1. Which of the following is NOT a financial
transaction?
a. purchase of products
b. cash receipts
c. update valid vendor file
d. sale of inventory
2. The following are subsystems of the Accounting
Information System, EXCEPT
a. Transaction Processing System.
b. Human Resources System.
c. General Ledger/Financial Reporting System.
d. Management Reporting System.
3. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the
Transaction Processing System?
a. managing and reporting on the status of financial
investments
b. converting economic events into financial
transactions
c. distributing essential information to operations
personnel to support their daily operations
d. recording financial transactions in the accounting
records
4. The objectives of the data collection activity of
the general model for AIS are to collect data that are:
a. relevant and redundant.
b. efficient and objective.
c. efficient and redundant.
d. efficient and relevant.
5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
effective information?
a. relevance
b. accuracy
c. summarization
d. precision
6. Which of the following is NOT a database
management task?
a. retrieval
b. storage
c. summarization
d. deletion
7. When viewed from the highest to most elemental
level, the data hierarchy is
a. attribute, record, file.
b. record, attribute, key.
c. file, record, attribute.
d. file, record, key.
e. key, record, file.
8. Which is NOT an accountant’s primary role in
information systems?
a. system user
b. system auditor
c. system designer
d. system programmer
9. Which of the following is NOT an objective of all
information systems?
a. support for the stewardship function of
management
b. support for management decision making
c. support for the day-to-day operations of the firm
d. all of the above are objectives
10. Which of the following best describes the activities
of the materials management function?
a. purchasing, receiving, and inventory control
b. receiving, sales, distribution, and purchasing
c. receiving, storage, purchasing, and accounts
payable
d. purchasing, receiving, and storage
e. purchasing, storage, and distribution
11. Which of the following best describes the activities
of the production function?
a. maintenance, inventory control, and production
planning
b. production planning, quality control, manufacturing,
and cost accounting
c. quality control, production planning, manufacturing,
and payroll
d. maintenance, production planning, storage, and
quality control
e. manufacturing, quality control, and maintenance
12. Which of the following best describes the activities
of the accounting function?
a. inventory control, accounts payable, fixed
assets, and payroll
b. fixed assets, accounts payable, cash
disbursements, and cost accounting
c. purchasing, cash receipts, accounts payable,
cash disbursements, and payroll
d. inventory control, cash receipts, accounts
payable, cash disbursements, and payroll
e. inventory control, cost accounting,
accounts payable, cash disbursements, and
payroll
13. Which statement best describes the issue of
distributed data processing (DDP)?
a. The centralized and DDP approaches are
mutually exclusive; an organization must
choose one approach or the other.
b. The philosophy and objective of the organization’s
management will determine the extent of DDP in the
firm.
c. In a minimum DDP arrangement, only data
input and output are distributed, leaving the
tasks of data control, data conversion, database
management, and data processing to be centrally
managed.
d. The greatest disadvantage of a totally distributed
environment is that the distributed information
processing unit locations are unable to communicate
and coordinate their activities.
e. Although hardware (such as computers,
database storage, and input/output terminals)
can be effectively distributed, the systems
development and maintenance tasks must
remain centralized for better control and
efficiency.
14. Which of the following is a disadvantage of
distributed data processing?
a. End-user involvement in systems operation is
decreased.
b. Disruptions due to mainframe failures are
increased.
c. The potential for hardware and software
incompatibility across the organization is
increased.
d. The time between project request and completion is
increased.
e. All of the above are disadvantages.
1. Which statement is NOT true?
a. Business activities begin with the acquisition of
materials, property, and labor in exchange for
cash.
b. The conversion cycle includes the task of
determining raw materials requirements.
c. Manufacturing firms have a conversion cycle but
retail firms do not.
d. A payroll check is an example of a product
document of the payroll system.
e. A journal voucher is actually a special source
document.
2. A documentation tool that depicts the physical
flow of information relating to a particular transaction
through an organization is a
a. system flowchart.
b. program flowchart.
c. decision table.
d. work distribution analysis.
e. systems survey.
3. Sequential file processing will not permit
a. data to be edited on a separate computer run.
b. the use of a database structure.
c. data to be edited in an offline mode.
d. batch processing to be initiated from a terminal.
e. data to be edited on a real-time basis.
4. The production subsystem of the conversion cycle
includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. determining raw materials requirements.
b. make or buy decisions on component parts.
c. release of raw materials into production.
d. scheduling the goods to be produced.
5. Which of the following files is a temporary file?
a. transaction file
b. master file
c. reference file
d. none of the above
6. A documentation tool used to represent the logical
elements of a system is a(n)
a. programming flowchart.
b. entity relationship diagram.
c. system flowchart.
d. data flow diagram.
7. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of
real-time processing files over batch processing?
a. shorter transaction processing time
b. reduction of inventory stocks
c. improved customer service
d. all are advantages
8. Which statement is NOT correct?
a. Legacy systems may process financially significant
transactions.
b. Some legacy systems use database technology.
c. Mainframes are exclusive to legacy systems,
while modern systems use only the client server
model.
d. All the above are true.
9. Which statement is NOT correct?
a. Indexed random files are dispersed throughout
the storage device without regard for physical
proximity with related records.
b. Indexed random files use disk storage space
efficiently.
c. Indexed random files are efficient when
processing a large portion of a file at one time.
d. Indexed random files are easy to maintain in terms
of adding records.
10. Which statement is NOT correct? The indexed
sequential access method
a. is used for very large files that need both direct
access and batch processing.
b. may use an overflow area for records.
c. provides an exact physical address for each
record.
d. is appropriate for files that require few insertions or
deletions.
11. Which statement is true about a hashing
structure?
a. The same address could be calculated for two
records.
b. Storage space is used efficiently.
c. Records cannot be accessed rapidly.
d. A separate index is required.
12. In a hashing structure
a. two records can be stored at the same address.
b. pointers are used to indicate the location of all
records.
c. pointers are used to indicate location of a record
d. all locations on the disk are used for record
storage.
13. An advantage of a physical address pointer is that
a. it points directly to the actual disk storage location.
b. it is easily recovered if it is inadvertently lost.
c. it remains unchanged when disks are reorganized.
d. all of the above are advantages of the physical
address pointer.
14. Which of the following is NOT true of a turnaround
document?
a. They may reduce the number of errors made
by external parties.
b. They are commonly used by utility companies
(gas, power, water).
c. They are documents used by internal parties only.
d. They are both input and output documents.
15. Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
a. Transactions are recorded on source documents
and are posted to journals.
b. Transactions are recorded in journals and are
posted to ledgers.
c. Infrequent transactions are recorded in the
general journal.
d. Frequent transactions are recorded in special
journals.
16. Which of the following is true of the relationship
between subsidiary ledgers and general ledger
accounts?
a. The two contain different and unrelated data.
b. All general ledger accounts have subsidiaries.
c. The relationship between the two provides an audit
trail from the financial statements to the source
documents.
d. The total of subsidiary ledger accounts usually
exceeds the total in the related general ledger
account.
17. Real-time systems might be appropriate for all of
the following EXCEPT
a. airline reservations.
b. payroll.
c. point-of-sale transactions.
d. air traffic control systems.
e. all of these applications typically utilize real time
processing.
18. Is the system flowchart symbol for:
a. on-page connector.
b. off-page connector.
c. home base.
d. manual operation.
e. document.
19. A chart of accounts would best be coded using
a(n) ______________ coding scheme.
a. alphabetic
b. mnemonic
c. block
d. sequential
20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Sorting records that are coded alphabetically
tends to be more difficult for users than sorting
numeric sequences.
b. Mnemonic coding requires the user to memorize
codes.
c. Sequential codes carry no information content
beyond their order in the sequence.
d. Mnemonic codes are limited in their ability to
represent items within a class.
21. A coding scheme in the form of acronyms and
other combinations that convey meaning is a(n)
a. sequential code.
b. block code.
c. alphabetic code.
d. mnemonic code.
1. Management can expect various benefits to follow
from implementing a system of strong internal control.
Which of the following benefits is least likely to occur?
a. reduction of cost of an external audit
b. prevention of employee collusion to commit fraud
c. availability of reliable data for decision-making
purposes
d. some assurance of compliance with the Foreign
Corrupt Practices Act of 1977
e. some assurance that important documents and
records are protected
2. Which of the following situations is NOT a
segregation of duties violation?
a. The treasurer has the authority to sign checks
but gives the signature block to the assistant
treasurer to run the check-signing machine.
b. The warehouse clerk, who has custodial
responsibility over inventory in the warehouse,
selects the vendor and authorizes purchases
when inventories are low.
c. The sales manager has the responsibility to
approve credit and the authority to write off
accounts.
d. The department time clerk is given the undistributed
payroll checks to mail to absent
employees.
e. The accounting clerk who shares the recordkeeping
responsibility for the accounts receivable subsidiary
ledger performs the monthly reconciliation of the
subsidiary ledger and the control account.
3. The underlying assumption of reasonable
assurance regarding implementation of internal
control means that
a. auditor is reasonably assured that fraud has not
occurred in the period.
b. auditors are reasonably assured that employee
carelessness can weaken an internal control
structure.
c. implementation of the control procedure should not
have a significant adverse effect on
efficiency or profitability.
d. management assertions about control effectiveness
should provide auditors with reasonable assurance.
e. a control applies reasonably well to all forms of
computer technology.
4. To conceal the theft of cash receipts from
customers in payment of their accounts, which of the
following journal entries should the bookkeeper
make?
