FLIGHT PLANNING QUESTION BANK
General
An aircraft flying at 7,500 ft is cleared to descend to be level at 1,000 ft 6 nm before
reaching a beacon. If ground speed is 156 kts, and ROD is 800 ft/min, how many miles
before the beacon should descent begin?
a)
11.1 nm
b)
30.2 nm
c)
27.1 nm
d)
15.0 nm
An aircraft is in the cruise at FL155 with a TAS of 260 kts. The pilot plans a 500 ft/min
ROD to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2,000 ft QNH 1030. Assuming a constant TAS,
standard temperature and no wind, what is the minimum descent from the MAN VOR to
start the descent?
a)
120 nm
b)
130 nm
c)
140 nm
d)
110 nm
An aircraft is in the cruise at FL 095 with an IAS of 155 kts. The pilot intends to descend
at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2,000 FT QNH 1030. Assuming a
constant TAS, standard temperature and no wind, what is the minimum descent from the
MAN VOR to start the descent?
a)
38 nm
use crp
b)
45 nm
c)
48 nm
d)
41 nm
ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL160 to be level 6 nm before a VOR. If the rate of
descent is 800 ft/min, and mean groundspeed is 256 kts, how far out from the VOR must
descent be started?
a)
65 nm
b)
144 nm
c)
150 nm
d)
59 nm
After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kts TAS with a 20 kts tail wind, you have to return to
the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:
a)
10 min 40 sec
s=vxt
b)
16 min
=(100-20)(16/60)
c)
20 min
d)
24 min
=21nm
t=d/v
=21/(100+20)
=10.5 min
therefore, 10.5 + 16 =26.5 ~ 24min
An aircraft flies at a TAS of 380 kts. It flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480
nm. When going from A to B it experiences a headwind component of 60 kts. The wind
remains constant. The duration of the flight will be:
a)
2 hr 10 min
b)
2 hr 42 min
c)
2 hr 35 min
d)
3 hr 00 min
An aircraft is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is this
possible?
a)
Yes, but only with permission from ATC
b)
No, only ATC can order you to do this
c)
No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan
d)
Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "cancelling my
IFR flight”
During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a
distance of 750 nm from the ground station and at flight level 350. The frequency to be
used is:
a)
5649 kHz
b)
123.9 MHz
c)
17286 kHz
d)
11336 kHz
The flight planning chart for an aircraft states that the time to reach the cruising level at a
given gross mass is 36 mins and the distance travelled is 157 nm (zero-wind). What will
be the distance travelled with an average tailwind component of 60 kts?
a)
193 nm
b)
128 nm
c)
157 nm
d)
228 nm
Given: Track 017°T, W/V 340/30, and TAS 420 kts, what is the wind correction angle
(WCA) and ground speed (GS)?
a)
WCA +2° ; GS 416 kts
b)
WCA -2° ; GS 396 kts
c)
WCA +2° ; GS 396 kts
d)
WCA -2° ; GS 426 kts
If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the
flight plan he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed
within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of
minutes is:
a)
10
b)
45
c)
30
d)
15
On a given path it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FLs) each associated
with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature
(SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below:
FL 370
M = 0.80
Ts = -60°C
HWC = -15 kts
FL 330
M = 0.78
Ts = -60°C
HWC = -5 kts
FL 290
M = 0.80
Ts = -55°C
HWC = -15 kts
FL 270
M = 0.76
Ts = -43°C
HWC = 0
The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
a)
FL 370
b)
FL 330
c)
FL 290
d)
FL 270
You are flying at FL330, M0.84, OAT -48°C, and headwind 52 kts. The time is 1338
UTC. ATC clear you to be at 30°W (570 nm away) at 1500 UTC. What Mach No is
required?
a)
0.76
b)
0.84
c)
0.72
d)
0.80
You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing
the QNH is 1025 and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly
at is:
a)
FL 80
b)
FL 75
c)
FL 70
d)
FL 90
002-003
The AIP
From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue
organisation and procedures (SAR)?
a)
SIGMET
b)
ATCC broadcasts
c)
AIP
d)
NOTAMs
From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding
customs and health formalities?
a)
NOTAMs
b)
NAV/RAD charts
c)
AIP
d)
ATCC
From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short
unserviceability of a VOR, TACAN and NDB?
a)
NOTAM
b)
SIGMET
c)
AIP
d)
ATCC broadcasts
From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when
temporary danger areas are active?
a)
Only the AIP
b)
NOTAMs and AIP
c)
SIGMET
d)
RAD/NAV charts
004-006
VFR Flight Planning, Altimetry & JEPP VFR
An aircraft following a 215° true track, with variation 3°W, must fly over a 10,600 ft
obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1,500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from
an airport close by which is almost at sea-level is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C
the minimum flight level will be:
a)
FL 130
b)
FL 150
c)
FL 120
d)
FL 140
Given:
FL 75
Departure aerodrome elevation 1,500 ft
QNH 1023
Temperature ISA
(Assuming 1 hPa = 30 ft)
How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?
a)
7,800 ft
b)
6,300 ft
c)
6,000 ft
d)
6,600 ft
According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8,500 ft.
The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH
given by a met. station at an elevation of 4,000ft is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum
pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA?
a)
8,200 ft
do oat method
b)
8,500 ft
c)
1,800 ft
d)
8,800 ft
An aircraft climbs from an airfield elevation 1,500 ft QNH 1023 hPa to FL75. What height
does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1 hPa = 30ft.)
a)
7,800 ft
b)
6,300 ft
c)
6,600 ft
d)
6,000 ft
An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235°M, minimum safe altitude is
7,800 ft. With a QNH of 995 and temperature at ISA, the minimum flight level you must
fly is:
a)
FL100
b)
FL 80
c)
FL 90
d)
FL 85
Excluding RVSM, an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semicircular height rules on a course of 180°M is:
a)
FL 100
b)
FL 95
c)
FL 105
d)
FL 90
Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular
height rules on a course of 200°M is:
a)
FL 290
b)
FL 320
c)
FL 300
d)
FL 310
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport
(48°33'N 008°57'E). What is the magnetic course and distance?
a)
287°M
60 nm
b)
287°M
41 nm
c)
252°M
41 nm
d)
108°M
60 nm
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying from SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N
009°46'E). What is the magnetic course and distance?
a)
267°M
22 nm
b)
086°M
32 nm
c)
093°M
41 nm
d)
086°M
22 nm
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport
(47°50'N 010°53'E). What is the magnetic course and distance?
a)
282°M
56 nm
b)
078°M
82 nm
c)
102°M
56 nm
d)
102°M
82 nm
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying from PEITING (47°48.0'N 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N
010°13.0'E). What is the distance?
a)
36 nm
b)
46 nm
c)
58 nm
d)
32 nm
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N
010°13.0'E). What is the magnetic course?
a)
243°M
b)
257°M
c)
063°M
d)
077°M
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N
010°13.0'E). What is the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 nm left and 5 nm right of
the course in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles?
a)
5,500 ft
b)
5,300 ft
c)
6,900 ft
d)
6,600 ft
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N
008°24.0'E). What is the distance?
a)
46 nm
b)
24 km
c)
24 nm
d)
28 nm
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT
(48°28.0'N 008°24.0'E). What is the magnetic course?
a)
185°
b)
176°
c)
356°
d)
004°
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT
(48°28.0'N 008°24.0'E). What is the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 nm left and 5
nm right of the course in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles?
a)
3,900 ft
b)
1,500 ft
c)
4,200 ft
d)
2,900 ft
Refer to Chart ED-6
What is the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS?
a)
135.775 MHz
b)
126.125 kHz
c)
112.250 MHz
d)
126.125 MHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
What is the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET?
a)
127.20 MHz
b)
127.20 kHz
c)
118.10 MHz
d)
128.525 MHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
What is the name and frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in
position (47°59'N 010°14'E)?
a)
FRANKFURT INFORMATION 128.95 MHz
b)
MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 126.95 MHz
c)
MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 120.65 MHz
d)
MEMMINGEN INFORMATION 122.1 MHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N 008°39'E?
a)
VOR/DME
b)
NDB
c)
VORTAC
d)
VOR
Refer to Chart ED-6
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N 007°34'E?
a)
TACAN
b)
VOR/DME
c)
NDB
d)
VOR
Refer to Chart ED-6
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N 009°20'E?
a)
VOR
b)
NDB
c)
TACAN
d)
VOR/DME
Given:
Track 215°T
Mountain elevation 11,600 ft
Airfield QNH 1035
Required terrain clearance 1,500 ft
Temperature ISA -15°C
Which of the following is the minimum flight level, considering the temperature?
a)
FL 150
b)
FL 120
c)
FL 140
d)
FL 110
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are at position 47°59'N 010°15'E. Which Flight Information Service should you
contact?
a)
MEMMINGEM 135.60 MHz
b)
MEMMINGEN 117.20 MHz
c)
MÜNCHEN 131.22 MHz
d)
MÜNCHEN 126.95 MHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position TANGO (48°37'N 009°16'E) at
FL55 and on a track of 090°M. The distance from TANGO is 20 nm.
The navigation aid and frequency at TANGO is:
a)
VORTAC 112.50 MHz
b)
VORTAC 112.50 kHz
c)
VOR 112.50 MHz with no DME
d)
DME 112.50 MHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying from position ERBACH (48°21'N 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport
(48°33'N 008°57'E). What is the magnetic course and distance?
a)
287°M
41 nm
b)
287°M
60 nm
c)
252°M
41 nm
d)
108°M
60 nm
Refer to Chart ED-6
You are flying from position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport
(48°07'N 009°46'E). What is the magnetic course and distance?
a)
086°M
22 nm
b)
093°M
41 nm
c)
086°M
32 nm
d)
267°M
22 nm
Refer to Chart ED-6
What is the frequency of the GRENCHEN VOR at 47°11'N 007°25'E?
a)
120.1 MHz
b)
Channel 23
c)
108.65 MHz
d)
326 kHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
What is the frequency of ZURICH Volmet?
a)
118.1 MHz
b)
128.525 MHz
c)
127.2 MHz
d)
127.2 kHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
GRENCHEN LSZG aerodrome (47°11'N 007°25'E) has a tower frequency of 120.10
MHz. What does the "(V)" after the frequency indicate?
a)
Available for VFR flight only
b)
Only to be used during daylight
c)
Available on request
d)
VDF available
Refer to Chart ED-6
What is the frequency for Stuttgart ATIS?
a)
126.12 MHz
b)
115.45 MHz
c)
128.95 MHz
d)
118.60 MHz
Refer to Chart ED-6
What navigation or communications facilities are at 48°55'N 009°20'E?
a)
VOR/DME
b)
NDB
c)
TACAN
d)
VORTAC
Refer to Chart ED-6
What is the navaid at 48°30'N 007°34'E?
a) VOR/DME
b) TACAN
c) NDB
d) VORTAC/NDB
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aerodrome Directory Greece 7-3
What is the relationship between local time and UTC in winter and summer?
Winter
Summer
a) UTC-2 = LT
UTC-3 = LT
b) LT-3 = UTC
LT-2 = UTC
c) UTC+2 = LT
UTC+3 = LT
d) LT+3 = UTC
LT+3 = UTC
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Athinai 29-1
What is the call sign and frequency for start-up?
a) Approach 119.10 MHz
b) Tower 118.10 MHz
c) ATIS 123.40 MHz
d) Ground 121.70 MHz
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen
What is the maximum wing span of an aircraft using the eastern apron and taxiway?
a) 10 m
b) 20 ft
c) 20 m
d) 23 m
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen 10-1V
What frequency is the Aberdeen ATSU on?
a) 135.17 MHz
b) 126.25 MHz
c) 119.87 MHz
d) 114.30 MHz
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen 10-1V
What is the max ground elevation within the CTR?
a) 2,105 ft
b) 1,733 m
c) 1,245 ft
d) 1,733 ft
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen 19-1
What frequencies could you receive ATIS when on the ground?
a) 114.30 MHz only
b) 121.85 MHz only
c) 114.30 MHz or 121.85 MHz
d) 121.70 MHz
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Athinai Hellinikon 29-1
What is the variation?
a) 3°W
b) Not shown on chart
c) 6°E
d) 3°E
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, De Kooy 19-1
What is the frequency and QDM of the ILS for runway 22?
a) 109.70 MHz
216°T
b) 109.70 MHz
216°M
c) 119.10 MHz
216°T
d) 109.70 Khz
220°M
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, De Kooy 19-1
What is the minimum altitude over the quiet sector?
a) 32800 ft
b) 3,500 ft
c) 1,500 ft
d) 6,500 ft
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Esbjerg 19-2
What are the dimensions of runway 08/26?
a) 8,530 m by 45 m
b) 8,530 ft by 45 ft
c) 2,600 m by 45 m
d) 2,600 ft by 45 ft
Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Sabadell 19-1
What is the frequency of the Barcelona ATIS?
a) 120.80 MHz
b) 738 Khz
c) 119.10 MHz
d) 118.65 MHz
007-008
Fuel Planning and Monitoring
When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight one must take into account:
1 - the wind
2 - foreseeable airborne delays
3 - other weather forecasts
4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
a) 1,3
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,4
d) 1,2,3,4
The fuel burn is 200 kg/h with a SG of 0.8. If the SG is 0.75 the fuel burn will be:
a)
200 kg/hr
b)
267 kg/hr
c)
213 kg/hr
d)
188 kg/hr
The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a SG of 0.80. If the SG is 0.75
the fuel burn will be:
a)
206 l/hr
b)
220 l/hr
c)
176 l/hr
d)
235 l/hr
At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel
required is 12 USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest
consumption rate acceptable?
a)
37.9 gph
b)
21.3 gph
c)
30.3 gph
d)
33.0 gph
A turbine-engined aircraft burns fuel at 200 gals per hour (gph) with an SG of 0.8. What
is the fuel flow if the SG is 0.75?
a)
188 gph
b)
200 gph
c)
208 gph
d)
213 gph
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:
Flight time: 2h 42min; reserve fuel at any time should not be less than 30% of the
remaining trip fuel; taxy fuel: 9 kg; block fuel: 136 kg. How much fuel should remain after
2 hours flight time?
a)
23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel
b)
33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel
c)
25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel
d)
33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:
Flight time: 3h 06min; reserve fuel at any time should not be less than 30% of the
remaining trip fuel; taxy fuel: 8 kg; block fuel: 118 kg. How much fuel should remain after
2 hours flight time?
a)
39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel
b)
39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel
c)
27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel
d)
30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel
A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h and 3690 kg/h during
holding.
