may,
at any time, exercise its discretion to:
(1) Recommend to the Administrator
dismissal or the issuance of a summary
decision with respect to the entire protest;
(2) Dismiss the entire protest or issue
a summary decision with respect to the
entire protest, if delegated that authority by the Administrator; or
(3) Dismiss or issue a summary decision with respect to any count or portion of a protest.
(d) A dismissal or summary decision
regarding the entire protest by either
the Administrator, or the ODRA by
delegation, shall be construed as a final
agency order. A dismissal or summary
decision that does not resolve all
counts or portions of a protest shall
not constitute a final agency order, unless and until such dismissal or decision is incorporated or otherwise
adopted in a decision by the Administrator (or the ODRA, by delegation) regarding the entire protest.
(e) Prior to recommending or entering either a dismissal or a summary decision, either in whole or in part, the
ODRA shall afford all parties against
whom the dismissal or summary decision is to be entered the opportunity to
respond to the proposed dismissal or
summary decision.
§ 17.21 Adjudicative Process for protests.
(a) Other than for the resolution of
preliminary or dispositive matters, the
Adjudicative Process for protests will
be commenced by the ODRA Director
pursuant to § 17.17(e).
(b) The Director of the ODRA shall
appoint a DRO or a Special Master to
conduct the adjudication proceedings,
develop the administrative record, and
prepare findings and recommendations
for review of the ODRA Director.
(c) The DRO or Special Master may
conduct such proceedings and prepare
procedural orders for the proceedings
as deemed appropriate; and may require additional submissions from the
parties.
(d) The Product Team response to the
protest will be due to be filed and
served ten (10) business days from the
commencement of the ODRA Adjudication process. The Product Team response shall consist of a written chronological, supported statement of proposed facts, and a written presentation
of applicable legal or other defenses.
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§ 17.21
The Product Team response shall cite
to and be accompanied by all relevant
documents, which shall be chronologically indexed, individually tabbed,
and certified as authentic and complete. A copy of the response shall be
furnished so as to be received by the
protester and any intervenor(s) on the
same date it is filed with the ODRA. In
all cases, the Product Team shall indicate the method of service used.
(e) Comments of the protester and
the intervenor on the Product Team response will be due to be filed and
served five (5) business days after their
receipt of the response. Copies of such
comments shall be provided to the
other participating parties by the same
means and on the same date as they
are furnished to the ODRA. Comments
may include any supplemental relevant
documents.
(f) The ODRA may alter the schedule
for filing of the Product Team response
and the comments for good cause or to
accommodate the circumstances of a
particular protest.
(g) The DRO or Special Master may
convene the parties and/or their representatives, as needed for the Adjudicative Process.
(h) If, in the sole judgment of the
DRO or Special Master, the parties
have presented written material sufficient to allow the protest to be decided
on the record presented, the DRO or
Special Master shall have the discretion to decide the protest on that basis.
(i) The parties may engage in limited, focused discovery with one another and, if justified, with non-parties, so as to obtain information relevant to the allegations of the protest.
(1) The DRO or Special Master shall
manage the discovery process, including limiting its length and availability,
and shall establish schedules and deadlines for discovery, which are consistent with timeframes established in
this part and with the FAA policy of
providing fair and expeditious dispute
resolution.
(2) The DRO or Special Master may
also direct the parties to exchange, in
an expedited manner, relevant, nonprivileged documents.
(3) Where justified, the DRO or Special Master may direct the taking of
deposition testimony, however, the
FAA dispute resolution process does
not contemplate extensive discovery.
(4) The use of interrogatories and requests for admission is not permitted
in ODRA bid protests.
(5) Where parties cannot voluntarily
reach agreement on a discovery-related
issue, they may timely seek assistance
from an ODRA ADR neutral or may file
an appropriate motion with the ODRA.
Parties may request a subpoena.
(6) Discovery requests and responses
are not part of the record and will not
be filed with the ODRA, except in connection with a motion or other permissible filing.
(7) Unless timely objection is made,
documents properly filed with the
ODRA will be deemed admitted into
the administrative record.
(j) Hearings are not typically held in
bid protests. The DRO or Special Master may conduct hearings, and may
limit the hearings to the testimony of
specific witnesses and/or presentations
regarding specific issues. The DRO or
Special Master shall control the nature
and conduct of all hearings, including
the sequence and extent of any testimony. Hearings will be conducted:
(1) Where the DRO or Special Master
determines that there are complex factual issues in dispute that cannot adequately or efficiently be developed
solely by means of written presentations and/or that resolution of the
controversy will be dependent on his/
her assessment of the credibility of
statements provided by individuals
with first-hand knowledge of the facts;
or
(2) Upon request of any party to the
protest, unless the DRO or Special
Master finds specifically that a hearing
is unnecessary and that no party will
be prejudiced by limiting the record in
the adjudication to the parties’ written
submissions. All witnesses at any such
hearing shall be subject to cross-examination by the opposing party and to
questioning by the DRO or Special
Master.
(k) The Director of the ODRA may
review the status of any protest in the
Adjudicative Process with the DRO or
Special Master.
(l) After the closing of the administrative record, the DRO or Special
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§ 17.23
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Master will prepare and submit findings and recommendations to the
ODRA that shall contain the following:
(1) Findings of fact;
(2) Application of the principles of
the AMS, and any applicable law or authority to the findings of fact;
(3) A recommendation for a final
FAA order; and
(4) If appropriate, suggestions for future FAA action.
(m) In preparing findings and recommendations in protests, the DRO or
Special Master, using the preponderance of the evidence standard, shall
consider whether the Product Team actions in question were consistent with
the requirements of the AMS, had a rational basis, and whether the Product
Team decision was arbitrary, capricious or an abuse of discretion. Notwithstanding the above, allegations
that government officials acted with
bias or in bad faith must be established
by clear and convincing evidence.
(n) The DRO or Special Master has
broad discretion to recommend a remedy that is consistent with § 17.23.
(o) A DRO or Special Master shall
submit findings and recommendations
only to the Director of the ODRA or
the Director’s designee. The findings
and recommendations will be released
to the parties and to the public upon
issuance of the final FAA order in the
case. If an ODRA protective order was
issued in connection with the protest,
or if a protest involves proprietary or
competition-sensitive information, a
redacted version of the findings and
recommendations, omitting any protected information, shall be prepared
wherever possible and released to the
public, as soon as is practicable, along
with a copy of the final FAA order.
Only persons admitted by the ODRA
under the protective order and Government personnel shall be provided copies of the unredacted findings and recommendations that contain proprietary or competition-sensitive information.
(p) Other than communications regarding purely procedural matters or
ADR, there shall be no substantive ex
parte communication between ODRA
personnel and any principal or representative of a party concerning a
pending or potentially pending matter.
A potential or serving ADR neutral
may communicate on an ex parte basis
to establish or conduct the ADR.
§ 17.23
Protest remedies.
(a) The ODRA has broad discretion to
recommend and impose protest remedies that are consistent with the AMS
and applicable law. Such remedies may
include, but are not limited to one or a
combination of, the following:
(1) Amend the SIR;
(2) Refrain from exercising options
under the contract;
(3) Issue a new SIR;
(4) Require a recompetition or revaluation;
(5) Terminate an existing contract
for the FAA’s convenience;
(6) Direct an award to the protester;
(7) Award bid and proposal costs; or
(8) Any other remedy consistent with
the AMS that is appropriate under the
circumstances.
(b) In determining the appropriate
recommendation, the ODRA may consider the circumstances surrounding
the procurement or proposed procurement including, but not limited to: the
nature of the procurement deficiency;
the degree of prejudice to other parties
or to the integrity of the acquisition
system; the good faith of the parties;
the extent of performance completed;
the feasibility of any proposed remedy;
the urgency of the procurement; the
cost and impact of the recommended
remedy; and the impact on the Agency’s mission.
(c) Attorney’s fees of a prevailing
protester are allowable to the extent
permitted by the Equal Access to Justice Act, 5 U.S.C. 504(a)(1) (EAJA) and
14 CFR part 14.
Subpart C—Contract Disputes
§ 17.25 Dispute resolution process for
contract disputes.
(a) All contract disputes arising
under contracts subject to the AMS
shall be resolved under this subpart.
(b) Contract disputes shall be filed
with the ODRA pursuant to § 17.27.
(c) The ODRA has broad discretion to
recommend remedies for a contract
dispute that are consistent with the
AMS and applicable law, including
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§ 17.29
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such equitable remedies or other remedies as it deems appropriate.
§ 17.27 Filing a contract dispute.
(a) Contract disputes must be in writing and should contain:
(1) The contractor’s name, address,
telephone and Fax numbers and the
name, address, telephone and Fax numbers of the contractor’s legal representative(s) (if any) for the contract dispute;
(2) The contract number and the
name of the Contracting Officer;
(3) A detailed chronological statement of the facts and of the legal
grounds underlying the contract dispute, broken down by individual claim
item, citing to relevant contract provisions and attaching copies of the contract and other relevant documents;
(4) Information establishing the
ODRA’s jurisdiction and the timeliness
of the contract dispute;
(5) A request for a specific remedy,
and the amount, if known, of any monetary remedy requested, together with
pertinent cost information and documentation (e.g., invoices and cancelled
checks). Supporting documentation
should be broken down by individual
claim item and summarized; and
(6) The signature of a duly authorized
representative of the initiating party.
(b) Contract disputes shall be filed at
the following address: ODRA, AGC–70,
Federal Aviation Administration, 800
Independence Avenue, SW., Room 323,
Washington, DC 20591; Telephone: (202)
267–3290, Fax: (202) 267–3720.
(c) A contract dispute against the
FAA shall be filed with the ODRA
within two (2) years of the accrual of
the contract claim involved. A contract dispute by the FAA against a
contractor (excluding contract disputes
alleging warranty issues, fraud or latent defects) likewise shall be filed
within two (2) years of the accrual of
the contract claim. If an underlying
contract entered into prior to the effective date of this part provides for time
limitations for filing of contract disputes with the ODRA, which differ
from the aforesaid two (2) year period,
the limitation periods in the contract
shall control over the limitation period
of this section. In no event will either
party be permitted to file with the
ODRA a contract dispute seeking an
equitable adjustment or other damages
after the contractor has accepted final
contract payment, with the exception
of FAA contract disputes related to
warranty
issues,
gross
mistakes
amounting to fraud or latent defects.
FAA contract disputes against the contractor based on warranty issues must
be filed within the time specified under
applicable contract warranty provisions. Any FAA contract disputes
against the contractor based on gross
mistakes amounting to fraud or latent
defects shall be filed with the ODRA
within two (2) years of the date on
which the FAA knew or should have
known of the presence of the fraud or
latent defect.
(d) A party shall serve a copy of the
contract dispute upon the other party,
by means reasonably calculated to be
received on the same day as the filing
is received by the ODRA.
(e) With the exception of the time
limitations established herein for the
filing of contract disputes, the ODRA
retains the discretion to modify any
timeframe established herein in connection with contract disputes.
§ 17.29
Informal resolution period.
(a) The ODRA process for contract
disputes includes an informal resolution period of twenty (20) business days
from the date of filing in order for the
parties to attempt to informally resolve the contract dispute either
through direct negotiation or with the
assistance of the ODRA. The CO, with
the advice of FAA legal counsel, has
full discretion to settle contract disputes, except where the matter involves fraud.
(b) During the informal resolution
period, if the parties request it, the
ODRA will appoint a DRO for ADR who
will discuss ADR options with the parties, offer his or her services as a potential neutral, and assist the parties
to enter into an agreement for a formal
ADR process. A person serving as a
neutral in an ADR effort in a matter
shall not serve as an adjudicating DRO
or Special Master for that matter.
(c) The informal resolution period
may be extended at the request of the
parties for good cause.
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§ 17.31
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
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(d) If the matter has not been resolved informally, the parties shall file
joint or separate statements with the
ODRA no later than twenty (20) business days after the filing of the contract dispute. The ODRA may extend
this time, pursuant to § 17.27(e). The
statement(s) shall include either:
(1) A joint request for ADR, or an executed ADR agreement, pursuant to
§ 17.37(d), specifying which ADR techniques will be employed; or
(2) Written explanation(s) as to why
ADR proceedings will not be used and
why the Adjudicative Process will be
needed.
(e) If the contract dispute is not completely resolved during the informal
resolution period, the ODRA’s Adjudicative Process will commence unless
the parties have reached an agreement
to attempt a formal ADR effort. As
part of such an ADR agreement the
parties, with the concurrence of the
ODRA, may agree to defer commencement of the adjudication process pending completion of the ADR or that the
ADR and adjudication process will run
concurrently. If a formal ADR is attempted but does not completely resolve the contract dispute, the Adjudicative Process will commence.
(f) The ODRA shall hold a status conference with the parties within ten (10)
business days, or as soon thereafter as
is practicable, of the ODRA’s receipt of
a written notification that ADR proceedings will not be used, or have not
fully resolved the Contract Dispute.
The purpose of the status conference
will be to commence the Adjudicative
Process and establish the schedule for
adjudication.
(g) The submission of a statement
which indicates that ADR will not be
utilized will not in any way preclude
the parties from engaging in non-binding ADR techniques during the Adjudicative Process, pursuant to subpart D
of this part.
§ 17.31 Dismissal or summary decision
of contract disputes.
(a) Any party may request by motion, or the ODRA on its own initiative
may recommend or direct, that a contract dispute be dismissed, or that a
count or portion thereof be stricken, if:
(1) It was not timely filed;
(2) It was filed by a subcontractor or
other person or entity lacking standing;
(3) It fails to state a matter upon
which relief may be had; or
(4) It involves a matter not subject to
the jurisdiction of the ODRA.
(b) Any party may request by motion, or the ODRA on its own initiative
may recommend or direct, that a summary decision be issued with respect to
a contract dispute, or any count or portion thereof if there are no material
facts in dispute and a party is entitled
to a summary decision as a matter of
law.
(c) In connection with any potential
dismissal of a contract dispute, or summary decision, the ODRA will consider
any material facts in dispute in a light
most favorable to the party against
whom the dismissal or summary decision would be entered, and draw all factual inferences in favor of that party.
(d) At any time, whether pursuant to
a motion or on its own initiative and
at its discretion, the ODRA may:
(1) Dismiss or strike a count or portion of a contract dispute or enter a
partial summary decision;
(2) Recommend to the Administrator
that the entire contract dispute be dismissed or that a summary decision be
entered; or
(3) With a delegation from the Administrator, dismiss the entire contract dispute or enter a summary decision with respect to the entire contract
dispute.
(e) An order of dismissal of the entire
contract dispute or summary decision
with respect to the entire contract dispute, issued either by the Administrator or by the ODRA, on the grounds
set forth in this section, shall constitute a final agency order. An ODRA
order dismissing or striking a count or
portion of a contract dispute or entering a partial summary judgment shall
not constitute a final agency order, unless and until such ODRA order is incorporated or otherwise adopted in a
final agency decision of the Administrator or the Administrator’s delegee
regarding the remainder of the dispute.
(f) Prior to recommending or entering either a dismissal or a summary decision, either in whole or in part, the
ODRA shall afford all parties against
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§ 17.33
whom the dismissal or summary decision would be entered the opportunity
to respond to a proposed dismissal or
summary decision.
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§ 17.33 Adjudicative Process for contract disputes.
(a) The Adjudicative Process for contract disputes will be commenced by
the ODRA Director upon being notified
by the ADR neutral or by any party
that either—
(1) The parties will not be attempting
ADR; or
(2) The parties have not settled all of
the dispute issues via ADR, and it is
unlikely that they can do so within the
time period allotted and/or any reasonable extension.
(b) In cases initiated by a contractor
against the FAA, within twenty (20)
business days of the commencement of
the Adjudicative Process or as scheduled by the ODRA, the Product Team
shall prepare and submit to the ODRA,
with a copy to the contractor, a chronologically arranged and indexed substantive response, containing a legal
and factual position regarding the dispute and all documents relevant to the
facts and issues in dispute. The contractor will be entitled, at a specified
time, to supplement the record with
additional documents.
(c) In cases initiated by the FAA
against a contractor, within twenty
(20) business days of the commencement of the Adjudicative Process or as
scheduled by the ODRA, the contractor
shall prepare and submit to the ODRA,
with a copy to the Product Team counsel, a chronologically arranged and indexed substantive response, containing
a legal and factual position regarding
the dispute and all documents relevant
to the facts and issues in dispute. The
Product Team will be entitled, at a
specified time, to supplement the
record with additional documents.
(d) Unless timely objection is made,
documents properly filed with the
ODRA will be deemed admitted into
the administrative record. Discovery
requests and responses are not part of
the record and will not be filed with
the ODRA, except in connection with a
motion or other permissible filing. Designated, relevant portions of such doc-
uments may be filed, with the permission of the ODRA.
(e) The Director of the ODRA shall
assign a DRO or a Special Master to
conduct adjudicatory proceedings, develop the administrative adjudication
record and prepare findings and recommendations for the review of the
ODRA Director or the Director’s designee.
(f) The DRO or Special Master may
conduct a status conference(s) as necessary and issue such orders or decisions as are necessary to promote the
efficient resolution of the contract dispute.
(g) At any such status conference, or
as necessary during the Adjudicative
Process, the DRO or Special Master
will:
(1)
Determine
the
appropriate
amount of discovery required;
(2) Review the need for a protective
order, and if one is needed, prepare a
protective order pursuant to § 17.9;
(3) Determine whether any issue can
be stricken; and
(4) Prepare necessary procedural orders for the proceedings.
(h) Unless otherwise provided by the
DRO or Special Master, or by agreement of the parties with the concurrence of the DRO or Special Master, responses to written discovery shall be
due within thirty (30) business days
from the date received.
(i) At a time or at times determined
by the DRO or Special Master, and in
advance of the decision of the case, the
parties shall make individual final submissions to the ODRA and to the DRO
or Special Master, which submissions
shall include the following:
(1) A statement of the issues;
(2) A proposed statement of undisputed facts related to each issue together with citations to the administrative record or other supporting materials;
(3) Separate statements of disputed
facts related to each issue, with appropriate citations to documents in the
Dispute File, to pages of transcripts of
any hearing or deposition, or to any affidavit or exhibit which a party may
wish to submit with its statement;
(4) Separate legal analyses in support
of the parties’ respective positions on
disputed issues.
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§ 17.35
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(j) Each party shall serve a copy of
its final submission on the other party
by means reasonably calculated so that
the other party receives such submissions on the same day it is received by
the ODRA.
(k) The DRO or Special Master may
decide the contract dispute on the
basis of the administrative record and
the submissions referenced in this section, or may, in the DRO or Special
Master’s discretion, direct the parties
to make additional presentations in
writing. The DRO or Special Master
may conduct hearings, and may limit
the hearings to the testimony of specific witnesses and/or presentations regarding specific issues. The DRO or
Special Master shall control the nature
and conduct of all hearings, including
the sequence and extent of any testimony. Evidentiary hearings on the
record shall be conducted by the
ODRA:
(1) Where the DRO or Special Master
determines that there are complex factual issues in dispute that cannot adequately or efficiently be developed
solely by means of written presentations and/or that resolution of the
controversy will be dependent on his/
her assessment of the credibility of
statements provided by individuals
with first-hand knowledge of the facts;
or
(2) Upon request of any party to the
contract dispute, unless the DRO or
Special Master finds specifically that a
hearing is unnecessary and that no
party will be prejudiced by limiting the
record in the adjudication to the parties’ written submissions. All witnesses
at any such hearing shall be subject to
cross-examination by the opposing
party and to questioning by the DRO or
Special Master.
(l) The DRO or Special Master shall
prepare findings and recommendations,
which will contain findings of fact, application of the principles of the AMS
and other law or authority applicable
to the findings of fact, and a recommendation for a final FAA order.
(m) The DRO or Special Master shall
conduct a de novo review using the preponderance of the evidence standard,
unless a different standard is prescribed for a particular issue. Notwithstanding the above, allegations that
government officials acted with bias or
in bad faith must be established by
clear and convincing evidence.
(n) The Director of the ODRA may
review the status of any contract dispute in the Adjudicative Process with
the DRO or Special Master.
(o) A DRO or Special Master shall
submit findings and recommendations
to the Director of the ODRA or the Director’s designee. The findings and recommendations will be released to the
parties and to the public, upon
issuance of the final FAA order in the
case. Should an ODRA protective order
be issued in connection with the contract dispute, or should the matter involve proprietary or competition-sensitive information, a redacted version
of the findings and recommendations
omitting any protected information,
shall be prepared wherever possible and
released to the public, as soon as is
practicable, along with a copy of the
final FAA order. Only persons admitted
by the ODRA under the protective
order and Government personnel shall
be provided copies of the unredacted
findings and recommendations.
(p) Attorneys’ fees of a qualified prevailing contractor are allowable to the
extent permitted by the EAJA, 5 U.S.C.
504(a)(1). See 14 CFR part 14.
(q) Other than communications regarding purely procedural matters or
ADR, there shall be no substantive ex
parte communication between ODRA
personnel and any principal or representative of a party concerning a
pending or potentially pending matter.
A potential or serving ADR neutral
may communicate on an ex parte basis
to establish or conduct the ADR.
Subpart D—Alternative Dispute
Resolution
§ 17.35 Use of alternative dispute resolution.
(a) By statutory mandate, it is the
policy of the FAA to use voluntary
ADR to the maximum extent practicable to resolve matters pending at
the ODRA. The ODRA therefore uses
voluntary ADR as its primary means of
resolving all factual, legal, and procedural controversies.
(b) The parties are encouraged to
make a good faith effort to explore
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§ 17.41
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ADR possibilities in all cases and to
employ ADR in every appropriate case.
The ODRA uses ADR techniques such
as mediation, neutral evaluation, binding arbitration or variations of these
techniques as agreed by the parties and
approved by the ODRA. At the beginning of each case, the ODRA assigns a
DRO as a potential neutral to explore
ADR options with the parties and to
convene an ADR process. See § 17.35(b).
(c) The ODRA Adjudicative Process
will be used where the parties cannot
achieve agreement on the use of ADR;
where ADR has been employed but has
not resolved all pending issues in dispute; or where the ODRA concludes
that ADR will not provide an expeditious means of resolving a particular
dispute. Even where the Adjudicative
Process is to be used, the ODRA, with
the parties’ consent, may employ informal ADR techniques concurrently with
the adjudication.
§ 17.37 Election of alternative dispute
resolution process.
(a) The ODRA will make its personnel available to serve as Neutrals in
ADR proceedings and, upon request by
the parties, will attempt to make
qualified non-FAA personnel available
to serve as Neutrals through neutralsharing programs and other similar arrangements. The parties may elect to
employ a mutually acceptable compensated neutral at their expense.
(b) The parties using an ADR process
to resolve a protest shall submit an executed ADR agreement containing the
information outlined in paragraph (d)
of this section to the ODRA pursuant
to § 17.17(c). The ODRA may extend this
time for good cause.
(c) The parties using an ADR process
to resolve a contract dispute shall submit an executed ADR agreement containing the information outlined in
paragraph (d) of this section to the
ODRA pursuant to § 17.29.
(d) The parties to a protest or contract dispute who elect to use ADR
must submit to the ODRA an ADR
agreement setting forth:
(1) The agreed ADR procedures to be
used; and
(2) The name of the neutral. If a compensated neutral is to be used, the
agreement must address how the cost
of the neutral’s services will be reimbursed.
(e) Non-binding ADR techniques are
not mutually exclusive, and may be
used in combination if the parties
agree that a combination is most appropriate to the dispute. The techniques to be employed must be determined in advance by the parties and
shall be expressly described in their
ADR agreement. The agreement may
provide for the use of any fair and reasonable ADR technique that is designed to achieve a prompt resolution
of the matter. An ADR agreement for
non-binding ADR shall provide for a
termination of ADR proceedings and
the commencement of adjudication
under the Adjudicative Process, upon
the election of any party. Notwithstanding such termination, the parties
may still engage with the ODRA in
ADR techniques (neutral evaluation
and/or informal mediation) concurrently with adjudication.
(f) Binding arbitration is available
through the ODRA, subject to the provisions of applicable law and the ODRA
Binding Arbitration Guidance dated
October 2001 as developed in consultation with the Department of Justice.
(g) The parties may, where appropriate in a given case, submit to the
ODRA a negotiated protective order for
use in ADR in accordance with the requirements of § 17.9.
§ 17.39
Confidentiality of ADR.
(a) The provisions of the Administrative Dispute Resolution Act of 1996, 5
U.S.C. 571, et seq., shall apply to ODRA
ADR proceedings.
(b) The ODRA looks to the principles
of Rule 408 of the Federal Rules of Evidence in deciding admissibility issues
related to ADR communications.
(c) ADR communications are not part
of the administrative record unless
otherwise agreed by the parties.
Subpart E—Finality and Review
§ 17.41
Final orders.
All final FAA orders regarding protests or contract disputes under this
part are to be issued by the FAA Administrator or by a delegee of the Administrator.
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§ 17.43
§ 17.43
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Judicial review.
(a) A protester or contractor may
seek review of a final FAA order, pursuant to 49 U.S.C. 46110, only after the
administrative remedies of this part
have been exhausted.
(b) A copy of the petition for review
shall be filed with the ODRA and the
FAA Chief Counsel on the date that the
petition for review is filed with the appropriate circuit court of appeals.
§ 17.45
Conforming amendments.
The FAA shall amend pertinent provisions of the AMS, standard contract
forms and clauses, and any guidance to
contracting officials, so as to conform
to the provisions of this part.
§ 17.47
Reconsideration.
The ODRA will not entertain requests for reconsideration as a routine
matter, or where such requests evidence mere disagreement with a decision or restatements of previous arguments. A party seeking reconsideration
must demonstrate either clear errors of
fact or law in the underlying decision
or previously unavailable evidence that
warrants reversal or modification of
the decision. In order to be considered,
requests for reconsideration must be
filed within ten (10) business days of
the date of issuance of the public
version of the subject decision or order.
Subpart F—Other Matters
§ 17.49
Sanctions.
If any party or its representative
fails to comply with an Order or Directive of the ODRA, the ODRA may enter
such orders and take such other actions as it deems necessary and in the
interest of justice.
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§ 17.51 Decorum and professional conduct.
Legal representatives are expected to
conduct themselves at all times in a
civil and respectful manner appropriate to an administrative forum. Additionally, counsel are expected to conduct themselves at all times in a professional manner and in accordance
with all applicable rules of professional
conduct.
§ 17.53 Orders and subpoenas for testimony and document production.
(a) Parties are encouraged to seek cooperative and voluntary production of
documents and witnesses prior to requesting a subpoena or an order under
this section.
(b) Upon request by a party, or on his
or her own initiative, a DRO or Special
Master may, for good cause shown,
order a person to give testimony by
deposition and to produce records. Section 46104(c) of Title 49 of the United
States Code governs the conduct of
depositions or document production.
(c) Upon request by a party, or on his
or her own initiative, a DRO or Special
Master may, for good cause shown, subpoena witnesses or records related to a
hearing from any place in the United
States to the designated place of a
hearing.
(d) A subpoena or order under this
section may be served by a United
States marshal or deputy marshal, or
by any other person who is not a party
and not less than 18 years of age. Service upon a person named therein shall
be made by personally delivering a
copy to that person and tendering the
fees for one day’s attendance and the
mileage provided by 28 U.S.C. 1821 or
other applicable law; however, where
the subpoena is issued on behalf of the
Product Team, money payments need
not be tendered in advance of attendance. The person serving the subpoena
or order shall file a declaration of service with the ODRA, executed in the
form required by 28 U.S.C. 1746. The
declaration of service shall be filed
promptly with the ODRA, and before
the date on which the person served
must respond to the subpoena or order.
(e) Upon written motion by the person subpoenaed or ordered under this
section, or by a party, made within ten
(10) business days after service, but in
any event not later than the time specified in the subpoena or order for compliance, the DRO may—
(1) Rescind or modify the subpoena or
order if it is unreasonable and oppressive or for other good cause shown, or
(2) Require the party on whose behalf
the subpoena or order was issued to advance the reasonable cost of producing
documentary evidence. Where circumstances require, the DRO may act
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Pt. 17, App. A
upon such a motion at any time after a
copy has been served upon all parties.
(f) The party that requests the DRO
to issue a subpoena or order under this
section shall be responsible for the payment of fees and mileage, as required
by 49 U.S.C. 46104(d), for witnesses, officers who serve the order, and the officer before whom a deposition is taken.
(g) Subpoenas and orders issued
under this section may be enforced in a
judicial proceeding under 49 U.S.C.
46104(b).
§ 17.55 Standing orders of the ODRA
Director.
The Director may issue such Standing Orders as necessary for the orderly
conduct of business before the ODRA.
Subpart G—Pre-Disputes
§ 17.57 Dispute resolution process for
Pre-disputes.
(a) All potential disputes arising
under contracts or solicitations with
the FAA may be resolved with the consent of the parties to the dispute under
this subpart.
(b) Pre-disputes shall be filed with
the ODRA pursuant to § 17.59.
(c) The time limitations for the filing
of Protests and Contract Disputes established in §§ 17.15(a) and 17.27(c) will
not be extended by efforts to resolve
the dispute under this subpart.
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§ 17.59
Filing a Pre-dispute.
(a) A Pre-dispute must be in writing,
affirmatively state that it is a Pre-dispute pursuant to this subpart, and
shall contain:
(1) The party’s name, address, telephone and Fax numbers and the name,
address, telephone and Fax numbers of
the contractor’s legal representative(s)
(if any);
(2) The contract or solicitation number and the name of the Contracting
Officer;
(3) A chronological statement of the
facts and of the legal grounds for the
party’s positions regarding the dispute
citing to relevant contract or solicitation provisions and documents and attaching copies of those provisions and
documents; and
(4) The signature of a duly authorized
legal representative of the initiating
party.
(b) Pre-disputes shall be filed at the
following address: ODRA, AGC–70, Federal Aviation Administration, 800 Independence Avenue, SW., Room 323,
Washington, DC 20591; Telephone: (202)
267–3290, Fax: (202) 267–3720.
(c) Upon the filing of a Pre-dispute
with the ODRA, the ODRA will contact
the opposing party to offer its services
pursuant to § 17.57. If the opposing
party agrees, the ODRA will provide
Pre-dispute services. If the opposing
party does not agree, the ODRA Predispute file will be closed and no service will be provided.
§ 17.61 Use of alternative dispute resolution.
(a) Only non-binding, voluntary ADR
will be used to attempt to resolve a
Pre-dispute pursuant to § 17.37.
(b) ADR conducted under this subpart is subject to the confidentiality
requirements of § 17.39.
APPENDIX A TO PART 17—ALTERNATIVE
DISPUTE RESOLUTION (ADR)
A. The FAA dispute resolution procedures
encourage the parties to protests and contract disputes to use ADR as the primary
means to resolve protests and contract disputes, pursuant to the Administrative Dispute Resolution Act of 1996, Public Law 104–
320, 5 U.S.C. 570–579, and Department of
Transportation and FAA policies to utilize
ADR to the maximum extent practicable.
Under the procedures presented in this part,
the ODRA encourages parties to consider
ADR techniques such as case evaluation, mediation, or arbitration.
B. ADR encompasses a number of processes
and techniques for resolving protests or contract disputes. The most commonly used
types include:
(1) Mediation. The neutral or compensated
neutral ascertains the needs and interests of
both parties and facilitates discussions between or among the parties and an amicable
resolution of their differences, seeking approaches to bridge the gaps between the parties’’ respective positions. The neutral or
compensated neutral can meet with the parties separately, conduct joint meetings with
the parties’’ representatives, or employ both
methods in appropriate cases.
(2) Neutral Evaluation. At any stage during
the ADR process, as the parties may agree,
the neutral or compensated neutral will provide a candid assessment and opinion of the
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14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
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strengths and weaknesses of the parties’’ positions as to the facts and law, so as to facilitate further discussion and resolution.
(3) Binding Arbitration. The ODRA, after
consultation with the United States Department of Justice in accordance with the pro-
visions of the Administrative Disputes Resolution Act offers true binding arbitration in
cases within its jurisdiction. The ODRA’s
Guidance for the Use of Binding Arbitration
may be found on its website at: http://
www.faa.gov/go/odra.
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SUBCHAPTER C—AIRCRAFT
PART 21—CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES FOR PRODUCTS AND
PARTS
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59031, Oct.
1, 2015, the heading for part 21 is revised, effective Mar. 29, 2016. For the convenience of
the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:
PART 21—CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES
FOR PRODUCTS AND ARTICLES
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO.
88
21.37 Flight test pilot.
21.39 Flight test instrument calibration and
correction report.
21.41 Type certificate.
21.43 Location of manufacturing facilities.
21.45 Privileges.
21.47 Transferability.
21.49 Availability.
21.50 Instructions for continued airworthiness and manufacturer’s maintenance
manuals having airworthiness limitations sections.
21.51 Duration.
21.53 Statement of conformity.
21.55 Responsibility of type certificate holders to provide written licensing agreements.
Subpart A—General
Subpart C—Provisional Type Certificates
Sec.
21.1 Applicability and definitions.
21.2 Falsification of applications, reports,
or records.
21.3 Reporting of failures, malfunctions,
and defects.
21.4 ETOPS reporting requirements.
21.5 Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
21.6 Manufacture of new aircraft, aircraft
engines, and propellers.
21.7 Continued airworthiness and safety improvements for transport category airplanes.
21.8 Approval of articles.
21.9 Replacement and modification articles.
21.71 Applicability.
21.73 Eligibility.
21.75 Application.
21.77 Duration.
21.79 Transferability.
21.81 Requirements for issue and amendment of Class I provisional type certificates.
21.83 Requirements for issue and amendment of Class II provisional type certificates.
21.85 Provisional amendments to type certificates.
Subpart D—Changes to Type Certificates
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Subpart B—Type Certificates
21.11 Applicability.
21.13 Eligibility.
21.15 Application for type certificate.
21.16 Special conditions.
21.17 Designation of applicable regulations.
21.19 Changes requiring a new type certificate.
21.20 Compliance with applicable requirements.
21.21 Issue of type certificate: normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, and transport
category aircraft; manned free balloons;
special classes of aircraft; aircraft engines; propellers.
21.23 [Reserved]
21.24 Issuance of type certificate: primary
category aircraft.
21.25 Issue of type certificate: Restricted
category aircraft.
21.27 Issue of type certificate: surplus aircraft of the Armed Forces.
21.29 Issue of type certificate: import products.
21.31 Type design.
21.33 Inspection and tests.
21.35 Flight tests.
21.91 Applicability.
21.93 Classification of changes in type design.
21.95 Approval of minor changes in type design.
21.97 Approval of major changes in type design.
21.99 Required design changes.
21.101 Designation of applicable regulations.
Subpart E—Supplemental Type Certificates
21.111 Applicability.
21.113 Requirement for supplemental type
certificate.
21.115 Applicable requirements.
21.117 Issue of supplemental type certificates.
21.119 Privileges.
21.120 Responsibility of supplemental type
certificate holders to provide written
permission for alterations.
Subpart F—Production Under Type
Certificate
21.121
Applicability.
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Pt. 21
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
21.122 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
21.123 Production under type certificate.
21.125 [Reserved]
21.127 Tests: aircraft.
21.128 Tests: aircraft engines.
21.129 Tests: propellers.
21.130 Statement of conformity.
Subpart G—Production Certificates
21.131 Applicability.
21.132 Eligibility.
21.133 Application.
21.135 Organization.
21.137 Quality system.
21.138 Quality manual.
21.139 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
21.140 Inspections and tests.
21.141 Issuance.
21.142 Production limitation record.
21.143 Duration.
21.144 Transferability.
21.145 Privileges.
21.146 Responsibility of holder.
21.147 Amendment of production certificates.
21.150 Changes in quality system.
21.213 Eligibility.
21.215 Application.
21.217 Duration.
21.219 Transferability.
21.221 Class I provisional airworthiness certificates.
21.223 Class II provisional airworthiness certificates.
21.225 Provisional airworthiness certificates
corresponding with provisional amendments to type certificates.
Subpart J [Reserved]
Subpart K—Parts Manufacturer Approvals
21.301 Applicability.
21.303 Application.
21.305 Organization.
21.307 Quality system.
21.308 Quality manual.
21.309 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
21.310 Inspections and tests.
21.311 Issuance.
21.313 Duration.
21.314 Transferability.
21.316 Responsibility of holder.
21.319 Design changes.
21.320 Changes in quality system.
Subpart H—Airworthiness Certificates
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21.171 Applicability.
21.173 Eligibility.
21.175 Airworthiness certificates: classification.
21.177 Amendment or modification.
21.179 Transferability.
21.181 Duration.
21.182 Aircraft identification.
21.183 Issue of standard airworthiness certificates for normal, utility, acrobatic,
commuter, and transport category aircraft; manned free balloons; and special
classes of aircraft.
21.184 Issue of special airworthiness certificates for primary category aircraft.
21.185 Issue of airworthiness certificates for
restricted category aircraft.
21.187 Issue of multiple airworthiness certification.
21.189 Issue of airworthiness certificate for
limited category aircraft.
21.190 Issue of a special airworthiness certificate for a light-sport category aircraft.
21.191 Experimental certificates.
21.193 Experimental certificates: general.
21.195 Experimental certificates: Aircraft to
be used for market surveys, sales demonstrations, and customer crew training.
21.197 Special flight permits.
21.199 Issue of special flight permits.
Subpart I—Provisional Airworthiness
Certificates
21.211
Applicability.
Subpart L—Export Airworthiness Approvals
21.321 Applicability.
21.325 Export airworthiness approvals.
21.327 Application.
21.329 Issuance of export certificates of airworthiness.
21.331 Issuance of export airworthiness approvals for aircraft engines, propellers,
and articles.
21.335 Responsibilities of exporters.
Subpart M [Reserved]
Subpart N—Acceptance of Aircraft
Engines, Propellers, and Articles for Import
21.500 Acceptance of aircraft engines and
propellers.
21.502 Acceptance of articles.
Subpart O—Technical Standard Order
Approvals
21.601 Applicability and definitions.
21.603 Application.
21.605 Organization.
21.607 Quality system.
21.608 Quality manual.
21.609 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
21.610 Inspections and tests.
21.611 Issuance.
21.613 Duration.
21.614 Transferability.
21.616 Responsibility of holder.
21.618 Approval for deviation.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.1
21.619 Design changes.
21.620 Changes in quality system.
21.621 Issue of letters of TSO design approval: Import articles.
Subpart P—Special Federal Aviation
Regulations
21.700 SFAR No. 111—Lavatory oxygen systems.
AUTHORITY: 42 U.S.C. 7572; 49 U.S.C. 106(g),
40105, 40113, 44701–44702, 44704, 44707, 44709,
44711, 44713, 44715, 45303.
EDITORIAL NOTE: For miscellaneous amendments to cross references in this 21 see
Amdt. 21–10, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966.
EDITORIAL NOTE: Nomenclature changes to
part 21 appear at 74 FR 53384, Oct. 16, 2009.
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
NO. 88—FUEL TANK SYSTEM FAULT
TOLERANCE EVALUATION REQUIRE-
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
MENTS
1. Applicability. This SFAR applies to the
holders of type certificates, and supplemental type certificates that may affect the
airplane fuel tank system, for turbine-powered transport category airplanes, provided
the type certificate was issued after January
1, 1958, and the airplane has either a maximum type certificated passenger capacity of
30 or more, or a maximum type certificated
payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or more.
This SFAR also applies to applicants for
type certificates, amendments to a type certificate, and supplemental type certificates
affecting the fuel tank systems for those airplanes identified above, if the application
was filed before June 6, 2001, the effective
date of this SFAR, and the certificate was
not issued before June 6, 2001.
2. Compliance: Each type certificate holder,
and each supplemental type certificate holder of a modification affecting the airplane
fuel tank system, must accomplish the following within the compliance times specified
in paragraph (e) of this section:
(a) Conduct a safety review of the airplane
fuel tank system to determine that the design meets the requirements of §§ 25.901 and
25.981(a) and (b) of this chapter. If the current design does not meet these requirements, develop all design changes to the fuel
tank system that are necessary to meet
these requirements. The FAA (Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), or office of the
Transport Airplane Directorate, having cognizance over the type certificate for the affected airplane) may grant an extension of
the 18-month compliance time for development of design changes if:
(1) The safety review is completed within
the compliance time;
(2) Necessary design changes are identified
within the compliance time; and
(3) Additional time can be justified, based
on the holder’s demonstrated aggressiveness
in performing the safety review, the complexity of the necessary design changes, the
availability of interim actions to provide an
acceptable level of safety, and the resulting
level of safety.
(b) Develop all maintenance and inspection
instructions necessary to maintain the design features required to preclude the existence or development of an ignition source
within the fuel tank system of the airplane.
(c) Submit a report for approval to the
FAA Aircraft Certification Office (ACO), or
office of the Transport Airplane Directorate,
having cognizance over the type certificate
for the affected airplane, that:
(1) Provides substantiation that the airplane fuel tank system design, including all
necessary design changes, meets the requirements of §§ 25.901 and 25.981(a) and (b) of this
chapter; and
(2) Contains all maintenance and inspection instructions necessary to maintain the
design features required to preclude the existence or development of an ignition source
within the fuel tank system throughout the
operational life of the airplane.
(d) The Aircraft Certification Office (ACO),
or office of the Transport Airplane Directorate, having cognizance over the type certificate for the affected airplane, may approve a report submitted in accordance with
paragraph 2(c) if it determines that any provisions of this SFAR not complied with are
compensated for by factors that provide an
equivalent level of safety.
(e) Each type certificate holder must comply no later than December 6, 2002, or within
18 months after the issuance of a type certificate for which application was filed before June 6, 2001, whichever is later; and each
supplemental type certificate holder of a
modification affecting the airplane fuel tank
system must comply no later than June 6,
2003, or within 18 months after the issuance
of a supplemental type certificate for which
application was filed before June 6, 2001,
whichever is later.
[Doc. No. 1999–6411, 66 FR 23129, May 7, 2001,
as amended by Amdt. 21–82, 67 FR 57493, Sept.
10, 2002; 67 FR 70809, Nov. 26, 2002; Amdt. 21–
83, 67 FR 72833, Dec. 9, 2002]
Subpart A—General
§ 21.1 Applicability and definitions.
(a) This part prescribes—
(1) Procedural requirements for
issuing and changing—
(i) Design approvals;
(ii) Production approvals;
(iii) Airworthiness certificates; and
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§ 21.1, Nt.
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(iv) Airworthiness approvals;
(2) Rules governing applicants for,
and holders of, any approval or certificate specified in paragraph (a)(1) of
this section; and
(3) Procedural requirements for the
approval of articles.
(b) For the purposes of this part—
(1) Airworthiness approval means a
document issued by the FAA for an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or article which certifies that the aircraft,
aircraft engine, propeller, or article
conforms to its approved design and is
in a condition for safe operation;
(2) Article means a material, part,
component, process, or appliance;
(3) Commercial part means an article
that is listed on an FAA-approved
Commercial Parts List included in a
design approval holder’s Instructions
for Continued Airworthiness required
by § 21.50;
(4) Design approval means a type certificate (including amended and supplemental type certificates) or the approved design under a PMA, TSO authorization, letter of TSO design approval, or other approved design;
(5) Product means an aircraft, aircraft
engine, or propeller;
(6) Production approval means a document issued by the FAA to a person
that allows the production of a product
or article in accordance with its approved design and approved quality
system, and can take the form of a production certificate, a PMA, or a TSO
authorization;
(7) State of Design means the country
or jurisdiction having regulatory authority over the organization responsible for the design and continued airworthiness of a civil aeronautical product or article;
(8) State of Manufacture means the
country or jurisdiction having regulatory authority over the organization
responsible for the production and airworthiness of a civil aeronautical product or article.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53384, Oct. 16, 2009]
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59031, Oct.
1, 2015, § 21.1 was amended by revising paragraph (b)(1), redesignating paragraphs (b)(5)
through (b)(8) as (b)(6) through (b)(9), and
adding new paragraphs (b)(5) and (b)(10), effective Mar. 29, 2016. At 80 FR 78650, Dec. 17,
2015, the effective date of the amendments to
§§ 21.1(b)(1) and 21.1(b)(5) through (9) was advanced to Jan. 4, 2016. For the convenience of
the user, the added and revised text is set
forth as follows:
§ 21.1
Applicability and definitions.
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
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(5) Interface component means an article
that serves as a functional interface between
an aircraft and an aircraft engine, an aircraft engine and a propeller, or an aircraft
and a propeller. An interface component is
designated by the holder of the type certificate or the supplemental type certificate
who controls the approved design data for
that article;
*
*
*
*
*
(10) Supplier means a person at any tier in
the supply chain who provides a product, article, or service that is used or consumed in
the design or manufacture of, or installed on,
a product or article.
§ 21.2 Falsification of applications, reports, or records.
(a) A person may not make or cause
to be made—
(1) Any fraudulent, intentionally
false, or misleading statement on any
application for a certificate or approval under this part;
(2) Any fraudulent, intentionally
false, or misleading statement in any
record or report that is kept, made, or
used to show compliance with any requirement of this part;
(3) Any reproduction for a fraudulent
purpose of any certificate or approval
issued under this part.
(4) Any alteration of any certificate
or approval issued under this part.
(b) The commission by any person of
an act prohibited under paragraph (a)
of this section is a basis for—
(1) Denying issuance of any certificate or approval under this part; and
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(b) * * *
(1) Airworthiness approval means a document, issued by the FAA for an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or article, which certifies that the aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or article conforms to its approved
design and is in a condition for safe operation, unless otherwise specified;
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§ 21.3
(2) Suspending or revoking any certificate or approval issued under this
part and held by that person.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41367, Sept. 9, 1992, as
amended by Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53384, Oct. 16,
2009; Amdt. 21–92A, 75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010]
§ 21.3 Reporting of failures, malfunctions, and defects.
(a) The holder of a type certificate
(including amended or supplemental
type certificates), a PMA, or a TSO authorization, or the licensee of a type
certificate must report any failure,
malfunction, or defect in any product
or article manufactured by it that it
determines has resulted in any of the
occurrences listed in paragraph (c) of
this section.
(b) The holder of a type certificate
(including amended or supplemental
type certificates), a PMA, or a TSO authorization, or the licensee of a type
certificate must report any defect in
any product or article manufactured by
it that has left its quality system and
that it determines could result in any
of the occurrences listed in paragraph
(c) of this section.
(c) The following occurrences must
be reported as provided in paragraphs
(a) and (b) of this section:
(1) Fires caused by a system or equipment failure, malfunction, or defect.
(2) An engine exhaust system failure,
malfunction, or defect which causes
damage to the engine, adjacent aircraft
structure, equipment, or components.
(3) The accumulation or circulation
of toxic or noxious gases in the crew
compartment or passenger cabin.
(4) A malfunction, failure, or defect
of a propeller control system.
(5) A propeller or rotorcraft hub or
blade structural failure.
(6) Flammable fluid leakage in areas
where an ignition source normally exists.
(7) A brake system failure caused by
structural or material failure during
operation.
(8) A significant aircraft primary
structural defect or failure caused by
any autogenous condition (fatigue, understrength, corrosion, etc.).
(9) Any abnormal vibration or buffeting caused by a structural or system
malfunction, defect, or failure.
(10) An engine failure.
(11) Any structural or flight control
system malfunction, defect, or failure
which causes an interference with normal control of the aircraft for which
derogates the flying qualities.
(12) A complete loss of more than one
electrical power generating system or
hydraulic power system during a given
operation of the aircraft.
(13) A failure or malfunction of more
than one attitude, airspeed, or altitude
instrument during a given operation of
the aircraft.
(d) The requirements of paragraph (a)
of this section do not apply to—
(1) Failures, malfunctions, or defects
that the holder of a type certificate
(including amended or supplemental
type certificates), PMA, TSO authorization, or the licensee of a type certificate determines—
(i) Were caused by improper maintenance or use;
(ii) Were reported to the FAA by another person under this chapter; or
(iii) Were reported under the accident
reporting provisions of 49 CFR part 830
of the regulations of the National
Transportation Safety Board.
(2) Failures, malfunctions, or defects
in products or articles—
(i) Manufactured by a foreign manufacturer under a U.S. type certificate
issued under § 21.29 or under an approval issued under § 21.621; or
(ii) Exported to the United States
under § 21.502.
(e) Each report required by this section—
(1) Must be made to the Aircraft Certification Office in the region in which
the person required to make the report
is located within 24 hours after it has
determined that the failure, malfunction, or defect required to be reported
has occurred. However, a report that is
due on a Saturday or a Sunday may be
delivered on the following Monday and
one that is due on a holiday may be delivered on the next workday;
(2) Must be transmitted in a manner
and form acceptable to the FAA and by
the most expeditious method available;
and
(3) Must include as much of the following information as is available and
applicable:
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§ 21.4
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(i) The applicable product and article
identification information required by
part 45 of this chapter;
(ii) Identification of the system involved; and
(iii) Nature of the failure, malfunction, or defect.
(f) If an accident investigation or
service difficulty report shows that a
product or article manufactured under
this part is unsafe because of a manufacturing or design data defect, the
holder of the production approval for
that product or article must, upon request of the FAA, report to the FAA
the results of its investigation and any
action taken or proposed by the holder
of that production approval to correct
that defect. If action is required to correct the defect in an existing product
or article, the holder of that production approval must send the data necessary for issuing an appropriate airworthiness directive to the appropriate
aircraft certification office.
(a) Early ETOPS: reporting, tracking,
and resolving problems. The holder of a
type certificate for an airplane-engine
combination approved using the Early
ETOPS method specified in part 25, Appendix K, of this chapter must use a
system for reporting, tracking, and resolving each problem resulting in one
of the occurrences specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this section.
(1) The system must identify how the
type certificate holder will promptly
identify problems, report them to the
responsible FAA aircraft certification
office, and propose a solution to the
FAA to resolve each problem. A proposed solution must consist of—
(i) A change in the airplane or engine
type design;
(ii) A change in a manufacturing
process;
(iii) A change in an operating or
maintenance procedure; or
(iv) Any other solution acceptable to
the FAA.
(2) For an airplane with more than
two engines, the system must be in
place for the first 250,000 world fleet engine-hours for the approved airplaneengine combination.
(3) For two-engine airplanes, the system must be in place for the first
250,000 world fleet engine-hours for the
approved airplane-engine combination
and after that until—
(i) The world fleet 12-month rolling
average IFSD rate is at or below the
rate required by paragraph (b)(2) of this
section; and
(ii) The FAA determines that the
rate is stable.
(4) For an airplane-engine combination that is a derivative of an airplaneengine combination previously approved for ETOPS, the system need
only address those problems specified
in the following table, provided the
type certificate holder obtains prior
authorization from the FAA:
If the change does not require a new airplane type certificate
and . . .
Then the Problem Tracking and Resolution System must address . . .
(i) Requires a new engine type certificate ..................................
All problems applicable to the new engine installation, and for
the remainder of the airplane, problems in changed systems
only.
Problems in changed systems only.
[Amdt. 21–36, 35 FR 18187, Nov. 28, 1970, as
amended by Amdt. 21–37, 35 FR 18450, Dec. 4,
1970; Amdt. 21–50, 45 FR 38346, June 9, 1980;
Amdt. 21–67, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.4
ETOPS reporting requirements.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(ii) Does not require a new engine type certificate .....................
(5) The type certificate holder must
identify the sources and content of
data that it will use for its system. The
data must be adequate to evaluate the
specific cause of any in-service problem
reportable under this section or § 21.3(c)
that could affect the safety of ETOPS.
(6) In implementing this system, the
type certificate holder must report the
following occurrences:
(i) IFSDs, except planned IFSDs performed for flight training.
(ii) For two-engine airplanes, IFSD
rates.
(iii) Inability to control an engine or
obtain desired thrust or power.
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§ 21.5
(iv) Precautionary thrust or power
reductions.
(v) Degraded ability to start an engine in flight.
(vi) Inadvertent fuel loss or unavailability, or uncorrectable fuel imbalance in flight.
(vii) Turn backs or diversions for failures, malfunctions, or defects associated with an ETOPS group 1 significant system.
(viii) Loss of any power source for an
ETOPS group 1 significant system, including any power source designed to
provide backup power for that system.
(ix) Any event that would jeopardize
the safe flight and landing of the airplane on an ETOPS flight.
(x) Any unscheduled engine removal
for a condition that could result in one
of the reportable occurrences listed in
this paragraph.
(b) Reliability of two-engine airplanes—
(1) Reporting of two-engine airplane inservice reliability. The holder of a type
certificate for an airplane approved for
ETOPS and the holder of a type certificate for an engine installed on an airplane approved for ETOPS must report
monthly to their respective FAA type
certificate holding office on the reliability of the world fleet of those airplanes and engines. The report provided by both the airplane and engine
type certificate holders must address
each airplane-engine combination approved for ETOPS. The FAA may approve quarterly reporting if the airplane-engine
combination
demonstrates an IFSD rate at or below
those specified in paragraph (b)(2) of
this section for a period acceptable to
the FAA. This reporting may be combined with the reporting required by
§ 21.3. The responsible type certificate
holder must investigate any cause of
an IFSD resulting from an occurrence
attributable to the design of its product and report the results of that investigation to its FAA office responsible for administering its type certificate. Reporting must include:
(i) Engine IFSDs, except planned
IFSDs performed for flight training.
(ii) The world fleet 12-month rolling
average IFSD rates for all causes, except planned IFSDs performed for
flight training.
(iii) ETOPS fleet utilization, including a list of operators, their ETOPS diversion time authority, flight hours,
and cycles.
(2) World fleet IFSD rate for two-engine
airplanes. The holder of a type certificate for an airplane approved for
ETOPS and the holder of a type certificate for an engine installed on an airplane approved for ETOPS must issue
service information to the operators of
those airplanes and engines, as appropriate, to maintain the world fleet 12month rolling average IFSD rate at or
below the following levels:
(i) A rate of 0.05 per 1,000 world-fleet
engine-hours for an airplane-engine
combination approved for up to and including 120-minute ETOPS. When all
ETOPS operators have complied with
the corrective actions required in the
configuration, maintenance and procedures (CMP) document as a condition
for ETOPS approval, the rate to be
maintained is at or below 0.02 per 1,000
world-fleet engine-hours.
(ii) A rate of 0.02 per 1,000 world-fleet
engine-hours for an airplane-engine
combination approved for up to and including 180-minute ETOPS, including
airplane-engine combinations approved
for 207-minute ETOPS in the North Pacific operating area under appendix P,
section I, paragraph (h), of part 121 of
this chapter.
(iii) A rate of 0.01 per 1,000 world-fleet
engine-hours for an airplane-engine
combination approved for ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, excluding airplaneengine combinations approved for 207minute ETOPS in the North Pacific operating area under appendix P, section
I, paragraph (h), of part 121 of this
chapter.
[Doc. No. FAA–2002–6717, 72 FR 1872, Jan. 16,
2007]
§ 21.5 Airplane
Manual.
or
Rotorcraft
(a) With each airplane or rotorcraft
not type certificated with an Airplane
or Rotorcraft Flight Manual and having no flight time before March 1, 1979,
the holder of a type certificate (including amended or supplemental type certificates) or the licensee of a type certificate must make available to the
owner at the time of delivery of the
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§ 21.6
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
aircraft a current approved Airplane or
Rotorcraft Flight Manual.
(b) The Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight
Manual required by paragraph (a) of
this section must contain the following
information:
(1) The operating limitations and information required to be furnished in
an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual or in manual material, markings,
and placards, by the applicable regulations under which the airplane or
rotorcraft was type certificated.
(2) The maximum ambient atmospheric temperature for which engine
cooling was demonstrated must be
stated in the performance information
section of the Flight Manual, if the applicable regulations under which the
aircraft was type certificated do not require ambient temperature on engine
cooling operating limitations in the
Flight Manual.
[Amdt. 21–46, 43 FR 2316, Jan. 16, 1978, as
amended by Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16,
2009]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.6 Manufacture of new aircraft, aircraft engines, and propellers.
(a) Except as specified in paragraphs
(b) and (c) of this section, no person
may manufacture a new aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller based on a
type certificate unless the person—
(1) Is the holder of the type certificate or has a licensing agreement from
the holder of the type certificate to
manufacture the product; and
(2) Meets the requirements of subpart
F or G of this part.
