E
21-02-2021
MEDICAL
Entrance Exams - 2021
TEST No. 3
(XII Passed Students)
marked is allowed.
Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate
should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
marked correctly.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
Test No. 3
Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids,
Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics.
Electrochemistry, Solutions, Solid State, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry
Anatomy of Flowering Plants, Plant Kingdom; Locomotion & Movement, Neural
Control & Coordination, Chemical Coordination & Integration
Test-3 (Code-E)
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
TEST - 3
MM : 720
Time : 3 Hrs.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer:
1.
2.
The time period of an earth satellite in circular orbit
(1) –G
(2) –2G
is independent of
7
(3) – G
4
(4) –
(1) Radius of orbit
(2) Mass of satellite
(3) Mass of earth
(4) All of these
6.
Let EG and V be the gravitational field and
gravitational potential at a distance r, from the
centre of a uniform solid sphere. Consider the
following two statements.
(a) The plot of EG against r is continuous
(b) The plot of V against r is discontinuous
Choose the incorrect statement.
3.
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)
7.
A satellite of mass m is orbiting a planet of radius R,
at a height h from its surface. The kinetic energy of
to gravity at the planet’s surface is
(1)
(3)
4.
mg p R 2
(R + h )
mg p R 2
2 (R + h )
(2)
(4)
A planet has thrice the mass and double the radius
of earth. What will be the height above the surface
of planet where its acceleration due to gravity
reduces by 19% of its value on its surface? (R is
radius of the planet)
(1)
91R
7
(2)
R
9
(3)
93R
9
(4)
R
7
An object of mass 10 kg is divided into two parts,
which are placed at a distance d. If the gravitational
force of attraction is maximum between the parts,
then the ratio of the mass of both parts is
(1) 1
satellite in terms of gp, the value of acceleration due
(3)
mg p R 2
8.
2h
mg p R 2
15
G
8
1
2
(2) 2
(4)
1
3
Starting from the surface of earth (radius R), the
variation of acceleration due to gravity g, above the
surface is best represented by
h
A particle is kept at rest at distance 3R (R is radius
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
of earth) from the centre of earth. The minimum
speed with which it should be projected so that it
escapes from the earth’s gravitational field is
5.
(1)
2GM
3R
(3)
GM
R
(2)
GM
3R
(4)
2GM
R
9.
Four particles, each of mass 1 kg are situated on
x axis at distance 1 m, 2 m, 4 m and 8 m respectively
A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is
so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To
what
approximate
radius
would
moon
(m = 7.35 × 1022 kg) have to compressed to be a
black hole?
from the origin. The resulting gravitational potential
due to this system at the origin will be
(1) 10–9 m
(2) 10–6 m
(3) 10–4 m
(4) 10–2 m
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10.
Test-3 (Code-E)
The variation of kinetic energy (K), potential energy
(U) and total energy (E) of a satellite orbiting in a
circular orbit with radius of orbit r is best represented
as
14.
modulus of the liquid is 2.1 × 109 N/m2).
15.
(1)
The increase in pressure required to decrease the
400 litre volume of a liquid by 0.001% is (Bulk
(1) 42 kPa
(2) 63 kPa
(3) 84 kPa
(4) 21 kPa
A cube of side 5 cm has its upper surface displaced
by 0.01 cm by a tangential force of 10 kN. The
(2)
modulus of rigidity of cube is
16.
(3)
(1) 2 × 109 N/m2
(2) 109 N/m2
(3) 2 × 1010 N/m2
(4) 5 × 109 N/m2
A piece of wood is floating in a liquid kept in bottle.
The bottle is connected to an air pump. Where air is
pushed into the bottle from the pump, the piece of
(4)
wood will float with (neglect compressibility of
11.
Choose the
following.
correct
statements
among
liquid).
the
(1) Same part in liquid
(1) According to Kepler’s third law T2 = Kr3, K is
(2) Larger part in liquid
4π2
, where symbols have usual
GMe
(3) Lesser part in liquid
given as K =
meanings
(2) At equator, value of g is always more than that
of at the poles
(4) It will sink
17.
A water column is held in a vertical glass tube as
shown in the figure. If r is the radius of tube and σ is
the surface tension of water, then maximum mass
(3) Time period of a polar satellite is 12 hour
of water which can be held by the tube is
(4) Binding energy of orbiting satellite in circular
GMm
, where symbols have their usual
r
meaning
orbit is
12.
13.
Two particles, each of mass m, go round a circle of
radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle
is
(1)
Gm
2R
(2)
Gm
R
(3)
Gm
4R
(4)
4Gm
R
18.
The Young's modulus of the material of wire is
4 × 109 N m–2. If the elongation strain is 2%, then
the energy stored per unit volume in the wire is
(1) 4 × 108 J/m3
(2) 8 × 105 J/m3
(3) 2 × 106 J/m3
(4) 105 J/m3
(1)
2πr σ
g
(2)
πr σ
g
(3)
πσ
g
(4)
4πr σ
g
A hole is made at the bottom of the tank filled with
water. If the total pressure at the bottom of tank is
1.5 atm, then velocity of efflux is
(1 atm = 105 N/m2)
(1)
150 m/s
(2)
100 m/s
(3)
200 m/s
(4)
300 m/s
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Test-3 (Code-E)
19.
20.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
The neck and bottom of a bottle filled with water, are
1 cm and 10 cm in radius respectively. If a cork is
pressed with a force 10 N in the neck of bottle, then
force exerted on the bottom of the bottle is (neglect
effect of gravity)
24.
1
N
100
(1) 10 N
(2)
(3) 1000 N
(4) 100 N
Choose the correct statement(s) among the
following.
