Foundations of Sport and Exercise
Psychology, Weinberg - Complete test bank exam questions - quizzes (updated 2022)
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1. Sport psychology specialists have three roles. These include
*a. teaching, researching, and consulting
b. teaching, administration, and consulting
c. research, administration, and teaching
d. teaching, intervention, and research
e. intervention, teaching, and consulting
2. Which of the following will the field of sport and exercise
psychology face in the future?
a. unqualified people doing consulting in sport psychology
b. few full-time positions in sport psychology involving
consulting with athletes
c. a glut of positions teaching sport psychology at universities
*d. a and b
e. a and c
3. Which type of question would NOT fall under the category of "What
effect do psychological factors have on an individual's performance?"
a. Does self-confidence influence a child's ability to learn to
swim?
b. How does anxiety affect a tennis player's service accuracy?
*c. Does running reduce one's anxiety and depression?
d. How does punishment influence an individual's motivation to
continue participation in sport?
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e. How does concentration affect performance in fine motor tasks?
4. Research by Landers and his colleagues, using biofeedback techniques
to train elite marksmen to shoot between heartbeats, is a good example
of a
a. cognitive-behavioral orientation
b. cognitive-affective orientation
c. behavioral orientation
*d. psychophysiological orientation
e. physiological-environmental orientation
5. Behavior is determined by the interaction of the environment and
personal makeup of the performer. This idea is an example of a
a. cognitive-behavioral orientation
b. behavioral orientation
c. cognitive-affective orientation
*d. social-psychological orientation
e. cognitive-environmental orientation
6. Emotional disorders affecting sport performance, such as eating
disorders and drug abuse, would best be treated by a
*a. clinical sport psychologist
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b. developmental psychologist
c. educational sport psychologist
d. Rogerian sport therapist
e. Gestalt sport therapist
7. Which of the following are major sport and exercise psychology
journals?
a. Journal of Applied Sport Psychology
b. Journal of Applied Research in Sport Psychology
c. Journal of Sport and Exercise Psychology
d. a and b
*e. a and c
8. The limitations of professional practice knowledge include its
a. susceptibility to biasing influences
b. high internal validity
c. lack of explanations
d. a and b
*e. a and c
9. Which professional sport psychology association developed standards
for certification of individuals working in applied sport psychology
settings?
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a. North American Society for the Psychology of Sport and Physical
Activity
b. International Society of Sport Psychology
*c. Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology
d. American Psychological Association Division 47
e. Applied Sport Psychology Society
10. Sport and exercise psychology is first and foremost a
*a. science
b. paradigm
c. applied field of study
d. laboratory-based field of study
11. In the fifth period, sport psychology experienced a tremendous
growth in
a. theoretical development
b. applied research
c. professional service
d. a and b
*e. b and c
12. Which of the following are sport psychology organizations?
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a. Association for the Advancement of Applied Sport Psychology
(AAASP)
b. North American Society for the Psychology of Sport and Physical
Activity (NASPSPA)
c. American Sport Psychology Association
*d. a and b
13. Which of the following events did NOT occur in period 6 (2000present)?
a. The journal Psychology of Sport and Exercise is published in
Europe.
b. Division 47 of the American Psychological Association focuses
on sport psychology as a specialized competency area.
*c. The Association for Applied Sport Psychology is established.
d. a and c
e. b and c
14. Which of the following events did not occur during period 5?
a. Journal of Sport Psychology was established.
b. The Olympic committee hired the first full-time sport
psychologist.
c. The journal The Sport Psychologist was established.
*d. Sport psychologists started licensure standards.
e. APA Division 47 was formed.
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15. The leading researcher during period 3 (1938-1965) was
*a. Franklin Henry
b. Richard Schmidt
c. George Stelmach
d. Jack Adams
e. Scott Kelso
16. Coleman Griffith established the first research laboratory in sport
psychology at the University of
a. Notre Dame
*b. Illinois
c. Minnesota
d. Wisconsin
e. Iowa
17. Coleman Griffith worked with all of the following famous coaches and
athletes except
a. Red Grange
b. Knute Rockne
c. Dizzy Dean
*d. Babe Ruth
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18. The father of American sport psychology is
*a. Coleman Griffith
b. Rainer Martens
c. Dan Landers
d. Dan Gould
e. Robert Singer
19. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Sport psychology focuses on the concerns of the elite athlete.
b. Sport psychology focuses on the competitive sport of young
athletes.
*c. Sport psychology is actually concerned with both sport and
exercise settings.
d. Sport psychology focuses on recreational athletes.
20. Educational sport psychology specialists usually have years of
training in
a. psychology
b. education
*c. sport and exercise science
d. sociology
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e. educational psychology
21. Scientifically derived knowledge has some limitations, including
that it
a. is reductionistic
b. is very fast to evolve
c. tends to be conservative
*d. a and c
22. Which of the following researchers was NOT prominent during period 1
(1895-1920)?
a. E.W. Scripture
b. G.T. Patrick
c. Norman Triplett
d. R. Cummins
*e. Ed McAuley
23. Which of the following is NOT a general ethical principle outlined
by the American Psychological Association?
a. social responsibility
b. integrity
c. professional and scientific responsibility
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*d. individualization
e. competence
24. Credit for much of the development of sport psychology
internationally goes to _____________, the first president of the
International Society for Sport Psychology.
a. Franklin Henry
b. Dietmar Klein
c. Yuri Hanin
*d. Ferruccio Antonelli
e. Gershon Tanenbaum
25. Which of the following is (are) seen as a major growth area(s) in
the field in the upcoming years?
a. exercise psychology
b. life skills development
c. personality
*d. a and b
26. Which of the following is NOT a current or future trend in the field
of sport and exercise psychology?
a. more emphasis on training in clinical psychology and counseling
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*b. increase in quantitative research methodologies
c. increased emphasis on ethics and competency
d. increased interest in psychological skills training
e. continuing tension between academic and applied sport
psychology
27. Which of the following explain(s) the sport psychology research-topractice gap?
a. few applied forums in which to disseminate research to
practitioners
b. emphasis on basic laboratory research in the 1960s and 1970s
c. emphasis on field experiments in the 1980s
*d. a and b
28. Knowledge gained through experience working in exercise and sport
science field situations is called
a. empirical knowledge
*b. professional practice knowledge
c. scientific knowledge
d. associative knowledge
e. theoretical knowledge
29. The most reliable method of obtaining knowledge is
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a. introspection
b. a single case study
c. systematic observation
*d. the scientific method
e. shared experience
30. The major strength of scientifically derived knowledge is its
a. factorial modeling
*b. reliability
c. importance
d. impact on society
31. Zajonc's social facilitation theory predicts that
*a. performance on well-learned tasks is facilitated by an
audience
b. performance on novel tasks is facilitated by an audience
c. performance on well-learned tasks is hindered by an audience
d. performance is not affected by an audience
e. performance is improved on both novel and well-learned tasks
performed in front of an audience
32. The ultimate goal of science is
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a. prediction
b. description
c. explanation
d. control
*e. theory
33. The major difference between how a practitioner and a researcher
(using the scientific method) would investigate a problem is that the
researcher's approach would be more
a. systematic
b. controlled
c. biased
d. a and c
*e. a and b
34. Scientific research is not
a. controlled
b. systematic
c. empirical
d. critical
*e. infallible
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35. Which successful coach is noted for adopting a sport science
approach in his coaching?
*a. "Doc" Counsilman
b. Robert Rotella
c. Jim Thorpe
d. Casey Stengel
e. a and b
36. The least reliable method of obtaining knowledge is
a. introspection
*b. intuition
c. shared experience
d. a single case study
e. systematic observation
37. Which of the following is NOT a method of knowing?
a. a single case study
b. shared public experience
c. introspection
*d. rationalism
e. systematic observation
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38. Actively applying knowledge of sport and exercise psychology
requires
a. staying active in your sport
b. holding realistic expectations concerning the strengths and
limitations of scientific principles
c. applying scientific principles in your professional practice
setting
*d. b and c
e. a and b
39. The strength of professional practice knowledge is its
a. holistic nature
b. innovative contribution
c. scientific validity and reliability
*d. a and b
40. Which company (started by sport psychologist Graham Jones) has taken
sport psychology concepts and applied them to the business world?