(b) A person may manufacture one
new aircraft based on a type certificate
without meeting the requirements of
paragraph (a) of this section if that
person can provide evidence acceptable
to the FAA that the manufacture of
the aircraft by that person began before August 5, 2004.
(c) The requirements of this section
do not apply to—
(1) New aircraft imported under the
provisions of §§ 21.183(c), 21.184(b), or
21.185(c); and
(2) New aircraft engines or propellers
imported under the provisions of
§ 21.500.
[Doc. No. FAA–2003–14825, 71 FR 52258, Sept.
1, 2006]
§ 21.7 Continued airworthiness and
safety improvements for transport
category airplanes.
(a) On or after December 10, 2007, the
holder of a design approval and an applicant for a design approval must
comply with the applicable continued
airworthiness and safety improvement
requirements of part 26 of this subchapter.
(b) For new transport category airplanes manufactured under the authority of the FAA, the holder or licensee
of a type certificate must meet the applicable continued airworthiness and
safety improvement requirements specified in part 26 of this subchapter for
new production airplanes. Those requirements only apply if the FAA has
jurisdiction over the organization responsible for final assembly of the airplane.
[Doc. No. FAA–2004–18379, Amdt. 21–90, 72 FR
63404, Nov. 8, 2007]
§ 21.8 Approval of articles.
If an article is required to be approved under this chapter, it may be
approved—
(a) Under a PMA;
(b) Under a TSO;
(c) In conjunction with type certification procedures for a product; or
(d) In any other manner approved by
the FAA.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–5877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53385, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.9 Replacement and modification
articles.
(a) If a person knows, or should
know, that a replacement or modification article is reasonably likely to be
installed on a type-certificated product, the person may not produce that
article unless it is—
(1) Produced under a type certificate;
(2) Produced under an FAA production approval;
(3) A standard part (such as a nut or
bolt) manufactured in compliance with
a government or established industry
specification;
(4) A commercial part as defined in
§ 21.1 of this part;
(5) Produced by an owner or operator
for maintaining or altering that owner
or operator’s product; or
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§ 21.17
(6) Fabricated by an appropriately
rated certificate holder with a quality
system, and consumed in the repair or
alteration of a product or article in accordance with part 43 of this chapter.
(b) Except as provided in paragraphs
(a)(1) through (a)(2) of this section, a
person who produces a replacement or
modification article for sale may not
represent that part as suitable for installation on a type-certificated product.
(c) Except as provided in paragraphs
(a)(1) through (a)(2) of this section, a
person may not sell or represent an article as suitable for installation on an
aircraft
type-certificated
under
§§ 21.25(a)(2) or 21.27 unless that article—
(1) Was declared surplus by the U.S.
Armed Forces, and
(2) Was intended for use on that aircraft model by the U.S. Armed Forces.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53385, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21–92A, 75 FR 9095,
Mar. 1, 2010]
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–40, 39 FR 35459, Oct. 1,
1974; Amdt. 21–67, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989;
Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.16 Special conditions.
If the FAA finds that the airworthiness regulations of this subchapter do
not contain adequate or appropriate
safety standards for an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller because of a
novel or unusual design feature of the
aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller,
he prescribes special conditions and
amendments thereto for the product.
The special conditions are issued in accordance with Part 11 of this chapter
and contain such safety standards for
the aircraft, aircraft engine or propeller as the FAA finds necessary to establish a level of safety equivalent to
that established in the regulations.
[Amdt. 21–19, 32 FR 17851, Dec. 13, 1967, as
amended by Amdt. 21–51, 45 FR 60170, Sept.
11, 1980]
Subpart B—Type Certificates
SOURCE: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct.
24, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.11 Applicability.
This subpart prescribes—
(a) Procedural requirements for the
issue of type certificates for aircraft,
aircraft engines, and propellers; and
(b) Rules governing the holders of
those certificates.
§ 21.13 Eligibility.
Any interested person may apply for
a type certificate.
[Amdt. 21–25, 34 FR 14068, Sept. 5, 1969]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
panied by a description of the engine
design features, the engine operating
characteristics, and the proposed engine operating limitations.
§ 21.15 Application for type certificate.
(a) An application for a type certificate is made on a form and in a manner
prescribed by the FAA and is submitted to the appropriate aircraft certification office.
(b) An application for an aircraft
type certificate must be accompanied
by a three-view drawing of that aircraft and available preliminary basic
data.
(c) An application for an aircraft engine type certificate must be accom-
§ 21.17 Designation of applicable regulations.
(a) Except as provided in §§ 23.2, 25.2,
27.2, 29.2, and in parts 26, 34 and 36 of
this subchapter, an applicant for a type
certificate must show that the aircraft,
aircraft engine, or propeller concerned
meets—
(1) The applicable requirements of
this subchapter that are effective on
the date of application for that certificate unless—
(i) Otherwise specified by the FAA; or
(ii) Compliance with later effective
amendments is elected or required
under this section; and
(2) Any special conditions prescribed
by the FAA.
(b) For special classes of aircraft, including the engines and propellers installed thereon (e.g., gliders, airships,
and other nonconventional aircraft),
for which airworthiness standards have
not been issued under this subchapter,
the applicable requirements will be the
portions of those other airworthiness
requirements contained in Parts 23, 25,
27, 29, 31, 33, and 35 found by the FAA
to be appropriate for the aircraft and
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§ 21.19
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
applicable to a specific type design, or
such airworthiness criteria as the FAA
may find provide an equivalent level of
safety to those parts.
(c) An application for type certification of a transport category aircraft
is effective for 5 years and an application for any other type certificate is effective for 3 years, unless an applicant
shows at the time of application that
his product requires a longer period of
time for design, development, and testing, and the FAA approves a longer period.
(d) In a case where a type certificate
has not been issued, or it is clear that
a type certificate will not be issued,
within the time limit established under
paragraph (c) of this section, the applicant may—
(1) File a new application for a type
certificate and comply with all the provisions of paragraph (a) of this section
applicable to an original application;
or
(2) File for an extension of the original application and comply with the
applicable airworthiness requirements
of this subchapter that were effective
on a date, to be selected by the applicant, not earlier than the date which
precedes the date of issue of the type
certificate by the time limit established under paragraph (c) of this section for the original application.
(e) If an applicant elects to comply
with an amendment to this subchapter
that is effective after the filing of the
application for a type certificate, he
must also comply with any other
amendment that the FAA finds is directly related.
(f) For primary category aircraft, the
requirements are:
(1) The applicable airworthiness requirements contained in parts 23, 27, 31,
33, and 35 of this subchapter, or such
other airworthiness criteria as the
FAA may find appropriate and applicable to the specific design and intended
use and provide a level of safety acceptable to the FAA.
(2) The noise standards of part 36 applicable to primary category aircraft.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–19, 32 FR 17851, Dec. 13,
1967; Amdt. 21–24, 34 FR 364, Jan. 10, 1969;
Amdt. 21–42, 40 FR 1033, Jan. 6, 1975; Amdt.
21–58, 50 FR 46877, Nov. 13, 1985; Amdt. 21–60,
52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt. 21–68, 55 FR
32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21–69, 56 FR 41051,
Aug. 16, 1991; Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 41367, Sept.
9, 1992; Amdt. 21–90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8, 2007]
§ 21.19 Changes requiring a new type
certificate.
Each person who proposes to change
a product must apply for a new type
certificate if the FAA finds that the
proposed change in design, power,
thrust, or weight is so extensive that a
substantially complete investigation of
compliance with the applicable regulations is required.
[Doc. No. 28903, 65 FR 36265, June 7, 2000]
§ 21.20 Compliance with applicable requirements.
The applicant for a type certificate,
including an amended or supplemental
type certificate, must—
(a) Show compliance with all applicable requirements and must provide the
FAA the means by which such compliance has been shown; and
(b) Provide a statement certifying
that the applicant has complied with
the applicable requirements.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53385, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.21 Issue of type certificate: normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter,
and transport category aircraft;
manned free balloons; special classes of aircraft; aircraft engines; propellers.
An applicant is entitled to a type certificate for an aircraft in the normal,
utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category, or for a manned free balloon, special class of aircraft, or an aircraft engine or propeller, if—
(a) The product qualifies under § 21.27;
or
(b) The applicant submits the type
design, test reports, and computations
necessary to show that the product to
be certificated meets the applicable
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§ 21.24
airworthiness, aircraft noise, fuel venting, and exhaust emission requirements of this subchapter and any special conditions prescribed by the FAA,
and the FAA finds—
(1) Upon examination of the type design, and after completing all tests and
inspections, that the type design and
the product meet the applicable noise,
fuel venting, and emissions requirements of this subchapter, and further
finds that they meet the applicable airworthiness requirements of this subchapter or that any airworthiness provisions not complied with are compensated for by factors that provide an
equivalent level of safety; and
(2) For an aircraft, that no feature or
characteristic makes it unsafe for the
category in which certification is requested.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–15, 32 FR 3735, Mar. 4,
1967; Amdt. 21–27, 34 FR 18368, Nov. 18, 1969;
Amdt. 21–60, 52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt.
21–68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21–92,
74 FR 53385, Oct. 16, 2009]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.23
[Reserved]
§ 21.24 Issuance of type certificate: primary category aircraft.
(a) The applicant is entitled to a type
certificate for an aircraft in the primary category if—
(1) The aircraft—
(i) Is unpowered; is an airplane powered by a single, naturally aspirated
engine with a 61-knot or less Vso stall
speed as defined in § 23.49; or is a rotorcraft with a 6-pound per square foot
main rotor disc loading limitation,
under sea level standard day conditions;
(ii) Weighs not more than 2,700
pounds; or, for seaplanes, not more
than 3,375 pounds;
(iii) Has a maximum seating capacity
of not more than four persons, including the pilot; and
(iv) Has an unpressurized cabin.
(2) The applicant has submitted—
(i) Except as provided by paragraph
(c) of this section, a statement, in a
form and manner acceptable to the
FAA, certifying that: the applicant has
completed the engineering analysis
necessary to demonstrate compliance
with the applicable airworthiness requirements; the applicant has con-
ducted appropriate flight, structural,
propulsion, and systems tests necessary to show that the aircraft, its
components, and its equipment are reliable and function properly; the type
design complies with the airworthiness
standards and noise requirements established for the aircraft under
§ 21.17(f); and no feature or characteristic makes it unsafe for its intended use;
(ii) The flight manual required by
§ 21.5(b), including any information required to be furnished by the applicable
airworthiness standards;
(iii) Instructions for continued airworthiness
in
accordance
with
§ 21.50(b); and
(iv) A report that: summarizes how
compliance with each provision of the
type certification basis was determined; lists the specific documents in
which the type certification data information is provided; lists all necessary
drawings and documents used to define
the type design; and lists all the engineering reports on tests and computations that the applicant must retain
and make available under § 21.49 to substantiate compliance with the applicable airworthiness standards.
(3) The FAA finds that—
(i) The aircraft complies with those
applicable airworthiness requirements
approved under § 21.17(f) of this part;
and
(ii) The aircraft has no feature or
characteristic that makes it unsafe for
its intended use.
(b) An applicant may include a special inspection and preventive maintenance program as part of the aircraft’s
type design or supplemental type design.
(c) For aircraft manufactured outside
of the United States in a country with
which the United States has a bilateral
airworthiness agreement for the acceptance of these aircraft, and from
which the aircraft is to be imported
into the United States—
(1) The statement required by paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section must be
made by the civil airworthiness authority of the exporting country; and
(2) The required manuals, placards,
listings, instrument markings, and
documents required by paragraphs (a)
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§ 21.25
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
and (b) of this section must be submitted in English.
[Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41367, Sept. 9, 1992, as
amended by Amdt. 21–75, 62 FR 62808, Nov. 25,
1997]
§ 21.25 Issue of type certificate: Restricted category aircraft.
(a) An applicant is entitled to a type
certificate for an aircraft in the restricted category for special purpose
operations if he shows compliance with
the applicable noise requirements of
Part 36 of this chapter, and if he shows
that no feature or characteristic of the
aircraft makes it unsafe when it is operated under the limitations prescribed
for its intended use, and that the aircraft—
(1) Meets the airworthiness requirements of an aircraft category except
those requirements that the FAA finds
inappropriate for the special purpose
for which the aircraft is to be used; or
(2) Is of a type that has been manufactured in accordance with the requirements of and accepted for use by,
an Armed Force of the United States
and has been later modified for a special purpose.
(b) For the purposes of this section,
‘‘special purpose operations’’ includes—
(1) Agricultural (spraying, dusting,
and seeding, and livestock and predatory animal control);
(2) Forest and wildlife conservation;
(3) Aerial surveying (photography,
mapping, and oil and mineral exploration);
(4) Patrolling (pipelines, power lines,
and canals);
(5) Weather control (cloud seeding);
(6) Aerial advertising (skywriting,
banner towing, airborne signs and public address systems); and
(7) Any other operation specified by
the FAA.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–42, 40 FR 1033, Jan. 6,
1975]
§ 21.27 Issue of type certificate: surplus aircraft of the Armed Forces.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph
(b) of this section an applicant is entitled to a type certificate for an aircraft
in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category that was
designed and constructed in the United
States, accepted for operational use,
and declared surplus by, an Armed
Force of the United States, and that is
shown to comply with the applicable
certification requirements in paragraph (f) of this section.
(b) An applicant is entitled to a type
certificate for a surplus aircraft of the
Armed Forces of the United States
that is a counterpart of a previously
type certificated civil aircraft, if he
shows compliance with the regulations
governing the original civil aircraft
type certificate.
(c) Aircraft engines, propellers, and
their related accessories installed in
surplus Armed Forces aircraft, for
which a type certificate is sought
under this section, will be approved for
use on those aircraft if the applicant
shows that on the basis of the previous
military qualifications, acceptance,
and service record, the product provides substantially the same level of
airworthiness as would be provided if
the engines or propellers were type certificated under Part 33 or 35 of this subchapter.
(d) The FAA may relieve an applicant
from strict compliance with a specific
provision of the applicable requirements in paragraph (f) of this section,
if the FAA finds that the method of
compliance proposed by the applicant
provides substantially the same level
of airworthiness and that strict compliance with those regulations would
impose a severe burden on the applicant. The FAA may use experience
that was satisfactory to an Armed
Force of the United States in making
such a determination.
(e) The FAA may require an applicant to comply with special conditions
and later requirements than those in
paragraphs (c) and (f) of this section, if
the FAA finds that compliance with
the listed regulations would not ensure
an adequate level of airworthiness for
the aircraft.
(f) Except as provided in paragraphs
(b) through (e) of this section, an applicant for a type certificate under this
section must comply with the appropriate regulations listed in the following table:
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.31
Date accepted for operational use
by the Armed Forces
of the United States
Type of aircraft
Small reciprocating-engine powered airplanes
Small turbine engine-powered airplanes ..........
Commuter category airplanes ..........................
Large reciprocating-engine powered airplanes
Large turbine engine-powered airplanes .........
Rotorcraft with maximum certificated takeoff
weight of:
6,000 pounds or less ................................
Over 6,000 pounds ...................................
Regulations that apply 1
Before May 16, 1956 ......................
After May 15, 1956 .........................
Before Oct. 2, 1959 .........................
After Oct. 1, 1959 ............................
After (Feb. 17, 1987) .......................
FAR Part 23 as of (Feb. 17, 1987)..
Before Aug. 26, 1955 ......................
After Aug. 25, 1955 .........................
Before Oct. 2, 1959 .........................
After Oct. 1, 1959 ............................
CAR Part 3, as effective May 15, 1956.
CAR Part 3, or 14 CFR Part 23.
CAR Part 3, as effective Oct. 1, 1959.
CAR Part 3 or 14 CFR Part 23.
Before Oct. 2, 1959 .........................
After Oct. 1, 1959 ............................
Before Oct. 2, 1959 .........................
After Oct. 1, 1959 ............................
CAR Part 6, as effective Oct. 1, 1959.
CAR Part 6, or 14 CFR Part 27.
CAR Part 7, as effective Oct. 1, 1959.
CAR Part 7, or 14 CFR Part 29.
CAR Part 4b, as effective Aug. 25, 1955.
CAR Part 4b or 14 CFR Part 25.
CAR Part 4b, as effective Oct. 1, 1959.
CAR Part 4b or 14 CFR Part 25.
1 Where no specific date is listed, the applicable regulations are those in effect on the date that the first aircraft of the particular
model was accepted for operational use by the Armed Forces.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 21–59, 52 FR 1835, Jan. 15, 1987;
52 FR 7262, Mar. 9, 1987; 70 FR 2325, Jan. 13, 2005; Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.29 Issue of type certificate: import
products.
(a) The FAA may issue a type certificate for a product that is manufactured
in a foreign country or jurisdiction
with which the United States has an
agreement for the acceptance of these
products for export and import and
that is to be imported into the United
States if—
(1) The applicable State of Design
certifies that the product has been examined, tested, and found to meet—
(i) The applicable aircraft noise, fuel
venting, and exhaust emissions requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17, or the applicable aircraft noise, fuel venting, and exhaust
emissions requirements of the State of
Design, and any other requirements
the FAA may prescribe to provide
noise, fuel venting, and exhaust emission levels no greater than those provided by the applicable aircraft noise,
fuel venting, and exhaust emission requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17; and
(ii) The applicable airworthiness requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17, or the applicable airworthiness requirements of the State
of Design and any other requirements
the FAA may prescribe to provide a
level of safety equivalent to that provided by the applicable airworthiness
requirements of this subchapter as designated in § 21.17;
(2) The applicant has provided technical data to show the product meets
the requirements of paragraph (a)(1) of
this section; and
(3) The manuals, placards, listings,
and instrument markings required by
the applicable airworthiness (and
noise, where applicable) requirements
are presented in the English language.
(b) A product type certificated under
this section is considered to be type
certificated under the noise standards
of part 36 of this subchapter and the
fuel venting and exhaust emission
standards of part 34 of this subchapter.
Compliance with parts 36 and 34 of this
subchapter is certified under paragraph
(a)(1)(i) of this section, and the applicable airworthiness standards of this subchapter, or an equivalent level of safety, with which compliance is certified
under paragraph (a)(1)(ii) of this section.
[Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.31
Type design.
The type design consists of—
(a) The drawings and specifications,
and a listing of those drawings and
specifications, necessary to define the
configuration and the design features
of the product shown to comply with
the requirements of that part of this
subchapter applicable to the product;
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§ 21.33
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(b) Information on dimensions, materials, and processes necessary to define
the structural strength of the product;
(c) The Airworthiness Limitations
section of the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness as required by parts
23, 25, 26, 27, 29, 31, 33 and 35 of this subchapter, or as otherwise required by
the FAA; and as specified in the applicable airworthiness criteria for special
classes of aircraft defined in § 21.17(b);
and
(d) For primary category aircraft, if
desired, a special inspection and preventive maintenance program designed
to be accomplished by an appropriately
rated and trained pilot-owner.
(e) Any other data necessary to
allow, by comparison, the determination of the airworthiness, noise characteristics, fuel venting, and exhaust
emissions (where applicable) of later
products of the same type.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–27, 34 FR 18363, Nov. 18,
1969; Amdt. 21–51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980;
Amdt. 21–60, 52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987; Amdt.
21–68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21–70,
57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt. 21–90, 72 FR
63404, Nov. 8, 2007]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.33
Inspection and tests.
(a) Each applicant must allow the
FAA to make any inspection and any
flight and ground test necessary to determine compliance with the applicable requirements of this subchapter.
However, unless otherwise authorized
by the FAA—
(1) No aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or part thereof may be presented to the FAA for test unless compliance with paragraphs (b)(2) through
(b)(4) of this section has been shown for
that aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller,
or part thereof; and
(2) No change may be made to an aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or part
thereof between the time that compliance with paragraphs (b)(2) through
(b)(4) of this section is shown for that
aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or
part thereof and the time that it is presented to the FAA for test.
(b) Each applicant must make all inspections and tests necessary to determine—
(1) Compliance with the applicable
airworthiness, aircraft noise, fuel vent-
ing, and exhaust emission requirements;
(2) That materials and products conform to the specifications in the type
design;
(3) That parts of the products conform to the drawings in the type design; and
(4) That the manufacturing processes, construction and assembly conform to those specified in the type design.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–17, 32 FR 14926, Oct. 28,
1967; Amdt. 21–27, 34 FR 18363, Nov. 18, 1969;
Amdt. 21–44, 41 FR 55463, Dec. 20, 1976; Amdt.
21–68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21–68,
55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53386, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.35
Flight tests.
(a) Each applicant for an aircraft
type certificate (other than under
§§ 21.24 through 21.29) must make the
tests listed in paragraph (b) of this section. Before making the tests the applicant must show—
(1) Compliance with the applicable
structural requirements of this subchapter;
(2) Completion of necessary ground
inspections and tests;
(3) That the aircraft conforms with
the type design; and
(4) That the FAA received a flight
test report from the applicant (signed,
in the case of aircraft to be certificated
under Part 25 [New] of this chapter, by
the applicant’s test pilot) containing
the results of his tests.
(b) Upon showing compliance with
paragraph (a) of this section, the applicant must make all flight tests that
the FAA finds necessary—
(1) To determine compliance with the
applicable requirements of this subchapter; and
(2) For aircraft to be certificated
under this subchapter, except gliders
and except reciprocating engine powered airplanes of 6,000 lbs. or less maximum certificated weight that are to
be certificated under part 23 of this
chapter, to determine whether there is
reasonable assurance that the aircraft,
its components, and its equipment are
reliable and function properly.
(c) Each applicant must, if practicable, make the tests prescribed in
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.45
paragraph (b)(2) of this section upon
the aircraft that was used to show
compliance with—
(1) Paragraph (b)(1) of this section;
and
(2) For rotorcraft, the rotor drive endurance tests prescribed in § 27.923 or
§ 29.923 of this chapter, as applicable.
(d) Each applicant must show for
each flight test (except in a glider or a
manned free balloon) that adequate
provision is made for the flight test
crew for emergency egress and the use
of parachutes.
(e) Except in gliders and manned free
balloons, an applicant must discontinue flight tests under this section
until he shows that corrective action
has been taken, whenever—
(1) The applicant’s test pilot is unable or unwilling to make any of the
required flight tests; or
(2) Items of noncompliance with requirements are found that may make
additional test data meaningless or
that would make further testing unduly hazardous.
(f) The flight tests prescribed in paragraph (b)(2) of this section must include—
(1) For aircraft incorporating turbine
engines of a type not previously used in
a type certificated aircraft, at least 300
hours of operation with a full complement of engines that conform to a
type certificate; and
(2) For all other aircraft, at least 150
hours of operation.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–40, 39 FR 35459, Oct. 1,
1974; Amdt. 21–51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980;
Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992; Amdt.
21–95, 76 FR 64233, Oct. 18, 2011]
§ 21.37 Flight test pilot.
Each applicant for a normal, utility,
acrobatic, commuter, or transport category aircraft type certificate must
provide a person holding an appropriate pilot certificate to make the
flight tests required by this part.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–59, 52 FR 1835, Jan. 15,
1987]
§ 21.39 Flight test instrument calibration and correction report.
(a) Each applicant for a normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport
category aircraft type certificate must
submit a report to the FAA showing
the computations and tests required in
connection with the calibration of instruments used for test purposes and in
the correction of test results to standard atmospheric conditions.
(b) Each applicant must allow the
FAA to conduct any flight tests that
he finds necessary to check the accuracy of the report submitted under
paragraph (a) of this section.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–59, 52 FR 1835, Jan. 15,
1987]
§ 21.41
Type certificate.
Each type certificate is considered to
include the type design, the operating
limitations, the certificate data sheet,
the applicable regulations of this subchapter with which the FAA records
compliance, and any other conditions
or limitations prescribed for the product in this subchapter.
§ 21.43 Location of manufacturing facilities.
Except as provided in § 21.29, the FAA
does not issue a type certificate if the
manufacturing facilities for the product are located outside of the United
States, unless the FAA finds that the
location of the manufacturer’s facilities places no undue burden on the
FAA in administering applicable airworthiness requirements.
§ 21.45
Privileges.
The holder or licensee of a type certificate for a product may—
(a) In the case of aircraft, upon compliance with §§ 21.173 through 21.189, obtain airworthiness certificates;
(b) In the case of aircraft engines or
propellers, obtain approval for installation on certificated aircraft;
(c) In the case of any product, upon
compliance with subpart G of this part,
obtain a production certificate for the
type certificated product;
(d) Obtain approval of replacement
parts for that product.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16,
2009]
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§ 21.47
§ 21.47
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Transferability.
(a) A holder of a type certificate may
transfer it or make it available to
other persons by licensing agreements.
(b) For a type certificate transfer in
which the State of Design will remain
the same, each transferor must, before
such a transfer, notify in writing the
appropriate aircraft certification office. This notification must include the
applicable type certificate number, the
name and address of the transferee, and
the anticipated date of the transfer.
(c) For a type certificate transfer in
which the State of Design is changing,
a type certificate may only be transferred to or from a person subject to
the authority of another State of Design if the United States has an agreement with that State of Design for the
acceptance of the affected product for
export and import. Each transferor
must notify the appropriate aircraft
certification office before such a transfer in a form and manner acceptable to
the FAA. This notification must include the applicable type certificate
number; the name, address, and country of residence of the transferee; and
the anticipated date of the transfer.
(d) Before executing or terminating a
licensing agreement that makes a type
certificate available to another person,
the type certificate holder must notify
in writing the appropriate aircraft certification office. This notification must
include the type certificate number addressed by the licensing agreement, the
name and address of the licensee, the
extent of authority granted the licensee, and the anticipated date of the
agreement.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53386, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.49
Availability.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
The holder of a type certificate must
make the certificate available for examination upon the request of the FAA
or the National Transportation Safety
Board.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14564, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Doc. No. 8084, 32 FR 5769, Apr. 11,
1967]
§ 21.50 Instructions for continued airworthiness
and
manufacturer’s
maintenance manuals having airworthiness limitations sections.
(a) The holder of a type certificate
for a rotorcraft for which a Rotorcraft
Maintenance Manual containing an
‘‘Airworthiness Limitations’’ section
has been issued under § 27.1529 (a)(2) or
§ 29.1529 (a)(2) of this chapter, and who
obtains approval of changes to any replacement time, inspection interval, or
related procedure in that section of the
manual, must make those changes
available upon request to any operator
of the same type of rotorcraft.
(b) The holder of a design approval,
including either the type certificate or
supplemental type certificate for an
aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller
for which application was made after
January 28, 1981, must furnish at least
one set of complete Instructions for
Continued Airworthiness to the owner
of each type aircraft, aircraft engine,
or propeller upon its delivery, or upon
issuance of the first standard airworthiness certificate for the affected
aircraft, whichever occurs later. The
Instructions must be prepared in accordance with §§ 23.1529, 25.1529, 25.1729,
27.1529, 29.1529, 31.82, 33.4, 35.4, or part 26
of this subchapter, or as specified in
the applicable airworthiness criteria
for special classes of aircraft defined in
§ 21.17(b), as applicable. If the holder of
a design approval chooses to designate
parts as commercial, it must include in
the Instructions for Continued Airworthiness a list of commercial parts
submitted in accordance with the provisions of paragraph (c) of this section.
Thereafter, the holder of a design approval must make those instructions
available to any other person required
by this chapter to comply with any of
the terms of those instructions. In addition, changes to the Instructions for
Continued Airworthiness shall be made
available to any person required by
this chapter to comply with any of
those instructions.
(c) To designate commercial parts,
the holder of a design approval, in a
manner acceptable to the FAA, must
submit:
(1) A Commercial Parts List;
(2) Data for each part on the List
showing that:
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.75
(i) The failure of the commercial
part, as installed in the product, would
not degrade the level of safety of the
product; and
(ii) The part is produced only under
the commercial part manufacturer’s
specification and marked only with the
commercial part manufacturer’s markings; and
(3) Any other data necessary for the
FAA to approve the List.
[Amdt. 21–23, 33 FR 14105, Sept. 18, 1968, as
amended by Amdt. 21–51, 45 FR 60170, Sept.
11, 1980; Amdt. 21–60, 52 FR 8042, Mar. 13, 1987;
Amdt. 21–90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8, 2007; Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.51
Statement of conformity.
(a) Each applicant must provide, in a
form and manner acceptable to the
FAA, a statement that each aircraft
engine or propeller presented for type
certification conforms to its type design.
(b) Each applicant must submit a
statement of conformity to the FAA
for each aircraft or part thereof presented to the FAA for tests. This statement of conformity must include a
statement that the applicant has complied with § 21.33(a) (unless otherwise
authorized under that paragraph).
[Amdt. 21–17, 32 FR 14926, Oct. 28, 1967, as
amended by Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53386, Oct. 16,
2009]
§ 21.55 Responsibility of type certificate holders to provide written licensing agreements.
A type certificate holder who allows
a person to use the type certificate to
manufacture a new aircraft, aircraft
engine, or propeller must provide that
person with a written licensing agreement acceptable to the FAA.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
SOURCE: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct.
24, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.71
[Doc. No. FAA–2003–14825, 71 FR 52258, Sept.
1, 2006]
Applicability.
This subpart prescribes—
(a) Procedural requirements for the
issue of provisional type certificates,
amendments to provisional type certificates, and provisional amendments
to type certificates; and
(b) Rules governing the holders of
those certificates.
§ 21.73
Duration.
A type certificate is effective until
surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a
termination date is otherwise established by the FAA.
§ 21.53
Subpart C—Provisional Type
Certificates
Eligibility.
(a) Any manufacturer of aircraft
manufactured within the United States
who is a United States citizen may
apply for Class I or Class II provisional
type certificates, for amendments to
provisional type certificates held by
him, and for provisional amendments
to type certificates held by him.
(b) Any manufacturer of aircraft in a
State of Manufacture subject to the
provisions of an agreement with the
United States for the acceptance of
those aircraft for export and import
may apply for a Class II provisional
type certificate, for amendments to
provisional type certificates held by
him, and for provisional amendments
to type certificates held by him.
(c) An aircraft engine manufacturer
who is a United States citizen and who
has altered a type certificated aircraft
by installing different type certificated
aircraft engines manufactured by him
within the United States may apply for
a Class I provisional type certificate
for the aircraft, and for amendments to
Class I provisional type certificates
held by him, if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in
the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–12, 31 FR 13380, Oct. 15,
1966; Amdt. 21–59, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987;
Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.75
Application.
Each applicant for a provisional type
certificate, for an amendment thereto,
or for a provisional amendment to a
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§ 21.77
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
type certificate must apply to the appropriate aircraft certification office
and provide the information required
by this subpart.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53387, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.77
Duration.
(a) Unless sooner surrendered, superseded, revoked, or otherwise terminated, provisional type certificates and
amendments thereto are effective for
the periods specified in this section.
(b) A Class I provisional type certificate is effective for 24 months after the
date of issue.
(c) A Class II provisional type certificate is effective for twelve months
after the date of issue.
(d) An amendment to a Class I or
Class II provisional type certificate is
effective for the duration of the amended certificate.
(e) A provisional amendment to a
type certificate is effective for six
months after its approval or until the
amendment of the type certificate is
approved, whichever is first.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–7, 30 FR 14311, Nov. 16,
1965]
§ 21.79
Transferability.
Provisional type certificates are not
transferable.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.81 Requirements for issue and
amendment of Class I provisional
type certificates.
(a) An applicant is entitled to the
issue or amendment of a Class I provisional type certificate if he shows compliance with this section and the FAA
finds that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would
make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations
established in paragraph (e) of this section and in § 91.317 of this chapter.
(b) The applicant must apply for the
issue of a type or supplemental type
certificate for the aircraft.
(c) The applicant must certify that—
(1) The aircraft has been designed and
constructed in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to
the issue of the type or supplemental
type certificate applied for;
(2) The aircraft substantially meets
the applicable flight characteristic requirements for the type or supplemental type certificate applied for; and
(3) The aircraft can be operated safely under the appropriate operating limitations specified in paragraph (a) of
this section.
(d) The applicant must submit a report showing that the aircraft had been
flown in all maneuvers necessary to
show compliance with the flight requirements for the issue of the type or
supplemental type certificate applied
for, and to establish that the aircraft
can be operated safely in accordance
with the limitations contained in this
subchapter.
(e) The applicant must establish all
limitations required for the issue of the
type or supplemental type certificate
applied for, including limitations on
weights, speeds, flight maneuvers,
loading, and operation of controls and
equipment unless, for each limitation
not so established, appropriate operating restrictions are established for
the aircraft.
(f) The applicant must establish an
inspection and maintenance program
for the continued airworthiness of the
aircraft.
(g) The applicant must show that a
prototype aircraft has been flown for at
least 50 hours under an experimental
certificate
issued
under
§§ 21.191
through 21.195, or under the auspices of
an Armed Force of the United States.
However, in the case of an amendment
to a provisional type certificate, the
FAA may reduce the number of required flight hours.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14566, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18,
1989]
§ 21.83 Requirements for issue and
amendment of Class II provisional
type certificates.
(a) An applicant who manufactures
aircraft within the United States is entitled to the issue or amendment of a
Class II provisional type certificate if
he shows compliance with this section
and the FAA finds that there is no feature, characteristic, or condition that
would make the aircraft unsafe when
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§ 21.85
operated in accordance with the limitations in paragraph (h) of this section,
and §§ 91.317 and 121.207 of this chapter.
(b) An applicant who manufactures
aircraft in a country with which the
United States has an agreement for the
acceptance of those aircraft for export
and import is entitled to the issue or
amendment of a Class II provisional
type certificate if the country in which
the aircraft was manufactured certifies
that the applicant has shown compliance with this section, that the aircraft meets the requirements of paragraph (f) of this section and that there
is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with
the limitations in paragraph (h) of this
section and §§ 91.317 and 121.207 of this
chapter.
(c) The applicant must apply for a
type certificate, in the transport category, for the aircraft.
(d) The applicant must hold a U.S.
type certificate for at least one other
aircraft in the same transport category
as the subject aircraft.
(e) The FAA’s official flight test program or the flight test program conducted by the authorities of the country in which the aircraft was manufactured, with respect to the issue of a
type certificate for that aircraft, must
be in progress.
(f) The applicant or, in the case of a
foreign manufactured aircraft, the
country in which the aircraft was manufactured, must certify that—
(1) The aircraft has been designed and
constructed in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to
the issue of the type certificate applied
for;
(2) The aircraft substantially complies with the applicable flight characteristic requirements for the type
certificate applied for; and
(3) The aircraft can be operated safely under the appropriate operating limitations in this subchapter.
(g) The applicant must submit a report showing that the aircraft has been
flown in all maneuvers necessary to
show compliance with the flight requirements for the issue of the type
certificate and to establish that the
aircraft can be operated safely in ac-
cordance with the limitations in this
subchapter.
(h) The applicant must prepare a provisional aircraft flight manual containing all limitations required for the
issue of the type certificate applied for,
including limitations on weights,
speeds, flight maneuvers, loading, and
operation of controls and equipment
unless, for each limitation not so established, appropriate operating restrictions are established for the aircraft.
(i) The applicant must establish an
inspection and maintenance program
for the continued airworthiness of the
aircraft.
(j) The applicant must show that a
prototype aircraft has been flown for at
least 100 hours. In the case of an
amendment to a provisional type certificate, the FAA may reduce the number of required flight hours.
[Amdt. 21–12, 31 FR 13386, Oct. 15, 1966, as
amended by Amdt. 21–66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18,
1989]
§ 21.85 Provisional
type certificates.
amendments
(a) An applicant who manufactures
aircraft within the United States is entitled to a provisional amendment to a
type certificate if he shows compliance
with this section and the FAA finds
that there is no feature, characteristic,
or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated under the
appropriate limitations contained in
this subchapter.
(b) An applicant who manufactures
aircraft in a foreign country with
which the United States has an agreement for the acceptance of those aircraft for export and import is entitled
to a provisional amendment to a type
certificate if the country in which the
aircraft was manufactured certifies
that the applicant has shown compliance with this section, that the aircraft meets the requirements of paragraph (e) of this section and that there
is no feature, characteristic, or condition that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated under the appropriate limitations contained in this
subchapter.
(c) The applicant must apply for an
amendment to the type certificate.
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§ 21.91
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(d) The FAA’s official flight test program or the flight test program conducted by the authorities of the country in which the aircraft was manufactured, with respect to the amendment
of the type certificate, must be in
progress.
(e) The applicant or, in the case of
foreign manufactured aircraft, the
country in which the aircraft was manufactured, must certify that—
(1) The modification involved in the
amendment to the type certificate has
been designed and constructed in accordance with the airworthiness requirements applicable to the issue of
the type certificate for the aircraft;
(2) The aircraft substantially complies with the applicable flight characteristic requirements for the type
certificate; and
(3) The aircraft can be operated safely under the appropriate operating limitations in this subchapter.
(f) The applicant must submit a report showing that the aircraft incorporating the modifications involved
has been flown in all maneuvers necessary to show compliance with the
flight requirements applicable to those
modifications and to establish that the
aircraft can be operated safely in accordance with the limitations specified
in §§ 91.317 and 121.207 of this chapter.
(g) The applicant must establish and
publish, in a provisional aircraft flight
manual or other document and on appropriate placards, all limitations required for the issue of the type certificate applied for, including weight,
speed, flight maneuvers, loading, and
operation of controls and equipment,
unless, for each limitation not so established, appropriate operating restrictions are established for the aircraft.
(h) The applicant must establish an
inspection and maintenance program
for the continued airworthiness of the
aircraft.
(i) The applicant must operate a prototype aircraft modified in accordance
with the corresponding amendment to
the type certificate for the number of
hours found necessary by the FAA.
[Amdt. 21–12, 31 FR 13388, Oct. 15, 1966, as
amended by Amdt. 21–66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18,
1989]
Subpart D—Changes to Type
Certificates
SOURCE: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14567, Oct.
24, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.91
Applicability.
This subpart prescribes procedural
requirements for the approval of
changes to type certificates.
§ 21.93 Classification
type design.
of
changes
(a) In addition to changes in type design specified in paragraph (b) of this
section, changes in type design are
classified as minor and major. A
‘‘minor change’’ is one that has no appreciable effect on the weight, balance,
structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics, or other characteristics affecting the airworthiness
of the product. All other changes are
‘‘major changes’’ (except as provided in
paragraph (b) of this section).
(b) For the purpose of complying
with Part 36 of this chapter, and except
as provided in paragraphs (b)(2), (b)(3),
and (b)(4) of this section, any voluntary
change in the type design of an aircraft
that may increase the noise levels of
that aircraft is an ‘‘acoustical change’’
(in addition to being a minor or major
change as classified in paragraph (a) of
this section) for the following aircraft:
(1) Transport category large airplanes.
(2) Jet (Turbojet powered) airplanes
(regardless of category). For airplanes
to which this paragraph applies,
‘‘acoustical changes’’ do not include
changes in type design that are limited
to one of the following—
(i) Gear down flight with one or more
retractable landing gear down during
the entire flight, or
(ii) Spare engine and nacelle carriage
external to the skin of the airplane
(and return of the pylon or other external mount), or
(iii) Time-limited engine and/or nacelle changes, where the change in type
design specifies that the airplane may
not be operated for a period of more
than 90 days unless compliance with
the applicable acoustical change provisions of Part 36 of this chapter is shown
for that change in type design.
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§ 21.97
(3) Propeller driven commuter category and small airplanes in the primary, normal, utility, acrobatic, transport, and restricted categories, except
for airplanes that are:
(i) Designated for ‘‘agricultural aircraft operations’’ (as defined in § 137.3
of this chapter, effective January 1,
1966) to which § 36.1583 of this chapter
does not apply, or
(ii) Designated for dispensing fire
fighting materials to which § 36.1583 of
this chapter does not apply, or
(iii) U.S. registered, and that had
flight time prior to January 1, 1955 or
(iv) Land configured aircraft reconfigured with floats or skis. This reconfiguration does not permit further exception from the requirements of this
section upon any acoustical change not
enumerated in § 21.93(b).
(4) Helicopters except:
(i) Those helicopters that are designated exclusively:
(A) For ‘‘agricultural aircraft operations’’, as defined in § 137.3 of this
chapter, as effective on January 1, 1966;
(B) For dispensing fire fighting materials; or
(C) For carrying external loads, as
defined in § 133.1(b) of this chapter, as
effective on December 20, 1976.
(ii) Those helicopters modified by installation or removal of external equipment. For purposes of this paragraph,
‘‘external equipment’’ means any instrument, mechanism, part, apparatus,
appurtenance, or accessory that is attached to, or extends from, the helicopter exterior but is not used nor is
intended to be used in operating or
controlling a helicopter in flight and is
not part of an airframe or engine. An
‘‘acoustical change’’ does not include:
(A) Addition or removal of external
equipment;
(B) Changes in the airframe made to
accommodate the addition or removal
of external equipment, to provide for
an external load attaching means, to
facilitate the use of external equipment or external loads, or to facilitate
the safe operation of the helicopter
with external equipment mounted to,
or external loads carried by, the helicopter;
(C) Reconfiguration of the helicopter
by the addition or removal of floats
and skis;
(D) Flight with one or more doors
and/or windows removed or in an open
position; or
(E) Any changes in the operational
limitations placed on the helicopter as
a consequence of the addition or removal of external equipment, floats,
and skis, or flight operations with
doors and/or windows removed or in an
open position.
(5) Tiltrotors.
(c) For purposes of complying with
part 34 of this chapter, any voluntary
change in the type design of the airplane or engine which may increase
fuel venting or exhaust emissions is an
‘‘emissions change.’’
[Amdt. 21–27, 34 FR 18363, Nov. 18, 1969]
EDITORIAL NOTE: For FEDERAL REGISTER citations affecting § 21.93, see the List of CFR
Sections Affected, which appears in the
Finding Aids section of the printed volume
and at www.fdsys.gov.
§ 21.95 Approval of minor changes in
type design.
Minor changes in a type design may
be approved under a method acceptable
to the FAA before submitting to the
FAA any substantiating or descriptive
data.
§ 21.97 Approval of major changes in
type design.
(a) An applicant for approval of a
major change in type design must—
(1) Provide substantiating data and
necessary descriptive data for inclusion in the type design;
(2) Show that the change and areas
affected by the change comply with the
applicable requirements of this subchapter, and provide the FAA the
means by which such compliance has
been shown; and
(3) Provide a statement certifying
that the applicant has complied with
the applicable requirements.
(b) Approval of a major change in the
type design of an aircraft engine is limited to the specific engine configuration upon which the change is made
unless the applicant identifies in the
necessary descriptive data for inclusion in the type design the other configurations of the same engine type for
which approval is requested and shows
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§ 21.99
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
that the change is compatible with the
other configurations.
[Amdt. 21–40, 39 FR 35459, Oct. 1, 1974, as
amended by Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16,
2009; Amdt. 21–96, 77 FR 71695, Dec. 4, 2012]
§ 21.99 Required design changes.
(a) When an Airworthiness Directive
is issued under Part 39 the holder of
the type certificate for the product
concerned must—
(1) If the FAA finds that design
changes are necessary to correct the
unsafe condition of the product, and
upon his request, submit appropriate
design changes for approval; and
(2) Upon approval of the design
changes, make available the descriptive data covering the changes to all
operators of products previously certificated under the type certificate.
(b) In a case where there are no current unsafe conditions, but the FAA or
the holder of the type certificate finds
through
service
experience
that
changes in type design will contribute
to the safety of the product, the holder
of the type certificate may submit appropriate design changes for approval.
Upon approval of the changes, the manufacturer must make information on
the design changes available to all operators of the same type of product.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14567, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–3, 30 FR 8826, July 24,
1965]
§ 21.101 Designation of applicable regulations.
(a) An applicant for a change to a
type certificate must show that the
change and areas affected by the
change comply with the airworthiness
requirements applicable to the category of the product in effect on the
date of the application for the change
and with parts 34 and 36 of this chapter.
Exceptions are detailed in paragraphs
(b) and (c) of this section.
(b) Except as provided in paragraph
(g) of this section, if paragraphs (b)(1),
(2), or (3) of this section apply, an applicant may show that the change and
areas affected by the change comply
with an earlier amendment of a regulation required by paragraph (a) of this
section, and of any other regulation
the FAA finds is directly related. However, the earlier amended regulation
may not precede either the corresponding regulation incorporated by
reference in the type certificate, or any
regulation in §§ 23.2, 25.2, 27.2, or 29.2 of
this subchapter that is related to the
change. The applicant may show compliance with an earlier amendment of a
regulation for any of the following:
(1) A change that the FAA finds not
to be significant. In determining
whether a specific change is significant, the FAA considers the change in
context with all previous relevant design changes and all related revisions
to the applicable regulations incorporated in the type certificate for the
product. Changes that meet one of the
following criteria are automatically
considered significant:
(i) The general configuration or the
principles of construction are not retained.
(ii) The assumptions used for certification of the product to be changed do
not remain valid.
(2) Each area, system, component,
equipment, or appliance that the FAA
finds is not affected by the change.
(3) Each area, system, component,
equipment, or appliance that is affected by the change, for which the
FAA finds that compliance with a regulation described in paragraph (a) of
this section would not contribute materially to the level of safety of the
product or would be impractical.
(c) An applicant for a change to an
aircraft (other than a rotorcraft) of
6,000 pounds or less maximum weight,
or to a non-turbine rotorcraft of 3,000
pounds or less maximum weight may
show that the change and areas affected by the change comply with the
regulations incorporated by reference
in the type certificate. However, if the
FAA finds that the change is significant in an area, the FAA may designate compliance with an amendment
to the regulation incorporated by reference in the type certificate that applies to the change and any regulation
that the FAA finds is directly related,
unless the FAA also finds that compliance with that amendment or regulation would not contribute materially
to the level of safety of the product or
would be impractical.
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§ 21.115
(d) If the FAA finds that the regulations in effect on the date of the application for the change do not provide
adequate standards with respect to the
proposed change because of a novel or
unusual design feature, the applicant
must also comply with special conditions, and amendments to those special
conditions, prescribed under the provisions of § 21.16, to provide a level of
safety equal to that established by the
regulations in effect on the date of the
application for the change.
(e) An application for a change to a
type certificate for a transport category aircraft is effective for 5 years,
and an application for a change to any
other type certificate is effective for 3
years. If the change has not been approved, or if it is clear that it will not
be approved under the time limit established under this paragraph, the applicant may do either of the following:
(1) File a new application for a
change to the type certificate and comply with all the provisions of paragraph
(a) of this section applicable to an
original application for a change.
(2) File for an extension of the original application and comply with the
provisions of paragraph (a) of this section. The applicant must then select a
new application date. The new application date may not precede the date the
change is approved by more than the
time period established under this
paragraph (e).
(f) For aircraft certificated under
§§ 21.17(b), 21.24, 21.25, and 21.27 the airworthiness requirements applicable to
the category of the product in effect on
the date of the application for the
change include each airworthiness requirement that the FAA finds to be appropriate for the type certification of
the aircraft in accordance with those
sections.
(g) Notwithstanding paragraph (b) of
this section, for transport category airplanes, the applicant must show compliance with each applicable provision
of part 26 of this chapter, unless the applicant has elected or was required to
comply with a corresponding amendment to part 25 of this chapter that
was issued on or after the date of the
applicable part 26 provision.
[Doc. No. 28903, 65 FR 36266, June 7, 2000, as
amended by Amdt. 21–90, 72 FR 63404, Nov. 8,
2007; Amdt. 21–96, 77 FR 71695, Dec. 4, 2012]
Subpart E—Supplemental Type
Certificates
SOURCE: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct.
24, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.111
Applicability.
This subpart prescribes procedural
requirements for the issue of supplemental type certificates.
§ 21.113 Requirement for supplemental
type certificate.
(a) If a person holds the TC for a
product and alters that product by introducing a major change in type design that does not require an application for a new TC under § 21.19, that
person must either apply to the appropriate aircraft certification office for
an STC or apply to amend the original
type certificate under subpart D of this
part.
(b) If a person does not hold the TC
for a product and alters that product
by introducing a major change in type
design that does not require an application for a new TC under § 21.19, that
person must apply to the appropriate
aircraft certification office for an STC.
(c) The application for an STC must
be made in the form and manner prescribed by the FAA.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53387, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.115
Applicable requirements.
(a) Each applicant for a supplemental
type certificate must show that the altered product meets applicable requirements specified in § 21.101 and, in the
case of an acoustical change described
in § 21.93(b), show compliance with the
applicable noise requirements of part
36 of this chapter and, in the case of an
emissions change described in § 21.93(c),
show compliance with the applicable
fuel venting and exhaust emissions requirements of part 34 of this chapter.
(b) Each applicant for a supplemental
type certificate must meet §§ 21.33 and
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§ 21.117
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
21.53 with respect to each change in the
type design.
[Amdt. 21–17, 32 FR 14927, Oct. 28, 1967, as
amended by Amdt. 21–42, 40 FR 1033, Jan. 6,
1975; Amdt. 21–52A, 45 FR 79009, Nov. 28, 1980;
Amdt. 21–61, 53 FR 3540, Feb. 5, 1988; Amdt.
21–68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10, 1990; Amdt. 21–71,
57 FR 42854, Sept. 16, 1992; Amdt. 21–77, 65 FR
36266, June 7, 2000]
§ 21.117 Issue of
certificates.
supplemental
type
(a) An applicant is entitled to a supplemental type certificate if the FAA
finds that the applicant meets the requirements of §§ 21.113 and 21.115.
(b) A supplemental type certificate
consists of—
(1) The approval by the FAA of a
change in the type design of the product; and
(2) The type certificate previously
issued for the product.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16,
2009]
§ 21.119
Privileges.
The holder of a supplemental type
certificate may—
(a) In the case of aircraft, obtain airworthiness certificates;
(b) In the case of other products, obtain approval for installation on certificated aircraft; and
(c) Obtain a production certificate in
accordance with the requirements of
subpart G of this part for the change in
the type design approved by the supplemental type certificate.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16,
2009]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.120 Responsibility
of
supplemental type certificate holders to
provide written permission for alterations.
A supplemental type certificate holder who allows a person to use the supplemental type certificate to alter an
aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller
must provide that person with written
permission acceptable to the FAA.
[Doc. No. FAA–2003–14825, 71 FR 52258, Sept.
1, 2006]
Subpart F—Production Under Type
Certificate
SOURCE: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct.
24, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.121
Applicability.
This subpart prescribes rules for production under a type certificate.
§ 21.122 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
(a) A type certificate holder may utilize manufacturing facilities located
outside of the United States if the FAA
finds no undue burden in administering
the applicable requirements of Title 49
U.S.C. and this subchapter.
(b) The type certificate holder must
obtain FAA approval before making
any changes to the location of any of
its manufacturing facilities.
(c) The type certificate holder must
immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness
of its product or article.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53387, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21–92A, 75 FR 9095,
Mar. 1, 2010]
§ 21.123 Production under type certificate.
Each manufacturer of a product
being manufactured under a type certificate must—
(a) Maintain at the place of manufacture all information and data specified
in §§ 21.31 and 21.41;
(b) Make each product and article
thereof available for inspection by the
FAA;
(c) Maintain records of the completion of all inspections and tests required by §§ 21.127, 21.128, and 21.129 for
at least 5 years for the products and articles thereof manufactured under the
approval and at least 10 years for critical
components
identified
under
§ 45.15(c) of this chapter;
(d) Allow the FAA to make any inspection or test, including any inspection or test at a supplier facility, necessary to determine compliance with
this subchapter;
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.131
(e) Mark the product in accordance
with part 45 of this chapter, including
any critical parts;
(f) Identify any portion of that product (e.g., sub-assemblies, component
parts, or replacement articles) that
leave the manufacturer’s facility as
FAA approved with the manufacturer’s
part number and name, trademark,
symbol, or other FAA-approved manufacturer’s identification; and
(g) Except as otherwise authorized by
the FAA, obtain a production certificate for that product in accordance
with subpart G of this part within 6
months after the date of issuance of
the type certificate.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53387, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.125
[Reserved]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.127 Tests: aircraft.
(a) Each person manufacturing aircraft under a type certificate must establish an approved production flight
test procedure and flight check-off
form, and in accordance with that
form, flight test each aircraft produced.
(b) Each production flight test procedure must include the following:
(1) An operational check of the trim,
controllability, or other flight characteristics to establish that the production aircraft has the same range and
degree of control as the prototype aircraft.
(2) An operational check of each part
or system operated by the crew while
in flight to establish that, during
flight, instrument readings are within
normal range.
(3) A determination that all instruments are properly marked, and that
all placards and required flight manuals are installed after flight test.
(4) A check of the operational characteristics of the aircraft on the ground.
(5) A check on any other items peculiar to the aircraft being tested that
can best be done during the ground or
flight operation of the aircraft.
§ 21.128 Tests: aircraft engines.
(a) Each person manufacturing aircraft engines under a type certificate
must subject each engine (except rocket engines for which the manufacturer
must establish a sampling technique)
to an acceptable test run that includes
the following:
(1) Break-in runs that include a determination of fuel and oil consumption and a determination of power
characteristics at rated maximum continuous power or thrust and, if applicable, at rated takeoff power or thrust.
(2) At least five hours of operation at
rated maximum continuous power or
thrust. For engines having a rated
takeoff power or thrust higher than
rated maximum continuous power or
thrust, the five-hour run must include
30 minutes at rated takeoff power or
thrust.
(b) The test runs required by paragraph (a) of this section may be made
with the engine appropriately mounted
and using current types of power and
thrust measuring equipment.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14568, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–5, 32 FR 3735, Mar. 4,
1967]
§ 21.129
Tests: propellers.
Each person manufacturing propellers under a type certificate must give
each variable pitch propeller an acceptable functional test to determine if it
operates properly throughout the normal range of operation.
§ 21.130
Statement of conformity.
Each holder or licensee of a type certificate who manufactures a product
under this subpart must provide, in a
form and manner acceptable to the
FAA, a statement that the product for
which the type certificate has been
issued conforms to its type certificate
and is in a condition for safe operation.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53387, Oct. 16, 2009]
Subpart G—Production
Certificates
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53387, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.131
Applicability.
This subpart prescribes—
(a) Procedural requirements for
issuing production certificates; and
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§ 21.132
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(b) Rules governing holders of those
certificates.
§ 21.132 Eligibility.
Any person may apply for a production certificate if that person holds, for
the product concerned—
(a) A current type certificate,
(b) A supplemental type certificate,
or
(c) Rights to the benefits of that type
certificate or supplemental type certificate under a licensing agreement.
§ 21.133 Application.
Each applicant must apply for a production certificate in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA.
§ 21.135 Organization.
Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must provide the
FAA with a document describing how
its organization will ensure compliance
with the provisions of this subpart. At
a minimum, the document must describe assigned responsibilities and delegated authority, and the functional
relationship of those responsible for
quality to management and other organizational components.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59031, Oct.
1, 2015, § 21.135 was revised, effective Mar. 29,
2016. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:
§ 21.135 Organization.
(a) Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must provide the FAA
with a document—
(1) Describing how its organization will ensure compliance with the provisions of this
subpart;
(2) Describing assigned responsibilities,
delegated authorities, and the functional relationship of those responsible for quality to
management and other organizational components; and
(3) Identifying an accountable manager.
(b) The accountable manager specified in
paragraph (a) of this section must be responsible within the applicant’s or production approval holder’s organization for, and have
authority over, all production operations
conducted under this part. The accountable
manager must confirm that the procedures
described in the quality manual required by
§ 21.138 are in place and that the production
approval holder satisfies the requirements of
the applicable regulations of subchapter C,
Aircraft. The accountable manager must
serve as the primary contact with the FAA.
§ 21.137 Quality system.
Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must establish and
describe in writing a quality system
that ensures that each product and article conforms to its approved design
and is in a condition for safe operation.
This quality system must include:
(a) Design data control. Procedures for
controlling design data and subsequent
changes to ensure that only current,
correct, and approved data is used.
(b) Document control. Procedures for
controlling quality system documents
and data and subsequent changes to ensure that only current, correct, and approved documents and data are used.