(1) Surface tension depends on area of the surface.
(2) Surface tension arises due to intermolecular
cohesive forces.
(3) On increasing the temperature, surface tension
always decreases.
(4) At critical temperature,
becomes infinite.
21.
surface
25.
tension
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d
A pendulum clock having metal rod keeps correct
time at 20°C. It gains 10 seconds per day if cooled
to 0°C. The coefficient of linear expansion of metal
is nearly
(1) 1.16 × 10–5 °C–1
(2) 1.16 × 10–4 °C–1
(1) Speed of a fluid particle always remains same
(3) 1.7 × 10–5 °C–1
(4) 1.7 × 10–4 °C–1
26.
(3) The momentum of all particles arriving at a
given point, are the same
A U-tube containing a liquid is accelerating
horizontally with a constant acceleration a0. If the
separation between the vertical limbs is l then
difference in heights of liquid in two arms will be
a
(1) 0 l
g
(3)
l a0
2 g
(2) g
(4)
g
(2) All bodies
(3) Bodies painted black only
(4) Polished bodies only
27.
l
a0
2
a02
The thermal radiation emitted by a body is
proportional to Tx, where T is absolute temperature.
The value of x is exactly 4 for
(1) A black body only
(4) Both (2) and (3)
23.
(1) a
In streamline flow
(2) The kinetic energy of all the particles arriving at
a given point, are the same
22.
Which of the following curves, as shown in the
figure, represents the relation between Fahrenheit
and Celsius temperatures?
A solid and a hollow sphere of same material and of
equal radii are heated to same temperature, then
(1) Both will emit equal amount of radiation per unit
time in beginning.
l
Two rods P and Q of same length and area but of
different materials are welded together as shown in
the figure. Their thermal conductivities are K and
3K. The thermal conductivity of the composite rod
will be
(2) Both spheres will have equal temperature at
any instant.
(3) The initial rate of cooling will be the same for the
two spheres.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
28.
An anisotropic material has coefficient of linear
3
α along x, y and z axis
2
respectively. The coefficient of cubical expansion is
expansions as α, 2α and
(1) K
(2) 2K
(3) 3K
(4)
(1) 3α
3K
2
(3)
9
α
2
(2) 9α
(4)
3
α
2
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29.
Test-3 (Code-E)
2 g of ice at 0°C is dropped in a beaker containing
10 g of water at 20°C. The final temperature of the
mixture will be
(1) 10°C
(2)
10
°C
3
(3) 5°C
14
(4)
°C
3
30.
The triple point of water has its value of temperature
and pressure as
34.
(3) –210 J
(4) –150 J
An ideal diatomic gas is supplied the heat of
140 J very slowly keeping pressure constant. The
work done by the gas will be
(1) 100 J
(2) 40 J
(2) 373.16 K, 0.006 atm
(3) 60 J
(4) 120 J
35.
The efficiency of heat engine working between 27°C
and 327°C may be
(1) 50%
(2) 35%
(3) 25%
(4) All of these
An ideal gas is enclosed in an insulating cylinder as
shown in the figure. The piston is frictionless and
attached with an ideal spring when the gas is
(4) 373.16 K, 0.06 atm
32.
(2) –235 J
(1) 273.16 K, 0.006 atm
(3) 273.16 K, 0.06 atm
31.
(1) –185 J
heated, then
Consider the two processes I and II as shown in the
figure.
(1) Internal energy of the gas increases
The volume in the initial states are same in the
process I and II. The final volumes of the two
process are also same. If W1 and W2 be the work
done by the system in processes I and II
respectively then
(2) Work is equal to heat supplied
(3) Work is done against spring only
(4) Work is done against atmospheric pressure
only
36.
An ideal diatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process
ABCA as shown in the figure. The ratio of work done
on the gas during process BC to the heat absorbed
during process AB, is
(1) W1 = W2
(2) W1 > W2
(3) W1 < W2
(4) Nothing can be said about relation of W1 and W2
33.
A gas is taken along the path AB as shown in the
figure. If 50 cal of heat is extracted from the gas in
the process, then change in internal energy of the
system is (1 cal = 4.2 J)
(1)
4
ln ( 2 )
5
(2)
4
ln ( 2 )
7
(3)
5
ln ( 2 )
4
(4)
7
ln ( 2 )
4
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Test-3 (Code-E)
37.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
The corresponding volume (V) - temperature (T)
graph is
An ideal gas is taken through a cyclic process
ABCDA as shown in the figure. The work done by
gas in the cyclic process is
(1)
(1) P0V0
(2)
(2) 2P0V0
(3) 3P0V0
(4) 4P0V0
38.
For an ideal gas, R =
2
Cp , where Cp is molar
5
(3)
specific heat capacity at constant pressure. In
adiabatic process, pressure of the gas is
proportional to T n . The value of n is
(1)
5
2
(4)
5
(2)
3
39.
40.
(3)
7
5
(4)
7
2
41.
An ideal gas undergoes adiabatic process. If the
3
adiabatic modulus of elasticity is P , then choose
2
the correct relation.
A monoatomic gas undergoes a process given by
dU + 3dW = 0. The process is
(1) PT3 = Constant
(2) TV 2 = Constant
(1) Isothermal
(2) Adiabatic
(3) PV–3 = Constant
(4) TV 2 = Constant
(3) Isobaric
(4) Polytropic
42.
–1
1
Which of the following is state function of
thermodynamic process?
The pressure (P) - volume (V) graph of an ideal gas
(1) Temperature
(2) Volume
is shown below.
(3) Work
(4) Both (1) and (2)
43.
The efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50%. If same
system is used as heat pump, then coefficient of
performance of heat pump is
(1) 2
(2)
1
2
(3) 4
(4)
1
4
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44.
Test-3 (Code-E)
The pressure and volume, of an ideal gas of fix
mass, both increases in a process. Then choose
correct statement(s).
45.
An adiabatic reversible process is also called as
(1) Isometric process
(1) Work done by the system is positive
(2) Isoentropic process
(2) Temperature of the system must increases
(3) Isobaric process
(3) Heat supplied to the gas is equal to change in
internal energy
(4) Isothermal process
(4) Both (1) and (2)
[CHEMISTRY]
46.
The vacant space in fcc lattice unit cell and bcc
lattice unit cell respectively are
(1) 26% and 32%
(2) 48% and 32%
(3) 74% and 68%
(4) 32% and 26%
53.
°
°
°
(1) Λm
(NH4 Cl) + Λm
(NaOH) − Λm
(NaCl)
°
°
°
(2) Λm
(NH4 Cl) + Λm
(NaCl) − Λm
(NaOH)
47. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for the dilute aqueous
solution of urea is
48.
(1) 0.5
(2) 1.5
(3) 1
(4) 2
(2) CH3COCH3 + CS2
(3) HCl + H2O
(4) C2H5Br + C2H5I
49. Lowest freezing point among the following aq.
solution is shown by
50.
51.
(1) 0.2 m Glucose
(2) 0.15 m NaCl
(3) 0.1 m CaCl2
(4) 0.1 m K4[Fe(CN)6]
54.
ion(Cl–) respectively are
55.
For which of the following order reactions, unit of
rate constant is equal to the unit of rate of reaction?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 1.5
(4) 0
The quantity of electricity required to reduce 0.1 mol
(1) 4828 C
(2) 9650 C
(3) 2895 C
(4) 1235 C
In an aqueous solution of glucose, the mole fraction
of glucose is 0.2. The molality of this glucose
solution is
(1) 11.56 m
(2) 13.88 m
(3) 12.21 m
(4) 14.56 m
In NaCl lattice (Rock salt structure), the coordination number of sodium ion (Na+) and chloride
(1) 6 and 6
(2) 8 and 8
(3) 6 and 8
(4) 4 and 6
An atom (P) crystallises in a body-centred cubic
lattice with a unit cell edge length of a pm. The
diameter of atom(P) (in pm) is
of MnO−4 into MnO24− is
52.
°
°
°
(3) Λm
(NaOH) + Λm
(NaCl) − Λm
(NH4 Cl)
°
°
°
(4) Λm
(HCl) + Λm
(NaOH) − Λm
(NH4 Cl)
Among the following solutions, positive deviations
from Raoult's law is shown by
(1) CHCl3 + C6H6
The limiting molar conductivity of NH4OH is given by
56.
57.
(1)
3a
(2)
(3)
3a
2
(4)
2a
3
a
2 3
Paints are colloidal solution of
(1) Solid in liquid
(2) Liquid in solid
(3) Liquid in liquid
(4) Gas in liquid
The time required to produce 0.2 mol of H2(g) using
a current of 2 ampere by the electrolysis of aqueous
sodium chloride is
(1) 424.51 minutes
(2) 385.28 minutes
(3) 321.66 minutes
(4) 495.97 minutes
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Test-3 (Code-E)
58.
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
The equilibrium constant for the reaction
63.
°
= + 0.9 V
3Sn4 + + 2Cr → 3Sn2+ + 2Cr 3 + ; Ecell
10 seconds is (charge on one electron = 1.6 × 10–19
coulomb)
at 298 K will be
59.
(1) 1085.21
(2) 1076.76
(1) 1020
(2) 1018
(3) 1098.25
(4) 1091.37
(3) 1019
(4) 1021
64.
The electrode potentials for Cu2+ (aq) / Cu+ (aq)
electrode and
Cu2+ (aq) / Cu (s)
potential for the electrode Cu2+ (aq) / Cu(s) will be
65.
(2) –0.25 V
(3) +1.2 V
(4) +0.65 V
Among the following aqueous solution, the best
(2) 0.75 V
conductor of electric current is
(3) 0.69 V
(4) 0.51 V
(1) 0.2 M sucrose
(2) 0.1 M NH4OH
(3) 0.1 M NaOH
(4) 0.1 M Urea
Standard oxidation potentials of the half reaction are
66.
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e– ,
Eº = – 0.77 V
2I– → I2 + 2e– ,
Eº = – 0.536 V
Mn → Mn2+ + 2e– ,
Eº = + 1.18 V
Zn → Zn2+ + e– ,
Eº = + 0.76 V
Select the incorrect statement among the following.
(1) Fuel cell converts combustion energy of fuels
directly into electrical energy
(2) An increase in equivalent conductance of a
strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to
increase in ionic mobility of ions
The strongest reducing agent among the following
(3) The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by
is
∆H
∆G
(1) Fe2+
(2) Mn
(4) The most convenient method to protect the
(3) I–
(4) Zn
bottom of ship made of iron is connecting it with
Mg block
The volume of Hydrogen gas produced at STP from
H+ ions in a solution by certain quantity of charge is
67.
same quantity of electric charge will be
(1) 145.5 g
(2) 130.6 g
(3) 120.8 g
(4) 156.25 g
The equivalent conductance of
M
solution of a
10
68.
weak monobasic acid (HA) is 4 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1. The
dissociation
constant
of
the
acid
will
When the temperature of a reaction is raised from
27°C to 37°C, the rate of reaction becomes
doubled. The activation energy of the reaction will
be (R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)
44.8 L. The mass of Zn (atomic mass = 65.3 amu)
deposited at cathode from Zn2+ solution by the
62.
