FLIGHT PLANNING QUESTION BANK General An aircraft flying at 7,500 ft is cleared to descend to be level at 1,000 ft 6 nm before reaching a beacon. If ground speed is 156 kts, and ROD is 800 ft/min, how many miles before the beacon should descent begin? a) 11.1 nm b) 30.2 nm c) 27.1 nm d) 15.0 nm An aircraft is in the cruise at FL155 with a TAS of 260 kts. The pilot plans a 500 ft/min ROD to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2,000 ft QNH 1030. Assuming a constant TAS, standard temperature and no wind, what is the minimum descent from the MAN VOR to start the descent? a) 120 nm b) 130 nm c) 140 nm d) 110 nm An aircraft is in the cruise at FL 095 with an IAS of 155 kts. The pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2,000 FT QNH 1030. Assuming a constant TAS, standard temperature and no wind, what is the minimum descent from the MAN VOR to start the descent? a) 38 nm use crp b) 45 nm c) 48 nm d) 41 nm ATC require a descent from FL270 to FL160 to be level 6 nm before a VOR. If the rate of descent is 800 ft/min, and mean groundspeed is 256 kts, how far out from the VOR must descent be started? a) 65 nm b) 144 nm c) 150 nm d) 59 nm After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kts TAS with a 20 kts tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after: a) 10 min 40 sec s=vxt b) 16 min =(100-20)(16/60) c) 20 min d) 24 min =21nm t=d/v =21/(100+20) =10.5 min therefore, 10.5 + 16 =26.5 ~ 24min An aircraft flies at a TAS of 380 kts. It flies from A to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 nm. When going from A to B it experiences a headwind component of 60 kts. The wind remains constant. The duration of the flight will be: a) 2 hr 10 min b) 2 hr 42 min c) 2 hr 35 min d) 3 hr 00 min An aircraft is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is this possible? a) Yes, but only with permission from ATC b) No, only ATC can order you to do this c) No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan d) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase "cancelling my IFR flight” During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 nm from the ground station and at flight level 350. The frequency to be used is: a) 5649 kHz b) 123.9 MHz c) 17286 kHz d) 11336 kHz The flight planning chart for an aircraft states that the time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is 36 mins and the distance travelled is 157 nm (zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind component of 60 kts? a) 193 nm b) 128 nm c) 157 nm d) 228 nm Given: Track 017°T, W/V 340/30, and TAS 420 kts, what is the wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)? a) WCA +2° ; GS 416 kts b) WCA -2° ; GS 396 kts c) WCA +2° ; GS 396 kts d) WCA -2° ; GS 426 kts If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number of minutes is: a) 10 b) 45 c) 30 d) 15 On a given path it is possible to choose between four flight levels (FLs) each associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kts FL 330 M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC = -5 kts FL 290 M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kts FL 270 M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0 The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is: a) FL 370 b) FL 330 c) FL 290 d) FL 270 You are flying at FL330, M0.84, OAT -48°C, and headwind 52 kts. The time is 1338 UTC. ATC clear you to be at 30°W (570 nm away) at 1500 UTC. What Mach No is required? a) 0.76 b) 0.84 c) 0.72 d) 0.80 You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1025 and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight level you must fly at is: a) FL 80 b) FL 75 c) FL 70 d) FL 90 002-003 The AIP From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR)? a) SIGMET b) ATCC broadcasts c) AIP d) NOTAMs From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information regarding customs and health formalities? a) NOTAMs b) NAV/RAD charts c) AIP d) ATCC From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known short unserviceability of a VOR, TACAN and NDB? a) NOTAM b) SIGMET c) AIP d) ATCC broadcasts From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when temporary danger areas are active? a) Only the AIP b) NOTAMs and AIP c) SIGMET d) RAD/NAV charts 004-006 VFR Flight Planning, Altimetry & JEPP VFR An aircraft following a 215° true track, with variation 3°W, must fly over a 10,600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1,500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close by which is almost at sea-level is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C the minimum flight level will be: a) FL 130 b) FL 150 c) FL 120 d) FL 140 Given: FL 75 Departure aerodrome elevation 1,500 ft QNH 1023 Temperature ISA (Assuming 1 hPa = 30 ft) How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? a) 7,800 ft b) 6,300 ft c) 6,000 ft d) 6,600 ft According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8,500 ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The QNH given by a met. station at an elevation of 4,000ft is 1003 hPa. What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA? a) 8,200 ft do oat method b) 8,500 ft c) 1,800 ft d) 8,800 ft An aircraft climbs from an airfield elevation 1,500 ft QNH 1023 hPa to FL75. What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1 hPa = 30ft.) a) 7,800 ft b) 6,300 ft c) 6,600 ft d) 6,000 ft An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235°M, minimum safe altitude is 7,800 ft. With a QNH of 995 and temperature at ISA, the minimum flight level you must fly is: a) FL100 b) FL 80 c) FL 90 d) FL 85 Excluding RVSM, an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semicircular height rules on a course of 180°M is: a) FL 100 b) FL 95 c) FL 105 d) FL 90 Excluding RVSM an appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a course of 200°M is: a) FL 290 b) FL 320 c) FL 300 d) FL 310 Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N 008°57'E). What is the magnetic course and distance? a) 287°M 60 nm b) 287°M 41 nm c) 252°M 41 nm d) 108°M 60 nm Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying from SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N 009°46'E). What is the magnetic course and distance? a) 267°M 22 nm b) 086°M 32 nm c) 093°M 41 nm d) 086°M 22 nm Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N 010°53'E). What is the magnetic course and distance? a) 282°M 56 nm b) 078°M 82 nm c) 102°M 56 nm d) 102°M 82 nm Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying from PEITING (47°48.0'N 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N 010°13.0'E). What is the distance? a) 36 nm b) 46 nm c) 58 nm d) 32 nm Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N 010°13.0'E). What is the magnetic course? a) 243°M b) 257°M c) 063°M d) 077°M Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N 010°13.0'E). What is the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 nm left and 5 nm right of the course in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles? a) 5,500 ft b) 5,300 ft c) 6,900 ft d) 6,600 ft Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N 008°24.0'E). What is the distance? a) 46 nm b) 24 km c) 24 nm d) 28 nm Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N 008°24.0'E). What is the magnetic course? a) 185° b) 176° c) 356° d) 004° Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N 008°24.0'E). What is the minimum altitude within a corridor 5 nm left and 5 nm right of the course in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles? a) 3,900 ft b) 1,500 ft c) 4,200 ft d) 2,900 ft Refer to Chart ED-6 What is the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS? a) 135.775 MHz b) 126.125 kHz c) 112.250 MHz d) 126.125 MHz Refer to Chart ED-6 What is the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET? a) 127.20 MHz b) 127.20 kHz c) 118.10 MHz d) 128.525 MHz Refer to Chart ED-6 What is the name and frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N 010°14'E)? a) FRANKFURT INFORMATION 128.95 MHz b) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 126.95 MHz c) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 120.65 MHz d) MEMMINGEN INFORMATION 122.1 MHz Refer to Chart ED-6 Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N 008°39'E? a) VOR/DME b) NDB c) VORTAC d) VOR Refer to Chart ED-6 Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N 007°34'E? a) TACAN b) VOR/DME c) NDB d) VOR Refer to Chart ED-6 Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N 009°20'E? a) VOR b) NDB c) TACAN d) VOR/DME Given: Track 215°T Mountain elevation 11,600 ft Airfield QNH 1035 Required terrain clearance 1,500 ft Temperature ISA -15°C Which of the following is the minimum flight level, considering the temperature? a) FL 150 b) FL 120 c) FL 140 d) FL 110 Refer to Chart ED-6 You are at position 47°59'N 010°15'E. Which Flight Information Service should you contact? a) MEMMINGEM 135.60 MHz b) MEMMINGEN 117.20 MHz c) MÜNCHEN 131.22 MHz d) MÜNCHEN 126.95 MHz Refer to Chart ED-6 An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position TANGO (48°37'N 009°16'E) at FL55 and on a track of 090°M. The distance from TANGO is 20 nm. The navigation aid and frequency at TANGO is: a) VORTAC 112.50 MHz b) VORTAC 112.50 kHz c) VOR 112.50 MHz with no DME d) DME 112.50 MHz Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying from position ERBACH (48°21'N 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N 008°57'E). What is the magnetic course and distance? a) 287°M 41 nm b) 287°M 60 nm c) 252°M 41 nm d) 108°M 60 nm Refer to Chart ED-6 You are flying from position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N 009°46'E). What is the magnetic course and distance? a) 086°M 22 nm b) 093°M 41 nm c) 086°M 32 nm d) 267°M 22 nm Refer to Chart ED-6 What is the frequency of the GRENCHEN VOR at 47°11'N 007°25'E? a) 120.1 MHz b) Channel 23 c) 108.65 MHz d) 326 kHz Refer to Chart ED-6 What is the frequency of ZURICH Volmet? a) 118.1 MHz b) 128.525 MHz c) 127.2 MHz d) 127.2 kHz Refer to Chart ED-6 GRENCHEN LSZG aerodrome (47°11'N 007°25'E) has a tower frequency of 120.10 MHz. What does the "(V)" after the frequency indicate? a) Available for VFR flight only b) Only to be used during daylight c) Available on request d) VDF available Refer to Chart ED-6 What is the frequency for Stuttgart ATIS? a) 126.12 MHz b) 115.45 MHz c) 128.95 MHz d) 118.60 MHz Refer to Chart ED-6 What navigation or communications facilities are at 48°55'N 009°20'E? a) VOR/DME b) NDB c) TACAN d) VORTAC Refer to Chart ED-6 What is the navaid at 48°30'N 007°34'E? a) VOR/DME b) TACAN c) NDB d) VORTAC/NDB Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aerodrome Directory Greece 7-3 What is the relationship between local time and UTC in winter and summer? Winter Summer a) UTC-2 = LT UTC-3 = LT b) LT-3 = UTC LT-2 = UTC c) UTC+2 = LT UTC+3 = LT d) LT+3 = UTC LT+3 = UTC Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Athinai 29-1 What is the call sign and frequency for start-up? a) Approach 119.10 MHz b) Tower 118.10 MHz c) ATIS 123.40 MHz d) Ground 121.70 MHz Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen What is the maximum wing span of an aircraft using the eastern apron and taxiway? a) 10 m b) 20 ft c) 20 m d) 23 m Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen 10-1V What frequency is the Aberdeen ATSU on? a) 135.17 MHz b) 126.25 MHz c) 119.87 MHz d) 114.30 MHz Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen 10-1V What is the max ground elevation within the CTR? a) 2,105 ft b) 1,733 m c) 1,245 ft d) 1,733 ft Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Aberdeen 19-1 What frequencies could you receive ATIS when on the ground? a) 114.30 MHz only b) 121.85 MHz only c) 114.30 MHz or 121.85 MHz d) 121.70 MHz Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Athinai Hellinikon 29-1 What is the variation? a) 3°W b) Not shown on chart c) 6°E d) 3°E Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, De Kooy 19-1 What is the frequency and QDM of the ILS for runway 22? a) 109.70 MHz 216°T b) 109.70 MHz 216°M c) 119.10 MHz 216°T d) 109.70 Khz 220°M Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, De Kooy 19-1 What is the minimum altitude over the quiet sector? a) 32800 ft b) 3,500 ft c) 1,500 ft d) 6,500 ft Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Esbjerg 19-2 What are the dimensions of runway 08/26? a) 8,530 m by 45 m b) 8,530 ft by 45 ft c) 2,600 m by 45 m d) 2,600 ft by 45 ft Refer to the Jeppesen VFR Section, Sabadell 19-1 What is the frequency of the Barcelona ATIS? a) 120.80 MHz b) 738 Khz c) 119.10 MHz d) 118.65 MHz 007-008 Fuel Planning and Monitoring When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight one must take into account: 1 - the wind 2 - foreseeable airborne delays 3 - other weather forecasts 4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1,3 b) 1,2,3 c) 2,4 d) 1,2,3,4 The fuel burn is 200 kg/h with a SG of 0.8. If the SG is 0.75 the fuel burn will be: a) 200 kg/hr b) 267 kg/hr c) 213 kg/hr d) 188 kg/hr The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a SG of 0.80. If the SG is 0.75 the fuel burn will be: a) 206 l/hr b) 220 l/hr c) 176 l/hr d) 235 l/hr At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12 USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable? a) 37.9 gph b) 21.3 gph c) 30.3 gph d) 33.0 gph A turbine-engined aircraft burns fuel at 200 gals per hour (gph) with an SG of 0.8. What is the fuel flow if the SG is 0.75? a) 188 gph b) 200 gph c) 208 gph d) 213 gph For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 2h 42min; reserve fuel at any time should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel; taxy fuel: 9 kg; block fuel: 136 kg. How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? a) 23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel b) 33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel c) 25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel d) 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time: 3h 06min; reserve fuel at any time should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip fuel; taxy fuel: 8 kg; block fuel: 118 kg. How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? a) 39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel b) 39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel c) 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel d) 30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield the aeroplane must carry in addition to contingency reserves additional fuel of: a) 7,380 kg b) 8,120 kg 4060x2 =8,120 c) 1,845 kg d) 3,500 kg A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for: a) 30 minutes hold at 1,500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation when no alternate is required b) 15 minutes hold at 1,500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation c) 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield d) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines the final reserve should be: a) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed b) fuel to fly for 2 hours c) fuel to fly for 1 hour at holding speed d) fuel to fly for 45 minutes An aeroplane has the following masses: Estimated landing weight 50,000 kg Trip fuel 4,300 kg Contingency fuel 215 kg Alternate fuel (final reserve included) 2,100kg Taxi Fuel 500 kg Block fuel 7,115 kg Before departure the captain orders to make the block fuel 9,000 kg. The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: a) 6,185 kg b) 4,300 kg c) 9,000 kg d) 6,400 kg During a flight the fuel indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100 lb after 38 mins. The total amount of fuel at departure was 160 lb. For the alternate fuel 30 lb is necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lb. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lb. If the fuel flow remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining fuel? a) 16 mins b) 44 mins c) 4 mins d) 63 mins During a VFR flight at a navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 USG. The reserve fuel is 12 USG. According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h 35min. What is the highest acceptable rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip? a) 33.0 USG/hour b) 21.3 USG/hour c) 30.3 USG/hour d) 37.9 USG/hour Following in-flight depressurisation a turbine powered aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be: a) at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the event that weather conditions so require b) at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying time c) at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time d) laid down by the operator with the quantity being specified in the operating manual For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows: Flight time 2 hr 42 min. The reserve fuel at any time should be not less than 30% of trip fuel remaining. Block fuel 136 kg. Taxi fuel 9 kg. How many kg of fuel should remain after 2 hours flight? a) 33 kg trip and no reserve b) 23 kg trip and 10 kg reserve c) 25 kg trip and 8 kg reserve d) 33 kg trip and 10 kg reserve Given: Dry operating mass (DOM) 33,510 kg Traffic Load 7,600 kg Final reserve fuel 983 kg Alternate fuel 1,100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg The estimated landing mass at alternate should be: a) 42,312 kg b) 42,093 kg c) 42,210 kg d) 42,195 kg Given: Dry operating mass (DOM) 33,510 kg Traffic Load 7,600 kg Trip fuel (TF) 2,040 kg Final reserve fuel 983 kg Alternate fuel 1,100 kg Contingency fuel 5% of trip fuel Which of the listed estimated masses is correct? a) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295 kg b) Estimated take-off mass 43,295 kg c) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193 kg d) Estimated take-off mass 45,233 kg Given: Fuel density 078 kg/l Dry operating mass 33,500 kg Traffic load 10,600 kg Maximum allowable take-off mass 66,200 kg Taxi fuel 200 kg Tank capacity 22,500 Litres The maximum possible take-off fuel is: a) 17,550 kg b) 17,350 kg c) 21,900 kg d) 22,100 kg In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: a) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B b) 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A c) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome A d) 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B A multi-engined aircraft is on an IFR flight: Given: Trip fuel 65 USG Contingency 5% trip Alternate fuel including final reserve 17 USG Useable fuel at departure 93 USG At a point halfway to destination fuel consumed is 40 USG Assuming fuel consumption is unchanged which of the following is correct? a) Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach the destination b) At departure Reserve Fuel was 28 USG c) At destination required reserves remain intact d) Remaining fuel is insufficient to reach destination with reserves intact The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane: Standard taxi fuel: 600 kg. Average cruise consumption: 10,000 kg/h. Holding fuel consumption at 1,500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8,000 kg/h. Flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours Fuel for diversion to alternate: 10,200 kg. The minimum ramp fuel load is: a) 74,800 kg b) 77,200 kg c) 77,800 kg d) 79,800 kg The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5,352 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4,380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel. What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off? a) 13,220 kg b) 14,500 kg c) 13,370 kg d) 13,000 kg The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is: a) 60 min b) 30 min c) variable with wind velocity d) 45 min The still air distance in the climb is 189 NAM and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt headwind? a) 189 nm b) 193 nm c) 174 nm d) 203 nm A sector distance is 450 nm long TAS is 460 kts Wind component is 50 kts tailwind What is the still air distance? a) 499 NAM b) 406 NAM c) 414 NAM d) 511 NAM If a decision point procedure is applied for flight planning: a) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision point b) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute alternate c) the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the decision point d) a destination alternate is not required Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve is included). Assume the ground speed on this trip is constant. When half the distance has been flown, the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is it necessary to divert to a nearby alternate? a) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary because it is allowed to calculate the fuel without the reserve b) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary because the remaining fuel is not sufficient c) diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary because the reserve fuel has not been used completely d) diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary unless the captain decides to continue on his own responsibility The purpose of the decision point procedure is: a) to increase the safety of the flight b) to reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the traffic load c) to increase the amount of extra fuel d) to reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is: a) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions b) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1,000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions c) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions d) fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1,500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions The still air distance in the climb is 189 NAM and time 30 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kts head wind? a) 193 nm b) 174 nm c) 203 nm d) 188 nm Turbo-jet ac flying to an isolated airfield with no destination alternative On top of taxy, trip, and contingency fuel, what other fuel is required? a) Greater of 45 mins + 15% of trip or 2 hours b) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption including Final Reserve c) 30 mins holding at 450m AAL d) 30 mins holding at 450m AMSL When using decision point procedure you reduce the: a) holding fuel by 30% b) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burn-off between decision point and destination c) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burn-off between the decision airport and destination d) reserve fuel from 10% down to 5% Decision Point Procedure is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel carried on a flight by: a) reducing trip distance b) reducing contingency fuel from 10% to 5% of trip fuel c) reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to destination d) reducing trip fuel to only that required from Decision Aerodrome to destination What is the purpose of Decision Point Procedure? a) Reduce landing mass to avoid stressing the aircraft b) Increase safety of the flight c) To assist in decision making at refuelling d) Carry minimum fuel to increase Traffic Load 009-011 SEP Refer to CAP697 SEP1 Fig 2.5 For a flight departing from MSL at 3,663lb cruising at FL80 at 2,300 RPM, with 20°C lean of peak EGT, in 40 kt headwind. What is the endurance? a) 4.75 hr b) 6.1 hr c) 5.3 hr d) 6.55 hr Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.1 Given: FL 75 OAT: +5°C During climb: average head wind component 20 kt Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3,650 lbs. What is the time and fuel to climb? a) 9 min. 3.3 USG b) 9 min. 2.7 USG c) 7 min. 2.6 USG d) 10 min. 3.6 USG Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.1 Given: FL 75 OAT: +5°C During climb: average head wind component 20 kts Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3,650 lbs. What is the still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM)? a) 18 NAM 15 NM b) 16 NAM 18 NM c) 18 NAM 13 NM d) 14 NAM 18 NM Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.1 Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs departure aerodrome pressure altitude 2500 ft OAT +10°C First cruising level: FL 140 OAT -5°C What is the time fuel and still air distance to climb? a) 22 min 6.7 USG 45 NAM b) 23 min 7.7 USG 50 NAM c) 24 min 7.7 USG 47 NAM d) 16.5 min 4.9 USG 35 NAM Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.4 Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3,663 lbs Fuel load 74 USG Take-off from MSL Headwind 40 kts Cruising altitude 8,000 ft Power setting full throttle 2,300 RPM, 20°C lean of peak EGT. What is the range? a) 547 NM b) 730 NM c) 633 NM d) 844 NM Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Fig 2.5 Given: FL 75 Lean mixture Full throttle 2,300 RPM Take-off fuel: 444 lbs Take-off from MSL What is the endurance in hours? a) 05:12 b) 05:20 c) 04:42 d) 05:23 Refer to CAP 697 SEP1 Table 2.2.3 Given: FL 75 OAT +10°C Lean mixture, 2,300 RPM What is the fuel flow and TAS? a) 68.5 GPH 160 kts b) 11.6 GPH 143 kts c) 71.1 GPH 143 kts d) 11.6 GPH 160 kts 012-014 MEP Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.1 A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3,000 ft) to another in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1) Cruising level will be FL 110 Temperature at FL 110 is ISA -10°C The temperature at the departure aerodrome is -1°C What is the fuel to climb with mixture rich? a) 12 USG b) 3 USG c) 6 USG d) 9 USG Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.2 A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1) Cruising level will be 11,000ft. Outside air temperature at cruise level is -15°C Usable fuel is 123 USG Power is set to economic cruise What is the range in nm with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power? a) 610 nm b) 852 nm c) 752 nm d) 602 nm Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.3 A flight is to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1) For the fuel calculations, take 5 USG for the taxy and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min Power setting is 45% 2,600 RPM Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel FL 100 Temperature -5°C What is the minimum block fuel? a) 60 USG b) 42 USG c) 47 USG d) 37 USG for this kind of questions, refer to goodnotes bgs questions section Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.3 A flight is to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 USG for the taxi and an additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min Power setting is 65% 2,500 RPM Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel FL 120. Temperature 1°C. What is the minimum block fuel? a) 118 USG b) 86 USG c) 76 USG d) 91 USG Refer to CAP 697 MEP1 Fig 3.6 A flight is to be made to an airport pressure altitude 3,000 ft in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1) Forecast OAT for the airport is -1°C Cruising level will be FL 110 where OAT is -10°C What is the still air descent distance for: 145 KIAS, Rate of descent 1,000 ft/min, Gear and flaps up? a) 25 nm b) 36 nm c) 20 nm d) 29 nm 018-020 MRJT Simplified Planning Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1 PT2 Find the optimum altitude, given: Cruise mass 50,000 kg M0.78 a) maximum operating altitude b) 36,200 ft c) 36,700 ft d) 35,500 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1 Find the optimum altitude, given: Cruise mass 54,000 kg Long range cruise or M0.74 a) 35,300 ft b) maximum operating altitude c) 34,500 ft d) 33,800 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 Find the short distance cruise altitude, given: Brake release mass 40,000 kg; Temperature ISA +20°C; Trip distance 150 NAM a) 30,000 ft b) 25,000 ft c) 27,500 ft d) 21,000 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 Find the short distance cruise altitude, given: Brake release mass 45,000 kg ; Temperature ISA +20°C; Trip distance 50 NAM a) 12,500 ft b) 7,500 ft c) 11,000 ft d) 10,000 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1b Given: Estimated ZFM 50 tonnes; Estimated landing mass at alternate 52 tonnes; Final reserve fuel 2 tonnes; Alternate fuel 1 tonnes; Flight to destination distance 720 nm; Course 030°T; W/V 340/30; Long range cruise at FL 330; Outside air temperature -30°C What is the trip fuel and time? a) 4,750 kg 02:00 b) 4,400 kg 02:05 c) 4,800 kg 01:45 d) 4,600 kg 02:05 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c PT2 For a flight of 2,800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component 15 kts Temperature ISA +15°C Cruise altitude 35,000 ft Landing mass 50,000 kg What is the trip fuel and time? a) 16,200 kg 06:20 b) 20,000 kg 07:00 c) 17,000 kg 06:10 d) 17,600 kg 06:50 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c For a flight of 1,900 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component 10 kts Temperature ISA -5°C Trip fuel available 15,000 kg Landing mass 50,000 kg What is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude) which may be planned ? a) 22,000 ft b) 14,000 ft c) 17,000 ft d) 10,000 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c For a flight of 2,000 ground nautical miles cruising at 30,000 ft within the limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kts will affect the trip time by approximately: a) +2.3% b) +5.3% c) -3.6% found in notes d) +7.6% Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c For a flight of 2,400 ground nautical miles the following apply: Temperature ISA -10°C Cruise altitude 29,000 ft Landing mass 45,000 kg Trip fuel available 16,000 kg What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted? a) 70 kts b) 15 kts c) 35 kts d) 0 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c For a flight of 2,800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind component 45 kts Temperature ISA -10°C Cruise altitude 29,000 ft Landing mass 55,000 kg What is the trip fuel and time? a) 16,000 kg 06:25 b) 18,000 kg 05:50 c) 17,100 kg 06:07 d) 20,000 kg 06:40 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately: a) +5% b) +8% c) -5% d) -7% Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.3c Given: Ground distance to destination aerodrome 1,600 nm Head wind component 50 kts Cruise FL 330 at 0.78 Mach ISA Deviation +20°C Landing mass 55,000 kg What is the trip fuel and time? a) 12,000 kg 03:51 b) 11,400 kg 04:12 c) 11,600 kg 04:15 d) 12,400 kg 04:00 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 For a flight of 2,400 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind component 25 kts Temperature ISA -10°C Brake release mass 66,000 kg What is the trip fuel and time? a) 14,600kg 05:45 b) 14,000kg 05:35 c) 15,000kg 06:00 d) 15,800kg 06:20 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 PT2 For a flight of 2,800 ground nautical miles the following apply: Head wind component 20 kts Temperature ISA +15°C Brake release mass 64,700 kg What is the trip fuel and time? a) 17,000 kg 06:45 b) 15,800 kg 06:15 c) 18,400 kg 07:00 d) 16,200 kg 06:20 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 For a flight of 3,500 ground nautical miles the following apply: Tail wind component 50 kts Temperature ISA +10°C Brake release mass 65,000 kg What is the trip fuel and time? a) 18,100 kg 07:20 b) 19,000 kg 07:45 c) 21,800 kg 09:25 d) 15,800 kg 06:00 