GENERAL BIOLOGY 11 FOURTH QUARTER PRACTICE MOCK TEST “Dipisilon ang exam lalo na kung dai ka nag-adal” 1. What is the main function of mitosis in somatic cells? a) Formation of gametes b) Growth, repair, and maintenance c) Production of energy d) Absorption of nutrients 2. Which of the following best describes chromatids? a) Structures that form the mitotic spindle b) Identical copies of a chromosome attached at a centromere c) The point where spindle fibers attach to chromosomes d) The stage when chromosomes line up in the center 3. What is the role of the centromere? a) It holds sister chromatids together b) It produces spindle fibers c) It forms the cell plate d) It dissolves during cytokinesis 4. What are spindle fibers made of? a) DNA strands b) Proteins called microtubules c) Lipids and carbohydrates d) Ribosomes 5. Which type of cells undergo mitosis? a) Gametes b) Somatic cells c) Neurons only d) Bacteria 6. During which stage of mitosis do chromatids separate? a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase 7. The disappearance of the nuclear envelope occurs during: a) Metaphase b) Anaphase c) Prophase d) Telophase 8. What stage follows telophase? a) Cytokinesis b) Prophase c) Metaphase d) Anaphase 9. What is the role of kinetochore microtubules? a) To dissolve spindle fibers b) To attach to chromatids and pull them apart c) To form the nuclear envelope d) To store genetic material 10. What structure disappears during prometaphase? a) Spindle fibers b) Centrosomes c) Nucleolus and nuclear envelope d) Ribosomes 11. If a somatic cell has 46 chromosomes before mitosis, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have? a) 92 b) 23 c) 46 d) 12 12. A scientist observes a cell where chromosomes are aligned at the center. Which stage of mitosis is this? a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase 13. Which stage ensures that daughter cells receive identical genetic material? a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase 14. Why is the attachment of spindle fibers to centromeres important? a) It prevents chromosome duplication b) It allows proper chromosome segregation c) It speeds up cytokinesis d) It dissolves the nuclear membrane 15. A student examines a cell under a microscope and sees two nuclei forming at opposite poles. Which stage is being observed? a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase 16. What would happen if spindle fibers failed to form? a) Chromosomes would not duplicate b) Chromatids would not separate properly c) The nuclear envelope would not disappear d) Cells would divide uncontrollably 17. Which cell structure is responsible for forming spindle fibers? a) Ribosomes b) Nucleolus c) Centrosomes d) Lysosomes 18. What is the significance of cytokinesis after mitosis? a) It ensures DNA replication b) It completes cell division by separating cytoplasm c) It starts DNA transcription d) It dissolves spindle fibers 19. In a laboratory experiment, a drug is used to prevent the breakdown of the nuclear envelope. What stage of mitosis would be affected? a) Prophase b) Metaphase c) Anaphase d) Telophase 20. If a mutation prevents the attachment of spindle fibers to chromatids, what will likely happen? a) The cell will skip metaphase b) Chromosomes will not align properly c) DNA will not replicate d) The nuclear envelope will not dissolve 21. A person suffers from a wound. How does mitosis play a role in healing? a) It creates more white blood cells b) It produces new cells to replace damaged ones c) It increases enzyme production d) It dissolves dead cells 22. Which of the following best explains why nerve cells do not heal as easily as skin cells? a) They do not undergo mitosis frequently b) They lack a nucleus c) They reproduce too fast d) They have too many spindle fibers 23. Cancer is often caused by uncontrolled mitosis. Which of the following is a possible reason? a) Failure of cytokinesis b) Damage to cell cycle regulators c) Slow chromosome replication d) Lack of spindle fibers 24. Chemotherapy drugs target mitotic cells. Why do these drugs cause side effects like hair loss? a) Hair cells undergo rapid mitosis b) They directly dissolve spindle fibers c) They cause cytokinesis to occur faster d) They mutate all somatic cells 25. If mitosis fails and a cell does not divide, what is the most likely outcome? a) The cell will become a gamete b) The cell will enter programmed death (apoptosis) c) The cell will continue growing indefinitely d) The cell will develop into an organ 26. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates an error in anaphase? a) Some daughter cells receive extra chromosomes b) The nuclear envelope fails to reform c) Spindle fibers disappear too early d) Centrosomes fail to replicate 27. A scientist finds a cell with two nuclei but no cytokinesis. What could be happening? a) The cell skipped metaphase b) Telophase occurred without cytokinesis c) The cell lost its spindle fibers d) The chromosomes failed to condense 28. In plant cells, how is cytokinesis different from animal cells? a) Plant cells form a cleavage furrow b) Plant cells form a cell plate c) Plant cells skip cytokinesis d) Plant cells undergo binary fission 29. A biologist injects a chemical that prevents DNA replication before mitosis. What will happen to the cell? a) Mitosis will occur normally b) Chromosomes will not duplicate c) Spindle fibers will fail to form d) The nuclear envelope will remain intact 30. A patient with a genetic disorder has cells that undergo mitosis much slower than normal. What is a possible effect? a) Slower tissue repair and growth b) Faster wound healing c) Increase in somatic cell production d) More chromosomes per cell 31. What is the term for the structure that holds sister chromatids together? A) Centromere B) Kinetochore C) Chromatin D) Spindle fiber 32. If a cell undergoes mitosis but fails to complete cytokinesis, what is the likely outcome? A) The cell will die. B) The cell will have two nuclei. C) The cell will divide normally. D) The cell will become a gamete. 33. During a laboratory experiment, a scientist observes that the nuclear envelope is breaking down. Which phase of mitosis is likely occurring? A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase 34. What are chromatids? A) The structures that separate during anaphase B) The genetic material in the nucleus C) The proteins that form the spindle D) The cell membrane components 35. In a specific organism, the diploid number of chromosomes is 24. How many chromosomes will be present in each daughter cell after mitosis? A) 12 B) 24 C) 48 D) 6 36. What is the primary purpose of meiosis? a) To produce identical daughter cells b) To generate gametes with half the chromosome number c) To repair damaged cells d) To promote cell growth 37. How does meiosis differ from mitosis? a) Meiosis results in diploid cells, while mitosis produces haploid cells b) Mitosis occurs in gametes, while meiosis occurs in somatic cells c) Meiosis produces genetically unique cells, while mitosis produces identical cells d) Meiosis has one division, while mitosis has two 38. What happens during prophase I of meiosis that increases genetic variation? a) Chromosomes condense b) The nuclear envelope dissolves c) Crossing over occurs d) Sister chromatids separate 39. What is the function of synapsis during prophase I? a) To create spindle fibers b) To pair homologous chromosomes c) To separate chromatids d) To duplicate DNA 40. In metaphase I, how do homologous chromosomes arrange themselves? a) In a straight line, like in mitosis b) Randomly along the equator in pairs c) In single file at the cell poles d) As chromatin in the nucleus 41. What separates during anaphase I? a) Sister chromatids b) Homologous chromosomes c) Spindle fibers d) The nuclear membrane 42. How does meiosis I differ from meiosis II? a) Meiosis I reduces chromosome number, while meiosis II separates sister chromatids b) Meiosis II includes crossing over, while meiosis I does not c) Meiosis I produces four cells, while meiosis II produces two d) Meiosis II duplicates DNA, while meiosis I does not 43. In telophase I, what is the result? a) Two genetically identical diploid cells b) Two genetically unique haploid cells c) Four haploid gametes d) A single large reproductive cell 44. What happens during anaphase II? a) Homologous chromosomes move to opposite poles b) Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles c) Crossing over occurs d) DNA replication occurs 45. Which of the following occurs at the end of meiosis II? a) Four genetically identical cells b) Two diploid daughter cells c) Four haploid daughter cells d) A single reproductive gamete 46. If a diploid human cell (2n = 46) undergoes meiosis, how many chromosomes will each gamete have? a) 92 b) 46 c) 23 d) 12 47. Why is crossing over important in meiosis? a) It ensures proper chromosome alignment b) It creates genetically unique gametes c) It prevents chromosome separation d) It speeds up cell division 48. Which phase of meiosis is most responsible for independent assortment? a) Prophase I b) Metaphase I c) Anaphase II d) Telophase I 49. If a cell undergoes meiosis but fails to separate sister chromatids in anaphase II, what happens? a) The resulting gametes will have an abnormal chromosome number b) The gametes will be genetically identical c) The nuclear membrane will not reform d) The chromosomes will align incorrectly 50. Which of the following statements about meiosis is true? a) It occurs in somatic cells b) It results in identical daughter cells c) It leads to genetic variation in offspring d) It produces diploid gametes 51. Why is meiosis necessary for sexual reproduction? a) It repairs damaged DNA b) It ensures offspring have the correct chromosome number c) It creates identical cells for