(1) –0.41 V
(1) 0.81 V
given below
61.
The reduction potential of H-electrode in pure water
at 298 K and 1 atm pressure is
electrode are
+0.15 V and +0.33 V respectively. The electrode
60.
The number of electrons involved during
electrolysis by a current of 1.6 ampere in
be
∞
(Given : ( Λ eq
)HA =
80 ohm−1 cm2 eq−1 )
(1) 48.1 kJ mol–1
(2) 59.8 kJ mol–1
(3) 64.2 kJ mol–1
(4) 53.6 kJ mol–1
For
the
reaction
SO2 +
1
O2 → SO3 ;
2
−d[O2 ]
= 1× 10−4 mol L−1 s−1, then the value of
dt
d[SO3 ]
will be
dt
(1) 2.5 × 10–4
(2) 3.5 × 10–3
(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 2 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 6.5 × 10–4
(4) 5.5 × 10–5
(3) 4 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 5 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1
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69.
70.
Test-3 (Code-E)
If specific rate constant for a first order reaction is
1 × 10–3 s–1 then the half-life period of the reaction
will be
(1) 69.3 s
(2) 6.93 s
(3) 0.693 s
(4) 693 s
76.
(1) Coenzyme increases the catalytic activity of
enzymes
(2) Enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature
(3) Enzymes
For the reaction A + B → products, it is observed
that
(b) On doubling the initial concentration of B only,
the rate of reaction is also doubled
(4) Enzymes
71.
(3) Rate = k [A]1 [B]2
(4) Rate = k [A]0 [B]1
Select the incorrect statement(s) for zero order
reaction
77.
72.
73.
74.
75.
bio-chemical
are
reactive
at
least
Which among the following effective ion has
78.
79.
(1) Al3+
(2) Na+
(3) Mg2+
(4) NH+4
For a spontaneous adsorption process
(1) ∆H is negative
(2) ∆G is negative
(3) ∆S is negative
(4) All of these
The number of carbon atoms present in octahedral
(3) Its rate decreases with time
voids per unit cell of diamond unit cell is
(4) All of these
(1) 8
(2) 0
(3) 4
(4) 2
Which of the following quantities is/are altered by
the addition of a catalyst during a chemical
reaction?
(1) Rate constant
(2) Activation energy
(3) Threshold energy
(4) All of these
(2) 1.5 M
(3) 0.25 M
(4) 2 M
80.
number of cation vacancies produced in 1 mole of
81.
(2) Coagulation
(3) Electrophoresis
(4) All of these
(1) 3.11 × 1016
(2) 6.022 × 1018
(3) 6.022 × 1016
(4) 3.011 × 1018
A solid compound (XY) has NaCl type structure. If
the edge length of unit cell is 800 pm then the radius
of anion will be
The property of colloidal solution which depends on
the charge present on colloidal solution is/are
(1) Electro-osmosis
If NaCl is dopped with 10–5 mole% of SrCl2, then the
NaCl will be
The rate constant of the reaction A → B is
6.93 min–1. If initial concentration of A is 2 M then
concentration of B after 12 second will be
(1) 1 M
optimum
maximum coagulating power for As2S3 sol?
(1) It takes infinite time for completion
(2) Its half life is independent of initial concentration
of reaction
catalyse
temperature
The expression for this reaction rate is given by
(2) Rate = k [A]2 [B]1
mainly
reactions
(a) On doubling the initial concentrations of both A
and B, the rate of reaction becomes four times
(1) Rate = k [A]1 [B]1
Which one of the following statement is not correct?
82.
(1) 282.88 pm
(2) 260.12 pm
(3) 295.43 pm
(4) 271.45 pm
In a mixed oxide of metals A and B, oxide ions are
in
ccp
lattice
and
A2+
cation
Which of the following not forms micelles in
aqueous solution above certain concentration?
arranged
(1) Dodecyl trimethyl ammonium chloride
occupy all the octahedral voids. The formula of the
(2) Dodecyl stearate
oxide is
(3) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(1) AB2O2
(2) A2B2O3
(4) Pyridinium chloride
(3) ABO2
(4) AB4O4
occupy one fourth of tetrahedral voids and B+ cation
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Test-3 (Code-E)
83.
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Select the option in which the given crystal system
87.
correctly matches with their axial parameters.
(1) The value of molal elevation constant (Kb)
(1) Triclinic : a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90°
depends on molality of aqueous solution
(2) Trigonal : a = b = c and α = β = γ ≠ 90°
(2) Molality of solution depends on temperature
(3) Monoclinic : a = b ≠ c and α = γ = 90°, β ≠ 90°
(3) All the noble gases have the same value of
(4) Tetragonal : a = b ≠ c and α = β = 90°,
Henry's constant at the same temperature
γ = 120°
84.
(4) Osmotic pressure method is one of the best
Select the correct statement(s) regarding Schottky
method used for the determination of molecular
defect
weight of proteins
(1) It is stoichiometric defect
88.
(1) Vapour pressure
(3) AgBr shows this defect
(2) Boiling point
(3) Freezing point
Select the aqueous solution which is not isotonic
with 0.2 M NaCl solution
(4) Lowering of vapour pressure
89.
(1) 0.4 M Urea solution
At 25°C, the total pressure of a solution obtained by
mixing 1 mole of A (p°A = 100 torr) and 2 mole of B
(2) 0.2 M KCl solution
86.
Which of the following is a colligative property?
(2) Due to this defect, density of crystal decreases
(4) All of these
85.
Select the correct statement among the following.