*a. Lane 4 Management Group
b. TLC and Associates
c. Human Performance Institute
d. Goldman-Sachs
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e. AT&T
41. Which early pioneer in sport psychology took a more scientific databased approach to psychology, seeing sport as an excellent way to
demonstrate the value of this "new scientific psychology" and to
investigate character development in sport?
a. Rainer Martens
*b. E,W. Scripture
c. W.A. Hubbard
d. G.T.W. Patrick
e. R. Cummins
42. Taking a world view of sport psychology, which Russian sport
psychologist focused on psychological preparation for athletic
competition around the same time as Coleman Griffith?
*a. Puni
b. Safin
c. Andreev
d. Kirielenko
e. Youzeny
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1. Trait anxiety refers to _________ anxiety, whereas state anxiety
refers to __________ anxiety.
*a. general; momentary
b. momentary; general
c. competitive; noncompetitive
d. noncompetitive; competitive
2. When administering tests to athletes, which of the following
guidelines should be followed?
a. Explain to athletes why the tests are being given.
b. Give clinical as well as sport-specific tests.
c. Provide specific feedback concerning test results.
*d. a and c
e. a and b
3. The phenomenological approach to personality is consistent with the
interactional approach except that it focuses on
*a. the individual's interpretation of the situation and himself
or herself
b. the traits of an individual
c. the situation a person is dealing with at the time
d. the behavior of the individual
e. the outcome of the behavior
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4. A weakness in the psychodynamic approach is its
a. sole focus on internal determinants of behavior
b. lack of attention to the social environment
c. sole focus on external determinants of behavior
*d. a and b
e. b and c
5. Recently, the psychodynamic approach has been applied to sport by
Swedish sport psychologist Erwin Apitzsch. This new approach came from
his work with athletes focusing on
a. the superego
*b. defense mechanisms
c. ego development
d. early childhood experiences
e. conflicts between the id and superego
6. Which of the following is not a subscale from the Athletic Coping
Skills Inventory?
a. concentration
b. coachability
c. goal setting
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*d. imagery
e. freedom from worry
7. Test anxiety is an example of a
a. trait measure
b. state measure
*c. situation-specific trait measure
d. situation-specific state measure
8. Taking an intra-individual approach to psychological testing means
that
a. individuals are compared against population norms
*b. individuals are compared against how they usually score on a
particular psychological inventory
c. individuals are compared to norms for their age and gender
d. individuals are compared based on objective and subjective
assessments
9. Which of the following is (are) NOT a question(s) that a researcher
using the interactional approach would ask?
a. Will highly anxious athletes perform better than less anxious
athletes in situations that are not stressful?
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b. Will extroverts perform better than introverts in a team
situation?
*c. Will highly motivated people choose to participate in
competitive situations?
d. Will kids with high self-esteem prefer competitive sport
situations to a greater degree than kids with low self-esteem?
e. a and c
10. The interactional approach assumes that
a. situational and personal variables are codeterminants of
behavior
b. personality interacts with the psychological core to determine
behavior
c. highly aggressive people, for example, will usually react in an
aggressive manner when placed in an aggressive situation
*d. a and c
e. a and b
11. The situational approach to personality assumes that
a. individuals behave differently across situations
b. individuals behave similarly across situations
c. if the situation is strong, the effect of personality traits
would be minimal
d. a and b
*e. a and c
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12. Eysenck and Eysenck argue that personality can best be understood by
focusing on which of the following traits?
a. emotionality and stability
b. introversion and extroversion
c. relaxation and anxiety
*d. a and b
13. The trait approach to personality assumes that
a. people behave differently in different situations
b. people behave similarly in different situations
c. personality does not change much over time
d. a and c
*e. b and c
14. The most superficial and therefore most easily changed part of a
personality structure is its
a. psychological core
*b. role-related behavior
c. typical responses
d. belief system
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15. Which of the following is NOT a level in Hollander's model of
personality structure?
*a. childhood experiences
b. psychological core
c. typical responses
d. role-related behavior
e. a and b
16. Which is NOT an example of a situation-specific sport inventory?
a. Sport Competition Trait Anxiety Test
b. Group Environment Questionnaire
*c. Profile of Mood States
d. Trait-Sport Confidence Inventory
e. Competitive State Anxiety Inventory
17. Recent research has been critical of some of the findings concerning
the relationship between mood states and performance. Which of the
following is NOT a recommended guideline for using mood profiling with
elite athletes?
a. Use it as a monitor of training load.
b. Use it as a monitor of the acclimatization process.
*c. Use it as a predictor of team success.
d. Use it as a monitor of emotional response to injury.
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e. Use it for identification of overtrained athletes.
18. Researchers have recently used the Athletic Coping Skills Inventory
(ACSI) to investigate the relationship between coping skills and
performance. Results have indicated that
a. good psychological coping skills help athletes get the most out
of their ability
b. good psychological coping skills are associated with continued
involvement in professional baseball
c. the ACSI is a good tool to use for team selection
*d. a and b
19. Recently, the "big five" model of personality has become widely
accepted. Which of the following is not one of the five personality
factors in the model?
a. agreeableness
b. conscientiousness
c. neuroticism
d. extraversion
*e. depression
20. The "big five" model of personality is important because these five
characteristics
a. represent a cognitive approach to personality
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b. are consistent with a behavioral approach to personality
*c. have been found to exist across individuals
d. represent a state approach to personality
e. are consistent with Morgan's mental health model
21. According to results from in-depth interviews with Olympic athletes,
medalists exhibited which of the following mental strategies?
a. less positive self-talk
b. more extensive mental preparation
c. better preparedness for unforeseen negative events
*d. b and c
e. a and b
22. Which of the following is (are) important when administering
psychological inventories?
a. knowledge of testing principles and measurement error
b. sensitivity to one's own limitations
c. using psychological tests for optimal team selection
*d. a and b
e. a and c
23. The research criticizing Morgan's mental health model and the
implications of the "iceberg profile" has argued that
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a. the iceberg profile accounts for only a very small percentage
of athletes' performance variation
b. the iceberg profile only differentiates athletes from
nonathletes and does not differentiate between athletes of
different ability levels
c. the Profile of Mood States (POMS) is not a reliable test
*d. a and b
e. a and c
24. Research in the general psychological literature indicates that
nature (i.e., genetics) generally accounts for approximately what
percentage of behavior?
a. 10 to 20%
b. 20 to 30%
c. 30 to 40%
*d. 50 to 60%
e. 80 to 90%
25. In the iceberg profile developed by Morgan, which of the following
psychological characteristics that successful athletes display is
typically above the mean of the population?
a. anxiety
b. anger
c. fatigue
*d. vigor
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e. confusion
26. Which of the following is (are) true?
*a. Successful female athletes differ in personality from female
nonathletes.
b. Male and female elite athletes have different personality
profiles.
c. Female athletes are less aggressive and more dependent than
female nonathletes.
d. a and b
e. a and c
27. Morgan developed the _________ model to help explain the
relationship between personality and athletic success.
a. normative
*b. mental health
c. psychological skills
d. psychopathology
e. cognitive-behavioral
28. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Participation in competitive sport produces changes in
personality structure.
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*b. Compared with nonathletes, individual-sport athletes are less
anxious and more dependent.
c. Compared with nonathletes, team-sport athletes are more
introverted and independent.
d. a and b
e. b and c
29. Showing a person a picture of an athlete arguing with an official
and then asking the person to write about what is happening is an
example of
a. objective testing
*b. projective testing
c. multidimensional personality assessment
d. unidimensional personality assessment
e. psychological trait-state inventory
30. The research investigating the personality profiles of athletes and
nonathletes has found that
*a. no specific personality profile distinguishes athletes from
nonathletes
b. athletes have higher levels of anxiety than nonathletes
c. athletes are more introverted than nonathletes
d. athletes have higher levels of self-esteem than nonathletes
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31. Which of the following statements about exercise and personality is
(are) true?