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 Given a trip time of about 9 hours within the limits of the data given, a temperature decrease of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately: a) +3% b) -4% c) -10% d) + 7% Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 Given: Head wind component 50 kts Temperature ISA +10°C Brake release mass 65,000 kg Trip fuel available 18,000 kg What is the maximum possible trip distance? a) 3,480 nm b) 3,100 nm c) 2,740 nm d) 2,540 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 Given: Tail wind component 10 kts Temperature ISA +10°C Brake release mass 63,000 kg Trip fuel available 20,000 kg What is the maximum possible trip distance? a) 3,250 nm b) 3,740 nm c) 3,500 nm d) 3,640 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 Given: Temperature ISA +15°C Brake release mass 62,000 kg Trip time 05:20 What is the trip fuel? a) 13,500 kg b) 13,000 kg c) 13,800 kg d) 13,200 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 PT2 Given: Distance to alternate 450 nm Landing mass at alternate 45,000 kg Tail wind component: 50 kts What is the alternate fuel required? a) 3,050 kg b) 2,750 kg c) 2,900 kg d) 2,500 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 Given: Dry operating mass 35,500 kg Traffic load 14,500 kg Final reserve fuel 1,200 kg Distance to alternate 95 nm Tail wind component 10 kts What is the fuel and time to the alternate? a) 1,000 kg 40 min b) 800 kg 24 min c) 800 kg 0.4 hr d) 1,000 kg 24 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 Given: Dry operating mass 35 500 kg Estimated load 14 500 kg Final reserve fuel 1200 kg Distance to alternate 95 nm Track 219°T Head wind component 10 kts What is the fuel and time to the alternate? a) 800 kg 24 min b) 1,100 kg 44 min c) 1,100 kg 25 min d) 800 kg 40 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 In order to find alternate fuel and time to alternate the Aeroplane Operating Manual shall be entered with: a) distance in nautical miles (nm); wind component; zero fuel mass b) distance in nautical air miles (NAM); wind component; landing mass at alternate c) distance in nautical miles (nm); wind component; landing mass at alternate d) distance in nautical miles (nm) wind; component; dry operating mass plus holding fuel Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate: 400 nm Landing mass at alternate: 50,000 kg Head wind component: 25 kts What is the alternate fuel require? a) 2,650 kg b) 2,900 kg c) 2,550 kg d) 2,800 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 The fuel required for 30 minutes holding in a racetrack pattern at 1,500 ft pressure altitude and mean gross mass 45,000 kg is: a) 1,310 kg b) 1,090 kg c) 2,180 kg d) 1,010 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 PT2 The fuel required for 45 minutes holding in a racetrack pattern at 5,000 ft pressure altitude and mean gross mass 47,000 kg is: a) 1,635 kg b) 1,090 kg c) 1,125 kg d) 1,690 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 Given: Twin jet aeroplane Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50,000 kg Elevation at destination aerodrome 3,500 ft Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft What is the final reserve fuel? a) 1,150 kg b) 2,300 kg c) 1,180 kg d) 2,360 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 Given: Twin jet aeroplane Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50,000 kg Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52,525 kg Alternate elevation MSL Destination elevation 1,500 ft What is the final reserve fuel and corresponding time? a) 1,180 kg 30 min b) 2,360 kg 30 min c) 1,180 kg 45 min d) 2,360 kg 01 h 00 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 Given: Dry operating mass 35,500 kg Estimated load 12,000 kg Contingency approach and landing fuel 2,500 kg Elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft What is the final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and the elevation which is relevant? a) 2,360 kg destination elevation b) 1,180 kg alternate elevation c) 1,180 kg destination elevation d) 2,360 kg alternate elevation Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 The final reserve fuel taken from the holding fuel planning table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters: a) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps up, maximum range speed b) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps down, maximum range speed c) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps up, minimum drag airspeed d) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass, flaps down, minimum drag airspeed Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Paragraph 2.1, Fig 4.2 and Table 4.1 PT2 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL 310 Cruise mass 53,000 kg What is the fuel mileage penalty for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given FL? a) 0% b) 10% c) 1% d) 4% Refer to Jeppesen Chart E(HI)4 and CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig4.3.2a Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin jet aeroplane Preplanning: Power setting M0.74 Planned flight level FL 280 The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50,000 kg The trip distance used for calculation is 200 nm The wind from Paris to London is 280/40 What is the estimated trip fuel? a) 1,740 kg b) 1,900 kg c) 1,450 kg d) 1,550 kg to figure out whether its a head or tail wind, just imagine it visually a flight from paris to london. then conclude! Refer to Jeppesen Chart E(HI)4 and CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig4.3.6 Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 W002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin jet aeroplane The alternate airport is Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7) Preplanning: W/V from London to Manchester 250/30 Distance from London to Manchester 160 nm Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is about 50,000 kg What is the alternate fuel and the time? a) 1,300 kg 28 min b) 1,600 kg 36 min c) 1,450 kg 32 min d) 1,200 kg 26 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig4.3.6 In order to find alternate fuel and time to alternate the Aeroplane Operating Manual shall be entered with: a) distance in nm, wind component, zero fuel mass b) distance in nm, wind component, dry operating mass plus holding fuel c) distance in nm (NAM), wind component, landing mass at alternate d) distance in nm, wind component, landing mass at alternate Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 Tail wind component 10 kts ISA deviation -10°C Break release mass 63,000 kg Trip fuel overall 20,000 kg What is the maximum possible trip distance? a) 3,640 nm b) 3,250 nm c) 3,500 nm d) 3,740 nm Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.4 Given: Mean gross mass 47,000kg The fuel required for a 45 min holding at race track pattern at 5000ft is: a) 1,635 kg b) 1,125 kg c) 1,690 kg d) 1,090 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1 Trip distance 1,900 nm Fuel on board 15,000kg Landing weight 50,000kg What is the minimum pressure altitude for this flight? a) FL 250 b) FL 370 c) 10,000 ft d) 17,000 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1 and Table 4.1 Given: Cruise weight 53,000 kg LRC/ M0.74 at FL 310 What is the fuel penalty? a) 0% b) 4% c) 10% d) 1% Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.1 Given: Cruise mass 54,000 kg Long Range Cruise or 0.74 Mach What is the optimum altitude? a) 34,600 ft b) maximum operating altitude c) 35,300 ft d) 33,800 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 PT2 Given: Brake release mass 45,000 kg ISA deviation +20°C Trip distance 50 nm What is the short distance cruise altitude? a) 7,500 ft b) 10,000 ft c) 11,000 ft d) 12,500 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1 Given: Trip distance 2,800 nm Tail wind component 45 kts ISA deviation -10°C Cruise altitude 29,000 ft Landing mass 55,000 kg What is the trip fuel required and time? a) 18,000 kg 05:50 b) 16,000 kg 06:25 c) 17,100 kg 06:07 d) 20,000 kg 06:40 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.1c Given: Trip distance 2,400 nm ISA deviation -10°C Cruise altitude 29,000 ft Landing mass 45,000 kg Trip fuel available 16,000 kg What is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted? a) 0 b) 35 kts c) 70 kts d) 15 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.3a Given: Cruise M0.78 FL 280 Landing mass 50,000 kg Trip distance 200 nm Head wind component 30 kts What is the fuel required? a) 1,620 kg b) 1,740 kg c) 1,700 kg d) 1,970 kg Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.2a Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin jet aeroplane. M0.74 at FL 280 Landing mass 50,000 kg Trip distance 200 nm W/V from Paris to London 280/40 Mean track 340°T. What is the estimated trip fuel? a) 1,550 kg b) 1,900 kg c) 1,740 kg d) 1,450 kg Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.3c Given: Ground distance to destination 1600 nm Head wind component 50 kts Cruise M0.78 at FL 330 ISA deviation +20°C Landing mass 55,000 kg What is the fuel required and trip time? a) 11,400 kg 04:12 b) 12,250 kg 04:00 c) 11,600 kg 04:15 d) 12,000 kg 03:51 Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.5 Given: Head wind component 50 kts ISA deviation +10C Brake release mass 65,000 kg Trip fuel 18,000 kg What is the maximum possible trip distance? a) 3,480 nm b) 3,100 nm c) 2,540 nm d) 2,740 nm Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 Given: Distance to alternate 400 nm Landing mass at alternate 50,000 kg Head wind component 25 kts What is the alternate fuel required? a) 2,550 kg b) 2,900 kg c) 2,800 kg d) 2,650 kg Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.3.6 Given: DOM 35,500 kg Estimated load 14,500 kg Final reserve fuel 1,200 kg Distance to alternate 95 nm Average track 219°T Head wind component 10 kts What is the fuel and time to the alternate? a) 1,100 kg 44 min b) 1,100 kg 25 min c) 800 kg 24 min d) 800 kg 40 min 022-023 MRJT Detailed Planning Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2 PT2 Given: Brake release weight 45000 kg Trip distance 120 nm OAT = -45 ISA deviation -10°C Cruise at M0.74 What is the short distance cruise altitude and TAS? a) FL 370 424 kts b) FL 250 445 kts c) FL 250 435 kts d) FL 370 414 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Brake release mass: 58,000 kg Temperature: ISA +15 What is the fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4,000 ft to FL300? a) 1,400 kg b) 1,250 kg 1350kg - 100(from fuel adjustment table) c) 1,350 kg d) 1,450 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT Fig 4.5.1 PT2 Given: Aerodrome at MSL Cruise at FL280 ISA deviation -10C Brake release mass 57,500 kg What is the climb fuel required? a) 1,150 kg b) 1,100 kg c) 2,200 kg d) 1,138 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT Fig 4.5.1 Given: Track 340T; W/V 280/40kt; aerodrome elevation 387 ft; ISA -10°C; Brake release mass 52 000 kg; cruise at FL280. What are the climb fuel and time? Choose one answer. a) 1,100 kg 12 min b) 1,100 kg 15 min c) 1,000 kg 11 min d) 1,000 kg 10 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT 1 Fig 4.5.3.2 Find the specific range for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and using the following data: Mach 0.74 Cruise at FL 310 Gross mass 50,000 kg ISA conditions a) 176 NAM per 1,000 kg refer to notes b) 187 NAM per 1,000 kg c) 2,807 NAM per 1,000 kg d) 2,994 NAM per 1,000 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2 PT2 Given: Estimated take-off mass 57,000 kg; Ground distance 150 nm; Temperature ISA -10°C; Cruise at 0.74 Mach What is the cruise altitude and expected true air speed? a) 33,900 ft 420 kts b) 25,000 ft 435 kts c) 24,000 ft 445 kts d) 33,500 ft 430 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Estimated take-off mass 57,500 kg Initial cruise FL 280 Average temperature during climb ISA -10°C Average head wind component 18 kts What is the climb time? a) 14 min b) 13 min c) 11 min d) 15 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Mass at brake release 57,500 kg; Temperature ISA -10°C Average head wind component 16 kts Initial cruise FL 280 What is the climb fuel? a) 1,138 kg b) 1,238 kg c) 1,040 kg d) 1,387 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Brake release mass 62,000 kg Temperature ISA +15°C The fuel required for a climb from sea level to FL330 is: a) 1,650 kg b) 1,750 kg c) 1,800 kg d) 1,700 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Brake release mass 57,500 kg Initial level FL 280 Average temperature during climb ISA -10°C Average head wind component 18 kts What is the climb time for an en-route climb at 280/.74? a) 14 min b) 13 min c) 15 min d) 11 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Brake release mass 57,500 kg Temperature ISA -10°C Head wind component 16 kts Initial FL 280 What is the still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (nm) for the climb? a) 67 NAM 71 nm b) 62 NAM 59 nm c) 71 NAM 67 nm d) 59 NAM 62 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 PT2 Given: Brake release mass 64,000 kg Temperature ISA +10°C Airport elevation 3,000 ft What is the time, fuel, still air distance and TAS for an en-route climb 280/.74 to FL 350? a) 26 min 1,975 kg 157 NAM 399 kts b) 25 min 1,875 kg 148 NAM 391 kts c) 20 min 1,750 kg 117 NAM 288 kts d) 26 min 2,050 kg 157 NAM 399 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-Off Mass 52,000 kg Airport elevation 387 ft FL 280 use W/V 280/40 CRP ISA deviation -10°C Average course 340°T What is the time to TOC? a) 12 min b) 3 min c) 11 min d) 15 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-Off Mass (TOM) 52,000 kg Airport elevation 387 ft FL 280 W/V 280/40 ISA deviation -10°C Average course 340°T What is the fuel to TOC? a) 1,100 kg b) 1,500 lbs c) 1,000 lbs d) 1,000 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Distance A-B is 3,200 nm Long Range Cruise at FL 340 Look at the notes if ISA deviation +12°C dont know! Tail wind component 50 kts Gross mass at B: 55,000 kg What is the fuel required from A to B? a) 14,200 kg b) 17 500 kg c) 14,500 kg d) 17,800 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Distance C-D is 680nm Long Range Cruise at FL340 ISA deviation 0°C Head wind component 60 kts Gross mass at C: 44,700 kg What is the fuel required from C to D? a) 3,100 kg b) 3,700 kg c) 4,000 kg d) 3,400 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.3 Given: Distance B-C: 1,200 nm Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300 ISA deviation -14°C Tail wind component 40 kts Gross mass at B: 50,200 kg What is the fuel required from B to C? a) 7,300 kg b) 6,150 kg c) 5,850 kg d) 7,050 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL 330 OAT -63°C Gross mass 50,500 kg What is the TAS? a) 431 kts b) 418 kts c) 420 kts d) 433 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL280 is 48 min Cruise procedure is long range cruise (LRC) ISA deviation -5°C Take-off mass 56,000 kg Climb fuel 1,100 kg What is the distance in nautical air miles for this leg and fuel consumption? a) 345 NAM 2,100 kg b) 345 NAM 2,000 kg c) 437 NAM 2,100 kg d) 350 NAM 2,000 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 PT2 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL350 refer to OAT -45°C notes Mass at the beginning of the leg 40,000 kg Mass at the end of the leg 39,000 kg What is the TAS at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM)? a) 423 kts 936 NAM b) 433 kts 227 NAM c) 423 kts 227 NAM d) 433 kts 1163 NAM Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL 330 OAT -63°C Initial