(3) 0.1 M CaCl2 solution
(pB° = 200 torr) will be
(4) 0.1 M AlCl3 solution
(1) 133.33 torr
(2) 166.66 torr
Entropy of solution on mixing process
(3) 143.25 torr
(4) 173.33 torr
(1) Increases for both ideal and non-ideal solution
90.
For the reaction, A + B + C → products, the rate
(2) Decreases for both ideal and non-ideal solution
expression is given by, rate = k[A] [B]0.5 [C].
(3) Increases for ideal solution but decreases for
If B is in excess, the overall order of reaction will be
non-ideal solutions
(4) Decreases for ideal solution but increases for
non-ideal solutions
(1) 2.5
(2) 0.5
(3) 2
(4) 1.5
[BIOLOGY]
91.
Primary meristem
92.
Formation of
A
occurs due to the activity of
(1) Is always found at the apex of plant body
secondary meristem only.
(2) Can be exemplified by cork cambium
Complete the above statement by choosing correct
option for A.
(3) Is responsible for primary and may responsible
for secondary growth in plants
(4) Cannot be found between two permanent
tissues.
(1) Phellem
(2) Secondary xylem in stem
(3) Axillary bud
(4) Secondary phloem in stem
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93.
Test-3 (Code-E)
101. Select the incorrect match :
A parenchyma tissue
(1) Is made up of two types of cells
(1)
Pith
–
stem
(2) Cannot have intercellular spaces
(3) May secrete resin, nectar & oil
(2)
Pericycle
–
96.
97.
(3)
Hypodermis
–
Absent in root
(1) Sclerenchyma fibres (2) Collenchyma
(4)
Xylem
–
Exarch type in roots
(4) Sclereids
102. To differentiate a dicot root from monocot root, one
99.
must focuses on
Protophloem differs from metaphloem as the former
lacks
(1) Number of vascular bundles
(1) Sieve tubes
(2) Companion cells
(2) Arrangement of vascular bundles
(3) Bast fibers
(4) Phloem parenchyma
(3) Type of xylem according to arrangement of
proto & metaxylem
Which of the following elements of vascular tissues
is generally not seen in gymnosperms?
(1) Trachea
(2) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Sieve cells
(4) Phloem fibres
(4) Presence and absence of hypodermis
103. The only ground tissue of leaves is
The xylary element which helps in radial conduction
of water
98.
monocot stem
Thick walled cells which provide gritty texture to
guava fruits are called
(3) Cork cells
95.
Thick walled
sclerenchymatous in
(4) Is a living mechanical tissue
94.
Well developed in dicot
(1) Endodermis
(2) Mesophyll
(3) Cortex
(4) Hypodermis
104. Monocot stem lacks
(1) Is the living xylary element
(1) Water containing cavities in the vascular bundle
(2) Has lignin deposited walls
(2) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
(3) Has elongated cells with tapering ends
(3) Bundle sheath
(4) Has obliterated lumen
(4) Medullary rays
105. Dorsiventral leaves have
Epidermal tissue system does not include
(1) Trichomes
(2) Stomata
(3) Epiblema
(4) Casparian strip
(1) More number of stomata on upper surface of
leaves
(2) Bulliform cells on ventral surface of leaves
All of the following are functions of pericycle, except
(3) Palisade mesophyll below adaxial surface of
(1) Provides mechanical support
leaves
(2) May store food
(4) Parallel venation
(3) To form meristem
106. How many of the following structures are formed by
(4) Forms a part of extra stellar cambium in dicot
stem
100. Vascular bundles are scattered in the ground tissue
in
the activity of cambium?
(a) Phelloderm
(b) Duramen
(c) Phellogen
(d) Cork
(e) Protoxylem
(1) Mango stem
(2) Maize stem
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) Pea root
(4) Tomato root
(3) 5
(4) 2
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107. Read the given statements regarding early wood
and mark the wrong one
113. Mark the following statements as true (T) or false
(F) and select the correct option.
A. Leafy
(1) Formed in spring season
gametophore
of
Sphagnum
bears
antheridial and archegonial branches.
(2) Lighter in colour
B. Selaginella show events precursor to the seed
(3) Have lesser density and narrow cavity vessels
habit
(4) Cannot be seen in plants of tropical region
C. All vascular cryptogams are heterosporous.
108. Stele does not include
(1) Pericycle
(2) Pith
(3) Cortex
(4) Xylem
109. Choose the odd one for bark.
A
B
C
(1) F
T
F
(2) T
T
F
(3) T
F
T
(4) F
F
F
114. Artificial system of classification includes
(1) Have lenticels
(1) Anatomical features
(2) Help in gaseous exchange
(2) Embryological development
(3) Composed of vascular cambium & phellogen
(3) Phytochemistry
(4) Protects the plant
(4) Morphological features
110. Annual rings are not distinct in all, except
(1) Dicot root of temperate plants
115. All of the following organisms produce non
flagellated gametes, except
(2) Stem of plants of central North America
(1) Ulothrix
(3) Stem of plants of tropical area
(2) Spirogyra
(4) Root of plants of Asia
(3) Gelidium
(4) Polysiphonia
111. Alburnum
116. Match the columns and select the correct option.
(1) Lacks tyloses
Column I
(2) Is primary xylem
(3) Has tannin & phenols
(4) Is the centre most region of wood
112. Find the incorrect match.
(1)
Kelps
–
Profusely
body
branched
(2)
Chara
–
Branched brown alga
(3)
Porphyra
–
Non motile
spores
(4)
Gelidium
–
Do not show isogamy
asexual
Column II
a.
Laminaria
(i)
Protein rich
b.
Gelidium
(ii)
Source of iodine
c.