If the destination is an isolated airfield the aeroplane must carry in addition to
contingency reserves additional fuel of:
a) 7,380 kg
b) 8,120 kg
4060x2 =8,120
c) 1,845 kg
d) 3,500 kg
A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for:
a) 30 minutes hold at 1,500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation when no
alternate is required
b) 15 minutes hold at 1,500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation
c) 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield
d) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level
A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines the final reserve should be:
a) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed
b) fuel to fly for 2 hours
c) fuel to fly for 1 hour at holding speed
d) fuel to fly for 45 minutes
An aeroplane has the following masses:
Estimated landing weight 50,000 kg
Trip fuel 4,300 kg
Contingency fuel 215 kg
Alternate fuel (final reserve included) 2,100kg
Taxi Fuel 500 kg
Block fuel 7,115 kg
Before departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9,000 kg. The trip fuel in the
operational flight plan should read:
a) 6,185 kg
b) 4,300 kg
c) 9,000 kg
d) 6,400 kg
During a flight the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lb after
38 mins. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lb.
For the alternate fuel 30 lb is necessary.
The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lb.
Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lb.
If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with
the remaining fuel?
a) 16 mins
b) 44 mins
c) 4 mins
d) 63 mins
During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60
USG.
The reserve fuel is 12 USG.
According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h 35min.
What is the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip?
a) 33.0 USG/hour
b) 21.3 USG/hour
c) 30.3 USG/hour
d) 37.9 USG/hour
Following in-flight depressurisation a turbine powered aeroplane is forced to divert to an
en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the minimum
quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be:
a) at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the
event that weather conditions so require
b) at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying time
c) at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time
d) laid down by the operator with the quantity being specified in the operating
manual
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:
Flight time 2 hr 42 min.
The reserve fuel at any time should be not less than 30% of trip fuel remaining.
Block fuel 136 kg.
Taxi fuel 9 kg.
How many kg of fuel should remain after 2 hours flight?
a) 33 kg trip and no reserve
b) 23 kg trip and 10 kg reserve
c) 25 kg trip and 8 kg reserve
d) 33 kg trip and 10 kg reserve
Given:
Dry operating mass (DOM) 33,510 kg
Traffic Load 7,600 kg
Final reserve fuel 983 kg
Alternate fuel 1,100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be:
a) 42,312 kg
b) 42,093 kg
c) 42,210 kg
d) 42,195 kg
Given:
Dry operating mass (DOM) 33,510 kg
Traffic Load 7,600 kg
Trip fuel (TF) 2,040 kg
Final reserve fuel 983 kg
Alternate fuel 1,100 kg
Contingency fuel 5% of trip fuel
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
a) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295 kg
b) Estimated take-off mass 43,295 kg
c) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193 kg
d) Estimated take-off mass 45,233 kg
Given:
Fuel density 078 kg/l
Dry operating mass 33,500 kg
Traffic load 10,600 kg
Maximum allowable take-off mass 66,200 kg
Taxi fuel 200 kg
Tank capacity 22,500 Litres
The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
a) 17,550 kg
b) 17,350 kg
c) 21,900 kg
d) 22,100 kg
In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B the
final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:
a) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B
b) 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A
c) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome A
d) 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B
A multi-engined aircraft is on an IFR flight:
Given:
Trip fuel 65 USG
Contingency 5% trip
Alternate fuel including final reserve 17 USG
Useable fuel at departure 93 USG
At a point halfway to destination fuel consumed is 40 USG
Assuming fuel consumption is unchanged which of the following is correct?
a) Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach the destination
b) At departure Reserve Fuel was 28 USG
c) At destination required reserves remain intact
d) Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach destination with reserves intact
The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:
Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg.
Average cruise consumption: 10,000 kg/h.
Holding fuel consumption at 1,500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8,000 kg/h.
Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours
Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10,200 kg.
The minimum ramp fuel load is:
a) 74,800 kg
b) 77,200 kg
c) 77,800 kg
d) 79,800 kg
The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR
from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5,352 kg.
Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h.
Alternate fuel is 4,380 kg.
Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel.
What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
a) 13,220 kg
b) 14,500 kg
c) 13,370 kg
d) 13,000 kg
The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:
a) 60 min
b) 30 min
c) variable with wind velocity
d) 45 min
The still air distance in the climb is 189 NAM and time 30 minutes.
What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt headwind?
a) 189 nm
b) 193 nm
c) 174 nm
d) 203 nm
A sector distance is 450 nm long
TAS is 460 kts
Wind component is 50 kts tailwind
What is the still air distance?
a) 499 NAM
b) 406 NAM
c) 414 NAM
d) 511 NAM
If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning:
a) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point
b) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable
enroute alternate
c) the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to
the decision point
d) a destination alternate is not required
Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve is included).
Assume the ground speed on this trip is constant.
When half the distance has been flown, the remaining fuel is 70 kg.
Is it necessary to divert to a nearby alternate?
a) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary because it is allowed to calculate the
fuel without the reserve
b) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary because the remaining fuel is not
sufficient
c) diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary because the reserve fuel has not
been used completely
d) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary unless the captain decides to
continue on his own responsibility
The purpose of the decision point procedure is:
a) to increase the safety of the flight
b) to reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic
load
c) to increase the amount of extra fuel
d) to reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft
The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is:
a) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome
elevation in standard conditions
b) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome
elevation in standard conditions
c) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome
elevation in standard conditions
d) fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome
elevation in standard conditions
The still air distance in the climb is 189 NAM and time 30 minutes.
What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kts head wind?
a) 193 nm
b) 174 nm
c) 203 nm
d) 188 nm
Turbo-jet ac flying to an isolated airfield with no destination alternative
On top of taxy, trip, and contingency fuel, what other fuel is required?
a) Greater of 45 mins + 15% of trip or 2 hours
b) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption including Final Reserve
c) 30 mins holding at 450m AAL
d) 30 mins holding at 450m AMSL
When using decision point procedure you reduce the:
a) holding fuel by 30%
b) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burn-off between decision
point and destination
c) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burn-off between the
decision airport and destination
d) reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%
Decision Point Procedure is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight
by:
a) reducing trip distance
b) reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel
c) reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to destination
d) reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to destination
What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure?
a) Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft
b) Increase safety of the flight
c) To assist in decision making at refuelling
d) Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load
009-011
SEP
Refer to CAP697 SEP1 Fig 2.5
For a flight departing from MSL at 3,663lb cruising at FL80 at 2,300 RPM, with 20°C lean
of peak EGT, in 40 kt headwind. What is the endurance?
a) 4.75 hr
b) 6.1 hr
c) 5.3 hr
d) 6.55 hr
Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.1
Given:
FL 75
OAT: +5°C
During climb: average head wind component 20 kt
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3,650 lbs.
What is the time and fuel to climb?
a) 9 min. 3.3 USG
b) 9 min. 2.7 USG
c) 7 min. 2.6 USG
d) 10 min. 3.6 USG
Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.1
Given:
FL 75
OAT: +5°C
During climb: average head wind component 20 kts
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3,650 lbs. What is the still air distance (NAM)
and ground distance (NM)?
a) 18 NAM
15 NM
b) 16 NAM
18 NM
c) 18 NAM
13 NM
d) 14 NAM
18 NM
Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.1
Given:
Take-off mass 3500 lbs departure aerodrome pressure altitude 2500 ft
OAT +10°C
First cruising level: FL 140 OAT -5°C
What is the time fuel and still air distance to climb?
a) 22 min
6.7 USG
45 NAM
b) 23 min
7.7 USG
50 NAM
c) 24 min
7.7 USG
47 NAM
d) 16.5 min
4.9 USG
35 NAM
Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.4
Given:
Aeroplane mass at start-up 3,663 lbs
Fuel load 74 USG
Take-off from MSL
Headwind 40 kts
Cruising altitude 8,000 ft
Power setting full throttle 2,300 RPM, 20°C lean of peak EGT.
What is the range?
a) 547 NM
b) 730 NM
c) 633 NM
d) 844 NM
Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.5
Given:
FL 75
Lean mixture Full throttle
2,300 RPM
Take-off fuel: 444 lbs
Take-off from MSL
What is the endurance in hours?
a) 05:12
b) 05:20
c) 04:42
d) 05:23
Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Table 2.2.3
Given:
FL 75
OAT +10°C
Lean mixture, 2,300 RPM
What is the fuel flow and TAS?
a) 68.5 GPH
160 kts
b) 11.6 GPH
143 kts
c) 71.1 GPH
143 kts
d) 11.6 GPH
160 kts
012-014
MEP
Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.1
A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3,000 ft) to another in a multi engine
piston aeroplane (MEP1)
Cruising level will be FL 110
Temperature at FL 110 is ISA -10°C
The temperature at the departure aerodrome is -1°C
What is the fuel to climb with mixture rich?
a) 12 USG
b) 3 USG
c) 6 USG
d) 9 USG
Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.2
A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1)
Cruising level will be 11,000ft.
Outside air temperature at cruise level is -15°C
Usable fuel is 123 USG
Power is set to economic cruise
What is the range in nm with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power?
a) 610 nm
b) 852 nm
c) 752 nm
d) 602 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.3
A flight is to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1)
For the fuel calculations, take 5 USG for the taxy and an additional 13 minutes at cruise
condition to account for climb and descent
Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min
Power setting is 45% 2,600 RPM
Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel
FL 100
Temperature -5°C
What is the minimum block fuel?
a) 60 USG
b) 42 USG
c) 47 USG
d) 37 USG
for this kind of questions, refer to goodnotes bgs questions section
Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.3
A flight is to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1).
For the fuel calculations take 5 USG for the taxi and an additional 13 minutes at cruise
condition to account for climb and descent
Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min
Power setting is 65% 2,500 RPM
Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel
FL 120.
Temperature 1°C.
What is the minimum block fuel?
a) 118 USG
b) 86 USG
c) 76 USG
d) 91 USG
Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.6
A flight is to be made to an airport pressure altitude 3,000 ft in a multi engine piston
aeroplane (MEP1)
Forecast OAT for the airport is -1°C
Cruising level will be FL 110 where OAT is -10°C
What is the still air descent distance for: 145 KIAS, Rate of descent 1,000 ft/min, Gear
and flaps up?
a) 25 nm
b) 36 nm
c) 20 nm
d) 29 nm
018-020
MRJT Simplified Planning
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1 PT2
Find the optimum altitude, given:
Cruise mass 50,000 kg
M0.78
a) maximum operating altitude
b) 36,200 ft
c) 36,700 ft
d) 35,500 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1
Find the optimum altitude, given:
Cruise mass 54,000 kg
Long range cruise or M0.74
a) 35,300 ft
b) maximum operating altitude
c) 34,500 ft
d) 33,800 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2
Find the short distance cruise altitude, given:
Brake release mass 40,000 kg;
Temperature ISA +20°C;
Trip distance 150 NAM
a) 30,000 ft
b) 25,000 ft
c) 27,500 ft
d) 21,000 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2
Find the short distance cruise altitude, given:
Brake release mass 45,000 kg ;
Temperature ISA +20°C;
Trip distance 50 NAM
a) 12,500 ft
b) 7,500 ft
c) 11,000 ft
d) 10,000 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1b
Given:
Estimated ZFM 50 tonnes;
Estimated landing mass at alternate 52 tonnes;
Final reserve fuel 2 tonnes;
Alternate fuel 1 tonnes;
Flight to destination distance 720 nm;
Course 030°T;
W/V 340/30;
Long range cruise at FL 330;
Outside air temperature -30°C
What is the trip fuel and time?
a) 4,750 kg
02:00
b) 4,400 kg
02:05
c) 4,800 kg
01:45
d) 4,600 kg
02:05
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c PT2
For a flight of 2,800 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Head wind component 15 kts
Temperature ISA +15°C
Cruise altitude 35,000 ft
Landing mass 50,000 kg
What is the trip fuel and time?
a) 16,200 kg
06:20
b) 20,000 kg
07:00
c) 17,000 kg
06:10
d) 17,600 kg
06:50
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c
For a flight of 1,900 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Head wind component 10 kts
Temperature ISA -5°C
Trip fuel available 15,000 kg
Landing mass 50,000 kg
What is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude) which may be planned ?
a) 22,000 ft
b) 14,000 ft
c) 17,000 ft
d) 10,000 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c
For a flight of 2,000 ground nautical miles cruising at 30,000 ft within the limits of the
data given, a headwind component of 25 kts will affect the trip time by approximately:
a) +2.3%
b) +5.3%
c) -3.6%
found in notes
d) +7.6%
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c
For a flight of 2,400 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Temperature ISA -10°C
Cruise altitude 29,000 ft
Landing mass 45,000 kg
Trip fuel available 16,000 kg
What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted?
a) 70 kts
b) 15 kts
c) 35 kts
d) 0 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c
For a flight of 2,800 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Tail wind component 45 kts
Temperature ISA -10°C
Cruise altitude 29,000 ft
Landing mass 55,000 kg
What is the trip fuel and time?
a) 16,000 kg
06:25
b) 18,000 kg
05:50
c) 17,100 kg
06:07
d) 20,000 kg
06:40
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c
Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30°C will affect the
trip time by approximately:
a) +5%
b) +8%
c) -5%
d) -7%
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.3c
Given:
Ground distance to destination aerodrome 1,600 nm
Head wind component 50 kts
Cruise FL 330 at 0.78 Mach
ISA Deviation +20°C
Landing mass 55,000 kg
What is the trip fuel and time?
a) 12,000 kg
03:51
b) 11,400 kg
04:12
c) 11,600 kg
04:15
d) 12,400 kg
04:00
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
For a flight of 2,400 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Tail wind component 25 kts
Temperature ISA -10°C
Brake release mass 66,000 kg
What is the trip fuel and time?
a) 14,600kg
05:45
b) 14,000kg
05:35
c) 15,000kg
06:00
d) 15,800kg
06:20
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 PT2
For a flight of 2,800 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Head wind component 20 kts
Temperature ISA +15°C
Brake release mass 64,700 kg
What is the trip fuel and time?
a) 17,000 kg
06:45
b) 15,800 kg
06:15
c) 18,400 kg
07:00
d) 16,200 kg
06:20
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
For a flight of 3,500 ground nautical miles the following apply:
Tail wind component 50 kts
Temperature ISA +10°C
Brake release mass 65,000 kg
What is the trip fuel and time?
a) 18,100 kg
07:20
b) 19,000 kg
07:45
c) 21,800 kg
09:25
d) 15,800 kg
06:00
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
Given a trip time of about 9 hours within the limits of the data given, a temperature
decrease of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately:
a) +3%
b) -4%
c) -10%
d) + 7%
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
Given:
Head wind component 50 kts
Temperature ISA +10°C
Brake release mass 65,000 kg
Trip fuel available 18,000 kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance?