gross mass en-route 54,100 kg Leg time 29 min What is the fuel consumption for this leg? a) 1,000 kg b) 1,200 kg c) 1,100 kg d) 1,680 kg look at notes Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the en-route level is 48 minutes Long Range Cruise ISA deviation -5°C. go with the lowest mass given Take-Off Mass 56,000 kg Climb fuel 1100 kg What is the distance in NAM for this leg and the fuel consumption? a) 345 NAM 2,006 kg b) 349 NAM 2,000 kg c) 345 NAM 2,000 kg d) 345 NAM 1,994 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL 330 OAT -63°C Initial gross mass en-route 54,100 kg Leg flight time 29 min What is the final fuel consumption for this leg? a) 1100 kg b) 1107 kg c) 1000 kg d) 1093 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL 330 OAT -63°C Gross mass 50,500 kg What is the TAS? a) 431 kts b) 433 kts c) 420 kts d) 418 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61,500 kg The distance to be flown is 385 nm at FL 350 and OAT -54.3°C The wind component is 40 kts tailwind Using long range cruise procedure, what fuel is required? a) 2,350 kg b) 2,250 kg c) 2,150 kg d) 2,050 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 and Fig 4.3.1b Given: Zero Fuel Mass 50,000 kg Landing mass at alternate 52,000 kg Final reserve fuel 2,000 kg Alternate fuel 1,000 kg Flight to destination: Distance 720 nm Course 030°T W/V 340/30 Long Range Cruise FL 330 OAT -30°C What is the estimated trip fuel and time? a) 4,600 kg 02:05 b) 4,750 kg 02:00 c) 4,800 kg 01:51 d) 4,400 kg 02:05 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.2 PT2 Given: MACH .74 cruise at Flight level 310 Gross mass 50,000 kg ISA conditions What is the fuel flow? a) 2,994 kg/hr b) 2,300 kg/hr c) 1,497 kg/hr d) 1,150 kg/hr Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.2 Planning an IFR flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane Given: Gross mass 50,000 kg FL 280 ISA deviation -10°C Cruise procedure M0.74 What is the TAS? a) 427 kts b) 417 kts c) 440 kts d) 430 kts Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4 A descent is planned at .74/250 KIAS from 35,000 ft to 5,000 ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent? a) 278 kg b) 290 kg c) 140 kg d) 150 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4 Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49,700 kg FL 280 W/V 280/40 Average course 320°T Procedure for descent M0.74 / 250 KIAS What is the distance from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft)? a) 87 nm b) 65 nm c) 97 nm d) 76 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4 Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49,700 kg FL 280 W/V 280/40 Average course 320°T Procedure for descent M0.74 / 250 KIAS What is the time from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft)? a) 19 min b) 10 min c) 8 min d) 17 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4 Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated landing mass 49,700 kg FL 280 W/V 280/40 Average course 320°T Procedure for descent M0.74 / 250 KIAS What is the fuel consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft)? a) 273 kg b) 210 kg c) 320 kg d) 263 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet aeroplane Given: Estimated Take-Off Mass 52,000 kg Airport elevation 387 ft FL 280 W/V 280/40 ISA deviation -10°C Average course 340°T What is the ground distance to TOC? a) 50 nm b) 56 nm c) 47 nm d) 53 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Brake release mass 58,000 kg ISA deviation +15°C What is the fuel required to climb from an airfield at elevation 4,000 ft to FL300? a) 1,450 kg b) 1,350 kg c) 1,400 kg d) 1,250 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given : Flight time from TOC to the en route point in FL280 is 48 min Long Range Cruise ISA deviation -5°C Take-off mass 56,000 kg Climb fuel 1,100 kg What is the distance in NAM for this leg, and the fuel consumption? a) 345 NAM 2,000 kg b) 350 NAM 2,000 kg c) 345 NAM 2,100 kg d) 437 NAM 2,100 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL340 Distance C-D 3,200 nm ISA deviation +12°C Tail wind component 50 kts Gross mass at C 55,000 kg The fuel required from C to D is: a) 17,800 kg b) 14,400 kg c) 17,500 kg d) 14,200 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.4 PT2 Given: Distance C - D 540 nm Cruise 300 KIAS at FL210 ISA deviation +20°C Head wind component 50 kts Gross mass at C 60,000 kg The fuel required from C to D is: a) 3,350 kg b) 3,680 kg c) 4,620 kg d) 4,200 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Given: Brake release mass 57,500 kg Temperature ISA -10°C Head wind component 16 kts TOC FL 280 What is the still air distance (NAM) and ground distance for the climb? a) 59 NAM 62 nm b) 71 NAM 67 nm c) 62 NAM 59 nm d) 67 NAM 71 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.1 Planning an IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for the twinjet aeroplane Given: Estimated take-off mass 52,000 kg Airport elevation 387 ft FL280 W/V 280 / 40 ISA deviation -10°C Average course 340°T What is the time to TOC? a) 15 min b) 12 min c) 03 min d) 11 min Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2 For a flight from B to C at FL310, M0.74 and ISA -12°C Trip distance 957 ngm with a 40 kts tail wind Weight 50,100 kg. How much fuel is required to fly to C? a) 5,000 kg b) 4,100 kg c) 4,600 kg d) 4,500 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 PT2 Aircraft mass at top of climb 61,500 kg Distance 385 nm Long Range Cruise at FL 350 OAT - 54.3°C Tail wind component 40kts How much fuel is required? a) 2,350 kg b) 2,250 kg c) 2,150 kg d) 2,050 kg Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL350 OAT -45°C Gross mass at the beginning of the leg 40,000 kg Gross mass at the end of the leg 39,000 kg What is the TAS and cruise distance (NAM)? a) 423 kts 936 NAM b) 433 kts 227 NAM c) 433 kts 1,163 NAM d) 423 kts 227 NAM Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.3.1 Given: Long Range Cruise at FL 330 COAT -63°C Weight 50,500 kg What is the TAS? a) 433 kts b) 411 kts c) 423 kts d) 421 kts Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4 Aircraft mass 49,700 kg Descent from FL 280 What is the descent time? a) 19 mins b) 08 mins c) 10 mins d) 17 mins Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.5.4 A descent is planned at 0.74M / 250 KIAS from 35,000 ft to 5,000 ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this descent? a) 150 kg b) 140 kg c) 278 kg d) 290 kg Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig 4.2 and Fig 4.5.3.2 Estimated take-off mass 57,000 kg Ground distance 150 nm ISA deviation -10°C Cruise at M0.74 What is the ideal cruise altitude and TAS? a) 33,000 ft 420 kts b) 33,000 ft 430 kts c) 25,000ft 445 kts d) 25,000 ft 435 kts 026 Point of Equal Time Distance between airports 340 nm PT2 Track 320°T W/V 160/40 TAS 110 What is the distance to PET? a) 121 nm b) 112 nm c) 228 nm d) 219 nm Distance between airports is 750 nm TAS out 430 kts TAS home 425 kts Tail wind component out 30 kts Head wind component return 40 kts What is the distance to PET? a) 342 nm b) 408 nm c) 403 nm d) 375 nm Distance between airports 270 nm Track 030°T W/V 120/35 TAS 125 kts What are the distance and time to PET? a) 141 nm 68 min b) 150 nm 65 min c) 135 nm 68 min d) 141 nm 65 min Given: Course A to B 088°T Distance 1,250 nm Mean TAS 330 kts Mean W/V A to B 340/60 The time from A to the PET between A and B is: a) 02:02 b) 01:39 c) 01:44 d) 01:54 Given: Distance A to B 2,050 nm Mean groundspeed out 440 kts Mean groundspeed home 540 kts What is the distance to PET? a) 1,130 nm b) 920 nm c) 1,153 nm d) 1,025 nm: Given: PT2 Distance from departure to destination 220 nm Track 175°T W/V 220/10 TAS 135 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 110 nm b) 136 nm c) 103 nm d) 116 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 250 nm Groundspeed out 130 kts Groundspeed home 100 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 192 nm b) 141 nm c) 109 nm d) 125 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 256 nm Groundspeed out 160 kts Groundspeed home 110 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 104 nm b) 152 nm c) 128 nm d) 176 nm Given: PT2 Distance from departure to destination 338 nm Track 045°T W/V 225/35 TAS 120 kts What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? a) 218 nm 85 min b) 169 nm 85 min c) 185 nm 72 min d) 120 nm 46 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 340 nm Groundspeed out 150 kts Groundspeed home 120 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 189 nm b) 151 nm c) 272 nm d) 170 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 435 nm Groundspeed out 110 kts Groundspeed home 130 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 236 nm b) 218 nm c) 199 nm d) 368 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 500 nm Groundspeed out 95 kts Groundspeed home 125 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 380 nm b) 284 nm c) 250 nm d) 216 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 500 nm Track 090°T W/V 090/20 TAS 150 kts What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? a) 382 nm 176 min b) 250 nm 88 min c) 283 nm 131 min d) 217 nm 100 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 875 nm Track 240°T W/V 060/50 TAS 500 kts What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? a) 394 nm 43 min b) 716 nm 78 nm c) 438 nm 53 min d) 481 nm 64 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 95 nm Track 105°T W/V 060/15 TAS 140 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 44 nm b) 82 nm c) 51 nm d) 475 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 1,100 nm Track 280°T W/V 100/80 TAS 440 kts What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? a) 550 nm 75 min b) 450 nm 52 min c) 650 nm 108 min d) 650 nm 75 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 2,200 nm Track 150°T W/V 330/50 TAS 460 kts What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? a) 1,100 nm 179 min b) 980 nm 115 min c) 980 nm 144 min d) 1,120 nm 179 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 2,800 nm Track 140°T W/V 140/100 TAS 500 kts What is the distance and time of the PET from the departure point? a) 1,400 nm 168 min b) 1,680 nm 252 min c) 1,120 nm 134 min d) 1,120 nm 112 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 180 nm Track 310°T W/V 010/20 TAS 115 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 90 nm b) 98 nm c) 82 nm d) 92 nm Given: PT2 Distance from departure to destination 950 nm Groundspeed out 275 kts Groundspeed home 225 kts What is the time to the PET from the departure point? a) 93 min b) 39 min c) 139 min d) 114 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 140 nm Groundspeed out 90 kts Groundspeed home 80 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 70 nm b) 74 nm c) 66 nm d) 124 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 150 nm Track 020°T W/V 180/30 TAS 130 kts What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 91 nm b) 75 nm c) 59 nm d) 65 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 2,700 nm Mach Number 0.75 Temperature -45°C Mean wind component out 10 kts tail wind Mean wind component home 35 kts tail wind What is the distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 1,313 nm b) 1,350 nm c) 1,386 nm d) 1,425 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 350 nm Track 355°T W/V 340/30 TAS 140kts What is the time and distance of the PET from the departure point? a) 75 min 211 nm b) 75 min 140 nm c) 114 min 211 nm d) 50 min 140 nm Given: X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and B E = Endurance D = Distance A to B O = Groundspeed out H = Groundspeed home The formula for calculating the distance (X) to point of equal time (PET) is: a) (D x O x H x X) / (O + H) b) (E x O x H x X) / (O + H) c) (D x H) / (O + H) d) (D x O x X) / (O + H) Given: CAS 190 kts Altitude 9,000 ft Temperature ISA -10°C Track 350°T W/V 320/40 Distance from departure to destination 350 nm Endurance 3 hours. What is the distance to PET? a) 211 nm b) 170 nm c) 203 nm d) 330 nm Given: CAS 190 kts Altitude 9,000 ft Temperature ISA -10°C Track 350°T W/V 320/40 Distance from departure to destination 350 nm Endurance 3 hrs Actual time of departure 1105 UTC The PET is reached at: a) 1221 UTC b) 1233 UTC c) 1203 UTC d) 1214 UTC 027-028 MRJT Additional Procedures Refer to the computer fuel plan extract below: Waypoint ETA (H:M) ATA (H:M) Planned Fuel Remaining Actual Fuel Remaining ALPHA 1:18 1:18 5,690 kg 5,690 kg BETA 1:58 1:58 5,210 kg 5,290 kg GAMMA 2:23 2:23 4,910 kg 5,040 kg DELTA 3:08 4,370 kg What would you expect the actual fuel remaining to be on arrival at DELTA assuming a constant fuel flow? a) 4,460 kg b) 3,920 kg c) 4,370 kg d) 4,590 kg Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin jet aeroplane Preplanning: Maximum Take-Off Mass 62,800 kg Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 51,250 kg Maximum Landing Mass 54,900 kg Maximum Taxi Mass 63,050 kg Assume the following preplanning results: Trip fuel 1,800 kg Alternate fuel 1,400 kg Holding fuel (final reserve) 1,225 kg Dry Operating Mass 34,000 kg Traffic Load 13,000 kg Catering 750 kg Baggage 3,500 kg What is the Take-off Mass (TOM)? a) 51,515 kg b) 52,265 kg c) 51,425 kg d) 55,765 kg For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as: PT2 a) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel b) Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel c) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel d) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2 An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA. Using the above table and a given mass of 40,000 kg at the most critical point the maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is: a) 810 nm b) 875 nm c) 735 nm d) 794 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2 PT2 For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with a start of diversion mass of 55,000 kg a diversion of 600 nm should be achieved in 90 min. Using the above table, the only listed cruise technique to meet that requirement is: a) M/KIAS .70 /280 b) LRC c) M/KIAS .74 / 290 d) M/KIAS .74 / 330 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2 Using the above table in ISA conditions and at a speed of M0.70 / 280 KIAS in an elapsed time of 90 minutes, an aircraft with mass at point of diversion of 48,000 kg could divert a distance of: a) 584 nm b) 563 nm c) 603 nm d) 608 nm Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.3 Given: Distance to alternate 950 nm Head wind component 20 kts Mass at point of diversion 50,000 kg Diversion fuel available 5,800 kg The minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met is: a) 26,000 ft b) 18,000 ft c) 22,000 ft d) 20,000 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.3 Given: Diversion distance 720 nm Tail wind component 25 kts Mass at point of diversion 50,000 kg ISA deviation 0 Diversion fuel available 4,250 kg What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met? a) 16,000 ft b) 2,000 ft c) 20,000 ft d) 14,500 ft Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.3 PT1 Given: Diversion distance 650 nm Diversion pressure altitude 16,000 ft Mass at point of diversion 57,000 kg Head wind component 20 kts ISA deviation +15°C The diversion fuel required and time are approximately: a) 3,900 kg 01:45 b) 6,200 kg 02:10 c) 4,800 kg 02:03 d) 4,400 kg 01:35 Refer to CAP 697 MRJT1 Fig 4.7.2 ETOPS - aircraft can not travel more than 120 minutes from a suitable airfield. Assuming LRC and diversion weight of 40,000 kg, what is the still air diversion distance? a) 