*a. There is a positive relationship between exercise and selfconcept.
b. Exercise has consistently been related to changes from Type A
behavior to Type B behavior.
c. Exercise participation is highly correlated with anxiety.
d. a and b
e. a and c
32. A meta-analysis of the "big five" model of personality revealed
a. extraversion and conscientiousness were positively correlated
with physical activity
b. neuroticism was negatively correlated with physical activity
levels
c. social support was positively correlated with academic
performance
d. all of the above
*e. a and b
33. Which of the following statements about perfectionism is (are) true?
*a. Perfectionists are at greater risk for psychological problems
if they have poor coping skills.
b. Adaptive perfectionism is positively related to individual
sport athletes.
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c. Maladaptive perfectionism is related to team sport athletes.
d. a and b
e. a and c
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1. Participant motivation is usually the result of
a. personal factors
b. situational factors
*c. a combination of personal and situational factors
d. the history of success or failure
2. Achievement motivation can best be viewed as a(n)
a. situational factor
*b. personality factor
c. interactional factor
d. attributional factor
e. unstable factor
3. The entity view of goal perspectives argues that individuals
a. view their ability primarily as fixed
b. adopt a task focus
c. adopt maladaptive motivational patterns
d. b and c
*e. a and c
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4. What is critical in affecting the performance and behavior of sport
and exercise participants?
a. motivation
b. physiology
c. biomechanics
d. sociological factors
*e. all of the above
5. An effective technique to use to change undesirable motives of a
participant is
*a. behavior modification
b. cognitive intervention
c. rational emotive therapy
d. cognitive restructuring
e. self-monitoring
6. The most difficult but most important component of structuring sport
and exercise environments to meet an athlete's or exerciser's needs is
*a. individualizing coaching and teaching
b. finding rigorous training environments
c. deciding on what motivational strategy to use
d. balancing extrinsic and intrinsic motivation
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7. To understand students', athletes', and exercisers' motives for
involvement, one should
a. observe participants to see what they like and do not like
about the activity
b. talk to others who know the athletes and exercisers
c. periodically ask the participants to list their reasons for
participation
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
8. Recent research indicates interesting cross-cultural differences in
motives for participation. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. U.S. youngsters are more intrinsically motivated than Korean
youngsters.
b. Participants in Asian countries are more interdependent,
whereas North Americans are more independent.
c. American youngsters are more motivated by competition than
Chinese youngsters, who are more motivated by social affiliation.
d. Chinese Americans are primarily motivated because of travel and
having fun.
*e. U.S. children are primarily motivated to win, whereas German
children are primarily motivated to please parents.
9. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
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a. Mastery goals should be used more often than outcome goals.
b. Feedback to athletes should emphasize attributing their success
to high ability and high effort.
c. Lack of ability, rather than lack of effort, should be
emphasized after a failure.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
10. Which of the following is NOT one of the major motives for
participating in sport and exercise?
a. having fun
b. being with friends
c. improving skills
*d. pleasing parents
e. developing fitness
11. "A disposition to strive for satisfaction when making comparisons
with some standard of excellence in the presence of evaluative others"
is the definition of which of the following?
a. achievement motivation
b. self-esteem
c. self-confidence
d. self-concept
*e. competitiveness
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12. The results of the Sorrentino and Sheppard study have which of the
following practical implications?
a. The four fastest swimmers would not necessarily make the best
relay team.
b. Both situation and personal factors should be considered in
understanding motivation.
c. Rejection-oriented swimmers would perform best in relays.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
13. A study by Sorrentino and Sheppard on motivation of swimmers found
that
a. approval-oriented swimmers demonstrated faster times in the
group situation than in the individual situation
b. approval-oriented swimmers demonstrated faster times in the
individual situation than in the group situation
c. rejection-oriented swimmers swam faster individually than in
relay situations
*d. a and c
e. b and c
14. The interactional view of motivation claims that motivation is an
interaction of which two factors?
*a. person and situation
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b. goals and coach's style
c. personality and goals
d. personality and needs
e. goals and win-loss record
15. An athlete is more motivated when she plays against competitors who
are better than she is than when she plays better than her competitors.
This is an example of which approach to motivation?
a. trait-centered
*b. situational
c. interactional
d. individual
16. Which is the most widely endorsed view of motivation taken by sport
psychologists?
a. trait-centered
b. situational
*c. interactional
d. individual
17. Motivated behavior is primarily a function of individual
characteristics. This is consistent with which view of motivation?
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*a. trait-centered
b. situational
c. individual
d. interactional
18. Which one of the following is NOT a general orientation to
motivation?
a. trait-centered
b. situational
*c. individual
d. interactional
19. In a general sense, motivation can be defined as
*a. the intensity and direction of one's effort
b. the direction and width of one's effort
c. the intensity of one's effort
d. the direction of one's effort
20. Bill is always concerned with comparing his ability to others' and
with winning. Thus, Bill has
a. a mastery goal orientation
b. a task goal orientation
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c. an attribution goal orientation
*d. an outcome goal orientation
e. an achievement goal orientation
21. Which of the following is NOT a major reason for initially joining
an exercise program?
a. weight loss
b. fitness
c. health factors
*d. affiliation
e. to feel better
22. Stable attributions are linked to
a. affect
b. cognition
*c. expectations of future success or failure
d. emotions
23. The overriding characteristic of individuals who exhibit learned
helplessness is
a. attributing success to effort
*b. feeling their actions have no impact on desired outcomes
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c. attributing failure to bad luck
d. feeling they are in control of their actions
24. Attribution retraining generally focuses on changing
*a. low-ability attributions
b. high-effort attributions
c. high-ability attributions
d. task difficulty attributions
e. luck attributions
25. Which of the following is NOT a stage of development in
competitiveness and achievement motivation?
a. autonomous competence stage
b. integrated stage
c. social-comparison stage
*d. perceived competence stage
26. In the competence motivation theory, ______ and _________ influence
perceived competence, which in turn influences affect and motivation.
a. feedback; attributions
*b. feedback; motivational orientations
c. motivational orientations; attributions
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d. motivational climate; self-esteem
e. perceived control; feedback
27. Competence motivation theory was based on the research of
developmental psychologist
a. Tara Scanlan
*b. Susan Harter
c. Thelma Horn
d. Glyn Roberts
e. Albert Bandura
28. Which type of motivational climate is associated with the most
adaptive motivational changes?
*a. mastery
b. performance
c. outcome
d. decision making
e. attributional
29. A task goal orientation will usually lead to which of the following?
a. persistence in the face of failure
b. selecting a very difficult task or opponent
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c. a strong work ethic
*d. a and c
e. a and b
30. The sport-specific form of achievement motivation is called
*a. competitiveness
b. confidence
c. mental preparation
d. mental toughness
31. Internal and external attributions are linked to
a. emotional reactions
b. cognitions
c. expectations
d. behavioral intent
*e. self-talk
32. "Self-competition" refers to ________, whereas performance in
socially evaluative situations refers to ______.
a. competition; achievement motivation
b. competition; social facilitation
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*c. achievement motivation; competition
d. achievement motivation; social facilitation
e. competition; ego involvement
33. Ability is considered a(n) _______ and ________ attribute.
a. stable; external
*b. stable; internal
c. unstable; internal
d. unstable; external
e. controllable; unstable
34. Which of the following is NOT an attribution category?
a. stability
b. causality
c. control
*d. persistence
35. Attribution theory focuses on
*a. how individuals explain their success and failure
b. how groups explain their personality attributes
c. how individuals explain their personal attributes
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d. how individuals explain their personal biases
36. In terms of emotional factors, high achievers focus on _______,
whereas low achievers focus on ________.
*a. pride; shame
b. elation; depression
c. fun; depression
d. shame; pride
e. pride; depression
37. For low achievers, which situation provides the LEAST incentive for
engaging in achievement behaviors?
*a. 50% chance of success
b. 25% chance of success
c. 75% chance of success
d. 60% chance of success
e. 10% chance of success
38. For high achievers, which situation provides the MOST incentive for
engaging in achievement behavior?
*a. 50% chance of success
b. 25% chance of success
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c. 75% chance of success
d. 60% chance of success
e. 10% chance of success
39. What are the two primary situational considerations in need
achievement theory?
a. probability of success and motive to achieve success
*b. probability of success and incentive value of success
c. resultant achievement motivation and probability of success
d. incentive value of success and pride or shame
e. pride or shame and probability of success
40. Which of the following is (are) false concerning need achievement
theory?