Sargassum
(iii)
Agar-Agar
d.
Chlorella
(iv)
Food source
a
b
c
d
(1) (iv)
(ii)
(iii)
(i)
(2) (iii)
(ii)
(iv)
(i)
(3) (iv)
(iii)
(i)
(ii)
(4) (ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i)
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Test-3 (Code-E)
117. Mark the statement incorrect for both Riccia and
Marchantia
123. Read the following statements regarding
angiosperms and choose the correct option to fill
(1) Both have dioecious plant body
the given blanks.
(2) They asexually reproduce through gemmae
A. Embryo sac formation is ________ by meiosis.
B. The egg apparatus is _________ structure.
(3) They have biflagellated antherozoids
C. ________ represent female gametophyte.
(4) Their protonema vegetatively reproduce by
(1) A - Preceded, C - Archegonia
budding and fragmentation
(2) B - Three celled, C - Ovule
118. Choose the option having name of a member of
lycopsida with its correct feature.
(1)
Pteris
–
Produces prothallus
(2)
Selaginella
–
Produces
male
(4) B - Three celled, C - Embryo sac
124. Phenomenon unique to angiosperms is
independent
and
(3) A - Succeeded, B - Seven celled
female
gametophytes
(3)
Equisetum
–
Lycopodium
–
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Polytrichum
(4) Seed formation
(1) All plants showing this life cycle produce seeds
& fruits
(2) Some algae also exhibit this life cycle pattern
119. Ovule as well as archegonia both are seen in
(2) Eucalyptus
(3) Embryo formation
diplontic life cycle.
Produces two types of
spores
(1) Ginkgo
(2) Triple fusion
125. Select the statement incorrect for plants showing
Produces strobilus and
rhizome
(4)
(1) Syngamy
(3) None of the bryophyte show such life cycle
(4) In
these
plants
meiosis
occurs
during
gametogenesis
126. Which of the given is not true for Cycas?
120. Peat is obtained from
(1) Funaria
(2) Sphagnum
(1) Symbiotic N2 fixation occurs in their roots
(3) Riccia
(4) Marchantia
(2) Female plants lack cones
(3) Multicellular female gametophyte contains three
celled egg apparatus
121. “A gymnospermic plant produces winged pollen
grains”
Which of the given features are true for the above
plant?
(4) They have pinnately compound leaves
127. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
(1)
(a) Dioecious
Cytotaxonomy
–
(b) Branched stem
(c) Needle like leaves
etc.
(d) Covered seeds
(2)
(e) Male and female cone formation
Chemotaxonomy
–
(1) (a), (b), (c) & (e) only (2) (a), (b), (c) & (d) only
(3) (c) & (e) only
Includes
chromosome
structure, number
(4) (b), (c) & (e) only
plants
(3)
Numerical
taxonomy
–
Based on internal
features only
(4)
Natural system
of classification
–
Based on natural
affinities
122. Which one is not true for prothallus?
(1) Multicellular
(2) Have rhizoids
(3) Diploid
(4) Photosynthetic
Based on chemical
constituents
of
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128. Identify the option with structures having same
ploidy in bryophytes.
133. In all of the given plants male and female sex
organs are produced on same plant body, except
(1) Seta, archegoniophore, rhizoid
(1) Sphagnum
(2) Dryopteris
(2) Gemmae, protonema, antherozoid
(3) Riccia
(4) Marchantia
(3) Oosphere, sporangium, androcyte
134. Choose the odd one for zoospores of brown algae
(4) Archegonia, spore mother cell, capsule
(1) Two flagella
129. Read the given statements and choose the correct
(2) Flagella are of equal length
option.
(3) Laterally inserted flagella
A. The sporophyte of Riccia is more developed
than Funaria
(4) Involved in asexual reproduction
135. In which of the given plants female gametophyte is
retained on parent sporophyte only for some time?
B. Volvox shows oogamy
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A & B are correct
(1) Pteris
(2) Funaria
(3) Fucus
(4) Selaginella
136. Select
(4) Both A & B are incorrect
(3) Pteris
(4) Pea
131. Read the following table and choose the correct
Embryo
Seed
Fruit
Cedrus
Present
Present
A
Polytrichum
B
Absent
Absent
Equisetum
Present
C
Absent
that
describes
(1)
Anterior
pituitary
–
Parturition and lactation
(2)
Ovary
–
Maintenance
luteum
(3)
Placenta
–
Embryo implantation and
Parturition
(4)
Posterior
pituitary
–
Uterine contractions
milk ejection
option for the places A, B or C.
Plant
match
this hormone
well as sporophyte are independent structures?
(2) Polytrichum
correct
structure/gland releasing oxytocin and function of
130. In which of the given plants both gametophyte as
(1) Pinus
the
of
corpus
and
137. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. insulin
(1) Acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipose tissue
(1) A - Present, C - Absent
(2) Considered as hyperglycemic hormone
(2) B - Present, C - Present
(3) A - Absent, B - Absent
(3) Stimulate conversion of glucose to glycogen
(4) B - Present, C - Absent
(4) It is a dimeric protein containing A and B chains
132. Mark the option with correct pairs of plants which
138. Which of the following proteins has binding sites for
produce motile male gametes.
ATP and active sites for actin?
(1) Porphyra, Pteris
(1) Actin
(2) Salvinia, Sphagnum
(2) Myosin
(3) Wolfia, Marchantia
(3) Troponin
(4) Dictyota, Gracilaria
(4) Tropomyosin
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Test-3 (Code-E)
139. The inner ear contains a complex system located
above the cochlea called
A . It is influenced by
gravity and helps us in maintaining
B
144. Repeated activation of muscle can lead to
accumulation of lactic acid to cause muscle fatigue.