a) 3,480 nm
b) 3,100 nm
c) 2,740 nm
d) 2,540 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
Given:
Tail wind component 10 kts
Temperature ISA +10°C
Brake release mass 63,000 kg
Trip fuel available 20,000 kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance?
a) 3,250 nm
b) 3,740 nm
c) 3,500 nm
d) 3,640 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
Given:
Temperature ISA +15°C
Brake release mass 62,000 kg
Trip time 05:20
What is the trip fuel?
a) 13,500 kg
b) 13,000 kg
c) 13,800 kg
d) 13,200 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 PT2
Given:
Distance to alternate 450 nm
Landing mass at alternate 45,000 kg
Tail wind component: 50 kts
What is the alternate fuel required?
a) 3,050 kg
b) 2,750 kg
c) 2,900 kg
d) 2,500 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6
Given:
Dry operating mass 35,500 kg
Traffic load 14,500 kg
Final reserve fuel 1,200 kg
Distance to alternate 95 nm
Tail wind component 10 kts
What is the fuel and time to the alternate?
a) 1,000 kg
40 min
b) 800 kg
24 min
c) 800 kg
0.4 hr
d) 1,000 kg
24 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6
Given:
Dry operating mass 35 500 kg
Estimated load 14 500 kg
Final reserve fuel 1200 kg
Distance to alternate 95 nm
Track 219°T
Head wind component 10 kts
What is the fuel and time to the alternate?
a) 800 kg
24 min
b) 1,100 kg
44 min
c) 1,100 kg
25 min
d) 800 kg
40 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6
In order to find alternate fuel and time to alternate the Aeroplane Operating Manual shall
be entered with:
a) distance in nautical miles (nm); wind component; zero fuel mass
b) distance in nautical air miles (NAM); wind component; landing mass at alternate
c) distance in nautical miles (nm); wind component; landing mass at alternate
d) distance in nautical miles (nm) wind; component; dry operating mass plus holding
fuel
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6
Given:
Distance to alternate: 400 nm
Landing mass at alternate: 50,000 kg
Head wind component: 25 kts
What is the alternate fuel require?
a) 2,650 kg
b) 2,900 kg
c) 2,550 kg
d) 2,800 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4
The fuel required for 30 minutes holding in a racetrack pattern at 1,500 ft pressure
altitude and mean gross mass 45,000 kg is:
a) 1,310 kg
b) 1,090 kg
c) 2,180 kg
d) 1,010 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 PT2
The fuel required for 45 minutes holding in a racetrack pattern at 5,000 ft pressure
altitude and mean gross mass 47,000 kg is:
a) 1,635 kg
b) 1,090 kg
c) 1,125 kg
d) 1,690 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4
Given:
Twin jet aeroplane
Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50,000 kg
Elevation at destination aerodrome 3,500 ft
Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft
What is the final reserve fuel?
a) 1,150 kg
b) 2,300 kg
c) 1,180 kg
d) 2,360 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4
Given:
Twin jet aeroplane
Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50,000 kg
Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52,525 kg
Alternate elevation MSL
Destination elevation 1,500 ft
What is the final reserve fuel and corresponding time?
a) 1,180 kg
30 min
b) 2,360 kg
30 min
c) 1,180 kg
45 min
d) 2,360 kg
01 h 00 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4
Given:
Dry operating mass 35,500 kg
Estimated load 12,000 kg
Contingency approach and landing fuel 2,500 kg
Elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft
Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft
What is the final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and the elevation which is
relevant?
a) 2,360 kg
destination elevation
b) 1,180 kg
alternate elevation
c) 1,180 kg
destination elevation
d) 2,360 kg
alternate elevation
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4
The final reserve fuel taken from the holding fuel planning table for the twin jet aeroplane
is based on the following parameters:
a) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps up, maximum range speed
b) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps down, maximum range speed
c) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps up, minimum drag airspeed
d) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps down, minimum drag airspeed
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Paragraph 2.1, Fig 4.2 and Table 4.1 PT2
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL 310
Cruise mass 53,000 kg
What is the fuel mileage penalty for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given FL?
a) 0%
b) 10%
c) 1%
d) 4%
Refer to Jeppesen Chart E(HI)4 and CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig4.3.2a
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London
Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin jet aeroplane
Preplanning:
Power setting M0.74
Planned flight level FL 280
The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50,000 kg
The trip distance used for calculation is 200 nm
The wind from Paris to London is 280/40
What is the estimated trip fuel?
a) 1,740 kg
b) 1,900 kg
c) 1,450 kg
d) 1,550 kg
to figure out whether its a head or tail wind, just imagine it visually a flight from paris to london. then conclude!
Refer to Jeppesen Chart E(HI)4 and CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig4.3.6
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 W002 36.9) to London
Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin jet aeroplane
The alternate airport is Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7)
Preplanning:
W/V from London to Manchester 250/30
Distance from London to Manchester 160 nm
Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is about 50,000 kg
What is the alternate fuel and the time?
a) 1,300 kg
28 min
b) 1,600 kg
36 min
c) 1,450 kg
32 min
d) 1,200 kg
26 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig4.3.6
In order to find alternate fuel and time to alternate the Aeroplane Operating Manual shall
be entered with:
a) distance in nm, wind component, zero fuel mass
b) distance in nm, wind component, dry operating mass plus holding fuel
c) distance in nm (NAM), wind component, landing mass at alternate
d) distance in nm, wind component, landing mass at alternate
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
Tail wind component 10 kts
ISA deviation -10°C
Break release mass 63,000 kg
Trip fuel overall 20,000 kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance?
a) 3,640 nm
b) 3,250 nm
c) 3,500 nm
d) 3,740 nm
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4
Given:
Mean gross mass 47,000kg
The fuel required for a 45 min holding at race track pattern at 5000ft is:
a) 1,635 kg
b) 1,125 kg
c) 1,690 kg
d) 1,090 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1
Trip distance 1,900 nm
Fuel on board 15,000kg
Landing weight 50,000kg
What is the minimum pressure altitude for this flight?
a) FL 250
b) FL 370
c) 10,000 ft
d) 17,000 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1 and Table 4.1
Given:
Cruise weight 53,000 kg
LRC/ M0.74 at FL 310
What is the fuel penalty?
a) 0%
b) 4%
c) 10%
d) 1%
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1
Given:
Cruise mass 54,000 kg
Long Range Cruise or 0.74 Mach
What is the optimum altitude?
a) 34,600 ft
b) maximum operating altitude
c) 35,300 ft
d) 33,800 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 PT2
Given:
Brake release mass 45,000 kg
ISA deviation +20°C
Trip distance 50 nm
What is the short distance cruise altitude?
a) 7,500 ft
b) 10,000 ft
c) 11,000 ft
d) 12,500 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1
Given:
Trip distance 2,800 nm
Tail wind component 45 kts
ISA deviation -10°C
Cruise altitude 29,000 ft
Landing mass 55,000 kg
What is the trip fuel required and time?
a) 18,000 kg
05:50
b) 16,000 kg
06:25
c) 17,100 kg
06:07
d) 20,000 kg
06:40
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c
Given:
Trip distance 2,400 nm
ISA deviation -10°C
Cruise altitude 29,000 ft
Landing mass 45,000 kg
Trip fuel available 16,000 kg
What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted?
a) 0
b) 35 kts
c) 70 kts
d) 15 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.3a
Given:
Cruise M0.78
FL 280
Landing mass 50,000 kg
Trip distance 200 nm
Head wind component 30 kts
What is the fuel required?
a) 1,620 kg
b) 1,740 kg
c) 1,700 kg
d) 1,970 kg
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.2a
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin jet
aeroplane.
M0.74 at FL 280
Landing mass 50,000 kg
Trip distance 200 nm
W/V from Paris to London 280/40
Mean track 340°T.
What is the estimated trip fuel?
a) 1,550 kg
b) 1,900 kg
c) 1,740 kg
d) 1,450 kg
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.3c
Given:
Ground distance to destination 1600 nm
Head wind component 50 kts
Cruise M0.78 at FL 330
ISA deviation +20°C
Landing mass 55,000 kg
What is the fuel required and trip time?
a) 11,400 kg
04:12
b) 12,250 kg
04:00
c) 11,600 kg
04:15
d) 12,000 kg
03:51
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5
Given:
Head wind component 50 kts
ISA deviation +10C
Brake release mass 65,000 kg
Trip fuel 18,000 kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance?
a) 3,480 nm
b) 3,100 nm
c) 2,540 nm
d) 2,740 nm
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6
Given:
Distance to alternate 400 nm
Landing mass at alternate 50,000 kg
Head wind component 25 kts
What is the alternate fuel required?
a) 2,550 kg
b) 2,900 kg
c) 2,800 kg
d) 2,650 kg
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6
Given:
DOM 35,500 kg
Estimated load 14,500 kg
Final reserve fuel 1,200 kg
Distance to alternate 95 nm
Average track 219°T
Head wind component 10 kts
What is the fuel and time to the alternate?
a) 1,100 kg
44 min
b) 1,100 kg
25 min
c) 800 kg
24 min
d) 800 kg
40 min
022-023
MRJT Detailed Planning
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2 PT2
Given:
Brake release weight 45000 kg
Trip distance 120 nm
OAT = -45
ISA deviation -10°C
Cruise at M0.74
What is the short distance cruise altitude and TAS?
a) FL 370
424 kts
b) FL 250
445 kts
c) FL 250
435 kts
d) FL 370
414 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Brake release mass: 58,000 kg
Temperature: ISA +15
What is the fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4,000 ft to FL300?
a) 1,400 kg
b) 1,250 kg
1350kg - 100(from fuel adjustment table)
c) 1,350 kg
d) 1,450 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT Fig 4.5.1 PT2
Given:
Aerodrome at MSL
Cruise at FL280
ISA deviation -10C
Brake release mass 57,500 kg
What is the climb fuel required?
a) 1,150 kg
b) 1,100 kg
c) 2,200 kg
d) 1,138 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Track 340T;
W/V 280/40kt;
aerodrome elevation 387 ft;
ISA -10°C;
Brake release mass 52 000 kg;
cruise at FL280.
What are the climb fuel and time?
Choose one answer.
a) 1,100 kg
12 min
b) 1,100 kg
15 min
c) 1,000 kg
11 min
d) 1,000 kg
10 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT 1 Fig 4.5.3.2
Find the specific range for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the optimum altitude (range
loss = 6%) and using the following data:
Mach 0.74 Cruise at FL 310
Gross mass 50,000 kg
ISA conditions
a) 176 NAM per 1,000 kg
refer to notes
b) 187 NAM per 1,000 kg
c) 2,807 NAM per 1,000 kg
d) 2,994 NAM per 1,000 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2 PT2
Given:
Estimated take-off mass 57,000 kg;
Ground distance 150 nm;
Temperature ISA -10°C;
Cruise at 0.74 Mach
What is the cruise altitude and expected true air speed?
a) 33,900 ft
420 kts
b) 25,000 ft
435 kts
c) 24,000 ft
445 kts
d) 33,500 ft
430 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Estimated take-off mass 57,500 kg
Initial cruise FL 280
Average temperature during climb ISA -10°C
Average head wind component 18 kts
What is the climb time?
a) 14 min
b) 13 min
c) 11 min
d) 15 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Mass at brake release 57,500 kg;
Temperature ISA -10°C
Average head wind component 16 kts
Initial cruise FL 280
What is the climb fuel?
a) 1,138 kg
b) 1,238 kg
c) 1,040 kg
d) 1,387 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Brake release mass 62,000 kg
Temperature ISA +15°C
The fuel required for a climb from sea level to FL330 is:
a) 1,650 kg
b) 1,750 kg
c) 1,800 kg
d) 1,700 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Brake release mass 57,500 kg
Initial level FL 280
Average temperature during climb ISA -10°C
Average head wind component 18 kts
What is the climb time for an en-route climb at 280/.74?
a) 14 min
b) 13 min
c) 15 min
d) 11 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Brake release mass 57,500 kg
Temperature ISA -10°C
Head wind component 16 kts
Initial FL 280
What is the still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (nm) for the climb?
a) 67 NAM
71 nm
b) 62 NAM
59 nm
c) 71 NAM
67 nm
d) 59 NAM
62 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 PT2
Given:
Brake release mass 64,000 kg
Temperature ISA +10°C
Airport elevation 3,000 ft
What is the time, fuel, still air distance and TAS for an en-route climb 280/.74 to FL 350?
a) 26 min
1,975 kg
157 NAM
399 kts
b) 25 min
1,875 kg
148 NAM
391 kts
c) 20 min
1,750 kg
117 NAM
288 kts
d) 26 min
2,050 kg
157 NAM
399 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin
jet aeroplane.
Given:
Estimated Take-Off Mass 52,000 kg
Airport elevation 387 ft
FL 280
use
W/V 280/40
CRP
ISA deviation -10°C
Average course 340°T
What is the time to TOC?
a) 12 min
b) 3 min
c) 11 min
d) 15 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given:
Estimated Take-Off Mass (TOM) 52,000 kg
Airport elevation 387 ft
FL 280
W/V 280/40
ISA deviation -10°C
Average course 340°T
What is the fuel to TOC?
a) 1,100 kg
b) 1,500 lbs
c) 1,000 lbs
d) 1,000 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Distance A-B is 3,200 nm
Long Range Cruise at FL 340
Look at the notes if
ISA deviation +12°C
dont know!