*a. Low achievers have high motivation to achieve success and low
motivation to avoid failure.
b. High achievers enjoy evaluating their abilities.
c. Low achievers often become preoccupied with thoughts of
failure.
d. a and b
e. a and c
41. Which of the following is NOT a component of achievement motivation
theory?
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a. motive to achieve success
b. probability of success
c. incentive value of success
d. motive to avoid failure
*e. motive to seek approval from others
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1. The results of Weinberg and Hunt's (1976) study on college students
with high and low trait anxiety demonstrated that
a. increased muscle soreness contributed to inferior performance
b. increased muscle tension contributed to inferior performance
c. increased coordination difficulties contributed to inferior
performance
d. a and c
*e. b and c
2. A substantial imbalance between demand and response capability under
conditions in which failure has important consequences refers to
a. arousal
b. sensational pressure
*c. stress
d. state anxiety
e. trait anxiety
3. There is a positive correlation between one's level of
a. cognitive anxiety and somatic anxiety
*b. trait anxiety and state anxiety
c. arousal and stress
d. a and c
e. b and c
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4. Physiological responses occur in which stage of the stress process?
a. stage 1
b. stage 2
*c. stage 3
d. stage 4
e. stage 5
5. Arousal refers to the
a. direction of motivation
*b. intensity of motivation
c. frequency of motivated behavior
d. interaction of cognition and emotions
e. a and d
6. Which of the following is NOT a physical manifestation of excess
state anxiety?
*a. worry
b. muscle tension
c. attentional problems
d. a and c
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e. b and c
7. The importance placed on an event and the uncertainty that surrounds
the actions of that event are sources of
a. somatic anxiety
b. trait anxiety
c. arousal
d. personal stress
*e. situational stress
8. Which personality disposition(s) is (are) related to change in state
anxiety?
a. trait anxiety
b. self-esteem
c. optimism
*d. a and b
e. a and c
9. A highly trait-anxious athlete (compared to a less trait-anxious
athlete) would perceive competition as
a. more threatening and less anxiety producing
b. less threatening and less anxiety producing
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*c. more threatening and more anxiety producing
d. less threatening and more anxiety producing
10. Athletes lower in self-esteem are more likely to experience
*a. low confidence and high state anxiety
b. low confidence and low state anxiety
c. low confidence and low trait anxiety
d. high confidence and high state anxiety
e. low confidence and low arousal
11. Which theory predicts a linear relationship between arousal and
performance?
a. catastrophe theory
*b. drive theory
c. inverted theory
d. individualized zones of optimal functioning
e. reversal theory
12. The linear relationship between arousal and performance suggests
that
a. as arousal increases, performance decreases
b. as arousal decreases, performance decreases
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*c. as arousal increases, performance increases
d. as arousal decreases, performance increases
e. arousal performance increases to an optimal level, and beyond
this, performance decreases
13. A moment-to-moment change in one's perceived physiological
activation is referred to as
a. cognitive state anxiety
*b. somatic state anxiety
c. activation
d. trait anxiety
e. stress
14. According to the catastrophe model, a "catastrophe" occurs with
a. high state and trait anxiety
b. high physiological and somatic anxiety
*c. high cognitive anxiety and high physiological arousal
d. high somatic anxiety and low physiological arousal
e. low state and high trait anxiety
15. In Hanin's work on individualized zones of optimal functioning, he
argues that for best performance to occur, an athlete needs
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a. an optimal level of state anxiety
b. an optimal level of trait anxiety
*c. an optimal level of state anxiety and other emotions
d. an optimal level of arousal
e. an optimal level of physiological arousal
16. Increased arousal affects attentional focus in which of the
following ways?
*a. narrowing of focus
b. broadening of focus
c. increase of scanning
d. a and b
e. b and c
17. A quarterback needs to shift his attentional focus from surveying
the field for receivers to delivering a pass. This shift would be from
a. broad-external to broad-internal
b. broad-external to broad-external
*c. broad-external to narrow-external
d. broad-external to narrow-internal
e. narrow-external to broad-external
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18. One's general level of anxiety that stays relatively stable over
time refers to
*a. trait anxiety
b. state anxiety
c. cognitive anxiety
d. somatic anxiety
e. arousal
19. In evaluative situations, individuals with high trait anxiety tend
to exhibit
a. high arousal
b. low state anxiety
*c. high state anxiety
d. high somatic anxiety
e. low cognitive anxiety
20. The inverted-U hypothesis predicts that
a. as arousal increases, performance decreases
b. arousal can be either too low or too high
c. top performance occurs at a moderate level of arousal
d. a and c
*e. b and c
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21. Hanin's individualized zones of optimal functioning model suggests
that
*a. each individual has a specific optimal level of efficiency
b. performance is best when arousal is moderate
c. performance is best when arousal is high
d. the zone of optimal functioning is the same for all individuals
22. The relationship between arousal and performance depends on one's
interpretation of the arousal level. This is the basic approach of
a. catastrophe theory
b. drive theory
*c. reversal theory
d. inverted-U hypothesis
e. zones of optimal functioning
23. Appropriate guidelines for applying arousal and anxiety knowledge
include
a. recognizing the signs of increased arousal and anxiety
b. recognizing how personal and situational factors influence
arousal and performance
c. tailoring coaching and instructional practices to individuals
*d. all of the above
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e. a and c
24. Which of the following is NOT symptomatic of heightened state
anxiety?
a. profuse sweating
*b. slowed breathing
c. increased muscle tension
d. inability to concentrate
e. sleeping difficulties
25. Multidimensional anxiety theory predicts
a. a negative relationship between cognitive anxiety and
performance
b. an inverted-U relationship between somatic anxiety and
performance
c. an inverted-U relationship between cognitive anxiety and
performance
d. a and c
*e. a and b
26. According to catastrophe theory, to recover from a catastrophe the
athlete must
a. completely relax physically
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b. control her worries through progressive relaxation
c. reactivate herself in a controlled manner
*d. a and c
e. a and b
27. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Increased anxiety is always debilitating to performance.
*b. Athletes who perceive their anxiety as facilitating rather
than harming their performances exhibit higher levels of
performance.
c. The intensity of anxiety is more important than its direction.
d. a and b
e. b and c
28. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the home-court
advantage?
a. It is greatest in baseball and football.
*b. Between 1924 and 1982, the home team in the baseball World
Series won 38% of the time when there was a seventh game.
c. Between 1984 and 1994 in the National Basketball Association,
the home team won 47% of the time when there was a seventh game
during the play-offs.
d. a and b
e. b and c
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29. The catastrophe theory suggests that performance is determined by a
complex interaction of
a. arousal and stress
b. arousal and trait anxiety
c. arousal and state anxiety
*d. physiological arousal and cognitive anxiety
e. state and trait anxiety
30. Increased levels of anxiety result in alterations in visual search
patterns such as
a. gaze tendencies
b. eye fixations
c. mental acuity
*d. a and b
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1. Indicate any principle here that is NOT derived from the
psychological studies on competition and cooperation.
a. Blend competition and cooperation when teaching or coaching
physical skills.
*b. People are born either competitive or cooperative.
c. Cooperation produces better performance and more open
communication than competition.
d. When a competitor and a cooperator meet, the competitor will
eventually draw the cooperator into competition.
e. a and b
2. Coakley defines cooperation as
a. a situation in which the goals of the participants are mutually
independent
*b. a social process through which performance is rewarded in
terms of the collective achievements of the group
c. a situation in which rewards are distributed unequally among
the participants
d. a situation in which rewards are distributed equally among the
participants
3. Cooperative reward structures are more effective in which of the
following situations?
a. during work on tasks that are simple
b. during work on tasks that are physically demanding
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*c. during work on tasks that are complex and that involve problem
solving
d. during work on tasks that involve more than five people
4. Deutsch's study on competition and cooperation found that
a. communication patterns differed significantly based on whether
subjects were given cooperative or competitive instructions
b. students receiving competitive instructions exhibited open
communication and trust
c. students receiving cooperative instructions communicated openly
and shared information
*d. a and c
e. a and b
5. The first experiment investigating the effects of competition on
performance was conducted in 1898 by
a. Deutsch
*b. Triplett
c. Sherif
d. Mintz
e. Orlick
6. In the field experiments conducted by Sherif and Sherif, the
experimenters first
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*a. created strong group identity
b. created hostility among the groups
c. created cooperation among the counselors
d. created competition among the counselors
7. In the field experiments by Sherif and Sherif, the only thing that
worked to bring the campers back together was
a. an all-star game
*b. superordinate goals
c. eating together
d. eliminating competitive sports
8. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Cooperation produces a higher level of achievement than
competition.
b. Cooperation produces a higher level of achievement than
individualistic behavior.
c. There is no difference in achievement produced by competition
and cooperation.