This lactic acid is produced due to
. Choose
(1) Aerobic breakdown of glycogen
the option which correctly represents A and B
A
B
(1)
Organ of Corti
Hearing
(2)
Reissner’s
Balance of head position
(2) Creatine phosphate
(3) Anaerobic breakdown of glycogen
(4) Increase in ATP
145. Diagrammatic representation of knee-jerk reflex is
shown below. Choose the correct option regarding
membrane
(3)
Vestibular
apparatus
Balance of the body
(4)
Basilar
Dynamic equilibrium
different labels located in this diagram in following
table.
membrane
140. Joint present between phalanges of hand is similar
to joints present between
(1) Upper end of radius and ulna
(2) Lower end of tibia and fibula
A
B
C
(1)
Afferent
pathway
Efferent
pathway
Grey
matter
White
matter
(2)
Efferent
pathway
Afferent
pathway
White
matter
Grey
matter
(3)
Efferent
pathway
Sensory
neurons
Dorsal
root
Ventral
root
(4)
Afferent
pathway
Efferent
pathway
White
matter
Grey
matter
(3) Lower end of femur and upper end of tibia
(4) Joint present between carpal and metacarpal of
thumb
141. How many hormones from given below in the box
are lipid soluble ?
FSH, LH, Prolactin, Oestrogen, Progesterone
Adrenaline, Cortisol, ANF
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 3
142. Differentiation of T-lymphocytes is under control of
hormone
(1) Thyroxine
(2) Thymosin
(3) TCT
(4) TSH
D
146. During repolarisation of a neuron, select the ion
which moves outside from intracellular fluid of axon
by voltage gated channels.
143. Which of the following structure of membranous
labyrinth is responsible for static equilibrium in our
body?
(1) K+
(2) Na+
(3) Ca+2
(4) Cl–
147. Which is correct sequence of brain meninges from
inside to outside?
(1) Cochlea
(1) Arachnoid, dura mater and pia mater
(2) Semicircular canals
(2) Pia mater, arachnoid and dura mater
(3) Crista ampullaris
(3) Dura mater, arachnoid and pia mater
(4) Utriculus and sacculus
(4) Pia mater, dura mater and arachnoid
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152. Corpora quadrigemina is a part of
148. ANF is a peptide hormone secreted from
(1) Atrial wall
(2) Ventricular wall
(3) JG cells
(4) Cells in blood vessels
149. Match diseases in column-A with their related
neurotransmitters in column B. Choose the option
with all correct match.
Column A
(1) Forebrain
(2) Hindbrain
(3) Midbrain
(4) Cerebrum
153. Association area of brain is responsible for all of the
following functions except
(1) Intersensory association
(2) Memory
Column B
(3) Communication
(4) Emotional and sexual behaviour
a.
Parkinson’s
disease
(i)
Acetylcholine
b.
Huntington’s
chorea
(ii)
Dopamine
c.
Alzheimer’s
disease
(iii)
GABA
154. Which of the following nervous system transmits
impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles?
(1) Sympathetic neural system
(2) Somatic neural system
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(3) Visceral neural system
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(4) Parasympathetic neural system
150. Read the following statements A and B w.r.t.
ultrastructure of skeletal muscle and select the
correct option
155. Reflex action is a process of response to a
peripheral nervous stimulation that occurs
(1) Involuntarily i.e., without conscious effort and
Statement A : Dark bands in myofibrils contain
required involvement of a part of CNS.
myosin filaments.
(2) Voluntarily i.e., with conscious effort and does
Statement B : Each thin filament is formed by two
not require the involvement of a part of CNS.
filamentous tropomyosin and two filamentous F
(3) Involuntarily i.e., without conscious effort and
actin helically wound to each other.
does not require involvement of CNS
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Voluntarily i.e., with conscious effort and
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
requires the involvement of a part of CNS.
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
151. Select the correct match w.r.t. parts of brain and
156. Read the following statements A and B and choose
the correct option.
their function
(1)
(2)
Cerebellum
Thalamus
Statement A : A canal called cerebral aqueduct
-
Regulates
temperature
Major
passes through the midbrain.
body
Statement
-
Respiration
centre
(4)
Medulla
oblongata
-
Memory
communication
Cerebral
hemispheres
are
called corpus callosum.
centre for sensory
and motor signaling
Hypothalamus
:
connected by a tract of connective tissue fibres
coordinating
(3)
B
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
rhythm
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect
and
(4) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect
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Test-3 (Code-E)
157. Which statement is not correct for hearing
162. Choose
the
incorrect
statement
regarding
mechanism in human?
structure of myosin filaments.
(1) External ear receives sound waves and direct
them to tympanum through external auditory
(1) Myosin filaments are arranged parallely to
longitudinal axis of myofibrils
meatus
(2) Myosin filaments are attached to M-line which is
(2) Movement of Reissner’s membrane primarily
bend the hair cells against tectorial membrane.
a thin membrane present in the centre of Hzone
(3) Impulses are transmitted by the afferent fibres
via auditory nerves to the cortex of cerebrum
(3) Each myosin filament is a monomeric protein
containing a globular head with a short arm and
tail
(4) Vibrations are transmitted to fluid of cochlea
through oval window
158. The region of the eye where optic nerves leave the
eye and blood vessels enter in it, is
(1) Yellow spot
(2) Blind spot
(3) Fovea
(4) Optic chiasma
(4) Short arm with head is called cross arm of
meromyosin
163. A joint disorder in which inflammation of joint takes
place due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is
called
159. Photoreceptor cells in human eyes become
hyperpolarised in response to bright light and
generate action potential through bipolar neurons in
(1) Ganglionic cells
(2) Horizontal cells
(3) Rods
(4) Cones
(1) Osteoporosis
(2) Gout
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Tetany
164. During relaxation stage of a muscle cell, H-zone, a
lighter region of low density can be seen in the
centre of
(1) A-band
160. Which of the following is not a part of brain stem?
(1) Midbrain
(2) Pons
(2) I-band
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum
(3) Z-band
161. Read the following statements carefully and choose
the option with all correct statements.
