Exam Date: 28-12-2024
Time: 3:00 Hrs
CODE: PCBZ-MF35
MAX.MARKS:720
VISWABHARATHI_2025
MEDICAL- FOUNDATION
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1.
The test is of 3Hrs duration.
2.
Test booklet contains 180 questions and each subject consists of 45 questions.
3.
For each correct response, +4 marks, will be awarded.
4.
For each incorrect response, −1 mark will be awarded.
5.
For each unattempt question, 0 mark will be awarded.
NEET MODEL
S.N0
SUBJECT NAME
1
2
3
4
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BOTANY
ZOOLOGY
STARTING Q.NO
1
46
91
136
ENDING Q.N0
TOTAL QUESTIONS
45
90
135
180
TOTAL 180
45
45
45
45
SYLLABUS
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
BOTANY
ZOOLOGY
1. Vectors
2. Current Electricity (without Instruments)
1. IUPAC Nomenclature of organic compounds
2. Periodic Classification of Elements
1. Cell Cycle and Cell division
2. Respiration in Plants
3.Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
1. Breathing and Exchange of Gases
2. Body fluids and Circulation
3. Excretory Products and their Elimination
4. Chemical Coordination and Integration
Name of the Student :…………………………………………………
Address
:…………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………...
…………………………………………………...
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PHYSICS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Seven resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance between A and B is
(1) 3 
(2) 4 
(3) 4.5 
(4) 5 
Two forces each of magnitude F have a resultant of the same magnitude F. The angle between the two
forces is (1) 45º
(2) 120º
(3) 150º
(4) 60º
There are two force vectors, one of 5N and other of 12N, at what angle the two vectors be added to get
resultant vector of 17N, 7N and 13N respectively –
(1) 0º, 180º and 90º
(2) 0º, 90º and 180º
(3) 0º, 90º and 90º
(4) 180º, 0º and 90º
Two forces, each numerically equal to 5 N, are acting as shown in the Fig. Then the resultant is–
(1) 2. 5 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 5√3 N
The resultant of A and B makes an angle 𝛂 with A and 𝛃 with B (1) α<β
(2) α<β if A<B
(3) α<β if A>B
The vector sum of the forces of 10 N and 6 N can be(1) 2 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 18 N
(4) α<β if A = B
(4) 20 N
Figure shows the vectors a , b and c where R is the mid-point of PQ. Then which of the following is
correct?
(1) a + b = 2c
8.
(4) 10 N.
(2) a + b = c
(3) a − b = 2c
4) a − b = c
2) − A
3) B
4) − B
In figure D − C equals –
1) A
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9.
10.
A truck travelling due north with 20 m/s turns towards west and travels at the same speed. Then the
change in velocity is
(1) 40 m/s north-west
(2) 20√2m/s north-west
(3) 40 m/s south-west
(4) 20√2m/s south-west
The component of a vector is (1) Less than or equal to its magnitude
(2) Always greater than its magnitude
(3) Always equal to its magnitude
(4) Greater than or equal to its magnitude
^
11.
^
^
^
 3 
1) cos −1 

 50 
12.
13.
^
^
If P = 4 i − 2 j + 6 k and Q = i − 2 j − 3 k , then the angle which P + Q makes with x-axis is
 4 

 50 
3) cos −1 
 12 

 50 
4) cos −1 
^
^
^
^
^
^
If a vector  2 i + 3 j + 8 k  is perpendicular to the vector −4 i + 4 j +  k , then the value of 𝛂 is

−1
(1) –1
(2) 12
(3)
(4) 1
2
The resultant of two forces, one double the other in magnitude, is perpendicular to the smaller of the two
forces. The angle between the two forces is (1) 120º
(2) 60º
(3) 90º
(4) 150º
^
14.
 5 

 50 
2) cos −1 
^
^
The velocity of a particle is V = 6 i + 2 j − 2 k . The component of the velocity of a particle parallel to
^
^
^
vector a = i + j + k in vector form is-
15.
(1) 6î + 2ĵ + 2k̂
(2) 2î+ 2ĵ + 2k̂
(3) î+ĵ + k̂
(4) 6î + 2ĵ – 2k̂
The area of the triangle whose vertices are A (1, –1, 2), B(2, 1, –1) and C (3, –1, 2) is (2) 7 13
(1) 26
^
16.
^
^
^
^
(3) 13
^
^
^
(4) 8
^
If A = i + 2 j + 3 k , B = − i + j + 4 k and C = 3 i − 3 j − 12 k then find the angle between the vectors
( A + B + C ) and ( A  B ) in degrees.
17.
18.
19.
(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 0°
(4) 180°
How many minimum number of coplanar vectors having different magnitudes can be added to give zero
resultant?
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Which of the following sets of concurrent forces may be in equilibrium ?
(1) F1= 3N, F2= 5N, F3= 1N
(2) F1= 3N, F2= 5N, F3=9N
(3) F1= 3N, F2= 5N, F3= 6N
(4) F1= 3N, F2= 5N, F3=15N
(
(1) 300
(2) 600
^
20.