DR
CR
a. Miscellaneous Expense Cash
b. Petty Cash
Cash
c. Cash
Accounts Receivable
d. Sales Returns
Accounts Receivable
e. None of the above
5. Which of the following controls would best prevent
the lapping of accounts receivable?
a. Segregate duties so that the clerk responsible
for recording in the accounts receivable subsidiary
ledger has no access to the general ledger.
b. Request that customers review their monthly
statements and report any unrecorded cash
payments.
c. Require customers to send payments directly
to the company’s bank.
d. Request that customers make checks payable
to the company.
6. Providing timely information about transactions in
sufficient detail to permit proper classification and
financial reporting is an example of:
a. the control environment.
b. risk assessment.
c. information and communication.
d. monitoring.
7. Ensuring that all material transactions processed by
the information system are valid and in accordance
with management’s objectives is an example of
a. transaction authorization.
b. supervision.
c. accounting records.
d. independent verification.
8. Which of the following is often called a
compensating control?
a. transaction authorization
b. supervision
c. accounting records
d. independent verification
9. Which of the following is NOT an element of the
fraud triangle?
a. ethics
b. justifiable reliance
c. situational pressure
d. opportunity
10. The fraud scheme that is similar to the ‘‘borrowing
from Peter to pay Paul’’ scheme is
a. expense account fraud.
b. bribery.
c. lapping.
d. transaction fraud.
1. Which document is NOT prepared by the sales
department?
a. packing slip
b. shipping notice
c. bill of lading
d. stock release
2. Which document triggers the update of the
inventory subsidiary ledger?
a. bill of lading
b. stock release
c. sales order
d. shipping notice
3. Which function should the billing department
NOT perform?
a. record the sales in the sales journal
b. send the ledger copy of the sales order to
accounts receivable
c. send the stock release document and the shipping
notice to the billing department as proof
of shipment
d. send the stock release document to inventory
control
4. When will a credit check approval most likely
require specific authorization by the credit
department?
a. when verifying that the current transaction does not
exceed the customer’s credit limit
b. when verifying that the current transaction is with a
valid customer
c. when a valid customer places a materially large
order
d. when a valid customer returns goods
5. Which type of control is considered a compensating
control?
a. segregation of duties
b. access control
c. supervision
d. accounting records
6. Which of the following is NOT an independent
verification control?
a. The shipping department verifies that the goods
sent from the warehouse are correct in type and
quantity.
b. General ledger clerks reconcile journal vouchers
that were independently prepared in various
departments.
c. The use of prenumbered sales orders.
d. The billing department reconciles the shipping
notice with the sales invoice to ensure that customers
are billed for only the quantities shipped.
7. Which function or department below records the
decrease in inventory due to a sale?
a. warehouse
b. sales department
c. billing department
d. inventory control
8. Which situation indicates a weak internal control
structure?
a. the AR clerk authorizes the write off of bad debts
b. the record-keeping clerk maintains both AR and AP
subsidiary ledgers
c. the inventory control clerk authorizes inventory
purchases
d. the AR clerk prepares customer statements every
month
9. The bill of lading is prepared by the
a. sales clerk.
b. warehouse clerk.
c. shipping clerk.
d. billing clerk.
10. Which of following functions should be
segregated?
a. opening the mail and recording cash receipts in the
journal
b. authorizing credit and determining reorder
quantities
c. shipping goods and preparing the bill of lading
d. providing information on inventory levels and
reconciling the bank statement
1. Which document helps to ensure that the receiving
clerks actually count the number of goods received?
a. packing list
b. blind copy of purchase order
c. shipping notice
d. invoice
2. When the goods are received and the receiving
report has been prepared, which ledger may be
updated?
a. standard cost inventory ledger
b. inventory subsidiary ledger
c. general ledger
d. accounts payable subsidiary ledger
3. Which statement is NOT correct for an
expenditure system with proper internal controls?
a. Cash disbursements maintain the check register.
b. Accounts payable maintains the accounts payable
subsidiary ledger.
c. Accounts payable is responsible for paying
invoices.
d. Accounts payable is responsible for authorizing
invoices.
4. Which duties should be segregated?
a. matching purchase requisitions, receiving
reports, and invoices and authorizing payment
b. authorizing payment and maintaining the check
register
c. writing checks and maintaining the check
register
d. authorizing payment and maintaining the
accounts payable subsidiary ledger
5. Which documents would an auditor most
likely choose to examine closely to ascertain
that all expenditures incurred during the accounting
period have been recorded as a liability?
a. invoices
b. purchase orders
c. purchase requisitions
d. receiving reports
6. Which task must still require human intervention
in an automated purchases/cash disbursements
system?
a. determination of inventory requirements
b. preparation of a purchase order
c. preparation of a receiving report
d. preparation of a check register
7. Which one of the following departments does not
have a copy of the purchase order?
a. the purchasing department
b. the receiving department
c. accounts payable
d. general ledger
8. Which document typically triggers the process of
recording a liability?
a. purchase requisition
b. purchase order
c. receiving report
d. supplier’s invoice
9. Which of the following tasks should the cash
disbursement clerk NOT perform?
a. review the supporting documents for completeness
and accuracy
b. prepare checks
c. approve the liability
d. mark the supporting documents paid
10. Which of the following is true?
a. The cash disbursement function is part of
accounts payable.
b. Cash disbursements is an independen
accounting function.
c. Cash disbursements is a treasury function.
d. The cash disbursement function is part of the
general ledger department.