(c) Supplier control. Procedures that—
(1) Ensure that each supplier-furnished product or article conforms to
its approved design; and
(2) Require each supplier to report to
the production approval holder if a
product or article has been released
from that supplier and subsequently
found not to conform to the applicable
design data.
(d) Manufacturing process control. Procedures for controlling manufacturing
processes to ensure that each product
and article conforms to its approved
design.
(e) Inspecting and testing. Procedures
for inspections and tests used to ensure
that each product and article conforms
to its approved design. These procedures must include the following, as
applicable:
(1) A flight test of each aircraft produced unless that aircraft will be exported as an unassembled aircraft.
(2) A functional test of each aircraft
engine and each propeller produced.
(f) Inspection, measuring, and test
equipment control. Procedures to ensure
calibration and control of all inspection, measuring, and test equipment
used in determining conformity of each
product and article to its approved design. Each calibration standard must
be traceable to a standard acceptable
to the FAA.
(g) Inspection and test status. Procedures for documenting the inspection
and test status of products and articles
supplied or manufactured to the approved design.
(h) Nonconforming product and article
control. (1) Procedures to ensure that
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.139
only products or articles that conform
to their approved design are installed
on a type-certificated product. These
procedures must provide for the identification, documentation, evaluation,
segregation, and disposition of nonconforming products and articles. Only authorized individuals may make disposition determinations.
(2) Procedures to ensure that discarded articles are rendered unusable.
(i) Corrective and preventive actions.
Procedures for implementing corrective and preventive actions to eliminate the causes of an actual or potential nonconformity to the approved design or noncompliance with the approved quality system.
(j) Handling and storage. Procedures
to prevent damage and deterioration of
each product and article during handling, storage, preservation, and packaging.
(k) Control of quality records. Procedures for identifying, storing, protecting, retrieving, and retaining quality records. A production approval
holder must retain these records for at
least 5 years for the products and articles manufactured under the approval
and at least 10 years for critical components identified under § 45.15(c) of this
chapter.
(l) Internal audits. Procedures for
planning, conducting, and documenting
internal audits to ensure compliance
with the approved quality system. The
procedures must include reporting results of internal audits to the manager
responsible for implementing corrective and preventive actions.
(m) In-service feedback. Procedures for
receiving and processing feedback on
in-service failures, malfunctions, and
defects. These procedures must include
a process for assisting the design approval holder to—
(1) Address any in-service problem involving design changes; and
(2) Determine if any changes to the
Instructions for Continued Airworthiness are necessary.
(n) Quality escapes. Procedures for
identifying, analyzing, and initiating
appropriate corrective action for products or articles that have been released
from the quality system and that do
not conform to the applicable design
data or quality system requirements.
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59031, Oct.
1, 2015, § 21.137 was amended by revising paragraphs (c)(1) and (2) and adding paragraph
(o), effective Mar. 29, 2016. At 80 FR 78650,
Dec. 17, 2015, the effective date of the amendment to paragraph (o) was advanced to Jan.
4, 2016. For the convenience of the user, the
added and revised text is set forth as follows:
§ 21.137
*
Quality system.
*
*
*
*
*
*
*
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(o) Issuing authorized release documents.
Procedures for issuing authorized release
documents for aircraft engines, propellers,
and articles if the production approval holder intends to issue those documents. These
procedures must provide for the selection,
appointment, training, management, and removal of individuals authorized by the production approval holder to issue authorized
release documents. Authorized release documents may be issued for new aircraft engines, propellers, and articles manufactured
by the production approval holder; and for
used aircraft engines, propellers, and articles
when rebuilt, or altered, in accordance with
§ 43.3(j) of this chapter. When a production
approval holder issues an authorized release
document for the purpose of export, the production approval holder must comply with
the procedures applicable to the export of
new and used aircraft engines, propellers,
and articles specified in § 21.331 and the responsibilities of exporters specified in
§ 21.335.
§ 21.138 Quality manual.
Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must provide a
manual describing its quality system
to the FAA for approval. The manual
must be in the English language and
retrievable in a form acceptable to the
FAA.
§ 21.139 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
(a) An applicant may obtain a production certificate for manufacturing
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*
(c) * * *
(1) Ensure that each supplier-provided
product, article, or service conforms to the
production approval holder’s requirements;
and
(2) Establish a supplier-reporting process
for products, articles, or services that have
been released from or provided by the supplier and subsequently found not to conform
to the production approval holder’s requirements.
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§ 21.140
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
facilities located outside of the United
States if the FAA finds no undue burden in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this
subchapter.
(b) The production certificate holder
must obtain FAA approval before making any changes to the location of any
of its manufacturing facilities.
(c) The production certificate holder
must immediately notify the FAA, in
writing, of any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness
of its product or article.
§ 21.140
Inspections and tests.
Each applicant for or holder of a production certificate must allow the FAA
to inspect its quality system, facilities,
technical data, and any manufactured
products or articles and witness any
tests, including any inspections or
tests at a supplier facility, necessary
to determine compliance with this subchapter.
§ 21.141
Issuance.
The FAA issues a production certificate after finding that the applicant
complies with the requirements of this
subpart.
§ 21.142
Production limitation record.
The FAA issues a production limitation record as part of a production certificate. The record lists the type certificate number and the model of every
product that the production certificate
holder is authorized to manufacture.
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59031, Oct.
1, 2015, § 21.142 was revised, effective Mar. 29,
2016. At 80 FR 78650, Dec. 17, 2015, the effective date of this revision was advanced to
Jan. 4, 2016. For the convenience of the user,
the revised text is set forth as follows:
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.142
Production limitation record.
The FAA issues a production limitation
record as part of a production certificate.
The record lists the type certificate number
and model of every product that the production certificate holder is authorized to manufacture, and identifies every interface component that the production certificate holder
is authorized to manufacture and install
under this part.
§ 21.143 Duration.
A production certificate is effective
until surrendered, suspended, revoked,
or the FAA otherwise establishes a termination date.
§ 21.144 Transferability.
The holder of a production certificate
may not transfer the production certificate.
§ 21.145 Privileges.
(a) The holder of a production certificate may—
(1) Obtain an aircraft airworthiness
certificate without further showing,
except that the FAA may inspect the
aircraft for conformity with the type
design; or
(2) In the case of other products, obtain approval from the FAA for installation on type-certificated aircraft.
(b) Notwithstanding the provisions of
§ 147.3 of this chapter, the holder of a
production certificate for a primary
category aircraft, or for a normal, utility, or acrobatic category aircraft of a
type design that is eligible for a special
airworthiness certificate in the primary category under § 21.184(c), may—
(1) Conduct training for persons in
the performance of a special inspection
and preventive maintenance program
approved as a part of the aircraft’s
type design under § 21.24(b), provided a
person holding a mechanic certificate
with appropriate airframe and powerplant ratings issued under part 65 of
this chapter gives the training; and
(2) Issue a certificate of competency
to persons successfully completing the
approved training program, provided
the certificate specifies the aircraft
make and model to which the certificate applies.
§ 21.146 Responsibility of holder.
The holder of a production certificate
must—
(a) Amend the document required by
§ 21.135 as necessary to reflect changes
in the organization and provide these
amendments to the FAA.
(b) Maintain the quality system in
compliance with the data and procedures approved for the production certificate;
(c) Ensure that each completed product or article for which a production
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§ 21.173
certificate has been issued, including
primary category aircraft assembled
under a production certificate by another person from a kit provided by the
holder of the production certificate,
presented for airworthiness certification or approval conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for
safe operation;
(d) Mark the product or article for
which a certificate or approval has
been issued. Marking must be in accordance with part 45 of this chapter,
including any critical parts;
(e) Identify any portion of the product or article (e.g., sub-assemblies,
component parts, or replacement articles) that leave the manufacturer’s facility as FAA approved with the manufacturer’s part number and name,
trademark, symbol, or other FAA approved manufacturer’s identification;
(f) Have access to type design data
necessary to determine conformity and
airworthiness for each product and article produced under the production
certificate;
(g) Retain its production certificate
and make it available to the FAA upon
request; and
(h) Make available to the FAA information regarding all delegation of authority to suppliers.
cate or model, or both, must comply with
§§ 21.137, 21.138, and 21.150.
(c) An applicant may apply to amend its
production limitation record to allow the
manufacture and installation of an interface
component, provided—
(1) The applicant owns or has a license to
use the design and installation data for the
interface component and makes that data
available to the FAA upon request;
(2) The applicant manufactures the interface component;
(3) The applicant’s product conforms to its
approved type design and the interface component conforms to its approved type design;
(4) The assembled product with the installed interface component is in a condition
for safe operation; and
(5) The applicant complies with any other
conditions and limitations the FAA considers necessary.
§ 21.150
§ 21.147 Amendment of production certificates.
The holder of a production certificate
must apply for an amendment to a production certificate in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA. The applicant for an amendment to a production
certificate to add a type certificate or
model, or both, must comply with the
applicable requirements of §§ 21.137,
21.138, and 21.150.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59031, Oct.
1, 2015, § 21.147 was revised, effective Mar. 29,
2016. At 80 FR 78650, Dec. 17, 2015, the effective date of this revision was advanced to
Jan. 4, 2016. For the convenience of the user,
the revised text is set forth as follows:
§ 21.147 Amendment of production certificates.
(a) A holder of a production certificate
must apply for an amendment to a production certificate in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA.
(b) An applicant for an amendment to a
production certificate to add a type certifi-
Changes in quality system.
After the issuance of a production
certificate—
(a) Each change to the quality system is subject to review by the FAA;
and
(b) The holder of a production certificate must immediately notify the
FAA, in writing, of any change that
may affect the inspection, conformity,
or airworthiness of its product or article.
Subpart H—Airworthiness
Certificates
SOURCE: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14569, Oct.
24, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.171
Applicability.
This subpart prescribes procedural
requirements for the issue of airworthiness certificates.
§ 21.173
Eligibility.
Any registered owner of a U.S.-registered aircraft (or the agent of the
owner) may apply for an airworthiness
certificate for that aircraft. An application for an airworthiness certificate
must be made in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, and may be submitted to any FAA office.
[Amdt. 21–26, 34 FR 15244, Sept. 30, 1969]
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§ 21.175
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
§ 21.175 Airworthiness
classification.
certificates:
(a) Standard airworthiness certificates are airworthiness certificates
issued for aircraft type certificated in
the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category, and for
manned free balloons, and for aircraft
designated by the FAA as special classes of aircraft.
(b) Special airworthiness certificates
are primary, restricted, limited, lightsport, and provisional airworthiness
certificates, special flight permits, and
experimental certificates.
[Amdt. 21–21, 33 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as
amended by Amdt. 21–60, 52 FR 8043, Mar. 13,
1987; Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992;
Amdt. 21–85, 69 FR 44861, July 27, 2004]
§ 21.177
Amendment or modification.
An airworthiness certificate may be
amended or modified only upon application to the FAA.
§ 21.179
Transferability.
An airworthiness certificate is transferred with the aircraft.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.181
Duration.
(a) Unless sooner surrendered, suspended, revoked, or a termination date
is otherwise established by the FAA,
airworthiness certificates are effective
as follows:
(1) Standard airworthiness certificates, special airworthiness certificates—primary category, and airworthiness certificates issued for restricted or limited category aircraft
are effective as long as the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance
with Parts 43 and 91 of this chapter and
the aircraft are registered in the
United States.
(2) A special flight permit is effective
for the period of time specified in the
permit.
(3) A special airworthiness certificate
in the light-sport category is effective
as long as—
(i) The aircraft meets the definition
of a light-sport aircraft;
(ii) The aircraft conforms to its original configuration, except for those alterations performed in accordance with
an applicable consensus standard and
authorized by the aircraft’s manufacturer or a person acceptable to the
FAA;
(iii) The aircraft has no unsafe condition and is not likely to develop an unsafe condition; and
(iv) The aircraft is registered in the
United States.
(4) An experimental certificate for research and development, showing compliance with regulations, crew training, or market surveys is effective for 1
year after the date of issue or renewal
unless the FAA prescribes a shorter period. The duration of an experimental
certificate issued for operating amateur-built aircraft, exhibition, air-racing, operating primary kit-built aircraft, or operating light-sport aircraft
is unlimited, unless the FAA establishes a specific period for good cause.
(b) The owner, operator, or bailee of
the aircraft must, upon request, make
it available for inspection by the FAA.
(c) Upon suspension, revocation, or
termination by order of the FAA of an
airworthiness certificate, the owner,
operator, or bailee of an aircraft must,
upon request, surrender the certificate
to the FAA.
[Amdt. 21–21, 33 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as
amended by Amdt. 21–49, 44 FR 46781, Aug. 9,
1979; Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992;
Amdt. 21–85, 69 FR 44861, July 27, 2004]
§ 21.182
Aircraft identification.
(a) Except as provided in paragraph
(b) of this section, each applicant for
an airworthiness certificate under this
subpart must show that his aircraft is
identified as prescribed in § 45.11.
(b) Paragraph (a) of this section does
not apply to applicants for the following:
(1) A special flight permit.
(2) An experimental certificate for an
aircraft not issued for the purpose of
operating amateur-built aircraft, operating primary kit-built aircraft, or operating light-sport aircraft.
(3) A change from one airworthiness
classification to another, for an aircraft already identified as prescribed in
§ 45.11.
[Amdt. 21–13, 32 FR 188, Jan. 10, 1967, as
amended by Amdt. 21–51, 45 FR 60170, Sept.
11, 1980; Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9,
1992; Amdt. 21–85, 69 FR 44862, July 27, 2004]
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§ 21.183
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.183 Issue of standard airworthiness certificates for normal, utility,
acrobatic, commuter, and transport
category aircraft; manned free balloons; and special classes of aircraft.
(a) New aircraft manufactured under a
production certificate. An applicant for a
standard airworthiness certificate for a
new aircraft manufactured under a production certificate is entitled to a
standard
airworthiness
certificate
without further showing, except that
the FAA may inspect the aircraft to
determine conformity to the type design and condition for safe operation.
(b) New aircraft manufactured under
type certificate. An applicant for a
standard airworthiness certificate for a
new aircraft manufactured under a
type certificate is entitled to a standard airworthiness certificate upon presentation, by the holder or licensee of
the type certificate, of the statement
of conformity prescribed in § 21.130 if
the FAA finds after inspection that the
aircraft conforms to the type design
and is in condition for safe operation.
(c) Import aircraft. An applicant for a
standard airworthiness certificate for
an import aircraft is entitled to that
certificate if—
(1) The aircraft is type certificated in
accordance with § 21.21 or § 21.29 and
produced under the authority of another State of Manufacture;
(2) The State of Manufacture certifies, in accordance with the export
provisions of an agreement with the
United States for import of that aircraft, that the aircraft conforms to the
type design and is in condition for safe
operation; and
(3) The FAA finds that the aircraft
conforms to the type design and is in
condition for safe operation.
(d) Used aircraft and surplus aircraft of
the U.S. Armed Forces. An applicant for
a standard airworthiness certificate for
a used aircraft or surplus aircraft of
the U.S. Armed Forces is entitled to a
standard airworthiness certificate if—
(1) The applicant presents evidence to
the FAA that the aircraft conforms to
a type design approved under a type
certificate or a supplemental type certificate and to applicable Airworthiness Directives;
(2) The aircraft (except an experimentally certificated aircraft that previously had been issued a different airworthiness certificate under this section) has been inspected in accordance
with the performance rules for 100-hour
inspections set forth in § 43.15 of this
chapter, or an equivalent performance
standard acceptable to the FAA, and
found airworthy by—
(i) The manufacturer;
(ii) The holder of a repair station certificate as provided in Part 145 of this
chapter;
(iii) The holder of a mechanic certificate as authorized in Part 65 of this
chapter; or
(iv) The holder of a certificate issued
under part 121 of this chapter, and having a maintenance and inspection organization appropriate to the aircraft
type; and
(3) The FAA finds after inspection,
that the aircraft conforms to the type
design, and is in condition for safe operation.
(e)
Noise
requirements.
Notwithstanding all other provisions of this
section, the following must be complied with for the original issuance of a
standard airworthiness certificate:
(1) For transport category large airplanes and jet (turbojet powered) airplanes that have not had any flight
time before the dates specified in
§ 36.1(d), no standard airworthiness certificate is originally issued under this
section unless the FAA finds that the
type design complies with the noise requirements in § 36.1(d) in addition to
the applicable airworthiness requirements in this section. For import airplanes, compliance with this paragraph
is shown if the country in which the
airplane was manufactured certifies,
and the FAA finds, that § 36.1(d) (or the
applicable airplane noise requirements
of the country in which the airplane
was manufactured and any other requirements the FAA may prescribe to
provide noise levels no greater than
those provided by compliance with
§ 36.1(d)) and paragraph (c) of this section are complied with.
(2) For normal, utility, acrobatic,
commuter, or transport category propeller driven small airplanes (except
for those airplanes that are designed
for ‘‘agricultural aircraft operations’’
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§ 21.184
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(as defined in § 137.3 of this chapter, as
effective on January 1, 1966) or for dispensing fire fighting materials to
which § 36.1583 of this chapter does not
apply) that have not had any flight
time before the applicable date specified in part 36 of this chapter, no standard airworthiness certificate is originally issued under this section unless
the applicant shows that the type design complies with the applicable noise
requirements of part 36 of this chapter
in addition to the applicable airworthiness requirements in this section. For
import airplanes, compliance with this
paragraph is shown if the country in
which the airplane was manufactured
certifies, and the FAA finds, that the
applicable requirements of part of this
chapter (or the applicable airplane
noise requirements of the country in
which the airplane was manufactured
and any other requirements the FAA
may prescribe to provide noise levels
no greater than those provided by compliance with the applicable requirements of part 36 of this chapter) and
paragraph (c) of this section are complied with.
(f) Passenger emergency exit requirements. Notwithstanding all other provisions of this section, each applicant for
issuance of a standard airworthiness
certificate for a transport category airplane manufactured after October 16,
1987, must show that the airplane
meets the requirements of § 25.807(c)(7)
in effect on July 24, 1989. For the purposes of this paragraph, the date of
manufacture of an airplane is the date
the inspection acceptance records reflect that the airplane is complete and
meets the FAA-approved type design
data.
(g) Fuel venting and exhaust emission
requirements. Notwithstanding all other
provisions of this section, and irrespective of the date of application, no airworthiness certificate is issued, on and
after the dates specified in part 34 for
the airplanes specified therein, unless
the airplane complies with the applicable requirements of that part.
(h) New aircraft manufactured under
the provisions of § 21.6(b). An applicant
for a standard airworthiness certificate
for a new aircraft manufactured under
the provisions of § 21.6(b) is entitled to
a standard airworthiness certificate
if—
(1) The applicant presents evidence to
the FAA that the aircraft conforms to
a type design approved under a type
certificate or supplemental type certificate and to applicable Airworthiness Directives;
(2) The aircraft has been inspected in
accordance with the performance rules
for a 100-hour inspections set forth in
§ 43.15 of this chapter and found airworthy by a person specified in paragraph (d)(2) of this section; and
(3) The FAA finds after inspection,
that the aircraft conforms to the type
design, and is in condition for safe operation.
[Amdt. 21–17, 32 FR 14927, Oct. 28, 1967]
EDITORIAL NOTE: For FEDERAL REGISTER citations affecting § 21.183, see the List of CFR
Sections Affected, which appears in the
Finding Aids section of the printed volume
and at www.fdsys.gov.
§ 21.184 Issue of special airworthiness
certificates for primary category
aircraft.
(a) New primary category aircraft manufactured under a production certificate.
An applicant for an original, special
airworthiness certificate-primary category for a new aircraft that meets the
criteria of § 21.24(a)(1), manufactured
under a production certificate, including aircraft assembled by another person from a kit provided by the holder
of the production certificate and under
the supervision and quality control of
that holder, is entitled to a special airworthiness certificate without further
showing, except that the FAA may inspect the aircraft to determine conformity to the type design and condition for safe operation.
(b) Imported aircraft. An applicant for
a special airworthiness certificate-primary category for an imported aircraft
type certificated under § 21.29 is entitled to a special airworthiness certificate if the civil airworthiness authority of the country in which the aircraft
was manufactured certifies, and the
FAA finds after inspection, that the
aircraft conforms to an approved type
design that meets the criteria of
§ 21.24(a)(1) and is in a condition for
safe operation.
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§ 21.185
(c) Aircraft having a current standard
airworthiness certificate. An applicant
for a special airworthiness certificateprimary category, for an aircraft having a current standard airworthiness
certificate that meets the criteria of
§ 21.24(a)(1), may obtain the primary
category certificate in exchange for its
standard
airworthiness
certificate
through the supplemental type certification process. For the purposes of this
paragraph, a current standard airworthiness certificate means that the
aircraft conforms to its approved normal, utility, or acrobatic type design,
complies with all applicable airworthiness directives, has been inspected and
found airworthy within the last 12 calendar months in accordance with
§ 91.409(a)(1) of this chapter, and is
found to be in a condition for safe operation by the FAA.
(d) Other aircraft. An applicant for a
special airworthiness certificate-primary category for an aircraft that
meets the criteria of § 21.24(a)(1), and is
not covered by paragraph (a), (b), or (c)
of this section, is entitled to a special
airworthiness certificate if—
(1) The applicant presents evidence to
the FAA that the aircraft conforms to
an approved primary, normal, utility,
or acrobatic type design, including
compliance with all applicable airworthiness directives;
(2) The aircraft has been inspected
and found airworthy within the past 12
calendar months in accordance with
§ 91.409(a)(1) of this chapter and;
(3) The aircraft is found by the FAA
to conform to an approved type design
and to be in a condition for safe operation.
(e) Multiple-category airworthiness certificates in the primary category and
any other category will not be issued; a
primary category aircraft may hold
only one airworthiness certificate.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 23345, 57 FR 41368, Sept. 9, 1992, as
amended by Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 43776, Sept.
22, 1992]
§ 21.185 Issue of airworthiness certificates for restricted category aircraft.
(a) Aircraft manufactured under a production certificate or type certificate. An
applicant for the original issue of a restricted category airworthiness certifi-
cate for an aircraft type certificated in
the restricted category, that was not
previously type certificated in any
other category, must comply with the
appropriate provisions of § 21.183.
(b) Other aircraft. An applicant for a
restricted category airworthiness certificate for an aircraft type certificated
in the restricted category, that was either a surplus aircraft of the Armed
Forces or previously type certificated
in another category, is entitled to an
airworthiness certificate if the aircraft
has been inspected by the FAA and
found by him to be in a good state of
preservation and repair and in a condition for safe operation.
(c) Import aircraft. An applicant for
the original issue of a special airworthiness certificate for a restricted
category import aircraft is entitled to
that certificate if—
(1) The aircraft is type-certificated in
accordance with § 21.25 or § 21.29 and
produced under the authority of another State of Manufacture;
(2) The State of Manufacture certifies, in accordance with the export
provisions of an agreement with the
United States for import of that aircraft that the aircraft conforms to the
type design and is in condition for safe
operation; and
(3) The FAA finds that the aircraft
conforms to the type design and is in
condition for safe operation.
(d) Noise requirements. For propellerdriven small airplanes (except airplanes designed for ‘‘agricultural aircraft operations,’’ as defined in § 137.3
of this chapter, as effective on January
1, 1966, or for dispensing fire fighting
materials) that have not had any flight
time before the applicable date specified in Part 36 of this chapter, and notwithstanding the other provisions of
this section, no original restricted category airworthiness certificate is
issued under this section unless the
FAA finds that the type design complies with the applicable noise requirements of Part 36 of this chapter in addition to the applicable airworthiness
requirements of this section. For import airplanes, compliance with this
paragraph is shown if the country in
which the airplane was manufactured
certifies, and the FAA finds, that the
applicable requirements of Part 36 of
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§ 21.187
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
this chapter (or the applicable airplane
noise requirements of the country in
which the airplane was manufactured
and any other requirements the FAA
may prescribe to provide noise levels
no greater than those provided by compliance with the applicable requirements of Part 36 of this chapter) and
paragraph (c) of this section are complied with.
craft conforms to that type certificate;
and
(2) The FAA finds, after inspection
(including a flight check by the applicant), that the aircraft is in a good
state of preservation and repair and is
in a condition for safe operation.
(b) The FAA prescribes limitations
and conditions necessary for safe operation.
[Amdt. 21–10, 31 FR 9211, July 6, 1966, as
amended by Amdt. 21–32, 35 FR 10202, June
23, 1970; Amdt. 21–42, 40 FR 1034, Jan. 6, 1975;
Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53389, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53389, Oct. 16, 2009; Amdt. 21–92A,
75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010]
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14570, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–4, 30 FR 9437, July 29,
1965]
§ 21.187 Issue of multiple airworthiness certification.
(a) An applicant for an airworthiness
certificate in the restricted category,
and in one or more other categories except primary category, is entitled to
the certificate, if—
(1) He shows compliance with the requirements for each category, when the
aircraft is in the configuration for that
category; and
(2) He shows that the aircraft can be
converted from one category to another by removing or adding equipment
by simple mechanical means.
(b) The operator of an aircraft certificated under this section must have
the aircraft inspected by the FAA, or
by a certificated mechanic with an appropriate airframe rating, to determine
airworthiness each time the aircraft is
converted from the restricted category
to another category for the carriage of
passengers for compensation or hire,
unless the FAA finds this unnecessary
for safety in a particular case.
(c) The aircraft complies with the applicable requirements of part 34.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14569, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–68, 55 FR 32860, Aug. 10,
1990; Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 41369, Sept. 9, 1992]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.189 Issue of airworthiness certificate for limited category aircraft.
(a) An applicant for an airworthiness
certificate for an aircraft in the limited category is entitled to the certificate when—
(1) He shows that the aircraft has
been previously issued a limited category type certificate and that the air-
§ 21.190 Issue of a special airworthiness certificate for a light-sport category aircraft.
(a) Purpose. The FAA issues a special
airworthiness certificate in the lightsport category to operate a light-sport
aircraft, other than a gyroplane.
(b) Eligibility. To be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the
light-sport category:
(1) An applicant must provide the
FAA with—
(i) The aircraft’s operating instructions;
(ii) The aircraft’s maintenance and
inspection procedures;
(iii) The manufacturer’s statement of
compliance as described in paragraph
(c) of this section; and
(iv) The aircraft’s flight training supplement.
(2) The aircraft must not have been
previously issued a standard, primary,
restricted, limited, or provisional airworthiness certificate, or an equivalent
airworthiness certificate issued by a
foreign civil aviation authority.
(3) The aircraft must be inspected by
the FAA and found to be in a condition
for safe operation.
(c) Manufacturer’s statement of compliance for light-sport category aircraft. The
manufacturer’s statement of compliance required in paragraph (b)(1)(iii) of
this section must—
(1) Identify the aircraft by make and
model, serial number, class, date of
manufacture, and consensus standard
used;
(2) State that the aircraft meets the
provisions of the identified consensus
standard;
(3) State that the aircraft conforms
to the manufacturer’s design data,
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.191
using the manufacturer’s quality assurance system that meets the identified consensus standard;
(4) State that the manufacturer will
make available to any interested person the following documents that meet
the identified consensus standard:
(i) The aircraft’s operating instructions.
(ii) The aircraft’s maintenance and
inspection procedures.
(iii) The aircraft’s flight training
supplement.
(5) State that the manufacturer will
monitor and correct safety-of-flight
issues through the issuance of safety
directives and a continued airworthiness system that meets the identified
consensus standard;
(6) State that at the request of the
FAA, the manufacturer will provide
unrestricted access to its facilities; and
(7) State that the manufacturer, in
accordance with a production acceptance test procedure that meets an applicable consensus standard has—
(i) Ground and flight tested the aircraft;
(ii) Found the aircraft performance
acceptable; and
(iii) Determined that the aircraft is
in a condition for safe operation.
(d) Light-sport aircraft manufactured
outside the United States. For aircraft
manufactured outside of the United
States to be eligible for a special airworthiness certificate in the lightsport category, an applicant must meet
the requirements of paragraph (b) of
this section and provide to the FAA
evidence that—
(1) The aircraft was manufactured in
a country with which the United States
has a Bilateral Airworthiness Agreement concerning airplanes or Bilateral
Aviation Safety Agreement with associated Implementation Procedures for
Airworthiness concerning airplanes, or
an equivalent airworthiness agreement; and
(2) The aircraft is eligible for an airworthiness certificate, flight authorization, or other similar certification
in its country of manufacture.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 21–85, 69 FR 44862, July 27, 2004]
§ 21.191 Experimental certificates.
Experimental certificates are issued
for the following purposes:
(a) Research and development. Testing
new aircraft design concepts, new aircraft equipment, new aircraft installations, new aircraft operating techniques, or new uses for aircraft.
(b) Showing compliance with regulations. Conducting flight tests and other
operations to show compliance with
the airworthiness regulations including
flights to show compliance for issuance
of type and supplemental type certificates, flights to substantiate major design changes, and flights to show compliance with the function and reliability requirements of the regulations.
(c) Crew training. Training of the applicant’s flight crews.
(d) Exhibition. Exhibiting the aircraft’s flight capabilities, performance,
or unusual characteristics at air shows,
motion picture, television, and similar
productions, and the maintenance of
exhibition flight proficiency, including
(for persons exhibiting aircraft) flying
to and from such air shows and productions.
(e) Air racing. Participating in air
races, including (for such participants)
practicing for such air races and flying
to and from racing events.
(f) Market surveys. Use of aircraft for
purposes of conducting market surveys, sales demonstrations, and customer crew training only as provided
in § 21.195.
(g) Operating amateur-built aircraft.
Operating an aircraft the major portion of which has been fabricated and
assembled by persons who undertook
the construction project solely for
their own education or recreation.
(h) Operating primary kit-built aircraft.
Operating a primary category aircraft
that meets the criteria of § 21.24(a)(1)
that was assembled by a person from a
kit manufactured by the holder of a
production certificate for that kit,
without the supervision and quality
control of the production certificate
holder under § 21.184(a).
(i) Operating light-sport aircraft. Operating a light-sport aircraft that—
(1) Has not been issued a U.S. or foreign airworthiness certificate and does
not meet the provisions of § 103.1 of this
chapter. An experimental certificate
will not be issued under this paragraph
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§ 21.193
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
for these aircraft after January 31,
2008;
(2) Has been assembled—
(i) From an aircraft kit for which the
applicant can provide the information
required by § 21.193(e); and
(ii) In accordance with manufacturer’s assembly instructions that meet
an applicable consensus standard; or
(3) Has been previously issued a special airworthiness certificate in the
light-sport category under § 21.190.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 21–21, 38 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as
amended by Amdt. 21–57, 49 FR 39651, Oct. 9,
1984; Amdt. 21–70, 57 FR 41369, Sept. 9, 1992;
Amdt. 21–85, 69 FR 44862, July 27, 2004; Amdt.
21–85, 69 FR 53336, Sept. 1, 2004]
§ 21.193 Experimental certificates: general.
An applicant for an experimental certificate must submit the following information:
(a) A statement, in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA setting
forth the purpose for which the aircraft
is to be used.
(b) Enough data (such as photographs) to identify the aircraft.
(c) Upon inspection of the aircraft,
any pertinent information found necessary by the FAA to safeguard the
general public.
(d) In the case of an aircraft to be
used for experimental purposes—
(1) The purpose of the experiment;
(2) The estimated time or number of
flights required for the experiment;
(3) The areas over which the experiment will be conducted; and
(4) Except for aircraft converted from
a previously certificated type without
appreciable change in the external configuration, three-view drawings or
three-view dimensioned photographs of
the aircraft.
(e) In the case of a light-sport aircraft assembled from a kit to be certificated
in
accordance
with
§ 21.191(i)(2), an applicant must provide
the following:
(1) Evidence that an aircraft of the
same make and model was manufactured and assembled by the aircraft kit
manufacturer and issued a special airworthiness certificate in the lightsport category.
(2) The aircraft’s operating instructions.
(3) The aircraft’s maintenance and
inspection procedures.
(4) The manufacturer’s statement of
compliance for the aircraft kit used in
the aircraft assembly that meets
§ 21.190(c), except that instead of meeting § 21.190(c)(7), the statement must
identify assembly instructions for the
aircraft that meet an applicable consensus standard.
(5) The aircraft’s flight training supplement.
(6) In addition to paragraphs (e)(1)
through (e)(5) of this section, for an
aircraft kit manufactured outside of
the United States, evidence that the
aircraft kit was manufactured in a
country with which the United States
has a Bilateral Airworthiness Agreement concerning airplanes or a Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement with
associated Implementation Procedures
for Airworthiness concerning airplanes,
or an equivalent airworthiness agreement.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14569, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–85, 69 FR 44862, July 27,
2004]
§ 21.195 Experimental certificates: Aircraft to be used for market surveys,
sales demonstrations, and customer
crew training.
(a) A manufacturer of aircraft manufactured within the United States may
apply for an experimental certificate
for an aircraft that is to be used for
market surveys, sales demonstrations,
or customer crew training.
(b) A manufacturer of aircraft engines who has altered a type certificated aircraft by installing different
engines, manufactured by him within
the United States, may apply for an experimental certificate for that aircraft
to be used for market surveys, sales
demonstrations, or customer crew
training, if the basic aircraft, before alteration, was type certificated in the
normal, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category.
(c) A person who has altered the design of a type certificated aircraft may
apply for an experimental certificate
for the altered aircraft to be used for
market surveys, sales demonstrations,
or customer crew training if the basic
aircraft, before alteration, was type
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.199
certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, or transport category.
(d) An applicant for an experimental
certificate under this section is entitled to that certificate if, in addition
to meeting the requirements of
§ 21.193—
(1) He has established an inspection
and maintenance program for the continued airworthiness of the aircraft;
and
(2) The applicant shows that the aircraft has been flown for at least 50
hours, or for at least 5 hours if it is a
type certificated aircraft which has
been modified. The FAA may reduce
these operational requirements if the
applicant provides adequate justification.
[Amdt. 21–21, 33 FR 6858, May 7, 1968, as
amended by Amdt. 21–28, 35 FR 2818, Feb. 11,
1970; Amdt. 21–57, 49 FR 39651, Oct. 9, 1984;
Amdt. 21–59, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53389, Oct. 16, 2009]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.197
Special flight permits.
(a) A special flight permit may be
issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness
requirements but is capable of safe
flight, for the following purposes:
(1) Flying the aircraft to a base
where repairs, alterations, or maintenance are to be performed, or to a
point of storage.
(2) Delivering or exporting the aircraft.
(3) Production flight testing new production aircraft.
(4) Evacuating aircraft from areas of
impending danger.
(5) Conducting customer demonstration flights in new production aircraft
that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.
(b) A special flight permit may also
be issued to authorize the operation of
an aircraft at a weight in excess of its
maximum certificated takeoff weight
for flight beyond the normal range over
water, or over land areas where adequate landing facilities or appropriate
fuel is not available. The excess weight
that may be authorized under this
paragraph is limited to the additional
fuel, fuel-carrying facilities, and navigation equipment necessary for the
flight.
(c) Upon application, as prescribed in
§§ 91.1017 or 119.51 of this chapter, a special flight permit with a continuing authorization may be issued for aircraft
that may not meet applicable airworthiness requirements, but are capable of safe flight for the purpose of flying aircraft to a base where maintenance or alterations are to be performed. The permit issued under this
paragraph is an authorization, including conditions and limitations for
flight, which is set forth in the certificate holder’s operations specifications.
The permit issued under this paragraph
may be issued to—
(1) Certificate holders authorized to
conduct operations under part 119 of
this chapter, that have an approved
program for continuing flight authorization; or
(2) Management specification holders
authorized to conduct operations under
part 91, subpart K of this chapter for
those aircraft they operate and maintain under a continuous airworthiness
maintenance program prescribed by
§ 91.1411 of this chapter.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14570, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–21, 33 FR 6859, May 7,
1968; Amdt. 21–51, 45 FR 60170, Sept. 11, 1980;
Amdt. 21–54, 46 FR 37878, July 23, 1981; Amdt.
21–79, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001; Amdt. 21–84,
68 FR 54559, Sept. 17, 2003; Amdt. 21–87, 71 FR
536, Jan. 4, 2006; Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53389, Oct.
16, 2009]
§ 21.199
Issue of special flight permits.
(a) Except as provided in § 21.197(c),
an applicant for a special flight permit
must submit a statement in a form and
manner prescribed by the FAA, indicating—
(1) The purpose of the flight.
(2) The proposed itinerary.
(3) The crew required to operate the
aircraft and its equipment, e.g., pilot,
co-pilot, navigator, etc.
(4) The ways, if any, in which the aircraft does not comply with the applicable airworthiness requirements.
(5) Any restriction the applicant considers necessary for safe operation of
the aircraft.
(6) Any other information considered
necessary by the FAA for the purpose
of prescribing operating limitations.
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§ 21.211
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(b) The FAA may make, or require
the applicant to make appropriate inspections or tests necessary for safety.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14570, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–21, 33 FR 6859, May 7,
1968; Amdt. 21–22, 33 FR 11901, Aug. 22, 1968]
Subpart I—Provisional
Airworthiness Certificates
[Amdt. 21–67, 54 FR 39291, Sept. 25, 1989; 54 FR
52872, Dec. 22, 1989]
§ 21.217
SOURCE: Docket No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct.
24, 1964, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.211 Applicability.
This subpart prescribes procedural
requirements for the issue of provisional airworthiness certificates.
§ 21.213 Eligibility.
(a) A manufacturer who is a United
States citizen may apply for a Class I
or Class II provisional airworthiness
certificate for aircraft manufactured
by him within the U.S.
(b) Any holder of an air carrier operating certificate under Part 121 of this
chapter who is a United States citizen
may apply for a Class II provisional
airworthiness certificate for transport
category aircraft that meet either of
the following:
(1) The aircraft has a current Class II
provisional type certificate or an
amendment thereto.
(2) The aircraft has a current provisional amendment to a type certificate
that was preceded by a corresponding
Class II provisional type certificate.
(c) An aircraft engine manufacturer
who is a United States citizen and who
has altered a type certificated aircraft
by installing different type certificated
engines, manufactured by him within
the United States, may apply for a
Class I provisional airworthiness certificate for that aircraft, if the basic
aircraft, before alteration, was type
certificated in the normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–59, 52 FR 1836, Jan. 15,
1987; Amdt. 21–79, 66 FR 21066, Apr. 27, 2001]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
tion District Office in the geographic
area in which the manufacturer or air
carrier is located. The application
must be accompanied by the pertinent
information specified in this subpart.
§ 21.215 Application.
Applications for provisional airworthiness certificates must be submitted to the Manufacturing Inspec-
Duration.
Unless sooner surrendered, superseded, revoked, or otherwise terminated, provisional airworthiness certificates are effective for the duration
of the corresponding provisional type
certificate, amendment to a provisional type certificate, or provisional
amendment to the type certificate.
§ 21.219
Transferability.
Class I provisional airworthiness certificates are not transferable. Class II
provisional airworthiness certificates
may be transferred to an air carrier eligible to apply for a certificate under
§ 21.213(b).
§ 21.221 Class I provisional airworthiness certificates.
(a) Except as provided in § 21.225, an
applicant is entitled to a Class I provisional airworthiness certificate for an
aircraft for which a Class I provisional
type certificate has been issued if—
(1) He meets the eligibility requirements of § 21.213 and he complies with
this section; and
(2) The FAA finds that there is no
feature, characteristic or condition of
the aircraft that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations established
in §§ 21.81(e) and 91.317 of this subchapter.
(b) The manufacturer must hold a
provisional type certificate for the aircraft.
(c) The manufacturer must submit a
statement that the aircraft conforms
to the type design corresponding to the
provisional type certificate and has
been found by him to be in safe operating condition under all applicable
limitations.
(d) The aircraft must be flown at
least five hours by the manufacturer.
(e) The aircraft must be supplied
with a provisional aircraft flight manual or other document and appropriate
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 21.303
placards containing the limitations established by §§ 21.81(e) and 91.317.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18,
1989]
§ 21.223 Class II provisional airworthiness certificates.
(a) Except as provided in § 21.225, an
applicant is entitled to a Class II provisional airworthiness certificate for an
aircraft for which a Class II provisional
type certificate has been issued if—
(1) He meets the eligibility requirements of § 21.213 and he complies with
this section; and
(2) The FAA finds that there is no
feature, characteristic, or condition of
the aircraft that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the limitations established
in §§ 21.83(h), 91.317, and 121.207 of this
chapter.
(b) The applicant must show that a
Class II provisional type certificate for
the aircraft has been issued to the
manufacturer.
(c) The applicant must submit a
statement by the manufacturer that
the aircraft has been manufactured
under a quality system adequate to ensure that the aircraft conforms to the
type design corresponding with the
provisional type certificate.
(d) The applicant must submit a
statement that the aircraft has been
found by him to be in a safe operating
condition under the applicable limitations.
(e) The aircraft must be flown at
least five hours by the manufacturer.
(f) The aircraft must be supplied with
a provisional aircraft flight manual
containing the limitations established
by §§ 21.83(h), 91.317, and 121.207 of this
chapter.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–12, 31 FR 13389, Oct. 15,
1966; Amdt. 21–66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989;
Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53390, Oct. 16, 2009]
§ 21.225 Provisional airworthiness certificates corresponding with provisional amendments to type certificates.
(a) An applicant is entitled to a Class
I or a Class II provisional airworthiness
certificate, for an aircraft, for which a
provisional amendment to the type
certificate has been issued, if—
(1) He meets the eligibility requirements of § 21.213 and he complies with
this section; and
(2) The FAA finds that there is no
feature, characteristic, or condition of
the aircraft, as modified in accordance
with the provisionally amended type
certificate, that would make the aircraft unsafe when operated in accordance with the applicable limitations
established in §§ 21.85(g), 91.317, and
121.207 of this chapter.
(b) The applicant must show that the
modification was made under a quality
system adequate to ensure that the
modification conforms to the provisionally amended type certificate.
(c) The applicant must submit a
statement that the aircraft has been
found by him to be in a safe operating
condition under the applicable limitations.
(d) The aircraft must be flown at
least five hours by the manufacturer.
(e) The aircraft must be supplied
with a provisional aircraft flight manual or other document and appropriate
placards containing the limitations required by §§ 21.85(g), 91.317, and 121.207
of this chapter.
[Doc. No. 5085, 29 FR 14571, Oct. 24, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 21–12, 31 FR 13389, Oct. 15,
1966; Amdt. 21–66, 54 FR 34329, Aug. 18, 1989;
Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR 53390, Oct. 16, 2009]
Subpart J [Reserved]
Subpart K—Parts Manufacturer
Approvals
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53390, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.301 Applicability.
This subpart prescribes—
(a) Procedural requirements for
issuing PMAs; and
(b) Rules governing holders of PMAs.
§ 21.303 Application.
(a) The applicant for a PMA must
apply in a form and manner prescribed
by the FAA, and include the following:
(1) The identity of the product on
which the article is to be installed.
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§ 21.305
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(2) The name and address of the manufacturing facilities at which these articles are to be manufactured.
(3) The design of the article, which
consists of—
(i) Drawings and specifications necessary to show the configuration of the
article; and
(ii) Information on dimensions, materials, and processes necessary to define
the structural strength of the article.
(4) Test reports and computations
necessary to show that the design of
the article meets the airworthiness requirements of this subchapter. The test
reports and computations must be applicable to the product on which the
article is to be installed, unless the applicant shows that the design of the article is identical to the design of a article that is covered under a type certificate. If the design of the article was obtained by a licensing agreement, the
applicant must provide evidence of
that agreement.
(5) An applicant for a PMA based on
test reports and computations must
provide a statement certifying that the
applicant has complied with the airworthiness requirements of this subchapter.
(b) Each applicant for a PMA must
make all inspections and tests necessary to determine—
(1) Compliance with the applicable
airworthiness requirements;
(2) That materials conform to the
specifications in the design;
(3) That the article conforms to its
approved design; and
(4) That the manufacturing processes, construction, and assembly conform to those specified in the design.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.305
Organization.
Each applicant for or holder of a
PMA must provide the FAA with a document describing how its organization
will ensure compliance with the provisions of this subpart. At a minimum,
the document must describe assigned
responsibilities and delegated authority, and the functional relationship of
those responsible for quality to management and other organizational components.
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59031, Oct.
1, 2015, § 21.305 was revised, effective Mar. 29,
2016. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:
§ 21.305
Organization.
(a) Each applicant for or holder of a PMA
must provide the FAA with a document—
(1) Describing how its organization will ensure compliance with the provisions of this
subpart;
(2) Describing assigned responsibilities,
delegated authorities, and the functional relationship of those responsible for quality to
management and other organizational components; and
(3) Identifying an accountable manager.
(b) The accountable manager specified in
paragraph (a) of this section must be responsible within the applicant’s or production approval holder’s organization for, and have
authority over, all production operations
conducted under this part. The accountable
manager must confirm that the procedures
described in the quality manual required by
§ 21.308 are in place and that the production
approval holder satisfies the requirements of
the applicable regulations of subchapter C,
Aircraft. The accountable manager must
serve as the primary contact with the FAA.
§ 21.307
Quality system.
Each applicant for or holder of a
PMA must establish a quality system
that meets the requirements of § 21.137.
§ 21.308
Quality manual.
Each applicant for or holder of a
PMA must provide a manual describing
its quality system to the FAA for approval. The manual must be in the
English language and retrievable in a
form acceptable to the FAA.
§ 21.309 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
(a) An applicant may obtain a PMA
for manufacturing facilities located
outside of the United States if the FAA
finds no undue burden in administering
the applicable requirements of Title 49
U.S.C. and this subchapter.
(b) The PMA holder must obtain FAA
approval before making any changes to
the location of any of its manufacturing facilities.
(c) The PMA holder must immediately notify the FAA, in writing, of
any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection,
conformity, or airworthiness of its
PMA article.
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§ 21.310
§ 21.321
Inspections and tests.
(a) Each applicant for or holder of a
PMA must allow the FAA to inspect its
quality system, facilities, technical
data, and any manufactured articles
and witness any tests, including any
inspections or tests at a supplier facility, necessary to determine compliance
with this subchapter.
(b) Unless otherwise authorized by
the FAA, the applicant or holder—
(1) May not present any article to the
FAA for an inspection or test unless
compliance with § 21.303(b)(2) through
(4) has been shown for that article; and
(2) May not make any change to an
article between the time that compliance with § 21.303(b)(2) through (4) is
shown for that article and the time
that the article is presented to the
FAA for the inspection or test.
§ 21.311
Issuance.
The FAA issues a PMA after finding
that the applicant complies with the
requirements of this subpart and the
design complies with the requirements
of this chapter applicable to the product on which the article is to be installed.
§ 21.313
Duration.
A PMA is effective until surrendered,
withdrawn, or the FAA otherwise terminates it.
§ 21.314
Transferability.
The holder of a PMA may not transfer the PMA.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.316
Responsibility of holder.
Each holder of a PMA must—
(a) Amend the document required by
§ 21.305 as necessary to reflect changes
in the organization and provide these
amendments to the FAA;
(b) Maintain the quality system in
compliance with the data and procedures approved for the PMA;
(c) Ensure that each PMA article
conforms to its approved design and is
in a condition for safe operation;
(d) Mark the PMA article for which
an approval has been issued. Marking
must be in accordance with part 45 of
this chapter, including any critical
parts;
(e) Identify any portion of the PMA
article (e.g., sub-assemblies, component
parts, or replacement articles) that
leave the manufacturer’s facility as
FAA approved with the manufacturer’s
part number and name, trademark,
symbol, or other FAA approved manufacturer’s identification;
(f) Have access to design data necessary to determine conformity and
airworthiness for each article produced
under the PMA;
(g) Retain each document granting
PMA and make it available to the FAA
upon request; and
(h) Make available to the FAA information regarding all delegation of authority to suppliers.
§ 21.319
Design changes.
(a) Classification of design changes. (1)
A ‘‘minor change’’ to the design of an
article produced under a PMA is one
that has no appreciable effect on the
approval basis.
(2) A ‘‘major change’’ to the design of
an article produced under a PMA is any
change that is not minor.
(b) Approval of design changes. (1)
Minor changes to the basic design of a
PMA may be approved using a method
acceptable to the FAA.
(2) The PMA holder must obtain FAA
approval of any major change before
including it in the design of an article
produced under a PMA.
§ 21.320
Changes in quality system.
After the issuance of a PMA—
(a) Each change to the quality system is subject to review by the FAA;
and
(b) The holder of the PMA must immediately notify the FAA, in writing,
of any change that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness
of its article.
Subpart L—Export Airworthiness
Approvals
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53391, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.321
Applicability.
This subpart prescribes—
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§ 21.325
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(a) Procedural requirements for
issuing export airworthiness approvals;
and
(b) Rules governing the holders of
those approvals.
§ 21.325
als.
Export airworthiness approv-
(a) An export airworthiness approval
for an aircraft is issued in the form of
an export certificate of airworthiness.
This certificate does not authorize operation of that aircraft.
(b) The FAA prescribes the form and
manner in which an export airworthiness approval for an aircraft engine,
propeller, or article is issued.
(c) If the FAA finds no undue burden
in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this
subchapter, an export airworthiness
approval may be issued for a product or
article located outside of the United
States.
§ 21.327
Application.
Any person may apply for an export
airworthiness approval. Each applicant
must apply in a form and manner prescribed by the FAA.
§ 21.329 Issuance of export certificates
of airworthiness.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
ceptable to the FAA, a deviation from
that requirement; and
(2) The export certificate of airworthiness lists as an exception any
difference between the aircraft to be
exported and its type design.
(a) A person may obtain from the
FAA an export certificate of airworthiness for an aircraft if—
(1) A new or used aircraft manufactured under subpart F or G of this part
meets the airworthiness requirements
under subpart H of this part for a—
(i) Standard airworthiness certificate; or
(ii) Special airworthiness certificate
in either the ‘‘primary’’ or the ‘‘restricted’’ category; or
(2) A new or used aircraft not manufactured under subpart F or G of this
part has a valid—
(i) Standard airworthiness certificate; or
(ii) Special airworthiness certificate
in either the ‘‘primary’’ or the ‘‘restricted’’ category.
(b) An aircraft need not meet a requirement specified in paragraph (a) of
this section, as applicable, if—
(1) The importing country or jurisdiction accepts, in a form and manner ac-
§ 21.331 Issuance of export airworthiness approvals for aircraft engines,
propellers, and articles.
(a) A person may obtain from the
FAA an export airworthiness approval
to export a new aircraft engine, propeller, or article that is manufactured
under this part if it conforms to its approved design and is in a condition for
safe operation.
(b) A new aircraft engine, propeller,
or article need not meet a requirement
of paragraph (a) of this section if—
(1) The importing country or jurisdiction accepts, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, a deviation from
that requirement; and
(2) The export airworthiness approval
lists as an exception any difference between the aircraft engine, propeller, or
article to be exported and its approved
design.
(c) A person may obtain from the
FAA an export airworthiness approval
to export a used aircraft engine, propeller, or article if it conforms to its
approved design and is in a condition
for safe operation.
(d) A used aircraft engine or propeller
need not meet a requirement of paragraph (c) of this section if—
(1) The importing country or jurisdiction accepts, in a form and manner acceptable to the FAA, a deviation from
that requirement; and
(2) The export airworthiness approval
lists as an exception any difference between the used aircraft engine or propeller to be exported and its approved
design.
§ 21.335 Responsibilities of exporters.
Unless otherwise agreed to by the importing country or jurisdiction, each
exporter must—
(a) Forward to the importing country
or jurisdiction all documents specified
by that country or jurisdiction;
(b) Preserve and package products
and articles as necessary to protect
them against corrosion and damage
during transit or storage and state the
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§ 21.601
duration of effectiveness of such preservation and packaging;
(c) Remove or cause to be removed
any temporary installation incorporated on an aircraft for the purpose
of export delivery and restore the aircraft to the approved configuration
upon completion of the delivery flight;
(d) Secure all proper foreign entry
clearances from all the countries or jurisdictions involved when conducting
sales
demonstrations
or
delivery
flights; and
(e) When title to an aircraft passes or
has passed to a foreign purchaser—
(1) Request cancellation of the U.S.
registration and airworthiness certificates from the FAA, giving the date of
transfer of title, and the name and address of the foreign owner;
(2) Return the Registration and Airworthiness Certificates to the FAA;
and
(3) Provide a statement to the FAA
certifying that the U.S. identification
and registration numbers have been removed from the aircraft in compliance
with § 45.33.
that the individual aircraft engine or
propeller—
(1) Conforms to its U.S. type certificate and is in condition for safe operation; and
(2) Has been subjected by the manufacturer to a final operational check.
§ 21.502 Acceptance of articles.
An article (including an article produced under a letter of TSO design approval) manufactured in a foreign
country or jurisdiction meets the requirements for acceptance under this
subchapter if—
(a) That country or jurisdiction is
subject to the provisions of an agreement with the United States for the acceptance of that article;
(b) That article is marked in accordance with part 45 of this chapter; and
(c) An export airworthiness approval
has been issued in accordance with the
provisions of that agreement for that
article for import into the United
States.
Subpart O—Technical Standard
Order Approvals
Subpart M [Reserved]
Subpart N—Acceptance of Aircraft Engines, Propellers, and
Articles for Import
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2006–25877, 74 FR
53392, Amdt. 21–92, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.500 Acceptance of aircraft engines
and propellers.
An aircraft engine or propeller manufactured in a foreign country or jurisdiction meets the requirements for acceptance under this subchapter if—
(a) That country or jurisdiction is
subject to the provisions of an agreement with the United States for the acceptance of that product;
(b) That product is marked in accordance with part 45 of this chapter; and
(c) The holder or licensee of a U.S.
type certificate for that product furnishes with each such aircraft engine
or propeller imported into the United
States, an export airworthiness approval issued in accordance with the
provisions of that agreement certifying
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt.
21–92, 74 FR 53392, Oct. 16, 2009, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.601 Applicability and definitions.
(a) This subpart prescribes—
(1) Procedural requirements for
issuing TSO authorizations;
(2) Rules governing the holders of
TSO authorizations; and
(3) Procedural requirements for
issuing letters of TSO design approval.
(b) For the purposes of this subpart—
(1) A TSO issued by the FAA is a
minimum performance standard for
specified articles used on civil aircraft;
(2) A TSO authorization is an FAA
design and production approval issued
to the manufacturer of an article that
has been found to meet a specific TSO;
(3) A letter of TSO design approval is
an FAA design approval for an article
that has been found to meet a specific
TSO in accordance with the procedures
of § 21.621;
(4) An article manufactured under a
TSO authorization, an FAA letter of
acceptance as described in § 21.613(b), or
an article manufactured under a letter
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§ 21.603
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
of TSO design approval described in
§ 21.621 is an approved article for the
purpose of meeting the regulations of
this chapter that require the article to
be approved; and
(5) An article manufacturer is the
person who controls the design and
quality of the article produced (or to be
produced, in the case of an application), including any related parts, processes, or services procured from an outside source.
§ 21.603
Application.
(a) An applicant for a TSO authorization must apply to the appropriate aircraft certification office in the form
and manner prescribed by the FAA.
The applicant must include the following documents in the application:
(1) A statement of conformance certifying that the applicant has met the
requirements of this subpart and that
the article concerned meets the applicable TSO that is effective on the date
of application for that article.
(2) One copy of the technical data required in the applicable TSO.
(b) If the applicant anticipates a series of minor changes in accordance
with § 21.619, the applicant may set
forth in its application the basic model
number of the article and the part
number of the components with open
brackets after it to denote that suffix
change letters or numbers (or combinations of them) will be added from time
to time.
(c) If the application is deficient, the
applicant must, when requested by the
FAA, provide any additional information necessary to show compliance
with this part. If the applicant fails to
provide the additional information
within 30 days after the FAA’s request,
the FAA denies the application and notifies the applicant.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.605
Organization.
Each applicant for or holder of a TSO
authorization must provide the FAA
with a document describing how the
applicant’s organization will ensure
compliance with the provisions of this
subpart. At a minimum, the document
must describe assigned responsibilities
and delegated authority, and the functional relationship of those responsible
for quality to management and other
organizational components.
EFFECTIVE DATE NOTE: At 80 FR 59032, Oct.