)
(
)
Given that A = B. What is the angle between A + B and A − B ?
^
^
^
2)
A 1
=
B 2
(3) 900
(4) 1800
If A = 3 i + 4 j and B = 6 i + 8 j A and B are the magnitudes of A and B , then which of the following is not true
?
1) A  B = 0
21.
(
)(
3) A. B = 48
4)A = 5
(3) A2 + B2 +2AB
(4) none of these
)
What is the value of A + B . A  B = ?
(1) 0
(2) A2 – B2
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22.
A cell of constant emf first connected to a resistance R1 and then connected to a resistance R2. If power
delivered in both cases are equal then the internal resistance of the cell is
(1)
23.
24.
25.
26.
R1R2
2)
R1
R2
3)
R1 − R2
2
4)
R1 + R2
2
The current through a wire depends on time as i = (2+3t) A. Calculate the charge crossed through a cross
section of the wire in first 10 seconds.
(1) 150 C
(2) 165 C
(3) 170 C
(4) 175 C
A wire has a non-uniform cross-section as shown in figure. A steady current flows through it. The drift
speed of electrons at point P and Q is V𝐏 and VQ .Then –
(1 v p = vQ
(2) v p  vQ
In the shown V-I curve
R1
will be?
R2
1) 1: 3
2)
3 :1
(3) v p  vQ
(4) data insufficient
3) 1:1
4) 1 : 3
29.
A wire of resistance 5 is drawn out so that its length is increased to twice its original length. Calculate
its new resistance.
(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 15
(4) 25
The electric field E, current density j and conductivity  of a conductor are related as
(1)  = E / j
(2)  = j / E
(3)  = jE
(4)  = 1 / jE
A cylindrical wire has a resistance R and resistivity  . If its length and diameter are both cut in half, its
resistivity will now be :
() 
() 4
() 2
() 
In the circuit diagram, all the bulbs are identical. Which bulb will be the brightest?
30.
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity () of a semiconductor is represented by :
27.
28.
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31.
32.
Two wires each of radius of cross section r but of different materials are connected together end to end
(in series). If the densities of charge carriers in the two wires are in the ratio 3:4, the drift velocity of
electrons in the two wires will be in the ratio :
(1) 3 : 4
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 3
(4) 1 : 4
A metal wire of length 𝓵 has resistance R. Half of its length is stretched uniformly such that final length
of wire becomes 𝟐𝓵. The new resistance of wire will be ?
(1) 2R
33.
34.
(2) 3R
(3) 4R
(4) 5R
6
Ohm. One of the resistance wire
8
is broken and the effective resistance becomes 2. Then the resistance (in ohm) of the wire that got
broken was
(1) 3/5
(2) 2
(3) 6/5
(4) 3
Three equal resistors, each equal to R, are connected as shown in the following figure, then the equivalent
resistance between points A and B is –
Two resistances are joined in parallel whose equivalent resistance is
37.
(1) R
(2) 3R
(3) R/3
(4) 2R/3
Two resistor are connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel. The equivalent resistance in the two cases are 9
and 2 respectively. Then the resistances of the component resistors are –
(1) 2 and 7
(2) 3 and 6
(3) 3 and 9
(4) 5 and 4
A wire has resistance 12. It is bent in the form of a circle. The effective resistance between the two
points on any diameter is equal to
(1) 12 
(2) 6 
(3) 3
(4) 24 
For what value of R the net resistance of the circuit will be 18 ohms
38.
(1) 8
(2) 10 
(3) 16 
(4) 24 
The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of currents is shown here. The current i will be
35.
36.
(1) 3 A
(2) 13 A
(3) 23 A
(4) –3 A
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39.
Two batteries of e.m.f. 4V and 8 V with internal resistances 1 and 2 are connected in a circuit with
a resistance of 9 as shown in figure. The current and potential difference between the points P and Q
are
1
1
1
1
A and 3V
(2) A and 4V
(3) A and 9V
(4) A and 12V
3
9
2
6
By a cell a current of 0.9 A flows through 2 ohm resistor and 0.3 A through 7 ohm resistor. The internal
resistance of the cell is
(1) 0.5 
(2) 1.0 
(3) 1.2
(4) 2.0 
The potential difference in open circuit for a cell is 2.2 volts. When a 4 ohm resistor is connected between
its two electrodes the potential difference becomes 2 volts. The internal resistance of the cell will be
(1) 1 ohm
(2) 0.2 ohm
(3) 2.5 ohm
(4) 0.4 ohm
n rows each containing m cells in series are joined in parallel. Maximum current is taken from this
combination across an external resistance of 3 resistance. If the total number of cells used are 24 and
internal resistance of each cell is 0.5  then
(1) m = 8, n = 3
(2) m = 6,n = 4
(3) m = 12,n = 2
(4) m = 2,n = 12
n identical cells each of emf  and internal resistance r, are joined in series to form a closed circuit. The
potential difference across any one cell is –
n −1


(1) zero
(2) 
(3)
(4)
n
n
Five resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The effective resistance between the points A and
B is
(1)
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
10
20


(2)
(3) 15 
(4) 6 
3
3
In the arrangement of resistances shown below, the effective resistance between point A and B is
(1)
45.