fertilization d) It prevents independent assortment 52. A scientist observes a cell with homologous chromosomes lined up at the center. What phase is this? a) Metaphase I b) Metaphase II c) Anaphase I d) Telophase I 53. In a species where the diploid chromosome number is 40, how many chromosomes will be present in each gamete? a) 20 b) 40 c) 80 d) 10 54. What would happen if crossing over did not occur? a) Gametes would contain more chromosomes b) Offspring would be genetically identical to the parents c) DNA replication would fail d) Meiosis would not complete 55. If a scientist discovers a cell with two nuclei but no cytokinesis, what stage likely failed? a) Metaphase I b) Telophase II c) Anaphase II d) Prophase I 56. Why do siblings not look exactly alike? a) They inherit all traits from only one parent b) Meiosis produces genetically diverse gametes c) DNA replication is perfect every time d) Mitosis creates identical copies of cells 57. What could result if homologous chromosomes do not separate properly during meiosis I? a) Gametes with extra or missing chromosomes b) No effect, since meiosis II corrects the mistake c) Identical daughter cells d) More gametes being produced 58. A person inherits an extra chromosome due to an error in meiosis. What condition might they have? a) Sickle cell anemia b) Down syndrome c) Hemophilia d) Albinism 59. If meiosis did not reduce chromosome number, what would happen after fertilization? a) The offspring would have half the needed chromosomes b) The offspring would have too many chromosomes c) Fertilization would not occur d) The zygote would be haploid 60. A mutation prevents crossing over in prophase I. How would this affect genetic diversity? a) It would remain unchanged b) It would decrease c) It would increase d) It would stop meiosis 61. A genetic disorder is linked to improper separation of sister chromatids in meiosis II. What stage had an error? a) Prophase I b) Anaphase II c) Metaphase I d) Telophase II 62. A patient has Turner Syndrome, caused by a missing sex chromosome. What error in meiosis likely caused this? a) Chromosomal crossover b) Non-disjunction c) Incorrect DNA replication d) Cytokinesis failure 63. How does random fertilization contribute to genetic variation? a) It ensures only the strongest sperm fertilize the egg b) It allows many possible combinations of parental genes c) It prevents mutations d) It reduces chromosome number 64. In a lab, a scientist finds an egg cell with 24 chromosomes instead of 23. What likely happened? a) Cytokinesis occurred too early b) Non-disjunction occurred in meiosis c) The nuclear membrane did not dissolve d) DNA was not copied 65. Why do some mutations caused by meiosis not affect offspring? a) They only occur in somatic cells b) They are repaired before fertilization c) They always affect the dominant gene d) They occur after fertilization 66. If fertilization occurs between two gametes from the same parent, what is the result? a) A zygote with reduced genetic diversity b) A gamete with extra chromosomes c) Increased chromosome number d) A failure of meiosis 67. What is nondisjunction? a) The failure of sister chromatids to separate properly during mitosis b) The failure of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis c) A type of chromosomal deletion d) The fusion of two gametes during fertilization 68. What is the result of nondisjunction? a) A normal chromosome number in daughter cells b) The creation of genetically identical cells c) One daughter cell with an extra chromosome and another missing one d) The proper separation of sister chromatids 69. Trisomy refers to a condition where: a) An individual has only one sex chromosome b) A zygote has three copies of a chromosome instead of two c) A chromosome fragment is deleted d) A chromosome attaches to a non-homologous chromosome 70. Which of the following describes monosomy? a) A zygote has three copies of a chromosome b) A chromosome fails to separate during mitosis c) A zygote has only one copy of a chromosome instead of two d) A chromosome fragment is inverted 71. Which of the following syndromes is caused by trisomy 21? a) Turner Syndrome b) Down Syndrome c) Klinefelter Syndrome d) Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease 72. What is the primary cause of Klinefelter Syndrome? a) A missing chromosome 21 b) An extra X chromosome in males (XXY) c) An extra Y chromosome in females d) A missing X chromosome in females 73. Turner Syndrome results from: a) An individual having an extra Y chromosome b) A female with only one X chromosome (XO) c) An extra chromosome on pair 21 d) A fragment of a chromosome being duplicated 74. Which laboratory technique is used to analyze an individual’s chromosomes for abnormalities? a) PCR b) Karyotype Analysis c) DNA Sequencing d) Electrophoresis 75. What is a chromosomal aberration? a) A normal variation in chromosome