794 b) 810 c) 875 d) 735 Given: PT2 DOM 2,800 kg Trip Fuel 300 kg Payload 400 kg MTOM 4,200 kg MLM 3,700 kg What is maximum fuel load? a) 800 kg b) 500 kg c) 700 kg d) 1,000 kg Given: DOM 33,510 kg Traffic load 7,600 kg add all including contingency; select estimated. Trip fuel 2,040 kg Final reserve 983 kg Alternative fuel 1,100 kg Contingency 5% of trip fuel Which of the following is correct? a) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295 kg b) Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193 kg c) Estimated take-off mass 45,233 kg d) Estimated take-off mass 43,295 kg Given: Dry operating mass 33,510 kg Load 7,600 kg Final reserve fuel 983 kg Alternate fuel 1,100 kg Contingency fuel 102 kg The estimated landing mass at the alternate should be: a) 42,093 kg b) 42,210 kg c) 42,312 kg d) 42,195 kg Given: PT2 Dry operating mass 33,500 kg Load 7,600 kg Maximum allowable take-off mass 66,200 kg Standard taxi fuel 200 kg Tank capacity 16,100 kg The maximum possible take-off fuel is: a) 17,100 kg b) 15,900 kg c) 17,300 kg d) 16,300 kg Given: Maximum take-off mass 64,400 kg Maximum landing mass 56,200 kg Maximum zero fuel mass 53,000 kg Dry operating mass 35,500 kg Estimated load 14,500 kg Estimated trip fuel 4,900kg Minimum take-off fuel 7,400 kg What is the maximum allowable take-off fuel? a) 14,400 kg b) 8,600 kg c) 11,400 kg d) 11,100 kg Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64,400 kg Maximum landing mass 56,200 kg Maximum zero fuel mass 53,000 kg Dry operating mass 35,500 kg Estimated load 14,500 kg Estimated trip fuel 4,900 kg Minimum take-off fuel 7,400 kg What is the maximum additional load? a) 3,000 kg b) 5,600 kg c) 4,000 kg d) 7,000 kg Planning a flight from Paris (Charles-de-Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin-jet aeroplane. Preplanning: Maximum take-off mass 62,800 kg Maximum zero fuel mass 51,250 kg Maximum landing mass 54,900 kg Maximum taxi mass 63,050 kg Assume the following preplanning results: Trip fuel 1,800 kg Alternate fuel 1,400 kg Holding fuel (final reserve) 1225 kg Dry operating mass 34,000 kg Traffic load 13,000 kg Catering 750 kg Baggage 3,500 kg What is the take-off mass? a) 52,265 kg b) 55,765 kg c) 51,515 kg d) 51,425 kg Are computer flight plans able to account for bad weather in calculating fuel required? a) Can automatically divert route around forecast thunderstorms b) No c) Can automatically allow for poorly maintained engines d) Can automatically allow extra consumption for anti-icing use Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans? 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel. 2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach climb cruise descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate. a) 1 b) Neither c) 2 d) 1,2 Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of computer flight plans? 1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan. 2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the pilot. a) 2 b) 1 c) Neither d) 1,2 Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of flight planning computers? 1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan. 2. In the event of in-flight re-routing the computer produces a new plan. a) 1,2 b) 2 c) Neither d) 1 Which statements are correct about computer flight plans? 1). The computer can file the flight plan for you. 2). In the event of an in-flight re-routing computer automatically generates a new flight plan. a) 2 b) 1 c) 1,2 d) Neither Given: Dry operating mass 2,800 kg Trip fuel 300 kg Traffic load 400 kg Maximum take-off mass 4,200 kg Maximum landing mass 3,700 kg What is the maximum fuel load which can be carried? a) 500 kg b) 700 kg c) 1,000 kg d) 800 kg 029 Point of Safe Return Given: PT2 Maximum useable fuel 15,000 kg Minimum reserve fuel 3,500 kg TAS out 425 kts Head wind component out 30 kts TAS home 430 kts Tailwind component home 20 kts Average fuel flow 2,150 kg/h What is the time to PSR? a) 02:59 b) 02:51 c) 02:43 d) 03:43 Distance from departure to destination 850 nm Tail wind out 35 kts TAS 450 kts Mean fuel flow out is 2,500 kg/hr Mean fuel flow home is 1,900 kg/hr Fuel available is 6,000 kg. What is the time and distance to PSR? a) 01:30 616 nm b) 01:30 660 nm c) 01:16 606 nm d) 01:16 616 nm Distance from departure to destination is 3750 nm PT2 Safe endurance is 9.5 hours Track 360°T W/V 360/50 TAS 480 kts What is the distance to PSR from the departure point? a) 1,128 nm b) 2,070 nm c) 1,495 nm d) 2,255 nm Given: Maximum useable fuel 15,000 kg Minimum reserve fuel 3,500 kg TAS out 425 kts Head wind component out 30 kts Fuel flow out 2,150 kg/hr TAS home 430 kts Tail wind component home 20 kts Fuel flow home 2,150 kg/hr What is the distance to PSR? a) 1,143 nm b) 1,463 nm c) 1,125 nm d) 1,491 nm use: T=EH/ O+H Given: Total fuel 15,000 kg Reserve 1,500 kg TAS 440 kts Wind component 45 kts Average fuel flow 2,150 kg/hr What is the distance to PSR? a) 1,702 nm b) 1,520 nm c) 1,250 nm d) 1,367 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination is 3060 nm Groundspeed out 440 kts Groundspeed home 540 kts Safe endurance 10 hrs What is the time to the PSR? a) 05:30 b) 05:45 c) 03:55 d) 05:20 Given: Distance from departure to destination 330 nm Endurance 5 hrs Track 170°T W/V 140/25 TAS 125 kt What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 194 nm b) 30 nm c) 303 nm d) 150 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 1,000 nm Endurance 4 hrs TAS 500 kts Groundspeed out 550 kts Groundspeed home 450 kts What is the distance to PSR from the departure point? a) 990 nm b) 1,009 nm c) 450 nm d) 495 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 150 nm Endurance 2.4 hrs Track 250°T W/V 280/15 TAS 120 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 71 nm b) 98 nm c) 83 nm d) 142 nm Given: PT2 Distance from departure to destination 150 nm Endurance 3.2 hrs TAS 90 kts Groundspeed out 100 kts Groundspeed home 80 kts What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? a) 8 nm 05 min b) 142 nm 85 min c) 67 nm 50 min d) 71 nm 47 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 180 nm Endurance 2 hrs TAS 120 kts Groundspeed out 135 kts Groundspeed home 105 kts What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? a) 62 nm 28 min b) 79 nm 45 min c) 59 nm 30 min d) 118 nm 53 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 180 nm Endurance 2.8 hrs Track 065°T W/V 245/25 TAS 100 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 68 nm b) 49 nm c) 131 nm d) 66 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 190 nm Endurance 2.4 hrs Track 120°T W/V 030/40 TAS 130 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 95 nm b) 44 nm c) 148 nm d) 73 nm Given: PT2 Distance from departure to destination 2,000 nm Endurance 5 hrs TAS 500 kts Groundspeed out 480 kts Groundspeed home 520 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 1,040 nm b) 624 nm c) 752 nm d) 1,248 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 200 nm Endurance 3 hrs TAS 130 kts Groundspeed out 150 kts Groundspeed home 110 kts What is the distance PSR from the departure point? a) 10 nm b) 190 nm c) 95 nm d) 85 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 210 nm Endurance 2.5 hrs Track 035°T W/V 250/20 TAS 105 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 88 nm b) 127 nm c) 172 nm d) 64 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 210 nm Endurance 3.5 hrs Track 310°T W/V 270/30 TAS 120 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 125 nm b) 100 nm c) 10 nm d) 200 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 215 nm Endurance 3.3 hrs Track 005°T W/V 290/15 TAS 125 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 112 nm b) 9 nm c) 205 nm d) 103 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 240 nm Endurance 3.5 hrs TAS 125 kts Groundspeed out 110 kts Groundspeed home 140 kts What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? a) 134 nm 58 min b) 216 nm 118 min c) 24 nm 13 min d) 108 nm 52 min Given: Distance from departure to destination 260 nm Endurance 4.1 hrs Track150°T W/V 100/30 TAS 110 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 47 nm b) 154 nm c) 107 nm d) 213 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 300 nm Endurance 4 hrs TAS 110 kts Groundspeed out 120 kts Groundspeed home 100 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 109 nm b) 136 nm c) 218 nm d) 82 nm Given: PT2 Distance from departure to destination 320 nm Endurance 4.3 hrs Track 120°T W/V 180/40 TAS 130 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 59 nm b) 185 nm c) 131 nm d) 262 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 360 nm Endurance 4.5 hrs Track 345°T W/V 260/30 TAS 140 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 308 nm b) 185 nm c) 52 nm d) 154 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 400 nm Endurance 2.5 hrs TAS 115 kts Groundspeed out 130 kts Groundspeed home 105 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 145 nm b) 73 nm c) 179 nm d) 255 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 410 nm Endurance 3.6 hrs Track 055°T W/V 180/35 TAS 120 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 207 nm b) 102 nm c) 203 nm d) 169 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 480 nm Endurance 5 hrs Track 315°T W/V 100/20 TAS 115 kts What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point? a) 205 nm b) 199 nm c) 141 nm d) 280 nm Given: PT2 Distance from departure to destination 500 nm Endurance 4 hrs TAS 140 kts Groundspeed out 150 kts Groundspeed home 130 kts What is the distance and time of the PSR from the departure point? a) 279 nm 111 min b) 139 nm 60 min c) 232 nm 107 min d) 221 nm 89 min Given: Fuel flow 2,150 kg/hr Total fuel in tanks 15,000 kg Fuel reserve required on arrival 3,500 kg TAS out 420 kts Wind component out -30 kts TAS home 430 kts Wind component home +20 kts What is the time to PSR? a) 03:33 b) 02:52 c) 02:06 d) 01:26 Given: Safe endurance 5 hrs Track 315°T W/V 100/20 TAS 115 kts What is distance to PSR? a) 141 nm b) 100 nm c) 205 nm d) 282 nm Given: Distance from departure to destination 500 nm Safe endurance 4 hrs Groundspeed out 150 kts Groundspeed home 130 kts What is the distance and time to PSR from the departure point? a) 221 nm 89 min b) 232 nm 107 min c) 279 nm 111 min d) 139 nm 60 min 034-036 JEPP ERCs (LO) An airway is marked 3500T 2100a. This indicates that: a) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3,500 ft b) the airway base is 3,500 ft MSL c) the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3,500 ft d) the airway is a low level link route 2,100 ft – 3,500 ft MSL An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the: a) minimum holding altitude (MHA) b) maximum authorised altitude (MAA) c) minimum en-route altitude (MEA) d) base of the airway (AGL) An airway is marked FL 80 1500a. This indicates that: a) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80 b) the airways extends from 1,500 ft MSL to FL 80 c) 1,500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA). d) the airway base is 1,500 ft MSL An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height rules on a course of 180°M is: a) FL 100 b) FL 105 c) FL 95 d) FL 90 For an IFR flight using ICAO semi-circular cruising levels on a track of 200°M which is a suitable level to fly? a) FL 320 b) FL 310 c) FL 300 d) FL 290 Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 The magnetic course and distance from WALLASEY WAL (53°23'N 003°28'W° to LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W) on airway B1 is: a) 279°M 114 nm b) 279°M 85 nm c) 311°M 114 nm d) 311°M 85 nm Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN (51°43'N 003°16'W) is: a) FL 80 b) 4,100 ft MSL c) FL 110 d) 2,900 ft MSL Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY HB (54°37'N 005°53'W) is: a) a fan marker frequency 420 kHz b) an NDB frequency 420 kHz continuous operation c) an NDB frequency 420 kHz NOT continuous operation d) a TACAN channel 420 Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 The radio navigation aid at SHANNON SHA (52°43'N 008°53'W) is a: a) NDB frequency 352 kHz b) VOR/DME frequency 113.3 MHz c) TACAN frequency 113.3 kHz d) VOR only frequency 113.3 MHz Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE TOP (54°12'N 001°22'W) is a: a) TACAN channel 84 and an NDB frequency 92 kHz only b) TACAN channel 84 and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only c) TACAN only channel 84 (frequency 113.7 MHz) d) VORTAC frequency 113.7 MHz and an NDB frequency 92 kHz Refer to Chart E(LO) 2 An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL (49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB (50°14'N 003°09'E) is: a) FL 50 b) FL 80 c) FL 60 d) FL 70 Refer to Chart E(LO) 2 The magnetic course and distance from CAMBRAI CMB (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN (49°33'N 003°25'E) on airway B3 is: a) 349°M 26 nm b) 169°M 68 nm c) 169°M 42 nm d) 349°M 42 nm Refer to Chart E(LO) 2 The Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY JSY (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N 004°20'W) is: a) FL 140 b) 1,000 ft MSL c) FL 60 d) 2,800 ft MSL Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from SUBI SUI (52°23'N 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE (52°08'N 016°44'E) is: a) FL 70 b) FL 80 c) FL 50 d) FL 60 Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) is marked by a: a) NDB ident LF b) NDB ident N c) fan marker ident LP d) TACAN ident RON Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 The initial magnetic course and distance from EELDE EEL (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO (54°18'N 007°25'E) on airway A7 is: a) 024°M 73 nm b) 023°M 47 nm c) 024°M 20 nm d) 023°M 157 nm Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 The magnetic course and distance from ELBE LBE (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD (54°50'N 009°19'E) on airway H12 is: a) 352°M 96 nm b) 339°M 80 nm c) 339°M 125 nm d) 352°M 72 nm Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G24 from KOLJA (56° 00'N 016°49'E) to RONNE ROE (55°04'N 014°46'E) is: a) FL 60 b) 1,000 ft MSL c) 2,500 ft MSL d) FL 100 Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 The NDB at DENKO DRE (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified on: a) Channel 440 BFO on b) Channel 440 BFO off c) Frequency 440 kHz BFO on d) Frequency 440 kHz BFO off Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52°12'N 008°17'E) are: a) frequency paired and have different identifiers b) not frequency paired but have the same identifier c) not frequency paired and have different identifiers d) frequency paired and have the same identifier Refer to Chart E(LO) 6 An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD (49°24'N 005°08'E) to CHATILLON CTL (49°08'N 003°35'E) is: a) FL 60 b) FL 40 c) FL 50 d) FL 70 Refer to Chart E(LO) 6 The magnetic course and distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ (49°00'N 006°43'E) to LINNA (49°41'N 006°15'E) on airway R7 is: a) 337°M 46 nm b) 337°M 58 nm c) 157°M 58 nm d) 337°M 31 nm Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 The magnetic course and distance from EELDE EEL (53°10’N 006°40’E) to WELGO (54°18’N 007°25’E) on airway A7 are: a) 024°M/ 023°M 67 nm b) 037°M/038°M 50 nm c) 024°M/023°M 73 nm d) 024°M/023°M 47 nm Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 What is the NBD serving BELFAST CITY (54°37’N 005°53’W) airport? a) OY 332 KHz b) HB 420 KHz c) BEL 117.2 MHz d) BEL 117.2 KHz Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 You are flying from SHANNON SHA (N52 43.3 W008 