(1) 20 
(2) 30 
(3) 90 
(4) 110 
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CHEMISTRY
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of:
1) Atomic number
2) Atomic mass
3) Principal quantum number
4) Azimuthal quantum number
The element Z=114 has been discovered recently it will belong to which of the following group/family
and electronic configuration
1) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4
2) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5
3) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6
4) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2
In which of the following options the order arrangement does not agree with the variation of property
indicated against it?
1) Li<Na<K<Rb (increasing metallic radius)
2) Al3+<Mg2+<Na+<F- (increasing ionic size)
3) B<C<N<O (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
4) I<Br<F<Cl (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
Which of the following statements related to the modern periodic table is incorrect?
1) The p-block has 6 columns, because a maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a pshell.
2) The d-block has 8 columns, because a maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the orbitals in a dsubshell.
3) Each block contains a number of columns equal to the number of electrons that can occupy that
subshell.
4) The block indicates value of azimuthal quantum number (l) for the last subshell that received
electrons in building up the electronic configuration.
Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the element. Which one of
the following factors does not affect the valence shell?
1) Principal quantum number (n)
2) Nuclear charge (Z)
3) Nuclear mass
4) Number of core electrons.
Considering the elements B, Al, Mg, and K, the correct order of their metallic character is:
1) B > Al > Mg > K
2) Al > Mg > B > K
3) Mg > Al > K > B
4) K > Mg > Al > B
Statement-I: The second ionization energy of ‘O’ is greater than that of ‘N’
Statement-II: The half-filled p-orbitals cause greater stability.
1) Statement I and Statement II are true.
2) Statement I and Statement II are false.
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
The order of screening effect of electrons of s, p, d and f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its outer
shell electrons is:
1) s > p > d > f
2) f > d > p > s
3) p > f > d > s
4) f > p > s > d
Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species
1) I− > I > I+
2) I > I − > I+
3) I+ > I > I −
4) I− > I+ > I
Considering the elements F, Cl, O and N, the correct order of their chemical reactivity in terms of
oxidizing property is
1) F > Cl > O > N
2) F > O > Cl > N
3) Cl > F > O > N
4) O > F > N > Cl
Assertion: Elements Li, Na and K form a Dobereiner’s triad.
Reason: Atomic weight of the middle element is the arithmetic mean of the other two.
1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion.
3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
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57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
The size of isoelectronic species F −, Ne and Na + is affected by
1) nuclear charge (Z)
2) valence principal quantum number (n)
3) electron – electron interaction in the outer orbitals
4) none of the factors because their size is the same
Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B
Column – A
Column – B
(i) Na2O
(a) Neutral
(ii) Al2O3
(b) Basic
(iii) N2O
(c) Acidic
(iv) Cl2O7
(d) Amphoteric
Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
1) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
2) i – c, ii – b, iii – a, iv – d
3) i -a, ii – d, iii – b, iv – c
4) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
Which of the following is not an actinoid?
1) Bk
2) Cf
3) Gd
4) Np
Statement -I: The second electron affinity of oxygen is endothermic
Statement -II: Oxygen is the second highest electronegative element
1) Statement I and Statement II are true.
2) Statement I and Statement II are false.
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
Match the following
Column – I
Column – II
(Atomic number Z)
(Block)
(A) 19
(p) p-block
(B) 22
(q) f-block
(C) 32
(r) d-block
(D) 64
(s) s-block
1) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q
2) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
3) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p
4) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r
The largest group in Modern periodic table is _____
1) Group 3
2) Group 18
3) Group 12
4) Group 1
The element expected to form largest ion to achieve the nearest noble gas configuration is
1) O
2) F
3) N
4) Na
The I1, I2, I3, I4 values of an element “M” are 120 KJ/mole, 600 KJ/mole, 1000 KJ/mole and 8000
KJ/mole. Then the formula of its sulphate is
1) MSO4
2) M2(SO4)3
3) M2SO4
4) M3(SO4)2
+
What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na if IE1 of Na is 5.1 eV?
1) −5.1 eV
2) −10.2 eV
3) +2.55 eV
4) +10.2 eV
2+
The oxidation state and covalency of ‘Al’ in [Al Cl (H2O)5] is _______
1) +3, 3
2) +2, 3
3) +3, 6
4) +2, 5
Identify the incorrect match?
Name
IUPAC Official Name
A) Unnilunium
(i) Mendelevium
B) Unniltrium
(ii) Lawrencium
C) Unnilhexium
(iii) Seaborgium
D) Unununnium
(iv) Darmstadtium
1) d, iv
2) a, i
3) b, ii
4) c, iii
The number of elements present in the fourth period of modern periodic table is _____
1) 32
2) 8
3) 18
4) 2
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69.
70.