1, 2015, § 21.605 was revised, effective Mar. 29,
2016. For the convenience of the user, the revised text is set forth as follows:
§ 21.605 Organization.
(a) Each applicant for or holder of a TSO
authorization must provide the FAA with a
document—
(1) Describing how its organization will ensure compliance with the provisions of this
subpart;
(2) Describing assigned responsibilities,
delegated authorities, and the functional relationship of those responsible for quality to
management and other organizational components; and
(3) Identifying an accountable manager.
(b) The accountable manager specified in
paragraph (a) of this section must be responsible within the applicant’s or production approval holder’s organization for, and have
authority over, all production operations
conducted under this part. The accountable
manager must confirm that the procedures
described in the quality manual required by
§ 21.608 are in place and that the production
approval holder satisfies the requirements of
the applicable regulations of subchapter C,
Aircraft. The accountable manager must
serve as the primary contact with the FAA.
§ 21.607
Quality system.
Each applicant for or holder of a TSO
authorization must establish a quality
system that meets the requirements of
§ 21.137.
§ 21.608
Quality manual.
Each applicant for or holder of a TSO
authorization must provide a manual
describing its quality system to the
FAA for approval. The manual must be
in the English language and retrievable
in a form acceptable to the FAA.
§ 21.609 Location of or change to manufacturing facilities.
(a) An applicant may obtain a TSO
authorization for manufacturing facilities located outside of the United
States if the FAA finds no undue burden in administering the applicable requirements of Title 49 U.S.C. and this
subchapter.
(b) The TSO authorization holder
must obtain FAA approval before making any changes to the location of any
of its manufacturing facilities.
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§ 21.619
(c) The TSO authorization holder
must immediately notify the FAA, in
writing, of any change to the manufacturing facilities that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness
of its product or article.
§ 21.610
Inspections and tests.
Each applicant for or holder of a TSO
authorization must allow the FAA to
inspect its quality system, facilities,
technical data, and any manufactured
articles and witness any tests, including any inspections or tests at a supplier facility, necessary to determine
compliance with this subchapter.
§ 21.611
Issuance.
If the FAA finds that the applicant
complies with the requirements of this
subchapter, the FAA issues a TSO authorization to the applicant (including
all TSO deviations granted to the applicant).
§ 21.613
Duration.
(a) A TSO authorization or letter of
TSO design approval is effective until
surrendered, withdrawn, or otherwise
terminated by the FAA.
(b) If a TSO is revised or canceled,
the holder of an affected FAA letter of
acceptance of a statement of conformance, TSO authorization, or letter of
TSO design approval may continue to
manufacture articles that meet the
original TSO without obtaining a new
acceptance, authorization, or approval
but must comply with the requirements of this chapter.
§ 21.614
Transferability.
The holder of a TSO authorization or
letter of TSO design approval may not
transfer the TSO authorization or letter of TSO design approval.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.616
Responsibility of holder.
Each holder of a TSO authorization
must—
(a) Amend the document required by
§ 21.605 as necessary to reflect changes
in the organization and provide these
amendments to the FAA.
(b) Maintain a quality system in
compliance with the data and procedures approved for the TSO authorization;
(c) Ensure that each manufactured
article conforms to its approved design,
is in a condition for safe operation, and
meets the applicable TSO;
(d) Mark the TSO article for which
an approval has been issued. Marking
must be in accordance with part 45 of
this chapter, including any critical
parts;
(e) Identify any portion of the TSO
article (e.g., sub-assemblies, component parts, or replacement articles)
that leave the manufacturer’s facility
as FAA approved with the manufacturer’s part number and name, trademark,
symbol, or other FAA approved manufacturer’s identification;
(f) Have access to design data necessary to determine conformity and
airworthiness for each article produced
under the TSO authorization. The manufacturer must retain this data until it
no longer manufactures the article. At
that time, copies of the data must be
sent to the FAA;
(g) Retain its TSO authorization and
make it available to the FAA upon request; and
(h) Make available to the FAA information regarding all delegation of authority to suppliers.
§ 21.618 Approval for deviation.
(a) Each manufacturer who requests
approval to deviate from any performance standard of a TSO must show that
factors or design features providing an
equivalent level of safety compensate
for the standards from which a deviation is requested.
(b) The manufacturer must send requests for approval to deviate, together
with all pertinent data, to the appropriate aircraft certification office. If
the article is manufactured under the
authority of a foreign country or jurisdiction, the manufacturer must send
requests for approval to deviate, together with all pertinent data, through
the civil aviation authority of that
country or jurisdiction to the FAA.
§ 21.619 Design changes.
(a) Minor changes by the manufacturer
holding a TSO authorization. The manufacturer of an article under an authorization issued under this part may
make minor design changes (any
change other than a major change)
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§ 21.620
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
without further approval by the FAA.
In this case, the changed article keeps
the original model number (part numbers may be used to identify minor
changes) and the manufacturer must
forward to the appropriate aircraft certification office, any revised data that
are necessary for compliance with
§ 21.603(b).
(b) Major changes by the manufacturer
holding a TSO authorization. Any design
change by the manufacturer extensive
enough to require a substantially complete investigation to determine compliance with a TSO is a major change.
Before making a major change, the
manufacturer must assign a new type
or model designation to the article and
apply for an authorization under
§ 21.603.
(c) Changes by persons other than the
manufacturer. No design change by any
person (other than the manufacturer
who provided the statement of conformance for the article) is eligible for
approval under this part unless the person seeking the approval is a manufacturer and applies under § 21.603(a) for a
separate TSO authorization. Persons
other than a manufacturer may obtain
approval for design changes under part
43 or under the applicable airworthiness regulations of this chapter.
§ 21.620
Changes in quality system.
After the issuance of a TSO authorization—
(a) Each change to the quality system is subject to review by the FAA;
and
(b) The holder of the TSO authorization must immediately notify the FAA,
in writing, of any change that may affect the inspection, conformity, or airworthiness of its article.
(i) The State of Design certifies that
the article has been examined, tested,
and found to meet the applicable TSO
or the applicable performance standards of the State of Design and any
other performance standards the FAA
may prescribe to provide a level of
safety equivalent to that provided by
the TSO; and
(ii) The manufacturer has provided to
the FAA one copy of the technical data
required in the applicable performance
standard through its State of Design.
(b) The FAA issues the letter of TSO
design approval that lists any deviation granted under § 21.618.
[Doc. No. FAA–2006–25877, Amdt. 21–92, 74 FR
53392, Oct. 16, 2009, as amended by Amdt. 21–
92A, 75 FR 9095, Mar. 1, 2010]
Subpart P—Special Federal
Aviation Regulations
SOURCE: Docket No. FAA–2011–0186, Amdt.
21–92, 76 FR 12555, Mar. 8, 2011, unless otherwise noted.
§ 21.700 SFAR No. 111—Lavatory Oxygen Systems.
The requirements of § 121.1500 of this
chapter also apply to this part.
PART 23—AIRWORTHINESS STANDARDS: NORMAL, UTILITY, ACROBATIC, AND COMMUTER CATEGORY AIRPLANES
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION NO.
23
Subpart A—General
Sec.
23.1 Applicability.
23.2 Special retroactive requirements.
23.3 Airplane categories.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 21.621 Issue of letters of TSO design
approval: Import articles.
(a) The FAA may issue a letter of
TSO design approval for an article—
(1) Designed and manufactured in a
foreign country or jurisdiction subject
to the export provisions of an agreement with the United States for the acceptance of these articles for import;
and
(2) For import into the United States
if—
Subpart B—Flight
GENERAL
23.21 Proof of compliance.
23.23 Load distribution limits.
23.25 Weight limits.
23.29 Empty weight and corresponding center of gravity.
23.31 Removable ballast.
23.33 Propeller speed and pitch limits.
PERFORMANCE
23.45
General.
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Pt. 23
23.49
23.51
23.53
23.55
23.57
23.59
23.61
23.63
23.65
23.66
23.67
23.69
23.71
23.73
23.75
23.77
Stalling speed.
Takeoff speeds.
Takeoff performance.
Accelerate-stop distance.
Takeoff path.
Takeoff distance and takeoff run.
Takeoff flight path.
Climb: General.
Climb: All engines operating.
Takeoff climb: One-engine inoperative.
Climb: One engine inoperative.
Enroute climb/descent.
Glide: Single-engine airplanes.
Reference landing approach speed.
Landing distance.
Balked landing.
23.141
General.
FLIGHT CHARACTERISTICS
CONTROLLABILITY AND MANEUVERABILITY
23.143
23.145
23.147
23.149
23.151
23.153
23.155
23.157
General.
Longitudinal control.
Directional and lateral control.
Minimum control speed.
Acrobatic maneuvers.
Control during landings.
Elevator control force in maneuvers.
Rate of roll.
23.161
Trim.
Subpart C—Structure
GENERAL
23.301 Loads.
23.302 Canard or tandem wing configurations.
23.303 Factor of safety.
23.305 Strength and deformation.
23.307 Proof of structure.
FLIGHT LOADS
23.321 General.
23.331 Symmetrical flight conditions.
23.333 Flight envelope.
23.335 Design airspeeds.
23.337 Limit maneuvering load factors.
23.341 Gust loads factors.
23.343 Design fuel loads.
23.345 High lift devices.
23.347 Unsymmetrical flight conditions.
23.349 Rolling conditions.
23.351 Yawing conditions.
23.361 Engine torque.
23.363 Side load on engine mount.
23.365 Pressurized cabin loads.
23.367 Unsymmetrical loads due to engine
failure.
23.369 Rear lift truss.
23.371 Gyroscopic and aerodynamic loads.
23.373 Speed control devices.
TRIM
CONTROL SURFACE AND SYSTEM LOADS
STABILITY
23.171 General.
23.173 Static longitudinal stability.
23.175 Demonstration of static longitudinal
stability.
23.177 Static directional and lateral stability.
23.181 Dynamic stability.
23.391
23.393
23.395
23.397
23.399
23.405
23.407
23.409
23.415
HORIZONTAL STABILIZING AND BALANCING
SURFACES
STALLS
23.201 Wings level stall.
23.203 Turning flight and accelerated turning stalls.
23.207 Stall warning.
Control surface loads.
Loads parallel to hinge line.
Control system loads.
Limit control forces and torques.
Dual control system.
Secondary control system.
Trim tab effects.
Tabs.
Ground gust conditions.
23.421
23.423
23.425
23.427
Balancing loads.
Maneuvering loads.
Gust loads.
Unsymmetrical loads.
23.441
23.443
23.445
Maneuvering loads.
Gust loads.
Outboard fins or winglets.
VERTICAL SURFACES
SPINNING
23.221
Spinning.
GROUND AND WATER HANDLING
CHARACTERISTICS
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
23.231
23.233
23.235
23.237
23.239
AILERONS AND SPECIAL DEVICES
Longitudinal stability and control.
Directional stability and control.
Operation on unpaved surfaces.
Operation on water.
Spray characteristics.
23.455
23.459
GROUND LOADS
23.471 General.
23.473 Ground load conditions and assumptions.
23.477 Landing gear arrangement.
23.479 Level landing conditions.
23.481 Tail down landing conditions.
MISCELLANEOUS FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS
23.251
23.253
23.255
Ailerons.
Special devices.
Vibration and buffeting.
High speed characteristics.
Out of trim characteristics.
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23.483 One-wheel landing conditions.
23.485 Side load conditions.
23.493 Braked roll conditions.
23.497 Supplementary conditions for tail
wheels.
23.499 Supplementary conditions for nose
wheels.
23.505 Supplementary conditions for skiplanes.
23.507 Jacking loads.
23.509 Towing loads.
23.511 Ground load; unsymmetrical loads on
multiple-wheel units.
WATER LOADS
23.521 Water load conditions.
23.523 Design weights and center of gravity
positions.
23.525 Application of loads.
23.527 Hull and main float load factors.
23.529 Hull and main float landing conditions.
23.531 Hull and main float takeoff condition.
23.533 Hull and main float bottom pressures.
23.535 Auxiliary float loads.
23.537 Seawing loads.
EMERGENCY LANDING CONDITIONS
23.561 General.
23.562 Emergency landing dynamic conditions.
FATIGUE EVALUATION
23.571 Metallic pressurized cabin structures.
23.572 Metallic wing, empennage, and associated structures.
23.573 Damage tolerance and fatigue evaluation of structure.
23.574 Metallic damage tolerance and fatigue evaluation of commuter category
airplanes.
23.575 Inspections and other procedures.
Subpart D—Design and Construction
23.601 General.
23.603 Materials and workmanship.
23.605 Fabrication methods.
23.607 Fasteners.
23.609 Protection of structure.
23.611 Accessibility provisions.
23.613 Material strength properties and design values.
23.619 Special factors.
23.621 Casting factors.
23.623 Bearing factors.
23.625 Fitting factors.
23.627 Fatigue strength.
23.629 Flutter.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
WINGS
23.641
Proof of strength.
23.651
Proof of strength.
CONTROL SURFACES
23.655
23.657
23.659
Installation.
Hinges.
Mass balance.
CONTROL SYSTEMS
23.671 General.
23.672 Stability augmentation and automatic and power-operated systems.
23.673 Primary flight controls.
23.675 Stops.
23.677 Trim systems.
23.679 Control system locks.
23.681 Limit load static tests.
23.683 Operation tests.
23.685 Control system details.
23.687 Spring devices.
23.689 Cable systems.
23.691 Artificial stall barrier system.
23.693 Joints.
23.697 Wing flap controls.
23.699 Wing flap position indicator.
23.701 Flap interconnection.
23.703 Takeoff warning system.
LANDING GEAR
23.721 General.
23.723 Shock absorption tests.
23.725 Limit drop tests.
23.726 Ground load dynamic tests.
23.727 Reserve energy absorption drop test.
23.729 Landing gear extension and retraction system.
23.731 Wheels.
23.733 Tires.
23.735 Brakes.
23.737 Skis.
23.745 Nose/tail wheel steering.
FLOATS AND HULLS
23.751
23.753
23.755
23.757
Main float buoyancy.
Main float design.
Hulls.
Auxiliary floats.
PERSONNEL AND CARGO ACCOMMODATIONS
23.771 Pilot compartment.
23.773 Pilot compartment view.
23.775 Windshields and windows.
23.777 Cockpit controls.
23.779 Motion and effect of cockpit controls.
23.781 Cockpit control knob shape.
23.783 Doors.
23.785 Seats, berths, litters, safety belts,
and shoulder harnesses.
23.787 Baggage and cargo compartments.
23.791 Passenger information signs.
23.803 Emergency evacuation.
23.805 Flightcrew emergency exits.
23.807 Emergency exits.
23.811 Emergency exit marking.
23.812 Emergency lighting.
23.813 Emergency exit access.
23.815 Width of aisle.
23.831 Ventilation.
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Pt. 23
PRESSURIZATION
23.841
23.843
Pressurized cabins.
Pressurization tests.
FIRE PROTECTION
23.851 Fire extinguishers.
23.853 Passenger and crew compartment interiors.
23.855 Cargo and baggage compartment fire
protection.
23.856 Thermal/acoustic insulation materials.
23.859 Combustion heater fire protection.
23.863 Flammable fluid fire protection.
23.865 Fire protection of flight controls, engine mounts, and other flight structure.
23.993 Fuel system lines and fittings.
23.994 Fuel system components.
23.995 Fuel valves and controls.
23.997 Fuel strainer or filter.
23.999 Fuel system drains.
23.1001 Fuel jettisoning system.
OIL SYSTEM
23.1011
23.1013
23.1015
23.1017
23.1019
23.1021
23.1023
23.1027
ELECTRICAL BONDING AND LIGHTNING
PROTECTION
COOLING
23.867 Electrical bonding and protection
against lightning and static electricity.
MISCELLANEOUS
23.871
Leveling means.
23.1041 General.
23.1043 Cooling tests.
23.1045 Cooling test procedures for turbine
engine powered airplanes.
23.1047 Cooling test procedures for reciprocating engine powered airplanes.
Subpart E—Powerplant
LIQUID COOLING
GENERAL
23.901 Installation.
23.903 Engines.
23.904 Automatic power reserve system.
23.905 Propellers.
23.907 Propeller vibration and fatigue.
23.909 Turbocharger systems.
23.925 Propeller clearance.
23.929 Engine installation ice protection.
23.933 Reversing systems.
23.934 Turbojet and turbofan engine thrust
reverser systems tests.
23.937 Turbopropeller-drag
limiting
systems.
23.939 Powerplant operating characteristics.
23.943 Negative acceleration.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
FUEL SYSTEM
23.951 General.
23.953 Fuel system independence.
23.954 Fuel system lightning protection.
23.955 Fuel flow.
23.957 Flow between interconnected tanks.
23.959 Unusable fuel supply.
23.961 Fuel system hot weather operation.
23.963 Fuel tanks: General.
23.965 Fuel tank tests.
23.967 Fuel tank installation.
23.969 Fuel tank expansion space.
23.971 Fuel tank sump.
23.973 Fuel tank filler connection.
23.975 Fuel tank vents and carburetor vapor
vents.
23.977 Fuel tank outlet.
23.979 Pressure fueling systems.
FUEL SYSTEM COMPONENTS
23.991
General.
Oil tanks.
Oil tank tests.
Oil lines and fittings.
Oil strainer or filter.
Oil system drains.
Oil radiators.
Propeller feathering system.
Fuel pumps.
23.1061
23.1063
Installation.
Coolant tank tests.
INDUCTION SYSTEM
23.1091 Air induction system.
23.1093 Induction system icing protection.
23.1095 Carburetor deicing fluid flow rate.
23.1097 Carburetor deicing fluid system capacity.
23.1099 Carburetor deicing fluid system detail design.
23.1101 Induction air preheater design.
23.1103 Induction system ducts.
23.1105 Induction system screens.
23.1107 Induction system filters.
23.1109 Turbocharger bleed air system.
23.1111 Turbine engine bleed air system.
EXHAUST SYSTEM
23.1121
23.1123
23.1125
General.
Exhaust system.
Exhaust heat exchangers.
POWERPLANT CONTROLS AND ACCESSORIES
23.1141 Powerplant controls: General.
23.1142 Auxiliary power unit controls.
23.1143 Engine controls.
23.1145 Ignition switches.
23.1147 Mixture controls.
23.1149 Propeller speed and pitch controls.
23.1153 Propeller feathering controls.
23.1155 Turbine engine reverse thrust and
propeller pitch settings below the flight
regime.
23.1157 Carburetor air temperature controls.
23.1163 Powerplant accessories.
23.1165 Engine ignition systems.
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POWERPLANT FIRE PROTECTION
23.1181 Designated fire zones; regions included.
23.1182 Nacelle areas behind firewalls.
23.1183 Lines, fittings, and components.
23.1189 Shutoff means.
23.1191 Firewalls.
23.1192 Engine accessory compartment diaphragm.
23.1193 Cowling and nacelle.
23.1195 Fire extinguishing systems.
23.1197 Fire extinguishing agents.
23.1199 Extinguishing agent containers.
23.1201 Fire extinguishing systems materials.
23.1203 Fire detector system.
23.1389 Position light distribution and intensities.
23.1391 Minimum intensities in the horizontal plane of position lights.
23.1393 Minimum intensities in any vertical
plane of position lights.
23.1395 Maximum intensities in overlapping
beams of position lights.
23.1397 Color specifications.
23.1399 Riding light.
23.1401 Anticollision light system.
SAFETY EQUIPMENT
23.1411 General.
23.1415 Ditching equipment.
23.1416 Pneumatic de-icer boot system.
23.1419 Ice protection.
Subpart F—Equipment
MISCELLANEOUS EQUIPMENT
GENERAL
23.1301 Function and installation.
23.1303 Flight and navigation instruments.
23.1305 Powerplant instruments.
23.1306 Electrical and electronic system
lightning protection.
23.1307 Miscellaneous equipment.
23.1308 High-intensity
Radiated
Fields
(HIRF) Protection.
23.1309 Equipment, systems, and installations.
23.1310 Power source capacity and distribution.
INSTRUMENTS: INSTALLATION
23.1311 Electronic display instrument systems.
23.1321 Arrangement and visibility.
23.1322 Warning, caution, and advisory
lights.
23.1323 Airspeed indicating system.
23.1325 Static pressure system.
23.1326 Pitot heat indication systems.
23.1327 Magnetic direction indicator.
23.1329 Automatic pilot system.
23.1331 Instruments using a power source.
23.1335 Flight director systems.
23.1337 Powerplant instruments installation.
ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS AND EQUIPMENT
23.1351 General.
23.1353 Storage battery design and installation.
23.1357 Circuit protective devices.
23.1359 Electrical system fire protection.
23.1361 Master switch arrangement.
23.1365 Electric cables and equipment.
23.1367 Switches.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
LIGHTS
23.1381 Instrument lights.
23.1383 Taxi and landing lights.
23.1385 Position light system installation.
23.1387 Position light system dihedral angles.
23.1431 Electronic equipment.
23.1435 Hydraulic systems.
23.1437 Accessories for multiengine airplanes.
23.1438 Pressurization and pneumatic systems.
23.1441 Oxygen equipment and supply.
23.1443 Minimum mass flow of supplemental
oxygen.
23.1445 Oxygen distribution system.
23.1447 Equipment standards for oxygen dispensing units.
23.1449 Means for determining use of oxygen.
23.1450 Chemical oxygen generators.
23.1451 Fire protection for oxygen equipment.
23.1453 Protection of oxygen equipment
from rupture.
23.1457 Cockpit voice recorders.
23.1459 Flight data recorders.
23.1461 Equipment containing high energy
rotors.
Subpart G—Operating Limitations and
Information
23.1501 General.
23.1505 Airspeed limitations.
23.1507 Operating maneuvering speed.
23.1511 Flap extended speed.
23.1513 Minimum control speed.
23.1519 Weight and center of gravity.
23.1521 Powerplant limitations.
23.1522 Auxiliary power unit limitations.
23.1523 Minimum flight crew.
23.1524 Maximum passenger seating configuration.
23.1525 Kinds of operation.
23.1527 Maximum operating altitude.
23.1529 Instructions for Continued Airworthiness.
MARKINGS AND PLACARDS
23.1541
23.1543
23.1545
General.
Instrument markings: General.
Airspeed indicator.
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23.1547 Magnetic direction indicator.
23.1549 Powerplant and auxiliary power unit
instruments.
23.1551 Oil quantity indicator.
23.1553 Fuel quantity indicator.
23.1555 Control markings.
23.1557 Miscellaneous markings and placards.
23.1559 Operating limitations placard.
23.1561 Safety equipment.
23.1563 Airspeed placards.
23.1567 Flight maneuver placard.
AIRPLANE FLIGHT MANUAL AND APPROVED
MANUAL MATERIAL
23.1581 General.
23.1583 Operating limitations.
23.1585 Operating procedures.
23.1587 Performance information.
23.1589 Loading information.
APPENDIX A TO PART 23—SIMPLIFIED DESIGN
LOAD CRITERIA
APPENDIX B TO PART 23 [RESERVED]
APPENDIX C TO PART 23—BASIC LANDING CONDITIONS
APPENDIX D TO PART 23—WHEEL SPIN-UP AND
SPRING-BACK LOADS
APPENDIX E TO PART 23 [RESERVED]
APPENDIX F TO PART 23—TEST PROCEDURE
APPENDIX G TO PART 23—INSTRUCTIONS FOR
CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS
APPENDIX H TO PART 23—INSTALLATION OF AN
AUTOMATIC POWER RESERVE (APR) SYSTEM
APPENDIX I TO PART 23—SEAPLANE LOADS
APPENDIX J TO PART 23—HIRF ENVIRONMENTS
AND EQUIPMENT HIRF TEST LEVELS
AUTHORITY: 49 U.S.C. 106(g), 40113, 44701–
44702, 44704.
SOURCE: Docket No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec.
18, 1964; 30 FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, unless otherwise noted.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
SPECIAL FEDERAL AVIATION REGULATION
NO. 23
1. Applicability. An applicant is entitled to
a type certificate in the normal category for
a reciprocating or turbopropeller multiengine powered small airplane that is to be certificated to carry more than 10 occupants
and that is intended for use in operations
under Part 135 of the Federal Aviation Regulations if he shows compliance with the applicable requirements of Part 23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations, as supplemented
or modified by the additional airworthiness
requirements of this regulation.
2. References. Unless otherwise provided, all
references in this regulation to specific sections of Part 23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations are those sections of Part 23 in effect on March 30, 1967.
FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS
3. General. Compliance must be shown with
the applicable requirements of Subpart B of
Part 23 of the Federal Aviation Regulations
in effect on March 30, 1967, as supplemented
or modified in sections 4 through 10 of this
regulation.
PERFORMANCE
4. General. (a) Unless otherwise prescribed
in this regulation, compliance with each applicable performance requirement in sections
4 through 7 of this regulation must be shown
for ambient atmospheric conditions and still
air.
(b) The performance must correspond to
the propulsive thrust available under the
particular ambient atmospheric conditions
and the particular flight condition. The
available propulsive thrust must correspond
to engine power or thrust, not exceeding the
approved power or thrust less—
(1) Installation losses; and
(2) The power or equivalent thrust absorbed by the accessories and services appropriate to the particular ambient atmospheric
conditions and the particular flight condition.
(c) Unless otherwise prescribed in this regulation, the applicant must select the takeoff, en route, and landing configurations for
the airplane.
(d) The airplane configuration may vary
with weight, altitude, and temperature, to
the extent they are compatible with the operating procedures required by paragraph (e)
of this section.
(e) Unless otherwise prescribed in this regulation, in determining the critical engine
inoperative takeoff performance, the accelerate-stop
distance,
takeoff
distance,
changes in the airplane’s configuration,
speed, power, and thrust, must be made in
accordance with procedures established by
the applicant for operation in service.
(f) Procedures for the execution of balked
landings must be established by the applicant and included in the Airplane Flight
Manual.
(g) The procedures established under paragraphs (e) and (f) of this section must—
(1) Be able to be consistently executed in
service by a crew of average skill;
(2) Use methods or devices that are safe
and reliable; and
(3) Include allowance for any time delays,
in the execution of the procedures, that may
reasonably be expected in service.
5. Takeoff—(a) General. The takeoff speeds
described in paragraph (b), the acceleratestop distance described in paragraph (c), and
the takeoff distance described in paragraph
(d), must be determined for—
(1) Each weight, altitude, and ambient
temperature within the operational limits
selected by the applicant;
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14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(2) The selected configuration for takeoff;
(3) The center of gravity in the most unfavorable position;
(4) The operating engine within approved
operating limitation; and
(5) Takeoff data based on smooth, dry,
hard-surface runway.
(b) Takeoff speeds. (1) The decision speed V1
is the calibrated airspeed on the ground at
which, as a result of engine failure or other
reasons, the pilot is assumed to have made a
decision to continue or discontinue the takeoff. The speed V1 must be selected by the applicant but may not be less than—
(i) 1.10 Vs1;
(ii) 1.10 VMC;
(iii) A speed that permits acceleration to
V1 and stop in accordance with paragraph (c)
allowing credit for an overrun distance equal
to that required to stop the airplane from a
ground speed of 35 knots utilizing maximum
braking; or
(iv) A speed at which the airplane can be
rotated for takeoff and shown to be adequate
to safely continue the takeoff, using normal
piloting skill, when the critical engine is
suddenly made inoperative.
(2) Other essential takeoff speeds necessary
for safe operation of the airplane must be determined and shown in the Airplane Flight
Manual.
(c) Accelerate-stop distance. (1) The accelerate-stop distance is the sum of the distances necessary to—
(i) Accelerate the airplane from a standing
start to V1; and
(ii) Decelerate the airplane from V1 to a
speed not greater than 35 knots, assuming
that in the case of engine failure, failure of
the critical engine is recognized by the pilot
at the speed V1. The landing gear must remain in the extended position and maximum
braking may be utilized during deceleration.
(2) Means other than wheel brakes may be
used to determine the accelerate-stop distance if that means is available with the
critical engine inoperative and—
(i) Is safe and reliable;
(ii) Is used so that consistent results can
be expected under normal operating conditions; and
(iii) Is such that exceptional skill is not required to control the airplane.
(d) All engines operating takeoff distance.
The all engine operating takeoff distance is
the horizontal distance required to takeoff
and climb to a height of 50 feet above the
takeoff surface according to procedures in
FAR 23.51(a).
(e) One-engine-inoperative takeoff. The maximum weight must be determined for each
altitude and temperature within the operational limits established for the airplane, at
which the airplane has takeoff capability
after failure of the critical engine at or
above V1 determined in accordance with
paragraph (b) of this section. This capability
may be established—
(1) By demonstrating a measurably positive rate of climb with the airplane in the
takeoff configuration, landing gear extended;
or
(2) By demonstrating the capability of
maintaining flight after engine failure utilizing procedures prescribed by the applicant.
6. Climb—(a) Landing climb: All-engines-operating. The maximum weight must be determined with the airplane in the landing configuration, for each altitude, and ambient
temperature within the operational limits
established for the airplane and with the
most unfavorable center of gravity and outof-ground effect in free air, at which the
steady gradient of climb will not be less than
3.3 percent, with:
(1) The engines at the power that is available 8 seconds after initiation of movement
of the power or thrust controls from the
mimimum flight idle to the takeoff position.
(2) A climb speed not greater than the approach speed established under section 7 of
this regulation and not less than the greater
of 1.05MC or 1.10VS1.
(b) En route climb, one-engine-inoperative. (1)
the maximum weight must be determined
with the airplane in the en route configuration, the critical engine inoperative, the remaining engine at not more than maximum
continuous power or thrust, and the most
unfavorable center of gravity, at which the
gradient at climb will be not less than—
(i) 1.2 percent (or a gradient equivalent to
0.20 Vso2, if greater) at 5,000 feet and an ambient temperature of 41 °F. or
(ii) 0.6 percent (or a gradient equivalent to
0.01 Vso2, if greater) at 5,000 feet and ambient
temperature of 81 °F.
(2) The minimum climb gradient specified
in subdivisions (i) and (ii) of subparagraph (1)
of this paragraph must vary linearly between
41 °F. and 81 °F. and must change at the same
rate up to the maximum operational temperature approved for the airplane.
7. Landing. The landing distance must be
determined for standard atmosphere at each
weight and altitude in accordance with FAR
23.75(a), except that instead of the gliding approach specified in FAR 23.75(a)(1), the landing may be preceded by a steady approach
down to the 50-foot height at a gradient of
descent not greater than 5.2 percent (3°) at a
calibrated airspeed not less than 1.3s1.
TRIM
8. Trim—(a) Lateral and directional trim. The
airplane must maintain lateral and directional trim in level flight at a speed of Vh or
VMO/MMO, whichever is lower, with landing
gear and wing flaps retracted.
(b) Longitudinal trim. The airplane must
maintain longitudinal trim during the following conditions, except that it need not
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maintain trim at a speed greater than VMO/
MMO™
(1) In the approach conditions specified in
FAR 23.161(c)(3) through (5), except that instead of the speeds specified therein, trim
must be maintained with a stick force of not
more than 10 pounds down to a speed used in
showing compliance with section 7 of this
regulation or 1.4 Vs1 whichever is lower.
(2) In level flight at any speed from VH or
VMO/MMO, whichever is lower, to either Vx or
1.4 Vs1, with the landing gear and wing flaps
retracted.
STABILITY
9. Static longitudinal stability. (a) In showing
compliance with the provisions of FAR
23.175(b) and with paragraph (b) of this section, the airspeed must return to within ±71⁄2
percent of the trim speed.
(b) Cruise stability. The stick force curve
must have a stable slope for a speed range of
±50 knots from the trim speed except that
the speeds need not exceed VFC/MFC or be
less than 1.4 Vs1. This speed range will be
considered to begin at the outer extremes of
the friction band and the stick force may not
exceed 50 pounds with—
(i) Landing gear retracted;
(ii) Wing flaps retracted;
(iii) The maximum cruising power as selected by the applicant as an operating limitation for turbine engines or 75 percent of
maximum continuous power for reciprocating engines except that the power need
not exceed that required at VMO/MMO™
(iv) Maximum takeoff weight; and
(v) The airplane trimmed for level flight
with the power specified in subparagraph
(iii) of this paragraph.
VFC/MFC may not be less than a speed midway between VMO/MMO and VDF/MDF, except
that, for altitudes where Mach number is the
limiting factor, MFC need not exceed the
Mach number at which effective speed warning occurs.
(c) Climb stability. For turbopropeller powered
airplanes only. In showing compliance with
FAR 23.175(a), an applicant must in lieu of
the power specified in FAR 23.175(a)(4), use
the maximum power or thrust selected by
the applicant as an operating limitation for
use during climb at the best rate of climb
speed except that the speed need not be less
than 1.4 Vs1.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
STALLS
10. Stall warning. If artificial stall warning
is required to comply with the requirements
of FAR 23.207, the warning device must give
clearly distinguishable indications under expected conditions of flight. The use of a visual warning device that requires the attention of the crew within the cockpit is not acceptable by itself.
CONTROL SYSTEMS
11. Electric trim tabs. The airplane must
meet the requirements of FAR 23.677 and in
addition it must be shown that the airplane
is safely controllable and that a pilot can
perform all the maneuvers and operations
necessary to effect a safe landing following
any probable electric trim tab runaway
which might be reasonably expected in service allowing for appropriate time delay after
pilot recognition of the runaway. This demonstration must be conducted at the critical
airplane weights and center of gravity positions.
INSTRUMENTS: INSTALLATION
12. Arrangement and visibility. Each instrument must meet the requirements of FAR
23.1321 and in addition—
(a) Each flight, navigation, and powerplant
instrument for use by any pilot must be
plainly visible to him from his station with
the minimum practicable deviation from his
normal position and line of vision when he is
looking forward along the flight path.
(b) The flight instruments required by FAR
23.1303 and by the applicable operating rules
must be grouped on the instrument panel
and centered as nearly as practicable about
the vertical plane of each pilot’s forward vision. In addition—
(1) The instrument that most effectively
indicates the attitude must be on the panel
in the top center position;
(2) The instrument that most effectively
indicates airspeed must be adjacent to and
directly to the left of the instrument in the
top center position;
(3) The instrument that most effectively
indicates altitude must be adjacent to and
directly to the right of the instrument in the
top center position; and
(4) The instrument that most effectively
indicates direction of flight must be adjacent
to and directly below the instrument in the
top center position.
13. Airspeed indicating system. Each airspeed
indicating system must meet the requirements of FAR 23.1323 and in addition—
(a) Airspeed indicating instruments must
be of an approved type and must be calibrated to indicate true airspeed at sea level
in the standard atmosphere with a
mimimum practicable instrument calibration error when the corresponding pilot and
static pressures are supplied to the instruments.
(b) The airspeed indicating system must be
calibrated to determine the system error,
i.e., the relation between IAS and CAS, in
flight and during the accelerate takeoff
ground run. The ground run calibration must
be obtained between 0.8 of the mimimum
value of V1 and 1.2 times the maximum value
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of V1, considering the approved ranges of altitude and weight. The ground run calibration will be determined assuming an engine
failure at the mimimum value of V1.
(c) The airspeed error of the installation
excluding the instrument calibration error,
must not exceed 3 percent or 5 knots whichever is greater, throughout the speed range
from VMO to 1.3S1 with flaps retracted and
from 1.3 VSO to VFE with flaps in the landing
position.
(d) Information showing the relationship
between IAS and CAS must be shown in the
Airplane Flight Manual.
14. Static air vent system. The static air vent
system must meet the requirements of FAR
23.1325. The altimeter system calibration
must be determined and shown in the Airplane Flight Manual.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
OPERATING LIMITATIONS AND INFORMATION
15. Maximum operating limit speed VMO/MMO.
Instead of establishing operating limitations
based on VME and VNO, the applicant must
establish a maximum operating limit speed
VMO/MMO in accordance with the following:
(a) The maximum operating limit speed
must not exceed the design cruising speed Vc
and must be sufficiently below VD/MD or
VDF/MDF to make it highly improbable that
the latter speeds will be inadvertently exceeded in flight.
(b) The speed Vmo must not exceed 0.8 VD/
MD or 0.8 VDF/MDF unless flight demonstrations involving upsets as specified by the Administrator indicates a lower speed margin
will not result in speeds exceeding VD/MD or
VDF. Atmospheric variations, horizontal
gusts, and equipment errors, and airframe
production variations will be taken into account.
16. Minimum flight crew. In addition to
meeting the requirements of FAR 23.1523, the
applicant must establish the minimum number and type of qualified flight crew personnel sufficient for safe operation of the
airplane considering—
(a) Each kind of operation for which the
applicant desires approval;
(b) The workload on each crewmember considering the following:
(1) Flight path control.
(2) Collision avoidance.
(3) Navigation.
(4) Communications.
(5) Operation and monitoring of all essential aircraft systems.
(6) Command decisions; and
(c) The accessibility and ease of operation
of necessary controls by the appropriate
crewmember during all normal and emergency operations when at his flight station.
17. Airspeed indicator. The airspeed indicator must meet the requirements of FAR
23.1545 except that, the airspeed notations
and markings in terms of VNO and VNE
must be replaced by the VMO/MMO notations.
The airspeed indicator markings must be
easily read and understood by the pilot. A
placard adjacent to the airspeed indicator is
an acceptable means of showing compliance
with the requirements of FAR 23.1545(c).
AIRPLANE FLIGHT MANUAL
18. General. The Airplane Flight Manual
must be prepared in accordance with the requirements of FARs 23.1583 and 23.1587, and
in addition the operating limitations and
performance information set forth in sections 19 and 20 must be included.
19. Operating limitations. The Airplane
Flight Manual must include the following
limitations—
(a) Airspeed limitations. (1) The maximum
operating limit speed VMO/MMO and a statement that this speed limit may not be deliberately exceeded in any regime of flight
(climb, cruise, or descent) unless a higher
speed is authorized for flight test or pilot
training;
(2) If an airspeed limitation is based upon
compressibility effects, a statement to this
effect and information as to any symptoms,
the probable behavior of the airplane, and
the recommended recovery procedures; and
(3) The airspeed limits, shown in terms of
VMO/MMO instead of VNO and VNE.
(b) Takeoff weight limitations. The maximum takeoff weight for each airport elevation, ambient temperature, and available
takeoff runway length within the range selected by the applicant. This weight may not
exceed the weight at which:
(1) The all-engine operating takeoff distance determined in accordance with section
5(d) or the accelerate-stop distance determined in accordance with section 5(c), which
ever is greater, is equal to the available runway length;
(2) The airplane complies with the one-engine-inoperative takeoff requirements specified in section 5(e); and
(3) The airplane complies with the one-engine-inoperative en route climb requirements specified in section 6(b), assuming
that a standard temperature lapse rate exists from the airport elevation to the altitude of 5,000 feet, except that the weight may
not exceed that corresponding to a temperature of 41 °F at 5,000 feet.
20. Performance information. The Airplane
Flight Manual must contain the performance
information determined in accordance with
the provisions of the performance requirements of this regulation. The information
must include the following:
(a) Sufficient information so that the takeoff weight limits specified in section 19(b)
can be determined for all temperatures and
altitudes within the operation limitations
selected by the applicant.
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(b) The conditions under which the performance information was obtained, including the airspeed at the 50-foot height used to
determine landing distances.
(c) The performance information (determined by extrapolation and computed for the
range of weights between the maximum
landing and takeoff weights) for—
(1) Climb in the landing configuration; and
(2) Landing distance.
(d) Procedure established under section 4 of
this regulation related to the limitations
and information required by this section in
the form of guidance material including any
relevant limitations or information.
(e) An explanation of significant or unusual flight or ground handling characteristics of the airplane.
(f) Airspeeds, as indicated airspeeds, corresponding to those determined for takeoff
in accordance with section 5(b).
21. Maximum operating altitudes. The maximum operating altitude to which operation
is permitted, as limited by flight, structural,
powerplant, functional, or equipment characteristics, must be specified in the Airplane
Flight Manual.
22. Stowage provision for Airplane Flight
Manual. Provision must be made for stowing
the Airplane Flight Manual in a suitable
fixed container which is readily accessible to
the pilot.
23. Operating procedures. Procedures for restarting turbine engines in flight (including
the effects of altitude) must be set forth in
the Airplane Flight Manual.
AIRFRAME REQUIREMENTS
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
FLIGHT LOADS
24. Engine torque. (a) Each turbopropeller
engine mount and its supporting structure
must be designed for the torque effects of—
(1) The conditions set forth in FAR
23.361(a).
(2) The limit engine torque corresponding
to takeoff power and propeller speed, multiplied by a factor accounting for propeller
control system malfunction, including quick
feathering action, simultaneously with 1 g
level flight loads. In the absence of a rational analysis, a factor of 1.6 must be used.
(b) The limit torque is obtained by multiplying the mean torque by a factor of 1.25.
25. Turbine engine gyroscopic loads. Each
turbopropeller engine mount and its supporting structure must be designed for the
gyroscopic loads that result, with the engines at maximum continuous r.p.m., under
either—
(a) The conditions prescribed in FARs
23.351 and 23.423; or
(b) All possible combinations of the following:
(1) A yaw velocity of 2.5 radius per second.
(2) A pitch velocity of 1.0 radians per second.
(3) A normal load factor of 2.5.
(4) Maximum continuous thrust.
26. Unsymmetrical loads due to engine failure.
(a) Turbopropeller powered airplanes must
be designed for the unsymmetrical loads resulting from the failure of the critical engine
including the following conditions in combination with a single malfunction of the
propeller drag limiting system, considering
the probable pilot corrective action on the
flight controls.
(1) At speeds between VMC and VD, the
loads resulting from power failure because of
fuel flow interruption are considered to be
limit loads.
(2) At speeds between VMC and VC, the
loads resulting from the disconnection of the
engine compressor from the turbine or from
loss of the turbine blades are considered to
be ultimate loads.
(3) The time history of the thrust decay
and drag buildup occurring as a result of the
prescribed engine failures must be substantiated by test or other data applicable to the
particular engine-propeller combination.
(4) The timing and magnitude of the probable pilot corrective action must be conservatively estimated, considering the characteristics of the particular engine-propeller-airplane combination.
(b) Pilot corrective action may be assumed
to be initiated at the time maximum yawing
velocity is reached, but not earlier than two
seconds after the engine failure. The magnitude of the corrective action may be based
on the control forces specified in FAR 23.397
except that lower forces may be assumed
where it is shown by analysis or test that
these forces can control the yaw and roll resulting from the prescribed engine failure
conditions.
GROUND LOADS
27. Dual wheel landing gear units. Each dual
wheel landing gear unit and its supporting
structure must be shown to comply with the
following:
(a) Pivoting. The airplane must be assumed
to pivot about one side of the main gear with
the brakes on that side locked. The limit
vertical load factor must be 1.0 and the coefficient of friction 0.8. This condition need
apply only to the main gear and its supporting structure.
(b) Unequal tire inflation. A 60–40 percent
distribution of the loads established in accordance with FAR 23.471 through FAR 23.483
must be applied to the dual wheels.
(c) Flat tire. (1) Sixty percent of the loads
specified in FAR 23.471 through FAR 23.483
must be applied to either wheel in a unit.
(2) Sixty percent of the limit drag and side
loads and 100 percent of the limit vertical
load established in accordance with FARs
23.493 and 23.485 must be applied to either
wheel in a unit except that the vertical load
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need not exceed the maximum vertical load
in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
FATIGUE EVALUATION
28. Fatigue evaluation of wing and associated
structure. Unless it is shown that the structure, operating stress levels, materials, and
expected use are comparable from a fatigue
standpoint to a similar design which has had
substantial satisfactory service experience,
the strength, detail design, and the fabrication of those parts of the wing, wing carrythrough, and attaching structure whose failure would be catastrophic must be evaluated
under either—
(a) A fatigue strength investigation in
which the structure is shown by analysis,
tests, or both to be able to withstand the repeated loads of variable magnitude expected
in service; or
(b) A fail-safe strength investigation in
which it is shown by analysis, tests, or both
that catastrophic failure of the structure is
not probable after fatigue, or obvious partial
failure, of a principal structural element,
and that the remaining structure is able to
withstand a static ultimate load factor of 75
percent of the critical limit load factor at Vc.
These loads must be multiplied by a factor of
1.15 unless the dynamic effects of failure
under static load are otherwise considered.
DESIGN AND CONSTRUCTION
29. Flutter. For Multiengine turbopropeller
powered airplanes, a dynamic evaluation
must be made and must include—
(a) The significant elastic, inertia, and aerodynamic forces associated with the rotations and displacements of the plane of the
propeller; and
(b) Engine-propeller-nacelle stiffness and
damping variations appropriate to the particular configuration.
LANDING GEAR
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
30. Flap operated landing gear warning device. Airplanes having retractable landing
gear and wing flaps must be equipped with a
warning device that functions continuously
when the wing flaps are extended to a flap
position that activates the warning device to
give adequate warning before landing, using
normal landing procedures, if the landing
gear is not fully extended and locked. There
may not be a manual shut off for this warning device. The flap position sensing unit
may be installed at any suitable location.
The system for this device may use any part
of the system (including the aural warning
device) provided for other landing gear warning devices.
PERSONNEL AND CARGO ACCOMMODATIONS
31. Cargo and baggage compartments. Cargo
and baggage compartments must be designed
to meet the requirements of FAR 23.787 (a)
and (b), and in addition means must be provided to protect passengers from injury by
the contents of any cargo or baggage compartment when the ultimate forward inertia
force is 9g.
32. Doors and exits. The airplane must meet
the requirements of FAR 23.783 and FAR
23.807 (a)(3), (b), and (c), and in addition:
(a) There must be a means to lock and
safeguard each external door and exit
against opening in flight either inadvertently by persons, or as a result of mechanical failure. Each external door must be operable from both the inside and the outside.
(b) There must be means for direct visual
inspection of the locking mechanism by
crewmembers to determine whether external
doors and exits, for which the initial opening
movement is outward, are fully locked. In
addition, there must be a visual means to
signal to crewmembers when normally used
external doors are closed and fully locked.
(c) The passenger entrance door must qualify as a floor level emergency exit. Each additional required emergency exit except floor
level exits must be located over the wing or
must be provided with acceptable means to
assist the occupants in descending to the
ground. In addition to the passenger entrance door:
(1) For a total seating capacity of 15 or
less, an emergency exit as defined in FAR
23.807(b) is required on each side of the cabin.
(2) For a total seating capacity of 16
through 23, three emergency exits as defined
in 23.807(b) are required with one on the same
side as the door and two on the side opposite
the door.
(d) An evacuation demonstration must be
conducted utilizing the maximum number of
occupants for which certification is desired.
It must be conducted under simulated night
conditions utilizing only the emergency
exits on the most critical side of the aircraft.
The participants must be representative of
average airline passengers with no prior
practice or rehearsal for the demonstration.
Evacuation must be completed within 90 seconds.
(e) Each emergency exit must be marked
with the word ‘‘Exit’’ by a sign which has
white letters 1 inch high on a red background 2 inches high, be self-illuminated or
independently internally electrically illuminated, and have a minimum luminescence
(brightness) of at least 160 microlamberts.
The colors may be reversed if the passenger
compartment illumination is essentially the
same.
(f) Access to window type emergency exits
must not be obstructed by seats or seat
backs.
(g) The width of the main passenger aisle
at any point between seats must equal or exceed the values in the following table.
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(k) List of special tools.
Minimum main passenger aisle
width
Total seating capacity
10 through 23 ...........
Less than 25
inches from floor
25 inches and
more from floor
9 inches .............
15 inches.
PROPULSION
GENERAL
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
MISCELLANEOUS
33. Lightning strike protection. Parts that
are electrically insulated from the basic airframe must be connected to it through lightning arrestors unless a lightning strike on
the insulated part—
(a) Is improbable because of shielding by
other parts; or
(b) Is not hazardous.
34. Ice protection. If certification with ice
protection provisions is desired, compliance
with the following requirements must be
shown:
(a) The recommended procedures for the
use of the ice protection equipment must be
set forth in the Airplane Flight Manual.
(b) An analysis must be performed to establish, on the basis of the airplane’s operational needs, the adequacy of the ice protection system for the various components of
the airplane. In addition, tests of the ice protection system must be conducted to demonstrate that the airplane is capable of operating safely in continuous maximum and
intermittent maximum icing conditions as
described in FAR 25, appendix C.
(c) Compliance with all or portions of this
section may be accomplished by reference,
where applicable because of similarity of the
designs, to analysis and tests performed by
the applicant for a type certificated model.
35. Maintenance information. The applicant
must make available to the owner at the
time of delivery of the airplane the information he considers essential for the proper
maintenance of the airplane. That information must include the following:
(a) Description of systems, including electrical, hydraulic, and fuel controls.
(b) Lubrication instructions setting forth
the frequency and the lubricants and fluids
which are to be used in the various systems.
(c) Pressures and electrical loads applicable to the various systems.
(d) Tolerances and adjustments necessary
for proper functioning.
(e) Methods of leveling, raising, and towing.
(f) Methods of balancing control surfaces.
(g) Identification of primary and secondary
structures.
(h) Frequency and extent of inspections
necessary to the proper operation of the airplane.
(i) Special repair methods applicable to the
airplane.
(j) Special inspection techniques, including
those that require X-ray, ultrasonic, and
magnetic particle inspection.
36. Vibration characteristics. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the engine installation must not result in vibration characteristics of the engine exceeding those established during the type certification of the
engine.
37. In-flight restarting of engine. If the engine on turbopropeller powered airplanes
cannot be restarted at the maximum cruise
altitude, a determination must be made of
the altitude below which restarts can be consistently accomplished. Restart information
must be provided in the Airplane Flight
Manual.
38. Engines—(a) For turbopropeller powered
airplanes. The engine installation must comply with the following requirements:
(1) Engine isolation. The powerplants must
be arranged and isolated from each other to
allow operation, in at least one configuration, so that the failure or malfunction of
any engine, or of any system that can affect
the engine, will not—
(i) Prevent the continued safe operation of
the remaining engines; or
(ii) Require immediate action by any crewmember for continued safe operation.
(2) Control of engine rotation. There must be
a means to individually stop and restart the
rotation of any engine in flight except that
engine rotation need not be stopped if continued rotation could not jeopardize the safety of the airplane. Each component of the
stopping and restarting system on the engine
side of the firewall, and that might be exposed to fire, must be at least fire resistant.
If hydraulic propeller feathering systems are
used for this purpose, the feathering lines
must be at least fire resistant under the operating conditions that may be expected to
exist during feathering.
(3) Engine speed and gas temperature control
devices. The powerplant systems associated
with engine control devices, systems, and instrumentation must provide reasonable assurance that those engine operating limitations that adversely affect turbine rotor
structural integrity will not be exceeded in
service.
(b) For reciprocating-engine powered airplanes. To provide engine isolation, the powerplants must be arranged and isolated from
each other to allow operation, in at least one
configuration, so that the failure or malfunction of any engine, or of any system that can
affect that engine, will not—
(1) Prevent the continued safe operation of
the remaining engines; or
(2) Require immediate action by any crewmember for continued safe operation.
39. Turbopropeller reversing systems. (a) Turbopropeller reversing systems intended for
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ground operation must be designed so that
no single failure or malfunction of the system will result in unwanted reverse thrust
under any expected operating condition.
Failure of structural elements need not be
considered if the probability of this kind of
failure is extremely remote.
(b) Turbopropeller reversing systems intended for in-flight use must be designed so
that no unsafe condition will result during
normal operation of the system, or from any
failure (or reasonably likely combination of
failures) of the reversing system, under any
anticipated condition of operation of the airplane. Failure of structural elements need
not be considered if the probability of this
kind of failure is extremely remote.
(c) Compliance with this section may be
shown by failure analysis, testing, or both
for propeller systems that allow propeller
blades to move from the flight low-pitch position to a position that is substantially less
than that at the normal flight low-pitch stop
position. The analysis may include or be supported by the analysis made to show compliance with the type certification of the propeller and associated installation components. Credit will be given for pertinent
analysis and testing completed by the engine
and propeller manufacturers.
40. Turbopropeller drag-limiting systems. Turbopropeller drag-limiting systems must be
designed so that no single failure or malfunction of any of the systems during normal or
emergency operation results in propeller
drag in excess of that for which the airplane
was designed. Failure of structural elements
of the drag-limiting systems need not be considered if the probability of this kind of failure is extremely remote.
41. Turbine engine powerplant operating
characteristics. For turbopropeller powered
airplanes, the turbine engine powerplant operating characteristics must be investigated
in flight to determine that no adverse characteristics (such as stall, surge, or flameout)
are present to a hazardous degree, during
normal and emergency operation within the
range of operating limitations of the airplane and of the engine.
42. Fuel flow. (a) For turbopropeller powered airplanes—
(1) The fuel system must provide for continuous supply of fuel to the engines for normal operation without interruption due to
depletion of fuel in any tank other than the
main tank; and
(2) The fuel flow rate for turbopropeller engine fuel pump systems must not be less
than 125 percent of the fuel flow required to
develop the standard sea level atmospheric
conditions takeoff power selected and included as an operating limitation in the Airplane Flight Manual.
(b) For reciprocating engine powered airplanes, it is acceptable for the fuel flow rate
for each pump system (main and reserve sup-
ply) to be 125 percent of the takeoff fuel consumption of the engine.
FUEL SYSTEM COMPONENTS
43. Fuel pumps. For turbopropeller powered
airplanes, a reliable and independent power
source must be provided for each pump used
with turbine engines which do not have provisions for mechanically driving the main
pumps. It must be demonstrated that the
pump installations provide a reliability and
durability equivalent to that provided by
FAR 23.991(a).
44. Fuel strainer or filter. For turbopropeller
powered airplanes, the following apply:
(a) There must be a fuel strainer or filter
between the tank outlet and the fuel metering device of the engine. In addition, the fuel
strainer or filter must be—
(1) Between the tank outlet and the engine-driven positive displacement pump
inlet, if there is an engine-driven positive
displacement pump;
(2) Accessible for drainage and cleaning
and, for the strainer screen, easily removable; and
(3) Mounted so that its weight is not supported by the connecting lines or by the
inlet or outlet connections of the strainer or
filter itself.
(b) Unless there are means in the fuel system to prevent the accumulation of ice on
the filter, there must be means to automatically maintain the fuel flow if ice-clogging of
the filter occurs; and
(c) The fuel strainer or filter must be of
adequate capacity (with respect to operating
limitations established to insure proper service) and of appropriate mesh to insure proper
engine operation, with the fuel contaminated
to a degree (with respect to particle size and
density) that can be reasonably expected in
service. The degree of fuel filtering may not
be less than that established for the engine
type certification.
45. Lightning strike protection. Protection
must be provided against the ignition of
flammable vapors in the fuel vent system
due to lightning strikes.
COOLING
46. Cooling test procedures for turbopropeller
powered airplanes. (a) Turbopropeller powered
airplanes must be shown to comply with the
requirements of FAR 23.1041 during takeoff,
climb en route, and landing stages of flight
that correspond to the applicable performance requirements. The cooling test must be
conducted with the airplane in the configuration and operating under the conditions
that are critical relative to cooling during
each stage of flight. For the cooling tests a
temperature is ‘‘stabilized’’ when its rate of
change is less than 2 °F. per minute.
(b) Temperatures must be stabilized under
the conditions from which entry is made into
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each stage of flight being investigated unless
the entry condition is not one during which
component and engine fluid temperatures
would stabilize, in which case, operation
through the full entry condition must be
conducted before entry into the stage of
flight being investigated in order to allow
temperatures to reach their natural levels at
the time of entry. The takeoff cooling test
must be preceded by a period during which
the powerplant component and engine fluid
temperatures are stabilized with the engines
at ground idle.
(c) Cooling tests for each stage of flight
must be continued until—
(1) The component and engine fluid temperatures stabilize;
(2) The stage of flight is completed; or
(3) An operating limitation is reached.
INDUCTION SYSTEM
47. Air induction. For turbopropeller powered airplanes—
(a) There must be means to prevent hazardous quantities of fuel leakage or overflow
from drains, vents, or other components of
flammable fluid systems from entering the
engine intake system; and
(b) The air inlet ducts must be located or
protected so as to minimize the ingestion of
foreign matter during takeoff, landing, and
taxiing.