Tail wind component 50 kts
Gross mass at B: 55,000 kg
What is the fuel required from A to B?
a) 14,200 kg
b) 17 500 kg
c) 14,500 kg
d) 17,800 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Distance C-D is 680nm
Long Range Cruise at FL340
ISA deviation 0°C
Head wind component 60 kts
Gross mass at C: 44,700 kg
What is the fuel required from C to D?
a) 3,100 kg
b) 3,700 kg
c) 4,000 kg
d) 3,400 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.3
Given:
Distance B-C: 1,200 nm
Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300
ISA deviation -14°C
Tail wind component 40 kts
Gross mass at B: 50,200 kg
What is the fuel required from B to C?
a) 7,300 kg
b) 6,150 kg
c) 5,850 kg
d) 7,050 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL 330
OAT -63°C
Gross mass 50,500 kg
What is the TAS?
a) 431 kts
b) 418 kts
c) 420 kts
d) 433 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Flight time from top of climb at FL280 is 48 min
Cruise procedure is long range cruise (LRC)
ISA deviation -5°C
Take-off mass 56,000 kg
Climb fuel 1,100 kg
What is the distance in nautical air miles for this leg and fuel consumption?
a) 345 NAM
2,100 kg
b) 345 NAM
2,000 kg
c) 437 NAM
2,100 kg
d) 350 NAM
2,000 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 PT2
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL350
refer to
OAT -45°C
notes
Mass at the beginning of the leg 40,000 kg
Mass at the end of the leg 39,000 kg
What is the TAS at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM)?
a) 423 kts
936 NAM
b) 433 kts
227 NAM
c) 423 kts
227 NAM
d) 433 kts
1163 NAM
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL 330
OAT -63°C
Initial gross mass en-route 54,100 kg
Leg time 29 min
What is the fuel consumption for this leg?
a) 1,000 kg
b) 1,200 kg
c) 1,100 kg
d) 1,680 kg
look at notes
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the en-route level is 48 minutes
Long Range Cruise
ISA deviation -5°C.
go with the lowest mass given
Take-Off Mass 56,000 kg
Climb fuel 1100 kg
What is the distance in NAM for this leg and the fuel consumption?
a) 345 NAM
2,006 kg
b) 349 NAM
2,000 kg
c) 345 NAM
2,000 kg
d) 345 NAM
1,994 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL 330
OAT -63°C
Initial gross mass en-route 54,100 kg
Leg flight time 29 min
What is the final fuel consumption for this leg?
a) 1100 kg
b) 1107 kg
c) 1000 kg
d) 1093 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL 330
OAT -63°C
Gross mass 50,500 kg
What is the TAS?
a) 431 kts
b) 433 kts
c) 420 kts
d) 418 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61,500 kg
The distance to be flown is 385 nm at FL 350 and OAT -54.3°C
The wind component is 40 kts tailwind
Using long range cruise procedure, what fuel is required?
a) 2,350 kg
b) 2,250 kg
c) 2,150 kg
d) 2,050 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 and Fig 4.3.1b
Given:
Zero Fuel Mass 50,000 kg
Landing mass at alternate 52,000 kg
Final reserve fuel 2,000 kg
Alternate fuel 1,000 kg
Flight to destination: Distance 720 nm
Course 030°T
W/V 340/30
Long Range Cruise
FL 330
OAT -30°C
What is the estimated trip fuel and time?
a) 4,600 kg
02:05
b) 4,750 kg
02:00
c) 4,800 kg
01:51
d) 4,400 kg
02:05
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.2 PT2
Given:
MACH .74 cruise at Flight level 310
Gross mass 50,000 kg
ISA conditions
What is the fuel flow?
a) 2,994 kg/hr
b) 2,300 kg/hr
c) 1,497 kg/hr
d) 1,150 kg/hr
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.2
Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane
Given:
Gross mass 50,000 kg
FL 280
ISA deviation -10°C
Cruise procedure M0.74
What is the TAS?
a) 427 kts
b) 417 kts
c) 440 kts
d) 430 kts
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4
A descent is planned at .74/250 KIAS from 35,000 ft to 5,000 ft.
How much fuel will be consumed during this descent?
a) 278 kg
b) 290 kg
c) 140 kg
d) 150 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given:
Estimated Landing Mass 49,700 kg
FL 280
W/V 280/40
Average course 320°T
Procedure for descent M0.74 / 250 KIAS
What is the distance from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft)?
a) 87 nm
b) 65 nm
c) 97 nm
d) 76 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given:
Estimated Landing Mass 49,700 kg
FL 280
W/V 280/40
Average course 320°T
Procedure for descent M0.74 / 250 KIAS
What is the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft)?
a) 19 min
b) 10 min
c) 8 min
d) 17 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given:
Estimated landing mass 49,700 kg
FL 280
W/V 280/40
Average course 320°T
Procedure for descent M0.74 / 250 KIAS
What is the fuel consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft)?
a) 273 kg
b) 210 kg
c) 320 kg
d) 263 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet aeroplane
Given:
Estimated Take-Off Mass 52,000 kg
Airport elevation 387 ft
FL 280
W/V 280/40
ISA deviation -10°C
Average course 340°T
What is the ground distance to TOC?
a) 50 nm
b) 56 nm
c) 47 nm
d) 53 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Brake release mass 58,000 kg
ISA deviation +15°C
What is the fuel required to climb from an airfield at elevation 4,000 ft to FL300?
a) 1,450 kg
b) 1,350 kg
c) 1,400 kg
d) 1,250 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given :
Flight time from TOC to the en route point in FL280 is 48 min
Long Range Cruise
ISA deviation -5°C
Take-off mass 56,000 kg
Climb fuel 1,100 kg
What is the distance in NAM for this leg, and the fuel consumption?
a) 345 NAM
2,000 kg
b) 350 NAM
2,000 kg
c) 345 NAM
2,100 kg
d) 437 NAM
2,100 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL340
Distance C-D 3,200 nm
ISA deviation +12°C
Tail wind component 50 kts
Gross mass at C 55,000 kg
The fuel required from C to D is:
a) 17,800 kg
b) 14,400 kg
c) 17,500 kg
d) 14,200 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.4 PT2
Given:
Distance C - D 540 nm
Cruise 300 KIAS at FL210
ISA deviation +20°C
Head wind component 50 kts
Gross mass at C 60,000 kg
The fuel required from C to D is:
a) 3,350 kg
b) 3,680 kg
c) 4,620 kg
d) 4,200 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Given:
Brake release mass 57,500 kg
Temperature ISA -10°C
Head wind component 16 kts
TOC FL 280
What is the still air distance (NAM) and ground distance for the climb?
a) 59 NAM
62 nm
b) 71 NAM
67 nm
c) 62 NAM
59 nm
d) 67 NAM
71 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1
Planning an IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twinjet aeroplane
Given:
Estimated take-off mass 52,000 kg
Airport elevation 387 ft
FL280
W/V 280 / 40
ISA deviation -10°C
Average course 340°T
What is the time to TOC?
a) 15 min
b) 12 min
c) 03 min
d) 11 min
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2
For a flight from B to C at FL310, M0.74 and ISA -12°C
Trip distance 957 ngm with a 40 kts tail wind
Weight 50,100 kg.
How much fuel is required to fly to C?
a) 5,000 kg
b) 4,100 kg
c) 4,600 kg
d) 4,500 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 PT2
Aircraft mass at top of climb 61,500 kg
Distance 385 nm
Long Range Cruise at FL 350
OAT - 54.3°C
Tail wind component 40kts
How much fuel is required?
a) 2,350 kg
b) 2,250 kg
c) 2,150 kg
d) 2,050 kg
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL350
OAT -45°C
Gross mass at the beginning of the leg 40,000 kg
Gross mass at the end of the leg 39,000 kg
What is the TAS and cruise distance (NAM)?
a) 423 kts
936 NAM
b) 433 kts
227 NAM
c) 433 kts
1,163 NAM
d) 423 kts
227 NAM
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1
Given:
Long Range Cruise at FL 330
COAT -63°C
Weight 50,500 kg
What is the TAS?
a) 433 kts
b) 411 kts
c) 423 kts
d) 421 kts
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4
Aircraft mass 49,700 kg
Descent from FL 280
What is the descent time?
a) 19 mins
b) 08 mins
c) 10 mins
d) 17 mins
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4
A descent is planned at 0.74M / 250 KIAS from 35,000 ft to 5,000 ft.
How much fuel will be consumed during this descent?
a) 150 kg
b) 140 kg
c) 278 kg
d) 290 kg
Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2
Estimated take-off mass 57,000 kg
Ground distance 150 nm
ISA deviation -10°C
Cruise at M0.74
What is the ideal cruise altitude and TAS?
a) 33,000 ft
420 kts
b) 33,000 ft
430 kts
c) 25,000ft
445 kts
d) 25,000 ft
435 kts
026
Point of Equal Time
Distance between airports 340 nm PT2
Track 320°T
W/V 160/40
TAS 110
What is the distance to PET?
a) 121 nm
b) 112 nm
c) 228 nm
d) 219 nm
Distance between airports is 750 nm
TAS out 430 kts
TAS home 425 kts
Tail wind component out 30 kts
Head wind component return 40 kts
What is the distance to PET?
a) 342 nm
b) 408 nm
c) 403 nm
d) 375 nm
Distance between airports 270 nm
Track 030°T
W/V 120/35
TAS 125 kts
What are the distance and time to PET?
a) 141 nm
68 min
b) 150 nm
65 min
c) 135 nm
68 min
d) 141 nm
65 min
Given:
Course A to B 088°T
Distance 1,250 nm
Mean TAS 330 kts
Mean W/V A to B 340/60
The time from A to the PET between A and B is:
a) 02:02
b) 01:39
c) 01:44
d) 01:54
Given:
Distance A to B 2,050 nm
Mean groundspeed out 440 kts
Mean groundspeed home 540 kts
What is the distance to PET?
a) 1,130 nm
b) 920 nm
c) 1,153 nm
d) 1,025 nm:
Given: PT2
Distance from departure to destination 220 nm
Track 175°T
W/V 220/10
TAS 135 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 110 nm
b) 136 nm
c) 103 nm
d) 116 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 250 nm
Groundspeed out 130 kts
Groundspeed home 100 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 192 nm
b) 141 nm
c) 109 nm
d) 125 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 256 nm
Groundspeed out 160 kts
Groundspeed home 110 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 104 nm
b) 152 nm
c) 128 nm
d) 176 nm
Given: PT2
Distance from departure to destination 338 nm
Track 045°T
W/V 225/35
TAS 120 kts
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 218 nm
85 min
b) 169 nm
85 min
c) 185 nm
72 min
d) 120 nm
46 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 340 nm
Groundspeed out 150 kts
Groundspeed home 120 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 189 nm
b) 151 nm
c) 272 nm
d) 170 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 435 nm
Groundspeed out 110 kts
Groundspeed home 130 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 236 nm
b) 218 nm
c) 199 nm
d) 368 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 500 nm
Groundspeed out 95 kts
Groundspeed home 125 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 380 nm
b) 284 nm
c) 250 nm
d) 216 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 500 nm
Track 090°T
W/V 090/20
TAS 150 kts
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 382 nm
176 min
b) 250 nm
88 min
c) 283 nm
131 min
d) 217 nm
100 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 875 nm
Track 240°T
W/V 060/50
TAS 500 kts
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 394 nm
43 min
b) 716 nm
78 nm
c) 438 nm
53 min
d) 481 nm
64 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 95 nm
Track 105°T
W/V 060/15
TAS 140 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 44 nm
b) 82 nm
c) 51 nm
d) 475 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 1,100 nm
Track 280°T
W/V 100/80
TAS 440 kts
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 550 nm
75 min
b) 450 nm
52 min
c) 650 nm
108 min
d) 650 nm
75 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 2,200 nm
Track 150°T
W/V 330/50
TAS 460 kts
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 1,100 nm
179 min
b) 980 nm
115 min
c) 980 nm
144 min
d) 1,120 nm
179 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 2,800 nm
Track 140°T
W/V 140/100
TAS 500 kts
What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point?
a) 1,400 nm
168 min
b) 1,680 nm
252 min
c) 1,120 nm
134 min
d) 1,120 nm
112 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 180 nm
Track 310°T
W/V 010/20
TAS 115 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 90 nm
b) 98 nm
c) 82 nm
d) 92 nm
Given: PT2
Distance from departure to destination 950 nm
Groundspeed out 275 kts
Groundspeed home 225 kts
What is the time to the PET from the departure point?
a) 93 min
b) 39 min
c) 139 min
d) 114 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 140 nm
Groundspeed out 90 kts
Groundspeed home 80 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 70 nm
b) 74 nm
c) 66 nm
d) 124 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 150 nm
Track 020°T
W/V 180/30
TAS 130 kts
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 91 nm
b) 75 nm
c) 59 nm
d) 65 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 2,700 nm
Mach Number 0.75
Temperature -45°C
Mean wind component out 10 kts tail wind
Mean wind component home 35 kts tail wind
What is the distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 1,313 nm
b) 1,350 nm
c) 1,386 nm
d) 1,425 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 350 nm
Track 355°T
W/V 340/30
TAS 140kts
What is the time and distance of the PET from the departure point?
a) 75 min
211 nm
b) 75 min
140 nm
c) 114 min
211 nm
d) 50 min
140 nm
Given:
X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and B
E = Endurance
D = Distance A to B
O = Groundspeed out
H = Groundspeed home
The formula for calculating the distance (X) to point of equal time (PET) is:
a) (D x O x H x X) / (O + H)
b) (E x O x H x X) / (O + H)
c) (D x H) / (O + H)
d) (D x O x X) / (O + H)
Given:
CAS 190 kts
Altitude 9,000 ft
Temperature ISA -10°C
Track 350°T
W/V 320/40
Distance from departure to destination 350 nm
Endurance 3 hours.
What is the distance to PET?
a) 211 nm
b) 170 nm
c) 203 nm
d) 330 nm
Given:
CAS 190 kts
Altitude 9,000 ft
Temperature ISA -10°C
Track 350°T
W/V 320/40
Distance from departure to destination 350 nm
Endurance 3 hrs
Actual time of departure 1105 UTC
The PET is reached at:
a) 1221 UTC
b) 1233 UTC
c) 1203 UTC
d) 1214 UTC
027-028
MRJT Additional Procedures
Refer to the computer fuel plan extract below:
Waypoint
ETA (H:M)
ATA (H:M) Planned Fuel Remaining Actual Fuel Remaining
ALPHA
1:18
1:18
5,690 kg
5,690 kg
BETA
1:58
1:58
5,210 kg
5,290 kg
GAMMA
2:23
2:23
4,910 kg
5,040 kg
DELTA
3:08
4,370 kg
What would you expect the actual fuel remaining to be on arrival at DELTA assuming a
constant fuel flow?
a) 4,460 kg
b) 3,920 kg
c) 4,370 kg
d) 4,590 kg
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin jet
aeroplane
Preplanning:
Maximum Take-Off Mass 62,800 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 51,250 kg
Maximum Landing Mass 54,900 kg
Maximum Taxi Mass 63,050 kg
Assume the following preplanning results:
Trip fuel 1,800 kg
Alternate fuel 1,400 kg
Holding fuel (final reserve) 1,225 kg
Dry Operating Mass 34,000 kg
Traffic Load 13,000 kg
Catering 750 kg
Baggage 3,500 kg
What is the Take-off Mass (TOM)?
a) 51,515 kg
b) 52,265 kg
c) 51,425 kg
d) 55,765 kg
For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as: PT2
a) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel
b) Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel
c) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel
d) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2
An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120
minutes from an alternate based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA.
Using the above table and a given mass of 40,000 kg at the most critical point the
maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is:
a) 810 nm
b) 875 nm
c) 735 nm
d) 794 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2 PT2
For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with a start of
diversion mass of 55,000 kg a diversion of 600 nm should be achieved in 90 min.