The IUPAC suffix of Ester is ______
1) – oic acid
2) – oyl halide
3) – oate
The structural formula of o- ethyl anisole is _____
4) – one
OMe
OMe
OMe
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
Me
C2H5
C 2 H5
1)
2)
3) C2H5
4)
Match the following
List – I (Functional group)
List – II (IUPAC prefix)
I) Hydroxy
A) − CHO
B) – COOR
II) Formyl
C) – CONH2
III) Carbamoyl
D) – OH
IV) Alkoxy carbonyl
1) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
2) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
3) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
The Functional group structure of carboxylic acid is ____
1) – COX
2) – COOR
3) – SO3H
4) – COOH
The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC
system of nomenclature is
1) -COOH, -SO3H, -CONH2, -CHO
2) -SO3H, -COOH, -CONH2, -CHO
3) -CHO, -COOH, -SO3H, -CONH2
4) -CONH2, -CHO, -SO3H, -COOH
The IUPAC name of the compound having the formula HC≡C
CH = CH2
1) 3-butene-1-yne
2) 1-butyn-3-ene
3) but-3-yn-1-ene
4) but -1- en -3-yne
Statement -I: The Root word indicates the length of the carbon chain
Statement-II: The Primary suffix indicates the principal functional group
1) Statement I and Statement II are true.
2) Statement I and Statement II are false.
3) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
The IUPAC name of the compound OHC
1) 3, 3-Dimethyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde
3) 3, 3-Dimethyl cyclohexanal
CH2
77.
78.
79.
OC2H5
CH
CH2
CN
CN
IUPAC name of CN
1) 3 – cyanopentane -1, 5- dinitrile
3) 1,2,3 – tri cyano propane
Functional group present in amides is
1) – COOH
2) -NH2
The IUPAC name of the given structure
Cl
is
2) 1, 1-Dimethyl -3- hydroxy cyclohexane
4) 1, 1-Dimethyl -3- cyclohexanal
2) Propane -1, 2, 3 – tri nitrile
4) Propane – 1,2,3 - tricarbonitrile
3) -CONH2
4) -COX
Br
1) 6-Bromo-5-chlorocyclohexen-3-yne
3) 6-Bromo-5-chloro-3-cyclohexen-1-yne
2) 5-Bromo-6-chloro-1-cyclohexen-3-yne
4) 4-Bromo-3-chloro-1-cyclohexen-5-yne
9|P a ge
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
IUPAC name of allyl chloride
1) 1-chloro-1-propene 2) 1-chloro-2-propene 3) 3-chloro-2-propene 4) 3-chloro-1-propene
The IUPAC name of neopentane is
1) 2,2- dimethylpropane 2) 2- methylpropane
3) 2,2- dimethylbutane 4) 2-methylbutane
The correct structure of 4-bromo-3-methyl but-1-ene is
1) Br – CH = C(CH3)2
2) CH2=CH – CH (CH3) – CH2Br
3) CH2=C(CH3) CH2CH2Br
4) CH3 – C(CH3) = CHCH2 – Br
The correct IUPAC name of
is
1) Pent-1-en-4-yne
2) Pent-1-yn-4-ene
3) 3-Ethenyl ethene
4) pent -4-yn-1-ene
A compound with molecular formula, C6H14 has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is
1) n-hexane
2) 2-methyl pentane
3) 2, 3-dimethyl butane 4) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound is
CH3
CH3
CH3 C
CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 -
CH
CH3 CH CH2 CH3
CH2
CH3
CH3
86.
1)
2)
3)
4)
Structure of the compound whose IUPAC name is 3-Ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid
87.
1)
2)
3)
4)
Names of some compounds are given. Which one is not in IUPAC system
1)
2)
88.
3)
4)
The correct structure of 2,6 – Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
89.
1)
2)
3)
The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
Cl
4)
OH
Br
90.
1) 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
3) 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
Correct IUPAC name for
H3C
CH
CH
2) 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methylhexan-4-ol
4) 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chorohexan-4-ol
CH3
C2H5 C2H5
1) 2-ethyl-3-methylpentane
3) 2-sec-butylbutane
2) 3, 4-dimethylhexane
4) 2, 3-diethylbutane
10 | P a g e
BOTANY
91.
Most of the organelle duplication also occurs during
1)’S’ phase
2) ‘G2’ phase
3) ‘G1’ phase
4) M- Phase
92.
A- The centrioles move to the opposite poles
B- The chromatids start moving towards the opposite poles
Identify A, B respectively
1) A – Interphase, B- Metaphase
2)A- Prophase, B- Anaphase
3) A – Anaphase, B- Metaphase
4) A- Anaphase, B- Telophase
93.
Fermentation takes place under anaerobic conditions in
1) Germinating seeds
2) Many prokaryotes
3) Unicellular Eukaryotes
4) All of these
94.
Select the incorrect statement of the following
1) Glucose is the favoured substrate for respiration
2) All living organisms retain the enzymatic machinery to partially oxidise glucose without the help of
oxygen
3) Only green plants and cyanobacteria can prepare their own food by photosynthesis
4) NADH is oxidised to NAD+ very vigourously in fermentation
95.