(a) Language
cerebrum
comprehension
is
function
(4) Two adjacent M-lines
165. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
skeletal system present in our body?
of
(1) Axial skeleton comprises 80 bones distributed
along the main axis of the body
(b) In presence of light, rhodopsin dissociates into
opsin and retinal which is derivative of vitamin
(2) Bone and cartilage are specialized connective
C
tissue, both have very hard matrix due to
calcium salts in them
(c) Bowman’s glands are located in olfactory
epithelium of our nose
(3) There are 22 bones forming cranium and face
(d) The transparent lens in human eye is held in its
position by ligaments attached to the Iris.
(1) (a) and (b)
(4) U-shaped hyoid bone is present at the base of
buccal cavity
166. The total number of bones in hind limbs of a human
(2) (b) and (c)
is
(3) (c) and (d)
(1) 30
(2) 29
(4) (a) and (c)
(3) 60
(4) 26
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167. Which of the following bone does not participate in
(1) Thymus
formation of rib cage?
(2) Thyroid
(1) Collar bone
(2) Ribs
(3) Pancreas
(3) Sternum
(4) Thoracic vertebrae
(4) Kidney
168. Read the following statements a to d and select the
option with all incorrect statements.
172. Which of the following hormone does not require
secondary messenger for their action?
(a) Both tibia and fibula participate in formation of
knee joint with condyles of femur.
(b) Both radius and ulna participates in formation of
elbow joint with lower end of femur
Thyroxine, Estrogen, Progesterone
scapula
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Triiodothyronine
Renin, Erythropoietin, Growth hormone, Cortisol,
(d) Pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle and a
(3) Only (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Epinephrine
increasing RBC count?
vertebral column hence are called floating ribs
(2) Only (a) and (b)
(2) STH
173. How many hormones from given below box help in
(c) Floating ribs are not connected dorsally with
(1) Only (a)
(1) Gonadotropins
(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Five
174. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in children
169. Which statement is not correct for muscle
contraction?
causes gigantism but in adults after age of 25 years,
it does not affect on linear growth of bones but
(1) Length of actin and myosin filaments remains
causes acromegaly due to acral growth of short
bones because
unchanged
(1) Growth hormone receptors become inactive
(2) Length of I-band decreases and A band remain
after age of 25 years
unchanged
Z-lines
(2) Epiphyseal plates of long bones are completely
(4) Length of H-zone remains unchanged but
(3) Hormones responsible for growth are not
(3) Length
between
two
sucessive
fused in adults upto certain age
decreases
synthesised in adults due to lack of requirement
overlapping zone between actin and myosin
filaments increases
of growth
(4) Growth
170. Which of the following pair of hormones are
antagonistic to each other?
(1)
Prolactin
–
Oxytocin
(2)
Growth hormone
–
Thyroxine
(3)
Parathormone
–
Calcitonin
(4)
Follicle stimulating
–
Leutinizing
hormone
hormone
and
thyroxine
become
antagonistic to each other in advancing age
175. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. hormones and
their functions in the body.
(1)
Melatonin
–
Normal sleep wake
cycle
hormone
171. Select the gland that contains certain organised
endocrine cells in between exocrine cells,
endodermal in origin and secretes two antagonistic
hormones to regulate glucose metabolism
(2)
Cortisol
–
Gluconeogenesis
(3)
Cholecystokinin
–
Secretion of bile
juice from liver
(4)
Thyrocalcitonin
–
Hypocalcemic
hormone
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
Test-3 (Code-E)
176. Which of the following disease is caused due to
hypersecretion of hormone?
(1) Acromegaly
(2) Diabetes insipidus
(3) Addison’s disease
(4) Diabetes mellitus
179. Select the correct statement.
(1) Neural system and the endocrine system are
independent to each other
(2) Hormones act as intracellular messengers
(3) Somatostatin stimulates secretion of growth
hormone
177. Complete the analogy by choosing a correct option.
Androgens : low pitch of voice in males : : Estrogens
(4) Pars distalis is commonly called anterior lobe of
: _____ in females
pituitary gland
(1) Degrowth of mammary glands
180. Calcium ions are important in conduction of nerve
impulse across chemical synapse. Choose the
incorrect statement w.r.t. synaptic transmission of
(2) Male sexual behaviour
(3) High pitch of voice
impulses.
(4) Development of corpus luteum
(1) Arrival of action potential at chemical synapse
178. Which of the following is not a function of
progesterone?
causes Ca+2 influx into synaptic knob
(2) Ca+2 signals to synaptic vesicles, containing
neurotransmitter.
(1) It maintains a secretory corpus luteum
(3) Vesicles move towards synaptic cleft.
(2) Formation of alveoli in mammary glands
(3) Supports pregnancy and thus prevents abortion
(4) Stimulates secretion of milk
(4) Synaptic vesicles with neurotransmitters fuses
with post-synaptic membrane
neurotransmitters by exocytosis
to
release
  
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84230 in NEET-UG
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AIR
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1
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AKANKSHA SINGH
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in PRMO
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2019-20
2019
767
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in KVPYAptitude Test in KVPY Fellowship Award
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in INO
2020