Using the above table, the only listed cruise technique to meet that requirement is:
a) M/KIAS .70 /280
b) LRC
c) M/KIAS .74 / 290
d) M/KIAS .74 / 330
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2
Using the above table in ISA conditions and at a speed of M0.70 / 280 KIAS in an
elapsed time of 90 minutes, an aircraft with mass at point of diversion of 48,000 kg could
divert a distance of:
a) 584 nm
b) 563 nm
c) 603 nm
d) 608 nm
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.3
Given:
Distance to alternate 950 nm
Head wind component 20 kts
Mass at point of diversion 50,000 kg
Diversion fuel available 5,800 kg
The minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met is:
a) 26,000 ft
b) 18,000 ft
c) 22,000 ft
d) 20,000 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.3
Given:
Diversion distance 720 nm
Tail wind component 25 kts
Mass at point of diversion 50,000 kg
ISA deviation 0
Diversion fuel available 4,250 kg
What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met?
a) 16,000 ft
b) 2,000 ft
c) 20,000 ft
d) 14,500 ft
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.3 PT1
Given:
Diversion distance 650 nm
Diversion pressure altitude 16,000 ft
Mass at point of diversion 57,000 kg
Head wind component 20 kts
ISA deviation +15°C
The diversion fuel required and time are approximately:
a) 3,900 kg
01:45
b) 6,200 kg
02:10
c) 4,800 kg
02:03
d) 4,400 kg
01:35
Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2
ETOPS - aircraft can not travel more than 120 minutes from a suitable airfield. Assuming
LRC and diversion weight of 40,000 kg, what is the still air diversion distance?
a) 794
b) 810
c) 875
d) 735
Given: PT2
DOM 2,800 kg
Trip Fuel 300 kg
Payload 400 kg
MTOM 4,200 kg
MLM 3,700 kg
What is maximum fuel load?
a) 800 kg
b) 500 kg
c) 700 kg
d) 1,000 kg
Given:
DOM 33,510 kg
Traffic load 7,600 kg
add all including contingency; select estimated.
Trip fuel 2,040 kg
Final reserve 983 kg
Alternative fuel 1,100 kg
Contingency 5% of trip fuel
Which of the following is correct?
a) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295 kg
b) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193 kg
c) Estimated take-off mass 45,233 kg
d) Estimated take-off mass 43,295 kg
Given:
Dry operating mass 33,510 kg
Load 7,600 kg
Final reserve fuel 983 kg
Alternate fuel 1,100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at the alternate should be:
a) 42,093 kg
b) 42,210 kg
c) 42,312 kg
d) 42,195 kg
Given: PT2
Dry operating mass 33,500 kg
Load 7,600 kg
Maximum allowable take-off mass 66,200 kg
Standard taxi fuel 200 kg
Tank capacity 16,100 kg
The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
a) 17,100 kg
b) 15,900 kg
c) 17,300 kg
d) 16,300 kg
Given:
Maximum take-off mass 64,400 kg
Maximum landing mass 56,200 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass 53,000 kg
Dry operating mass 35,500 kg
Estimated load 14,500 kg
Estimated trip fuel 4,900kg
Minimum take-off fuel 7,400 kg
What is the maximum allowable take-off fuel?
a) 14,400 kg
b) 8,600 kg
c) 11,400 kg
d) 11,100 kg
Given:
Maximum allowable take-off mass 64,400 kg
Maximum landing mass 56,200 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass 53,000 kg
Dry operating mass 35,500 kg
Estimated load 14,500 kg
Estimated trip fuel 4,900 kg
Minimum take-off fuel 7,400 kg
What is the maximum additional load?
a) 3,000 kg
b) 5,600 kg
c) 4,000 kg
d) 7,000 kg
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles-de-Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin-jet
aeroplane.
Preplanning:
Maximum take-off mass 62,800 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass 51,250 kg
Maximum landing mass 54,900 kg
Maximum taxi mass 63,050 kg
Assume the following preplanning results:
Trip fuel 1,800 kg
Alternate fuel 1,400 kg
Holding fuel (final reserve) 1225 kg
Dry operating mass 34,000 kg
Traffic load 13,000 kg
Catering 750 kg
Baggage 3,500 kg
What is the take-off mass?
a) 52,265 kg
b) 55,765 kg
c) 51,515 kg
d) 51,425 kg
Are computer flight plans able to account for bad weather in calculating fuel required?
a) Can automatically divert route around forecast thunderstorms
b) No
c) Can automatically allow for poorly maintained engines
d) Can automatically allow extra consumption for anti-icing use
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans?
1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.
2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach climb cruise
descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate.
a) 1
b) Neither
c) 2
d) 1,2
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of
computer flight plans?
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the
pilot.
a) 2
b) 1
c) Neither
d) 1,2
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight
planning computers?
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
2. In the event of in-flight re-routing the computer produces a new plan.
a) 1,2
b) 2
c) Neither
d) 1
Which statements are correct about computer flight plans?
1). The computer can file the flight plan for you.
2). In the event of an in-flight re-routing computer automatically generates a new flight
plan.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 1,2
d) Neither
Given:
Dry operating mass 2,800 kg
Trip fuel 300 kg
Traffic load 400 kg
Maximum take-off mass 4,200 kg
Maximum landing mass 3,700 kg
What is the maximum fuel load which can be carried?
a) 500 kg
b) 700 kg
c) 1,000 kg
d) 800 kg
029
Point of Safe Return
Given: PT2
Maximum useable fuel 15,000 kg
Minimum reserve fuel 3,500 kg
TAS out 425 kts
Head wind component out 30 kts
TAS home 430 kts
Tailwind component home 20 kts
Average fuel flow 2,150 kg/h
What is the time to PSR?
a) 02:59
b) 02:51
c) 02:43
d) 03:43
Distance from departure to destination 850 nm
Tail wind out 35 kts
TAS 450 kts
Mean fuel flow out is 2,500 kg/hr
Mean fuel flow home is 1,900 kg/hr
Fuel available is 6,000 kg.
What is the time and distance to PSR?
a) 01:30
616 nm
b) 01:30
660 nm
c) 01:16
606 nm
d) 01:16
616 nm
Distance from departure to destination is 3750 nm PT2
Safe endurance is 9.5 hours
Track 360°T
W/V 360/50
TAS 480 kts
What is the distance to PSR from the departure point?
a) 1,128 nm
b) 2,070 nm
c) 1,495 nm
d) 2,255 nm
Given:
Maximum useable fuel 15,000 kg
Minimum reserve fuel 3,500 kg
TAS out 425 kts
Head wind component out 30 kts
Fuel flow out 2,150 kg/hr
TAS home 430 kts
Tail wind component home 20 kts
Fuel flow home 2,150 kg/hr
What is the distance to PSR?
a) 1,143 nm
b) 1,463 nm
c) 1,125 nm
d) 1,491 nm
use: T=EH/ O+H
Given:
Total fuel 15,000 kg
Reserve 1,500 kg
TAS 440 kts
Wind component 45 kts
Average fuel flow 2,150 kg/hr
What is the distance to PSR?
a) 1,702 nm
b) 1,520 nm
c) 1,250 nm
d) 1,367 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination is 3060 nm
Groundspeed out 440 kts
Groundspeed home 540 kts
Safe endurance 10 hrs
What is the time to the PSR?
a) 05:30
b) 05:45
c) 03:55
d) 05:20
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 330 nm
Endurance 5 hrs
Track 170°T
W/V 140/25
TAS 125 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 194 nm
b) 30 nm
c) 303 nm
d) 150 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 1,000 nm
Endurance 4 hrs
TAS 500 kts
Groundspeed out 550 kts
Groundspeed home 450 kts
What is the distance to PSR from the departure point?
a) 990 nm
b) 1,009 nm
c) 450 nm
d) 495 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 150 nm
Endurance 2.4 hrs
Track 250°T
W/V 280/15
TAS 120 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 71 nm
b) 98 nm
c) 83 nm
d) 142 nm
Given: PT2
Distance from departure to destination 150 nm
Endurance 3.2 hrs
TAS 90 kts
Groundspeed out 100 kts
Groundspeed home 80 kts
What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 8 nm
05 min
b) 142 nm
85 min
c) 67 nm
50 min
d) 71 nm
47 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 180 nm
Endurance 2 hrs
TAS 120 kts
Groundspeed out 135 kts
Groundspeed home 105 kts
What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 62 nm
28 min
b) 79 nm
45 min
c) 59 nm
30 min
d) 118 nm
53 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 180 nm
Endurance 2.8 hrs
Track 065°T
W/V 245/25
TAS 100 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 68 nm
b) 49 nm
c) 131 nm
d) 66 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 190 nm
Endurance 2.4 hrs
Track 120°T
W/V 030/40
TAS 130 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 95 nm
b) 44 nm
c) 148 nm
d) 73 nm
Given: PT2
Distance from departure to destination 2,000 nm
Endurance 5 hrs
TAS 500 kts
Groundspeed out 480 kts
Groundspeed home 520 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 1,040 nm
b) 624 nm
c) 752 nm
d) 1,248 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 200 nm
Endurance 3 hrs
TAS 130 kts
Groundspeed out 150 kts
Groundspeed home 110 kts
What is the distance PSR from the departure point?
a) 10 nm
b) 190 nm
c) 95 nm
d) 85 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 210 nm
Endurance 2.5 hrs
Track 035°T
W/V 250/20
TAS 105 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 88 nm
b) 127 nm
c) 172 nm
d) 64 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 210 nm
Endurance 3.5 hrs
Track 310°T
W/V 270/30
TAS 120 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 125 nm
b) 100 nm
c) 10 nm
d) 200 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 215 nm
Endurance 3.3 hrs
Track 005°T
W/V 290/15
TAS 125 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 112 nm
b) 9 nm
c) 205 nm
d) 103 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 240 nm
Endurance 3.5 hrs
TAS 125 kts
Groundspeed out 110 kts
Groundspeed home 140 kts
What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 134 nm
58 min
b) 216 nm
118 min
c) 24 nm
13 min
d) 108 nm
52 min
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 260 nm
Endurance 4.1 hrs
Track150°T
W/V 100/30
TAS 110 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 47 nm
b) 154 nm
c) 107 nm
d) 213 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 300 nm
Endurance 4 hrs
TAS 110 kts
Groundspeed out 120 kts
Groundspeed home 100 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 109 nm
b) 136 nm
c) 218 nm
d) 82 nm
Given: PT2
Distance from departure to destination 320 nm
Endurance 4.3 hrs
Track 120°T
W/V 180/40
TAS 130 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 59 nm
b) 185 nm
c) 131 nm
d) 262 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 360 nm
Endurance 4.5 hrs
Track 345°T
W/V 260/30
TAS 140 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 308 nm
b) 185 nm
c) 52 nm
d) 154 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 400 nm
Endurance 2.5 hrs
TAS 115 kts
Groundspeed out 130 kts
Groundspeed home 105 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 145 nm
b) 73 nm
c) 179 nm
d) 255 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 410 nm
Endurance 3.6 hrs
Track 055°T
W/V 180/35
TAS 120 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 207 nm
b) 102 nm
c) 203 nm
d) 169 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 480 nm
Endurance 5 hrs
Track 315°T
W/V 100/20
TAS 115 kts
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 205 nm
b) 199 nm
c) 141 nm
d) 280 nm
Given: PT2
Distance from departure to destination 500 nm
Endurance 4 hrs
TAS 140 kts
Groundspeed out 150 kts
Groundspeed home 130 kts
What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 279 nm
111 min
b) 139 nm
60 min
c) 232 nm
107 min
d) 221 nm
89 min
Given:
Fuel flow 2,150 kg/hr
Total fuel in tanks 15,000 kg
Fuel reserve required on arrival 3,500 kg
TAS out 420 kts
Wind component out -30 kts
TAS home 430 kts
Wind component home +20 kts
What is the time to PSR?
a) 03:33
b) 02:52
c) 02:06
d) 01:26
Given:
Safe endurance 5 hrs
Track 315°T
W/V 100/20
TAS 115 kts
What is distance to PSR?
a) 141 nm
b) 100 nm
c) 205 nm
d) 282 nm
Given:
Distance from departure to destination 500 nm
Safe endurance 4 hrs
Groundspeed out 150 kts
Groundspeed home 130 kts
What is the distance and time to PSR from the departure point?
a) 221 nm
89 min
b) 232 nm
107 min
c) 279 nm
111 min
d) 139 nm
60 min
034-036
JEPP ERCs (LO)
An airway is marked 3500T 2100a.
This indicates that:
a) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3,500 ft
b) the airway base is 3,500 ft MSL
c) the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3,500 ft
d) the airway is a low level link route 2,100 ft – 3,500 ft MSL
An airway is marked 5000 2900a.
The notation 5000 is the:
a) minimum holding altitude (MHA)
b) maximum authorised altitude (MAA)
c) minimum en-route altitude (MEA)
d) base of the airway (AGL)
An airway is marked FL 80 1500a.