CHAPTER 6
1. The document that captures the total amount of
time that individual workers spend on each production
job is called a
a. time card.
b. job ticket.
c. personnel action form.
d. labor distribution form.
2. An important reconciliation in the payroll system
is when
a. the general ledger department compares the labor
distribution summary from cost accounting to the
disbursement voucher from accounts payable.
b. the personnel department compares the number
of employees authorized to receive a pay check
to the number of pay checks prepared.
c. the production department compares the number
of hours reported on job tickets to the number of hours
reported on time cards.
d. the payroll department compares the labor
distribution summary to the hours reported on time
cards.
3. Which internal control is not an important part of
the payroll system?
a. supervisors verify the accuracy of employee time
cards
b. paychecks are distributed by an independent
paymaster
c. the accounts payable department verifies the
accuracy of the payroll register before transferring
payroll funds to the general checking account
d. the general ledger department reconciles the
labor distribution summary and the payroll
disbursement voucher
4. The department responsible for approving pay
rate changes is
a. payroll
b. treasurer
c. personnel
d. cash disbursements
5. Which function should distribute paychecks?
a. personnel
b. timekeeping
c. paymaster
d. payroll
6. Which transaction is not processed in the fixed
asset system?
a. purchase of building
b. repair of equipment
c. purchase of raw materials
d. sale of company van
7. Depreciation
a. is calculated by the department that uses the
fixed asset.
b. allocates the cost of the asset over its useful life.
c. is recorded weekly.
d. results in book value approximating fair market
value.
1. Which of the following is not an advantageous
reason to reduce inventories?
a. Inventories provide a competitive advantage.
b. Inventories can invite overproduction.
c. Inventories are expensive to maintain.
d. Inventories may conceal problems.
e. All of these are good reasons to reduce
inventories.
8. Depreciation records include all of the following
information about fixed assets EXCEPT the
a. economic benefit of purchasing the asset.
b. cost of the asset.
c. depreciation method being used.
d. location of the asset.
2. The fundamental EOQ model
a. provides for fluctuating lead times during reorder
cycles.
b. is relatively insensitive to errors in demand,
procurement costs, and carrying costs.
c. focuses on the trade-off between production
costs and carrying costs.
d. is stochastic in nature.
e. is best used in conjunction with a periodic
inventory system.
9. Which control is not a part of the fixed asset
system?
a. formal analysis of the purchase request
b. review of the assumptions used in the capital
budgeting model
c. development of an economic order quantity
model
d. estimates of anticipated cost savings
3. Refer to the equation for the EOQ in the text.
Car Country, a local Ford dealer, sells 1,280
small SUVs each year. Keeping a car on the lot
costs Car Country $200 per month, so the company
prefers to order as few SUVs as is economically
feasible. However, each time an order is
placed, the company incurs total costs of $300.
Of this $300, $240 is fixed and $60 is variable.
10. Objectives of the fixed asset system do NOT
include
a. authorizing the acquisition of fixed assets.
b. recording depreciation expense.
c. computing gain and/or loss on the disposal of
fixed assets.
d. maintaining a record of the fair market value of
all fixed assets.
Determine the company’s economic order
quantity.
a. 8
b. 16
c. 18
d. 56
e. 62
11. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
the fixed asset system?
a. acquisitions are routine transactions requiring
general authorization
b. retirements are reported on an authorized disposal
report form
c. acquisition cost is allocated over the expected
life of the asset
d. transfer of fixed assets among departments is
recorded in the fixed asset subsidiary ledger
Questions 4 through 6 are based on the diagram
below, which represents the EOQ model.
4. Which line segment represents the reorder lead
time?
a. AB
b. AE
c. AF
d. BC
e. AC
5. Which line segment identifies the quantity of safety
stock maintained?
a. AB
b. AE
c. AC
d. BC
e. EF
6. Which line segment represents the length of
time to consume the total quantity of materials
ordered?
a. DE
b. BC
c. AC
d. AE
e. AD
7. Which of the following is NOT a principle of lean
manufacturing?
a. Products are pushed from the production end
to the customer.
b. All activities that do not add value and maximize
the use of scarce resources must be eliminated.
c. Achieve high inventory turnover rate.
d. A lean manufacturing firm must have established
and cooperative relationships with vendors.
e. All of the above are lean manufacturing
principles.