If fatty acids were to be respired they would first be degraded to a
1) 2C- molecule
2) 3c- molecule
3) 4c- molecule
4) 6c- molecule
96.
Number of chromosomes at each pole of the root tip cell of onion during Anaphase of mitosis and
Anaphase – I of Meiosis respectively
1) 8, 8
2) 16, 8
3) 8, 16
4) 32, 16
97.
A− Chromosomal condensation
B− Disapperance of Nuclear envelope, nucleolus etc
C− Spindle fibres start appearing
D–Alignment of chromosomes at the equatorial plate
E− Division of centromere
How many of the above features are incorrect to prophase of Mitosis?
1) 2
2) 4
3) 5
4) 3
98.
Match the following columns
Column – I
Column – II
(A) 3C- compound
I) Succinic acid
(B) 6C- compound
II) Acetyl CO.A
(C) 2C-compound
III)1, 3 – bisphosphoglyceric acid
(D) 4C- compound
IV)  − keto glutaric acid
V) Citric acid
The correct match is
A B
C
D
A
B
C
D
1)
III V
II
IV
2)
II
IV I
III
3)
III V
II
I
4)
IV V
II
I
99.
The continued oxidation of acetyl Co.A via the TCA cycle requires the continued replenishment of
1) oxalo succinic acid 2)  − keto glutaric acid 3) citric acid
4) oxalo acetic acid
100. The DNA content of a cell is measured in the G2- phase. After meiosis – I , the DNA content of one of
the cell / nucleus Produced will be
1) 1/4 that of the G2 -phase of the cell
2) Equal to that of the G2 – phase of the cell
3) Half that of the G2 – phase of the cell
4) Twice that of the G2 – phase of the cell
101. Find out the correct sequence of events which occur during meiosis
A) Disjunction of chromatids
B) Synapsis
C) Terminalisation
D) Enlargement of nucleus
E) Crossing over
1)D, B, A, C, E
2) D, B, A, E, C
3) B, D, E, C, A
4) D, B, E, C, A
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102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
Number of mitotic generations required to form 256 cells from a meristematic cell of root tip is
1) 255
2) 128
3)8
4) 7
Assertion (A): Interphase is considered as resting phase
Reason (R ) : During interphase, cell is metabolically inactive
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
In which of the following phases, each chromosome has two chromatids ?
1)Prophase – I, Metaphase – II
2) Prophase – I, Anaphase – II
3)Prophase – II, Telophase – II
4) Metaphase – I, Telophase – II
The ratio of centromeres, kinetochores, chromatids, DNA molecules in a bivalent is
1) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2
2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 2
3) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2
4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 2
Identify the incorrect statement of the following
1) According to cell theory, cells arise from pre- existing cells
2) Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed by the end of diplotene, leaving
the chromosomes linked at the sites of crossing over
3) Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only about 1 ½ hour
4)The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of second phase of mitosis
In animal cells, during the ‘s’ phase, DNA replication begins in the ‘P’ and the centriole duplicates in
the Q . Identify P, Q respectively
1) Nucleus, Nucleus
2) Cytoplasm, Nucleus 3) Nucleus, Cytoplasm 4) Cytoplasm, Cytoplasm
The stage in meiotic division which is responsible for the origin of new species and thus leading to
evolution is
1) Diplotene
2) Pachytene
3) Zygotene
4) Leptotene
Division of centromere occurs in
1)Anaphase
2) Anaphase – I
3) Anaphase – II
4) Both (1) and (3)
Which of the following is a meiocyte ?
1)Pollen grain
2)Egg
3) Megaspore
4) Microspore mother cell
Statement – I : Respiration occurs in both Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic organisms
Statement – II: In Eukaryotes, respiration is only aerobic
1) S- I is true, S- II is false
2) S – I is false, S – II is true
3) Both S- I , S – II are false
4) Both S – I , S – II are true
Which acts as a mobile carrier between complex – III and complex – IV
1) Cyt- C1
2) Cyt- C
3) Ubiquinone
4) Plastocyanin
How many molecules of H2O are released when 3 molecules of glucose enter the aerobic cellular
respiration?
1) 6
2) 48
3) 18
4) 12
Which metal ion is required for the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase ?