48. Induction system icing protection. For
turbopropeller powered airplanes, each turbine engine must be able to operate throughout its flight power range without adverse
effect on engine operation or serious loss of
power or thrust, under the icing conditions
specified in appendix C of FAR 25. In addition, there must be means to indicate to appropriate flight crewmembers the functioning of the powerplant ice protection system.
49. Turbine engine bleed air systems. Turbine
engine bleed air systems of turbopropeller
powered airplanes must be investigated to
determine—
(a) That no hazard to the airplane will result if a duct rupture occurs. This condition
must consider that a failure of the duct can
occur anywhere between the engine port and
the airplane bleed service; and
(b) That if the bleed air system is used for
direct cabin pressurization, it is not possible
for hazardous contamination of the cabin air
system to occur in event of lubrication system failure.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
EXHAUST SYSTEM
50. Exhaust system drains. Turbopropeller
engine exhaust systems having low spots or
pockets must incorporate drains at such locations. These drains must discharge clear of
the airplane in normal and ground attitudes
to prevent the accumulation of fuel after the
failure of an attempted engine start.
POWERPLANT CONTROLS AND ACCESSORIES
51. Engine controls. If throttles or power levers for turbopropeller powered airplanes are
such that any position of these controls will
reduce the fuel flow to the engine(s) below
that necessary for satisfactory and safe idle
operation of the engine while the airplane is
in flight, a means must be provided to prevent inadvertent movement of the control
into this position. The means provided must
incorporate a positive lock or stop at this
idle position and must require a separate and
distinct operation by the crew to displace
the control from the normal engine operating range.
52. Reverse thrust controls. For turbopropeller powered airplanes, the propeller reverse thrust controls must have a means to
prevent their inadvertent operation. The
means must have a positive lock or stop at
the idle position and must require a separate
and distinct operation by the crew to displace the control from the flight regime.
53. Engine ignition systems. Each turbopropeller airplane ignition system must be
considered an essential electrical load.
54. Powerplant accessories. The powerplant
accessories must meet the requirements of
FAR 23.1163, and if the continued rotation of
any accessory remotely driven by the engine
is hazardous when malfunctioning occurs,
there must be means to prevent rotation
without interfering with the continued operation of the engine.
POWERPLANT FIRE PROTECTION
55. Fire detector system. For turbopropeller
powered airplanes, the following apply:
(a) There must be a means that ensures
prompt detection of fire in the engine compartment. An overtemperature switch in
each engine cooling air exit is an acceptable
method of meeting this requirement.
(b) Each fire detector must be constructed
and installed to withstand the vibration, inertia, and other loads to which it may be
subjected in operation.
(c) No fire detector may be affected by any
oil, water, other fluids, or fumes that might
be present.
(d) There must be means to allow the flight
crew to check, in flight, the functioning of
each fire detector electric circuit.
(e) Wiring and other components of each
fire detector system in a fire zone must be at
least fire resistant.
56. Fire protection, cowling and nacelle skin.
For reciprocating engine powered airplanes,
the engine cowling must be designed and
constructed so that no fire originating in the
engine compartment can enter, either
through openings or by burn through, any
other region where it would create additional hazards.
57. Flammable fluid fire protection. If flammable fluids or vapors might be liberated by
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14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
the leakage of fluid systems in areas other
than engine compartments, there must be
means to—
(a) Prevent the ignition of those fluids or
vapors by any other equipment; or
(b) Control any fire resulting from that ignition.
EQUIPMENT
58. Powerplant instruments. (a) The following are required for turbopropeller airplanes:
(1) The instruments required by FAR
23.1305 (a)(1) through (4), (b)(2) and (4).
(2) A gas temperature indicator for each
engine.
(3) Free air temperature indicator.
(4) A fuel flowmeter indicator for each engine.
(5) Oil pressure warning means for each engine.
(6) A torque indicator or adequate means
for indicating power output for each engine.
(7) Fire warning indicator for each engine.
(8) A means to indicate when the propeller
blade angle is below the low-pitch position
corresponding to idle operation in flight.
(9) A means to indicate the functioning of
the ice protection system for each engine.
(b) For turbopropeller powered airplanes,
the turbopropeller blade position indicator
must begin indicating when the blade has
moved below the flight low-pitch position.
(c) The following instruments are required
for reciprocating-engine powered airplanes:
(1) The instruments required by FAR
23.1305.
(2) A cylinder head temperature indicator
for each engine.
(3) A manifold pressure indicator for each
engine.
SYSTEMS AND EQUIPMENTS
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
GENERAL
59. Function and installation. The systems
and equipment of the airplane must meet the
requirements of FAR 23.1301, and the following:
(a) Each item of additional installed equipment must—
(1) Be of a kind and design appropriate to
its intended function;
(2) Be labeled as to its identification, function, or operating limitations, or any applicable combination of these factors, unless
misuse or inadvertent actuation cannot create a hazard;
(3) Be installed according to limitations
specified for that equipment; and
(4) Function properly when installed.
(b) Systems and installations must be designed to safeguard against hazards to the
aircraft in the event of their malfunction or
failure.
(c) Where an installation, the functioning
of which is necessary in showing compliance
with the applicable requirements, requires a
power supply, such installation must be considered an essential load on the power supply, and the power sources and the distribution system must be capable of supplying the
following power loads in probable operation
combinations and for probable durations:
(1) All essential loads after failure of any
prime mover, power converter, or energy
storage device.
(2) All essential loads after failure of any
one engine on two-engine airplanes.
(3) In determining the probable operating
combinations and durations of essential
loads for the power failure conditions described in subparagraphs (1) and (2) of this
paragraph, it is permissible to assume that
the power loads are reduced in accordance
with a monitoring procedure which is consistent with safety in the types of operations
authorized.
60. Ventilation. The ventilation system of
the airplane must meet the requirements of
FAR 23.831, and in addition, for pressurized
aircraft the ventilating air in flight crew and
passenger compartments must be free of
harmful or hazardous concentrations of
gases and vapors in normal operation and in
the event of reasonably probable failures or
malfunctioning of the ventilating, heating,
pressurization, or other systems, and equipment. If accumulation of hazardous quantities of smoke in the cockpit area is reasonably probable, smoke evacuation must be
readily accomplished.
ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS AND EQUIPMENT
61. General. The electrical systems and
equipment of the airplane must meet the requirements of FAR 23.1351, and the following:
(a) Electrical system capacity. The required
generating capacity, and number and kinds
of power sources must—
(1) Be determined by an electrical load
analysis, and
(2) Meet the requirements of FAR 23.1301.
(b) Generating system. The generating system includes electrical power sources, main
power busses, transmission cables, and associated control, regulation, and protective devices. It must be designed so that—
(1) The system voltage and frequency (as
applicable) at the terminals of all essential
load equipment can be maintained within
the limits for which the equipment is designed, during any probable operating conditions;
(2) System transients due to switching,
fault clearing, or other causes do not make
essential loads inoperative, and do not cause
a smoke or fire hazard;
(3) There are means, accessible in flight to
appropriate crewmembers, for the individual
and collective disconnection of the electrical
power sources from the system; and
(4) There are means to indicate to appropriate crewmembers the generating system
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.3
quantities essential for the safe operation of
the system, including the voltage and current supplied by each generator.
62. Electrical equipment and installation.
Electrical equipment controls, and wiring
must be installed so that operation of any
one unit or system of units will not adversely affect the simultaneous operation of
to the safe operation.
63. Distribution system. (a) For the purpose
of complying with this section, the distribution system includes the distribution busses,
their associated feeders and each control and
protective device.
(b) Each system must be designed so that
essential load circuits can be supplied in the
event of reasonably probable faults or open
circuits, including faults in heavy current
carrying cables.
(c) If two independent sources of electrical
power for particular equipment or systems
are required by this regulation, their electrical energy supply must be insured by
means such as duplicate electrical equipment, throwover switching, or multichannel
or loop circuits separately routed.
64. Circuit protective devices. The circuit
protective devices for the electrical circuits
of the airplane must meet the requirements
of FAR 23.1357, and in addition circuits for
loads which are essential to safe operation
must have individual and exclusive circuit
protection.
[Doc. No. 8070, 34 FR 189, Jan. 7, 1969, as
amended by SFAR 23–1, 34 FR 20176, Dec. 24,
1969; 35 FR 1102, Jan. 28, 1970]
Subpart A—General
§ 23.1 Applicability.
(a) This part prescribes airworthiness
standards for the issue of type certificates, and changes to those certificates, for airplanes in the normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter categories.
(b) Each person who applies under
Part 21 for such a certificate or change
must show compliance with the applicable requirements of this part.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1825, Jan. 15,
1987]
§ 23.2 Special
retroactive
requirements.
(a) Notwithstanding §§ 21.17 and 21.101
of this chapter and irrespective of the
type certification basis, each normal,
utility, and acrobatic category airplane having a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of
nine or less, manufactured after December 12, 1986, or any such foreign airplane for entry into the United States
must provide a safety belt and shoulder
harness for each forward- or aft-facing
seat which will protect the occupant
from serious head injury when subjected to the inertia loads resulting
from the ultimate static load factors
prescribed in § 23.561(b)(2) of this part,
or which will provide the occupant protection specified in § 23.562 of this part
when that section is applicable to the
airplane. For other seat orientations,
the seat/restraint system must be designed to provide a level of occupant
protection equivalent to that provided
for forward- or aft-facing seats with a
safety belt and shoulder harness installed.
(b) Each shoulder harness installed at
a flight crewmember station, as required by this section, must allow the
crewmember, when seated with the
safety belt and shoulder harness fastened, to perform all functions necessary for flight operations.
(c) For the purpose of this section,
the date of manufacture is:
(1) The date the inspection acceptance records, or equivalent, reflect
that the airplane is complete and
meets the FAA approved type design
data; or
(2) In the case of a foreign manufactured airplane, the date the foreign
civil airworthiness authority certifies
the airplane is complete and issues an
original standard airworthiness certificate, or the equivalent in that country.
[Amdt. 23–36, 53 FR 30812, Aug. 15, 1988]
§ 23.3 Airplane categories.
(a) The normal category is limited to
airplanes that have a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of nine or
less, a maximum certificated takeoff
weight of 12,500 pounds or less, and intended for nonacrobatic operation.
Nonacrobatic operation includes:
(1) Any maneuver incident to normal
flying;
(2) Stalls (except whip stalls); and
(3) Lazy eights, chandelles, and steep
turns, in which the angle of bank is not
more than 60 degrees.
(b) The utility category is limited to
airplanes that have a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of nine or
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§ 23.21
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
less, a maximum certificated takeoff
weight of 12,500 pounds or less, and intended for limited acrobatic operation.
Airplanes certificated in the utility
category may be used in any of the operations covered under paragraph (a) of
this section and in limited acrobatic
operations. Limited acrobatic operation includes:
(1) Spins (if approved for the particular type of airplane); and
(2) Lazy eights, chandelles, and steep
turns, or similar maneuvers, in which
the angle of bank is more than 60 degrees but not more than 90 degrees.
(c) The acrobatic category is limited
to airplanes that have a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of
nine or less, a maximum certificated
takeoff weight of 12,500 pounds or less,
and intended for use without restrictions, other than those shown to be
necessary as a result of required flight
tests.
(d) The commuter category is limited
to multiengine airplanes that have a
seating configuration, excluding pilot
seats, of 19 or less, and a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 19,000
pounds or less. The commuter category
operation is limited to any maneuver
incident to normal flying, stalls (except whip stalls), and steep turns, in
which the angle of bank is not more
than 60 degrees.
(e) Except for commuter category,
airplanes may be type certificated in
more than one category if the requirements of each requested category are
met.
(1) By tests upon an airplane of the
type for which certification is requested, or by calculations based on,
and equal in accuracy to, the results of
testing; and
(2) By systematic investigation of
each probable combination of weight
and center of gravity, if compliance
cannot be reasonably inferred from
combinations investigated.
(b) The following general tolerances
are allowed during flight testing. However, greater tolerances may be allowed in particular tests:
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–4, 32 FR 5934, Apr. 14,
1967; Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1825, Jan. 15, 1987; 52
FR 34745, Sept. 14, 1987; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR
5183, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753,
Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.25 Weight limits.
(a) Maximum weight. The maximum
weight is the highest weight at which
compliance with each applicable requirement of this part (other than
those complied with at the design landing weight) is shown. The maximum
weight must be established so that it
is—
(1) Not more than the least of—
(i) The highest weight selected by the
applicant; or
(ii) The design maximum weight,
which is the highest weight at which
compliance with each applicable structural loading condition of this part
(other than those complied with at the
design landing weight) is shown; or
Subpart B—Flight
GENERAL
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.21
Proof of compliance.
(a) Each requirement of this subpart
must be met at each appropriate combination of weight and center of gravity within the range of loading conditions for which certification is requested. This must be shown—
Item
Weight ...............................................
Critical items affected by weight .......
C.G ....................................................
Tolerance
+ 5%, –10%.
+ 5%, –1%.
±7% total travel.
§ 23.23 Load distribution limits.
(a) Ranges of weights and centers of
gravity within which the airplane may
be safely operated must be established.
If a weight and center of gravity combination is allowable only within certain lateral load distribution limits
that could be inadvertently exceeded,
these limits must be established for the
corresponding weight and center of
gravity combinations.
(b) The load distribution limits may
not exceed any of the following:
(1) The selected limits;
(2) The limits at which the structure
is proven; or
(3) The limits at which compliance
with each applicable flight requirement of this subpart is shown.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42156, Aug. 6, 1993]
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.33
(iii) The highest weight at which
compliance with each applicable flight
requirement is shown, and
(2) Not less than the weight with—
(i) Each seat occupied, assuming a
weight of 170 pounds for each occupant
for normal and commuter category airplanes, and 190 pounds for utility and
acrobatic category airplanes, except
that seats other than pilot seats may
be placarded for a lesser weight; and
(A) Oil at full capacity, and
(B) At least enough fuel for maximum continuous power operation of at
least 30 minutes for day-VFR approved
airplanes and at least 45 minutes for
night-VFR and IFR approved airplanes;
or
(ii) The required minimum crew, and
fuel and oil to full tank capacity.
(b) Minimum weight. The minimum
weight (the lowest weight at which
compliance with each applicable requirement of this part is shown) must
be established so that it is not more
than the sum of—
(1) The empty weight determined
under § 23.29;
(2) The weight of the required minimum crew (assuming a weight of 170
pounds for each crewmember); and
(3) The weight of—
(i) For turbojet powered airplanes, 5
percent of the total fuel capacity of
that particular fuel tank arrangement
under investigation, and
(ii) For other airplanes, the fuel necessary for one-half hour of operation at
maximum continuous power.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13086, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–21, 43 FR 2317, Jan. 16, 1978;
Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1825, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt.
23–45, 58 FR 42156, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61
FR 5183, Feb. 9, 1996]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.29 Empty
weight
and
responding center of gravity.
cor-
(a) The empty weight and corresponding center of gravity must be
determined by weighing the airplane
with—
(1) Fixed ballast;
(2) Unusable fuel determined under
§ 23.959; and
(3) Full operating fluids, including—
(i) Oil;
(ii) Hydraulic fluid; and
(iii) Other fluids required for normal
operation of airplane systems, except
potable water, lavatory precharge
water, and water intended for injection
in the engines.
(b) The condition of the airplane at
the time of determining empty weight
must be one that is well defined and
can be easily repeated.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
21, 43 FR 2317, Jan. 16, 1978]
§ 23.31
Removable ballast.
Removable ballast may be used in
showing compliance with the flight requirements of this subpart, if—
(a) The place for carrying ballast is
properly designed and installed, and is
marked under § 23.1557; and
(b) Instructions are included in the
airplane flight manual, approved manual material, or markings and placards, for the proper placement of the
removable ballast under each loading
condition for which removable ballast
is necessary.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
13, 37 FR 20023, Sept. 23, 1972]
§ 23.33 Propeller speed and pitch limits.
(a) General. The propeller speed and
pitch must be limited to values that
will assure safe operation under normal
operating conditions.
(b) Propellers not controllable in flight.
For each propeller whose pitch cannot
be controlled in flight—
(1) During takeoff and initial climb
at the all engine(s) operating climb
speed specified in § 23.65, the propeller
must limit the engine r.p.m., at full
throttle or at maximum allowable
takeoff manifold pressure, to a speed
not greater than the maximum allowable takeoff r.p.m.; and
(2) During a closed throttle glide, at
VNE, the propeller may not cause an
engine speed above 110 percent of maximum continuous speed.
(c) Controllable pitch propellers without
constant speed controls. Each propeller
that can be controlled in flight, but
that does not have constant speed controls, must have a means to limit the
pitch range so that—
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§ 23.45
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(1) The lowest possible pitch allows
compliance with paragraph (b)(1) of
this section; and
(2) The highest possible pitch allows
compliance with paragraph (b)(2) of
this section.
(d) Controllable pitch propellers with
constant speed controls. Each controllable pitch propeller with constant
speed controls must have—
(1) With the governor in operation, a
means at the governor to limit the
maximum engine speed to the maximum allowable takeoff r.p.m.; and
(2) With the governor inoperative,
the propeller blades at the lowest possible pitch, with takeoff power, the airplane stationary, and no wind, either—
(i) A means to limit the maximum
engine speed to 103 percent of the maximum allowable takeoff r.p.m., or
(ii) For an engine with an approved
overspeed, a means to limit the maximum engine and propeller speed to not
more than the maximum approved
overspeed.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42156, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5183, Feb. 9, 1996]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
PERFORMANCE
§ 23.45 General.
(a) Unless otherwise prescribed, the
performance requirements of this part
must be met for—
(1) Still air and standard atmosphere;
and
(2) Ambient atmospheric conditions,
for commuter category airplanes, for
reciprocating engine-powered airplanes
of more than 6,000 pounds maximum
weight, and for turbine engine-powered
airplanes.
(b) Performance data must be determined over not less than the following
ranges of conditions—
(1) Airport altitudes from sea level to
10,000 feet; and
(2) For reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of 6,000 pounds, or less, maximum weight, temperature from standard to 30 °C above standard; or
(3) For reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of more than 6,000 pounds
maximum weight and turbine enginepowered airplanes, temperature from
standard to 30 °C above standard, or
the maximum ambient atmospheric
temperature at which compliance with
the cooling provisions of § 23.1041 to
§ 23.1047 is shown, if lower.
(c) Performance data must be determined with the cowl flaps or other
means for controlling the engine cooling air supply in the position used in
the cooling tests required by §§ 23.1041
to 23.1047.
(d) The available propulsive thrust
must correspond to engine power, not
exceeding the approved power, less—
(1) Installation losses; and
(2) The power absorbed by the accessories and services appropriate to the
particular ambient atmospheric conditions and the particular flight condition.
(e) The performance, as affected by
engine power or thrust, must be based
on a relative humidity:
(1) Of 80 percent at and below standard temperature; and
(2) From 80 percent, at the standard
temperature, varying linearly down to
34 percent at the standard temperature
plus 50 °F.
(f) Unless otherwise prescribed, in determining the takeoff and landing distances, changes in the airplane’s configuration, speed, and power must be
made in accordance with procedures established by the applicant for operation in service. These procedures must
be able to be executed consistently by
pilots of average skill in atmospheric
conditions reasonably expected to be
encountered in service.
(g) The following, as applicable, must
be determined on a smooth, dry, hardsurfaced runway—
(1) Takeoff distance of § 23.53(b);
(2) Accelerate-stop distance of § 23.55;
(3) Takeoff distance and takeoff run
of § 23.59; and
(4) Landing distance of § 23.75.
NOTE: The effect on these distances of operation on other types of surfaces (for example, grass, gravel) when dry, may be determined or derived and these surfaces listed in
the Airplane Flight Manual in accordance
with § 23.1583(p).
(h) For multiengine jets weighing
over 6,000 pounds in the normal, utility, and acrobatic category and commuter category airplanes, the following also apply:
(1) Unless otherwise prescribed, the
applicant must select the takeoff,
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.51
enroute, approach, and landing configurations for the airplane.
(2) The airplane configuration may
vary with weight, altitude, and temperature, to the extent that they are
compatible with the operating procedures required by paragraph (h)(3) of
this section.
(3) Unless otherwise prescribed, in determining the critical-engine-inoperative takeoff performance, takeoff
flight path, and accelerate-stop distance, changes in the airplane’s configuration, speed, and power must be
made in accordance with procedures established by the applicant for operation in service.
(4) Procedures for the execution of
discontinued approaches and balked
landings associated with the conditions
prescribed in § 23.67(c)(4) and § 23.77(c)
must be established.
(5) The procedures established under
paragraphs (h)(3) and (h)(4) of this section must—
(i) Be able to be consistently executed by a crew of average skill in atmospheric conditions reasonably expected to be encountered in service;
(ii) Use methods or devices that are
safe and reliable; and
(iii) Include allowance for any reasonably expected time delays in the
execution of the procedures.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5184, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753, Dec. 2,
2011]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.49
Stalling speed.
(a) VSO (maximum landing flap configuration) and VS1 are the stalling
speeds or the minimum steady flight
speeds, in knots (CAS), at which the
airplane is controllable with—
(1) For reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes, the engine(s) idling, the
throttle(s) closed or at not more than
the power necessary for zero thrust at
a speed not more than 110 percent of
the stalling speed;
(2) For turbine engine-powered airplanes, the propulsive thrust not greater than zero at the stalling speed, or, if
the resultant thrust has no appreciable
effect on the stalling speed, with engine(s) idling and throttle(s) closed;
(3) The propeller(s) in the takeoff position;
(4) The airplane in the condition existing in the test, in which VSO and
VS1 are being used;
(5) The center of gravity in the position that results in the highest value of
VSO and VS1; and
(6) The weight used when VSO and
VS1 are being used as a factor to determine compliance with a required
performance standard.
(b) VSO and VS1 must be determined
by flight tests, using the procedure and
meeting the flight characteristics specified in § 23.201.
(c) Except as provided in paragraph
(d) of this section, VSO at maximum
weight may not exceed 61 knots for—
(1) Single-engine airplanes; and
(2) Multiengine airplanes of 6,000
pounds or less maximum weight that
cannot meet the minimum rate of
climb specified in § 23.67(a) (1) with the
critical engine inoperative.
(d) All single-engine airplanes, and
those multiengine airplanes of 6,000
pounds or less maximum weight with a
VSO of more than 61 knots that do not
meet the requirements of § 23.67(a)(1),
must comply with § 23.562(d).
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5184, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.51 Takeoff speeds.
(a) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, rotation speed, VR,
is the speed at which the pilot makes a
control input, with the intention of
lifting the airplane out of contact with
the runway or water surface.
(1) For multiengine landplanes, VR,
must not be less than the greater of
1.05 VMC; or 1.10 VS1;
(2) For single-engine landplanes, VR,
must not be less than VS1; and
(3) For seaplanes and amphibians
taking off from water, VR, may be any
speed that is shown to be safe under all
reasonably expected conditions, including turbulence and complete failure of
the critical engine.
(b) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, the speed at 50 feet
above the takeoff surface level must
not be less than:
(1) For multiengine airplanes, the
highest of—
(i) A speed that is shown to be safe
for continued flight (or emergency
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§ 23.53
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
landing, if applicable) under all reasonably expected conditions, including
turbulence and complete failure of the
critical engine;
(ii) 1.10 VMC; or
(iii) 1.20 VS1.
(2) For single-engine airplanes, the
higher of—
(i) A speed that is shown to be safe
under all reasonably expected conditions, including turbulence and complete engine failure; or
(ii) 1.20 VS1.
(c) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category multiengine jets of more than
6,000 pounds maximum weight and
commuter category airplanes, the following apply:
(l) V1 must be established in relation
to VEF as follows:
(i) VEF is the calibrated airspeed at
which the critical engine is assumed to
fail. VEF must be selected by the applicant but must not be less than 1.05 VMC
determined under § 23.149(b) or, at the
option of the applicant, not less than
VMCG determined under § 23.149(f).
(ii) The takeoff decision speed, V1, is
the calibrated airspeed on the ground
at which, as a result of engine failure
or other reasons, the pilot is assumed
to have made a decision to continue or
discontinue the takeoff. The takeoff
decision speed, V1, must be selected by
the applicant but must not be less than
VEF plus the speed gained with the critical engine inoperative during the time
interval between the instant at which
the critical engine is failed and the instant at which the pilot recognizes and
reacts to the engine failure, as indicated by the pilot’s application of the
first retarding means during the accelerate-stop determination of § 23.55.
(2) The rotation speed, VR, in terms
of calibrated airspeed, must be selected
by the applicant and must not be less
than the greatest of the following:
(i) V1;
(ii) 1.05 VMC determined under
§ 23.149(b);
(iii) 1.10 VS1; or
(iv) The speed that allows attaining
the initial climb-out speed, V2, before
reaching a height of 35 feet above the
takeoff surface in accordance with
§ 23.57(c)(2).
(3) For any given set of conditions,
such as weight, altitude, temperature,
and configuration, a single value of VR
must be used to show compliance with
both the one-engine-inoperative takeoff and all-engines-operating takeoff
requirements.
(4) The takeoff safety speed, V2, in
terms of calibrated airspeed, must be
selected by the applicant so as to allow
the gradient of climb required in § 23.67
(c)(1) and (c)(2) but mut not be less
than 1.10 VMC or less than 1.20 VS1.
(5) The one-engine-inoperative takeoff distance, using a normal rotation
rate at a speed 5 knots less than VR, established in accordance with paragraph
(c)(2) of this section, must be shown
not to exceed the corresponding oneengine-inoperative takeoff distance,
determined in accordance with § 23.57
and § 23.59(a)(1), using the established
VR. The takeoff, otherwise performed
in accordance with § 23.57, must be continued safely from the point at which
the airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff
surface and at a speed not less than the
established V2 minus 5 knots.
(6) The applicant must show, with all
engines operating, that marked increases in the scheduled takeoff distances, determined in accordance with
§ 23.59(a)(2), do not result from over-rotation of the airplane or out-of-trim
conditions.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5184, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.53 Takeoff performance.
(a) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, the takeoff distance must be determined in accordance with paragraph (b) of this section,
using speeds determined in accordance
with § 23.51 (a) and (b).
(b) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, the distance required to takeoff and climb to a height
of 50 feet above the takeoff surface
must be determined for each weight,
altitude, and temperature within the
operational limits established for takeoff with—
(1) Takeoff power on each engine;
(2) Wing flaps in the takeoff position(s); and
(3) Landing gear extended.
(c) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category multiengine jets of more than
6,000 pounds maximum weight and
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.57
commuter category airplanes, takeoff
performance, as required by §§ 23.55
through 23.59, must be determined with
the operating engine(s) within approved operating limitations.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5185, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.55
Accelerate-stop distance.
For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category multiengine jets of more than
6,000 pounds maximum weight and
commuter category airplanes, the accelerate-stop distance must be determined as follows:
(a) The accelerate-stop distance is
the sum of the distances necessary to—
(1) Accelerate the airplane from a
standing start to VEF with all engines
operating;
(2) Accelerate the airplane from VEF
to V1, assuming the critical engine
fails at VEF; and
(3) Come to a full stop from the point
at which V1 is reached.
(b) Means other than wheel brakes
may be used to determine the accelerate-stop distances if that means—
(1) Is safe and reliable;
(2) Is used so that consistent results
can be expected under normal operating conditions; and
(3) Is such that exceptional skill is
not required to control the airplane.
[Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1826, Jan. 15, 1987, as
amended by Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5185, Feb. 9,
1996, as amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753,
Dec. 2, 2011]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.57
Takeoff path.
For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category multiengine jets of more than
6,000 pounds maximum weight and
commuter category airplanes, the
takeoff path is as follows:
(a) The takeoff path extends from a
standing start to a point in the takeoff
at which the airplane is 1500 feet above
the takeoff surface at or below which
height the transition from the takeoff
to the enroute configuration must be
completed; and
(1) The takeoff path must be based on
the procedures prescribed in § 23.45;
(2) The airplane must be accelerated
on the ground to VEF at which point the
critical engine must be made inoper-
ative and remain inoperative for the
rest of the takeoff; and
(3) After reaching VEF, the airplane
must be accelerated to V2.
(b) During the acceleration to speed
V2, the nose gear may be raised off the
ground at a speed not less than VR.
However, landing gear retraction must
not be initiated until the airplane is
airborne.
(c) During the takeoff path determination, in accordance with paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section—
(1) The slope of the airborne part of
the takeoff path must not be negative
at any point;
(2) The airplane must reach V2 before
it is 35 feet above the takeoff surface,
and must continue at a speed as close
as practical to, but not less than V2,
until it is 400 feet above the takeoff
surface;
(3) At each point along the takeoff
path, starting at the point at which the
airplane reaches 400 feet above the
takeoff surface, the available gradient
of climb must not be less than—
(i) 1.2 percent for two-engine airplanes;
(ii) 1.5 percent for three-engine airplanes;
(iii) 1.7 percent for four-engine airplanes; and
(4) Except for gear retraction and
automatic propeller feathering, the
airplane configuration must not be
changed, and no change in power that
requires action by the pilot may be
made, until the airplane is 400 feet
above the takeoff surface.
(d) The takeoff path to 35 feet above
the takeoff surface must be determined
by a continuous demonstrated takeoff.
(e) The takeoff path to 35 feet above
the takeoff surface must be determined
by synthesis from segments; and
(1) The segments must be clearly defined and must be related to distinct
changes in configuration, power, and
speed;
(2) The weight of the airplane, the
configuration, and the power must be
assumed constant throughout each segment and must correspond to the most
critical condition prevailing in the segment; and
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§ 23.59
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(3) The takeoff flight path must be
based on the airplane’s performance
without utilizing ground effect.
[Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1827, Jan. 15, 1987, as
amended by Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5185, Feb. 9,
1996, as amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753,
Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.59 Takeoff distance and takeoff
run.
For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category multiengine jets of more than
6,000 pounds maximum weight and
commuter category airplanes, the
takeoff distance and, at the option of
the applicant, the takeoff run, must be
determined.
(a) Takeoff distance is the greater
of—
(1) The horizontal distance along the
takeoff path from the start of the takeoff to the point at which the airplane is
35 feet above the takeoff surface as determined under § 23.57; or
(2) With all engines operating, 115
percent of the horizontal distance from
the start of the takeoff to the point at
which the airplane is 35 feet above the
takeoff surface, determined by a procedure consistent with § 23.57.
(b) If the takeoff distance includes a
clearway, the takeoff run is the greater
of—
(1) The horizontal distance along the
takeoff path from the start of the takeoff to a point equidistant between the
liftoff point and the point at which the
airplane is 35 feet above the takeoff
surface as determined under § 23.57; or
(2) With all engines operating, 115
percent of the horizontal distance from
the start of the takeoff to a point equidistant between the liftoff point and
the point at which the airplane is 35
feet above the takeoff surface, determined by a procedure consistent with
§ 23.57.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1827, Jan. 15, 1987, as
amended by Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5185, Feb. 9,
1996, as amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753,
Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.61 Takeoff flight path.
For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category multiengine jets of more than
6,000 pounds maximum weight and
commuter category airplanes, the
takeoff flight path must be determined
as follows:
(a) The takeoff flight path begins 35
feet above the takeoff surface at the
end of the takeoff distance determined
in accordance with § 23.59.
(b) The net takeoff flight path data
must be determined so that they represent the actual takeoff flight paths,
as determined in accordance with
§ 23.57 and with paragraph (a) of this
section, reduced at each point by a gradient of climb equal to—
(1) 0.8 percent for two-engine airplanes;
(2) 0.9 percent for three-engine airplanes; and
(3) 1.0 percent for four-engine airplanes.
(c) The prescribed reduction in climb
gradient may be applied as an equivalent reduction in acceleration along
that part of the takeoff flight path at
which the airplane is accelerated in
level flight.
[Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1827, Jan. 15, 1987, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.63
Climb: General.
(a) Compliance with the requirements of §§ 23.65, 23.66, 23.67, 23.69, and
23.77 must be shown—
(1) Out of ground effect; and
(2) At speeds that are not less than
those at which compliance with the
powerplant cooling requirements of
§§ 23.1041 to 23.1047 has been demonstrated; and
(3) Unless otherwise specified, with
one engine inoperative, at a bank angle
not exceeding 5 degrees.
(b) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less maximum weight, compliance must be
shown with § 23.65(a), § 23.67(a), where
appropriate, and § 23.77(a) at maximum
takeoff or landing weight, as appropriate, in a standard atmosphere.
(c) For reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of more than 6,000 pounds
maximum weight, single-engine turbines, and multiengine turbine airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less maximum
weight in the normal, utility, and acrobatic category, compliance must be
shown at weights as a function of airport altitude and ambient temperature,
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.67
within the operational limits established for takeoff and landing, respectively, with—
(1) Sections 23.65(b) and 23.67(b) (1)
and (2), where appropriate, for takeoff,
and
(2) Section 23.67(b)(2), where appropriate, and § 23.77(b), for landing.
(d) For multiengine turbine airplanes
over 6,000 pounds maximum weight in
the normal, utility, and acrobatic category and commuter category airplanes, compliance must be shown at
weights as a function of airport altitude and ambient temperature within
the operational limits established for
takeoff and landing, respectively,
with—
(1) Sections 23.67(c)(1), 23.67(c)(2), and
23.67(c)(3) for takeoff; and
(2) Sections 23.67(c)(3), 23.67(c)(4), and
23.77(c) for landing.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5186, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.65 Climb: All engines operating.
(a) Each normal, utility, and acrobatic category reciprocating enginepowered airplane of 6,000 pounds or less
maximum weight must have a steady
climb gradient at sea level of at least
8.3 percent for landplanes or 6.7 percet
for seaplanes and amphibians with—
(1) Not more than maximum continuous power on each engine;
(2) The landing gear retracted;
(3) The wing flaps in the takeoff position(s); and
(4) A climb speed not less than the
greater of 1.1 VMC and 1.2 VS1 for multiengine airplanes and not less than 1.2
VS1 for single—engine airplanes.
(b) Each normal, utility, and acrobatic category reciprocating enginepowered airplane of more than 6,000
pounds maximum weight, single-engine
turbine, and multiengine turbine airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less maximum
weight in the normal, utility, and acrobatic category must have a steady gradient of climb after takeoff of at least
4 percent with
(1) Take off power on each engine;
(2) The landing gear extended, except
that if the landing gear can be retracted in not more than seven seconds, the test may be conducted with
the gear retracted;
(3) The wing flaps in the takeoff position(s); and
(4) A climb speed as specified in
§ 23.65(a)(4).
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5186, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75753, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.66 Takeoff climb: One-engine inoperative.
For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of more than 6,000 pounds
maximum weight, and turbine enginepowered airplanes in the normal, utility, and acrobatic category, the steady
gradient of climb or descent must be
determined at each weight, altitude,
and ambient temperature within the
operational limits established by the
applicant with—
(a) The critical engine inoperative
and its propeller in the position it rapidly and automatically assumes;
(b) The remaining engine(s) at takeoff power;
(c) The landing gear extended, except
that if the landing gear can be retracted in not more than seven seconds, the test may be conducted with
the gear retracted;
(d) The wing flaps in the takeoff position(s):
(e) The wings level; and
(f) A climb speed equal to that
achieved at 50 feet in the demonstration of § 23.53.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5186, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.67 Climb: One engine inoperative.
(a) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less maximum weight, the following apply:
(1) Except for those airplanes that
meet the requirements prescribed in
§ 23.562(d), each airplane with a VSO of
more than 61 knots must be able to
maintain a steady climb gradient of at
least 1.5 percent at a pressure altitude
of 5,000 feet with the—
(i) Critical engine inoperative and its
propeller in the minimum drag position;
(ii) Remaining engine(s) at not more
than maximum continuous power;
(iii) Landing gear retracted;
(iv) Wing flaps retracted; and
(v) Climb speed not less than 1.2 VS1.
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jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.67
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(2) For each airplane that meets the
requirements prescribed in § 23.562(d),
or that has a VSO of 61 knots or less,
the steady gradient of climb or descent
at a pressure altitude of 5,000 feet must
be determined with the—
(i) Critical engine inoperative and its
propeller in the minimum drag position;
(ii) Remaining engine(s) at not more
than maximum continuous power;
(iii) Landing gear retracted;
(iv) Wing flaps retracted; and
(v) Climb speed not less than 1.2VS1.
(b) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of more than 6,000 pounds
maximum weight, and turbopropellerpowered airplanes in the normal, utility, and acrobatic category—
(1) The steady gradient of climb at an
altitude of 400 feet above the takeoff
must be no less than 1 percent with
the—
(i) Critical engine inoperative and its
propeller in the minimum drag position;
(ii) Remaining engine(s) at takeoff
power;
(iii) Landing gear retracted;
(iv) Wing flaps in the takeoff position(s); and
(v) Climb speed equal to that
achieved at 50 feet in the demonstration of § 23.53.
(2) The steady gradient of climb must
not be less than 0.75 percent at an altitude of 1,500 feet above the takeoff surface, or landing surface, as appropriate,
with the—
(i) Critical engine inoperative and its
propeller in the minimum drag position;
(ii) Remaining engine(s) at not more
than maximum continuous power;
(iii) Landing gear retracted;
(iv) Wing flaps retracted; and
(v) Climb speed not less than 1.2 VS1.
(c) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category jets of 6,000 pounds or less
maximum weight—
(1) The steady gradient of climb at an
altitude of 400 feet above the takeoff
must be no less than 1.2 percent with
the—
(i) Critical engine inoperative;
(ii) Remaining engine(s) at takeoff
power;
(iii) Landing gear retracted;
(iv) Wing flaps in the takeoff position(s); and
(v) Climb speed equal to that
achieved at 50 feet in the demonstration of § 23.53.
(2) The steady gradient of climb may
not be less than 0.75 percent at an altitude of 1,500 feet above the takeoff surface, or landing surface, as appropriate,
with the—
(i) Critical engine inoperative;
(ii) Remaining engine(s) at not more
than maximum continuous power;
(iii) Landing gear retracted;
(iv) Wing flaps retracted; and
(v) Climb speed not less than 1.2 VS1.
(d) For jets over 6,000 pounds maximum weight in the normal, utility and
acrobatic category and commuter category airplanes, the following apply:
(1) Takeoff; landing gear extended. The
steady gradient of climb at the altitude
of the takeoff surface must be measurably positive for two-engine airplanes,
not less than 0.3 percent for three-engine airplanes, or 0.5 percent for fourengine airplanes with—
(i) The critical engine inoperative
and its propeller in the position it rapidly and automatically assumes;
(ii) The remaining engine(s) at takeoff power;
(iii) The landing gear extended, and
all landing gear doors open;
(iv) The wing flaps in the takeoff position(s);
(v) The wings level; and
(vi) A climb speed equal to V2.
(2) Takeoff; landing gear retracted. The
steady gradient of climb at an altitude
of 400 feet above the takeoff surface
must be not less than 2.0 percent of
two-engine airplanes, 2.3 percent for
three-engine airplanes, and 2.6 percent
for four-engine airplanes with—
(i) The critical engine inoperative
and its propeller in the position it rapidly and automatically assumes;
(ii) The remaining engine(s) at takeoff power;
(iii) The landing gear retracted;
(iv) The wing flaps in the takeoff position(s);
(v) A climb speed equal to V2.
(3) Enroute. The steady gradient of
climb at an altitude of 1,500 feet above
the takeoff or landing surface, as appropriate, must be not less than 1.2
percent for two-engine airplanes, 1.5
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.75
percent for three-engine airplanes, and
1.7 percent for four-engine airplanes
with—
(i) The critical engine inoperative
and its propeller in the minimum drag
position;
(ii) The remaining engine(s) at not
more
than
maximum
continuous
power;
(iii) The landing gear retracted;
(iv) The wing flaps retracted; and
(v) A climb speed not less than 1.2
VS1.
(4) Discontinued approach. The steady
gradient of climb at an altitude of 400
feet above the landing surface must be
not less than 2.1 percent for two-engine
airplanes, 2.4 percent for three-engine
airplanes, and 2.7 percent for four-engine airplanes, with—
(i) The critical engine inoperative
and its propeller in the minimum drag
position;
(ii) The remaining engine(s) at takeoff power;
(iii) Landing gear retracted;
(iv) Wing flaps in the approach position(s) in which VS1 for these position(s) does not exceed 110 percent of
the VS1 for the related all-engines-operated landing position(s); and
(v) A climb speed established in connection with normal landing procedures but not exceeding 1.5 VS1.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5186, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75754, Dec. 2,
2011]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.69
Enroute climb/descent.
(a) All engines operating. The steady
gradient and rate of climb must be determined at each weight, altitude, and
ambient temperature within the operational limits established by the applicant with—
(1) Not more than maximum continuous power on each engine;
(2) The landing gear retracted;
(3) The wing flaps retracted; and
(4) A climb speed not less than 1.3
VS1.
(b) One engine inoperative. The steady
gradient and rate of climb/descent
must be determined at each weight, altitude, and ambient temperature within the operational limits established by
the applicant with—
(1) The critical engine inoperative
and its propeller in the minimum drag
position;
(2) The remaining engine(s) at not
more
than
maximum
continuous
power;
(3) The landing gear retracted;
(4) The wing flaps retracted; and
(5) A climb speed not less than 1.2
VS1.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5187, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.71 Glide: Single-engine airplanes.
The maximum horizontal distance
traveled in still air, in nautical miles,
per 1,000 feet of altitude lost in a glide,
and the speed necessary to achieve this
must be determined with the engine inoperative, its propeller in the minimum drag position, and landing gear
and wing flaps in the most favorable
available position.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5187, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.73 Reference landing approach
speed.
(a) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category reciprocating engine-powered
airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less maximum weight, the reference landing approach speed, VREF, may not be less
than the greater of VMC, determined in
§ 23.149(b) with the wing flaps in the
most extended takeoff position, and 1.3
VS1.
(b) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category turbine powered airplanes of
6,000 pounds or less maximum weight,
turboprops of more than 6,000 pounds
maximum weight, and reciprocating
engine-powered airplanes of more than
6,000 pounds maximum weight, the reference landing approach speed, VREF,
may not be less than the greater of
VMC, determined in § 23.149(c), and 1.3
VS1.
(c) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category jets of more than 6,000 pounds
maximum weight and commuter category airplanes, the reference landing
approach speed, VREF, may not be less
than the greater of 1.05 VMC, determined in § 23.149(c), and 1.3 VS1.
[Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75754, Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.75 Landing distance.
The horizontal distance necessary to
land and come to a complete stop from
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jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.77
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
a point 50 feet above the landing surface must be determined, for standard
temperatures at each weight and altitude within the operational limits established for landing, as follows:
(a) A steady approach at not less
than VREF, determined in accordance
with § 23.73 (a), (b), or (c), as appropriate, must be maintained down to the
50 foot height and—
(1) The steady approach must be at a
gradient of descent not greater than 5.2
percent (3 degrees) down to the 50-foot
height.
(2) In addition, an applicant may
demonstrate by tests that a maximum
steady approach gradient steeper than
5.2 percent, down to the 50-foot height,
is safe. The gradient must be established as an operating limitation and
the information necessary to display
the gradient must be available to the
pilot by an appropriate instrument.
(b) A constant configuration must be
maintained throughout the maneuver.
(c) The landing must be made without excessive vertical acceleration or
tendency to bounce, nose over, ground
loop, porpoise, or water loop.
(d) It must be shown that a safe transition to the balked landing conditions
of § 23.77 can be made from the conditions that exist at the 50 foot height, at
maximum landing weight, or at the
maximum landing weight for altitude
and temperature of § 23.63 (c)(2) or
(d)(2), as appropriate.
(e) The brakes must be used so as to
not cause excessive wear of brakes or
tires.
(f) Retardation means other than
wheel brakes may be used if that
means—
(1) Is safe and reliable; and
(2) Is used so that consistent results
can be expected in service.
(g) If any device is used that depends
on the operation of any engine, and the
landing distance would be increased
when a landing is made with that engine inoperative, the landing distance
must be determined with that engine
inoperative unless the use of other
compensating means will result in a
landing distance not more than that
with each engine operating.
[Amdt. 23–21, 43 FR 2318, Jan. 16, 1978, as
amended by Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1828, Jan. 15,
1987; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 351, Jan. 3, 1991;
Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5187, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.77
Balked landing.
(a) Each normal, utility, and acrobatic category reciprocating enginepowered airplane at 6,000 pounds or less
maximum weight must be able to
maintain a steady gradient of climb at
sea level of at least 3.3 percent with—
(1) Takeoff power on each engine;
(2) The landing gear extended;
(3) The wing flaps in the landing position, except that if the flaps may safely
be retracted in two seconds or less
without loss of altitude and without
sudden changes of angle of attack, they
may be retracted; and
(4) A climb speed equal to VREF, as defined in § 23.73(a).
(b) Each normal, utility, and acrobatic category reciprocating enginepowered and single engine turbine powered airplane of more than 6,000 pounds
maximum weight, and multiengine turbine engine-powered airplane of 6,000
pounds or less maximum weight in the
normal, utility, and acrobatic category
must be able to maintain a steady gradient of climb of at least 2.5 percent
with—
(1) Not more than the power that is
available on each engine eight seconds
after initiation of movement of the
power controls from minimum flightidle position;
(2) The landing gear extended;
(3) The wing flaps in the landing position; and
(4) A climb speed equal to VREF, as defined in § 23.73(b).
(c) Each normal, utility, and acrobatic multiengine turbine powered airplane over 6,000 pounds maximum
weight and each commuter category
airplane must be able to maintain a
steady gradient of climb of at least 3.2
percent with—
(1) Not more than the power that is
available on each engine eight seconds
after initiation of movement of the
power controls from the minimum
flight idle position;
(2) Landing gear extended;
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.145
(3) Wing flaps in the landing position;
and
(4) A climb speed equal to VREF, as defined in § 23.73(c).
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5187, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75754, Dec. 2,
2011]
FLIGHT CHARACTERISTICS
§ 23.141 General.
The airplane must meet the requirements of §§ 23.143 through 23.253 at all
practical loading conditions and operating altitudes for which certification
has been requested, not exceeding the
maximum operating altitude established under § 23.1527, and without requiring exceptional piloting skill,
alertness, or strength.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42156, Aug. 6, 1993]
CONTROLLABILITY AND
MANEUVERABILITY
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.143 General.
(a) The airplane must be safely controllable and maneuverable during all
flight phases including—
(1) Takeoff;
(2) Climb;
(3) Level flight;
(4) Descent;
(5) Go-around; and
(6) Landing (power on and power off)
with the wing flaps extended and retracted.
(b) It must be possible to make a
smooth transition from one flight condition to another (including turns and
slips) without danger of exceeding the
limit load factor, under any probable
operating condition (including, for
multiengine airplanes, those conditions normally encountered in the sudden failure of any engine).
(c) If marginal conditions exist with
regard to required pilot strength, the
control forces necessary must be determined by quantitative tests. In no case
may the control forces under the conditions specified in paragraphs (a) and (b)
of this section exceed those prescribed
in the following table:
Values in pounds force applied
to the relevant control
Pitch
(a) For temporary application:
Stick ....................................
Wheel (Two hands on rim)
60
75
Roll
30
50
Yaw
............
............
Values in pounds force applied
to the relevant control
Pitch
Roll
Yaw
Wheel (One hand on rim) ..
Rudder Pedal .....................
(b) For prolonged application ....
50
............
10
25
............
5
............
150
20
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31819, Nov. 19,
1973; Amdt. 23–17, 41 FR 55464, Dec. 20, 1976;
Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42156, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt.
23–50, 61 FR 5188, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.145 Longitudinal control.
(a) With the airplane as nearly as
possible in trim at 1.3 VS1, it must be
possible, at speeds below the trim
speed, to pitch the nose downward so
that the rate of increase in airspeed allows prompt acceleration to the trim
speed with—
(1) Maximum continuous power on
each engine;
(2) Power off; and
(3) Wing flap and landing gear—
(i) retracted, and
(ii) extended.
(b) Unless otherwise required, it must
be possible to carry out the following
maneuvers without requiring the application of single-handed control forces
exceeding those specified in § 23.143(c).
The trimming controls must not be adjusted during the maneuvers:
(1) With the landing gear extended,
the flaps retracted, and the airplanes
as nearly as possible in trim at 1.4 VS1,
extend the flaps as rapidly as possible
and allow the airspeed to transition
from 1.4VS1 to 1.4 VSO:
(i) With power off; and
(ii) With the power necessary to
maintain level flight in the initial condition.
(2) With landing gear and flaps extended, power off, and the airplane as
nearly as possible in trim at 1.3 VSO:
quickly apply takeoff power and retract the flaps as rapidly as possible to
the recommended go around setting
and allow the airspeed to transition
from 1.3 VSO to 1.3 VS1. Retract the gear
when a positive rate of climb is established.
(3) With landing gear and flaps extended, in level flight, power necessary
to attain level flight at 1.1 VSO, and the
airplane as nearly as possible in trim,
it must be possible to maintain approximately level flight while retracting the flaps as rapidly as possible with
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§ 23.147
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
simultaneous application of not more
than maximum continuous power. If
gated flat positions are provided, the
flap retraction may be demonstrated in
stages with power and trim reset for
level flight at 1.1 VS1, in the initial configuration for each stage—
(i) From the fully extended position
to the most extended gated position;
(ii) Between intermediate gated positions, if applicable; and
(iii) From the least extended gated
position to the fully retracted position.
(4) With power off, flaps and landing
gear retracted and the airplane as
nearly as possible in trim at 1.4 VS1,
apply takeoff power rapidly while
maintaining the same airspeed.
(5) With power off, landing gear and
flaps extended, and the airplane as
nearly as possible in trim at VREF, obtain and maintain airspeeds between
1.1 VSO, and either 1.7 VSO or VFE,
whichever is lower without requiring
the application of two-handed control
forces exceeding those specified in
§ 23.143(c).
(6) With maximum takeoff power,
landing gear retracted, flaps in the
takeoff position, and the airplane as
nearly as possible in trim at VFE appropriate to the takeoff flap position, retract the flaps as rapidly as possible
while maintaining constant speed.
(c) At speeds above VMO/MMO, and up
to the maximum speed shown under
§ 23.251, a maneuvering capability of 1.5
g must be demonstrated to provide a
margin to recover from upset or inadvertent speed increase.
(d) It must be possible, with a pilot
control force of not more than 10
pounds, to maintain a speed of not
more than VREF during a power-off glide
with landing gear and wing flaps extended, for any weight of the airplane,
up to and including the maximum
weight.
(e) By using normal flight and power
controls, except as otherwise noted in
paragraphs (e)(1) and (e)(2) of this section, it must be possible to establish a
zero rate of descent at an attitude suitable for a controlled landing without
exceeding the operational and structural limitations of the airplane, as
follows:
(1) For single-engine and multiengine
airplanes, without the use of the primary longitudinal control system.
(2) For multiengine airplanes—
(i) Without the use of the primary directional control; and
(ii) If a single failure of any one connecting or transmitting link would affect both the longitudinal and directional primary control system, without
the primary longitudinal and directional control system.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42157, Aug. 6, 1993;
Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993, as
amended by Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5188, Feb. 9,
1996]
§ 23.147 Directional and lateral control.
(a) For each multiengine airplane, it
must be possible, while holding the
wings level within five degrees, to
make sudden changes in heading safely
in both directions. This ability must be
shown at 1.4 VS1 with heading changes
up to 15 degrees, except that the heading change at which the rudder force
corresponds to the limits specified in
§ 23.143 need not be exceeded, with the—
(1) Critical engine inoperative and its
propeller in the minimum drag position;
(2) Remaining engines at maximum
continuous power;
(3) Landing gear—
(i) Retracted; and
(ii) Extended; and
(4) Flaps retracted.
(b) For each multiengine airplane, it
must be possible to regain full control
of the airplane without exceeding a
bank angle of 45 degrees, reaching a
dangerous attitude or encountering
dangerous characteristics, in the event
of a sudden and complete failure of the
critical engine, making allowance for a
delay of two seconds in the initiation
of recovery action appropriate to the
situation, with the airplane initially in
trim, in the following condition:
(1) Maximum continuous power on
each engine;
(2) The wing flaps retracted;
(3) The landing gear retracted;
(4) A speed equal to that at which
compliance with § 23.69(a) has been
shown; and
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.149
(5) All propeller controls in the position at which compliance with § 23.69(a)
has been shown.
(c) For all airplanes, it must be
shown that the airplane is safely controllable without the use of the primary lateral control system in any allengine configuration(s) and at any
speed or altitude within the approved
operating envelope. It must also be
shown that the airplane’s flight characteristics are not impaired below a
level needed to permit continued safe
flight and the ability to maintain attitudes suitable for a controlled landing
without exceeding the operational and
structural limitations of the airplane.
If a single failure of any one connecting or transmitting link in the lateral control system would also cause
the loss of additional control system(s), compliance with the above requirement must be shown with those
additional systems also assumed to be
inoperative.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5188, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.149 Minimum control speed.
(a) VMC is the calibrated airspeed at
which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible
to maintain control of the airplane
with that engine still inoperative, and
thereafter maintain straight flight at
the same speed with an angle of bank
of not more than 5 degrees. The method
used to simulate critical engine failure
must represent the most critical mode
of powerplant failure expected in service with respect to controllability.
(b) VMC for takeoff must not exceed
1.2 VS1, where VS1 is determined at the
maximum takeoff weight. VMC must be
determined with the most unfavorable
weight and center of gravity position
and with the airplane airborne and the
ground effect negligible, for the takeoff
configuration(s) with—
(1) Maximum available takeoff power
initially on each engine;
(2) The airplane trimmed for takeoff;
(3) Flaps in the takeoff position(s);
(4) Landing gear retracted; and
(5) All propeller controls in the recommended takeoff position throughout.
(c) For all airplanes except reciprocating engine-powered airplanes of
6,000 pounds or less maximum weight,
the conditions of paragraph (a) of this
section must also be met for the landing configuration with—
(1) Maximum available takeoff power
initially on each engine;
(2) The airplane trimmed for an approach, with all engines operating, at
VREF, at an approach gradient equal to
the steepest used in the landing distance demonstration of § 23.75;
(3) Flaps in the landing position;
(4) Landing gear extended; and
(5) All propeller controls in the position recommended for approach with
all engines operating.
(d) A minimum speed to intentionally render the critical engine inoperative must be established and designated as the safe, intentional, oneengine-inoperative speed, VSSE.
(e) At VMC, the rudder pedal force required to maintain control must not
exceed 150 pounds and it must not be
necessary to reduce power of the operative engine(s). During the maneuver,
the airplane must not assume any dangerous attitude and it must be possible
to prevent a heading change of more
than 20 degrees.
(f) At the option of the applicant, to
comply with the requirements of
§ 23.51(c)(1), VMCG may be determined.
VMCG is the minimum control speed on
the ground, and is the calibrated airspeed during the takeoff run at which,
when the critical engine is suddenly
made inoperative, it is possible to
maintain control of the airplane using
the rudder control alone (without the
use of nosewheel steering), as limited
by 150 pounds of force, and using the
lateral control to the extent of keeping
the wings level to enable the takeoff to
be safely continued. In the determination of VMCG, assuming that the path of
the airplane accelerating with all engines operating is along the centerline
of the runway, its path from the point
at which the critical engine is made inoperative to the point at which recovery to a direction parallel to the centerline is completed may not deviate
more than 30 feet laterally from the
centerline at any point. VMCG must be
established with—
(1) The airplane in each takeoff configuration or, at the option of the applicant, in the most critical takeoff
configuration;
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§ 23.151
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(2) Maximum available takeoff power
on the operating engines;
(3) The most unfavorable center of
gravity;
(4) The airplane trimmed for takeoff;
and
(5) The most unfavorable weight in
the range of takeoff weights.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5189, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.151 Acrobatic maneuvers.
Each acrobatic and utility category
airplane must be able to perform safely
the acrobatic maneuvers for which certification is requested. Safe entry
speeds for these maneuvers must be determined.
§ 23.153 Control during landings.
It must be possible, while in the landing configuration, to safely complete a
landing without exceeding the onehand control force limits specified in
§ 23.143(c) following an approach to
land—
(a) At a speed of VREF minus 5 knots;
(b) With the airplane in trim, or as
nearly as possible in trim and without
the trimming control being moved
throughout the maneuver;
(c) At an approach gradient equal to
the steepest used in the landing distance demonstration of § 23.75; and
(d) With only those power changes, if
any, that would be made when landing
normally from an approach at VREF.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5189, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.155 Elevator control force in maneuvers.