8. All of the following are problems with traditional
accounting information EXCEPT:
a. Managers in a JIT setting require immediate
information.
b. The measurement principle tends to ignore
standards other than money.
c. Variance analysis may yield insignificant values.
d. The overhead component in a manufacturing
company is usually very large.
e. All of these are problems associated with
traditional accounting information.
9. Which of the following is NOT a problem
associated with standard cost accounting?
a. Standard costing motivates management to
produce large batches of products and build
inventory.
b. Applying standard costing leads to product
cost distortions in a lean environment.
c. Standard costing data are associated with
excessive time lags that reduce its usefulness.
d. The financial orientation of standard costing
may promote bad decisions.
e. All of the above are problems with standard
costing.
10. Which one of the following statements is true?
a. ERP evolved directly from MRP.
b. ERP evolved into MRP and MRP evolved into
MRP II.
c. MRP II evolved from MRP and MRP II evolved
into ERP.
d. None of the above is true.
1. Sequential access means that
a. data are stored on magnetic tape.
b. the address of the location of data is found through
the use of either an algorithm or an index.
c. to read any record on the file, all of the preceding
records must first be read.
d. each record can be accessed in the same amount
of time.
2. Which file has as its primary purpose to provide
historical financial data for comparative financial
reports?
a. journal voucher history file
b. budget master file
c. responsibility file
d. general ledger history file
3. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Journal vouchers detailing transaction activity flow
from various operational departments into the GLS,
where they are independently reconciled and posted
to the journal voucher history file.
b. Journal vouchers summarizing transaction activity
flow from the accounting department into the GLS,
where they are independently reconciled and posted
to the general ledger accounts.
c. Journal vouchers summarizing transaction activity
flow from various operational departments into the
GLS, where they are independently reconciled and
posted to the general ledger accounts.
d. Journal vouchers summarizing transaction activity
flow from various operational departments into the
GLS, where they are independently reconciled and
posted to the journal voucher history file.
4. Which of the following statements best describes a
computer-based GL/FRS?
a. Most firms derive little additional benefit from a realtime FRS.
b. Batch processing is typically not appropriate for
transaction processing of GLS.
c. The sequential file approach is an inefficient use of
technology.
d. A batch system with direct access files recreates
the entire database each time the file is updated.
5. Which of the following is NOT a potential
exposure of the FRS?
a. a defective audit trail
b. general ledger accounts that are out of balance
with subsidiary accounts
c. unauthorized access to the check register
d. unauthorized access to the general ledger
6. Which task should the general ledger perform?
a. update the general ledger
b. prepare journal vouchers
c. have custody of physical assets
d. have record-keeping responsibility for special
journals of subsidiary ledgers
7. The Ozment Corporation uses a performance
reporting system that shows online the data for each
subordinate who reports to a supervisor. The data
presented show the actual costs incurred during the
period, the budgeted costs, and all variances from
budget for that subordinate’s department. The name
of this system of reporting is
a. contribution accounting.
b. responsibility accounting.
c. flexible budgeting.
d. program budgeting.
e. cost-benefit accounting.
8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the
strategic planning process?
a. emphasis on both the short and long run
b. analysis of external economic factors
c. review of the attributes and behavior of the
organization’s competition
d. analysis and review of departmental process
e. analysis of consumer demand
9. The following are all output reports of the financial
reporting system, EXCEPT
a. variance analysis report.
b. statement of cash flows.
c. tax return.
d. comparative balance sheet.
10. Which of the following budgeting processes is
LEAST likely to motivate managers toward
organizational goals?
a. setting budget targets at attainable levels
b. participation by subordinates in the budgetary
process
c. use of management by exception
d. holding subordinates accountable for the items
they control
e. having top management set budget levels
11. Which of the following would normally be
considered in a strategic plan?
a. setting a target of 12 percent return on sales
b. maintaining the image of the company as the
industry leader
c. setting a market price per share of stock
outstanding
d. distributing monthly reports for departmental
variance analysis
e. tightening credit terms for customers to 2/10,
n/30
12. At what level of management is the long-range
planning function most important?
a. at top management levels
b. at middle management levels
c. at lower management levels
d. for staff functions
e. for line functions
13. Which of the following is the basic purpose of a
responsibility accounting?
a. variance analysis
b. motivation
c. authority
d. budgeting
e. pricing
14. Which statement below best describes a profit
center?
a. The authority to make decisions affecting the
major determinants of profit, including the power to
choose its markets and sources of supply.
b. The authority to make decisions affecting the major
determinants of profit, including the power to choose
its markets, sources of supply, and significant control
over the amount of invested capital.
c. The authority to make decisions over the most
significant costs of operations, including the power to
choose the sources of supply.
d. The authority to provide specialized support to
other units within the organization.
e. The responsibility for combining the raw materials,
direct labor, and other factors of production into a final
product.