*d. a and b
9. In Kelley and Stahelski's study using the prisoner's dilemma game,
they found that
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*a. competitors drew cooperators into competition
b. cooperators drew competitors into cooperation
c. cooperators cooperated and competitors competed
d. a and c
e. b and c
10. Of all the experimental games used by psychologists to study the
effects of competition and cooperation, the most often-used game is
a. zero-sum
*b. prisoner's dilemma
c. cooperative means
d. cooperative means, competitive ends
e. competitive means
11. Coakley defines competition as
a. a situation in which rewards are distributed equally among the
participants
*b. a social process that occurs when rewards are distributed on
the basis of comparative performance
c. a situation in which the goals of the participant are mutually
interdependent
d. b and c
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12. Which of the following behaviors would not support a cooperative
learning environment?
a. effort valued
b. success defined in terms of individual progress
*c. extrinsic rewards emphasized
d. mistakes viewed as part of learning
e. activity engaged in for challenge
13. According to Coakley, which of the following is (are) characteristic
of unstructured youth sport?
a. Personal involvement in the action is maximized.
b. It provides opportunities to reaffirm friendships.
c. Teams are relatively uneven.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
14. Which of the following is NOT a stage in Martens' model of
competition?
a. objective competitive situation
b. subjective competitive situation
c. response
*d. social comparison
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e. consequences
15. In relation to the subjective competitive situation (stage 2), which
of the following is (are) true?
a. Males score lower than females on win orientation.
b. Females score lower than males on goal orientation.
*c. Athletes score higher than nonathletes in competitive
orientation.
d. b and c
e. a and b
16. The key part of Martens' definition of competition is
*a. social comparison
b. observational learning
c. objective outcome
d. positive reinforcement
17. Which of the following is a competitive situation according to
Martens' definition of the objective competitive situation?
a. a runner competing in a 100-yard dash
b. a swimmer working out by himself
c. a swimmer working out with his coach watching him
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*d. a and c
18. The team sports of basketball and football are examples of which of
the following classification of games?
a. competitive means-competitive ends
*b. cooperative means-competitive ends
c. individual means-individual ends
d. cooperative means-cooperative ends
e. cooperative means-individual ends
19. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of cooperative games?
a. They require little equipment or money.
b. They emphasize increased participation by the best players.
c. Players learn from mistakes rather than hide from them.
*d. a and c
e. a and b
20. In his study of the effects of a 14-week program of cooperative
games, Orlick found that
a. kids exposed to cooperative games engaged in three times as
much cooperative behavior during free play as did kids in the
control group
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b. games played by the control group tended to emphasize
individualistic concerns
c. kids exposed to cooperative games had higher self-esteem at the
end of the program than kids in the control group
*d. a and b
21. One athlete looks forward to competition while another dreads the
upcoming event. This is an example of
a. the objective competitive situation
*b. the subjective competitive situation
c. response
d. consequences
22. Which of the following is NOT a type of competitive orientation
measured by the Sport Orientation Questionnaire?
a. competitive orientation
b. goal orientation
*c. fear-of-failure orientation
d. win orientation
23. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Varsity athletes have lower GPAs than nonathletes.
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b. Varsity athletes have higher rates of deviant behavior than
nonathletes.
*c. Varsity athletes are no different from nonathletes in terms of
eventual career success outside of competitive sport.
d. b and c
24. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. Boys play competitive games more frequently than girls.
b. Boys' games are less aggressive and involve less risk taking
than girls' games.
c. Girls play games in predominantly male groups more often than
boys play games in predominantly female groups.
d. a and b
*e. a and c
25. Which of the following is (are) true?
*a. Competitors cause cooperators to compete.
b. Cooperators cause competitors to cooperate, regardless of whom
they are competing against.
c. Competitors see the world as 50% competitors and 50%
cooperators.
d. a and b
26. Which of the following is (are) true?
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a. Elite athletes are high on both win and goal orientations.
b. Research by Weinberg and colleagues has indicated that the most
important goal for athletes is to improve performance.
c. Elite athletes are high on win orientation and low on goal
orientation.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
27. Competition and cooperation require similar attributes as noted by
Charles Garfield. These include
a. a strong preparation ethic
b. a love of challenge and change
c. a clear winner and loser
*d. a and b
e. a and c
28. What happened to the two U.S. sailing teams that competed and
cooperated with each other while training for the Olympics?
a. Only one team went to the Olympics and earned a medal there.
b. Both teams went to the Olympics but neither won a medal.
c. They finished in first and fourth place at the Olympic Trials.
d. The second-place team members were disappointed but had gained
new confidence in their ability to compete at a world-class level.
*e. a and d
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29. Competitiveness of athletes appears to be enhanced when
a. watched by coaches
*b. social comparison is high
c. performing fine-motor tasks
d. performing strength tasks
e. performing endurance tasks
30. According to Johnson and Johnson, appropriate competition has the
following characteristics
a. it is involuntary
b. everyone must have a reasonable chance to win
c. the rules must be clear and fair
d. a and b
*e. b and c
31. According to Mariah Burton Nelson, an opponent should be viewed
a. as someone to beat
b. as someone to help us perform better
c. as someone to learn from
d. a and c
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*e. b and c
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1. In a review of studies investigating the effects of performance
feedback, it was found that performance increased approximately
a. 10%
b. 80%
*c. 50%
d. 25%
e. 100%
2. Which of the following is not one of the psychological needs included
in self-determination theory?
a. relatedness
b. autonomy
*c. confidence
d. effectance
3. The principles of reinforcement are complex because
a. different people react differently to the same reinforcement
b. people are unable to repeat the desired behavior
c. they apply to males but not females
d. a and c
*e. a and b
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4. Results of a behavioral program involving junior high school
basketball players indicated that
a. free-throw shooting in practice increased significantly
b. criticism among players decreased dramatically
c. there was no difference in field-goal percentage during
practice
*d. a and b
e. a and c
5. In the study of a team of swimmers by McKenzie and Rushall,
a. an attendance board was used to track attendance at swim
practice
b. the swimmers showed a significant increase in attendance after
the intervention
c. the swimmers won more races after the intervention
*d. a and b
e. a and c
6. Backward chaining (as used by O'Brien & Simek in their golf study)
refers to
*a. pairing the last step in a series of movements with the nextto-last step all the way through the movement until the second
step is paired with the first step
b. reversing the order in which positive feedback is provided
c. reversing the order in which negative feedback is provided
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d. a and c
7. According to the results of Komaki and Barnett's study of a Pop
Warner football team,
a. the team won more games after the intervention period
*b. the team performed three plays more effectively after the
intervention
c. there was no significant difference in performance after the
intervention
d. the team exhibited higher levels of enjoyment after the
intervention
8. Behavioral coaching, behavior modification, and contingency
management have in common the goal of
*a. structuring practices through the systematic use of
reinforcement
b. changing practices monthly to increase learning
c. changing practices daily to increase performance
d. a and c
e. a and b
9. In a recent study on the relationship between holding scholarships
and levels of intrinsic motivation in collegiate athletes, Amorose,
Horn, and Miller found that
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a. males in team sports exhibited higher levels of intrinsic
motivation in general than females in team sports
*b. athletes on scholarship had lower levels of intrinsic
motivation in general than athletes not on scholarship
c. male athletes exhibited higher levels of intrinsic motivation
than female athletes
d. a and b
e. b and c
10. Which of the following is (are) NOT among the principles of
punishment?
a. Punish the behavior, not the person.
b. Do not use physical activity as a punishment.