(a) The elevator control force needed
to achieve the positive limit maneuvering load factor may not be less
than:
(1) For wheel controls, W/100 (where
W is the maximum weight) or 20
pounds, whichever is greater, except
that it need not be greater than 50
pounds; or
(2) For stick controls, W/140 (where W
is the maximum weight) or 15 pounds,
whichever is greater, except that it
need not be greater than 35 pounds.
(b) The requirement of paragraph (a)
of this section must be met at 75 percent of maximum continuous power for
reciprocating engines, or the maximum
continuous power for turbine engines,
and with the wing flaps and landing
gear retracted—
(1) In a turn, with the trim setting
used for wings level flight at VO; and
(2) In a turn with the trim setting
used for the maximum wings level
flight speed, except that the speed may
not exceed VNE or VMO/MMO, whichever
is appropriate.
(c) There must be no excessive decrease in the gradient of the curve of
stick force versus maneuvering load
factor with increasing load factor.
[Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31819, Nov. 19, 1973; 38 FR
32784, Nov. 28, 1973, as amended by Amdt. 23–
45, 58 FR 42158, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61
FR 5189 Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.157
Rate of roll.
(a) Takeoff. It must be possible, using
a favorable combination of controls, to
roll the airplane from a steady 30-degree banked turn through an angle of
60 degrees, so as to reverse the direction of the turn within:
(1) For an airplane of 6,000 pounds or
less maximum weight, 5 seconds from
initiation of roll; and
(2) For an airplane of over 6,000
pounds maximum weight,
(W + 500)/1,300
seconds, but not more than 10 seconds,
where W is the weight in pounds.
(b) The requirement of paragraph (a)
of this section must be met when rolling the airplane in each direction
with—
(1) Flaps in the takeoff position;
(2) Landing gear retracted;
(3) For a single-engine airplane, at
maximum takeoff power; and for a
multiengine airplane with the critical
engine inoperative and the propeller in
the minimum drag position, and the
other engines at maximum takeoff
power; and
(4) The airplane trimmed at a speed
equal to the greater of 1.2 VS1 or 1.1
VMC, or as nearly as possible in trim for
straight flight.
(c) Approach. It must be possible,
using a favorable combination of controls, to roll the airplane from a steady
30-degree banked turn through an angle
of 60 degrees, so as to reverse the direction of the turn within:
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.161
(1) For an airplane of 6,000 pounds or
less maximum weight, 4 seconds from
initiation of roll; and
(2) For an airplane of over 6,000
pounds maximum weight,
(W + 2,800)/2,200
seconds, but not more than 7 seconds,
where W is the weight in pounds.
(d) The requirement of paragraph (c)
of this section must be met when rolling the airplane in each direction in
the following conditions—
(1) Flaps in the landing position(s);
(2) Landing gear extended;
(3) All engines operating at the power
for a 3 degree approach; and
(4) The airplane trimmed at VREF.
[Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31819, Nov. 19, 1973, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42158, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5189, Feb. 9, 1996]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
TRIM
§ 23.161 Trim.
(a) General. Each airplane must meet
the trim requirements of this section
after being trimmed and without further pressure upon, or movement of,
the primary controls or their corresponding trim controls by the pilot
or the automatic pilot. In addition, it
must be possible, in other conditions of
loading, configuration, speed and power
to ensure that the pilot will not be unduly fatigued or distracted by the need
to apply residual control forces exceeding those for prolonged application of
§ 23.143(c). This applies in normal operation of the airplane and, if applicable,
to those conditions associated with the
failure of one engine for which performance characteristics are established.
(b) Lateral and directional trim. The
airplane must maintain lateral and directional trim in level flight with the
landing gear and wing flaps retracted
as follows:
(1) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, at a speed of 0.9 VH,
VC, or VMO/MO, whichever is lowest; and
(2) For commuter category airplanes,
at all speeds from 1.4 VS1 to the lesser
of VH or VMO/MMO.
(c) Longitudinal trim. The airplane
must maintain longitudinal trim under
each of the following conditions:
(1) A climb with—
(i) Takeoff power, landing gear retracted, wing flaps in the takeoff position(s), at the speeds used in determining the climb performance required
by § 23.65; and
(ii) Maximum continuous power at
the speeds and in the configuration
used in determining the climb performance required by § 23.69(a).
(2) Level flight at all speeds from the
lesser of VH and either VNO or VMO/MMO
(as appropriate), to 1.4 VS1, with the
landing gear and flaps retracted.
(3) A descent at VNO or VMO/MMO,
whichever is applicable, with power off
and with the landing gear and flaps retracted.
(4) Approach with landing gear extended and with—
(i) A 3 degree angle of descent, with
flaps retracted and at a speed of 1.4 VS1;
(ii) A 3 degree angle of descent, flaps
in the landing position(s) at VREF; and
(iii) An approach gradient equal to
the steepest used in the landing distance demonstrations of § 23.75, flaps in
the landing position(s) at VREF.
(d) In addition, each multiple airplane must maintain longitudinal and
directional trim, and the lateral control force must not exceed 5 pounds at
the speed used in complying with
§ 23.67(a), (b)(2), or (c)(3), as appropriate, with—
(1) The critical engine inoperative,
and if applicable, its propeller in the
minimum drag position;
(2) The remaining engines at maximum continuous power;
(3) The landing gear retracted;
(4) Wing flaps retracted; and
(5) An angle of bank of not more than
five degrees.
(e) In addition, each commuter category airplane for which, in the determination of the takeoff path in accordance with § 23.57, the climb in the takeoff configuration at V2 extends beyond
400 feet above the takeoff surface, it
must be possible to reduce the longitudinal and lateral control forces to 10
pounds and 5 pounds, respectively, and
the directional control force must not
exceed 50 pounds at V2 with—
(1) The critical engine inoperative
and its propeller in the minimum drag
position;
(2) The remaining engine(s) at takeoff power;
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§ 23.171
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(3) Landing gear retracted;
(4) Wing flaps in the takeoff position(s); and
(5) An angle of bank not exceeding 5
degrees.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–21, 43 FR 2318, Jan. 16,
1978; Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1828, Jan. 15, 1987;
Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 351, Jan. 3, 1991; 56 FR
5455, Feb. 11, 1991; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5189,
Feb. 9, 1996]
STABILITY
§ 23.171
General.
The airplane must be longitudinally,
directionally, and laterally stable
under §§ 23.173 through 23.181. In addition, the airplane must show suitable
stability and control ‘‘feel’’ (static stability) in any condition normally encountered in service, if flight tests
show it is necessary for safe operation.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.173
Static longitudinal stability.
Under the conditions specified in
§ 23.175 and with the airplane trimmed
as indicated, the characteristics of the
elevator control forces and the friction
within the control system must be as
follows:
(a) A pull must be required to obtain
and maintain speeds below the specified trim speed and a push required to
obtain and maintain speeds above the
specified trim speed. This must be
shown at any speed that can be obtained, except that speeds requiring a
control force in excess of 40 pounds or
speeds above the maximum allowable
speed or below the minimum speed for
steady unstalled flight, need not be
considered.
(b) The airspeed must return to within the tolerances specified for applicable categories of airplanes when the
control force is slowly released at any
speed within the speed range specified
in paragraph (a) of this section. The applicable tolerances are—
(1) The airspeed must return to within plus or minus 10 percent of the original trim airspeed; and
(2) For commuter category airplanes,
the airspeed must return to within plus
or minus 7.5 percent of the original
trim airspeed for the cruising condition
specified in § 23.175(b).
(c) The stick force must vary with
speed so that any substantial speed
change results in a stick force clearly
perceptible to the pilot.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31820 Nov. 19,
1973; Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1828, Jan. 15, 1987]
§ 23.175 Demonstration of static longitudinal stability.
Static longitudinal stability must be
shown as follows:
(a) Climb. The stick force curve must
have a stable slope at speeds between
85 and 115 percent of the trim speed,
with—
(1) Flaps retracted;
(2) Landing gear retracted;
(3) Maximum continuous power; and
(4) The airplane trimmed at the speed
used in determining the climb performance required by § 23.69(a).
(b) Cruise. With flaps and landing
gear retracted and the airplane in trim
with power for level flight at representative cruising speeds at high and low
altitudes, including speeds up to VNO or
VMO/MMO, as appropriate, except that
the speed need not exceed VH—
(1) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, the stick force
curve must have a stable slope at all
speeds within a range that is the greater of 15 percent of the trim speed plus
the resulting free return speed range,
or 40 knots plus the resulting free return speed range, above and below the
trim speed, except that the slope need
not be stable—
(i) At speeds less than 1.3 VS1; or
(ii) For airplanes with VNE established under § 23.1505(a), at speeds
greater than VNE; or
(iii) For airplanes with VMO/MMO established under § 23.1505(c), at speeds
greater than VFC/MFC.
(2) For commuter category airplanes,
the stick force curve must have a stable slope at all speeds within a range of
50 knots plus the resulting free return
speed range, above and below the trim
speed, except that the slope need not be
stable—
(i) At speeds less than 1.4 VS1; or
(ii) At speeds greater than VFC/MFC;
or
(iii) At speeds that require a stick
force greater than 50 pounds.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.181
(c) Landing. The stick force curve
must have a stable slope at speeds between 1.1 VS1 and 1.8 VS1 with—
(1) Flaps in the landing position;
(2) Landing gear extended; and
(3) The airplane trimmed at—
(i) VREF, or the minimum trim speed
if higher, with power off; and
(ii) VREF with enough power to maintain a 3 degree angle of descent.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5190, Feb. 9, 1996]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.177 Static directional and lateral
stability.
(a)(1) The static directional stability,
as shown by the tendency to recover
from a wings level sideslip with the
rudder free, must be positive for any
landing gear and flap position appropriate to the takeoff, climb, cruise, approach, and landing configurations.
This must be shown with symmetrical
power up to maximum continuous
power, and at speeds from 1.2 VS1 up to
VFE, VLE, VNO, VFC/MFC, whichever is appropriate.
(2) The angle of sideslip for these
tests must be appropriate to the type
of airplane. The rudder pedal force
must not reverse at larger angles of
sideslip, up to that at which full rudder
is used or a control force limit in
§ 23.143 is reached, whichever occurs
first, and at speeds from 1.2 VS1 to VO.
(b)(1) The static lateral stability, as
shown by the tendency to raise the low
wing in a sideslip with the aileron controls free, may not be negative for any
landing gear and flap position appropriate to the takeoff, climb, cruise, approach, and landing configurations.
This must be shown with symmetrical
power from idle up to 75 percent of
maximum continuous power at speeds
from 1.2 VS1 in the takeoff configuration(s) and at speeds from 1.3 VS1 in
other configurations, up to the maximum allowable airspeed for the configuration being investigated (VFE, VLE,
VNO, VFC/MFC, whichever is appropriate)
in the takeoff, climb, cruise, descent,
and approach configurations. For the
landing configuration, the power must
be that necessary to maintain a 3-degree angle of descent in coordinated
flight.
(2) The static lateral stability may
not be negative at 1.2 VS1 in the takeoff
configuration, or at 1.3 VS1 in other
configurations.
(3) The angel of sideslip for these
tests must be appropriate to the type
of airplane, but in no case may the constant heading sideslip angle be less
than that obtainable with a 10 degree
bank or, if less, the maximum bank
angle obtainable with full rudder deflection or 150 pound rudder force.
(c) Paragraph (b) of this section does
not apply to acrobatic category airplanes certificated for inverted flight.
(d)(1) In straight, steady slips at 1.2
VS1 for any landing gear and flap position appropriate to the takeoff, climb,
cruise, approach, and landing configurations, and for any symmetrical power
conditions up to 50 percent of maximum continuous power, the aileron
and rudder control movements and
forces must increase steadily, but not
necessarily in constant proportion, as
the angle of sideslip is increased up to
the maximum appropriate to the type
of airplane.
(2) At larger slip angles, up to the
angle at which the full rudder or aileron control is used or a control force
limit contained in § 23.143 is reached,
the aileron and rudder control movements and forces may not reverse as
the angle of sideslip is increased.
(3) Rapid entry into, and recovery
from, a maximum sideslip considered
appropriate for the airplane may not
result in uncontrollable flight characteristics.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5190, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75754, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.181
Dynamic stability.
(a) Any short period oscillation not
including combined lateral-directional
oscillations occurring between the
stalling speed and the maximum allowable speed appropriate to the configuration of the airplane must be heavily
damped with the primary controls—
(1) Free; and
(2) In a fixed position.
(b) Any combined lateral-directional
oscillations (Dutch roll) occurring between the stalling speed and the maximum allowable speed (VFE, VLE, VN0,
VFC/MFC) appropriate to the configuration of the airplane with the primary
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§ 23.201
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
controls in both free and fixed position,
must be damped to 1⁄10 amplitude in:
(1) Seven (7) cycles below 18,000 feet
and
(2) Thirteen (13) cycles from 18,000
feet to the certified maximum altitude.
(c) If it is determined that the function of a stability augmentation system, reference § 23.672, is needed to
meet the flight characteristic requirements of this part, the primary control
requirements of paragraphs (a)(2) and
(b)(2) of this section are not applicable
to the tests needed to verify the acceptability of that system.
(d) During the conditions as specified
in § 23.175, when the longitudinal control force required to maintain speeds
differing from the trim speed by at
least plus and minus 15 percent is suddenly released, the response of the airplane must not exhibit any dangerous
characteristics nor be excessive in relation to the magnitude of the control
force released. Any long-period oscillation of flight path, phugoid oscillation,
that results must not be so unstable as
to increase the pilot’s workload or otherwise endanger the airplane.
[Amdt. 23–21, 43 FR 2318, Jan. 16, 1978, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42158, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75755, Dec. 2, 2011]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
STALLS
§ 23.201 Wings level stall.
(a) It must be possible to produce and
to correct roll by unreversed use of the
rolling control and to produce and to
correct yaw by unreversed use of the
directional control, up to the time the
airplane stalls.
(b) The wings level stall characteristics must be demonstrated in flight as
follows. Starting from a speed at least
10 knots above the stall speed, the elevator control must be pulled back so
that the rate of speed reduction will
not exceed one knot per second until a
stall is produced, as shown by either:
(1) An uncontrollable downward
pitching motion of the airplane;
(2) A downward pitching motion of
the airplane that results from the activation of a stall avoidance device (for
example, stick pusher); or
(3) The control reaching the stop.
(c) Normal use of elevator control for
recovery is allowed after the downward
pitching motion of paragraphs (b)(1) or
(b)(2) of this section has unmistakably
been produced, or after the control has
been held against the stop for not less
than the longer of two seconds or the
time employed in the minimum steady
slight speed determination of § 23.49.
(d) During the entry into and the recovery from the maneuver, it must be
possible to prevent more than 15 degrees of roll or yaw by the normal use
of controls except as provided for in
paragraph (e) of this section.
(e) For airplanes approved with a
maximum operating altitude at or
above 25,000 feet during the entry into
and the recovery from stalls performed
at or above 25,000 feet, it must be possible to prevent more than 25 degrees of
roll or yaw by the normal use of controls.
(f) Compliance with the requirements
of this section must be shown under
the following conditions:
(1) Wing flaps: Retracted, fully extended, and each intermediate normal
operating position, as appropriate for
the phase of flight.
(2) Landing gear: Retracted and extended as appropriate for the altitude.
(3) Cowl flaps: Appropriate to configuration.
(4) Spoilers/speedbrakes: Retracted and
extended
unless
they
have
no
measureable effect at low speeds.
(5) Power:
(i) Power/Thrust off; and
(ii) For reciprocating engine powered
airplanes: 75 percent of maximum continuous power. However, if the powerto-weight ratio at 75 percent of maximum continuous power results in
nose-high attitudes exceeding 30 degrees, the test may be carried out with
the power required for level flight in
the landing configuration at maximum
landing weight and a speed of 1.4 VSO,
except that the power may not be less
than 50 percent of maximum continuous power; or
(iii) For turbine engine powered airplanes: The maximum engine thrust,
except that it need not exceed the
thrust necessary to maintain level
flight at 1.5 VS1 (where VS1 corresponds
to the stalling speed with flaps in the
approach position, the landing gear retracted, and maximum landing weight).
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.207
(6) Trim: At 1.5 VS1 or the minimum
trim speed, whichever is higher.
(7) Propeller: Full increase r.p.m. position for the power off condition.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5191, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75755, Dec. 2,
2011]
§ 23.203 Turning flight and accelerated
turning stalls.
Turning flight and accelerated turning stalls must be demonstrated in
tests as follows:
(a) Establish and maintain a coordinated turn in a 30 degree bank. Reduce
speed by steadily and progressively
tightening the turn with the elevator
until the airplane is stalled, as defined
in § 23.201(b). The rate of speed reduction must be constant, and—
(1) For a turning flight stall, may not
exceed one knot per second; and
(2) For an accelerated turning stall,
be 3 to 5 knots per second with steadily
increasing normal acceleration.
(b) After the airplane has stalled, as
defined in § 23.201(b), it must be possible
to regain wings level flight by normal
use of the flight controls, but without
increasing power and without—
(1) Excessive loss of altitude;
(2) Undue pitchup;
(3) Uncontrollable tendency to spin;
(4) Exceeding a bank angle of 60 degrees in the original direction of the
turn or 30 degrees in the opposite direction in the case of turning flight stalls;
(5) Exceeding a bank angle of 90 degrees in the original direction of the
turn or 60 degrees in the opposite direction in the case of accelerated turning
stalls; and
(6) Exceeding the maximum permissible speed or allowable limit load factor.
(c) Compliance with the requirements of this section must be shown
under the following conditions:
(1) Wings flaps: Retracted, fully extended, and each intermediate normal
operating position as appropriate for
the phase of flight.
(2) Landing gear: Retracted and extended as appropriate for the altitude.
(3) Cowl flaps: Appropriate to configuration.
(4) Spoilers/speedbrakes: Retracted and
extended
unless
they
have
no
measureable effect at low speeds.
(5) Power:
(i) Power/Thrust off; and
(ii) For reciprocating engine powered
airplanes: 75 percent of maximum continuous power. However, if the powerto-weight ratio at 75 percent of maximum continuous power results in
nose-high attitudes exceeding 30 degrees, the test may be carried out with
the power required for level flight in
the landing configuration at maximum
landing weight and a speed of 1.4 VSO,
except that the power may not be less
than 50 percent of maximum continuous power; or
(iii) For turbine engine powered airplanes: The maximum engine thrust,
except that it need not exceed the
thrust necessary to maintain level
flight at 1.5 VS1 (where VS1 corresponds
to the stalling speed with flaps in the
approach position, the landing gear retracted, and maximum landing weight).
(6) Trim: The airplane trimmed at 1.5
VS1.
(7) Propeller: Full increase rpm position for the power off condition.
[Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31820, Nov. 19, 1973, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42159, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5191, Feb. 9, 1996;
Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75755, Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.207 Stall warning.
(a) There must be a clear and distinctive stall warning, with the flaps and
landing gear in any normal position, in
straight and turning flight.
(b) The stall warning may be furnished either through the inherent aerodynamic qualities of the airplane or
by a device that will give clearly distinguishable indications under expected conditions of flight. However, a
visual stall warning device that requires the attention of the crew within
the cockpit is not acceptable by itself.
(c) During the stall tests required by
§ 23.201(b) and § 23.203(a)(1), the stall
warning must begin at a speed exceeding the stalling speed by a margin of
not less than 5 knots and must continue until the stall occurs.
(d) When following procedures furnished in accordance with § 23.1585, the
stall warning must not occur during a
takeoff with all engines operating, a
takeoff continued with one engine inoperative, or during an approach to
landing.
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§ 23.221
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(e) During the stall tests required by
§ 23.203(a)(2), the stall warning must
begin sufficiently in advance of the
stall for the stall to be averted by pilot
action taken after the stall warning
first occurs.
(f) For acrobatic category airplanes,
an artificial stall warning may be mutable, provided that it is armed automatically during takeoff and rearmed
automatically in the approach configuration.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13087, Aug. 13, 1969, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42159, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5191, Feb. 9, 1996]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
SPINNING
§ 23.221 Spinning.
(a) Normal category airplanes. A single-engine, normal category airplane
must be able to recover from a oneturn spin or a three-second spin, whichever takes longer, in not more than one
additional turn after initiation of the
first control action for recovery, or
demonstrate compliance with the optional spin resistant requirements of
this section.
(1) The following apply to one turn or
three second spins:
(i) For both the flaps-retracted and
flaps-extended conditions, the applicable airspeed limit and positive limit
maneuvering load factor must not be
exceeded;
(ii) No control forces or characteristic encountered during the spin
or recovery may adversely affect
prompt recovery;
(iii) It must be impossible to obtain
unrecoverable spins with any use of the
flight or engine power controls either
at the entry into or during the spin;
and
(iv) For the flaps-extended condition,
the flaps may be retracted during the
recovery but not before rotation has
ceased.
(2) At the applicant’s option, the airplane may be demonstrated to be spin
resistant by the following:
(i) During the stall maneuver contained in § 23.201, the pitch control
must be pulled back and held against
the stop. Then, using ailerons and rudders in the proper direction, it must be
possible to maintain wings-level flight
within 15 degrees of bank and to roll
the airplane from a 30 degree bank in
one direction to a 30 degree bank in the
other direction;
(ii) Reduce the airplane speed using
pitch control at a rate of approximately one knot per second until the
pitch control reaches the stop; then,
with the pitch control pulled back and
held against the stop, apply full rudder
control in a manner to promote spin
entry for a period of seven seconds or
through a 360 degree heading change,
whichever occurs first. If the 360 degree
heading change is reached first, it must
have taken no fewer than four seconds.
This maneuver must be performed first
with the ailerons in the neutral position, and then with the ailerons deflected opposite the direction of turn in
the most adverse manner. Power and
airplane configuration must be set in
accordance with § 23.201(e) without
change during the maneuver. At the
end of seven seconds or a 360 degree
heading change, the airplane must respond immediately and normally to
primary flight controls applied to regain coordinated, unstalled flight without reversal of control effect and without exceeding the temporary control
forces specified by § 23.143(c); and
(iii) Compliance with §§ 23.201 and
23.203 must be demonstrated with the
airplane in uncoordinated flight, corresponding to one ball width displacement on a slip-skid indicator, unless
one ball width displacement cannot be
obtained with full rudder, in which
case the demonstration must be with
full rudder applied.
(b) Utility category airplanes. A utility
category airplane must meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section. In addition, the requirements of
paragraph (c) of this section and
§ 23.807(b)(7) must be met if approval for
spinning is requested.
(c) Acrobatic category airplanes. An acrobatic category airplane must meet
the spin requirements of paragraph (a)
of this section and § 23.807(b)(6). In addition, the following requirements must
be met in each configuration for which
approval for spinning is requested:
(1) The airplane must recover from
any point in a spin up to and including
six turns, or any greater number of
turns for which certification is requested, in not more than one and one-
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.251
half additional turns after initiation of
the first control action for recovery.
However, beyond three turns, the spin
may be discontinued if spiral characteristics appear.
(2) The applicable airspeed limits and
limit maneuvering load factors must
not be exceeded. For flaps-extended
configurations for which approval is requested, the flaps must not be retracted during the recovery.
(3) It must be impossible to obtain
unrecoverable spins with any use of the
flight or engine power controls either
at the entry into or during the spin.
(4) There must be no characteristics
during the spin (such as excessive rates
of rotation or extreme oscillatory motion) that might prevent a successful
recovery due to disorientation or incapacitation of the pilot.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5191, Feb. 9, 1996]
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42159, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5192, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.235 Operation
faces.
§ 23.231 Longitudinal
stability
and
control.
(a) A landplane may have no uncontrollable tendency to nose over in any
reasonably expected operating condition, including rebound during landing
or takeoff. Wheel brakes must operate
smoothly and may not induce any
undue tendency to nose over.
(b) A seaplane or amphibian may not
have dangerous or uncontrollable
porpoising characteristics at any normal operating speed on the water.
§ 23.233 Directional stability and control.
(a) A 90 degree cross-component of
wind velocity, demonstrated to be safe
for taxiing, takeoff, and landing must
be established and must be not less
than 0.2 VSO.
(b) The airplane must be satisfactorily controllable in power-off landings at normal landing speed, without
using brakes or engine power to maintain a straight path until the speed has
decreased to at least 50 percent of the
speed at touchdown.
(c) The airplane must have adequate
directional control during taxiing.
(d) Seaplanes must demonstrate satisfactory directional stability and control for water operations up to the
on
unpaved
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5192, Feb. 9, 1996]
Operation on water.
A wave height, demonstrated to be
safe for operation, and any necessary
water handling procedures for seaplanes and amphibians must be established.
[Doc. No. 27807, 61 FR 5192, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.239
Spray characteristics.
Spray may not dangerously obscure
the vision of the pilots or damage the
propellers or other parts of a seaplane
or amphibian at any time during taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
MISCELLANEOUS FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS
§ 23.251
Vibration and buffeting.
(a) There must be no vibration or
buffeting severe enough to result in
structural damage, and each part of
the airplane must be free from excessive vibration, under any appropriate
speed and power conditions up to VD/
MD, or VDF/MDF for turbojets. In addition, there must be no buffeting in any
normal flight condition, including configuration changes during cruise, severe enough to interfere with the satisfactory control of the airplane or cause
excessive fatigue to the flight crew.
Stall warning buffeting within these
limits is allowable.
(b) There must be no perceptible buffeting condition in the cruise configuration in straight flight at any speed
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sur-
The airplane must be demonstrated
to have satisfactory characteristics
and the shock-absorbing mechanism
must not damage the structure of the
airplane when the airplane is taxied on
the roughest ground that may reasonably be expected in normal operation
and when takeoffs and landings are
performed on unpaved runways having
the roughest surface that may reasonably be expected in normal operation.
§ 23.237
GROUND AND WATER HANDLING
CHARACTERISTICS
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
maximum wind velocity specified in
paragraph (a) of this section.
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§ 23.253
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
up to VMO/MMO, except stall buffeting,
which is allowable.
(c) For airplanes with MD greater
than M 0.6 or a maximum operating altitude greater than 25,000 feet, the positive maneuvering load factors at which
the onset of perceptible buffeting occurs must be determined with the airplane in the cruise configuration for
the ranges of airspeed or Mach number,
weight, and altitude for which the airplane is to be certificated. The envelopes of load factor, speed, altitude,
and weight must provide a sufficient
range of speeds and load factors for
normal operations. Probable inadvertent excursions beyond the boundaries of the buffet onset envelopes may
not result in unsafe conditions.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75755, Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.253 High speed characteristics.
If a maximum operating speed VMO/
MMO is established under § 23.1505(c),
the following speed increase and recovery characteristics must be met:
(a) Operating conditions and characteristics likely to cause inadvertent
speed increases (including upsets in
pitch and roll) must be simulated with
the airplane trimmed at any likely
speed up to VMO/MMO. These conditions
and characteristics include gust upsets,
inadvertent control movements, low
stick force gradients in relation to control friction, passenger movement, leveling off from climb, and descent from
Mach to airspeed limit altitude.
(b) Allowing for pilot reaction time
after occurrence of the effective inherent or artificial speed warning specified in § 23.1303, it must be shown that
the airplane can be recovered to a normal attitude and its speed reduced to
VMO/MMO, without—
(1) Exceptional piloting strength or
skill;
(2) Exceeding VD/MD, or VDF/MDF for
turbojets, the maximum speed shown
under § 23.251, or the structural limitations; and
(3) Buffeting that would impair the
pilot’s ability to read the instruments
or to control the airplane for recovery.
(c) There may be no control reversal
about any axis at any speed up to the
maximum speed shown under § 23.251.
Any reversal of elevator control force
or tendency of the airplane to pitch,
roll, or yaw must be mild and readily
controllable, using normal piloting
techniques.
(d) Maximum speed for stability characteristics, VFC/MFC. VFC/MFC may not be
less than a speed midway between VMO/
MMO and VDF/MDF except that, for altitudes where Mach number is the limiting factor, MFC need not exceed the
Mach number at which effective speed
warning occurs.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13087, Aug. 13, 1969, as
amended by Amdt. 23–26, 45 FR 60170, Sept.
11, 1980; Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6, 1993;
Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5192, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt.
23–62, 76 FR 75755, Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.255
Out of trim characteristics.
For airplanes with an MD greater
than M 0.6 and that incorporate a
trimmable horizontal stabilizer, the
following requirements for out-of-trim
characteristics apply:
(a) From an initial condition with
the airplane trimmed at cruise speeds
up to VMO/MMO, the airplane must have
satisfactory maneuvering stability and
controllability with the degree of outof-trim in both the airplane nose-up
and nose-down directions, which results from the greater of the following:
(1) A three-second movement of the
longitudinal trim system at its normal
rate for the particular flight condition
with no aerodynamic load (or an equivalent degree of trim for airplanes that
do not have a power-operated trim system), except as limited by stops in the
trim system, including those required
by § 23.655(b) for adjustable stabilizers;
or
(2) The maximum mistrim that can
be sustained by the autopilot while
maintaining level flight in the high
speed cruising condition.
(b) In the out-of-trim condition specified in paragraph (a) of this section,
when the normal acceleration is varied
from + l g to the positive and negative
values specified in paragraph (c) of this
section, the following apply:
(1) The stick force versus g curve
must have a positive slope at any speed
up to and including VFC/MFC; and
(2) At speeds between VFC/MFC and
VDF/MDF, the direction of the primary
longitudinal control force may not reverse.
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jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.302
(c) Except as provided in paragraphs
(d) and (e) of this section, compliance
with the provisions of paragraph (a) of
this section must be demonstrated in
flight over the acceleration range as
follows:
(1) ¥1 g to + 2.5 g; or
(2) 0 g to 2.0 g, and extrapolating by
an acceptable method to ¥1 g and + 2.5
g.
(d) If the procedure set forth in paragraph (c)(2) of this section is used to
demonstrate compliance and marginal
conditions exist during flight test with
regard to reversal of primary longitudinal control force, flight tests must be
accomplished from the normal acceleration at which a marginal condition
is found to exist to the applicable limit
specified in paragraph (b)(1) of this section.
(e) During flight tests required by
paragraph (a) of this section, the limit
maneuvering load factors, prescribed in
§§ 23.333(b) and 23.337, need not be exceeded. In addition, the entry speeds
for flight test demonstrations at normal acceleration values less than 1 g
must be limited to the extent necessary to accomplish a recovery without exceeding VDF/MDF.
(f) In the out-of-trim condition specified in paragraph (a) of this section, it
must be possible from an overspeed
condition at VDF/MDF to produce at
least 1.5 g for recovery by applying not
more than 125 pounds of longitudinal
control force using either the primary
longitudinal control alone or the primary longitudinal control and the longitudinal trim system. If the longitudinal trim is used to assist in producing the required load factor, it must
be shown at VDF/MDF that the longitudinal trim can be actuated in the airplane nose-up direction with the primary surface loaded to correspond to
the least of the following airplane
nose-up control forces:
(1) The maximum control forces expected in service, as specified in
§§ 23.301 and 23.397.
(2) The control force required to
produce 1.5 g.
(3) The control force corresponding to
buffeting or other phenomena of such
intensity that it is a strong deterrent
to further application of primary longitudinal control force.
[Doc. No. FAA–2009–0738, 76 FR 75755, Dec. 2,
2011]
Subpart C—Structure
GENERAL
§ 23.301
Loads.
(a) Strength requirements are specified in terms of limit loads (the maximum loads to be expected in service)
and ultimate loads (limit loads multiplied by prescribed factors of safety).
Unless otherwise provided, prescribed
loads are limit loads.
(b) Unless otherwise provided, the
air, ground, and water loads must be
placed in equilibrium with inertia
forces, considering each item of mass
in the airplane. These loads must be
distributed to conservatively approximate or closely represent actual conditions. Methods used to determine load
intensities and distribution on canard
and tandem wing configurations must
be validated by flight test measurement unless the methods used for determining those loading conditions are
shown to be reliable or conservative on
the configuration under consideration.
(c) If deflections under load would
significantly change the distribution of
external or internal loads, this redistribution must be taken into account.
(d) Simplified structural design criteria may be used if they result in design loads not less than those prescribed in §§ 23.331 through 23.521. For
airplane configurations described in
appendix A, § 23.1, the design criteria of
appendix A of this part are an approved
equivalent of §§ 23.321 through 23.459. If
appendix A of this part is used, the entire appendix must be substituted for
the corresponding sections of this part.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
28, 47 FR 13315, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt. 23–42, 56
FR 352, Jan. 3, 1991; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5143,
Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.302 Canard or tandem wing configurations.
The forward structure of a canard or
tandem wing configuration must:
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§ 23.303
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(a) Meet all requirements of subpart
C and subpart D of this part applicable
to a wing; and
(b) Meet all requirements applicable
to the function performed by these surfaces.
[Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 352, Jan. 3, 1991]
§ 23.303
Factor of safety.
Unless otherwise provided, a factor of
safety of 1.5 must be used.
§ 23.305
Strength and deformation.
(a) The structure must be able to
support limit loads without detrimental, permanent deformation. At
any load up to limit loads, the deformation may not interfere with safe operation.
(b) The structure must be able to
support ultimate loads without failure
for at least three seconds, except local
failures or structural instabilities between limit and ultimate load are acceptable only if the structure can sustain the required ultimate load for at
least three seconds. However when
proof of strength is shown by dynamic
tests simulating actual load conditions, the three second limit does not
apply.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6,
1993]
§ 23.307
Proof of structure.
(a) Compliance with the strength and
deformation requirements of § 23.305
must be shown for each critical load
condition. Structural analysis may be
used only if the structure conforms to
those for which experience has shown
this method to be reliable. In other
cases, substantiating load tests must
be made. Dynamic tests, including
structural flight tests, are acceptable if
the design load conditions have been
simulated.
(b) Certain parts of the structure
must be tested as specified in Subpart
D of this part.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
FLIGHT LOADS
§ 23.321 General.
(a) Flight load factors represent the
ratio of the aerodynamic force component (acting normal to the assumed
longitudinal axis of the airplane) to the
weight of the airplane. A positive flight
load factor is one in which the aerodynamic force acts upward, with respect to the airplane.
(b) Compliance with the flight load
requirements of this subpart must be
shown—
(1) At each critical altitude within
the range in which the airplane may be
expected to operate;
(2) At each weight from the design
minimum weight to the design maximum weight; and
(3) For each required altitude and
weight, for any practicable distribution
of disposable load within the operating
limitations
specified
in
§§ 23.1583
through 23.1589.
(c) When significant, the effects of
compressibility must be taken into account.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6,
1993]
§ 23.331 Symmetrical flight conditions.
(a) The appropriate balancing horizontal tail load must be accounted for
in a rational or conservative manner
when determining the wing loads and
linear inertia loads corresponding to
any of the symmetrical flight conditions specified in §§ 23.333 through
23.341.
(b) The incremental horizontal tail
loads due to maneuvering and gusts
must be reacted by the angular inertia
of the airplane in a rational or conservative manner.
(c) Mutual influence of the aerodynamic surfaces must be taken into
account when determining flight loads.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
42, 56 FR 352, Jan. 3, 1991]
§ 23.333 Flight envelope.
(a) General. Compliance with the
strength requirements of this subpart
must be shown at any combination of
airspeed and load factor on and within
the boundaries of a flight envelope
(similar to the one in paragraph (d) of
this section) that represents the envelope of the flight loading conditions
specified by the maneuvering and gust
criteria of paragraphs (b) and (c) of this
section respectively.
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§ 23.333
(ii) Positive and negative gusts of 25
f.p.s. at VD must be considered at altitudes between sea level and 20,000 feet.
The gust velocity may be reduced linearly from 25 f.p.s. at 20,000 feet to 12.5
f.p.s. at 50,000 feet.
(iii) In addition, for commuter category airplanes, positive (up) and negative (down) rough air gusts of 66 f.p.s.
at VB must be considered at altitudes
between sea level and 20,000 feet. The
gust velocity may be reduced linearly
from 66 f.p.s. at 20,000 feet to 38 f.p.s. at
50,000 feet.
(2) The following assumptions must
be made:
(i) The shape of the gust is—
U=
U de ⎛
2πs ⎞
⎟
⎜ 1 − COS
2 ⎝
25C ⎠
Where—
s = Distance penetrated into gust (ft.);
C = Mean geometric chord of wing (ft.); and
Ude = Derived gust velocity referred to in
subparagraph (1) of this section.
(ii) Gust load factors vary linearly
with speed between VC and VD .
(d) Flight envelope.
EC28SE91.001</GPH>
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13087, Aug. 13, 1969;
Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1829, Jan. 15, 1987]
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jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(b) Maneuvering envelope. Except
where limited by maximum (static) lift
coefficients, the airplane is assumed to
be subjected to symmetrical maneuvers resulting in the following limit
load factors:
(1) The positive maneuvering load
factor specified in § 23.337 at speeds up
to VD;
(2) The negative maneuvering load
factor specified in § 23.337 at VC; and
(3) Factors varying linearly with
speed from the specified value at VC to
0.0 at VD for the normal and commuter
category, and ¥1.0 at VD for the acrobatic and utility categories.
(c) Gust envelope. (1) The airplane is
assumed to be subjected to symmetrical vertical gusts in level flight. The
resulting limit load factors must correspond to the conditions determined
as follows:
(i) Positive (up) and negative (down)
gusts of 50 f.p.s. at VC must be considered at altitudes between sea level and
20,000 feet. The gust velocity may be
reduced linearly from 50 f.p.s. at 20,000
feet to 25 f.p.s. at 50,000 feet.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.335
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
§ 23.335 Design airspeeds.
Except as provided in paragraph
(a)(4) of this section, the selected design airspeeds are equivalent airspeeds
(EAS).
(a) Design cruising speed, VC. For VC
the following apply:
(1) Where W/S′ = wing loading at the
design maximum takeoff weight, Vc (in
knots) may not be less than—
(i) 33 √(W/S) (for normal, utility, and
commuter category airplanes);
(ii) 36 √(W/S) (for acrobatic category
airplanes).
(2) For values of W/S more than 20,
the multiplying factors may be decreased linearly with W/S to a value of
28.6 where W/S = 100.
(3) VC need not be more than 0.9 VH at
sea level.
(4) At altitudes where an MD is established, a cruising speed MC limited by
compressibility may be selected.
(b) Design dive speed VD. For VD, the
following apply:
(1) VD/MD may not be less than 1.25
VC/MC; and
(2) With VC min, the required minimum
design cruising speed, VD (in knots)
may not be less than—
(i) 1.40 Vc min (for normal and commuter category airplanes);
(ii) 1.50 VC min (for utility category
airplanes); and
(iii) 1.55 VC min (for acrobatic category
airplanes).
(3) For values of W/S more than 20,
the multiplying factors in paragraph
(b)(2) of this section may be decreased
linearly with W/S to a value of 1.35
where W/S = 100.
(4) Compliance with paragraphs (b)(1)
and (2) of this section need not be
shown if VD/MD is selected so that the
minimum speed margin between VC/MC
and VD/MD is the greater of the following:
(i) The speed increase resulting when,
from the initial condition of stabilized
flight at VC/MC, the airplane is assumed
to be upset, flown for 20 seconds along
a flight path 7.5° below the initial path,
and then pulled up with a load factor of
1.5 (0.5 g. acceleration increment). At
least 75 percent maximum continuous
power for reciprocating engines, and
maximum cruising power for turbines,
or, if less, the power required for VC/MC
for both kinds of engines, must be as-
sumed until the pullup is initiated, at
which point power reduction and pilotcontrolled drag devices may be used;
and either—
(ii) Mach 0.05 for normal, utility, and
acrobatic category airplanes (at altitudes where MD is established); or
(iii) Mach 0.07 for commuter category
airplanes (at altitudes where MD is established) unless a rational analysis,
including the effects of automatic systems, is used to determine a lower margin. If a rational analysis is used, the
minimum speed margin must be
enough to provide for atmospheric
variations (such as horizontal gusts),
and the penetration of jet streams or
cold fronts), instrument errors, airframe production variations, and must
not be less than Mach 0.05.
(c) Design maneuvering speed VA. For
VA, the following applies:
(1) VA may not be less than VS√n
where—
(i) VS is a computed stalling speed
with flaps retracted at the design
weight, normally based on the maximum airplane normal force coefficients, CNA; and
(ii) n is the limit maneuvering load
factor used in design
(2) The value of VA need not exceed
the value of VC used in design.
(d) Design speed for maximum gust intensity, VB. For VB, the following apply:
(1) VB may not be less than the speed
determined by the intersection of the
line representing the maximum positive lift, CNMAX, and the line representing the rough air gust velocity
on the gust V-n diagram, or VS1√ ng,
whichever is less, where:
(i) ng the positive airplane gust load
factor due to gust, at speed VC (in accordance with § 23.341), and at the particular weight under consideration; and
(ii) VS1 is the stalling speed with the
flaps retracted at the particular weight
under consideration.
(2) VB need not be greater than VC.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13088, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–16, 40 FR 2577, Jan. 14, 1975;
Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1829, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt.
23–24, 52 FR 34745, Sept. 14, 1987; Amdt. 23–48,
61 FR 5143, Feb. 9, 1996]
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§ 23.343
§ 23.337 Limit maneuvering load factors.
(a) The positive limit maneuvering
load factor n may not be less than—
(1) 2.1 + (24,000 ÷ (W + 10,000)) for normal and commuter category airplanes,
where W = design maximum takeoff
weight, except that n need not be more
than 3.8;
(2) 4.4 for utility category airplanes;
or
(3) 6.0 for acrobatic category airplanes.
(b) The negative limit maneuvering
load factor may not be less than—
(1) 0.4 times the positive load factor
for the normal utility and commuter
categories; or
(2) 0.5 times the positive load factor
for the acrobatic category.
(c) Maneuvering load factors lower
than those specified in this section
may be used if the airplane has design
features that make it impossible to exceed these values in flight.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13088, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1829, Jan. 15, 1987;
Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5144, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.341 Gust loads factors.
(a) Each airplane must be designed to
withstand loads on each lifting surface
resulting from gusts specified in
§ 23.333(c).
(b) The gust load for a canard or tandem wing configuration must be computed using a rational analysis, or may
be computed in accordance with paragraph (c) of this section, provided that
the resulting net loads are shown to be
conservative with respect to the gust
criteria of § 23.333(c).
(c) In the absence of a more rational
analysis, the gust load factors must be
computed as follows—
K g U de V a
498 ( W/S)
Where—
Kg = 0.88μg / 5.3 + μg = gust alleviation factor;
μg = 2(W/S)/r Cag = airplane mass ratio;
Ude = Derived gust velocities referred to in
§ 23.333(c) (f.p.s.);
r = Density of air (slugs/cu.ft.);
W/S = Wing loading (p.s.f.) due to the applicable weight of the airplane in the particular load case.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13088, Aug. 13, 1969, as
amended by Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 352, Jan. 3,
1991; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5144, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.343
Design fuel loads.
(a) The disposable load combinations
must include each fuel load in the
range from zero fuel to the selected
maximum fuel load.
(b) If fuel is carried in the wings, the
maximum allowable weight of the airplane without any fuel in the wing
tank(s) must be established as ‘‘maximum zero wing fuel weight,’’ if it is
less than the maximum weight.
(c) For commuter category airplanes,
a structural reserve fuel condition, not
exceeding fuel necessary for 45 minutes
of operation at maximum continuous
power, may be selected. If a structural
reserve fuel condition is selected, it
must be used as the minimum fuel
weight condition for showing compliance with the flight load requirements
prescribed in this part and—
(1) The structure must be designed to
withstand a condition of zero fuel in
the wing at limit loads corresponding
to:
(i) Ninety percent of the maneuvering load factors defined in § 23.337,
and
(ii) Gust velocities equal to 85 percent of the values prescribed in
§ 23.333(c).
(2) The fatigue evaluation of the
structure must account for any increase in operating stresses resulting
from the design condition of paragraph
(c)(1) of this section.
(3) The flutter, deformation, and vibration requirements must also be met
with zero fuel in the wings.
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5144, Feb. 9, 1996]
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jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
n = 1+
W/S = Wing loading (p.s.f.);
C = Mean geometric chord (ft.);
g = Acceleration due to gravity (ft./sec.2)
V = Airplane equivalent speed (knots); and
a = Slope of the airplane normal force coefficient curve CNA per radian if the gust
loads are applied to the wings and horizontal tail surfaces simultaneously by a
rational method. The wing lift curve
slope CL per radian may be used when the
gust load is applied to the wings only and
the horizontal tail gust loads are treated
as a separate condition.
§ 23.345
§ 23.345
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
High lift devices.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(a) If flaps or similar high lift devices
are to be used for takeoff, approach or
landing, the airplane, with the flaps
fully extended at VF, is assumed to be
subjected to symmetrical maneuvers
and gusts within the range determined
by—
(1) Maneuvering, to a positive limit
load factor of 2.0; and
(2) Positive and negative gust of 25
feet per second acting normal to the
flight path in level flight.
(b) VF must be assumed to be not less
than 1.4 VS or 1.8 VSF, whichever is
greater, where—
(1) VS is the computed stalling speed
with flaps retracted at the design
weight; and
(2) VSF is the computed stalling speed
with flaps fully extended at the design
weight.
(3) If an automatic flap load limiting
device is used, the airplane may be designed for the critical combinations of
airspeed and flap position allowed by
that device.
(c) In determining external loads on
the airplane as a whole, thrust, slipstream, and pitching acceleration may
be assumed to be zero.
(d) The flaps, their operating mechanism, and their supporting structures,
must be designed to withstand the conditions prescribed in paragraph (a) of
this section. In addition, with the flaps
fully extended at VF, the following conditions, taken separately, must be accounted for:
(1) A head-on gust having a velocity
of 25 feet per second (EAS), combined
with
propeller
slipstream
corresponding to 75 percent of maximum
continuous power; and
(2) The effects of propeller slipstream
corresponding to maximum takeoff
power.
sidering the principal masses furnishing the reacting inertia forces.
(b) Acrobatic category airplanes certified for flick maneuvers (snap roll)
must be designed for additional asymmetric loads acting on the wing and
the horizontal tail.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5144, Feb. 9,
1996]
§ 23.349
Rolling conditions.
The wing and wing bracing must be
designed for the following loading conditions:
(a) Unsymmetrical wing loads appropriate to the category. Unless the following values result in unrealistic
loads, the rolling accelerations may be
obtained by modifying the symmetrical flight conditions in § 23.333(d) as
follows:
(1) For the acrobatic category, in
conditions A and F, assume that 100
percent of the semispan wing airload
acts on one side of the plane of symmetry and 60 percent of this load acts
on the other side.
(2) For normal, utility, and commuter categories, in Condition A, assume that 100 percent of the semispan
wing airload acts on one side of the airplane and 75 percent of this load acts
on the other side.
(b) The loads resulting from the aileron deflections and speeds specified in
§ 23.455, in combination with an airplane load factor of at least two thirds
of the positive maneuvering load factor
used for design. Unless the following
values result in unrealistic loads, the
effect of aileron displacement on wing
torsion may be accounted for by adding
the following increment to the basic
airfoil moment coefficient over the aileron portion of the span in the critical
condition determined in § 23.333(d):
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5144, Feb. 9, 1996]
Dcm = ¥0.01d
§ 23.347 Unsymmetrical
tions.
where—
flight
condi-
(a) The airplane is assumed to be subjected to the unsymmetrical flight conditions of §§ 23.349 and 23.351. Unbalanced aerodynamic moments about the
center of gravity must be reacted in a
rational or conservative manner, con-
Dcm is the moment coefficient increment; and
d is the down aileron deflection in degrees in
the critical condition.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13088, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1829, Jan. 15, 1987;
Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5144, Feb. 9, 1996]
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§ 23.351
§ 23.367
Yawing conditions.
The airplane must be designed for
yawing loads on the vertical surfaces
resulting from the loads specified in
§§ 23.441 through 23.445.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
42, 56 FR 352, Jan. 3, 1991]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.361
Engine torque.
(a) Each engine mount and its supporting structure must be designed for
the effects of—
(1) A limit engine torque corresponding to takeoff power and propeller speed acting simultaneously
with 75 percent of the limit loads from
flight condition A of § 23.333(d);
(2) A limit engine torque corresponding to maximum continuous
power and propeller speed acting simultaneously with the limit loads from
flight condition A of § 23.333(d); and
(3) For turbopropeller installations,
in addition to the conditions specified
in paragraphs (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this
section, a limit engine torque corresponding to takeoff power and propeller speed, multiplied by a factor accounting for propeller control system
malfunction, including quick feathering, acting simultaneously with lg
level flight loads. In the absence of a
rational analysis, a factor of 1.6 must
be used.
(b) For turbine engine installations,
the engine mounts and supporting
structure must be designed to withstand each of the following:
(1) A limit engine torque load imposed by sudden engine stoppage due to
malfunction or structural failure (such
as compressor jamming).
(2) A limit engine torque load imposed by the maximum acceleration of
the engine.
(c) The limit engine torque to be considered under paragraph (a) of this section must be obtained by multiplying
the mean torque by a factor of—
(1) 1.25 for turbopropeller installations;
(2) 1.33 for engines with five or more
cylinders; and
(3) Two, three, or four, for engines
with four, three, or two cylinders, respectively.
[Amdt. 23–26, 45 FR 60171, Sept. 11, 1980, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6,
1993]
§ 23.363 Side load on engine mount.
(a) Each engine mount and its supporting structure must be designed for
a limit load factor in a lateral direction, for the side load on the engine
mount, of not less than—
(1) 1.33, or
(2) One-third of the limit load factor
for flight condition A.
(b) The side load prescribed in paragraph (a) of this section may be assumed to be independent of other flight
conditions.
§ 23.365 Pressurized cabin loads.
For each pressurized compartment,
the following apply:
(a) The airplane structure must be
strong enough to withstand the flight
loads combined with pressure differential loads from zero up to the maximum relief valve setting.
(b) The external pressure distribution
in flight, and any stress concentrations, must be accounted for.
(c) If landings may be made with the
cabin pressurized, landing loads must
be combined with pressure differential
loads from zero up to the maximum allowed during landing.
(d) The airplane structure must be
strong enough to withstand the pressure differential loads corresponding to
the maximum relief valve setting multiplied by a factor of 1.33, omitting
other loads.
(e) If a pressurized cabin has two or
more compartments separated by bulkheads or a floor, the primary structure
must be designed for the effects of sudden release of pressure in any compartment with external doors or windows.
This condition must be investigated for
the effects of failure of the largest
opening in the compartment. The effects of intercompartmental venting
may be considered.
§ 23.367 Unsymmetrical loads due to
engine failure.
(a) Turbopropeller airplanes must be
designed for the unsymmetrical loads
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§ 23.369
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
resulting from the failure of the critical engine including the following conditions in combination with a single
malfunction of the propeller drag limiting system, considering the probable
pilot corrective action on the flight
controls:
(1) At speeds between VMC and VD, the
loads resulting from power failure because of fuel flow interruption are considered to be limit loads.
(2) At speeds between VMC and VC, the
loads resulting from the disconnection
of the engine compressor from the turbine or from loss of the turbine blades
are considered to be ultimate loads.
(3) The time history of the thrust
decay and drag buildup occurring as a
result of the prescribed engine failures
must be substantiated by test or other
data applicable to the particular engine-propeller combination.
(4) The timing and magnitude of the
probable pilot corrective action must
be conservatively estimated, considering the characteristics of the particular engine-propeller-airplane combination.
(b) Pilot corrective action may be assumed to be initiated at the time maximum yawing velocity is reached, but
not earlier than 2 seconds after the engine failure. The magnitude of the corrective action may be based on the
limit pilot forces specified in § 23.397
except that lower forces may be assumed where it is shown by analysis or
test that these forces can control the
yaw and roll resulting from the prescribed engine failure conditions.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089, Aug. 13,
1969; 34 FR 17509, Oct. 30, 1969; Amdt. 23–45, 58
FR 42160, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR
5145, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.371 Gyroscopic and aerodynamic
loads.
(a) Each engine mount and its supporting structure must be designed for
the gyroscopic, inertial, and aerodynamic loads that result, with the engine(s) and propeller(s), if applicable,
at maximum continuous r.p.m., under
either:
(1) The conditions prescribed in
§ 23.351 and § 23.423; or
(2) All possible combinations of the
following—
(i) A yaw velocity of 2.5 radians per
second;
(ii) A pitch velocity of 1.0 radian per
second;
(iii) A normal load factor of 2.5; and
(iv) Maximum continuous thrust.
(b) For airplanes approved for aerobatic maneuvers, each engine mount
and its supporting structure must meet
the requirements of paragraph (a) of
this section and be designed to withstand the load factors expected during
combined maximum yaw and pitch velocities.
(c) For airplanes certificated in the
commuter
category,
each
engine
mount and its supporting structure
must meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this section and the gust
conditions specified in § 23.341 of this
part.
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5145, Feb. 9, 1996]
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089, Aug. 13, 1969]
§ 23.369
a peak at the trailing edge and zero at
the leading edge, must be used.
Rear lift truss.
(a) If a rear lift truss is used, it must
be designed to withstand conditions of
reversed airflow at a design speed of—
V = 8.7 √(W/S) + 8.7 (knots), where W/
S = wing loading at design maximum
takeoff weight.
(b) Either aerodynamic data for the
particular wing section used, or a value
of CL equalling ¥0.8 with a chordwise
distribution that is triangular between
§ 23.373 Speed control devices.
If speed control devices (such as
spoilers and drag flaps) are incorporated for use in enroute conditions—
(a) The airplane must be designed for
the symmetrical maneuvers and gusts
prescribed in §§ 23.333, 23.337, and 23.341,
and the yawing maneuvers and lateral
gusts in §§ 23.441 and 23.443, with the device extended at speeds up to the
placard device extended speed; and
(b) If the device has automatic operating or load limiting features, the airplane must be designed for the maneuver and gust conditions prescribed in
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§ 23.397
paragraph (a) of this section at the
speeds and corresponding device positions that the mechanism allows.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089, Aug. 13, 1969]
CONTROL SURFACE AND SYSTEM LOADS
§ 23.391 Control surface loads.
The control surface loads specified in
§§ 23.397 through 23.459 are assumed to
occur in the conditions described in
§§ 23.331 through 23.351.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5145, Feb. 9,
1996]
§ 23.393 Loads parallel to hinge line.
(a) Control surfaces and supporting
hinge brackets must be designed to
withstand inertial loads acting parallel
to the hinge line.
(b) In the absence of more rational
data, the inertial loads may be assumed to be equal to KW, where—
(1) K = 24 for vertical surfaces;
(2) K = 12 for horizontal surfaces; and
(3) W = weight of the movable surfaces.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5145, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.395 Control system loads.
(a) Each flight control system and its
supporting structure must be designed
for loads corresponding to at least 125
percent of the computed hinge moments of the movable control surface
in the conditions prescribed in §§ 23.391
through 23.459. In addition, the following apply:
(1) The system limit loads need not
exceed the higher of the loads that can
be produced by the pilot and automatic
devices operating the controls. However, autopilot forces need not be added
to pilot forces. The system must be designed for the maximum effort of the
pilot or autopilot, whichever is higher.
In addition, if the pilot and the autopilot act in opposition, the part of the
system between them may be designed
for the maximum effort of the one that
imposes the lesser load. Pilot forces
used for design need not exceed the
maximum
forces
prescribed
in
§ 23.397(b).
(2) The design must, in any case, provide a rugged system for service use,
considering jamming, ground gusts,
taxiing downwind, control inertia, and
friction. Compliance with this subparagraph may be shown by designing for
loads resulting from application of the
minimum
forces
prescribed
in
§ 23.397(b).
(b) A 125 percent factor on computed
hinge moments must be used to design
elevator, aileron, and rudder systems.
However, a factor as low as 1.0 may be
used if hinge moments are based on accurate flight test data, the exact reduction depending upon the accuracy and
reliability of the data.