15. Which statement below best describes an
investment center?
a. The authority to make decisions affecting the
major determinants of profit, including the power
to choose its markets and sources of supply.
b. The authority to make decisions affecting the
major determinants of profit, including the power to
choose its markets and sources of supply, and
significant control over the amount of invested
capital.
c. The authority to make decisions over the most
significant costs of operations, including the power
to choose the sources of supply.
d. The authority to provide specialized support to
other units within the organization.
e. The responsibility for developing markets for
and selling of the output of the organization.
1. The data attributes that a particular user has
permission to access are defined by the
a. operating system view.
b. systems design view.
c. database schema.
d. user view.
e. application program.
2. The database approach has several unique
characteristics not found in traditional (flat-file)
systems. Which of the following statements does not
apply to the database model?
a. Database systems have data independence;
that is, the data and the programs are maintained
separately except during processing.
b. Database systems contain a data-definition
language that helps describe each schema and
subschema.
c. The database administrator is the part of the
software package that instructs the operating
aspects of the program when data are retrieved.
d. A primary goal of database systems is to minimize
data redundancy.
e. Database systems provide increased accessibility
to data and flexibility in its usage.
3. One of the first steps in the creation of a relational
database is to
a. integrate accounting and nonfinancial data.
b. plan for increased secondary storage capacity.
c. order data-mining software that will facilitate
data retrieval.
d. create a data model of the key entities in the
system.
e. construct the physical user view using SQL.
4. Database currency is achieved by
a. implementing partitioned databases at remote sites.
b. employing data-cleansing techniques.
c. ensuring that the database is secure from
accidental entry.
d. an external auditor’s reconciliation of reports from
multiple sites.
e. a database lockout that prevents multiple
simultaneous access.
5. The installation of a database management system
is likely to have the least impact on
a. data redundancy.
b. entity-wide sharing of common data.
c. exclusive ownership of data.
d. the logic needed to solve a problem in an application
program.
e. the internal controls over data access.
6. The functions of a database administrator are a
database planning, data input preparation, and database
design.
b. data input preparation, database design, and database
operation.
c. database design, database operation, and equipment
operations.
d. database design, database implementation, and
database planning.
e. database operations, database maintenance, and data
input preparation.
7. A relational database system contains the following
inventory data: part number, description, quantity on
hand, and reorder point. These individual items are called
a. attributes.
b. relations.
c. associations.
d. occurrences.
8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a relational
database system?
a. All data within the system are shared by all users to
facilitate integration.
b. Database processing follows explicit links that are
contained within the records.
c. User views limit access to the database.
d. Transaction processing and data warehousing systems
share a common database.
9. Partitioned databases are most effective when
a. users in the system need to share common data.
b. primary users of the data are clearly identifiable.
c. read-only access is needed at each site.
d. all of the above.
10. Database entities
a. may contain zero or many occurrences.
b. are represented as verbs in an ER diagram.
c. may represent both physical assets and intangible
phenomena.
d. are often defined by common attributes that
also define other entities.
e. are unique to a specific user view.
c. program development.
d. database access.
e. all of these are typical DBMS features.
11. A transitive dependency
a. is a database condition that is resolved through
special monitoring software.
b. is a name given to one of the three anomalies
that result from unnormalized database tables.
c. can exist only in a table with a composite
primary key.
d. cannot exist in tables that are normalized at
the 2NF level.
e. is none of the above.
16. Which of the following is least likely to be an
attribute of an employee table in a normalized
database?
a. employee name
b. employee address
c. employee number
d. employee supervisor’s name
e. all of these would be attributes of the employee
table in a normalized database.
12. A partial dependency
a. is the result of simultaneous user requests for
the same data in a partitioned database environment
b. is a name given to one of the three anomalies
that result from unnormalized database tables.
c. can exist only in a table with a composite primary
key.
d. may exist in tables that are normalized at the 2NF
level.
e. is none of the above.
13. Repeating group data
a. is a form of data redundancy common to
replicated databases in a distributed database
environment.
b. is a name given to one of the three anomalies
that result from unnormalized database tables.
c. can exist only in a table with a composite
primary key.
d. cannot exist in tables that are normalized at
the 2NF level.
e. is none of the above.
14. The database model most likely to be used in the
development of a modern (not legacy) system is
a. hierarchical
b. structured
c. relational
d. network
e. navigational
15. Typical DBMS features include all of the following
EXCEPT
a. database interface design and development.
b. backup and recovery.
17. The advantages to using a partitioned database
approach include all of the following EXCEPT
a. the possibility for the deadlock phenomenon is
reduced.
b. user control is increased.
c. transaction processing time is decreased.
d. the potential for wide-scale disaster is reduced.
e. these are all advantages of partitioned databases.