*c. Impose punishment in a personal way.
d. a and c
e. b and c
11. The additive approach to the relationship between intrinsic and
extrinsic motivation suggests that
a. internal and external motivation are unrelated
*b. intrinsic plus extrinsic motivation equal more motivation
c. extrinsic rewards undermine intrinsic motivation
d. a and b
e. a and c
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12. Feedback can provide instructional information about
a. the players' important psychological traits and states
b. the levels of proficiency to be achieved
c. the performers' current level of proficiency in the desired
skills
*d. b and c
e. a and c
13. In a recent study, which type of feedback (especially after failure)
produced more task persistence, more enjoyment, and better performance?
a. praise for high ability
*b. praise for high effort
c. criticism of any type of performance
d. a and c
e. b and c
14. Besides rewarding the outcome of a person's performance (success),
other areas that should be rewarded include
a. effort
b. emotional and social skills
c. correct performance of the skill itself
*d. all of the above
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e. a and b
15. Shaping occurs when
*a. rewards are given to behaviors that approximate the correct
response
b. rewards are given only after success
c. rewards are given intermittently
d. rewards are withdrawn after failure
16. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. A continuous reinforcement is best in the early stages of
learning.
b. An intermittent schedule of reinforcement is best once the
skill is well learned.
c. Behaviors reinforced on a continuous schedule persist longer
than those reinforced on an intermittent schedule.
*d. a and b
17. A smile or pat on the back is known as what type of reinforcer?
a. material
*b. social
c. activity
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d. tangible
e. esoteric
18. Potential negative side effects of punishment include its
a. arousing a fear of success
b. acting as a reinforcer
c. hindering the learning of skills
*d. b and c
e. a and c
19. Most coaches approach reinforcement by
*a. a combination of positive reinforcement and punishment
b. relying mostly on punishment
c. relying mostly on positive reinforcement
d. relying on cognitive-behavioral techniques
20. Which of the following is (are) NOT true of reinforcement?
a. If a consequence of doing something is positive, we try to
repeat this behavior in the future.
b. If a consequence of doing something is negative, we tend not to
try to repeat this behavior in the future.
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*c. The consequences of behavior are not as important as one's
personality.
d. a and b
e. a and c
21. A study on reducing inappropriate tennis behaviors using behavior
modification techniques revealed that
*a. inappropriate behaviors were significantly reduced for all
five players
b. three of the five players had a reduction in their
inappropriate behaviors
c. two players had increases in inappropriate behaviors
d. there was no effect based on the behavior modification
intervention
22. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. The amount of positive feedback is less important than
receiving some type of positive feedback.
b. Getting positive feedback produces higher levels of intrinsic
motivation than getting no feedback.
c. Athletes receiving more positive feedback have higher levels of
intrinsic motivation than athletes receiving less positive
feedback.
*d. a and b
e. b and c
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23. Which of the following statements regarding flow is (are) true?
a. Most athletes think that flow is an uncontrollable state.
b. Athletes can learn to get into a flow state.
c. Flow is related to improvements in psychological states.
*d. b and c
e. a and b
24. Individuals higher on mindfulness as opposed to those lower on
mindfulness score higher on which dimension(s) of flow?
a. skills-challenge balance
b. merging of action and awareness
c. confidence
*d. a and b
25. Which of the following is (are) a factor(s) deemed important to
achieving flow?
a. optimism
b. maintaining appropriate focus
c. optimal environmental conditions
*d. b and c
e. a and c
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26. Flow is maximized when you are competing against an opponent
*a. of equal ability
b. of better ability than yours
c. of worse ability than yours
d. of the same gender
27. Which of the following is NOT a dimension of flow?
a. balance of skill and challenge
b. clear goals
c. merging of action and awareness
*d. high levels of arousal
e. loss of self-consciousness
28. Which of the following is seen as the most extrinsically motivated
behavior?
a. introjected regulation
*b. external regulation
c. identified regulation
d. integrated regulation
e. internal regulation
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29. Intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are now seen as varying along a
continuum. Aspects of intrinsic motivation include which of these?
a. compatability
b. accomplishment
c. stimulation
*d. b and c
e. a and b
30. Which of the following is (are) a guideline(s) for implementing
behavior programs?
a. Consequences should be stated clearly.
b. Target behaviors must be defined in observable terms.
c. Behaviors should be recorded.
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
31. Which of the following is (are) a method(s) for increasing intrinsic
motivation?
*a. Vary the content and sequence of practice drills.
b. Give rewards that are not contingent on performance.
c. Set easy performance goals.
d. a and b
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e. a and c
32. The study by Lepper and Greene investigating the effects of external
rewards on intrinsic motivation of children found that
a. the type of reward was important regarding its effects on
intrinsic motivation
b. the expected reward condition had the lowest levels of
intrinsic motivation (compared to no reward and unexpected
rewards)
c. the expected reward condition had the highest levels of
intrinsic motivation (compared to no reward and unexpected
rewards)
*d. a and b
e. a and c
33. According to McAuley's and Tammen's study on intrinsic motivation
and subjective versus objective outcomes,
a. winning or losing is the most important determinant of
intrinsic motivation
*b. subjective perceptions of performance are the most important
determinants of intrinsic motivation
c. objective outcome is the best predictor of intrinsic motivation
d. a and b
e. b and c
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34. According to Weinberg's study on intrinsic motivation in a
competitive setting,
a. success produces higher levels of intrinsic motivation than
does failure
b. males exhibit higher levels of intrinsic motivation after
success than after failure
c. females exhibit higher levels of intrinsic motivation after
failure than after success
*d. a and b
e. a and c
35. A study (Amorose & Horn, 2000) showed that changes in intrinsic
motivation occurred primarily because of
*a. coaching behaviors
b. scholarships
c. gender
d. athlete's ability
e. athlete's experience
36. Ryan's studies on the relationship between scholarships and
intrinsic motivation revealed that
a. football players on scholarship exhibited higher levels of
intrinsic motivation than football players not on scholarship
b. wrestlers on scholarship exhibited higher levels of intrinsic
motivation than wrestlers not on scholarship
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c. female athletes on scholarship exhibited higher levels of
intrinsic motivation than female athletes not on scholarship
d. a and b
*e. b and c
37. An individual will have a higher level of intrinsic motivation when
a. the controlling aspect is more salient than the informational
aspect
*b. the informational aspect is more salient than the controlling
aspect
c. the controlling aspect is more salient than the external aspect
d. a and b
38. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Every reward has both controlling and preparation aspects to
it.
b. A negative coaching style (mostly critical in nature) can lead
to a decrease in intrinsic motivation.
c. Rewarding for mere participation in a sport will typically
undermine the participant's intrinsic motivation.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
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39. Receiving a reward that provides feedback concerning an athlete's
sense of competence is an example of
a. the controlling aspect of reward
*b. the informational aspect of reward
c. the behavioral aspect of reward
d. the intuitive aspect of reward
40. Rewards typically undermine intrinsic motivation when the reward is
*a. for mere participation
b. tied to the quality of one's performance
c. informational in nature
d. a and b
e. a and c
41. Research by psychologists such as Edward Deci has shown that
*a. extrinsic rewards undermine intrinsic motivation
b. extrinsic rewards do not undermine intrinsic motivation
c. intrinsic and extrinsic motivation are additive
d. a and c
42. According to the TARGET acronym, which of the following is not a
measure to use to foster a mastery-oriented environment?
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a. grouping
b. timing
c. evaluation
*d. affiliation
43. The ratio of positive to negative behaviors recommended to coaches
by the Positive Coaching Alliance is
a. 3:1
*b. 5:1
c. 10:1
d. 2:1
e. 1:1
44. Tkachuk, Leslie-Toogood, and Martin suggested a number of ways to
select behaviors to be changed and how to monitor behaviors. These
included
a. athlete self-monitoring
b. behavioral checklists
c. videotape of practice and competition
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
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45. Social factors affecting intrinsic motivations include
a. success and failure
b. focus of competition
c. anxiety level
*d. a and b
46. The most effective type of feedback for retention of a skill is
a. continuous
*b. intermittent
c. positive
d. negative
47. The Method of Amplification Error is based on the assumption that
participants can learn to correct their movements through their
a. thoughts
b. physiological feedback
*c. mistakes
d. neurological connects
e. a and c
48. Which of the following is (are) NOT a feedback trap?
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a. telling performers what not to do
b. undermining automatic processes
*c. giving too little feedback
d. giving too much feedback
e. a and d
49. Which of the following are reasons supporting the use of punishment?
a. Individuals experiencing punishment are at negligible risk for
emotional problems.
b. Punishment will deter future cheating or other wrongdoing.
c. Punishment lets teammates know that others are being held
accountable for their actions.