1) Mn2+
2) Zn2+
3) Mg 2+
4) Fe2+
In kreb’s cycle, the co- enzyme FAD participates as electron acceptor during the conversion of
1) Succinyl CO.A → succinic acid
2)  − ketoglutaric acid → succinyl co.A
3) Succinic acid → Fumaric acid
4) Fumaric acid → Malic acid
Phosphorylation of glucose takes place by the activity of
1) Phosphoglycero kinase
2) Invertase
3) Phosphofructo kinase
4) Hexokinase
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Statement – I : Respiratory pathway Is best defined as Amphibolic pathway
Statement – II : Respiration is an exergonic process
1) Both S–I, S–II are true
2) Both S- I , S – II are false
3) S–I is true, S–II is false
4) S – I is false , S – II is true
118. The aerobic respiration yields
1) 8NADH2 , 2FADH2 , 2ATP
2) 12NADH2, 36ATP, H2O
3) 10NADH2 , 2FADH2, 38ATP
4) 8 NADH2 , 2FADH2, 2GTP, 2ATP
119. Identify the mis – match of the following
1)Pyruvic acid – oxidative decarboxylation – acetyl CO.A
2) Fructose – 1, 6- bisphosphate – cleavage- DHAP+ PGAL
3) Pyruvic acid – oxidation – Lactic acid
4) Glucose – 6-phosphate – Isomerization – Fructose – 6- phosphate
120. Identify the correct statement of the following
1) Animals are both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms
2) Saprophytes like green algae are dependent an dead and decaying organic matter
3) The complete combustion of glucose produces CO2 and H2O as end products, yields energy, most
of which is stored in the form of ATP
4) Oxygen acts as the final hydrogen acceptor
121. If there are 1280 microspores in a dithecous anther, how many pollen mother cells will be there in each
pollen sac of that anther ?
1) 80
2) 160
3) 240
4) 320
122. The ploidy of cells of the microsporangium which possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more
than one nucleus is
1) Tetraploid
2) Diploid
3) Haploid
4) Triploid
123. In monocots, male gametophyte is
1) Nucellus
2) Megaspore
3) Pollen grain
4) Endothecium
124. In water hyacinth and water lily pollination takes place by
1) Insects
2) Water
3) Air
4) Both 1and 3
125. Match the column – I with Column – II.
Column – I
Column – II
A)Funicle
I) Small opening of ovule
B) Chalaza
II) Stalk of ovule
C) Hilum
III) Junction between body of ovule and stalk
d) Micropyle
IV) Basal part of ovule
V) Protective envelope of ovule
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
1)
II
IV III
I
2)
II
V
III IV
3)
II
I
III
IV
4)
II
III V
I
126. Both Autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in
I) Papaya
II) Castor
III) Maize
IV) Oxalis
1) II, III
2) I only
3)I, II, III
4)II, III, IV
127. Male gametes in flowering plants are formed by
1) Mitotic division in vegetative cell
2) Meiotic division in pollen mother cell
3) Meiotic division in vegetative cell
4) Mitotic division in generative cell
128. Pollination by water is
1) Rare in flowering plants
2) Limited to about 30 genera
3) Most of the genera with hydrophils are monocotyledons
4) All of the above
117.
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129. Assertion (A): Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils
Reason (R) : The outer wall layer of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin, one of the most resistant
organic material
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
130. Removal of anthers from the floral bud before the dehiscence of anthers in a female parent during
hybridization is called
1)Bagging
2) Heterosis
3) Etiolation
4) Emasculation
131. Select the correct statements of the following
a) Embryo development precedes endosperm development
b) Endosperm is a post – fertilized product in Angiosperms
c) In Angiosperms, seed is the final product of sexual reproduction
d) Seeds are non – endospermic in Pea, ground nut, barley, castor
e) majority of flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers
1)a,b,c,e
2)b, c, d, e
3) b, c, e
4) a, b, d
132. The ploidy of nucellus, perisperm, epiblast aleurone cell respectively
1) n, 2n, n, 3n
2) 2n, 2n, 2n, 3n
3) 2n, n, n, 2n
4) 2n, 3n, 2n, 3n
133. Select the mis- match of the following
1) Citrus, Mango – Polyembryony
2) Viola, Commelina- Both Chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers
3) Rice, Wheat – Pollen lose viability with in 30 seconds
4) Strawberry, cashew nut – False fruits
134. During pollen – pistil interaction, chemical components are released from
1) only pollen
2) only pistil
3) both pollen and pistil 4) ovary
135. In some Angiosperms, a phenomenon results in the formation of seeds, without fertilization is
1) Apomixis
2) Parthenocarpy
3) Heterospory
4) Vivipary
ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following statement is not true for ventricular systole of human heart?
(1) Closure of A-V valves resulting in ‘lub’ sound
(2) It occurs shortly after Q-wave in ECG
(3) Left ventricle pumps out 70 ml of blood with blood pressure of 80 mm Hg
(4) Semilunar valves open due to increased ventricular pressure
137. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: ANF mechanism acts as a check on renin angiotensin mechanism.
Statement-II: ANF increases blood pressure through vasodilation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
138. Choose the option with correct set of statements from the following.
(A) High pO2 at alveoli favours binding of O2 with haemoglobin.
(B) 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers 5 ml of O2 to systemic tissues under normal conditions.
(C) Chemoreceptors of coronary artery send signals to respiratory rhythm centre by recognising
Changes in CO2 and H+
(D) At the alveoli carbonic anhydrase catalyses the formation of HCO3− and H+ from H2 CO3
(E) High pCO2 at tissues causes release of CO2 from carbaminohaemoglobin
(1) A, B
(2) A, B, C
(3) C, D, E
(4) A, B, C, D
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139.