18. Of the following, select the attribute that would be
the best primary key in an inventory table.
a. ITEM NAME
b. ITEM LOCATION
c. ITEM COST
d. ITEM NUMBER
e. ITEM SUPPLIER
e. all of these events would be modelled
1. The concept of duality means that an REA diagram
must consist of
a. two events—one of them economic and the
other support.
b. two agents—one of them internal and the
other external.
c. two resources—one increased and the other
decreased by the same event.
d. all of the above.
e. none of the above.
2. Each economic event in an REA diagram is always
a. linked to at least two resource entities.
b. linked to two external agents.
c. linked to two internal agents.
d. linked to another economic event.
e. linked to a support event.
3. Which of the following are characteristics of
economic agents?
a. They participate in economic events, but do
not assume control of the resources.
b. They participate in economic events, but not in
support events.
c. Internal agents are employees of the company
whose system is being modeled.
d. External agents are not employees of the company
whose system is being modeled.
e. All of the above describe agents.
4. Which of the following is true?
a. REA diagram entities are arranged in constellations
by entity class.
b. ER diagrams present a static picture of the
underlying business phenomena.
c. Entity names in ER diagrams are always in the
noun form.
d. Events entity names in REA diagrams are in the
verb form.
e. All of the above are true statements.
5. Which of the following events would be LEAST
likely to be modeled in an REA diagram?
a. customer inquiries
b. sales to a customer
c. accounts payable
d. cash
6. Which of the following associations would most
likely describe the relationship between an internal
agent and an economic event?
a. 1:M
b. 1:1
c. M:M
d. 0:M
e. none of the above
7. Which of the following tables would most likely
have a composite key?
a. Take Order
b. Ship Goods
c. Inventory-Ship Link
d. Cash
e. none of the above
8. Which of the following associations requires a
separate table in the database?
a. 1:1
b. 1:M
c. M:M
d. all of the above
9. When assigning foreign keys in a 1:1 association
a. the primary key of each table should be embedded
as a foreign key in the related table.
b. the primary key on the 0,1 side of the relation
should be embedded as the foreign key on the 1,1
c. the primary key on the 1,1 side of the relation
should be embedded as the foreign key on the 0,1
side.
d. a link table must be created to accept the foreign
keys of both tables.
e. none of the above is true.
10. When assigning foreign keys in a 1:M association
a. the primary key of each table should be embedded
as a foreign key in the related table.
b. the primary key on the 0,M side of the relation
should be embedded as the foreign key on the 1,1
side.
c. the primary key on the 1,1 side of the relation
should be embedded as the foreign key on the 0,M
side.
d. a link table must be created to accept the foreign
keys of both tables.
e. none of the above is true.
1. Closed database architecture is
a. a control technique intended to prevent
unauthorized access from trading partners.
b. a limitation inherent in traditional information
systems that prevents data sharing.
c. a data warehouse control that prevents unclean
data from entering the warehouse.
d. a technique used to restrict access to data marts.
e. a database structure that many of the leading
ERPs use to support OLTP applications.
2. Each of the following is a necessary element for
the successful warehousing of data EXCEPT
a. cleansing extracted data.
b. transforming data.
c. modeling data.
d. loading data.
e. all of the above are necessary.
3. Which of the following is typically NOT part of an
ERP’s OLAP applications?
a. decision support systems
b. information retrieval
c. ad hoc reporting/analysis
d. logistics
e. what-if analysis
b. Client computers are responsible for presenting
data to the user and passing user input back
to the server.
c. Two-tier architecture is for local area network
applications where the demand on the server is
restricted to a relatively small population of users.
d. The database and application functions are
separated in the three-tier model.
e. In three-tier client-server architectures, one
tier is for user presentation, one is for database
and applications access, and the third is for Internet
access.
6. Which statement is NOT true?
a. Drill-down capability is an OLAP feature of
data mining tools available to the user.
b. The data warehouse should be separate from
operational systems.
c. Denormalization of data involves dividing the
data into very small tables that support detailed
analysis.
d. Some decisions supported by a data warehouse
are not fundamentally different from those that
are supported by traditional databases.
e. Data cleansing involves transforming data into
standard business terms with standard data
values.
4. There are a number of risks that may be associated
with ERP implementation. Which of the following was
NOT stated as a risk in the chapter?
a. A drop in firm performance after implementation
because the firm looks and works differently than it did
while using a legacy system.
b. Implementing companies have found that staff
members, employed by ERP consulting firms, do not
have sufficient experience in implementing new
systems.
c. Implementing firms fail to select systems that
properly support their business activities.
d. The selected system does not adequately meet
the adopting firm’s economic growth.
e. ERPs are too large, complex, and generic for them
to bewell integrated intomost company cultures.