*d. all of the above
e. b and c
50. Which of the following is (are) NOT a finding regarding passion and
sport?
a. obsessive passion is related to negative emotions
b. harmonious passion is related to high quality coach-athlete
relationships
*c. harmonious passion predicts rigid persistence to ill-advised
activities (e.g., gambling)
d. a and c
e. b and c
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51. Which of the following is (are) a principle(s) for the effective use
of external rewards?
a. Rewards should not be contingent on behavior.
*b. The best types of external rewards are creative, novel, and
simple.
c. External rewards should be used regularly.
d. a and b
e. a and c
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1. In Asch's experiment of line-comparison judgments, approximately
_____ of the subjects conformed to the group norm.
a. all
b. none
c. half
d. one quarter
*e. one third
2. Team building is considered part of which stage of team development?
*a. forming
b. storming
c. norming
d. performing
e. joining
3. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Pendular theories emphasize shifts in interpersonal
relationships during the growth of groups.
b. The book A Season on the Brink is an example of a life cycle
model.
c. Life cycle models emphasize the birth and death of groups.
d. a and b
*e. a and c
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4. In the pendulum example of the Indiana basketball team, which of the
following is (are) a stage(s) of group development?
a. orientation
b. differentiation and conflict
c. information and knowledge
*d. a and b
e. a and c
5. Which of the following is (are) part of the norming stage?
a. role acceptance
b. increase in cooperation and solidarity
c. conflict resolution
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
6. Formal roles, in contrast to informal roles, are a set of behaviors
that are required or expected of persons in a group and
a. evolve based on interpersonal interactions among group members
b. include such roles as "the enforcer" and "the go-between" for
coach-athlete communications
c. are dictated by the nature and structure of an organization
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d. include such roles as team captain, coach, and athletic trainer
*e. c and d
7. Dean Smith, former basketball coach at the University of North
Carolina, often played his reserves as a unit early in the game. This is
an example of emphasizing
*a. role acceptance
b. role reversal
c. group norms
d. group cohesion
e. group solidarity
8. Role clarity refers to
a. accepting and being willing to carry out your specific role for
the team
*b. understanding exactly what your role is for the team
c. the formal roles of a team or organization
d. a and c
9. Role acceptance depends on
a. autonomy
b. feedback and role recognition
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c. team norms
*d. a and b
e. a and c
10. A level of performance, pattern of behavior, or belief that is
formally or informally established as appropriate by a group is called a
*a. norm
b. sanction
c. role
d. team climate
e. standard
11. According to Christian Buys, there are several negative aspects of
group formation. These negative aspects include
a. conformity
b. social loafing
c. deindividuation
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
12. If a rookie tried to take charge and exert leadership in critical
games despite the fact that there was a veteran leader on the team, this
would be considered a violation of
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*a. group norms
b. group cohesion
c. group solidarity
d. group identity
13. One way athletes interpret whether they are being treated fairly is
based on
a. the amount of time reserved for social activities and special
privileges
b. the coach's manner in communicating her views to the athletes
c. the degree of compatibility between the coach's and athlete's
skill assessments of the athlete
*d. b and c
e. a and c
14. One effective method for establishing positive group norms is to
*a. enlist the formal and informal leaders of a team to set
positive examples
b. dictate exactly what norms are expected from each athlete
without any exceptions
c. eliminate decision-making opportunities for all team members
d. a and b
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15. Team climate can be defined as
a. the coach's portrayal of what is to be expected from each
player
*b. a representation of how an individual perceives the
interrelationships among the team members
c. a representation of how the team is collectively seen by
others, especially in the media
d. a level of performance, pattern of behavior, or belief that is
formally or informally established as appropriate by a group
16. Which of the following is NOT a type of social support?
a. emotional-challenge support
b. task-appreciation support
c. reality-confirmation support
*d. communication support
e. task-challenge support
17. Having athletes eat together or live together is an example of which
factor that is important in developing an effective team climate?
a. social support
b. distinctiveness
*c. proximity
d. fairness
e. similarity
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18. Research has indicated that social support can have a positive
impact on which of the following?
a. recovery from injury
b. coping with stress
c. team performance
*d. a and b
e. a and c
19. Having members of an exercise class all wear special T-shirts with
special logos is a way of enhancing group
*a. distinctiveness
b. similarity
c. proximity
d. attractiveness
20. The key ingredient in Steiner's model of productivity is
a. the actual amount of productivity a group has
b. the amount of potential productivity a group has, independent
of the actual productivity
*c. the losses due to faulty group processes and their impact on
actual productivity
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d. the actual productivity minus the losses due to faulty
potential productivity plus the losses due to potential
productivity
21. A team's actual performance usually falls short of its potential
productivity because of
a. faulty group processes
b. motivation losses and coordination losses
c. coaching style
*d. a and b
e. a and c
22. The phenomenon in which individual performance decreases as the
number of people in the group increases is known as the
*a. Ringelmann effect
b. New York effect
c. Steiner effect
d. weakest link effect
23. The results of a study by Ingham and colleagues (1974) using rope
pulling, in which confederates were thought to be pulling on the rope
but in fact were not, indicated that differences between actual and
potential performances were due to
a. a decrease in coordination
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*b. a decrease in motivation
c. a decrease in both coordination and motivation
d. a decrease in neither coordination nor motivation
e. an increase in both coordination and motivation
24. Which of the following can help reduce the occurrence of social
loafing?
a. increasing identifiability
b. breaking down the team into smaller units
c. increasing the arousal level of the athletes
*d. a and b
25. Social loafing is increased under which of the following conditions?
a. task is perceived high in meaningfulness
b. the individual's teammates are low in ability
*c. a comparison against group standards is not possible
d. a and b
e. a and c
26. Which of the following can facilitate team transition when an
athlete disengages from a team?
a. clarifying role differentiations
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b. increasing an individual's awareness of disengagement
c. formalizing the group's goals
*d. a and b
e. a and c
27. The idea that a level of performance is established by a group as
acceptable has been called a
a. sanction for formal role expectations
b. problem of role definition
c. lack of social support network
*d. norm for productivity
28. Which of the following is NOT a defining characteristic of sport
teams?
a. a collective sense of identity
b. structured modes of communication
*c. specific leadership styles
d. norms
e. distinctive roles
29. Role clarity is a multidimensional concept including all of the
following except
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a. evaluation of performance
b. behavioral responsibilities
*c. perceived locus of causality
d. consequences of not fulfilling responsibilities
e. scope of responsibilities
30. Which of the following is (are) true regarding two-person teams?
a. Athletes felt greater responsibility than larger teams did.
b. Only task cohesion was important to success.
c. Athletes had both team- and individual-oriented attitudes.
*d. a and c
e. and b
31. Olympic Women's basketball coach Tara Vanderveer created an
expectancy of success by simulating a mock ceremony of the team winning
the gold medal at the Georgia Dome. This was an example of creating a
strong
*a. norm for productivity
b. role acceptance
c. attributional reconceptualization
d. group identity
e. team climate
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32. Which of the following is (are) a suggestion(s) for enhancing peer
relationships in sport?
a. enable athletes to engage in shared decision-making
b. generate competitive goals
c. select peer leaders on other criteria (e.g., leadership skills)
than athletic ability
*d. a and c
33. Which of the following is (are) a principle(s) of applying work team
results to sport teams?
a. cross-training
b. communication training
c. team self-correction
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
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1. A sociogram can measure
a. friendship choices within the group
b. the presence or absence of cliques in groups
c. group integration-task
*d. a and b
e. a and c
2. The common thread among the definitions of cohesion is that cohesion
is made up of what two basic dimensions?
*a. task and social cohesion
b. task and organizational cohesion
c. social and organizational cohesion
d. psychological and organizational cohesion
e. psychological and social cohesion
3. Which of the following is NOT an antecedent to cohesion according to
Carron's model?
a. environmental factors
b. team factors
*c. organizational factors
d. leadership factors
e. personal factors
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4. The number of athletes holding scholarships and the eligibility
requirements are examples of which antecedent of cohesion?