53.1) by W13 to KORAK. What is meant by 5000 by the route centreline? a) MEA 5,000 ft b) MAA 5,000 ft c) MORA 5,000 ft d) MOCA 5,000 ft Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 The magnetic course and distance from WALLASEY WAL (N53 24 W003 08) to LIFFY (N53 29 W005 30) on airway B1 are: a) 279°M 85 nm b) 279°M 114 nm c) 311°M 85 nm d) 311°M 114 nm Refer to Chart E(LO) 1 The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from STUMBLE STU (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN (51°43'N 003°16'W) is: a) FL 80 b) 4,100 ft c) FL 110 d) 2,900 ft Refer to Chart E(LO) 2 What is the lowest MEA that can be flown continuously between JERSEY JSY (N49 13.3 W002 02.7) and LIZAD (N49 35.4 W004 20.3)? a) 2,800 ft b) FL 140 c) 1,000 ft d) FL 60 Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 You are flying G9 from SUBI SUI (N52 22.8 E014 35.3) to CZEMPIN CZE (N52 07.9 E016 43.7). What is a suitable FL? a) FL 50 b) FL 70 c) FL 80 d) FL 60 Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 See DENKO (N52 49 E015 50); what does "440 DRE" mean? a) 440 MHz plus ADF only when BFO off b) 440 kHz plus ident only when BFO switched off c) 440 kHz plus ident only when BFO switched on d) 440 kHz plus ident Refer to Chart E(LO) 5 What is the lowest MEA that can be flown continuously between RONNE ROE (N55 04.0 E014 45.7) and DOXON (N55 26.9 E018 10.0)? a) FL 60 b) FL 100 c) 2,500 ft d) 1,000 ft Refer to Chart E(LO) 6 You are flying airways from CHEB OKG (N50 03.3 E012 24.4) to RODING RDG (N49 02.4 E012 31.6). Which is the lowest usable Flight Level? a) FL 80 b) FL 40 c) FL 50 d) FL 70 On an IFR navigation chart in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude appears the following information "80". This means that within this quadrant: a) the minimum safe altitude is 8,000 ft b) the floor of the airway is at 8,000 ft c) the minimum flight level is FL 80 d) the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8,000 ft 037-038 JEPP High Level Charts and Grid Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 What is the lowest continuous MEA from WALLASEY WAL (N53 23.5 W003 08.0) to MIDHURST MID (N51 03.2 W000 37.4) on UA34? a) FL 245 b) 5,300 ft c) FL 290 d) 16,800 ft Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 On a flight from AMBOISE AMB (N47 25.7 E001 03.9) to AGEN AGN (N43 53.3 E000 52.4), what is the best airway route above FL200? a) UB19 POI UB195 b) UA34 c) UB19 CGC UA25 d) UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIG UA34 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 The minimum en route altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is: a) FL 260 b) FL 210 c) FL 200 d) FL 250 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 The magnetic course and distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (N45 49 E001 02) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (N45 47 E003 11) on airway UG22 are: a) 046°M 70 nm b) 067°M 122 nm c) 094°M 90 nm d) 113°M 142 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An aeroplane has to fly from about 10 nm south east of SALZBURG SBG (N48 00 E012 54) to KLAGENFURT KFT (N46 36 E014 34). Which statement is correct? a) The Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10,800 ft AMSL b) The minimum grid safe altitude is 13,400 ft AMSL c) The Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) is 13,400 ft d) The Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) is 13,400 ft Refer to Chart E(HI) 2 What is the most suitable route remaining on airways from ODIN ODN (N55 34.8 E010 39.3) to BOTTNA BTD (N57 44.8 E013 48.4)? a) UR12 PER UG5 SHG BTD b) UR156 LAV UR156 SKA UH42 BTD c) UR156 LAV DCT BTD d) UR156 LAV D17 CINDY UR46 BTD Refer to Chart E(HI) 2 What is the shortest distance on airways between ALMA ALM (N55 24.7 E013 33.5) and SHILING SHG (N57 33.2 E013 59.9)? a) 86 nm b) 60 nm c) 131 nm d) 45 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 2 When flying between BACKA BAK (N57 33.3 E011 58.6) and BOTTNA BTD (N57 44.8 E013 48.4) along UR46 how can you get a cross fix for CINDY? a) BAK 078 / BTD 258 b) HAR 161 / LAV 092 c) BTD D60 d) LAV D17 Refer to Chart E(HI) 3 Are the VOR and TACAN navaids at OSNABRUCH (N52 12 E008 17) co-located? a) VOR/NDB only b) VOR/DME only c) Yes d) No Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross GIBSO intersection (50°45'N 002°30'W) at or above: a) FL 250 b) FL 160 c) FL 200 d) FL 140 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An aeroplane has to fly from ABBEVILLE ABB (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to BIGGIN BIG (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR flight plan? a) FL 320 b) FL 330 c) FL 310 d) FL 300 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An aircraft has to fly from ABBEVILLE ABB (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to BIGGIN BIG (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin you can find: 141°; this is: a) the magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin b) the average true course of the great circle from Biggin to Abbeville c) the magnetic course from Biggin to Abbeville d) the radial referenced to true north of Biggin to fly inbound Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An aircraft has to fly from ABBEVILLE ABB (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to BIGGIN BIG (51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg? a) 62 nm b) 38 nm c) 64 nm d) 100 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An aircraft has to fly from SALZBURG SBG (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to KLAGENFURT KFT (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D113.8 SBG. What does this mean? a) ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation b) Only the DME with identification SBG can be used for which frequency 113.8 MHz should be tuned VOR is not available c) VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation d) VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An aircraft has to fly from SALZBURG SBG (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to KLAGENFURT KFT (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E); which statement is correct? a) The airway UB5 cannot be used there is one way traffic to the north b) The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200 c) The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg d) The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An appropriate flight level for flight in RVSM airspace on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is: a) FL 290 b) FL 300 c) FL 330 d) FL 310 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is: a) FL 230 b) FL 240 c) FL 250 d) FL 260 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 Of the following the preferred airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is: a) UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9 b) UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14 c) UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111 d) UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 Of the following the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY KOK (51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245 on a Wednesday is: a) UG1 b) UG108 SPI UG1 c) UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS d) UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 Planning a IFR flight from PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to LONDON HEATHROW (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). What is the pre-planning distance (having calculated the direct distance plus 10%)? a) 308 nm b) 188 nm c) 207 nm d) 218 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 Planning a IFR flight from PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to LONDON HEATHROW (N51 29.2 W000 27.9). What is the average true course from Paris to London? a) 330°T b) 322°T c) 142°T d) 343°T Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N 011°09'E) on airway UR11 is: a) 230°M 97nm b) 052°M 97 nm c) 050°M 47 nm d) 133°M 85 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on airway UB5 is: a) 346°M 43 nm b) 346°M 45 nm c) 166°M 64 nm d) 346°M 64 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is: a) 048°M 46 nm b) 061°M 28 nm c) 061°M 37 nm d) 041°M 78 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5 (48°37'N 009°16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is: a) 105°M 105 nm b) 052°M 50 nm c) 132°M 43 nm d) 007°M 60 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53°03'N 001°40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08W) on airway UR3 is: a) 117°M 57 nm b) 117°M 71 nm c) 297°M 57 nm d) 297°M 70 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The minimum en-route altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is: a) FL 330 b) FL 245 c) FL 250 d) FL 290 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The radio navigation aids at CHIOGGIA CHI (45°04'N 012°17'E) is a: a) VOR/DME only frequency 114.1 MHz b) VOR frequency 114.1 MHz and TACAN frequency 408 MHz c) VOR/DME frequency 114.1 MHz and NDB frequency 408 kHz d) VOR frequency 114.1 MHz and TACAN channel 408 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER SDI (48°38N 004°53'E) is a: a) TACAN channel 114.0 b) TACAN channel 87 frequency 114.0 MHz c) TACAN channel 87 and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz d) VOR frequency 114.0 MHz and TACAN channel 87 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The radio navigation aid at ZURICH ZUE (47°36'N 008°49'E) is a: a) VOR/DME frequency 115.0MHz b) TACAN frequency 115.0 MHz c) VOR only frequency 115.0 MHz d) NDB only frequency 115.0 kHz Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47°41'N 006°18'E) is a: a) VOR identifier LUL frequency paired with TACAN identifier LXI b) VOR only identifier LUL c) VOR/DME and NDB identifier LXI d) VOR/DME only identifier LUL Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG SBG (48°30'N 007°34'E) is a: a) VOR only frequency 115.6 MHz b) TACAN only frequency 115.6 MHz c) VOR/TACAN frequency 115.6 MHz d) DME only channel 115.6 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 The radio navigation aid STAD STD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is a: a) NDB frequency 386 kHz b) VOR frequency 386 MHz c) TACAN on channel 386 d) VOR/DME on channel 386 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An aircraft has to fly from SALZBURG SBG (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to KLAGENFURT KFT (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct? a) The figure 108 means that the minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10,800 ft above MSL b) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13,400 ft c) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum grid safe altitude in this sector is 13,400 ft above MSL d) The figure 13.4 means that the minimum en-route altitude (MEA) is 13,400 ft Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is: a) FL 300 b) FL 320 c) FL 290 d) FL 310 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 Flying from ABBEVILLE ABB (N50 08.1 E001 51.3) by UA20 to BIGGIN BIG (N51 19.8 E000 02.2). What is the first suitable IFR FL above FL295? a) FL 310 b) FL 320 c) FL 330 d) FL 300 Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 What is the best route from CLACTON CLN (N51 50.9 E001 09.0) to MIDHURST MID (N51 03.2 W000 37.4)? a) UR123 b) TRIPO UR1 LAM UR1 c) UB29 LAM UR1 d) UR12 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 in RVSM airspace from MENDENASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E) is: a) FL 300 b) FL 280 c) FL 320 d) FL 290 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is: a) FL 300 b) FL 270 c) FL 310 d) FL 290 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 Given: You are flying from MOULINS MOU (N46 42.4 E003 38.0) to DIJON DIJ (N47 16.3 E005 05.9). What is the route designator and total distance? a) UG21 69 nm b) D 44 nm c) UG21 26 nm d) Direct route 69 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 The preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is: a) UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34 b) UA34 c) UB19 POI UB195 d) UB19 CGC UA25 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 The preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is: a) UB28 b) UA6 LSA UG52 c) UB282 DGN UB46 d) UB284 VILAR UB28 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 The magnetic course and distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway UA35 is: a) 332°M 118 nm b) 322°M 60 nm c) 152°M 42 nm d) 332°M 76 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 The magnetic course and distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is: a) 094°M 90 nm b) 046°M 70 nm c) 067°M 122 nm d) 113°M 142 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 The minimum en-route altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is: a) FL 210 b) FL 200 c) FL 260 d) FL 250 Refer to Chart E(HI) 5 An appropriate FL for flight along airway UG5 from MENDE-NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (N44 36 E003 10) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (N43 57 E001 50) is: a) FL 290 b) FL 300 c) FL 280 d) FL 310 Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5 On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°33.4'N 006°02'E) the initial great circle grid course is: a) 344°G b) 347°G c) 353°G d) 350°G Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5 The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177°G. The final grid course at position B will be: a) 177°G b) 194°G c) 172°G d) 353°G Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5 The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar en-route chart where the grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian, the initial grid course will be: a) 080°G b) 096°G c) 066°G d) 106°G Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5 The initial track from A (65N 006E) to C (62N 020W) is: a) 246°T b) 256°T c) 272°T d) 266°T Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5 What is the initial grid track from Stornoway (N58 12.4 W006 11.0) to Keflavik ( N64 00 W022 40)? a) 133°G b) 313°G c) 320°G d) 140°G Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5 Flying from 80°N 170°E to 75°N 010°E. Initial track is 177°G, what is the initial true track? a) 177°T b) 167°T c) 357°T d) 347°T Refer to Chart AT(HI) 5 Route PTS P from VIGRA (N62 33.2 E006 02.2) to ADOBI (N68 30.0 E003 00.0). What is the grid track? a) 344° b) 173° c) 349° d) 353° Refer to Chart NAP On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N 008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N 054°32'W) the average true course and distance are: a) 262°T 1,720 nm b) 281°T 2,730 nm c) 281°T 1,877 nm d) 244°T 1,520 nm Refer to Chart NAP The average magnetic course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is: a) 279°M b) 271°M c) 247°M d) 259°M Refer to Chart NAP The average magnetic course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is: a) 109°M b) 119°M c) 118°M d) 099°M Refer to Chart NAP The average true course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is: a) 247°T b) 259°T c) 079°T d) 271°T Refer to Chart NAP The average true course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is: a) 109°T b) 099°T c) 119°T d) 120°T Refer to Chart NAP The distance from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is: a) 1,590 nm b) 720 nm c) 690 nm d) 1,440 nm Refer to Chart NAP The distance from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is: a) 725 nm b) 700 nm