(c) Pilot forces used for design are assumed to act at the appropriate control
grips or pads as they would in flight,
and to react at the attachments of the
control system to the control surface
horns.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089, Aug. 13,
1969]
§ 23.397 Limit
torques.
control
forces
(a) In the control surface flight loading condition, the airloads on movable
surfaces and the corresponding deflections need not exceed those that would
result in flight from the application of
any pilot force within the ranges specified in paragraph (b) of this section. In
applying this criterion, the effects of
control system boost and servo-mechanisms, and the effects of tabs must be
considered. The automatic pilot effort
must be used for design if it alone can
produce higher control surface loads
than the human pilot.
(b) The limit pilot forces and torques
are as follows:
Control
Maximum forces
or torques for
design weight,
weight equal to
or less than
5,000 pounds 1
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Minimum
forces or
torques 2
Aileron:
Stick ................................
Wheel 3 ............................
67 lbs ................
50 D in.-lbs 4 .....
40 lbs.
40 D in.lbs.4
Elevator:
Stick ................................
Wheel (symmetrical) .......
Wheel (unsymmetrical) 5
167 lbs ..............
200 lbs ..............
...........................
100 lbs.
100 lbs.
100 lbs.
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§ 23.399
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Control
Maximum forces
or torques for
design weight,
weight equal to
or less than
5,000 pounds 1
Rudder ................................
200 lbs ..............
flections must correspond to the maximum degree of ‘‘out of trim’’ expected
at the speed for the condition under
consideration.
Minimum
forces or
torques 2
§ 23.409
150 lbs.
1 For design weight (W) more than 5,000 pounds, the speci-
fied maximum values must be increased linearly with weight
to 1.18 times the specified values at a design weight of
12,500 pounds and for commuter category airplanes, the
specified values must be increased linearly with weight to
1.35 times the specified values at a design weight of 19,000
pounds.
2 If the design of any individual set of control systems or
surfaces makes these specified minimum forces or torques inapplicable, values corresponding to the present hinge moments obtained under § 23.415, but not less than 0.6 of the
specified minimum forces or torques, may be used.
3 The critical parts of the aileron control system must also
be designed for a single tangential force with a limit value of
1.25 times the couple force determined from the above criteria.
4 D = wheel diameter (inches).
5 The unsymmetrical force must be applied at one of the
normal handgrip points on the control wheel.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–17, 41 FR 55464, Dec. 20, 1976;
Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1829, Jan. 15, 1987; Amdt.
23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6, 1993]
§ 23.399 Dual control system.
(a) Each dual control system must be
designed to withstand the force of the
pilots operating in opposition, using individual pilot forces not less than the
greater of—
(1) 0.75 times those obtained under
§ 23.395; or
(2) The minimum forces specified in
§ 23.397(b).
(b) Each dual control system must be
designed to withstand the force of the
pilots applied together, in the same direction, using individual pilot forces
not less than 0.75 times those obtained
under § 23.395.
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5145, Feb. 9, 1996]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.405 Secondary control system.
Secondary controls, such as wheel
brakes, spoilers, and tab controls, must
be designed for the maximum forces
that a pilot is likely to apply to those
controls.
§ 23.407 Trim tab effects.
The effects of trim tabs on the control surface design conditions must be
accounted for only where the surface
loads are limited by maximum pilot effort. In these cases, the tabs are considered to be deflected in the direction
that would assist the pilot. These de-
Tabs.
Control surface tabs must be designed for the most severe combination
of airspeed and tab deflection likely to
be obtained within the flight envelope
for any usable loading condition.
§ 23.415
Ground gust conditions.
(a) The control system must be investigated as follows for control surface
loads due to ground gusts and taxiing
downwind:
(1) If an investigation of the control
system for ground gust loads is not required by paragraph (a)(2) of this section, but the applicant elects to design
a part of the control system of these
loads, these loads need only be carried
from control surface horns through the
nearest stops or gust locks and their
supporting structures.
(2) If pilot forces less than the minimums specified in § 23.397(b) are used
for design, the effects of surface loads
due to ground gusts and taxiing downwind must be investigated for the entire control system according to the
formula:
H=KcSq
where—
H = limit hinge moment (ft.-lbs.);
c = mean chord of the control surface aft of
the hinge line (ft.);
S = area of control surface aft of the hinge
line (sq. ft.);
q = dynamic pressure (p.s.f.) based on a design speed not less than 14.6 √(W/S) + 14.6
(f.p.s.) where W/S = wing loading at design maximum weight, except that the
design speed need not exceed 88 (f.p.s.);
K = limit hinge moment factor for ground
gusts derived in paragraph (b) of this section. (For ailerons and elevators, a positive value of K indicates a moment tending to depress the surface and a negative
value of K indicates a moment tending to
raise the surface).
(b) The limit hinge moment factor K
for ground gusts must be derived as follows:
Surface
K
(a) Aileron .........
0.75
Position of controls
Control column locked lashed in
mid-position.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.425
Surface
K
Position of controls
(b) Aileron .........
±0.50
(c) Elevator .......
(d) Elevator .......
(e) Rudder .........
(f) Rudder ..........
±0.75
............
±0.75
............
Ailerons at full throw; + moment
on one aileron, ¥ moment on
the other.
(c) Elevator full up (¥).
(d) Elevator full down ( + ).
(e) Rudder in neutral.
(f) Rudder at full throw.
(c) At all weights between the empty
weight and the maximum weight declared for tie-down stated in the appropriate manual, any declared tie-down
points and surrounding structure, control system, surfaces and associated
gust locks, must be designed to withstand the limit load conditions that
exist when the airplane is tied down
and that result from wind speeds of up
to 65 knots horizontally from any direction.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6, 1993;
Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5145, Feb. 9, 1996]
HORIZONTAL STABILIZING AND
BALANCING SURFACES
§ 23.421 Balancing loads.
(a) A horizontal surface balancing
load is a load necessary to maintain
equilibrium in any specified flight condition with no pitching acceleration.
(b) Horizontal balancing surfaces
must be designed for the balancing
loads occurring at any point on the
limit maneuvering envelope and in the
flap conditions specified in § 23.345.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 352, Jan. 3, 1991]
§ 23.423 Maneuvering loads.
Each horizontal surface and its supporting structure, and the main wing
of a canard or tandem wing configuration, if that surface has pitch control,
must be designed for the maneuvering
loads imposed by the following conditions:
(a) A sudden movement of the pitching control, at the speed VA, to the
maximum aft movement, and the maximum forward movement, as limited by
the control stops, or pilot effort,
whichever is critical.
(b) A sudden aft movement of the
pitching control at speeds above VA,
followed by a forward movement of the
pitching control resulting in the following combinations of normal and angular acceleration:
Condition
Nose-up pitching ........
Nose-down pitching ....
Normal
acceleration (n)
1.0
nm
Angular acceleration
(radian/sec2)
+ 39nm ÷ V × (nm¥1.5)
¥39nm ÷ V × (nm¥1.5)
where—
(1) nm = positive limit maneuvering
load factor used in the design of the
airplane; and
(2) V = initial speed in knots.
The conditions in this paragraph involve loads corresponding to the loads
that may occur in a ‘‘checked maneuver’’ (a maneuver in which the pitching
control is suddenly displaced in one direction and then suddenly moved in the
opposite direction). The deflections and
timing of the ‘‘checked maneuver’’
must avoid exceeding the limit maneuvering load factor. The total horizontal
surface load for both nose-up and nosedown pitching conditions is the sum of
the balancing loads at V and the specified value of the normal load factor n,
plus the maneuvering load increment
due to the specified value of the angular acceleration.
[Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3, 1991; 56 FR
5455, Feb. 11, 1991]
§ 23.425
Gust loads.
(a) Each horizontal surface, other
than a main wing, must be designed for
loads resulting from—
(1) Gust velocities specified in
§ 23.333(c) with flaps retracted; and
(2) Positive and negative gusts of 25
f.p.s. nominal intensity at VF corresponding to the flight conditions
specified in § 23.345(a)(2).
(b) [Reserved]
(c) When determining the total load
on the horizontal surfaces for the conditions specified in paragraph (a) of
this section, the initial balancing loads
for steady unaccelerated flight at the
pertinent design speeds VF, VC, and VD
must first be determined. The incremental load resulting from the gusts
must be added to the initial balancing
load to obtain the total load.
(d) In the absence of a more rational
analysis, the incremental load due to
the gust must be computed as follows
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§ 23.427
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
K g U de Va ht S ht ⎛
dε ⎞
⎜1 −
⎟
⎝
498
dα ⎠
where—
DLht = Incremental horizontal tailload (lbs.);
Kg = Gust alleviation factor defined in
§ 23.341;
Ude = Derived gust velocity (f.p.s.);
V = Airplane equivalent speed (knots);
aht = Slope of aft horizontal lift curve (per radian)
Sht = Area of aft horizontal lift surface (ft2);
and
dε ⎞
⎛
⎟ = Downwash factor
⎜1 −
⎝ dα ⎠
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13089 Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3, 1991]
§ 23.427 Unsymmetrical loads.
(a) Horizontal surfaces other than
main wing and their supporting structure must be designed for unsymmetrical loads arising from yawing and
slipstream effects, in combination with
the loads prescribed for the flight conditions set forth in §§ 23.421 through
23.425.
(b) In the absence of more rational
data for airplanes that are conventional in regard to location of engines,
wings, horizontal surfaces other than
main wing, and fuselage shape:
(1) 100 percent of the maximum loading from the symmetrical flight conditions may be assumed on the surface
on one side of the plane of symmetry;
and
(2) The following percentage of that
loading must be applied to the opposite
side:
Percent = 100 ¥ 10 (n ¥ 1), where n is the
specified positive maneuvering load factor, but this value may not be more than
80 percent.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(c) For airplanes that are not conventional (such as airplanes with hori-
[Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31820, Nov. 19, 1973, as
amended by Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3,
1991]
VERTICAL SURFACES
§ 23.441
Maneuvering loads.
(a) At speeds up to VA, the vertical
surfaces must be designed to withstand
the following conditions. In computing
the loads, the yawing velocity may be
assumed to be zero:
(1) With the airplane in unaccelerated flight at zero yaw, it is assumed
that the rudder control is suddenly displaced to the maximum deflection, as
limited by the control stops or by limit
pilot forces.
(2) With the rudder deflected as specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section,
it is assumed that the airplane yaws to
the overswing sideslip angle. In lieu of
a rational analysis, an overswing angle
equal to 1.5 times the static sideslip
angle of paragraph (a)(3) of this section
may be assumed.
(3) A yaw angle of 15 degrees with the
rudder control maintained in the neutral position (except as limited by pilot
strength).
(b) For commuter category airplanes,
the loads imposed by the following additional maneuver must be substantiated at speeds from VA to VD/MD.
When computing the tail loads—
(1) The airplane must be yawed to the
largest attainable steady state sideslip
angle, with the rudder at maximum deflection caused by any one of the following:
(i) Control surface stops;
(ii) Maximum available booster effort;
(iii) Maximum pilot rudder force as
shown below:
EC28SE91.003</MATH>
Δ L ht =
zontal surfaces other than main wing
having appreciable dihedral or supported by the vertical tail surfaces) the
surfaces and supporting structures
must be designed for combined vertical
and horizontal surface loads resulting
from each prescribed flight condition
taken separately.
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EC28SE91.002</MATH>
only on airplane configurations with
aft-mounted, horizontal surfaces, unless its use elsewhere is shown to be
conservative:
§ 23.441
(2) The rudder must be suddenly displaced from the maximum deflection to
the neutral position.
(c) The yaw angles specified in paragraph (a)(3) of this section may be reduced if the yaw angle chosen for a particular speed cannot be exceeded in—
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ER09FE96.006</GPH>
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.443
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Gust loads.
(a) Vertical surfaces must be designed to withstand, in unaccelerated
flight at speed VC, lateral gusts of the
values prescribed for VC in § 23.333(c).
(b) In addition, for commuter category airplanes, the airplane is assumed to encounter derived gusts normal to the plane of symmetry while in
unaccelerated flight at VB, VC, VD, and
VF. The derived gusts and airplane
speeds corresponding to these conditions, as determined by §§ 23.341 and
23.345, must be investigated. The shape
of the gust must be as specified in
§ 23.333(c)(2)(i).
(c) In the absence of a more rational
analysis, the gust load must be computed as follows:
L vt =
K gt U de V a vt S vt
498
Where—
Lvt = Vertical surface loads (lbs.);
k gt =
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
μ gt =
0.88 μ gt
5.3 + μ gt
2W
= gust alleviation factor;
K2
ρ c t g a vt S vt l vt
= lateral massratio;
Ude = Derived gust velocity (f.p.s.);
r = Air density (slugs/cu.ft.);
W = the applicable weight of the airplane in
the particular load case (lbs.);
Svt = Area of vertical surface (ft.2);
c̄t = Mean geometric chord of vertical surface
(ft.);
avt = Lift curve slope of vertical surface (per
radian);
K = Radius of gyration in yaw (ft.);
lvt = Distance from airplane c.g. to lift center
of vertical surface (ft.);
g = Acceleration due to gravity (ft./sec.2);
and
§ 23.445
Outboard fins or winglets.
(a) If outboard fins or winglets are included on the horizontal surfaces or
wings, the horizontal surfaces or wings
must be designed for their maximum
load in combination with loads induced
by the fins or winglets and moments or
forces exerted on the horizontal surfaces or wings by the fins or winglets.
(b) If outboard fins or winglets extend above and below the horizontal
surface, the critical vertical surface
loading (the load per unit area as determined under §§ 23.441 and 23.443)
must be applied to—
(1) The part of the vertical surfaces
above the horizontal surface with 80
percent of that loading applied to the
part below the horizontal surface; and
(2) The part of the vertical surfaces
below the horizontal surface with 80
percent of that loading applied to the
part above the horizontal surface.
(c) The end plate effects of outboard
fins or winglets must be taken into account in applying the yawing conditions of §§ 23.441 and 23.443 to the
vertical surfaces in paragraph (b) of
this section.
(d) When rational methods are used
for computing loads, the maneuvering
loads of § 23.441 on the vertical surfaces
and the one-g horizontal surface load,
including induced loads on the horizontal surface and moments or forces
exerted on the horizontal surfaces by
the vertical surfaces, must be applied
simultaneously for the structural loading condition.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19,
1973; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3, 1991]
AILERONS AND SPECIAL DEVICES
§ 23.455
Ailerons.
(a) The ailerons must be designed for
the loads to which they are subjected—
(1) In the neutral position during
symmetrical flight conditions; and
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ER09FE96.002</MATH>
§ 23.443
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13, 1969, as
amended by Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1830, Jan. 15,
1987; 52 FR 7262, Mar. 9, 1987; Amdt. 23–24, 52
FR 34745, Sept. 14, 1987; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR
353, Jan. 3, 1991; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5147, Feb.
9, 1996]
ER09FE96.001</MATH>
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19, 1973;
Amdt. 23–28, 47 FR 13315, Mar. 29, 1982; Amdt.
23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3, 1991; Amdt. 23–48, 61
FR 5145, Feb. 9, 1996]
V = Equivalent airspeed (knots).
ER09FE96.000</MATH>
(1) Steady slip conditions;
(2) Uncoordinated rolls from steep
banks; or
(3) Sudden failure of the critical engine with delayed corrective action.
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.477
(2) By the following deflections (except as limited by pilot effort), during
unsymmetrical flight conditions:
(i) Sudden maximum displacement of
the aileron control at VA. Suitable allowance may be made for control system deflections.
(ii) Sufficient deflection at VC, where
VC is more than VA, to produce a rate of
roll not less than obtained in paragraph (a)(2)(i) of this section.
(iii) Sufficient deflection at VD to
produce a rate of roll not less than onethird of that obtained in paragraph
(a)(2)(i) of this section.
(b) [Reserved]
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3, 1991]
§ 23.459
Special devices.
The loading for special devices using
aerodynamic surfaces (such as slots
and spoilers) must be determined from
test data.
GROUND LOADS
§ 23.471
General.
The limit ground loads specified in
this subpart are considered to be external loads and inertia forces that act
upon an airplane structure. In each
specified ground load condition, the external reactions must be placed in
equilibrium with the linear and angular inertia forces in a rational or conservative manner.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.473 Ground load conditions and
assumptions.
(a) The ground load requirements of
this subpart must be complied with at
the design maximum weight except
that §§ 23.479, 23.481, and 23.483 may be
complied with at a design landing
weight (the highest weight for landing
conditions at the maximum descent velocity) allowed under paragraphs (b)
and (c) of this section.
(b) The design landing weight may be
as low as—
(1) 95 percent of the maximum weight
if the minimum fuel capacity is enough
for at least one-half hour of operation
at maximum continuous power plus a
capacity equal to a fuel weight which
is the difference between the design
maximum weight and the design landing weight; or
(2) The design maximum weight less
the weight of 25 percent of the total
fuel capacity.
(c) The design landing weight of a
multiengine airplane may be less than
that allowed under paragraph (b) of
this section if—
(1) The airplane meets the one-engine-inoperative climb requirements of
§ 23.67(b)(1) or (c); and
(2) Compliance is shown with the fuel
jettisoning system requirements of
§ 23.1001.
(d) The selected limit vertical inertia
load factor at the center of gravity of
the airplane for the ground load conditions prescribed in this subpart may
not be less than that which would be
obtained when landing with a descent
velocity (V), in feet per second, equal
to 4.4 (W/S)1⁄4, except that this velocity
need not be more than 10 feet per second and may not be less than seven
feet per second.
(e) Wing lift not exceeding two-thirds
of the weight of the airplane may be
assumed to exist throughout the landing impact and to act through the center of gravity. The ground reaction
load factor may be equal to the inertia
load factor minus the ratio of the
above assumed wing lift to the airplane
weight.
(f) If energy absorption tests are
made to determine the limit load factor corresponding to the required limit
descent velocities, these tests must be
made under § 23.723(a).
(g) No inertia load factor used for design purposes may be less than 2.67, nor
may the limit ground reaction load factor be less than 2.0 at design maximum
weight, unless these lower values will
not be exceeded in taxiing at speeds up
to takeoff speed over terrain as rough
as that expected in service.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–28, 47 FR 13315, Mar. 29, 1982;
Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt.
23–48, 61 FR 5147, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.477
Landing gear arrangement.
Sections 23.479 through 23.483, or the
conditions in appendix C, apply to airplanes with conventional arrangements
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§ 23.479
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
of main and nose gear, or main and tail
gear.
sponse, an airplane lift equal to the
weight of the airplane may be assumed.
§ 23.479
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–17, 41 FR 55464, Dec. 20,
1976; Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6, 1993]
Level landing conditions.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(a) For a level landing, the airplane
is assumed to be in the following attitudes:
(1) For airplanes with tail wheels, a
normal level flight attitude.
(2) For airplanes with nose wheels,
attitudes in which—
(i) The nose and main wheels contact
the ground simultaneously; and
(ii) The main wheels contact the
ground and the nose wheel is just clear
of the ground.
The attitude used in paragraph (a)(2)(i)
of this section may be used in the analysis required under paragraph (a)(2)(ii)
of this section.
(b) When investigating landing conditions, the drag components simulating
the forces required to accelerate the
tires and wheels up to the landing
speed (spin-up) must be properly combined with the corresponding instantaneous vertical ground reactions, and
the forward-acting horizontal loads resulting from rapid reduction of the
spin-up drag loads (spring-back) must
be combined with vertical ground reactions at the instant of the peak forward load, assuming wing lift and a
tire-sliding coefficient of friction of 0.8.
However, the drag loads may not be
less than 25 percent of the maximum
vertical ground reactions (neglecting
wing lift).
(c) In the absence of specific tests or
a more rational analysis for determining the wheel spin-up and springback loads for landing conditions, the
method set forth in appendix D of this
part must be used. If appendix D of this
part is used, the drag components used
for design must not be less than those
given by appendix C of this part.
(d) For airplanes with tip tanks or
large overhung masses (such as turbopropeller or jet engines) supported by
the wing, the tip tanks and the structure supporting the tanks or overhung
masses must be designed for the effects
of dynamic responses under the level
landing conditions of either paragraph
(a)(1) or (a)(2)(ii) of this section. In
evaluating the effects of dynamic re-
§ 23.481
Tail down landing conditions.
(a) For a tail down landing, the airplane is assumed to be in the following
attitudes:
(1) For airplanes with tail wheels, an
attitude in which the main and tail
wheels contact the ground simultaneously.
(2) For airplanes with nose wheels, a
stalling attitude, or the maximum
angle allowing ground clearance by
each part of the airplane, whichever is
less.
(b) For airplanes with either tail or
nose wheels, ground reactions are assumed to be vertical, with the wheels
up to speed before the maximum
vertical load is attained.
§ 23.483
One-wheel landing conditions.
For the one-wheel landing condition,
the airplane is assumed to be in the
level attitude and to contact the
ground on one side of the main landing
gear. In this attitude, the ground reactions must be the same as those obtained on that side under § 23.479.
§ 23.485
Side load conditions.
(a) For the side load condition, the
airplane is assumed to be in a level attitude with only the main wheels contacting the ground and with the shock
absorbers and tires in their static positions.
(b) The limit vertical load factor
must be 1.33, with the vertical ground
reaction divided equally between the
main wheels.
(c) The limit side inertia factor must
be 0.83, with the side ground reaction
divided between the main wheels so
that—
(1) 0.5 (W) is acting inboard on one
side; and
(2) 0.33 (W) is acting outboard on the
other side.
(d) The side loads prescribed in paragraph (c) of this section are assumed to
be applied at the ground contact point
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.499
and the drag loads may be assumed to
be zero.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6,
1993]
§ 23.493
Braked roll conditions.
Under braked roll conditions, with
the shock absorbers and tires in their
static positions, the following apply:
(a) The limit vertical load factor
must be 1.33.
(b) The attitudes and ground contacts must be those described in § 23.479
for level landings.
(c) A drag reaction equal to the
vertical reaction at the wheel multiplied by a coefficient of friction of 0.8
must be applied at the ground contact
point of each wheel with brakes, except
that the drag reaction need not exceed
the maximum value based on limiting
brake torque.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.497 Supplementary conditions for
tail wheels.
In determining the ground loads on
the tail wheel and affected supporting
structures, the following apply:
(a) For the obstruction load, the
limit ground reaction obtained in the
tail down landing condition is assumed
to act up and aft through the axle at 45
degrees. The shock absorber and tire
may be assumed to be in their static
positions.
(b) For the side load, a limit vertical
ground reaction equal to the static
load on the tail wheel, in combination
with a side component of equal magnitude, is assumed. In addition—
(1) If a swivel is used, the tail wheel
is assumed to be swiveled 90 degrees to
the airplane longitudinal axis with the
resultant ground load passing through
the axle;
(2) If a lock, steering device, or shimmy damper is used, the tail wheel is
also assumed to be in the trailing position with the side load acting at the
ground contact point; and
(3) The shock absorber and tire are
assumed to be in their static positions.
(c) If a tail wheel, bumper, or an energy absorption device is provided to
show compliance with § 23.925(b), the
following apply:
(1) Suitable design loads must be established for the tail wheel, bumper, or
energy absorption device; and
(2) The supporting structure of the
tail wheel, bumper, or energy absorption device must be designed to withstand the loads established in paragraph (c)(1) of this section.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5147, Feb. 9,
1996]
§ 23.499 Supplementary conditions for
nose wheels.
In determining the ground loads on
nose wheels and affected supporting
structures, and assuming that the
shock absorbers and tires are in their
static positions, the following conditions must be met:
(a) For aft loads, the limit force components at the axle must be—
(1) A vertical component of 2.25 times
the static load on the wheel; and
(2) A drag component of 0.8 times the
vertical load.
(b) For forward loads, the limit force
components at the axle must be—
(1) A vertical component of 2.25 times
the static load on the wheel; and
(2) A forward component of 0.4 times
the vertical load.
(c) For side loads, the limit force
components at ground contact must
be—
(1) A vertical component of 2.25 times
the static load on the wheel; and
(2) A side component of 0.7 times the
vertical load.
(d) For airplanes with a steerable
nose wheel that is controlled by hydraulic or other power, at design takeoff weight with the nose wheel in any
steerable position, the application of
1.33 times the full steering torque combined with a vertical reaction equal to
1.33 times the maximum static reaction
on the nose gear must be assumed.
However, if a torque limiting device is
installed, the steering torque can be reduced to the maximum value allowed
by that device.
(e) For airplanes with a steerable
nose wheel that has a direct mechanical connection to the rudder pedals,
the mechanism must be designed to
withstand the steering torque for the
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§ 23.505
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
maximum
§ 23.397(b).
pilot
forces
specified
in
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5147, Feb. 9,
1996]
§ 23.505 Supplementary conditions for
skiplanes.
In determining ground loads for skiplanes, and assuming that the airplane
is resting on the ground with one main
ski frozen at rest and the other skis
free to slide, a limit side force equal to
0.036 times the design maximum weight
must be applied near the tail assembly,
with a factor of safety of 1.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13, 1969]
§ 23.507
Jacking loads.
(a) The airplane must be designed for
the loads developed when the aircraft
is supported on jacks at the design
maximum weight assuming the following load factors for landing gear
jacking points at a three-point attitude
and for primary flight structure jacking points in the level attitude:
(1) Vertical-load factor of 1.35 times
the static reactions.
(2) Fore, aft, and lateral load factors
of 0.4 times the vertical static reactions.
(b) The horizontal loads at the jack
points must be reacted by inertia
forces so as to result in no change in
the direction of the resultant loads at
the jack points.
(c) The horizontal loads must be considered in all combinations with the
vertical load.
[Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19, 1973]
§ 23.509
Towing loads.
The towing loads of this section must
be applied to the design of tow fittings
and their immediate attaching structure.
(a) The towing loads specified in
paragraph (d) of this section must be
considered separately. These loads
must be applied at the towing fittings
and must act parallel to the ground. In
addition:
(1) A vertical load factor equal to 1.0
must be considered acting at the center
of gravity; and
(2) The shock struts and tires must
be in there static positions.
(b) For towing points not on the
landing gear but near the plane of symmetry of the airplane, the drag and
side tow load components specified for
the auxiliary gear apply. For towing
points located outboard of the main
gear, the drag and side tow load components specified for the main gear apply.
Where the specified angle of swivel
cannot be reached, the maximum obtainable angle must be used.
(c) The towing loads specified in
paragraph (d) of this section must be
reacted as follows:
(1) The side component of the towing
load at the main gear must be reacted
by a side force at the static ground line
of the wheel to which the load is applied.
(2) The towing loads at the auxiliary
gear and the drag components of the
towing loads at the main gear must be
reacted as follows:
(i) A reaction with a maximum value
equal to the vertical reaction must be
applied at the axle of the wheel to
which the load is applied. Enough airplane inertia to achieve equilibrium
must be applied.
(ii) The loads must be reacted by airplane inertia.
(d) The prescribed towing loads are as
follows, where W is the design maximum weight:
Load
Tow point
Position
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Magnitude
No.
Direction
Main gear ...............................
..........................................................
0.225W
1
2
3
4
Forward, parallel to drag axis.
Forward, at 30° to drag axis.
Aft, parallel to drag axis.
Aft, at 30° to drag axis.
Auxiliary gear .........................
Swiveled forward .............................
0.3W
Swiveled aft .....................................
0.3W
5
6
7
8
Forward.
Aft.
Forward.
Aft.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.525
Load
Tow point
Position
Magnitude
Swiveled 45° from forward ..............
0.15W
Swiveled 45° from aft ......................
0.15W
[Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19, 1973]
§ 23.511 Ground load; unsymmetrical
loads on multiple-wheel units.
(a) Pivoting loads. The airplane is assumed to pivot about on side of the
main gear with—
(1) The brakes on the pivoting unit
locked; and
(2) Loads corresponding to a limit
vertical load factor of 1, and coefficient
of friction of 0.8 applied to the main
gear and its supporting structure.
(b) Unequal tire loads. The loads established under §§ 23.471 through 23.483
must be applied in turn, in a 60/40 percent distribution, to the dual wheels
and tires in each dual wheel landing
gear unit.
(c) Deflated tire loads. For the deflated
tire condition—
(1) 60 percent of the loads established
under §§ 23.471 through 23.483 must be
applied in turn to each wheel in a landing gear unit; and
(2) 60 percent of the limit drag and
side loads, and 100 percent of the limit
vertical load established under §§ 23.485
and 23.493 or lesser vertical load obtained under paragraph (c)(1) of this
section, must be applied in turn to
each wheel in the dual wheel landing
gear unit.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13, 1969]
WATER LOADS
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.521
Water load conditions.
(a) The structure of seaplanes and
amphibians must be designed for water
loads developed during takeoff and
landing with the seaplane in any attitude likely to occur in normal operation at appropriate forward and sinking velocities under the most severe
sea conditions likely to be encountered.
No.
9
10
11
12
Direction
Forward, in plane of wheel.
Aft, in plane of wheel.
Forward, in plane of wheel.
Aft, in plane of wheel.
(b) Unless the applicant makes a rational analysis of the water loads,
§§ 23.523 through 23.537 apply.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5147, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.523 Design weights and center of
gravity positions.
(a) Design weights. The water load requirements must be met at each operating weight up to the design landing
weight except that, for the takeoff condition prescribed in § 23.531, the design
water takeoff weight (the maximum
weight for water taxi and takeoff run)
must be used.
(b) Center of gravity positions. The
critical centers of gravity within the
limits for which certification is requested must be considered to reach
maximum design loads for each part of
the seaplane structure.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42160, Aug. 6, 1993]
§ 23.525
Application of loads.
(a) Unless otherwise prescribed, the
seaplane as a whole is assumed to be
subjected to the loads corresponding to
the load factors specified in § 23.527.
(b) In applying the loads resulting
from the load factors prescribed in
§ 23.527, the loads may be distributed
over the hull or main float bottom (in
order to avoid excessive local shear
loads and bending moments at the location of water load application) using
pressures not less than those prescribed in § 23.533(c).
(c) For twin float seaplanes, each
float must be treated as an equivalent
hull on a fictitious seaplane with a
weight equal to one-half the weight of
the twin float seaplane.
(d) Except in the takeoff condition of
§ 23.531, the aerodynamic lift on the
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§ 23.527
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
§ 23.527 Hull and main float load factors.
(a) Water reaction load factors nw
must be computed in the following
manner:
(1) For the step landing case
nw =
C1VSO 2
⎛ Tan 23 β ⎞ W 13
⎝
⎠
(2) For the bow and stern landing
cases
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
nw =
C1VSO 2
2
1
⎛
3 ⎞
3
⎜ Tan β ⎟ W
⎠
⎝
×
K1
(1 + rx 2 )
2
3
(b) The following values are used:
(1) nw = water reaction load factor
(that is, the water reaction divided by
seaplane weight).
(2) C1 = empirical seaplane operations
factor equal to 0.012 (except that this
factor may not be less than that necessary to obtain the minimum value of
step load factor of 2.33).
(3) VSO = seaplane stalling speed in
knots with flaps extended in the appropriate landing position and with no
slipstream effect.
(4) b = Angle of dead rise at the longitudinal station at which the load factor is being determined in accordance
with figure 1 of appendix I of this part.
(5) W = seaplane landing weight in
pounds.
(6) K1 = empirical hull station weighing factor, in accordance with figure 2
of appendix I of this part.
(7) rx = ratio of distance, measured
parallel to hull reference axis, from the
center of gravity of the seaplane to the
hull longitudinal station at which the
load factor is being computed to the radius of gyration in pitch of the seaplane, the hull reference axis being a
straight line, in the plane of symmetry, tangential to the keel at the
main step.
(c) For a twin float seaplane, because
of the effect of flexibility of the attachment of the floats to the seaplane, the
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42161, Aug. 6, 1993; 58
FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993]
§ 23.529 Hull and main float landing
conditions.
(a) Symmetrical step, bow, and stern
landing. For symmetrical step, bow,
and stern landings, the limit water reaction load factors are those computed
under § 23.527. In addition—
(1) For symmetrical step landings,
the resultant water load must be applied at the keel, through the center of
gravity, and must be directed perpendicularly to the keel line;
(2) For symmetrical bow landings,
the resultant water load must be applied at the keel, one-fifth of the longitudinal distance from the bow to the
step, and must be directed perpendicularly to the keel line; and
(3) For symmetrical stern landings,
the resultant water load must be applied at the keel, at a point 85 percent
of the longitudinal distance from the
step to the stern post, and must be directed perpendicularly to the keel line.
(b) Unsymmetrical landing for hull and
single float seaplanes. Unsymmetrical
step, bow, and stern landing conditions
must be investigated. In addition—
(1) The loading for each condition
consists of an upward component and a
side component equal, respectively, to
0.75 and 0.25 tan b times the resultant
load in the corresponding symmetrical
landing condition; and
(2) The point of application and direction of the upward component of the
load is the same as that in the symmetrical condition, and the point of application of the side component is at
the same longitudinal station as the
upward component but is directed inward perpendicularly to the plane of
symmetry at a point midway between
the keel and chine lines.
(c) Unsymmetrical landing; twin float
seaplanes. The unsymmetrical loading
consists of an upward load at the step
of each float of 0.75 and a side load of
0.25 tan b at one float times the step
landing load reached under § 23.527. The
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EC28SE91.005</MATH>
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42161, Aug. 6, 1993; 58
FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993]
factor K1 may be reduced at the bow
and stern to 0.8 of the value shown in
figure 2 of appendix I of this part. This
reduction applies only to the design of
the carrythrough and seaplane structure.
EC28SE91.004</MATH>
seaplane during the impact is assumed
to be 2⁄3 of the weight of the seaplane.
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.533
C TO VS12
⎛ Tan 23 β ⎞ W 13
⎝
⎠
Where—
n = inertia load factor;
CTO = empirical seaplane operations factor
equal to 0.004;
VS1 = seaplane stalling speed (knots) at the
design takeoff weight with the flaps extended in the appropriate takeoff position;
b = angle of dead rise at the main step (degrees); and
W = design water takeoff weight in pounds.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42161, Aug. 6, 1993]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.533 Hull and main float bottom
pressures.
(a) General. The hull and main float
structure, including frames and bulkheads, stringers, and bottom plating,
must be designed under this section.
(b) Local pressures. For the design of
the bottom plating and stringers and
their attachments to the supporting
structure, the following pressure distributions must be applied:
(1) For an unflared bottom, the pressure at the chine is 0.75 times the pressure at the keel, and the pressures between the keel and chine vary linearly,
in accordance with figure 3 of appendix
I of this part. The pressure at the keel
(p.s.i.) is computed as follows:
PK =
Pch =
Tan β
where—
Pch = pressure (p.s.i.) at the chine;
C3 = 0.0016;
K2 = hull station weighing factor, in accordance with figure 2 of appendix I of this
part;
VS1 = seaplane stalling speed (knots) at the
design water takeoff weight with flaps
extended in the appropriate takeoff position; and
b = angle of dead rise at appropriate station.
The area over which these pressures
are applied must simulate pressures occurring during high localized impacts
on the hull or float, but need not extend over an area that would induce
critical stresses in the frames or in the
overall structure.
(c) Distributed pressures. For the design of the frames, keel, and chine
structure, the following pressure distributions apply:
(1) Symmetrical pressures are computed as follows:
P=
C 2 K 2 VS12
C 3 K 2 VS12
C 4 K 2 VSO 2
Tan β
where—
P = pressure (p.s.i.);
C4 = 0.078 C1 (with C1 computed under
§ 23.527);
Tan β k
where—
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EC28SE91.009</MATH>
n=
(2) For a flared bottom, the pressure
at the beginning of the flare is the
same as that for an unflared bottom,
and the pressure between the chine and
the beginning of the flare varies linearly, in accordance with figure 3 of appendix I of this part. The pressure distribution is the same as that prescribed
in paragraph (b)(1) of this section for
an unflared bottom except that the
pressure at the chine is computed as
follows:
EC28SE91.008</MATH>
§ 23.531 Hull and main float takeoff
condition.
For the wing and its attachment to
the hull or main float—
(a) The aerodynamic wing lift is assumed to be zero; and
(b) A downward inertia load, corresponding to a load factor computed
from the following formula, must be
applied:
EC28SE91.007</MATH>
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42161, Aug. 6, 1993]
Pk = pressure (p.s.i.) at the keel;
C2 = 0.00213;
K2 = hull station weighing factor, in accordance with figure 2 of appendix I of this
part;
VS1 = seaplane stalling speed (knots) at the
design water takeoff weight with flaps
extended in the appropriate takeoff position; and
bK = angle of dead rise at keel, in accordance
with figure 1 of appendix I of this part.
EC28SE91.006</MATH>
side load is directed inboard, perpendicularly to the plane of symmetry
midway between the keel and chine
lines of the float, at the same longitudinal station as the upward load.
§ 23.535
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42161, Aug. 6, 1993; 58
FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993]
§ 23.535
Auxiliary float loads.
(a) General. Auxiliary floats and their
attachments and supporting structures
must be designed for the conditions
prescribed in this section. In the cases
specified in paragraphs (b) through (e)
of this section, the prescribed water
loads may be distributed over the float
bottom to avoid excessive local loads,
using bottom pressures not less than
those prescribed in paragraph (g) of
this section.
(b) Step loading. The resultant water
load must be applied in the plane of
symmetry of the float at a point threefourths of the distance from the bow to
the step and must be perpendicular to
the keel. The resultant limit load is
computed as follows, except that the
value of L need not exceed three times
the weight of the displaced water when
the float is completely submerged:
(c) Bow loading. The resultant limit
load must be applied in the plane of
symmetry of the float at a point onefourth of the distance from the bow to
the step and must be perpendicular to
the tangent to the keel line at that
point. The magnitude of the resultant
load is that specified in paragraph (b)
of this section.
(d) Unsymmetrical step loading. The resultant water load consists of a component equal to 0.75 times the load specified in paragraph (a) of this section and
a side component equal to 0.025 tan b
times the load specified in paragraph
(b) of this section. The side load must
be applied perpendicularly to the plane
of symmetry of the float at a point
midway between the keel and the
chine.
(e) Unsymmetrical bow loading. The resultant water load consists of a component equal to 0.75 times the load specified in paragraph (b) of this section and
a side component equal to 0.25 tan b
times the load specified in paragraph
(c) of this section. The side load must
be applied perpendicularly to the plane
of symmetry at a point midway between the keel and the chine.
(f) Immersed float condition. The resultant load must be applied at the
centroid of the cross section of the
float at a point one-third of the distance from the bow to the step. The
limit load components are as follows:
vertical = PgV
2
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
L=
2
C 5 VSO W
2
(
2
3
aft =
)
C X PV 3 (KVSO )
2
2
2 3
3
Tan β S 1 + ry
2
3
side =
where—
L = limit load (lbs.);
C5 = 0.0053;
C Y PV (KVSO )
2
where—
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2
EC28SE91.011</MATH>
(2) The unsymmetrical pressure distribution consists of the pressures prescribed in paragraph (c)(1) of this section on one side of the hull or main
float centerline and one-half of that
pressure on the other side of the hull or
main float centerline, in accordance
with figure 3 of appendix I of this part.
(3) These pressures are uniform and
must be applied simultaneously over
the entire hull or main float bottom.
The loads obtained must be carried
into the sidewall structure of the hull
proper, but need not be transmitted in
a fore and aft direction as shear and
bending loads.
VS0 = seaplane stalling speed (knots) with
landing flaps extended in the appropriate
position and with no slipstream effect;
W = seaplane design landing weight in
pounds;
bs = angle of dead rise at a station 3⁄4 of the
distance from the bow to the step, but
need not be less than 15 degrees; and
ry = ratio of the lateral distance between the
center of gravity and the plane of symmetry of the float to the radius of gyration in roll.
EC28SE91.010</MATH>
K2 = hull station weighing factor, determined in accordance with figure 2 of appendix I of this part;
VS0 = seaplane stalling speed (knots) with
landing flaps extended in the appropriate
position and with no slipstream effect;
and
b = angle of dead rise at appropriate station.
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.561
P = mass density of water (slugs/ft.3)
V = volume of float (ft.3);
CX = coefficient of drag force, equal to 0.133;
Cy = coefficient of side force, equal to 0.106;
K = 0.8, except that lower values may be used
if it is shown that the floats are incapable of submerging at a speed of 0.8 Vso in
normal operations;
Vso = seaplane stalling speed (knots) with
landing flaps extended in the appropriate
position and with no slipstream effect;
and
g = acceleration due to gravity (ft/sec2).
(g) Float bottom pressures. The float
bottom pressures must be established
under § 23.533, except that the value of
K2 in the formulae may be taken as 1.0.
The angle of dead rise to be used in determining the float bottom pressures is
set forth in paragraph (b) of this section.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42162, Aug. 6, 1993; 58
FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993]
§ 23.537 Seawing loads.
Seawing design loads must be based
on applicable test data.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42163, Aug. 6, 1993]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
EMERGENCY LANDING CONDITIONS
§ 23.561 General.
(a) The airplane, although it may be
damaged in emergency landing conditions, must be designed as prescribed in
this section to protect each occupant
under those conditions.
(b) The structure must be designed to
give each occupant every reasonable
chance of escaping serious injury
when—
(1) Proper use is made of the seats,
safety belts, and shoulder harnesses
provided for in the design;
(2) The occupant experiences the
static inertia loads corresponding to
the following ultimate load factors—
(i) Upward, 3.0g for normal, utility,
and commuter category airplanes, or
4.5g for acrobatic category airplanes;
(ii) Forward, 9.0g;
(iii) Sideward, 1.5g; and
(iv) Downward, 6.0g when certification to the emergency exit provisions of § 23.807(d)(4) is requested; and
(3) The items of mass within the
cabin, that could injure an occupant,
experience the static inertia loads corresponding to the following ultimate
load factors—
(i) Upward, 3.0g;
(ii) Forward, 18.0g; and
(iii) Sideward, 4.5g.
(c) Each airplane with retractable
landing gear must be designed to protect each occupant in a landing—
(1) With the wheels retracted;
(2) With moderate descent velocity;
and
(3) Assuming, in the absence of a
more rational analysis—
(i) A downward ultimate inertia force
of 3 g; and
(ii) A coefficient of friction of 0.5 at
the ground.
(d) If it is not established that a
turnover is unlikely during an emergency landing, the structure must be
designed to protect the occupants in a
complete turnover as follows:
(1) The likelihood of a turnover may
be shown by an analysis assuming the
following conditions—
(i) The most adverse combination of
weight and center of gravity position;
(ii) Longitudinal load factor of 9.0g;
(iii) Vertical load factor of 1.0g; and
(iv) For airplanes with tricycle landing gear, the nose wheel strut failed
with the nose contacting the ground.
(2) For determining the loads to be
applied to the inverted airplane after a
turnover, an upward ultimate inertia
load factor of 3.0g and a coefficient of
friction with the ground of 0.5 must be
used.
(e) Except as provided in § 23.787(c),
the supporting structure must be designed to restrain, under loads up to
those specified in paragraph (b)(3) of
this section, each item of mass that
could injure an occupant if it came
loose in a minor crash landing.
(1) For engines mounted inside the
fuselage, aft of the cabin, it must be
shown by test or analysis that the engine and attached accessories, and the
engine mounting structure—
(i) Can withstand a forward acting
static ultimate inertia load factor of
18.0 g plus the maximum takeoff engine
thrust; or
(ii) The airplane structure is designed
to preclude the engine and its attached
accessories from entering or protruding
into the cabin should the engine
mounts fail.
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§ 23.562
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(2) [Reserved]
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–24, 52 FR 34745, Sept. 14, 1987;
Amdt. 23–36, 53 FR 30812, Aug. 15, 1988; Amdt.
23–46, 59 FR 25772, May 17, 1994; Amdt. 23–48,
61 FR 5147, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR
75756, Dec. 2, 2011]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.562 Emergency landing dynamic
conditions.
(a) Each seat/restraint system for use
in a normal, utility, or acrobatic category airplane, or in a commuter category jet airplane, must be designed to
protect each occupant during an emergency landing when—
(1) Proper use is made of seats, safety
belts, and shoulder harnesses provided
for in the design; and
(2) The occupant is exposed to the
loads resulting from the conditions
prescribed in this section.
(b) Except for those seat/restraint
systems that are required to meet
paragraph (d) of this section, each seat/
restraint system for crew or passenger
occupancy in a normal, utility, or acrobatic category airplane, or in a commuter category jet airplane, must successfully complete dynamic tests or be
demonstrated by rational analysis supported by dynamic tests, in accordance
with each of the following conditions.
These tests must be conducted with an
occupant
simulated
by
an
anthropomorphic test dummy (ATD)
defined by 49 CFR part 572, subpart B,
or an FAA-approved equivalent, with a
nominal weight of 170 pounds and seated in the normal upright position.
(1) For the first test, the change in
velocity may not be less than 31 feet
per second. The seat/restraint system
must be oriented in its nominal position with respect to the airplane and
with the horizontal plane of the airplane pitched up 60 degrees, with no
yaw, relative to the impact vector. For
seat/restraint systems to be installed
in the first row of the airplane, peak
deceleration must occur in not more
than 0.05 seconds after impact and
must reach a minimum of 19g. For all
other seat/restraint systems, peak deceleration must occur in not more than
0.06 seconds after impact and must
reach a minimum of 15g.
(2) For the second test, the change in
velocity may not be less than 42 feet
per second. The seat/restraint system
must be oriented in its nominal position with respect to the airplane and
with the vertical plane of the airplane
yawed 10 degrees, with no pitch, relative to the impact vector in a direction that results in the greatest load
on the shoulder harness. For seat/restraint systems to be installed in the
first row of the airplane, peak deceleration must occur in not more than 0.05
seconds after impact and must reach a
minimum of 26g. For all other seat/restraint systems, peak deceleration
must occur in not more than 0.06 seconds after impact and must reach a
minimum of 21g.
(3) To account for floor warpage, the
floor rails or attachment devices used
to attach the seat/restraint system to
the airframe structure must be preloaded to misalign with respect to each
other by at least 10 degrees vertically
(i.e., pitch out of parallel) and one of
the rails or attachment devices must
be preloaded to misalign by 10 degrees
in roll prior to conducting the test defined by paragraph (b)(2) of this section.
(c) Compliance with the following requirements must be shown during the
dynamic tests conducted in accordance
with paragraph (b) of this section:
(1) The seat/restraint system must
restrain the ATD although seat/restraint system components may experience deformation, elongation, displacement, or crushing intended as part of
the design.
(2) The attachment between the seat/
restraint system and the test fixture
must remain intact, although the seat
structure may have deformed.
(3) Each shoulder harness strap must
remain on the ATD’s shoulder during
the impact.
(4) The safety belt must remain on
the ATD’s pelvis during the impact.
(5) The results of the dynamic tests
must show that the occupant is protected from serious head injury.
(i) When contact with adjacent seats,
structure, or other items in the cabin
can occur, protection must be provided
so that the head impact does not exceed a head injury criteria (HIC) of
1,000.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.571
(ii) The value of HIC is defined as—
gp = 19.0 (VS0/61)2 or gp = 15.0 (VS0/61)2
(B) The peak deceleration need not
exceed the value reached at a VS0 of 79
knots.
(iii) The peak deceleration must
occur in not more than time (tr), which
must be computed as follows:
tr =
31
( )
32.2 g p
=
.96
gp
where—
gp = The peak deceleration calculated in accordance with paragraph (d)(2)(ii) of this
section
tr = The rise time (in seconds) to the peak deceleration.
(e) An alternate approach that
achieves an equivalent, or greater,
level of occupant protection to that required by this section may be used if
substantiated on a rational basis.
[Amdt. 23–36, 53 FR 30812, Aug. 15, 1988, as
amended by Amdt. 23–44, 58 FR 38639, July 19,
1993; Amdt. 23–50, 61 FR 5192, Feb. 9, 1996;
Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75756, Dec. 2, 2011]
FATIGUE EVALUATION
§ 23.571 Metallic pressurized cabin
structures.
For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, the strength, detail
design, and fabrication of the metallic
structure of the pressure cabin must be
evaluated under one of the following:
(a) A fatigue strength investigation
in which the structure is shown by
tests, or by analysis supported by test
evidence, to be able to withstand the
repeated loads of variable magnitude
expected in service; or
(b) A fail safe strength investigation,
in which it is shown by analysis, tests,
or both that catastrophic failure of the
structure is not probable after fatigue
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EC28SE91.013</MATH>
(iii) Compliance with the HIC limit
must be demonstrated by measuring
the head impact during dynamic testing as prescribed in paragraphs (b)(1)
and (b)(2) of this section or by a separate showing of compliance with the
head injury criteria using test or analysis procedures.
(6) Loads in individual shoulder harness straps may not exceed 1,750
pounds. If dual straps are used for retaining the upper torso, the total strap
loads may not exceed 2,000 pounds.
(7) The compression load measured
between the pelvis and the lumbar
spine of the ATD may not exceed 1,500
pounds.
(d) For all single-engine airplanes
with a VSO of more than 61 knots at
maximum weight, and those multiengine airplanes of 6,000 pounds or less
maximum weight with a VSO of more
than 61 knots at maximum weight that
do not comply with § 23.67(a)(1);
(1) The ultimate load factors of
§ 23.561(b) must be increased by multiplying the load factors by the square of
the ratio of the increased stall speed to
61 knots. The increased ultimate load
factors need not exceed the values
reached at a VS0 of 79 knots. The upward ultimate load factor for acrobatic
category airplanes need not exceed
5.0g.
(2) The seat/restraint system test required by paragraph (b)(1) of this section must be conducted in accordance
with the following criteria:
(i) The change in velocity may not be
less than 31 feet per second.
(ii)(A) The peak deceleration (gp) of
19g and 15g must be increased and mul-
tiplied by the square of the ratio of the
increased stall speed to 61 knots:
ER02DE11.083</GPH>
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
Where—
t1 is the initial integration time, expressed
in seconds, t2 is the final integration
time, expressed in seconds, and a(t) is the
total acceleration vs. time curve for the
head strike expressed as a multiple of g
(units of gravity).
§ 23.572
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
failure, or obvious partial failure, of a
principal structural element, and that
the remaining structures are able to
withstand a static ultimate load factor
of 75 percent of the limit load factor at
VC, considering the combined effects of
normal operating pressures, expected
external aerodynamic pressures, and
flight loads. These loads must be multiplied by a factor of 1.15 unless the dynamic effects of failure under static
load are otherwise considered.
(c) The damage tolerance evaluation
of § 23.573(b).
(d) If certification for operation
above 41,000 feet is requested, a damage
tolerance evaluation of the fuselage
pressure boundary per § 23.573(b) must
be conducted.
(3) The damage tolerance evaluation
of § 23.573(b).
(b) Each evaluation required by this
section must—
(1) Include typical loading spectra
(e.g. taxi, ground-air-ground cycles,
maneuver, gust);
(2) Account for any significant effects
due to the mutual influence of aerodynamic surfaces; and
(3) Consider any significant effects
from propeller slipstream loading, and
buffet from vortex impingements.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19,
1973; Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42163, Aug. 6, 1993;
Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5147, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt.
23–62, 76 FR 75756, Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.573 Damage tolerance and fatigue
evaluation of structure.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.572 Metallic wing, empennage,
and associated structures.
(a) For normal, utility, and acrobatic
category airplanes, the strength, detail
design, and fabrication of those parts
of the airframe structure whose failure
would be catastrophic must be evaluated under one of the following unless
it is shown that the structure, operating stress level, materials and expected uses are comparable, from a fatigue standpoint, to a similar design
that has had extensive satisfactory
service experience:
(1) A fatigue strength investigation
in which the structure is shown by
tests, or by analysis supported by test
evidence, to be able to withstand the
repeated loads of variable magnitude
expected in service; or
(2) A fail-safe strength investigation
in which it is shown by analysis, tests,
or both, that catastrophic failure of
the structure is not probable after fatigue failure, or obvious partial failure,
of a principal structural element, and
that the remaining structure is able to
withstand a static ultimate load factor
of 75 percent of the critical limit load
factor at Vc. These loads must be multiplied by a factor of 1.15 unless the dynamic effects of failure under static
load are otherwise considered.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13090, Aug. 13, 1969, as
amended by Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19,
1973; Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1830, Jan. 15, 1987;
Amdt. 23–38, 54 FR 39511, Sept. 26, 1989; Amdt.
23–45, 58 FR 42163, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt. 23–48, 61
FR 5147, Feb. 9, 1996]
(a) Composite airframe structure. Composite airframe structure must be evaluated under this paragraph instead of
§§ 23.571 and 23.572. The applicant must
evaluate the composite airframe structure, the failure of which would result
in catastrophic loss of the airplane, in
each wing (including canards, tandem
wings, and winglets), empennage, their
carrythrough and attaching structure,
moveable control surfaces and their attaching structure fuselage, and pressure cabin using the damage-tolerance
criteria prescribed in paragraphs (a)(1)
through (a)(4) of this section unless
shown to be impractical. If the applicant establishes that damage-tolerance
criteria is impractical for a particular
structure, the structure must be evaluated in accordance with paragraphs
(a)(1) and (a)(6) of this section. Where
bonded joints are used, the structure
must also be evaluated in accordance
with paragraph (a)(5) of this section.
The effects of material variability and
environmental
conditions
on
the
strength and durability properties of
the composite materials must be accounted for in the evaluations required
by this section.
(1) It must be demonstrated by tests,
or by analysis supported by tests, that
the structure is capable of carrying ultimate load with damage up to the
threshold of detectability considering
the inspection procedures employed.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.574
(2) The growth rate or no-growth of
damage that may occur from fatigue,
corrosion, manufacturing flaws or impact damage, under repeated loads expected in service, must be established
by tests or analysis supported by tests.
(3) The structure must be shown by
residual strength tests, or analysis supported by residual strength tests, to be
able to withstand critical limit flight
loads, considered as ultimate loads,
with the extent of detectable damage
consistent with the results of the damage tolerance evaluations. For pressurized cabins, the following loads must be
withstood:
(i) Critical limit flight loads with the
combined effects of normal operating
pressure and expected external aerodynamic pressures.
(ii) The expected external aerodynamic pressures in 1g flight combined with a cabin differential pressure
equal to 1.1 times the normal operating
differential pressure without any other
load.
(4) The damage growth, between initial detectability and the value selected for residual strength demonstrations, factored to obtain inspection intervals, must allow development of an
inspection program suitable for application by operation and maintenance
personnel.
(5) For any bonded joint, the failure
of which would result in catastrophic
loss of the airplane, the limit load capacity must be substantiated by one of
the following methods—
(i) The maximum disbonds of each
bonded joint consistent with the capability to withstand the loads in paragraph (a)(3) of this section must be determined by analysis, tests, or both.
Disbonds of each bonded joint greater
than this must be prevented by design
features; or
(ii) Proof testing must be conducted
on each production article that will
apply the critical limit design load to
each critical bonded joint; or
(iii) Repeatable and reliable non-destructive inspection techniques must
be established that ensure the strength
of each joint.
(6) Structural components for which
the damage tolerance method is shown
to be impractical must be shown by
component fatigue tests, or analysis
supported by tests, to be able to withstand the repeated loads of variable
magnitude expected in service. Sufficient component, subcomponent, element, or coupon tests must be done to
establish the fatigue scatter factor and
the environmental effects. Damage up
to the threshold of detectability and
ultimate load residual strength capability must be considered in the demonstration.
(b) Metallic airframe structure. If the
applicant elects to use § 23.571(c) or
§ 23.572(a)(3), then the damage tolerance
evaluation must include a determination of the probable locations and
modes of damage due to fatigue, corrosion, or accidental damage. Damage at
multiple sites due to fatigue must be
included where the design is such that
this type of damage can be expected to
occur. The evaluation must incorporate repeated load and static analyses supported by test evidence. The
extent of damage for residual strength
evaluation at any time within the
operational life of the airplane must be
consistent with the initial detectability and subsequent growth under
repeated loads. The residual strength
evaluation must show that the remaining structure is able to withstand critical limit flight loads, considered as ultimate, with the extent of detectable
damage consistent with the results of
the damage tolerance evaluations. For
pressurized cabins, the following load
must be withstood:
(1) The normal operating differential
pressure combined with the expected
external aerodynamic pressures applied
simultaneously with the flight loading
conditions specified in this part, and
(2) The expected external aerodynamic pressures in 1g flight combined with a cabin differential pressure
equal to 1.1 times the normal operating
differential pressure without any other
load.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42163, Aug. 6, 1993; 58
FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993, as amended by Amdt.