7. Which statement is LEAST accurate?
a. Implementing an ERP system has more to do
with changing the way an organization does
business than it does with technology.
b. The phased-in approach to ERP implementation
is particularly suited to diversified organizations
whose units do not share common processes and
data.
c. Because the primary reason for implementing
an ERP is to standardize and integrate operations,
diversified organizations whose units do not share
common processes and data do not benefit and tend
not to implement ERPs.
d. To take full advantage of the ERP process,
reengineering will need to occur.
e. A common reason for ERP failure is that the
ERP does not support one or more important
business processes of the organization.
5. Which statement is NOT true?
a. In a typical two-tier client-server architecture,
the server handles both application and database
duties.
8. SAP, one of the leading ERP producers, makes
several modules available to adopters. Which of the
following is not a SAP module?
a. Business Process Support
b. Internet Development Support
c. Logistics
d. E-Commerce Support
e. Human Resources
9. Auditors of ERP systems
a. need not be concerned about segregation of
duties because these systems possess strong
computer controls.
b. focus on output controls such as independent
verification to reconcile batch totals.
c. are concerned that managers fail to exercise
adequate care in assigning permissions.
d. do not see the data warehouse as an audit or
control issue at all because financial records are not
stored there.
e. need not review access levels granted to users
because these are determined when the system
is configured and never change.
10. Which statement is most correct?
a. SAP is more suited to service industries than
manufacturing clients.
b. J.D. Edwards’s ERP is designed to accept the
best-practices modules of other vendors.
c. Oracle evolved from a human resources system.
d. PeopleSoft is the world’s leading supplier of
software for information management.
e. SoftBrands provides enterprise software for
the hospitality and manufacturing sectors.
1. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. TCP/IP is the basic protocol that permits
communication between Internet sites.
b. TCP/IP controls Web browsers that access the
Web.
c. TCP/IP is the document format used to produce
Web pages.
d. TCP/IP is used to transfer text files, programs,
spread sheets, and databases across the Internet.
e. TCP/IP is a low-level encryption scheme used
to secure transmissions in higher-level (HTTP)
format.
2. Which of the following best describes a system of
computers that connects the internal users of an
organization distributed over a wide geographic
area?
a. LAN
b. Internet
c. decentralized network
d. multidrop network
e. intranet
3. Sniffer software is
a. used by malicious Web sites to sniff data from
cookies stored on the user’s hard drive.
b. used by network administrators to analyze
network traffic.
c. used by bus topology intranets to sniff for carriers
before transmitting a message to avoid data
collisions.
d. an illegal program downloaded from the Web
to sniff passwords from the encrypted data of
Internet customers.
e. illegal software for decoding encrypted messages
transmitted over a shared intranet channel.
4. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Cookies were originally intended to facilitate
advertising on the Web.
b. Cookies always contain encrypted data.
c. Cookies are text files and never contain encrypted
data.
d. Cookies contain the URLs of sites the user visits.
e. Web browsers cannot function without cookies.
5. A message that is contrived to appear to be coming
from a trusted or authorized source is called
a. a denial of service attack.
b. digital signature forging.
c. Internet protocol spoofing.
d. URL masquerading.
e. a SYN-ACK packet.
collisions and prevents data loss during
transmissions.
d. It is more efficient than the bus or ring topologies
because it transmits an entire file of records to the
requesting node rather than only a single record.
e. It is not used in conjunction with either the bus
or ring topologies.
6. A DDos attack
a. is more intensive than a Dos attack because it
emanates from single source.
b. may take the form of either a SYN flood or smurf
attack.
c. is so named because it affects many victims
simultaneously, which are distributed across the
Internet.
d. turns the target victim’s computers into zombies
that are unable to access the Internet.
e. none of the above is correct.
10. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. A bridge is used to connect a LAN and a WAN.
b. Packet switching combines the messages of
multiple users into a packet for transmission.
At the receiving end, the packet is disassembled
into individual messages and distributed to the user.
c. The decision to partition a database assumes
that no identifiable primary user exists in the
organization.
d. Message switching is used to establish temporary
connections between network devices for
the duration of a communications session.
e. A deadlock is a temporary phenomenon that
disrupts transaction processing. It will resolve
itself when the primary computer completes
processing its transaction and releases the data
the other nodes need.
7. A ping signal is used to initiate
a. URL masquerading.
b. digital signature forging.
c. Internet protocol spoofing.
d. a smurf attack
e. a SYN-ACK packet.
8. A digital signature
a. is the encrypted mathematical value of the
message sender’s name.
b. is derived from the digest of a document that
has been encrypted with the sender’s private key.
c. is derived from the digest of a document that has
been encrypted with the sender’s public key.
d. is the computed digest of the sender’s digital
certificate.
e. allows digital messages to be sent over an analog
telephone line.
9. Which of the following statements about the
client-server model is correct?
a. It is best suited to the token ring topology
because the random-access method this topology
uses detects data collisions.
b. It distributes both data and processing tasks to
the server node. The client-server model can
use the bus or ring topology.
c. It is most effective when used as a bus topology
because its deterministic access method avoids