This indicates that:
a) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80
b) the airways extends from 1,500 ft MSL to FL 80
c) 1,500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).
d) the airway base is 1,500 ft MSL
An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a
course of 180°M is:
a) FL 100
b) FL 105
c) FL 95
d) FL 90
For an IFR flight using ICAO semi-circular cruising levels on a track of 200°M which is a
suitable level to fly?
a) FL 320
b) FL 310
c) FL 300
d) FL 290
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
The magnetic course and distance from WALLASEY WAL (53°23'N 003°28'W° to LIFFY
(53°29'N 005°30'W) on airway B1 is:
a) 279°M
114 nm
b) 279°M
85 nm
c) 311°M
114 nm
d) 311°M
85 nm
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from
STRUMBLE STU (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN (51°43'N 003°16'W) is:
a) FL 80
b) 4,100 ft MSL
c) FL 110
d) 2,900 ft MSL
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY HB (54°37'N 005°53'W) is:
a) a fan marker frequency 420 kHz
b) an NDB frequency 420 kHz continuous operation
c) an NDB frequency 420 kHz NOT continuous operation
d) a TACAN channel 420
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
The radio navigation aid at SHANNON SHA (52°43'N 008°53'W) is a:
a) NDB frequency 352 kHz
b) VOR/DME frequency 113.3 MHz
c) TACAN frequency 113.3 kHz
d) VOR only frequency 113.3 MHz
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE TOP (54°12'N 001°22'W) is a:
a) TACAN channel 84 and an NDB frequency 92 kHz only
b) TACAN channel 84 and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only
c) TACAN only channel 84 (frequency 113.7 MHz)
d) VORTAC frequency 113.7 MHz and an NDB frequency 92 kHz
Refer to Chart E(LO) 2
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL (49°08'N
003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB (50°14'N 003°09'E) is:
a) FL 50
b) FL 80
c) FL 60
d) FL 70
Refer to Chart E(LO) 2
The magnetic course and distance from CAMBRAI CMB (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN
(49°33'N 003°25'E) on airway B3 is:
a) 349°M
26 nm
b) 169°M
68 nm
c) 169°M
42 nm
d) 349°M
42 nm
Refer to Chart E(LO) 2
The Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway
G4 from JERSEY JSY (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N 004°20'W) is:
a) FL 140
b) 1,000 ft MSL
c) FL 60
d) 2,800 ft MSL
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from SUBI SUI (52°23'N 014°35'E) to
CZEMPIN CZE (52°08'N 016°44'E) is:
a) FL 70
b) FL 80
c) FL 50
d) FL 60
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) is marked by a:
a) NDB ident LF
b) NDB ident N
c) fan marker ident LP
d) TACAN ident RON
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
The initial magnetic course and distance from EELDE EEL (53°10'N 006°40'E) to
WELGO (54°18'N 007°25'E) on airway A7 is:
a) 024°M
73 nm
b) 023°M
47 nm
c) 024°M
20 nm
d) 023°M
157 nm
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
The magnetic course and distance from ELBE LBE (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD
(54°50'N 009°19'E) on airway H12 is:
a) 352°M
96 nm
b) 339°M
80 nm
c) 339°M
125 nm
d) 352°M
72 nm
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G24 from
KOLJA (56° 00'N 016°49'E) to RONNE ROE (55°04'N 014°46'E) is:
a) FL 60
b) 1,000 ft MSL
c) 2,500 ft MSL
d) FL 100
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
The NDB at DENKO DRE (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified on:
a) Channel 440 BFO on
b) Channel 440 BFO off
c) Frequency 440 kHz BFO on
d) Frequency 440 kHz BFO off
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52°12'N 008°17'E) are:
a) frequency paired and have different identifiers
b) not frequency paired but have the same identifier
c) not frequency paired and have different identifiers
d) frequency paired and have the same identifier
Refer to Chart E(LO) 6
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD (49°24'N
005°08'E) to CHATILLON CTL (49°08'N 003°35'E) is:
a) FL 60
b) FL 40
c) FL 50
d) FL 70
Refer to Chart E(LO) 6
The magnetic course and distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ (49°00'N 006°43'E) to
LINNA (49°41'N 006°15'E) on airway R7 is:
a) 337°M
46 nm
b) 337°M
58 nm
c) 157°M
58 nm
d) 337°M
31 nm
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
The magnetic course and distance from EELDE EEL (53°10’N 006°40’E) to WELGO
(54°18’N 007°25’E) on airway A7 are:
a) 024°M/ 023°M
67 nm
b) 037°M/038°M
50 nm
c) 024°M/023°M
73 nm
d) 024°M/023°M
47 nm
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
What is the NBD serving BELFAST CITY (54°37’N 005°53’W) airport?
a) OY 332 KHz
b) HB 420 KHz
c) BEL 117.2 MHz
d) BEL 117.2 KHz
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
You are flying from SHANNON SHA (N52 43.3 W008 53.1) by W13 to KORAK. What is
meant by 5000 by the route centreline?
a) MEA 5,000 ft
b) MAA 5,000 ft
c) MORA 5,000 ft
d) MOCA 5,000 ft
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
The magnetic course and distance from WALLASEY WAL (N53 24 W003 08) to LIFFY
(N53 29 W005 30) on airway B1 are:
a) 279°M
85 nm
b) 279°M
114 nm
c) 311°M
85 nm
d) 311°M
114 nm
Refer to Chart E(LO) 1
The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from
STUMBLE STU (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN (51°43'N 003°16'W) is:
a) FL 80
b) 4,100 ft
c) FL 110
d) 2,900 ft
Refer to Chart E(LO) 2
What is the lowest MEA that can be flown continuously between JERSEY JSY (N49 13.3
W002 02.7) and LIZAD (N49 35.4 W004 20.3)?
a) 2,800 ft
b) FL 140
c) 1,000 ft
d) FL 60
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
You are flying G9 from SUBI SUI (N52 22.8 E014 35.3) to CZEMPIN CZE (N52 07.9
E016 43.7). What is a suitable FL?
a) FL 50
b) FL 70
c) FL 80
d) FL 60
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
See DENKO (N52 49 E015 50); what does "440 DRE" mean?
a) 440 MHz plus ADF only when BFO off
b) 440 kHz plus ident only when BFO switched off
c) 440 kHz plus ident only when BFO switched on
d) 440 kHz plus ident
Refer to Chart E(LO) 5
What is the lowest MEA that can be flown continuously between RONNE ROE (N55
04.0 E014 45.7) and DOXON (N55 26.9 E018 10.0)?
a) FL 60
b) FL 100
c) 2,500 ft
d) 1,000 ft
Refer to Chart E(LO) 6
You are flying airways from CHEB OKG (N50 03.3 E012 24.4) to RODING RDG (N49
02.4 E012 31.6). Which is the lowest usable Flight Level?
a) FL 80
b) FL 40
c) FL 50
d) FL 70
On an IFR navigation chart in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude appears the
following information "80". This means that within this quadrant:
a) the minimum safe altitude is 8,000 ft
b) the floor of the airway is at 8,000 ft
c) the minimum flight level is FL 80
d) the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8,000 ft
037-038
JEPP High Level Charts and Grid
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
What is the lowest continuous MEA from WALLASEY WAL (N53 23.5 W003 08.0) to
MIDHURST MID (N51 03.2 W000 37.4) on UA34?
a) FL 245
b) 5,300 ft
c) FL 290
d) 16,800 ft
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
On a flight from AMBOISE AMB (N47 25.7 E001 03.9) to AGEN AGN (N43 53.3 E000
52.4), what is the best airway route above FL200?
a) UB19 POI UB195
b) UA34
c) UB19 CGC UA25
d) UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIG UA34
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
The minimum en route altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4
(43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is:
a) FL 260
b) FL 210
c) FL 200
d) FL 250
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
The magnetic course and distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (N45 49 E001 02) to
CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (N45 47 E003 11) on airway UG22 are:
a) 046°M
70 nm
b) 067°M
122 nm
c) 094°M
90 nm
d) 113°M
142 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An aeroplane has to fly from about 10 nm south east of SALZBURG SBG (N48 00 E012
54) to KLAGENFURT KFT (N46 36 E014 34). Which statement is correct?
a) The Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10,800 ft
AMSL
b) The minimum grid safe altitude is 13,400 ft AMSL
c) The Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) is 13,400 ft
d) The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) is 13,400 ft
Refer to Chart E(HI) 2
What is the most suitable route remaining on airways from ODIN ODN (N55 34.8 E010
39.3) to BOTTNA BTD (N57 44.8 E013 48.4)?
a) UR12 PER UG5 SHG BTD
b) UR156 LAV UR156 SKA UH42 BTD
c) UR156 LAV DCT BTD
d) UR156 LAV D17 CINDY UR46 BTD
Refer to Chart E(HI) 2
What is the shortest distance on airways between ALMA ALM (N55 24.7 E013 33.5) and
SHILING SHG (N57 33.2 E013 59.9)?
a) 86 nm
b) 60 nm
c) 131 nm
d) 45 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 2
When flying between BACKA BAK (N57 33.3 E011 58.6) and BOTTNA BTD (N57 44.8
E013 48.4) along UR46 how can you get a cross fix for CINDY?
a) BAK 078 / BTD 258
b) HAR 161 / LAV 092
c) BTD D60
d) LAV D17
Refer to Chart E(HI) 3
Are the VOR and TACAN navaids at OSNABRUCH (N52 12 E008 17) co-located?
a) VOR/NDB only
b) VOR/DME only
c) Yes
d) No
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross GIBSO intersection (50°45'N
002°30'W) at or above:
a) FL 250
b) FL 160
c) FL 200
d) FL 140
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An aeroplane has to fly from ABBEVILLE ABB (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to BIGGIN BIG
(51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR
flight plan?
a) FL 320
b) FL 330
c) FL 310
d) FL 300
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An aircraft has to fly from ABBEVILLE ABB (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to BIGGIN BIG
(51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin you can find: 141°; this is:
a) the magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin
b) the average true course of the great circle from Biggin to Abbeville
c) the magnetic course from Biggin to Abbeville
d) the radial referenced to true north of Biggin to fly inbound
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An aircraft has to fly from ABBEVILLE ABB (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to BIGGIN BIG
(51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg?
a) 62 nm
b) 38 nm
c) 64 nm
d) 100 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An aircraft has to fly from SALZBURG SBG (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to KLAGENFURT
KFT (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D113.8 SBG. What
does this mean?
a) ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation
b) Only the DME with identification SBG can be used for which frequency 113.8
MHz should be tuned VOR is not available
c) VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation
d) VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An aircraft has to fly from SALZBURG SBG (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to KLAGENFURT
KFT (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E); which statement is correct?
a) The airway UB5 cannot be used there is one way traffic to the north
b) The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200
c) The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg
d) The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An appropriate flight level for flight in RVSM airspace on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN
ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is:
a) FL 290
b) FL 300
c) FL 330
d) FL 310
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to
MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is:
a) FL 230
b) FL 240
c) FL 250
d) FL 260
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
Of the following the preferred airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N
001°09'E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is:
a) UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9
b) UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14
c) UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111
d) UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
Of the following the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'
N008°38'E) to KOKSY KOK (51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245 on a Wednesday is:
a) UG1
b) UG108 SPI UG1
c) UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS
d) UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
Planning a IFR flight from PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to
LONDON HEATHROW (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). What is the pre-planning distance
(having calculated the direct distance plus 10%)?
a) 308 nm
b) 188 nm
c) 207 nm
d) 218 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
Planning a IFR flight from PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to
LONDON HEATHROW (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). What is the average true course from
Paris to London?
a) 330°T
b) 322°T
c) 142°T
d) 343°T
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14'E) to
ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N 011°09'E) on airway UR11 is:
a) 230°M
97nm
b) 052°M
97 nm
c) 050°M
47 nm
d) 133°M
85 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to
STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on airway UB5 is:
a) 346°M
43 nm
b) 346°M
45 nm
c) 166°M
64 nm
d) 346°M
64 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) to
FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is:
a) 048°M
46 nm
b) 061°M
28 nm
c) 061°M
37 nm
d) 041°M
78 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5 (48°37'N 009°16'E) to
DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is:
a) 105°M
105 nm
b) 052°M
50 nm
c) 132°M
43 nm
d) 007°M
60 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53°03'N 001°40'W) to
WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08W) on airway UR3 is:
a) 117°M
57 nm
b) 117°M
71 nm
c) 297°M
57 nm
d) 297°M
70 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway UA34
from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N
000°37'W) is:
a) FL 330
b) FL 245
c) FL 250
d) FL 290
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The radio navigation aids at CHIOGGIA CHI (45°04'N 012°17'E) is a:
a) VOR/DME only frequency 114.1 MHz
b) VOR frequency 114.1 MHz and TACAN frequency 408 MHz
c) VOR/DME frequency 114.1 MHz and NDB frequency 408 kHz
d) VOR frequency 114.1 MHz and TACAN channel 408
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER SDI (48°38N 004°53'E) is a:
a) TACAN channel 114.0
b) TACAN channel 87 frequency 114.0 MHz
c) TACAN channel 87 and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz
d) VOR frequency 114.0 MHz and TACAN channel 87
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The radio navigation aid at ZURICH ZUE (47°36'N 008°49'E) is a:
a) VOR/DME frequency 115.0MHz
b) TACAN frequency 115.0 MHz
c) VOR only frequency 115.0 MHz
d) NDB only frequency 115.0 kHz
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47°41'N 006°18'E) is a:
a) VOR identifier LUL frequency paired with TACAN identifier LXI
b) VOR only identifier LUL
c) VOR/DME and NDB identifier LXI
d) VOR/DME only identifier LUL
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG SBG (48°30'N 007°34'E) is a:
a) VOR only frequency 115.6 MHz
b) TACAN only frequency 115.6 MHz
c) VOR/TACAN frequency 115.6 MHz
d) DME only channel 115.6
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
The radio navigation aid STAD STD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is a:
a) NDB frequency 386 kHz
b) VOR frequency 386 MHz
c) TACAN on channel 386
d) VOR/DME on channel 386
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An aircraft has to fly from SALZBURG SBG (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to KLAGENFURT
KFT (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct?
a) The figure 108 means that the minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on
this route is 10,800 ft above MSL
b) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13,400 ft
c) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum grid safe altitude in this sector is 13,400
ft above MSL
d) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum en-route altitude (MEA) is 13,400 ft
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N
011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is:
a) FL 300
b) FL 320
c) FL 290
d) FL 310
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
Flying from ABBEVILLE ABB (N50 08.1 E001 51.3) by UA20 to BIGGIN BIG (N51 19.8
E000 02.2). What is the first suitable IFR FL above FL295?
a) FL 310
b) FL 320
c) FL 330
d) FL 300
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4
What is the best route from CLACTON CLN (N51 50.9 E001 09.0) to MIDHURST MID
(N51 03.2 W000 37.4)?
a) UR123
b) TRIPO UR1 LAM UR1
c) UB29 LAM UR1
d) UR12
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 in RVSM airspace from MENDENASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E)
is:
a) FL 300
b) FL 280
c) FL 320
d) FL 290
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N
001°37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is:
a) FL 300
b) FL 270
c) FL 310
d) FL 290
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
Given:
You are flying from MOULINS MOU (N46 42.4 E003 38.0) to DIJON DIJ (N47 16.3 E005
05.9). What is the route designator and total distance?
a) UG21
69 nm
b) D
44 nm
c) UG21
26 nm
d) Direct route 69 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
The preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN
AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is:
a) UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34
b) UA34
c) UB19 POI UB195
d) UB19 CGC UA25
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
The preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST
PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is:
a) UB28
b) UA6 LSA UG52
c) UB282 DGN UB46
d) UB284 VILAR UB28
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
The magnetic course and distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI
(43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway UA35 is:
a) 332°M
118 nm
b) 322°M
60 nm
c) 152°M
42 nm
d) 332°M
76 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
The magnetic course and distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to
CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is:
a) 094°M
90 nm
b) 046°M
70 nm
c) 067°M
122 nm
d) 113°M
142 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
The minimum en-route altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4
(43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is:
a) FL 210
b) FL 200
c) FL 260
d) FL 250
Refer to Chart E(HI) 5
An appropriate FL for flight along airway UG5 from MENDE-NASBINALS MEN 115.3
(N44 36 E003 10) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (N43 57 E001 50) is:
a) FL 290
b) FL 300
c) FL 280
d) FL 310
Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5
On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°33.4'N 006°02'E) the initial great circle grid course is:
a) 344°G
b) 347°G
c) 353°G
d) 350°G
Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5
The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N
011°E) is 177°G. The final grid course at position B will be:
a) 177°G
b) 194°G
c) 172°G
d) 353°G
Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5
The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N
006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar en-route chart where the grid is aligned with the
Greenwich Meridian, the initial grid course will be:
a) 080°G
b) 096°G
c) 066°G
d) 106°G
Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5
The initial track from A (65N 006E) to C (62N 020W) is:
a) 246°T
b) 256°T
c) 272°T
d) 266°T
Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5
What is the initial grid track from Stornoway (N58 12.4 W006 11.0) to Keflavik ( N64 00
W022 40)?
a) 133°G
b) 313°G
c) 320°G
d) 140°G
Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5
Flying from 80°N 170°E to 75°N 010°E. Initial track is 177°G, what is the initial true
track?
a) 177°T
b) 167°T
c) 357°T
d) 347°T
Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5
Route PTS P from VIGRA (N62 33.2 E006 02.2) to ADOBI (N68 30.0 E003 00.0).