23–48, 61 FR 5147, Feb. 9, 1996; 73 FR 19746,
Apr. 11, 2008]
§ 23.574 Metallic damage tolerance and
fatigue evaluation of commuter category airplanes.
For commuter category airplanes—
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§ 23.575
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(a) Metallic damage tolerance. An evaluation of the strength, detail design,
and fabrication must show that catastrophic failure due to fatigue, corrosion, defects, or damage will be avoided
throughout the operational life of the
airplane. This evaluation must be conducted in accordance with the provisions of § 23.573, except as specified in
paragraph (b) of this section, for each
part of the structure that could contribute to a catastrophic failure.
(b) Fatigue (safe-life) evaluation. Compliance with the damage tolerance requirements of paragraph (a) of this section is not required if the applicant establishes that the application of those
requirements is impractical for a particular structure. This structure must
be shown, by analysis supported by test
evidence, to be able to withstand the
repeated loads of variable magnitude
expected during its service life without
detectable cracks. Appropriate safe-life
scatter factors must be applied.
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.575 Inspections and other procedures.
Each inspection or other procedure,
based on an evaluation required by
§§ 23.571, 23.572, 23.573 or 23.574, must be
established to prevent catastrophic
failure and must be included in the
Limitations Section of the Instructions
for Continued Airworthiness required
by § 23.1529.
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9, 1996]
Subpart D—Design and
Construction
§ 23.601
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–17, 41 FR 55464, Dec. 20,
1976; Amdt. 23–23, 43 FR 50592, Oct. 10, 1978]
§ 23.605 Fabrication methods.
(a) The methods of fabrication used
must produce consistently sound structures. If a fabrication process (such as
gluing, spot welding, or heat-treating)
requires close control to reach this objective, the process must be performed
under an approved process specification.
(b) Each new aircraft fabrication
method must be substantiated by a
test program.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
23, 43 FR 50592, Oct. 10, 1978]
§ 23.607 Fasteners.
(a) Each removable fastener must incorporate two retaining devices if the
loss of such fastener would preclude
continued safe flight and landing.
(b) Fasteners and their locking devices must not be adversely affected by
the environmental conditions associated with the particular installation.
(c) No self-locking nut may be used
on any bolt subject to rotation in operation unless a non-friction locking device is used in addition to the self-locking device.
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9, 1996]
General.
The suitability of each questionable
design detail and part having an important bearing on safety in operations,
must be established by tests.
§ 23.603
other properties assumed in the design
data; and
(3) Take into account the effects of
environmental conditions, such as temperature and humidity, expected in
service.
(b) Workmanship must be of a high
standard.
Materials and workmanship.
(a) The suitability and durability of
materials used for parts, the failure of
which could adversely affect safety,
must—
(1) Be established by experience or
tests;
(2) Meet approved specifications that
ensure their having the strength and
§ 23.609 Protection of structure.
Each part of the structure must—
(a) Be suitably protected against deterioration or loss of strength in service due to any cause, including—
(1) Weathering;
(2) Corrosion; and
(3) Abrasion; and
(b) Have adequate provisions for ventilation and drainage.
§ 23.611 Accessibility provisions.
For each part that requires maintenance, inspection, or other servicing,
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.621
appropriate means must be incorporated into the aircraft design to
allow such servicing to be accomplished.
[Doc. No. 27805, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.613 Material strength properties
and design values.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(a) Material strength properties must
be based on enough tests of material
meeting specifications to establish design values on a statistical basis.
(b) Design values must be chosen to
minimize the probability of structural
failure due to material variability. Except as provided in paragraph (e) of
this section, compliance with this
paragraph must be shown by selecting
design values that ensure material
strength with the following probability:
(1) Where applied loads are eventually distributed through a single member within an assembly, the failure of
which would result in loss of structural
integrity of the component; 99 percent
probability with 95 percent confidence.
(2) For redundant structure, in which
the failure of individual elements
would result in applied loads being
safely distributed to other load carrying members; 90 percent probability
with 95 percent confidence.
(c) The effects of temperature on allowable stresses used for design in an
essential component or structure must
be considered where thermal effects are
significant under normal operating
conditions.
(d) The design of the structure must
minimize the probability of catastrophic fatigue failure, particularly at
points of stress concentration.
(e) Design values greater than the
guaranteed minimums required by this
section may be used where only guaranteed minimum values are normally
allowed if a ‘‘premium selection’’ of
the material is made in which a specimen of each individual item is tested
before use to determine that the actual
strength properties of that particular
item will equal or exceed those used in
design.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
23, 43 FR 50592, Oct. 30, 1978; Amdt. 23–45, 58
FR 42163, Aug. 6, 1993]
§ 23.619 Special factors.
The factor of safety prescribed in
§ 23.303 must be multiplied by the highest pertinent special factors of safety
prescribed in §§ 23.621 through 23.625 for
each part of the structure whose
strength is—
(a) Uncertain;
(b) Likely to deteriorate in service
before normal replacement; or
(c) Subject to appreciable variability
because of uncertainties in manufacturing processes or inspection methods.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13, 1969]
§ 23.621 Casting factors.
(a) General. The factors, tests, and inspections specified in paragraphs (b)
through (d) of this section must be applied in addition to those necessary to
establish foundry quality control. The
inspections must meet approved specifications. Paragraphs (c) and (d) of this
section apply to any structural castings except castings that are pressure
tested as parts of hydraulic or other
fluid systems and do not support structural loads.
(b) Bearing stresses and surfaces. The
casting factors specified in paragraphs
(c) and (d) of this section—
(1) Need not exceed 1.25 with respect
to bearing stresses regardless of the
method of inspection used; and
(2) Need not be used with respect to
the bearing surfaces of a part whose
bearing factor is larger than the applicable casting factor.
(c) Critical castings. For each casting
whose failure would preclude continued
safe flight and landing of the airplane
or result in serious injury to occupants, the following apply:
(1) Each critical casting must either—
(i) Have a casting factor of not less
than 1.25 and receive 100 percent inspection by visual, radiographic, and
either magnetic particle, penetrant or
other approved equivalent non-destructive inspection method; or
(ii) Have a casting factor of not less
than 2.0 and receive 100 percent visual
inspection and 100 percent approved
non-destructive inspection. When an
approved quality control procedure is
established and an acceptable statistical analysis supports reduction, non-
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§ 23.623
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
destructive inspection may be reduced
from 100 percent, and applied on a sampling basis.
(2) For each critical casting with a
casting factor less than 1.50, three sample castings must be static tested and
shown to meet—
(i) The strength requirements of
§ 23.305 at an ultimate load corresponding to a casting factor of 1.25;
and
(ii) The deformation requirements of
§ 23.305 at a load of 1.15 times the limit
load.
(3) Examples of these castings are
structural attachment fittings, parts of
flight control systems, control surface
hinges and balance weight attachments, seat, berth, safety belt, and fuel
and oil tank supports and attachments,
and cabin pressure valves.
(d) Non-critical castings. For each
casting other than those specified in
paragraph (c) or (e) of this section, the
following apply:
(1) Except as provided in paragraphs
(d)(2) and (3) of this section, the casting
factors and corresponding inspections
must meet the following table:
Casting factor
Inspection
2.0 or more ....................
Less than 2.0 but more
than 1.5.
100 percent visual.
100 percent visual, and magnetic
particle or penetrant or equivalent nondestructive inspection
methods.
100 percent visual, magnetic particle or penetrant, and radiographic, or approved equivalent
nondestructive inspection methods.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
1.25 through 1.50 ..........
(2) The percentage of castings inspected by nonvisual methods may be
reduced below that specified in subparagraph (d)(1) of this section when an
approved quality control procedure is
established.
(3) For castings procured to a specification that guarantees the mechanical properties of the material in the
casting and provides for demonstration
of these properties by test of coupons
cut from the castings on a sampling
basis—
(i) A casting factor of 1.0 may be
used; and
(ii) The castings must be inspected as
provided in paragraph (d)(1) of this section for casting factors of ‘‘1.25 through
1.50’’ and tested under paragraph (c)(2)
of this section.
(e) Non-structural castings. Castings
used for non-structural purposes do not
require evaluation, testing or close inspection.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42164, Aug. 6,
1993]
§ 23.623
Bearing factors.
(a) Each part that has clearance (free
fit), and that is subject to pounding or
vibration, must have a bearing factor
large enough to provide for the effects
of normal relative motion.
(b) For control surface hinges and
control system joints, compliance with
the factors prescribed in §§ 23.657 and
23.693, respectively, meets paragraph
(a) of this section.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13, 1969]
§ 23.625
Fitting factors.
For each fitting (a part or terminal
used to join one structural member to
another), the following apply:
(a) For each fitting whose strength is
not proven by limit and ultimate load
tests in which actual stress conditions
are simulated in the fitting and surrounding structures, a fitting factor of
at least 1.15 must be applied to each
part of—
(1) The fitting;
(2) The means of attachment; and
(3) The bearing on the joined members.
(b) No fitting factor need be used for
joint designs based on comprehensive
test data (such as continuous joints in
metal plating, welded joints, and scarf
joints in wood).
(c) For each integral fitting, the part
must be treated as a fitting up to the
point at which the section properties
become typical of the member.
(d) For each seat, berth, safety belt,
and harness, its attachment to the
structure must be shown, by analysis,
tests, or both, to be able to withstand
the inertia forces prescribed in § 23.561
multiplied by a fitting factor of 1.33.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13,
1969]
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.629
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.627 Fatigue strength.
The structure must be designed, as
far as practicable, to avoid points of
stress concentration where variable
stresses above the fatigue limit are
likely to occur in normal service.
§ 23.629 Flutter.
(a) It must be shown by the methods
of paragraph (b) and either paragraph
(c) or (d) of this section, that the airplane is free from flutter, control reversal, and divergence for any condition of operation within the limit V-n
envelope and at all speeds up to the
speed specified for the selected method.
In addition—
(1) Adequate tolerances must be established for quantities which affect
flutter, including speed, damping, mass
balance, and control system stiffness;
and
(2) The natural frequencies of main
structural components must be determined by vibration tests or other approved methods.
(b) Flight flutter tests must be made
to show that the airplane is free from
flutter, control reversal and divergence
and to show that—
(1) Proper and adequate attempts to
induce flutter have been made within
the speed range up to VD/MD, or VDF/MDF
for jets;
(2) The vibratory response of the
structure during the test indicates
freedom from flutter;
(3) A proper margin of damping exists
at VD/MD, or VDF/MDF for jets; and
(4) As VD/MD (or VDF/MDF for jets) is
approached, there is no large or rapid
reduction in damping.
(c) Any rational analysis used to predict freedom from flutter, control reversal and divergence must cover all
speeds up to 1.2 VD/1.2 MD, limited to
Mach 1.0 for subsonic airplanes.
(d) Compliance with the rigidity and
mass balance criteria (pages 4–12), in
Airframe and Equipment Engineering
Report No. 45 (as corrected) ‘‘Simplified Flutter Prevention Criteria’’
(published by the Federal Aviation Administration) may be accomplished to
show that the airplane is free from
flutter, control reversal, or divergence
if—
(1) VD/MD for the airplane is less than
260 knots (EAS) and less than Mach 0.5,
(2) The wing and aileron flutter prevention criteria, as represented by the
wing torsional stiffness and aileron
balance criteria, are limited in use to
airplanes without large mass concentrations (such as engines, floats, or
fuel tanks in outer wing panels) along
the wing span, and
(3) The airplane—
(i) Does not have a T-tail or other unconventional tail configurations;
(ii) Does not have unusual mass distributions or other unconventional design features that affect the applicability of the criteria, and
(iii) Has fixed-fin and fixed-stabilizer
surfaces.
(e) For turbopropeller-powered airplanes, the dynamic evaluation must
include—
(1) Whirl mode degree of freedom
which takes into account the stability
of the plane of rotation of the propeller
and significant elastic, inertial, and
aerodynamic forces, and
(2) Propeller, engine, engine mount,
and airplane structure stiffness and
damping variations appropriate to the
particular configuration.
(f) Freedom from flutter, control reversal, and divergence up to VD/MD
must be shown as follows:
(1) For airplanes that meet the criteria of paragraphs (d)(1) through (d)(3)
of this section, after the failure, malfunction, or disconnection of any single
element in any tab control system.
(2) For airplanes other than those described in paragraph (f)(1) of this section, after the failure, malfunction, or
disconnection of any single element in
the primary flight control system, any
tab control system, or any flutter
damper.
(g) For airplanes showing compliance
with the fail-safe criteria of §§ 23.571
and 23.572, the airplane must be shown
by analysis to be free from flutter up
to VD/MD after fatigue failure, or obvious partial failure, of a principal structural element.
(h) For airplanes showing compliance
with the damage tolerance criteria of
§ 23.573, the airplane must be shown by
analysis to be free from flutter up to
VD/MD with the extent of damage for
which residual strength is demonstrated.
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§ 23.641
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(i) For modifications to the type design that could affect the flutter characteristics, compliance with paragraph
(a) of this section must be shown, except that analysis based on previously
approved data may be used alone to
show freedom from flutter, control reversal and divergence, for all speeds up
to the speed specified for the selected
method.
ing strength of the softest material
used as a bearing.
(b) For ball or roller bearing hinges,
the approved rating of the bearing may
not be exceeded.
[Amdt. 23–23, 43 FR 50592, Oct. 30, 1978, as
amended by Amdt. 23–31, 49 FR 46867, Nov. 28,
1984; Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42164, Aug. 6, 1993; 58
FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5148,
Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75756, Dec. 2,
2011]
The supporting structure and the attachment of concentrated mass balance weights used on control surfaces
must be designed for—
(a) 24 g normal to the plane of the
control surface;
(b) 12 g fore and aft; and
(c) 12 g parallel to the hinge line.
WINGS
§ 23.641
CONTROL SURFACES
Proof of strength.
(a) Limit load tests of control surfaces are required. These tests must include the horn or fitting to which the
control system is attached.
(b) In structural analyses, rigging
loads due to wire bracing must be accounted for in a rational or conservative manner.
§ 23.655
Installation.
(a) Movable surfaces must be installed so that there is no interference
between any surfaces, their bracing, or
adjacent fixed structure, when one surface is held in its most critical clearance positions and the others are operated through their full movement.
(b) If an adjustable stabilizer is used,
it must have stops that will limit its
range of travel to that allowing safe
flight and landing.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42164, Aug. 6,
1993]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.657
§ 23.659
Mass balance.
Proof of strength.
The strength of stressed-skin wings
must be proven by load tests or by
combined structural analysis and load
tests.
§ 23.651
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9,
1996]
Hinges.
(a) Control surface hinges, except
ball and roller bearing hinges, must
have a factor of safety of not less than
6.67 with respect to the ultimate bear-
CONTROL SYSTEMS
§ 23.671
General.
(a) Each control must operate easily,
smoothly, and positively enough to
allow proper performance of its functions.
(b) Controls must be arranged and
identified to provide for convenience in
operation and to prevent the possibility of confusion and subsequent inadvertent operation.
§ 23.672 Stability augmentation and
automatic and power-operated systems.
If the functioning of stability augmentation or other automatic or
power-operated systems is necessary to
show compliance with the flight characteristics requirements of this part,
such systems must comply with § 23.671
and the following:
(a) A warning, which is clearly distinguishable to the pilot under expected flight conditions without requiring the pilot’s attention, must be
provided for any failure in the stability
augmentation system or in any other
automatic or power-operated system
that could result in an unsafe condition if the pilot was not aware of the
failure. Warning systems must not activate the control system.
(b) The design of the stability augmentation system or of any other automatic or power-operated system must
permit initial counteraction of failures
without requiring exceptional pilot
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.679
skill or strength, by either the deactivation of the system or a failed portion
thereof, or by overriding the failure by
movement of the flight controls in the
normal sense.
(c) It must be shown that, after any
single failure of the stability augmentation system or any other automatic or power-operated system—
(1) The airplane is safely controllable
when the failure or malfunction occurs
at any speed or altitude within the approved operating limitations that is
critical for the type of failure being
considered;
(2) The controllability and maneuverability requirements of this part are
met within a practical operational
flight envelope (for example, speed, altitude, normal acceleration, and airplane configuration) that is described
in the Airplane Flight Manual (AFM);
and
(3) The trim, stability, and stall characteristics are not impaired below a
level needed to permit continued safe
flight and landing.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42164, Aug. 6, 1993]
§ 23.673 Primary flight controls.
Primary flight controls are those
used by the pilot for the immediate
control of pitch, roll, and yaw.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9,
1996]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.675 Stops.
(a) Each control system must have
stops that positively limit the range of
motion of each movable aerodynamic
surface controlled by the system.
(b) Each stop must be located so that
wear, slackness, or takeup adjustments
will not adversely affect the control
characteristics of the airplane because
of a change in the range of surface
travel.
(c) Each stop must be able to withstand any loads corresponding to the
design conditions for the control system.
be means near the trim control to indicate to the pilot the direction of trim
control movement relative to airplane
motion. In addition, there must be
means to indicate to the pilot the position of the trim device with respect to
both the range of adjustment and, in
the case of lateral and directional
trim, the neutral position. This means
must be visible to the pilot and must
be located and designed to prevent confusion. The pitch trim indicator must
be clearly marked with a position or
range within which it has been demonstrated that take-off is safe for all
center of gravity positions and each
flap position approved for takeoff.
(b) Trimming devices must be designed so that, when any one connecting or transmitting element in the
primary flight control system fails,
adequate control for safe flight and
landing is available with—
(1) For single-engine airplanes, the
longitudinal trimming devices; or
(2) For multiengine airplanes, the
longitudinal and directional trimming
devices.
(c) Tab controls must be irreversible
unless the tab is properly balanced and
has no unsafe flutter characteristics.
Irreversible tab systems must have
adequate rigidity and reliability in the
portion of the system from the tab to
the attachment of the irreversible unit
to the airplane structure.
(d) It must be demonstrated that the
airplane is safely controllable and that
the pilot can perform all maneuvers
and operations necessary to effect a
safe landing following any probable
powered trim system runaway that
reasonably might be expected in service, allowing for appropriate time
delay after pilot recognition of the
trim system runaway. The demonstration must be conducted at critical airplane weights and center of gravity positions.
[Amdt. 23–17, 41 FR 55464, Dec. 20, 1976]
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1830, Jan. 15, 1987;
Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3, 1991; Amdt. 23–
49, 61 FR 5165, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.677 Trim systems.
(a) Proper precautions must be taken
to prevent inadvertent, improper, or
abrupt trim tab operation. There must
§ 23.679 Control system locks.
If there is a device to lock the control system on the ground or water:
(a) There must be a means to—
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§ 23.681
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(1) Give unmistakable warning to the
pilot when lock is engaged; or
(2) Automatically disengage the device when the pilot operates the primary flight controls in a normal manner.
(b) The device must be installed to
limit the operation of the airplane so
that, when the device is engaged, the
pilot receives unmistakable warning at
the start of the takeoff.
(c) The device must have a means to
preclude the possibility of it becoming
inadvertently engaged in flight.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42164, Aug. 6, 1993]
§ 23.681
Limit load static tests.
(a) Compliance with the limit load
requirements of this part must be
shown by tests in which—
(1) The direction of the test loads
produces the most severe loading in the
control system; and
(2) Each fitting, pulley, and bracket
used in attaching the system to the
main structure is included.
(b) Compliance must be shown (by
analyses or individual load tests) with
the special factor requirements for
control system joints subject to angular motion.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.683
Operation tests.
(a) It must be shown by operation
tests that, when the controls are operated from the pilot compartment with
the system loaded as prescribed in
paragraph (b) of this section, the system is free from—
(1) Jamming;
(2) Excessive friction; and
(3) Excessive deflection.
(b) The prescribed test loads are—
(1) For the entire system, loads corresponding to the limit airloads on the
appropriate surface, or the limit pilot
forces in § 23.397(b), whichever are less;
and
(2) For secondary controls, loads not
less than those corresponding to the
maximum pilot effort established
under § 23.405.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13,
1969]
§ 23.685
Control system details.
(a) Each detail of each control system must be designed and installed to
prevent jamming, chafing, and interference from cargo, passengers, loose
objects, or the freezing of moisture.
(b) There must be means in the cockpit to prevent the entry of foreign objects into places where they would jam
the system.
(c) There must be means to prevent
the slapping of cables or tubes against
other parts.
(d) Each element of the flight control
system must have design features, or
must be distinctively and permanently
marked, to minimize the possibility of
incorrect assembly that could result in
malfunctioning of the control system.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–17, 41 FR 55464, Dec. 20,
1976]
§ 23.687
Spring devices.
The reliability of any spring device
used in the control system must be established by tests simulating service
conditions unless failure of the spring
will not cause flutter or unsafe flight
characteristics.
§ 23.689
Cable systems.
(a) Each cable, cable fitting, turnbuckle, splice, and pulley used must
meet approved specifications. In addition—
(1) No cable smaller than 1⁄8 inch diameter may be used in primary control
systems;
(2) Each cable system must be designed so that there will be no hazardous
change
in
cable
tension
throughout the range of travel under
operating conditions and temperature
variations; and
(3) There must be means for visual
inspection at each fairlead, pulley, terminal, and turnbuckle.
(b) Each kind and size of pulley must
correspond to the cable with which it is
used. Each pulley must have closely
fitted guards to prevent the cables
from being misplaced or fouled, even
when slack. Each pulley must lie in the
plane passing through the cable so that
the cable does not rub against the pulley flange.
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.697
(c) Fairleads must be installed so
that they do not cause a change in
cable direction of more than three degrees.
(d) Clevis pins subject to load or motion and retained only by cotter pins
may not be used in the control system.
(e) Turnbuckles must be attached to
parts having angular motion in a manner that will positively prevent binding
throughout the range of travel.
(f) Tab control cables are not part of
the primary control system and may be
less than 1⁄8 inch diameter in airplanes
that are safely controllable with the
tabs in the most adverse positions.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13,
1969]
§ 23.691 Artificial stall barrier system.
If the function of an artificial stall
barrier, for example, stick pusher, is
used
to
show
compliance
with
§ 23.201(c), the system must comply
with the following:
(a) With the system adjusted for operation, the plus and minus airspeeds
at which downward pitching control
will be provided must be established.
(b) Considering the plus and minus
airspeed tolerances established by
paragraph (a) of this section, an airspeed must be selected for the activation of the downward pitching control
that provides a safe margin above any
airspeed at which any unsatisfactory
stall characteristics occur.
(c) In addition to the stall warning
required § 23.07, a warning that is clearly distinguishable to the pilot under all
expected flight conditions without requiring the pilot’s attention, must be
provided for faults that would prevent
the system from providing the required
pitching motion.
(d) Each system must be designed so
that the artificial stall barrier can be
quickly and positively disengaged by
the pilots to prevent unwanted downward pitching of the airplane by a
quick release (emergency) control that
meets the requirements of § 23.1329(b).
(e) A preflight check of the complete
system must be established and the
procedure for this check made available in the Airplane Flight Manual
(AFM). Preflight checks that are critical to the safety of the airplane must
be included in the limitations section
of the AFM.
(f) For those airplanes whose design
includes an autopilot system:
(1) A quick release (emergency) control installed in accordance with
§ 23.1329(b) may be used to meet the requirements of paragraph (d), of this
section, and
(2) The pitch servo for that system
may be used to provide the stall downward pitching motion.
(g) In showing compliance with
§ 23.1309, the system must be evaluated
to determine the effect that any announced or unannounced failure may
have on the continued safe flight and
landing of the airplane or the ability of
the crew to cope with any adverse conditions that may result from such failures. This evaluation must consider
the hazards that would result from the
airplane’s flight characteristics if the
system was not provided, and the hazard that may result from unwanted
downward pitching motion, which
could result from a failure at airspeeds
above the selected stall speed.
[Doc. No. 27806, 61 FR 5165, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.693
Joints.
Control system joints (in push-pull
systems) that are subject to angular
motion, except those in ball and roller
bearing systems, must have a special
factor of safety of not less than 3.33
with respect to the ultimate bearing
strength of the softest material used as
a bearing. This factor may be reduced
to 2.0 for joints in cable control systems. For ball or roller bearings, the
approved ratings may not be exceeded.
§ 23.697
Wing flap controls.
(a) Each wing flap control must be
designed so that, when the flap has
been placed in any position upon which
compliance with the performance requirements of this part is based, the
flap will not move from that position
unless the control is adjusted or is
moved by the automatic operation of a
flap load limiting device.
(b) The rate of movement of the flaps
in response to the operation of the pilot’s control or automatic device must
give satisfactory flight and performance characteristics under steady or
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§ 23.699
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
changing conditions of airspeed, engine
power, and attitude.
(c) If compliance with § 23.145(b)(3)
necessitates wing flap retraction to positions that are not fully retracted, the
wing flap control lever settings corresponding to those positions must be
positively located such that a definite
change of direction of movement of the
lever is necessary to select settings beyond those settings.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–49, 61 FR 5165, Feb. 9,
1996]
§ 23.699
Wing flap position indicator.
There must be a wing flap position
indicator for—
(a) Flap installations with only the
retracted and fully extended position,
unless—
(1) A direct operating mechanism
provides a sense of ‘‘feel’’ and position
(such as when a mechanical linkage is
employed); or
(2) The flap position is readily determined without seriously detracting
from other piloting duties under any
flight condition, day or night; and
(b) Flap installation with intermediate flap positions if—
(1) Any flap position other than retracted or fully extended is used to
show compliance with the performance
requirements of this part; and
(2) The flap installation does not
meet the requirements of paragraph
(a)(1) of this section.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.701
Flap interconnection.
(a) The main wing flaps and related
movable surfaces as a system must—
(1) Be synchronized by a mechanical
interconnection between the movable
flap surfaces that is independent of the
flap drive system; or by an approved
equivalent means; or
(2) Be designed so that the occurrence of any failure of the flap system
that would result in an unsafe flight
characteristic of the airplane is extremely improbable; or
(b) The airplane must be shown to
have safe flight characteristics with
any combination of extreme positions
of individual movable surfaces (mechanically interconnected surfaces are
to be considered as a single surface).
(c) If an interconnection is used in
multiengine airplanes, it must be designed
to
account
for
the
unsummetrical loads resulting from
flight with the engines on one side of
the plane of symmetry inoperative and
the remaining engines at takeoff
power. For single-engine airplanes, and
multiengine airplanes with no slipstream effects on the flaps, it may be
assumed that 100 percent of the critical
air load acts on one side and 70 percent
on the other.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19,
1973; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 353, Jan. 3, 1991; 56
FR 5455, Feb. 11, 1991; Amdt. 23–49, 61 FR 5165,
Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.703
Takeoff warning system.
For all airplanes with a maximum
weight more than 6,000 pounds and all
jets, unless it can be shown that a lift
or longitudinal trim device that affects
the takeoff performance of the airplane
would not give an unsafe takeoff configuration when selected out of an approved takeoff position, a takeoff
warning system must be installed and
meet the following requirements:
(a) The system must provide to the
pilots an aural warning that is automatically activated during the initial
portion of the takeoff role if the airplane is in a configuration that would
not allow a safe takeoff. The warning
must continue until—
(1) The configuration is changed to
allow safe takeoff, or
(2) Action is taken by the pilot to
abandon the takeoff roll.
(b) The means used to activate the
system must function properly for all
authorized takeoff power settings and
procedures and throughout the ranges
of takeoff weights, altitudes, and temperatures for which certification is requested.
(c) For the purpose of this section, an
unsafe takeoff configuration is the inability to rotate or the inability to prevent an immediate stall after rotation.
[Doc. No. 27806, 61 FR 5166, Feb. 9, 1996, as
amended by Amdt. 23–62, 76 FR 75757, Dec. 2,
2011]
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.725
General.
For commuter category airplanes
that have a passenger seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 10 or
more, the following general requirements for the landing gear apply:
(a) The main landing-gear system
must be designed so that if it fails due
to overloads during takeoff and landing
(assuming the overloads to act in the
upward and aft directions), the failure
mode is not likely to cause the spillage
of enough fuel from any part of the fuel
system to consitute a fire hazard.
(b) Each airplane must be designed so
that, with the airplane under control,
it can be landed on a paved runway
with any one or more landing-gear legs
not extended without sustaining a
structural component failure that is
likely to cause the spillage of enough
fuel to consitute a fire hazard.
(c) Compliance with the provisions of
this section may be shown by analysis
or tests, or both.
[Amdt. 23–34, 52 FR 1830, Jan. 15, 1987]
§ 23.723
Shock absorption tests.
(a) It must be shown that the limit
load factors selected for design in accordance with § 23.473 for takeoff and
landing weights, respectively, will not
be exceeded. This must be shown by energy absorption tests except that analysis based on tests conducted on a
landing gear system with identical energy absorption characteristics may be
used for increases in previously approved takeoff and landing weights.
(b) The landing gear may not fail, but
may yield, in a test showing its reserve
energy absorption capacity, simulating
a descent velocity of 1.2 times the limit
descent velocity, assuming wing lift
equal to the weight of the airplane.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
23, 43 FR 50593, Oct. 30, 1978; Amdt. 23–49, 61
FR 5166, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.725 Limit drop tests.
(a) If compliance with § 23.723(a) is
shown by free drop tests, these tests
must be made on the complete airplane, or on units consisting of wheel,
tire, and shock absorber, in their prop-
h (inches) = 3.6 (W/S) 1⁄2
However, the free drop height may not
be less than 9.2 inches and need not be
more than 18.7 inches.
(b) If the effect of wing lift is provided for in free drop tests, the landing
gear must be dropped with an effective
weight equal to
We = W
[h + (1 − L) d ]
(h + d )
where—
We = the effective weight to be used in the
drop test (lbs.);
h = specified free drop height (inches);
d = deflection under impact of the tire (at
the approved inflation pressure) plus the
vertical component of the axle travel relative to the drop mass (inches);
W = WM for main gear units (lbs), equal to
the static weight on that unit with the
airplane in the level attitude (with the
nose wheel clear in the case of nose
wheel type airplanes);
W = WT for tail gear units (lbs.), equal to the
static weight on the tail unit with the
airplane in the tail-down attitude;
W = WN for nose wheel units lbs.), equal to
the vertical component of the static reaction that would exist at the nose
wheel, assuming that the mass of the airplane acts at the center of gravity and
exerts a force of 1.0 g downward and 0.33
g forward; and
L = the ratio of the assumed wing lift to the
airplane weight, but not more than 0.667.
(c) The limit inertia load factor must
be determined in a rational or conservative manner, during the drop test,
using a landing gear unit attitude, and
applied drag loads, that represent the
landing conditions.
(d) The value of d used in the computation of We in paragraph (b) of this
section may not exceed the value actually obtained in the drop test.
(e) The limit inertia load factor must
be determined from the drop test in
paragraph (b) of this section according
to the following formula:
n = nj
We
W
+L
where—
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EC28SE91.015</MATH>
§ 23.721
er relation, from free drop heights not
less than those determined by the following formula:
EC28SE91.014</MATH>
LANDING GEAR
§ 23.726
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
nj = the load factor developed in the drop
test (that is, the acceleration (dv/dt) in gs
recorded in the drop test) plus 1.0; and
We, W, and L are the same as in the drop test
computation.
(f) The value of n determined in accordance with paragraph (e) may not
be more than the limit inertia load factor used in the landing conditions in
§ 23.473.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.726
Ground load dynamic tests.
(a) If compliance with the ground
load requirements of §§ 23.479 through
23.483 is shown dynamically by drop
test, one drop test must be conducted
that meets § 23.725 except that the drop
height must be—
(1) 2.25 times the drop height prescribed in § 23.725(a); or
(2) Sufficient to develop 1.5 times the
limit load factor.
(b) The critical landing condition for
each of the design conditions specified
in §§ 23.479 through 23.483 must be used
for proof of strength.
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13, 1969]
§ 23.727 Reserve energy absorption
drop test.
(a) If compliance with the reserve energy
absorption
requirement
in
§ 23.723(b) is shown by free drop tests,
the drop height may not be less than
1.44 times that specified in § 23.725.
(b) If the effect of wing lift is provided for, the units must be dropped
with an effective mass equal to We=Wh/
(h + d), when the symbols and other details are the same as in § 23.725.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13,
1969]
§ 23.729 Landing gear extension and
retraction system.
(a) General. For airplanes with retractable landing gear, the following
apply:
(1) Each landing gear retracting
mechanism and its supporting structure must be designed for maximum
flight load factors with the gear retracted and must be designed for the
combination of friction, inertia, brake
torque, and air loads, occurring during
retraction at any airspeed up to 1.6 VS1
with flaps retracted, and for any load
factor up to those specified in § 23.345
for the flaps-extended condition.
(2) The landing gear and retracting
mechanism, including the wheel well
doors, must withstand flight loads, including loads resulting from all yawing
conditions specified in § 23.351, with the
landing gear extended at any speed up
to at least 1.6 VS1 with the flaps retracted.
(b) Landing gear lock. There must be
positive means (other than the use of
hydraulic pressure) to keep the landing
gear extended.
(c) Emergency operation. For a landplane having retractable landing gear
that cannot be extended manually,
there must be means to extend the
landing gear in the event of either—
(1) Any reasonably probable failure in
the normal landing gear operation system; or
(2) Any reasonably probable failure in
a power source that would prevent the
operation of the normal landing gear
operation system.
(d) Operation test. The proper functioning of the retracting mechanism
must be shown by operation tests.
(e) Position indicator. If a retractable
landing gear is used, there must be a
landing gear position indicator (as well
as necessary switches to actuate the
indicator) or other means to inform the
pilot that each gear is secured in the
extended (or retracted) position. If
switches are used, they must be located
and coupled to the landing gear mechanical system in a manner that prevents an erroneous indication of either
‘‘down and locked’’ if each gear is not
in the fully extended position, or ‘‘up
and locked’’ if each landing gear is not
in the fully retracted position.
(f) Landing gear warning. For landplanes, the following aural or equally
effective landing gear warning devices
must be provided:
(1) A device that functions continuously when one or more throttles are
closed beyond the power settings normally used for landing approach if the
landing gear is not fully extended and
locked. A throttle stop may not be
used in place of an aural device. If
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.735
there is a manual shutoff for the warning device prescribed in this paragraph,
the warning system must be designed
so that when the warning has been suspended after one or more throttles are
closed, subsequent retardation of any
throttle to, or beyond, the position for
normal landing approach will activate
the warning device.
(2) A device that functions continuously when the wing flaps are extended
beyond the maximum approach flap position, using a normal landing procedure, if the landing gear is not fully extended and locked. There may not be a
manual shutoff for this warning device.
The flap position sensing unit may be
installed at any suitable location. The
system for this device may use any
part of the system (including the aural
warning device) for the device required
in paragraph (f)(1) of this section.
(g) Equipment located in the landing
gear bay. If the landing gear bay is used
as the location for equipment other
than the landing gear, that equipment
must be designed and installed to minimize damage from items such as a tire
burst, or rocks, water, and slush that
may enter the landing gear bay.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13091, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–21, 43 FR 2318, Jan. 16, 1978;
Amdt. 23–26, 45 FR 60171, Sept. 11, 1980; Amdt.
23–45, 58 FR 42164, Aug. 6, 1993; Amdt. 23–49, 61
FR 5166, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.731
Wheels.
(a) The maximum static load rating
of each wheel may not be less than the
corresponding static ground reaction
with—
(1) Design maximum weight; and
(2) Critical center of gravity.
(b) The maximum limit load rating of
each wheel must equal or exceed the
maximum radial limit load determined
under the applicable ground load requirements of this part.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6,
1993]
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.733
Tires.
(a) Each landing gear wheel must
have a tire whose approved tire ratings
(static and dynamic) are not exceeded—
(1) By a load on each main wheel tire)
to be compared to the static rating approved for such tires) equal to the corresponding static ground reaction
under the design maximum weight and
critical center of gravity; and
(2) By a load on nose wheel tires (to
be compared with the dynamic rating
approved for such tires) equal to the reaction obtained at the nose wheel, assuming the mass of the airplane to be
concentrated at the most critical center of gravity and exerting a force of
1.0 W downward and 0.31 W forward
(where W is the design maximum
weight), with the reactions distributed
to the nose and main wheels by the
principles of statics and with the drag
reaction at the ground applied only at
wheels with brakes.
(b) If specially constructed tires are
used, the wheels must be plainly and
conspicuously marked to that effect.
The markings must include the make,
size, number of plies, and identification
marking of the proper tire.
(c) Each tire installed on a retractable landing gear system must, at the
maximum size of the tire type expected
in service, have a clearance to surrounding structure and systems that is
adequate to prevent contact between
the tire and any part of the structure
of systems.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13092, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–17, 41 FR 55464, Dec. 20, 1976;
Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6, 1993]
§ 23.735
Brakes.
(a) Brakes must be provided. The
landing brake kinetic energy capacity
rating of each main wheel brake assembly must not be less than the kinetic
energy absorption requirements determined under either of the following
methods:
(1) The brake kinetic energy absorption requirements must be based on a
conservative rational analysis of the
sequence of events expected during
landing at the design landing weight.
(2) Instead of a rational analysis, the
kinetic energy absorption requirements for each main wheel brake assembly may be derived from the following formula:
KE = 0.0443 WV2/N
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§ 23.737
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
where—
KE = Kinetic energy per wheel (ft.-lb.);
W = Design landing weight (lb.);
V = Airplane speed in knots. V must be not
less than VS√, the poweroff stalling speed
of the airplane at sea level, at the design
landing weight, and in the landing configuration; and
N = Number of main wheels with brakes.
§ 23.737
(b) Brakes must be able to prevent
the wheels from rolling on a paved runway with takeoff power on the critical
engine, but need not prevent movement
of the airplane with wheels locked.
(c) During the landing distance determination required by § 23.75, the pressure on the wheel braking system must
not exceed the pressure specified by the
brake manufacturer.
(d) If antiskid devices are installed,
the devices and associated systems
must be designed so that no single
probable malfunction or failure will result in a hazardous loss of braking ability or directional control of the airplane.
(e) For airplanes required to meet
§ 23.55, the rejected takeoff brake kinetic energy capacity rating of each
main wheel brake assembly may not be
less than the kinetic energy absorption
requirements determined under either
of the following methods—
(1) The brake kinetic energy absorption requirements must be based on a
conservative rational analysis of the
sequence of events expected during a
rejected takeoff at the design takeoff
weight.
(2) Instead of a rational analysis, the
kinetic energy absorption requirements for each main wheel brake assembly may be derived from the following formula—
KE = 0.0443 WV2/N where;
KE = Kinetic energy per wheel (ft.lbs.);
W = Design takeoff weight (lbs.);
V = Ground speed, in knots, associated
with the maximum value of V1 selected
in
accordance
with
§ 23.51(c)(1);
N = Number of main wheels with
brakes.
§ 23.745
[Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13092, Aug. 13, 1969, as
amended by Amdt. 23–24, 44 FR 68742, Nov. 29,
1979; Amdt. 23–42, 56 FR 354, Jan. 3, 1991;
Amdt. 23–49, 61 FR 5166, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt.
23–62, 76 FR 75757, Dec. 2, 2011]
Skis.
The maximum limit load rating for
each ski must equal or exceed the maximum limit load determined under the
applicable ground load requirements of
this part.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6, 1993]
Nose/tail wheel steering.
(a) If nose/tail wheel steering is installed, it must be demonstrated that
its use does not require exceptional
pilot skill during takeoff and landing,
in crosswinds, or in the event of an engine failure; or its use must be limited
to low speed maneuvering.
(b) Movement of the pilot’s steering
control must not interfere with the retraction or extension of the landing
gear.
[Doc. No. 27806, 61 FR 5166, Feb. 9, 1996]
FLOATS AND HULLS
§ 23.751
Main float buoyancy.
(a) Each main float must have—
(1) A buoyancy of 80 percent in excess
of the buoyancy required by that float
to support its portion of the maximum
weight of the seaplane or amphibian in
fresh water; and
(2) Enough watertight compartments
to provide reasonable assurance that
the seaplane or amphibian will stay
afloat without capsizing if any two
compartments of any main float are
flooded.
(b) Each main float must contain at
least four watertight compartments
approximately equal in volume.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6,
1993]
§ 23.753
Main float design.
Each seaplane main float must meet
the requirements of § 23.521.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6, 1993]
§ 23.755
Hulls.
(a) The hull of a hull seaplane or amphibian of 1,500 pounds or more maximum weight must have watertight
compartments designed and arranged
so that the hull auxiliary floats, and
tires (if used), will keep the airplane
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.775
afloat without capsizing in fresh water
when—
(1) For airplanes of 5,000 pounds or
more maximum weight, any two adjacent compartments are flooded; and
(2) For airplanes of 1,500 pounds up
to, but not including, 5,000 pounds maximum weight, any single compartment
is flooded.
(b) Watertight doors in bulkheads
may be used for communication between compartments.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6,
1993; Amdt. 23–48, 61 FR 5148, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.757 Auxiliary floats.
Auxiliary floats must be arranged so
that, when completely submerged in
fresh water, they provide a righting
moment of at least 1.5 times the upsetting moment caused by the seaplane or
amphibian being tilted.
PERSONNEL AND CARGO
ACCOMMODATIONS
§ 23.771 Pilot compartment.
For each pilot compartment—
(a) The compartment and its equipment must allow each pilot to perform
his duties without unreasonable concentration or fatigue;
(b) Where the flight crew are separated from the passengers by a partition, an opening or openable window or
door must be provided to facilitate
communication between flight crew
and the passengers; and
(c) The aerodynamic controls listed
in § 23.779, excluding cables and control
rods, must be located with respect to
the propellers so that no part of the
pilot or the controls lies in the region
between the plane of rotation of any
inboard propeller and the surface generated by a line passing through the
center of the propeller hub making an
angle of 5 degrees forward or aft of the
plane of rotation of the propeller.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–14, 38 FR 31821, Nov. 19,
1973]
§ 23.773 Pilot compartment view.
(a) Each pilot compartment must
be—
(1) Arranged with sufficiently extensive, clear and undistorted view to en-
able the pilot to safely taxi, takeoff,
approach, land, and perform any maneuvers within the operating limitations of the airplane.
(2) Free from glare and reflections
that could interfere with the pilot’s vision. Compliance must be shown in all
operations for which certification is requested; and
(3) Designed so that each pilot is protected from the elements so that moderate rain conditions do not unduly impair the pilot’s view of the flight path
in normal flight and while landing.
(b) Each pilot compartment must
have a means to either remove or prevent the formation of fog or frost on an
area of the internal portion of the
windshield and side windows sufficiently large to provide the view specified in paragraph (a)(1) of this section.
Compliance must be shown under all
expected external and internal ambient
operating conditions, unless it can be
shown that the windshield and side
windows can be easily cleared by the
pilot without interruption of normal
pilot duties.
[Doc. No. 26269, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6, 1993; 71
FR 537, Jan. 5, 2006]
§ 23.775
Windshields and windows.
(a) The internal panels of windshields
and windows must be constructed of a
nonsplintering material, such as nonsplintering safety glass.
(b) The design of windshields, windows, and canopies in pressurized airplanes must be based on factors peculiar to high altitude operation, including—
(1) The effects of continuous and cyclic pressurization loadings;
(2) The inherent characteristics of
the material used; and
(3) The effects of temperatures and
temperature gradients.
(c) On pressurized airplanes, if certification for operation up to and including 25,000 feet is requested, an enclosure canopy including a representative part of the installation must be
subjected to special tests to account
for the combined effects of continuous
and cyclic pressurization loadings and
flight loads, or compliance with the
fail-safe requirements of paragraph (d)
of this section must be shown.
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§ 23.777
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
(d) If certification for operation
above 25,000 feet is requested the windshields, window panels, and canopies
must be strong enough to withstand
the maximum cabin pressure differential loads combined with critical aerodynamic pressure and temperature effects, after failure of any load-carrying
element of the windshield, window
panel, or canopy.
(e) The windshield and side windows
forward of the pilot’s back when the
pilot is seated in the normal flight position must have a luminous transmittance value of not less than 70 percent.
(f) Unless operation in known or forecast icing conditions is prohibited by
operating limitations, a means must be
provided to prevent or to clear accumulations of ice from the windshield so
that the pilot has adequate view for
taxi, takeoff, approach, landing, and to
perform any maneuvers within the operating limitations of the airplane.
(g) In the event of any probable single failure, a transparency heating system must be incapable of raising the
temperature of any windshield or window to a point where there would be—
(1) Structural failure that adversely
affects the integrity of the cabin; or
(2) There would be a danger of fire.
(h) In addition, for commuter category airplanes, the following applies:
(1) Windshield panes directly in front
of the pilots in the normal conduct of
their duties, and the supporting structures for these panes, must withstand,
without penetration, the impact of a
two-pound bird when the velocity of
the airplane (relative to the bird along
the airplane’s flight path) is equal to
the airplane’s maximum approach flap
speed.
(2) The windshield panels in front of
the pilots must be arranged so that, assuming the loss of vision through any
one panel, one or more panels remain
available for use by a pilot seated at a
pilot station to permit continued safe
flight and landing.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13092, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–45, 58 FR 42165, Aug. 6, 1993; 58
FR 51970, Oct. 5, 1993; Amdt. 23–49, 61 FR 5166,
Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.777
Cockpit controls.
(a) Each cockpit control must be located and (except where its function is
obvious) identified to provide convenient operation and to prevent confusion
and inadvertent operation.
(b) The controls must be located and
arranged so that the pilot, when seated, has full and unrestricted movement
of each control without interference
from either his clothing or the cockpit
structure.
(c) Powerplant controls must be located—
(1) For multiengine airplanes, on the
pedestal or overhead at or near the
center of the cockpit;
(2) For single and tandem seated single-engine airplanes, on the left side
console or instrument panel;
(3) For other single-engine airplanes
at or near the center of the cockpit, on
the pedestal, instrument panel, or
overhead; and
(4) For airplanes, with side-by-side
pilot seats and with two sets of powerplant controls, on left and right consoles.
(d) When separate and distinct control levers are co-located (such as located together on the pedestal), the
control location order from left to
right must be power (thrust) lever, propeller (rpm control), and mixture control (condition lever and fuel cut-off
for turbine-powered airplanes). Power
(thrust) levers must be easily distinguishable from other controls, and provide for accurate, consistent operation.
Carburetor heat or alternate air control must be to the left of the throttle
or at least eight inches from the mixture control when located other than
on a pedestal. Carburetor heat or alternate air control, when located on a
pedestal, must be aft or below the
power (thrust) lever. Supercharger controls must be located below or aft of
the propeller controls. Airplanes with
tandem seating or single-place airplanes may utilize control locations on
the left side of the cabin compartment;
however, location order from left to
right must be power (thrust) lever, propeller (rpm control), and mixture control.
(e) Identical powerplant controls for
each engine must be located to prevent
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Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.779
confusion as to the engines they control.
(1) Conventional multiengine powerplant controls must be located so that
the left control(s) operates the left engines(s) and the right control(s) operates the right engine(s).
(2) On twin-engine airplanes with
front and rear engine locations (tandem), the left powerplant controls
must operate the front engine and the
right powerplant controls must operate
the rear engine.
(f) Wing flap and auxiliary lift device
controls must be located—
(1) Centrally, or to the right of the
pedestal or powerplant throttle control
centerline; and
(2) Far enough away from the landing
gear control to avoid confusion.
(g) The landing gear control must be
located to the left of the throttle centerline or pedestal centerline.
(h) Each fuel feed selector control
must comply with § 23.995 and be located and arranged so that the pilot
can see and reach it without moving
any seat or primary flight control
when his seat is at any position in
which it can be placed.
(1) For a mechanical fuel selector:
(i) The indication of the selected fuel
valve position must be by means of a
pointer and must provide positive identification and feel (detent, etc.) of the
selected position.
(ii) The position indicator pointer
must be located at the part of the handle that is the maximum dimension of
the handle measured from the center of
rotation.
(2) For electrical or electronic fuel
selector:
(i) Digital controls or electrical
switches must be properly labelled.
(ii) Means must be provided to indicate to the flight crew the tank or
function selected. Selector switch position is not acceptable as a means of indication. The ‘‘off’’ or ‘‘closed’’ position must be indicated in red.
(3) If the fuel valve selector handle or
electrical or digital selection is also a
fuel shut-off selector, the off position
marking must be colored red. If a sepa-
rate emergency shut-off means is provided, it also must be colored red.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964, as
amended by Amdt. 23–7, 34 FR 13092, Aug. 13,
1969; Amdt. 23–33, 51 FR 26656, July 24, 1986;
Amdt. 23–51, 61 FR 5136, Feb. 9, 1996; Amdt.
23–62, 76 FR 75757, Dec. 2, 2011]
§ 23.779 Motion and effect of cockpit
controls.
Cockpit controls must be designed so
that they operate in accordance with
the following movement and actuation:
(a) Aerodynamic controls:
Motion and effect
(1) Primary controls:
Aileron ......
Elevator .....
Rudder .......
(2) Secondary
controls:
Flaps (or
auxiliary
lift devices).
Trim tabs
(or equivalent).
Right (clockwise) for right
wing down.
Rearward for nose up.
Right pedal forward for
nose right.
Forward or up for flaps up
or auxiliary device
stowed; rearward or
down for flaps down or
auxiliary device deployed.
Switch motion or mechanical rotation of control
to produce similar rotation of the airplane
about an axis parallel to
the axis control. Axis of
roll trim control may be
displaced to accommodate comfortable actuation by the pilot. For
single-engine airplanes,
direction of pilot’s hand
movement must be in
the same sense as airplane response for rudder trim if only a portion of a rotational element is accessible.
(b) Powerplant and auxiliary controls:
Motion and effect
(1) Powerplant
controls:
Power
(thrust)
lever.
Propellers ..
Mixture ......
Forward to increase forward thrust and rearward to increase rearward thrust.
Forward to increase rpm.
Forward or upward for
rich.
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§ 23.781
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
Motion and effect
Fuel ...........
Carburetor,
air heat
or alternate air.
Supercharger.
Turbosuperchargers.
Forward for open.
Forward or upward for
cold.
Landing
gear.
Speed
brakes.
Forward or upward for low
blower.
Forward, upward, or
clockwise to increase
pressure.
Clockwise from off to full
on.
Right for right tanks, left
for left tanks.
Down to extend.
Aft to extend.
[Amdt. 23–33, 51 FR 26656, July 24, 1986, as
amended by Amdt. 23–51, 61 FR 5136, Feb. 9,
1996]
§ 23.781 Cockpit control knob shape.
(a) Flap and landing gear control
knobs must conform to the general
shapes (but not necessarily the exact
sizes or specific proportions) in the following figure:
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Rotary controls.
(2) Auxiliary
controls:
Fuel tank
selector.
Motion and effect
Federal Aviation Administration, DOT
§ 23.783
(b) Powerplant control knobs must
conform to the general shapes (but not
necessarily the exact sizes or specific
proportions) in the following figure:
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
33, 51 FR 26657, July 24, 1986]
Doors.
(a) Each closed cabin with passenger
accommodations must have at least
one adequate and easily accessible external door.
(b) Passenger doors must not be located with respect to any propeller
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§ 23.783
disk or any other potential hazard so
as to endanger persons using the door.
(c) Each external passenger or crew
door must comply with the following
requirements:
(1) There must be a means to lock
and safeguard the door against inadvertent opening during flight by persons, by cargo, or as a result of mechanical failure.
(2) The door must be openable from
the inside and the outside when the internal locking mechanism is in the
locked position.
jstallworth on DSK7TPTVN1PROD with CFR
§ 23.785
14 CFR Ch. I (1–1–16 Edition)
(3) There must be a means of opening
which is simple and obvious and is arranged and marked inside and outside
so that the door can be readily located,
unlocked, and opened, even in darkness.
(4) The door must meet the marking
requirements of § 23.811 of this part.
(5) The door must be reasonably free
from jamming as a result of fuselage
deformation in an emergency landing.
(6) Auxiliary locking devices that are
actuated externally to the airplane
may be used but such devices must be
overridden by the normal internal
opening means.
(d) In addition, each external passenger or crew door, for a commuter
category airplane, must comply with
the following requirements:
(1) Each door must be openable from
both the inside and outside, even
though persons may be crowded
against the door on the inside of the
airplane.
(2) If inward opening doors are used,
there must be a means to prevent occupants from crowding against the door
to the extent that would interfere with
opening the door.
(3) Auxiliary locking devices may be
used.
(e) Each external door on a commuter category airplane, each external
door forward of any engine or propeller
on a normal, utility, or acrobatic category airplane, and each door of the
pressure vessel on a pressurized airplane must comply with the following
requirements:
(1) There must be a means to lock
and safeguard each external door, including cargo and service type doors,
against inadvertent opening in flight,
by persons, by cargo, or as a result of
mechanical failure or failure of a single
structural element, either during or
after closure.
(2) There must be a provision for direct visual inspection of the locking
mechanism to determine if the external door, for which the initial opening
movement is not inward, is fully closed
and locked. The provisions must be discernible, under operating lighting conditions, by a crewmember using a
flashlight or an equivalent lighting
source.
(3) There must be a visual warning
means to signal a flight crewmember if
the external door is not fully closed
and locked. The means must be designed so that any failure, or combination of failures, that would result in an
erroneous closed and locked indication
is improbable for doors for which the
initial opening movement is not inward.
(f) In addition, for commuter category airplanes, the following requirements apply:
(1) Each passenger entry door must
qualify as a floor level emergency exit.
This exit must have a rectangular
opening of not less than 24 inches wide
by 48 inches high, with corner radii not
greater than one-third the width of the
exit.
(2) If an integral stair is installed at
a passenger entry door, the stair must
be designed so that, when subjected to
the inertia loads resulting from the ultimate
static
load
factors
in
§ 23.561(b)(2) and following the collapse
of one or more legs of the landing gear,
it will not reduce the effectiveness of
emergency egress through the passenger entry door.
(g) If lavatory doors are installed,
they must be designed to preclude an
occupant from becoming trapped inside
the lavatory. If a locking mechanism is
installed, it must be capable of being
unlocked from outside of the lavatory.
[Doc. No. 4080, 29 FR 17955, Dec. 18, 1964; 30
FR 258, Jan. 9, 1965, as amended by Amdt. 23–
36, 53 FR 30813, Aug. 15, 1988; Amdt. 23–46, 59
FR 25772, May 17, 1994; Amdt. 23–49, 61 FR
5166, Feb. 9, 1996]
§ 23.785 Seats, berths, litters, safety
belts, and shoulder harnesses.
There must be a seat or berth for
each occupant that meets the following:
(a) Each seat/restraint system and
the supporting structure must be designed to support occupants weighing
at least 215 pounds when subjected to
the maximum load factors corresponding to the specified flight and
ground load conditions, as defined in
the approved operating envelope of the
airplane. In addition, these loads must
be multiplied by a factor of 1.33 in determining the strength of all fittings
and the attachment of—
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§ 23.785
(1) Each seat to the structure; and
(2) Each safety belt and shoulder harness to the seat or structure.
(b) Each forward-facing or aft-facing
seat/restraint system in normal, utility, or acrobatic category airplanes
must consist of a seat, a safety belt,
and a shoulder harness, with a metalto-metal latching device, that are designed to provide the occupant protection provisions required in § 23.562.
Other seat orientations must provide
the same level of occupant protection
as a forward-facing or aft-facing seat
with a safety belt and a shoulder harness, and must provide the protection
provisions of § 23.562.
(c) For commuter category airplanes,
each seat and the supporting structure
must be designed for occupants weighing at least 170 pounds when subjected
to the inertia loads resulting from the
ultimate static load factors prescribed
in § 23.561(b)(2) of this part. Each occupant must be protected from serious
head injury when subjected to the inertia loads resulting from these load factors by a safety belt and shoulder harness, with a metal-to-metal latching
device, for the front seats and a safety
belt, or a safety belt and shoulder harness, with a metal-to-metal latching
device, for each seat other than the
front seats.
(d) Each restraint system must have
a single-point release for occupant
evacuation.
(e) The restraint system for each
crewmember must allow the crewmember, when seated with the safety
belt and shoulder harness fastened, to
perform all functions necessary for
flight operations.
(f) Each pilo