c) 760 nm d) 775 nm Refer to Chart NAP The initial magnetic course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is: a) 267°M b) 275°M c) 271°M d) 262°M Refer to Chart NAP The initial magnetic course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is: a) 080°M b) 098°M c) 113°M d) 116°M Refer to Chart NAP The initial true course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is: a) 267°T b) 246°T c) 275°T d) 271°T Refer to Chart NAP The initial true course from C (62°N 020°W) to B (58°N 004°E) is: a) 080°T b) 278°T c) 116°T d) 098°T Refer to Chart NAP The initial magnetic course from A (64°N 006°E) to C (62°N 020°W) is: a) 262°M b) 271°M c) 267°M d) 275°M Refer to Chart NAP Flight from position C (N62 W020) to position B (N58 E004) What is the initial true course? a) 100°T b) 118°T c) 120°T d) 109°T Refer to Chart NAP Flying from A (N58 E004) to B (N62 W020) What is the great circle distance? a) 775 nm b) 755 nm c) 720 nm d) 740 nm 039-040 JEPP Terminal Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol ILS DME Rwy 22 (11-6) Complete the blanks for the missed approach: "Turn …. on track …. climbing to …. (….)” a) right 240° 2000' 2011' b) left 266° 2000' 2102' c) left 005° 2000' 2012' d) left 160° 2000' 2014’ Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X) The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME approach to Rwy 01L is: a) 88 ft b) 188 ft c) 100 ft d) 300 ft Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 and London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 27R (11-4) You are planning an IFR flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin VOR. Given the distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is 76 nm, what is the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD? a) 55 nm b) 100 nm c) 49 nm d) 60 nm Refer to Chart E(HI) 4 and London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 27R (11-4) You are planning an IFR flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via STAR BIG2A Given: Variation 5°W En-route TAS 430 kts W/V 280/40 Descent distance 76nm What is the magnetic course, ground speed, and wind correction angle from ABBEVILLE ABB (N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of descent? a) 319°M 396 kts WCA -3° b) 321°M 396 kts WCA -3° c) 141°M 396 kts WCA -3° d) 141°M 396 kts WCA +3° Refer to London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2) The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing is: a) 480 ft b) 400 ft c) 280 ft d) 200 ft Refer to London Heathrow ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1) The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide slope out is: a) 480 ft b) 405 ft c) 200 ft d) 275 ft Refer to Madrid Barajas ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1) The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full ILS is: a) 2,067 ft b) 4,000 ft c) 3,500 ft d) 1,567 ft Refer to Munich ILS Rwy 26R (11-4) The ILS frequency and identifier are: a) 108.7 IMNW b) 108.3 IMNW c) 108.7 IMSW d) 108.3 IMSW Refer to Munich NDB DME Rwy 26L (16-3) The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the published approaches are: a) 338 MNW b) 400 MSW c) 108.6 DMS d) 112.3 MUN Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle ILS Rwy 10 (21-8) The ILS localizer course is: a) 118° b) 100° c) 268° d) 088° Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle ILS Rwy 27 (21-2) The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are: a) Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft b) Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft c) Cross at FL60 and maintain d) Cross at FL80 descend to FL70 Refer to Zurich ILS Rwy 16 (11-2) The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope out all other aids serviceable aircraft category A is: a) 800 m b) 1,500 m c) 720 m d) 600 m Refer to London Heathrow STAR (10-2D) At Ockham what are the lowest holding level and maximum speed? a) FL140 IAS 250 kts b) 7000 ft IAS 250kts c) FL140 IAS 220 kts d) 7000 ft IAS 220 kts Refer to Madrid Barajas STAR (10-2B) Approaching the airfield from the South using UR10, what is the Initial Approach Fix for ILS RWY 33? a) VTB VOR b) CENTA c) MOTIL d) CJN VOR Refer to Madrid Barajas ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1) What is the minimum altitude for glideslope interception? a) 1,567 ft b) 2,067 ft c) 3,500 ft d) 4,000 ft Refer to Munich STAR Plates With an easterly surface wind, you are approaching from the west to Munich via the TANGO VOR. Which is the best STAR and its associated Initial Approach Fix? a) Kempten 2T / BETOS b) AALEN 1T / ROKIL c) NDG 1T / ROKIL d) RODING 1R / MOOSBURG Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle ILS Rwy 10 (21-7) What is the ILS course? a) 118° b) 088° c) 100° d) 268° Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3) You are planning an IFR flight from Paris RWY 27 to London. Given the distance from PARIS Charles de Gaulle to top of climb 50 nm, determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABBEVILLE ABB. a) 36.5 nm b) 31 nm c) 24.5 nm d) 33 nm Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3) You are planning an IFR flight from Paris RWY 27 to London. Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A. a) 74.5 nm b) 83 nm c) 72.5 nm d) 56 nm Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol SID (10-3) Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L? a) Cross ANDIK below FL60 b) Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME c) Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude d) The distance to ANDIK is 25 nm Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol SID (10-3B) The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is: a) 59 nm b) 35 nm c) 52 nm d) 67 nm Refer to London Heathrow SID (10-3) Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) for the Airport? a) East sector 2,300 ft within 50 nm b) West sector 2,300 ft within 25 nm c) East sector 2,100 ft within 50 nm d) West sector 2,100 ft within 25 nm Refer to Munich SID (10-3C & 10-3D) Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 26L? a) KEMPTEN THREE ECHO b) KEMPTEN THREE QUEBEC c) KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRA d) KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3) You are planning an IFR flight from Paris to London. Given: SID is ABB 8A Variation 3° W TAS 430 kts W/V 280/40 Distance to top of climb 50nm What is the magnetic course, ground speed, and wind correction angle from top of climb to ABB? a) 349°M 414 kts WCA -5° b) 169°M 414 kts WCA +5° c) 169°M 450 kts WCA +4° d) 349°M 414 kts WCA +5° Refer to Zurich SID (10-3) Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16? a) ALBIX 7A b) ALBIX 6H c) ALBIX 6E d) ALBIX 7S Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID (20-3) You are planning a IFR flight from Paris to London What is the elevation of the departure aerodrome? a) 217 ft b) 2 ft c) 387 ft d) 268 ft Refer to London Heathrow STAR (10-2) and ILS DME Rwy 27R (11-4) What is the identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route? a) OCK 115.3 MHz b) EPM 316 kHz c) BIG 115.1 MHz d) BIG 115.1 kHz Refer to London Heathrow STAR (10-2D) The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are: a) 7,000 ft 250 kts b) 9,000 ft 250 kts c) 9,000 ft 220 kts d) 7,000 ft 220 kts Refer to Munich STAR (10-2A and 10-2B) The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08 L/R is: a) NDG 1T ROKIL b) AALEN 1T MBG c) DKB 1T ROKIL d) AALEN 1T ROKIL Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle STAR (20-2) The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to BOURSONNE (BSN) is: a) 88 nm b) 83 nm c) 73 nm d) 96 nm Refer to Zurich STAR (10-2) Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only should follow the following route to EKRON: a) BLM R111° to GOLKE then HOC R067° inbound to EKRON b) HOC R067° via GOLKE to EKRON c) TRA R247° outbound to EKRON d) WIL R018° outbound to EKRON On an instrument approach chart a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance this altitude is valid to: a) 20 nm b) 25 nm c) 10 nm d) 15 nm Refer to Amsterdam Schiphol SID (10-3) Which statement is correct for ANDIK departures from runway 19L? a) The distance to ANDIK is 25 nm b) Contact Schiphol Departure 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude c) Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME d) Cross ANDIK below FL60 Refer to Paris Charles de Gaulle SID Charts What is the distance to Abbeville on SID ABB 8A? a) 74 nm b) 72 nm c) 72.5 nm d) 74.5 nm Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes are given with: a) magnetic course b) true headings c) true course d) magnetic headings 041-044 ICAO Flight Plans Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form When filling in an ATC flight plan before departure the time information which should be entered in Item 13 (TIME), is: a) estimated off-block time b) planned engine start time c) planned take-off time d) the time of flight plan filing Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form Prior to an IFR flight when filling in the ATC flight plan the time information which should be entered in Item 16 (TOTAL EET) is the time elapsed from: a) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome b) taxy-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing c) taxying until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome d) take-off until landing Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATC flight plan Item 10 "standard equipment" is considered to be: a) VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, and transponder b) VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, and transponder c) VHF, RTF, VOR, ILS, and transponder d) VHF, RTF, ADF, VOR, and ILS Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE) for a flight along a designated route where the departure aerodrome is not on or connected to that route: a) the letters "DCT" should be entered followed by the point of joining the ATS route b) it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route c) it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS unit d) the words "as cleared" should be entered Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the event that SELCAL is prescribed by an appropriate authority in which section of the ATC flight plan will the SELCAL code be entered? a) EQUIPMENT b) ROUTE c) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION d) OTHER INFORMATION Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form Item 9 of the ATC flight plan includes in Item 9 "NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT". In this case "NUMBER" means: a) the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643 b) the registration number of the aircraft c) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL) d) the number of aircraft flying in a group Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATC flight plan Item 7 (AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION) for a radio equipped aircraft the identifier must always: a) include the aircraft registration marking b) include the operating agency designator c) be the RTF callsign to be used d) include an indication of the aircraft type Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATC flight plan Item 19 EMERGENCY RADIO and SURVIVAL EQUIPMENT carried on the flight should be indicated by: a) listing the items carried on the "REMARKS" line b) circling the relevant box c) placing a tick in the relevant box d) crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried A "current flight plan" is a: a) filed flight plan with amendments and clearances included b) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between aeroplane and ATC c) flight plan with the correct time of departure d) filed flight plan A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme Paris-Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure to plan a re-routing of that flight to Limoges. a) The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before the planned time of arrival b) The airline's Operations department has to transmit a change to the RPL to the ATC office at least half an hour before the planned time of departure c) It is not possible to plan another destination and that flight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not chartered) d) The RPL must be cancelled for that day and an individual flight plan must be filed Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137,000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135,000 kg. In Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CAT) of the ATC flight plan its wake turbulence category is: a) heavy "H" b) heavy/medium "H/M” c) medium "M" d) medium plus "M+" An aircraft in the cruise has a calibrated airspeed of 150 kts, a TAS of 180 kts and an average ground speed of 210 kts. The speed box of the flight plan must be filled as: a) K0210 b) N0180 c) K0180 d) N0150 Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATC flight plan Item 16 (DESTINATION and TOTAL EET) should be entered with: a) EDDM M135 b) EDDM 1415 c) EDDM 2H15 d) EDDM 0215 For a repetitive ATC flight plan (RPL) to be used flights must take place on a regular basis on at least: a) 20 occasions b) 50 occasions c) 10 occasions d) 30 occasions Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form For the purposes of Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CATEGORY) of the ATC flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62,000 kg is: a) unclassified "U" b) medium "M" c) light "L” d) heavy "H" For which flights are Flight Plans required? 1. IFR flights 2. IFR and VFR flights 3. Flights crossing national boundaries 4. Flights over water 5. Public transport flights The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 2,3,4 b) 1,3 c) 1,3,5 d) 2,3,4,5 From the options given below select those flights which require an ATC flight plan. 1. Any Public Transport flight 2. Any IFR flight 3. Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the alerting service or the operations of search and rescue 4. Any cross-border flights 5. Any flight which involves overflying water The combination regrouping the correct statement is: a) 2,4 b) 1,2,3 c) 3,4,5 d) 1,5 Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form Given the following flight plan information Trip fuel: 136 kg Flight time: 2.75 hrs Reserve fuel: 30% of trip Fuel in tanks: Minimum Taxy fuel: 3 kg How should Item 19 (ENDURANCE) be completed on the ICAO flight plan? a) 0338 b) 0245 c) 0249 d) 0334 How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? a) 0:30 hr b) 0:10 hr c) 1:00 hr d) 3:00 hrs If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at destination. The time is: a) 30 min b) 15 min c) 45 min d) 10 min Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form If the destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in Item 16 (DESTINATION AERODROME) of your ATS flight plan you write: a) AAAA b) //// c) ZZZZ d) XXXX Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (LEVEL) a cruising pressure altitude of 32,000 feet would be entered as: a) F320 b) 32000 c) FL320 d) S3200 Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE) in terms of latitude and longitude a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as: a) N04135E0415 b) 41°35' N 04° 15'E c) N4135 E00415 d) 4135N00415E Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In an ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE), in order to define a position as a bearing and distance from a VOR the group of figures should consist of: a) VOR ident, true bearing, distance in kilometers b) VOR ident, magnetic bearing, distance in nautical miles c) VOR ident, magnetic bearing, distance in kilometers d) full name of VOR, true bearing, distance in kilometres Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In an ATS flight plan Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CAT), an aircraft will be classified as "L" if its MTOM is? a) 27,000 kg b) 7,000 kg c) 57,000 kg d) 10,000 kg Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE), where either a route for which standard departure (SID) and a standard arrival (STAR) are provided: a) SID nor STAR should be entered b) Both should be entered c) STAR should be entered but not SID d) SID should be entered but not STAR In flight it is possible to: 1. File an IFR flight plan 2. Modify an active flight plan 3. Cancel a VFR flight plan 4. Close a VFR flight plan The combination regrouping the correct statement is: a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,3,4 c) 1,4 d) 1,3 In order to comply with PANS-RAC during an IFR flight, deviations from flight plan particulars should be reported to ATC. Concerning TAS and time, the minimum deviations which must be reported are: a) TAS 5 kts and time 5 minutes b) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes c) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes d) TAS 10 kts and time 2 minutes In the appropriate box of an ATC flight plan for endurance one must indicate the time corresponding to: a) the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel b) the total usable fuel on board c) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes d) the required fuel for the flight Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In Item 10 (EQUIPMENT) of an ATC flight plan form, the letter to be used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes transponder with altitude reporting capability is: a) P b) A c) C d) S Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In Item 13 (TIME) of an ATC flight plan form corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to: a) take-off b) start-up c) go off blocks d) pass the departure beacon Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (CRUISING SPEED), a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as: a) KN470 b) 0470K c) N0470 d) N470 Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATC flight plan Item 15 (ROUTE) it is necessary to enter any point at which a change of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined as: a) 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more b) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more c) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more d) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATC flight plan Item 19 (PERSONS ON BOARD), if the number of passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is ready for filing: a) the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank b) the plan may not be filed until the information is available c) "TBN" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box d) an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In the ATS flight plan for a non-scheduled flight, which of the following letters should be entered in Item 8 (TYPE OF FLIGHT)? a) X b) G c) N/S d) N Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form Item 7 (AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION) of the flight plan, in accordance with PANS-RAC (DOC 4444), should always include, for an aircraft equipped with a radio, the: a) aircraft type b) aircraft initialization c) aircraft callsign d) aircraft operator Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form On a ATC flight plan in Item 15 (ROUTE), to indicate that you will overfly the waypoint ROMEO at 120 kts at FL 85, you will write: a) ROMEO/N0120F085 b) ROMEO/FL085N0120 c) ROMEO/K0120FL085 d) ROMEO/F085N0120 On a VFR ATC flight plan, the total estimated time is: a) the estimated time from engine start to landing at the destination airport b) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport plus 15 mins c) the estimated time required from take-off to arrive over the destination airport d) the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate airport Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form On an ATC flight plan in Item 9 (WAKE TURBULENCE CAT), an aircraft indicated as "H" for "Heavy": a) requires a runway length of at least 2,000m at maximum certified take-off mass b) is of the highest wake turbulence category c) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136,000 kg d) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140,000 kg Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form On an ATC flight plan in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES), the letter "Y" is used to indicate that the flight is carried out under the following flight rules: a) IFR followed by VFR b) IFR c) VFR followed by IFR d) VFR Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form On an ATC flight plan you are required to indicate in Item 15 (CRUISING SPEED), the planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise. This speed is: a) TAS b) IAS c) EAS d) Estimated ground speed Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form What is the maximum estimated elapsed time or distance between points on track mentioned in Item15 of the flight plan for flights outside designated ATS routes? a) 90 min 370 km b) 30 min 200 nm c) 60 min 370 nm d) 120 min 370 nm Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form In Item 19, ENDURANCE is? a) Total usable fuel required for the flight b) Maximum flight time plus 45 minutes holding fuel c) Fuel endurance of the aircraft d) Maximum flight time plus 30 minutes holding fuel Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form Given the following flight plan information: Trip fuel: 100 kg Flight time: 1 hr 35 min Taxy fuel: 3 kg Block fuel: 181 kg How should Item 19 (ENDURANCE) be completed on the ICAO flight plan? a) 0240 b) 0252 c) 0249 d) 0204 The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTC; estimated take-off time 1825 UTC. The flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at: a) 1715 UTC b) 1755 UTC c) 1745 UTC d) 1725 UTC When a pilot fills in an ATC flight plan he must indicate the wake turbulence category. This category is a function of which mass? a) Maximum certified landing mass b) Estimated take-off mass c) Actual take-off mass d) Maximum certified take-off mass When an ATC flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by: a) 45 minutes or more b) 60 minutes or more c) 30 minutes or more d) 90 minutes or more Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form When an ATC flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes points included in Item 15 (ROUTE) should not normally be at intervals of more than: a) 15 minutes flying time or 100 km b) 20 minutes flying time or 150 km c) 30 minutes flying time or 370 km d) 1 hour flying time or 500 km Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form When completing an ATC flight plan, a TOTAL EET (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as: a) 0115 b) 1H55 c) 0155 d) 115M When completing an ATC flight plan for a European destination clock times are to be expressed in: a) local mean time b) local standard time c) Central European Time (CET) d) UTC Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form When filling in Item 9 (TYPE OF AIRCRAFT) of the flight plan, if there is no aircraft designator listed what should the entry be? a) a descriptive abbreviation of the aircraft type b) XXXX followed by an entry at Item 18 (OTHER INFORMATION) c) None d) ZZZZ followed by an entry at Item 18 (OTHER INFORMATION) Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form When submitting a flight plan before flight, Item 13 (DEPARTURE TIME) is? a) The time at which the aircraft leaves the parking area b) Take-off time c) The time at which the flight plan is filed d) The time the aircraft is overhead the first reporting point You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the ATS route on passing the FIR boundary Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads "Cleared to London via flight plan route". Which of these statements is correct? a) The filed deviation is not accepted b) You will get a separate clearance for the deviation c) The route according to the flight plan is accepted d) It is not allowed to file such a flight plan Refer to Annex A: ICAO Flight Plan Form You have a mode A transponder (4 digits 4096 codes) and mode C. Item 10 EQUIPMENT) of the flight plan should show: a) P b) S c) C d) A You have filed a flight plan for an uncontrolled flight and suffer a delay prior to departure. After how long a delay must you restate your OBT? a) 30 min b) 40 min c) 60 min d) 90 min You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC? a) 20 min b) 45 min c) 10 min d) 30 min Meteorology Refer to Annex B Which describes the worst hazard if any that could be associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E? a) Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band b) Reduced visibility c) There is no hazard d) Engine flame out and windscreen damage Refer to Annex B The surface weather system over England (53°N 002°W) is: a) a warm front moving southeast b) a depression moving north c) a cold front moving east d) an occluded front moving east Refer to Annex B Which best describes the significant cloud if any forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E)? a) Nil b) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100 tops FL180 c) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100 tops FL180 d) 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100 tops FL180 Refer to Annex B Which best describes be maximum intensity of icing if any at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N 026°E)? a) Nil b) Light c) Moderate d) Severe Refer to Annex B Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT if any forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E)? a) Nil b) Light c) Moderate d) Severe Refer to Annex B The maximum wind velocity shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is: a) 300/100 b) 300/140 c) 290/110 d) 300/160 Refer to Annex B The wind velocity over ITALY is: a) a maximum of 100 kts at FL 380 b) 110 kts at FL380; maximum velocity not shown on chart c) a maximum of 110 kts at FL380 d) a maximum of 130 kts at FL 340 Refer to Annex C The wind velocity at 50°N 040°E is: a) 200/70 b) 020/70 c) 020/90 d) 350/80 Refer to Annex C The wind velocity at 60°N 015°W is: a) 110/150 b) 330/150 c) 290/150 d) 290/185 Refer to Annex C The approximate mean wind component at Mach 0.78 along course 270°T at 50°N from 000° to 010°W is: a) 40 kts headwind component b) 60 kts headwind component c) 25 kts tailwind component d) 35 kts tailwind component Refer to Annex C What is the ISA temperature deviation over 50°N 010°W? a) +3°C b) -3°C c) +9°C d) +13°C Refer to Annex C The wind velocity at 40°N 040°E is: a) 330/55 b) 330/75 c) 150/75 d) 300/75 Refer to Annex E What minimum visibility is forecast for 0600 UTC at LONDON HEATHROW (EGLL)? a) 1,500 m b) 2,200 m c) 5,000 m d) 10,000 m Refer to Annex C What mean temperature is likely on a course of 360°T from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E? a) -47°C b) -49°C c) -50°C d) -46°C Refer to Annex B Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the marked route from SHANNON (53°N 010°W) to BERLIN (53°N 013°E)? a) FL 210 b) FL 250 c) None d) FL 290 Refer to Annex G What mean temperature is likely on a course of 270°T from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N? a) -48°C b) -54°C c) -52°C d) -50°C Refer to Annex G The wind velocity at 60°N 015°W is: a) 300/60 b) 300/80 c) 330/60 d) 115/60 Refer to Annex B The surface system over BUCHAREST (44°N 026°E) is a: a) warm front moving north b) cold front moving west c) stationary occluded front d) cold front moving east Refer to Annex B Over LONDON (51°N 000°E/W) the lowest FL listed which is affected by CAT is: a) FL 270 b) FL 360 c) FL 310 d) FL 230 Refer to Annex F What lowest cloud conditions are forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC? a) 3 to 4 oktas at 800 ft b) 5 to 7 oktas at 400 ft c) 5 to 7 oktas at 800 ft d) 3 to 4 oktas at 400 ft Refer to Annex F The forecast period covered by both the PARIS/CHARLES DE GAULLE TAFs totals: a) 27 hours b) 18 hours c) 9 hours d) 20 hours Refer to Annex F The surface wind velocity at PARIS/CHARLES DE GAULLE at 1330 UTC was: a) 180/12 b) 300/05 c) 270/04 d) 270/08 Refer to Annex F Which best describes the weather if any at LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC? a) Nil b) Fog c) Frequent rain showers d) Light rain associated with thunderstorms Refer to Annex F Which is the heaviest type of precipitation if any forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC? a) Light rain b) Nil c) Rain showers d) Heavy rain associated with thunderstorms Refer to Annex F What maximum surface wind speed is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC? a) 25 kts b) 5 kts c) 10 kts d) 30 kts Refer to Annex F What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES DE GAULLE at 2100 UTC? a) 10 km b) 8,000 m c) 6,000 m d) 2,000 m Refer to Annex F Which best describes the weather if any forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC? a) Rain associated with thunderstorms b) CAVOK c) Patches of fog d) Mist and/or fog Refer to Annex D Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing if any at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53°N 013°E)? a) Severe b) Light c) Nil d) Moderate A METAR reads: SA1430 35002KT 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024= Which of the following information is contained in this METAR? a) Temperature / dewpoint b) Period of validity c) Runway in use d) Day / month Refer to Annex F What is the total time for which the weather is forecast at BIRMINGHAM? a) 28 hours b) 24 hours c) 18 hours d) 9 hours Refer to Annex F What is the lowest visibility forecast for BIRMINGHAM at 280800Z? a) 5,000 m b) 2,500 m c) 50 km d) 10 km or more Refer to Annex F What is the earliest time, if any, that thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/ CARTHAGE? a) Nil b) 1800 UTC c) 0800 UTC d) 1300 UTC Refer to Annex B In the vicinity of Paris (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is at about: a) FL 340 b) FL 400 c) FL 350 d) FL 380 Refer to Annex B In the vicinity of WARSAW (52°N 020°E) the tropopause is at about: a) FL 400 b) FL 330 c) FL 350 d) FL 370 Refer to Annex B Over PRAGUE (50°N 014°E) the lowest FL listed which is affected by CAT is: a) FL 350 b) FL 270 c) FL 300 d) FL 400 Refer to Annex B What is the most likely icing to be found at FL180 overhead CASABLANCA (33°N 008°W)? a) Moderate b) Severe c) Slight d) Light Refer to Annex C The approximate mean wind component along the course 180°T from 50°N to 40°N at 020°E is: a) 60 kts tailwind b) 55 kts headwind c) 40 kts tailwind d) 90 kts tailwind Refer to Annex C The wind velocity at 60°N 040°E is: a) 085/60 b) 040/60 c) 265/60 d) 230/60 Refer to Annex C What is the ISA deviation over 60°N 000°E/W? a) -10°C b) +2°C c) +10°C d) -55°C TAF EDDH ISSUED AT 042200 EDDH 0624 21010KT CAVOK BECMG 0810 9999 SCT025 SCT040 PROB30 TEMPO 1218 7000 -RADZ BKN012 BECMG 1620 7000 BKN020 TEMPO 1824 4000 RADZ BKN005 What are the lowest cloud conditions forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH)? a) 5 to 7 oktas at 2,000 ft b) 5 to 7 oktas at 500 ft c) 3 to 4 oktas at 500 ft d) 5 to 7 oktas at 1,200 ft
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