number b) Any change in chromosome structure or number c) A condition that always leads to genetic disorders d) A mutation that only affects autosomes 76. Which of the following chromosomal rearrangements involves a fragment of a chromosome attaching to a non-homologous chromosome? a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Translocation d) Inversion 77. A scientist analyzes a karyotype and finds 47 chromosomes in a male patient. Which condition is most likely? a) Turner Syndrome b) Klinefelter Syndrome c) Down Syndrome d) Monosomy X 78. What happens during crossing over, and how does it affect nondisjunction? a) It ensures perfect chromosome separation b) It increases genetic variation but does not prevent nondisjunction c) It prevents any errors in meiosis d) It causes chromosomes to fuse together 79. Why is nondisjunction in meiosis I more problematic than in meiosis II? a) It affects all gametes produced b) It only affects one chromosome pair c) It can be corrected in the next division d) It results in normal gametes 80. A doctor finds that a female patient has Turner Syndrome. What likely happened during meiosis? a) An extra Y chromosome was inherited b) Nondisjunction led to a missing X chromosome c) A fragment of chromosome 9 was deleted d) A chromosome duplicated in the zygote 81. In a human karyotype, how many autosomes are normally present? a) 22 pairs b) 23 pairs c) 44 pairs d) 46 pairs 82. Which of the following individuals is male based on karyotype analysis? a) 46, XX b) 47, XXY c) 45, XO d) 46, XY 83. Which chromosomal disorder results in high levels of female sex hormones in males? a) Down Syndrome b) Turner Syndrome c) Klinefelter Syndrome d) Monosomy 84. If an egg cell with two X chromosomes is fertilized by a normal Y-carrying sperm, what syndrome will likely result? a) Turner Syndrome b) Klinefelter Syndrome c) Down Syndrome d) Edward Syndrome 85. If a mutation prevents spindle fibers from attaching to chromosomes, what is the most likely result? a) Normal cell division b) Nondisjunction and aneuploidy c) Faster DNA replication d) The formation of extra chromosomes 86. If nondisjunction occurs in sperm cells, how might this affect offspring? a) The offspring will always be female b) The offspring may have extra or missing chromosomes c) The offspring will develop normally d) The offspring will not be affected 87. Why is a person with trisomy likely to have developmental problems? a) Extra chromosomes affect gene expression and protein production b) The extra chromosome helps in cell division c) DNA replication speeds up d) Cells cannot complete mitosis 88. If a pregnant woman undergoes karyotype analysis, what can doctors determine? a) The baby’s intelligence level b) The presence of chromosomal disorders c) The exact DNA sequence of the baby d) The probability of the baby having a viral infection 89. If a scientist finds a chromosome fragment reversely reattached, what type of aberration is observed? a) Deletion b) Translocation c) Inversion d) Duplication 90. Why is Down Syndrome more common in older mothers? a) Older eggs have a higher chance of nondisjunction b) Aging affects sperm production c) The uterus cannot support normal meiosis d) The father’s age has a greater effect 91. If a patient has Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, what type of chromosomal mutation likely occurred? a) Deletion b) Inversion c) Duplication d) Translocation 92. If a karyotype analysis shows an individual with 45 chromosomes, what is the likely condition? a) Down Syndrome b) Turner Syndrome c) Klinefelter Syndrome d) Trisomy 18 93. A man with Klinefelter Syndrome (XXY) is found to be infertile. What is the reason? a) The extra X chromosome disrupts normal sperm production b) The Y chromosome is inactive c) He has an extra autosome d) The chromosomes are completely normal 94. If nondisjunction occurs only during meiosis II, how many gametes will be normal? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4 95. Which of the following is a monosomy disorder? a) Down Syndrome b) Turner Syndrome c) Klinefelter Syndrome d) Patau Syndrome 96. If a father carries a chromosomal translocation, how could this affect his children? a) They may inherit missing or extra genetic material b) They will be identical to the father c) They will be completely normal d) The translocation will disappear ANSWER KEY: 1. B 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. A 9. 9. B 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. C C B C B 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. D B C B A B B A B A B A B B B A A B A A B B C C B B B A B B C C B B A C B A A B B B A B B B B B B B 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72. 73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. A A B C B C B B B B B C C B A B A D C B B B A B C A C B A C B A
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