Parathyroid glands release a peptide hormone which does not
(1) Stimulate resorption of bone
(2) Stimulate reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
(3) Increase blood Ca2+ levels
(4) Decrease blood Ca2+ levels
140. Match the following contents of List-I with List – II and choose correct option with reference to human
heart.
List – I
List - II
(A) Tricuspid valve
(i) Left atrio ventricular aperture
(B) Sino atrial node
(ii) Right atrioventricular aperture
(C) Bicuspid valve
(iii) Right upper corner of right atrium
(D) Atrio ventricular node
(iv) Allows blood into aorta
(E)Semilunar valve
(v) Lower left corner of right atrium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – v, E – iv
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i, E – v
(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i, E – v
(4) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D –v, E – iv
141. Which of the following is incorrect statement about human under normal conditions?
(1) Lungs eliminate 200 ml of CO2 /minute
(2) Kidneys filter 1100 ml to 1200 ml of blood/minute
(3) Heart pumps 5 litres of deoxygenated blood to systemic body parts/minute
(4) Lungs inspire 6000 to 8000 ml of air/minute
142. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I: Thyroid gland enlarges when less intake of iodine in the diet.
Statement-II: Iodine is essential for synthesis of all the hormones of thyroid gland.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) S-I is false but S-II is true.
(2) Both S-I and S-II are false.
(3) S-I is true but S-II is false.
(4) Both S-I and S-II are true.
143. Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration is equal to
(1) TLC – RV
(2) IRV + TV
(3) ERV + RV
(4) TV + ERV
144. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion-(A): The renal fluid is progressively diluted in the ascending limb of loop of Henle.
Reason-(R): Osmolarity gradient in medullary interstitium helps in water reabsorption in renal tubules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
145. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion-(A): Heart of fishes pumps deoxygenated blood to gills.
Reason-(R): Heart of fishes receives deoxygenated blood from gills and body parts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
146. Which of the following steroid hormones have antagonistic effects on protein metabolism?
(1) Growth hormone, thyroxine
(2) Cortisol, testosterone
(3) Estrogen, adrenaline
(4) Nor adrenalin, glucagon
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147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
The following are the features of a structure 'X' involved in the regulation of respiration.
(a) Neural signals from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration.
(b) It can moderate the functions of respiratory rhythm centre.
(c) It is present in the pons region of the brain.
Select the option that correctly identifies 'X'.
(1) Pneumotaxic centre
(2) Respiratory rhythm centre
(3) Chemosensitive area
(4) Satiety center
Choose the set of incorrect statements about human RBC.
(A) Its iron containing complex protein transports CO2 in the form of carboxyhaemoglobin.
(B) It is biconcave in shape with nucleus
(C) Erythropoietin stimulates its production in the red bone marrow
(D) It is destroyed in the spleen after 120 days
(E) Most abundant cells of blood
(1) All except B
(2) C, D, E
(3) A, B
(4) B only
Which of the following statement is true for ADH?
(1) It promotes diuresis
(2) It decreases BP by its constrictor effect on blood vessels
(3) It’s intracellular receptors are seen in DCT
(4) It is secreted by hypothalamus of brain
Sebum contains
(1) NaCl and urea
(2) Plasma without clotting factors
(3) Biliverdin, biluribin
(4) Sterols and waxes
Conditions that favour the dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin are
(1) High pCO2, High pO2
(2) High H+ concentration, High pCO2
(3) High temperature, Low H+ concentration
(4) High pO2, High pH
A person with Rh antigen on RBC and without anti A and anti B antibodies in plasma can donate his
blood to
(1) AB positive
(2) AB negative
(3) O positive
(4) Any blood type
Choose correct set of matching with reference to urine formation in human.
List – I
List - II
(A) DCT
(I) 70-80% of electrolytes and water is reabsorbed
(B) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(II) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and secretion of K+
(C) PCT
(III) Impermeable to water
(D) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(IV) Passive diffusion of urea
(E) Collecting duct
(V) Impermeable to electrolytes
(1)A – I, B – V, C – II, D – III, E – IV
(2) A – V, B – III, C – I, D – IV, E - II
(3) A – II, B – V, C – I, D – III, E - IV
(4) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – V, E – IV
Set of hormones whose site of production is in the head region.
(1) Thymosin, gonadotropins, androgens
(2) Melatonin, somatostatin, GnRH
(3) Oestrogen, luteinizing hormone, oxytocin
(4) Growth hormone, vasopressin, thyroxine
The numerical value of which of the following pulmonary capacities is least in a healthy human?
(1) Expiratory capacity
(2) Functional residual capacity
(3) Inspiratory capacity
(4) Vital capacity
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156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
Match the following Hormone Target tissue
a. Oxytocin
i. Central neural system
b. PTH
ii. Smooth muscles
c. LH
iii. Ovary
d. Thyroxine
iv. Renal tubules
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
(1) iv
ii
iii
i
(2) ii
iv
iii
i
(3) iii
ii
i
iv
(4) i
iii
ii
iv
Every 2 L of oxygenated blood can deliver about 'X' mL of oxygen to the tissues under normal
conditions in humans. Choose the correct value for 'X'.