What is the grid track?
a) 344°
b) 173°
c) 349°
d) 353°
Refer to Chart NAP
On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N 008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N
054°32'W) the average true course and distance are:
a) 262°T
1,720 nm
b) 281°T
2,730 nm
c) 281°T
1,877 nm
d) 244°T
1,520 nm
Refer to Chart NAP
The average magnetic course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is:
a) 279°M
b) 271°M
c) 247°M
d) 259°M
Refer to Chart NAP
The average magnetic course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is:
a) 109°M
b) 119°M
c) 118°M
d) 099°M
Refer to Chart NAP
The average true course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is:
a) 247°T
b) 259°T
c) 079°T
d) 271°T
Refer to Chart NAP
The average true course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is:
a) 109°T
b) 099°T
c) 119°T
d) 120°T
Refer to Chart NAP
The distance from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is:
a) 1,590 nm
b) 720 nm
c) 690 nm
d) 1,440 nm
Refer to Chart NAP
The distance from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is:
a) 725 nm
b) 700 nm
c) 760 nm
d) 775 nm
Refer to Chart NAP
The initial magnetic course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is:
a) 267°M
b) 275°M
c) 271°M
d) 262°M
Refer to Chart NAP
The initial magnetic course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is:
a) 080°M
b) 098°M
c) 113°M
d) 116°M
Refer to Chart NAP
The initial true course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is:
a) 267°T
b) 246°T
c) 275°T
d) 271°T
Refer to Chart NAP
The initial true course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is:
a) 080°T
b) 278°T
c) 116°T
d) 098°T
Refer to Chart NAP
The initial magnetic course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is:
a) 262°M
b) 271°M
c) 267°M
d) 275°M
Refer to Chart NAP
Flight from position C (N62 W020) to position B (N58 E004) What is the initial true
course?
a) 100°T
b) 118°T
c) 120°T
d) 109°T
Refer to Chart NAP
Flying from A (N58 E004) to B (N62 W020) What is the great circle distance?
a) 775 nm
b) 755 nm
c) 720 nm
d) 740 nm
039-040
JEPP Terminal
Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol ILS DME Rwy 22 (11-6)
Complete the blanks for the missed approach: "Turn …. on track …. climbing to ….
(….)”
a) right 240° 2000' 2011'
b) left
266° 2000' 2102'
c) left
005° 2000' 2012'
d) left
160° 2000' 2014’
Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X)
The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is:
a) 88 ft
b) 188 ft
c) 100 ft
d) 300 ft
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 and London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 27R (11-4)
You are planning an IFR flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via initial approach fix
(IAF) Biggin VOR.
Given the distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is 76 nm, what is the distance
from ABB 116.6 to TOD?
a) 55 nm
b) 100 nm
c) 49 nm
d) 60 nm
Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 and London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 27R (11-4)
You are planning an IFR flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via STAR BIG2A
Given:
Variation 5°W
En-route TAS 430 kts
W/V 280/40
Descent distance 76nm
What is the magnetic course, ground speed, and wind correction angle from ABBEVILLE
ABB (N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of descent?
a) 319°M
396 kts
WCA -3°
b) 321°M
396 kts
WCA -3°
c) 141°M
396 kts
WCA -3°
d) 141°M
396 kts
WCA +3°
Refer to London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2)
The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing is:
a) 480 ft
b) 400 ft
c) 280 ft
d) 200 ft
Refer to London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1)
The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide slope out is:
a) 480 ft
b) 405 ft
c) 200 ft
d) 275 ft
Refer to Madrid Barajas ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1)
The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ILS is:
a) 2,067 ft
b) 4,000 ft
c) 3,500 ft
d) 1,567 ft
Refer to Munich ILS Rwy 26R (11-4)
The ILS frequency and identifier are:
a) 108.7
IMNW
b) 108.3
IMNW
c) 108.7
IMSW
d) 108.3
IMSW
Refer to Munich NDB DME Rwy 26L (16-3)
The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the published approaches are:
a) 338
MNW
b) 400
MSW
c) 108.6
DMS
d) 112.3
MUN
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle ILS Rwy 10 (21-8)
The ILS localizer course is:
a) 118°
b) 100°
c) 268°
d) 088°
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle ILS Rwy 27 (21-2)
The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS
(CLM) are:
a) Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft
b) Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft
c) Cross at FL60 and maintain
d) Cross at FL80 descend to FL70
Refer to Zurich ILS Rwy 16 (11-2)
The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope out all other aids
serviceable aircraft category A is:
a) 800 m
b) 1,500 m
c) 720 m
d) 600 m
Refer to London Heathrow STAR (10-2D)
At Ockham what are the lowest holding level and maximum speed?
a) FL140
IAS 250 kts
b) 7000 ft
IAS 250kts
c) FL140
IAS 220 kts
d) 7000 ft
IAS 220 kts
Refer to Madrid Barajas STAR (10-2B)
Approaching the airfield from the South using UR10, what is the Initial Approach Fix for
ILS RWY 33?
a) VTB VOR
b) CENTA
c) MOTIL
d) CJN VOR
Refer to Madrid Barajas ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1)
What is the minimum altitude for glideslope interception?
a) 1,567 ft
b) 2,067 ft
c) 3,500 ft
d) 4,000 ft
Refer to Munich STAR Plates
With an easterly surface wind, you are approaching from the west to Munich via the
TANGO VOR. Which is the best STAR and its associated Initial Approach Fix?
a) Kempten 2T / BETOS
b) AALEN 1T / ROKIL
c) NDG 1T / ROKIL
d) RODING 1R / MOOSBURG
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle ILS Rwy 10 (21-7)
What is the ILS course?
a) 118°
b) 088°
c) 100°
d) 268°
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3)
You are planning an IFR flight from Paris RWY 27 to London.
Given the distance from PARIS Charles de Gaulle to top of climb 50 nm, determine the
distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABBEVILLE ABB.
a) 36.5 nm
b) 31 nm
c) 24.5 nm
d) 33 nm
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3)
You are planning an IFR flight from Paris RWY 27 to London.
Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A.
a) 74.5 nm
b) 83 nm
c) 72.5 nm
d) 56 nm
Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol SID (10-3)
Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L?
a) Cross ANDIK below FL60
b) Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME
c) Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude
d) The distance to ANDIK is 25 nm
Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol SID (10-3B)
The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is:
a) 59 nm
b) 35 nm
c) 52 nm
d) 67 nm
Refer to London Heathrow SID (10-3)
Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for the Airport?
a) East sector 2,300 ft within 50 nm
b) West sector 2,300 ft within 25 nm
c) East sector 2,100 ft within 50 nm
d) West sector 2,100 ft within 25 nm
Refer to Munich SID (10-3C & 10-3D)
Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 26L?
a) KEMPTEN THREE ECHO
b) KEMPTEN THREE QUEBEC
c) KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRA
d) KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3)
You are planning an IFR flight from Paris to London.
Given:
SID is ABB 8A
Variation 3° W
TAS 430 kts
W/V 280/40
Distance to top of climb 50nm
What is the magnetic course, ground speed, and wind correction angle from top of climb
to ABB?
a) 349°M
414 kts
WCA -5°
b) 169°M
414 kts
WCA +5°
c) 169°M
450 kts
WCA +4°
d) 349°M
414 kts
WCA +5°
Refer to Zurich SID (10-3)
Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16?
a) ALBIX 7A
b) ALBIX 6H
c) ALBIX 6E
d) ALBIX 7S
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3)
You are planning a IFR flight from Paris to London
What is the elevation of the departure aerodrome?
a) 217 ft
b) 2 ft
c) 387 ft
d) 268 ft
Refer to London Heathrow STAR (10-2) and ILS DME Rwy 27R (11-4)
What is the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival
route?
a) OCK 115.3 MHz
b) EPM 316 kHz
c) BIG 115.1 MHz
d) BIG 115.1 kHz
Refer to London Heathrow STAR (10-2D)
The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at
OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are:
a) 7,000 ft
250 kts
b) 9,000 ft
250 kts
c) 9,000 ft
220 kts
d) 7,000 ft
220 kts
Refer to Munich STAR (10-2A and 10-2B)
The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix for an arrival from the west via TANGO
for runway 08 L/R is:
a) NDG 1T
ROKIL
b) AALEN 1T
MBG
c) DKB 1T
ROKIL
d) AALEN 1T
ROKIL
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle STAR (20-2)
The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is:
a) 88 nm
b) 83 nm
c) 73 nm
d) 96 nm
Refer to Zurich STAR (10-2)
Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only should follow the following route to EKRON:
a) BLM R111° to GOLKE then HOC R067° inbound to EKRON
b) HOC R067° via GOLKE to EKRON
c) TRA R247° outbound to EKRON
d) WIL R018° outbound to EKRON
On an instrument approach chart a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation
to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance this altitude
is valid to:
a) 20 nm
b) 25 nm
c) 10 nm
d) 15 nm
Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol SID (10-3)
Which statement is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L?
a) The distance to ANDIK is 25 nm
b) Contact Schiphol Departure 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude
c) Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME
d) Cross ANDIK below FL60
Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID Charts
What is the distance to Abbeville on SID ABB 8A?
a) 74 nm
b) 72 nm
c) 72.5 nm
d) 74.5 nm
Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are
given with:
a) magnetic course
b) true headings
c) true course
d) magnetic headings
041-044
ICAO Flight Plans
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
When filling in an ATC flight plan before departure the time information which should be
entered in Item 13 (TIME), is:
a) estimated off-block time
b) planned engine start time
c) planned take-off time
d) the time of flight plan filing
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
Prior to an IFR flight when filling in the ATC flight plan the time information which should
be entered in Item 16 (TOTAL EET) is the time elapsed from:
a) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome
b) taxy-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing
c) taxying until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome
d) take-off until landing
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATC flight plan Item 10 "standard equipment" is considered to be:
a) VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, and transponder
b) VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, and transponder
c) VHF, RTF, VOR, ILS, and transponder
d) VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, and ILS
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE) for a flight along a designated route where the
departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route:
a) the letters "DCT" should be entered followed by the point of joining the ATS route
b) it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route
c) it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to
the ATS unit
d) the words "as cleared" should be entered
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the event that SELCAL is prescribed by an appropriate authority in which section of
the ATC flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered?
a) EQUIPMENT
b) ROUTE
c) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
d) OTHER INFORMATION
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
Item 9 of the ATC flight plan includes in Item 9 "NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT".
In this case "NUMBER" means:
a) the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643
b) the registration number of the aircraft
c) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL)
d) the number of aircraft flying in a group
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATC flight plan Item 7 (AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION) for a radio equipped aircraft
the identifier must always:
a) include the aircraft registration marking
b) include the operating agency designator
c) be the RTF callsign to be used
d) include an indication of the aircraft type
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATC flight plan Item 19 EMERGENCY RADIO and SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT
carried on the flight should be indicated by:
a) listing the items carried on the "REMARKS" line
b) circling the relevant box
c) placing a tick in the relevant box
d) crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried
A "current flight plan" is a:
a) filed flight plan with amendments and clearances included
b) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised
between aeroplane and ATC
c) flight plan with the correct time of departure
d) filed flight plan
A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme
Paris-Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at
the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of
that flight to Limoges.
a) The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at
least 15 minutes before the planned time of arrival
b) The airline's Operations department has to transmit a change to the RPL to the
ATC office at least half an hour before the planned time of departure
c) It is not possible to plan another destination and that flight has to be simply
cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not chartered)
d) The RPL must be cancelled for that day and an individual flight plan must be filed
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137,000 kg but is operating at
take-off mass 135,000 kg. In Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CAT) of the ATC flight plan
its wake turbulence category is:
a) heavy "H"
b) heavy/medium "H/M”
c) medium "M"
d) medium plus "M+"
An aircraft in the cruise has a calibrated airspeed of 150 kts, a TAS of 180 kts and an
average ground speed of 210 kts. The speed box of the flight plan must be filled as:
a) K0210
b) N0180
c) K0180
d) N0150
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215
UTC. In the ATC flight plan Item 16 (DESTINATION and TOTAL EET) should be entered
with:
a) EDDM
M135
b) EDDM
1415
c) EDDM
2H15
d) EDDM
0215
For a repetitive ATC flight plan (RPL) to be used flights must take place on a regular
basis on at least:
a) 20 occasions
b) 50 occasions
c) 10 occasions
d) 30 occasions
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
For the purposes of Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CATEGORY) of the ATC flight plan,
an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62,000 kg is:
a) unclassified "U"
b) medium "M"
c) light "L”
d) heavy "H"
For which flights are Flight Plans required?
1. IFR flights
2. IFR and VFR flights
3. Flights crossing national boundaries
4. Flights over water
5. Public transport flights
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,3
c) 1,3,5
d) 2,3,4,5
From the options given below select those flights which require an ATC flight plan.