(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 12
(4) 120
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A): SAN is called the pacemaker
Reason (R): SAN can generate the maximum number of action potentials and is responsible for
initiating and maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true R is false
(4) A is false R is true
Renal tubule begins with
(1) Glomerulus
(2) Malphigian body
(3) Bowmans capsule (4) PCT
Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged
Statement-II: In emphysema, respiratory surface for exchange of gases is decreased.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood group of father is B+, mother is A+ and child is O+.
Their respective genotype can be
A) IBi / IAi / ii
B) IBIB /IAIA / ii
C) IAIB / iIA / IBi
D) IAi / IBi / IAi
E) iIB / iIA / IAIB
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) C & B only
(4) D & E only
If Henles loop were absent in nephron, which of the following can be expected
(1) No urine formation
(2) Urine will be more dilute
(3) Urine will be more concentrated
(4) Glucose in urine
Synthesis and secretion of cortisol is stimulated by hormone produced by
(1) Thyroid
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Pituitary
(4) Adrenal
Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I
List-II
A. Basophils
I. Phagocytes
B. Neutrophils
II. Secrete histamine, Serotonin, heparin and involved in inflammatory response
C. Eosinophils
III. Resist infections and are also involved in allergic reaction
D. Lymphocytes
IV. Immunity
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
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165.
166.
167.
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
In man, increase of the volume of thoracic chamber in antero-posterior axis during breathing occurs
when
(1) Diaphragm muscles are relaxed
(2) Diaphragm muscles are contracted
(3) Internal intercostal muscles are contracted
(4) External intercostal muscles are relaxed
Selective secretion of hydrogen ions in to the filtrate is not seen in this segment
(1) Collecting duct and DCT
(2) Loop of Henle only
(3) PCT and loop of Henle
(4) Collecting duct only
Match the following
Hormone
Hyposecretion disorder
a. Melatonin
i. Dehydration
b. Thyroxine
ii. Weak immune responses
c. Thymosin
iii. Irregular menstrual cycles
d. Vasopressin
iv. Disturbed biological rhythms
a
b
c
d
a
b
c
d
(1) iv
iii
ii
i
(2) ii
iii
iv
i
(3) iv
ii
i
iii
(4) i
iii
ii
iv
In the ABO system of blood groups, if both antigens are present but no antibody, the blood group of
the individual would be:
(1) B
(2) 0
(3) AB
(4) A
The difference in the partial pressure of oxygen of alveolar air and pulmonary capillaries that favours
the diffusion of oxygen from the alveolar air into the blood in the pulmonary capillaries is
(1) 5 mm Hg
(2) 40 mm Hg
(3) 64 mm Hg
(4) 45 mm Hg
The structures observed in cortex region of kidney.
(A) Bowmans capsule (B) PCT
(C) DCT
(D) Loop of Henle
(E) Vasa recta
(F) Collecting duct
(1) A, B, C, F only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) A, B, C, E, F
(4) B and C only
The hormone that passes through portal circulation and regulate the functions of anterior pituitary
(1) MSH
(2) TSH
(3) GnRH
(4) ACTH
A patch of nodal tissue responsible for initiating the rhythmic contractile activity of heart is present in
(1) Left lower corner of the left atrium
(2) Right upper corner of the left atrium
(3) Left lower corner of the right ventricle
(4) Right upper corner of the right atrium
Percentage of CO2 transported in a dissolved state through the blood plasma is
(1) 20-25
(2) 3
(3) 7
(4) 70
Slit pores are formed by
(1) Epithelial cells of glomerular capillaries.
(2) Epithelial cells of afferent arteriole
(3) Epithelial cells of efferent arteriole
(4) Epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule
The hormone that stimulates erythropoiesis
(1) Thyroxine
(2) Testosterone
(3) Erythropoitin
(4) All of these
Which of the following does not occur during inhalation?
(1) Raising up of the sternum
(2) Contraction of the diaphragm
(3) Increase in thoracic volume
(4) Contraction of internal intercostal muscles
Neutrophil differs from basophil by
(1) Having granules
(2) Having unlobed nucleus
(3) Producing inflammatory mediators
(4) Showing phagocytosis
The juxtaglomerular apparatus is formed by the cellular modification of
(1) DCT only
(2) DCT and efferent arteriole
(3) DCT and afferent arteriole
(4) Afferent and efferent arteriole
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179.
180.
Given below are two statements :
Statement-I: Cancer in thyroid gland increases rate of secretion of thyroid hormones.
Statement-II: Enlargement of thyroid gland is never associated with hypothyroidism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) S-I is false but S-II is true.
(2) Both S-I and S-II are false.
(3) S-I is true but S-II is false.
(4) Both S-I and S-II are true
The partial pressure of oxygen in all of the following blood vessels is greater than that of vena cava,
except
(1) Systemic arteries
(2) Pulmonary artery
(3) Pulmonary vein
(4) Hepatic artery
*** ALL THE BEST ****
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ROUGH WORK
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