1. Any Public Transport flight
2. Any IFR flight
3. Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the
provision of the alerting service or the operations of search and rescue
4. Any cross-border flights
5. Any flight which involves overflying water
The combination regrouping the correct statement is:
a) 2,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 3,4,5
d) 1,5
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
Given the following flight plan information
Trip fuel:
136 kg
Flight time:
2.75 hrs
Reserve fuel: 30% of trip
Fuel in tanks: Minimum
Taxy fuel:
3 kg
How should Item 19 (ENDURANCE) be completed on the ICAO flight plan?
a) 0338
b) 0245
c) 0249
d) 0334
How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of
flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
a) 0:30 hr
b) 0:10 hr
c) 1:00 hr
d) 3:00 hrs
If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the
ICAO flight plan he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a
specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is:
a) 30 min
b) 15 min
c) 45 min
d) 10 min
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in Item 16 (DESTINATION
AERODROME) of your ATS flight plan you write:
a) AAAA
b) ////
c) ZZZZ
d) XXXX
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (LEVEL) a cruising pressure altitude of 32,000 feet would
be entered as:
a) F320
b) 32000
c) FL320
d) S3200
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE) in terms of latitude and longitude a significant
point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as:
a) N04135E0415
b) 41°35' N 04° 15'E
c) N4135 E00415
d) 4135N00415E
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE), in order to define a position as a bearing and
distance from a VOR the group of figures should consist of:
a) VOR ident, true bearing, distance in kilometers
b) VOR ident, magnetic bearing, distance in nautical miles
c) VOR ident, magnetic bearing, distance in kilometers
d) full name of VOR, true bearing, distance in kilometres
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In an ATS flight plan Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CAT), an aircraft will be classified as
"L" if its MTOM is?
a) 27,000 kg
b) 7,000 kg
c) 57,000 kg
d) 10,000 kg
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE), where either a route for which standard
departure (SID) and a standard arrival (STAR) are provided:
a) SID nor STAR should be entered
b) Both should be entered
c) STAR should be entered but not SID
d) SID should be entered but not STAR
In flight it is possible to:
1. File an IFR flight plan
2. Modify an active flight plan
3. Cancel a VFR flight plan
4. Close a VFR flight plan
The combination regrouping the correct statement is:
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,4
d) 1,3
In order to comply with PANS-RAC during an IFR flight, deviations from flight plan
particulars should be reported to ATC. Concerning TAS and time, the minimum
deviations which must be reported are:
a) TAS 5 kts and time 5 minutes
b) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes
c) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes
d) TAS 10 kts and time 2 minutes
In the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan for endurance one must indicate the time
corresponding to:
a) the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel
b) the total usable fuel on board
c) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes
d) the required fuel for the flight
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In Item 10 (EQUIPMENT) of an ATC flight plan form, the letter to be used to indicate that
the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting
capability is:
a) P
b) A
c) C
d) S
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In Item 13 (TIME) of an ATC flight plan form corresponding to the estimated time of
departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to:
a) take-off
b) start-up
c) go off blocks
d) pass the departure beacon
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (CRUISING SPEED), a cruising speed of 470 knots will be
entered as:
a) KN470
b) 0470K
c) N0470
d) N470
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE) it is necessary to enter any point at which a
change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined
as:
a) 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more
b) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
c) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more
d) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATC flight plan Item 19 (PERSONS ON BOARD), if the number of passengers to
be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing:
a) the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank
b) the plan may not be filed until the information is available
c) "TBN" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box
d) an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In the ATS flight plan for a non-scheduled flight, which of the following letters should be
entered in Item 8 (TYPE OF FLIGHT)?
a) X
b) G
c) N/S
d) N
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
Item 7 (AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION) of the flight plan, in accordance with PANS-RAC
(DOC 4444), should always include, for an aircraft equipped with a radio, the:
a) aircraft type
b) aircraft initialization
c) aircraft callsign
d) aircraft operator
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
On a ATC flight plan in Item 15 (ROUTE), to indicate that you will overfly the waypoint
ROMEO at 120 kts at FL 85, you will write:
a) ROMEO/N0120F085
b) ROMEO/FL085N0120
c) ROMEO/K0120FL085
d) ROMEO/F085N0120
On a VFR ATC flight plan, the total estimated time is:
a) the estimated time from engine start to landing at the destination airport
b) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport plus 15 mins
c) the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination airport
d) the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate airport
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
On an ATC flight plan in Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CAT), an aircraft indicated as "H"
for "Heavy":
a) requires a runway length of at least 2,000m at maximum certified take-off mass
b) is of the highest wake turbulence category
c) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136,000 kg
d) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140,000 kg
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
On an ATC flight plan in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES), the letter "Y" is used to indicate that
the flight is carried out under the following flight rules:
a) IFR followed by VFR
b) IFR
c) VFR followed by IFR
d) VFR
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
On an ATC flight plan you are required to indicate in Item 15 (CRUISING SPEED), the
planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is:
a) TAS
b) IAS
c) EAS
d) Estimated ground speed
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
What is the maximum estimated elapsed time or distance between points on track
mentioned in Item15 of the flight plan for flights outside designated ATS routes?
a) 90 min
370 km
b) 30 min
200 nm
c) 60 min
370 nm
d) 120 min
370 nm
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
In Item 19, ENDURANCE is?
a) Total usable fuel required for the flight
b) Maximum flight time plus 45 minutes holding fuel
c) Fuel endurance of the aircraft
d) Maximum flight time plus 30 minutes holding fuel
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
Given the following flight plan information:
Trip fuel:
100 kg
Flight time:
1 hr 35 min
Taxy fuel:
3 kg
Block fuel:
181 kg
How should Item 19 (ENDURANCE) be completed on the ICAO flight plan?
a) 0240
b) 0252
c) 0249
d) 0204
The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC; estimated take-off time
1825 UTC. The flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:
a) 1715 UTC
b) 1755 UTC
c) 1745 UTC
d) 1725 UTC
When a pilot fills in an ATC flight plan he must indicate the wake turbulence category.
This category is a function of which mass?
a) Maximum certified landing mass
b) Estimated take-off mass
c) Actual take-off mass
d) Maximum certified take-off mass
When an ATC flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight the flight plan should
be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by:
a) 45 minutes or more
b) 60 minutes or more
c) 30 minutes or more
d) 90 minutes or more
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
When an ATC flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes points
included in Item 15 (ROUTE) should not normally be at intervals of more than:
a) 15 minutes flying time or 100 km
b) 20 minutes flying time or 150 km
c) 30 minutes flying time or 370 km
d) 1 hour flying time or 500 km
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
When completing an ATC flight plan, a TOTAL EET (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes
should be entered as:
a) 0115
b) 1H55
c) 0155
d) 115M
When completing an ATC flight plan for a European destination clock times are to be
expressed in:
a) local mean time
b) local standard time
c) Central European Time (CET)
d) UTC
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
When filling in Item 9 (TYPE OF AIRCRAFT) of the flight plan, if there is no aircraft
designator listed what should the entry be?
a) a descriptive abbreviation of the aircraft type
b) XXXX followed by an entry at Item 18 (OTHER INFORMATION)
c) None
d) ZZZZ followed by an entry at Item 18 (OTHER INFORMATION)
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
When submitting a flight plan before flight, Item 13 (DEPARTURE TIME) is?
a) The time at which the aircraft leaves the parking area
b) Take-off time
c) The time at which the flight plan is filed
d) The time the aircraft is overhead the first reporting point
You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted that
you will deviate from the ATS route on passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London.
The airway clearance reads "Cleared to London via flight plan route". Which of these
statements is correct?
a) The filed deviation is not accepted
b) You will get a separate clearance for the deviation
c) The route according to the flight plan is accepted
d) It is not allowed to file such a flight plan
Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form
You have a mode A transponder (4 digits 4096 codes) and mode C. Item 10
EQUIPMENT) of the flight plan should show:
a) P
b) S
c) C
d) A
You have filed a flight plan for an uncontrolled flight and suffer a delay prior to departure.
After how long a delay must you restate your OBT?
a) 30 min
b) 40 min
c) 60 min
d) 90 min
You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled
airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC?
a) 20 min
b) 45 min
c) 10 min
d) 30 min
Meteorology
Refer to Annex B
Which describes the worst hazard if any that could be associated with the type of feature
at 38°N 015°E?
a) Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band
b) Reduced visibility
c) There is no hazard
d) Engine flame out and windscreen damage
Refer to Annex B
The surface weather system over England (53°N 002°W) is:
a) a warm front moving southeast
b) a depression moving north
c) a cold front moving east
d) an occluded front moving east
Refer to Annex B
Which best describes the significant cloud if any forecast for the area southwest of
BODO (67°N 014°E)?
a) Nil
b) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100 tops FL180
c) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100 tops FL180
d) 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100 tops FL180
Refer to Annex B
Which best describes be maximum intensity of icing if any at FL150 in the vicinity of
BUCHAREST (45°N 026°E)?
a) Nil
b) Light
c) Moderate
d) Severe
Refer to Annex B
Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT if any forecast for FL330 over
BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E)?
a) Nil
b) Light
c) Moderate
d) Severe
Refer to Annex B
The maximum wind velocity shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is:
a) 300/100
b) 300/140
c) 290/110
d) 300/160
Refer to Annex B
The wind velocity over ITALY is:
a) a maximum of 100 kts at FL 380
b) 110 kts at FL380; maximum velocity not shown on chart
c) a maximum of 110 kts at FL380
d) a maximum of 130 kts at FL 340
Refer to Annex C
The wind velocity at 50°N 040°E is:
a) 200/70
b) 020/70
c) 020/90
d) 350/80
Refer to Annex C
The wind velocity at 60°N 015°W is:
a) 110/150
b) 330/150
c) 290/150
d) 290/185
Refer to Annex C
The approximate mean wind component at Mach 0.78 along course 270°T at 50°N from
000° to 010°W is:
a) 40 kts headwind component
b) 60 kts headwind component
c) 25 kts tailwind component
d) 35 kts tailwind component
Refer to Annex C
What is the ISA temperature deviation over 50°N 010°W?
a) +3°C
b) -3°C
c) +9°C
d) +13°C
Refer to Annex C
The wind velocity at 40°N 040°E is:
a) 330/55
b) 330/75
c) 150/75
d) 300/75
Refer to Annex E
What minimum visibility is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON HEATHROW (EGLL)?
a) 1,500 m
b) 2,200 m
c) 5,000 m
d) 10,000 m
Refer to Annex C
What mean temperature is likely on a course of 360°T from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E?
a) -47°C
b) -49°C
c) -50°C
d) -46°C
Refer to Annex B
Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing
and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53°N 010°W) to BERLIN (53°N
013°E)?
a) FL 210
b) FL 250
c) None
d) FL 290
Refer to Annex G
What mean temperature is likely on a course of 270°T from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N?
a) -48°C
b) -54°C
c) -52°C
d) -50°C
Refer to Annex G
The wind velocity at 60°N 015°W is:
a) 300/60
b) 300/80
c) 330/60
d) 115/60
Refer to Annex B
The surface system over BUCHAREST (44°N 026°E) is a:
a) warm front moving north
b) cold front moving west
c) stationary occluded front
d) cold front moving east
Refer to Annex B
Over LONDON (51°N 000°E/W) the lowest FL listed which is affected by CAT is:
a) FL 270
b) FL 360
c) FL 310
d) FL 230
Refer to Annex F
What lowest cloud conditions are forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300
UTC?
a) 3 to 4 oktas at 800 ft
b) 5 to 7 oktas at 400 ft
c) 5 to 7 oktas at 800 ft
d) 3 to 4 oktas at 400 ft
Refer to Annex F
The forecast period covered by both the PARIS/CHARLES DE GAULLE TAFs totals:
a) 27 hours
b) 18 hours
c) 9 hours
d) 20 hours
Refer to Annex F
The surface wind velocity at PARIS/CHARLES DE GAULLE at 1330 UTC was:
a) 180/12
b) 300/05
c) 270/04
d) 270/08
Refer to Annex F
Which best describes the weather if any at LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC?
a) Nil
b) Fog
c) Frequent rain showers
d) Light rain associated with thunderstorms
Refer to Annex F
Which is the heaviest type of precipitation if any forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at
1000 UTC?
a) Light rain
b) Nil
c) Rain showers
d) Heavy rain associated with thunderstorms
Refer to Annex F
What maximum surface wind speed is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600
UTC?
a) 25 kts
b) 5 kts
c) 10 kts
d) 30 kts
Refer to Annex F
What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES DE GAULLE at 2100 UTC?
a) 10 km
b) 8,000 m
c) 6,000 m
d) 2,000 m
Refer to Annex F
Which best describes the weather if any forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at
0400 UTC?
a) Rain associated with thunderstorms
b) CAVOK
c) Patches of fog
d) Mist and/or fog
Refer to Annex D
Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing if any at FL160 in the vicinity of
BERLIN (53°N 013°E)?
a) Severe
b) Light
c) Nil
d) Moderate
A METAR reads:
SA1430 35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024=
Which of the following information is contained in this METAR?
a) Temperature / dewpoint
b) Period of validity
c) Runway in use
d) Day / month
Refer to Annex F
What is the total time for which the weather is forecast at BIRMINGHAM?
a) 28 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 18 hours
d) 9 hours
Refer to Annex F
What is the lowest visibility forecast for BIRMINGHAM at 280800Z?
a) 5,000 m
b) 2,500 m
c) 50 km
d) 10 km or more
Refer to Annex F
What is the earliest time, if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/
CARTHAGE?
a) Nil
b) 1800 UTC
c) 0800 UTC
d) 1300 UTC
Refer to Annex B
In the vicinity of Paris (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is at about:
a) FL 340
b) FL 400
c) FL 350
d) FL 380
Refer to Annex B
In the vicinity of WARSAW (52°N 020°E) the tropopause is at about:
a) FL 400
b) FL 330
c) FL 350
d) FL 370
Refer to Annex B
Over PRAGUE (50°N 014°E) the lowest FL listed which is affected by CAT is:
a) FL 350
b) FL 270
c) FL 300
d) FL 400
Refer to Annex B
What is the most likely icing to be found at FL180 overhead CASABLANCA (33°N
008°W)?
a) Moderate
b) Severe
c) Slight
d) Light
Refer to Annex C
The approximate mean wind component along the course 180°T from 50°N to 40°N at
020°E is:
a) 60 kts tailwind
b) 55 kts headwind
c) 40 kts tailwind
d) 90 kts tailwind
Refer to Annex C
The wind velocity at 60°N 040°E is:
a) 085/60
b) 040/60
c) 265/60
d) 230/60
Refer to Annex C
What is the ISA deviation over 60°N 000°E/W?
a) -10°C
b) +2°C
c) +10°C
d) -55°C
TAF EDDH ISSUED AT 042200
EDDH 0624 21010KT CAVOK BECMG 0810 9999 SCT025 SCT040
PROB30 TEMPO 1218 7000 -RADZ BKN012 BECMG 1620 7000 BKN020
TEMPO 1824 4000 RADZ BKN005
What are the lowest cloud conditions forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH)?
a) 5 to 7 oktas at 2,000 ft
b) 5 to 7 oktas at 500 ft
c) 3 to 4 oktas at 500 ft
d) 5 to 7 oktas at 1,200 ft