*a. environmental factors
b. team factors
c. organizational factors
d. leadership factors
e. personal factors
5. Task and affiliation motivation are examples of which antecedent of
cohesion?
a. environmental factors
b. team factors
c. organizational factors
d. leadership factors
*e. personal factors
6. According to Carron and Dennis, the most important personal factor
regarding the development of social and task cohesion is
a. socioeconomic status
b. gender
*c. individual satisfaction
d. age
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e. race
7. Which of the following statements regarding antecedent factors
affecting cohesion is (are) FALSE?
*a. Larger groups have higher cohesion than smaller groups.
b. More distinctive groups have higher levels of cohesion.
c. Compatibility between a coach and players is related to
cohesion.
d. a and b
e. a and c
8. The questionnaire used most often in the early research on cohesion
in sport was called the
a. Group Environment Questionnaire
*b. Sport Cohesiveness Questionnaire
c. Multidimensional Sport Cohesion Instrument
d. Unidimensional Sport Cohesion Survey
9. Which of the following is NOT a construct identified in the Group
Environment Questionnaire?
a. group integration-task
b. group integration-social
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*c. group attraction-environmental
d. individual attraction to group-task
e. individual attraction to group-social
10. Michael Jordan spoke about everyone on the team coming together
(cohesion) when they "stepped between the lines." This belief and
confidence in one another is known as
*a. collective efficacy
b. group similarity
c. group norm
d. group role
e. collective ability
11. Using the Group Environment Questionnaire, research has revealed
that group cohesion is related to which of the following?
a. reduced absenteeism
b. increased satisfaction of members
c. attributions for responsibility for performance outcomes
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
12. Individuals holding stronger beliefs about the cohesiveness of
exercise classes are
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a. more likely to attend more classes
b. more likely to drop out
c. more resistant to group disruption
d. a and b
*e. a and c
13. According to the latest definition provided by Carron, Brawley, and
Widmeyer, cohesion is seen to be
a. unidimensional
b. static
*c. instrumental
d. a and c
e. a and b
14. The Group Environment Questionnaire was developed to distinguish
between
a. individual and group concerns
b. task and social concerns
c. normative and role relations
*d. a and b
e. b and c
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15. Which of the following is NOT one of the principles underlying the
team-building model developed by Carron and colleagues?
a. role clarity and acceptance
*b. autocratic leadership style
c. distinctiveness and togetherness
d. group goals
e. conformity to group norms
16. A sociogram is
a. a measure of task cohesion
*b. an illustration of affiliation and attraction among team
members
c. a sociological measure of antecedent factors affecting groups
d. a social psychological inventory to measure group dynamics
17. Which of the following statements about cohesion is (are) true?
a. Higher normative expectations are associated with higher levels
of cohesion.
b. More sacrifices are made by players when cohesion is high.
c. Higher cohesion is related to a more autocratic decision-making
style.
*d. a and b
e. b and c
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18. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
*a. There is a positive relationship between both task and social
cohesion and performance.
b. There is a positive relationship between only social cohesion
and performance.
c. There is no relationship between task cohesion and performance.
d. There is a negative relationship between task cohesion and
performance.
e. a and b
19. Which of the following statements is true?
*a. The cohesion-performance relationship is positive for both
interactive and coactive sports.
b. The cohesion-performance relationship is positive for only
interactive sports.
c. The cohesion-performance relationship is negative for only
interactive sports.
d. The demands of the sport do not influence the cohesionperformance relationship.
20. Which of the following statements best represents the relationship
between cohesion and performance?
*a. This relationship is circular.
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b. Cohesion has a stronger effect on performance than performance
has on cohesion.
c. Cohesion has no effect on performance.
d. Cohesion is negatively related to performance.
21. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
*a. There is a negative relationship between cohesion and
satisfaction.
b. There is a positive relationship between cohesion and
conformity.
c. Higher team cohesion is related to higher resistance to
disruption.
d. a and c
e. a and b
22. Which of the following tips can build team cohesion?
a. Develop pride within subunits.
b. Avoid excessive turnover.
c. Encourage participation in social cliques.
*d. a and b
23. Which of the following statements about building cohesion is (are)
true?
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a. Set goals that are only moderately difficult to accomplish to
keep up spirit.
b. Keep meetings to a minimum to avoid complaints.
c. Encourage team identity.
d. a and b
*e. a and c
24. From an athlete's perspective, to help build team cohesion you
should
a. give teammates positive reinforcement
b. avoid conflicts to keep issues from escalating
c. be responsible for yourself
d. a and b
*e. a and c
25. Which of the following sports require the highest level of task
cohesion?
a. golf and archery
*b. basketball and ice hockey
c. swimming and tennis
d. baseball and wrestling
e. volleyball and bowling
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26. In a study by Spink and Carron on building cohesiveness in a fitness
class, which of the following strategies was (were) employed?
a. distinctiveness
b. group norms
c. individual sacrifices
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
27. Which of the following was (were) found to be a barrier(s) to
cohesion?
*a. members struggling for power
b. little turnover in group membership
c. similar personalities among group members
d. a and b
e. b and c
28. In setting up a team goal-setting program, which of the following
guidelines should be followed?
a. Involve all team members in establishing goals.
b. Set very difficult goals.
c. Reward progress toward team goals.
*d. a and c
e. a and b
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29. The dimensions of the Multidimensional Sport Cohesion Instrument
include
a. attraction to the group
b. unity of purpose
c. leader behavior
*d. a and b
e. a and c
30. Cohesion positively influences adherence in which of the following
situations?
a. smaller university classes (smaller leader-participant ratios)
b. larger fitness centers (higher leader-participant ratios)
*c. both smaller and larger leader-participant ratios
d. neither smaller or larger leader-participant ratios
31. Which of the following is (are) true for the "Walk Kansas" program?
*a. The more group goals that were set, the more miles were walked
by the group.
b. Participants assessed six months after the program started had
significant decreases in moderate to vigorous physical activity.
c. Over a five-year period the number of communities adopting the
program increased fivefold.
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d. a and b
e. a and c
32. In the study (Newin, Bloom, & Loughead, 2008) assessing the
effectiveness of a team-building program, it was found that coaches
a. felt their own communication skills were enhanced
b. believed that athletes improved on a variety of life skills
c. felt that the athletes bonded during the activity
*d. all of the above
e. b and c
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1. The Leadership Scale for Sports identifies which coaching behaviors?
a. social support
b. democratic behavior
c. administrative behavior
*d. a and b
e. a and c
2. In most organized sport teams, leaders and coaches
a. emerge
*b. are appointed
c. are elected by consensus
d. are elected by majority vote
3. "Great leaders are born, not made." This statement is an example of
which approach to leadership?
a. situational
*b. trait
c. behavioral
d. situational-behavioral
e. trait-behavioral
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4. "Great leaders are made, not born." This statement is an example of
which approach to leadership?
a. trait
*b. behavioral
c. situational
d. situational-behavioral
e. trait-behavioral
5. The two major categories of behavior found with the use of the Leader
Behavior Description Questionnaire are
a. consideration and authoritarianism
b. initiating structure and authoritarianism
*c. consideration and initiating structure
d. consideration and relationship
6. Smith and Smoll's studies on coaching behaviors and Little League
coaches found that
*a. coaches can change their behaviors to become more positive
b. coaches can't control their positive behaviors
c. coaches can't control their negative behaviors
d. coaches have high self-esteem
e. coaches with higher self-confidence exhibit more negative
behaviors than those with lower self-confidence
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7. In their classic study of the coaching (leadership) behaviors of
legendary basketball coach John Wooden, Tharp and Gallimore found that
his most often-used coaching behavior was
a. statements of displeasure
b. praise and encouragement
*c. verbal instructions on what to do and how to do it
d. combining instruction with punishment
e. modeling the correct behavior
8. According to results obtained in studies using the Leader Behavior
Description Questionnaire, successful leaders tend to score
*a. high on both consideration and initiating structure
b. high on initiating structure and low on consideration
c. high on consideration and low on initiating structure
d. low on both initiating structure and consideration
9. Fiedler's research has identified which two types of leadership
styles?
*a. relationship-oriented and task-oriented
b. situation-oriented and task-oriented
c. task-oriented and initiating structure-oriented
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d. relationship-oriented and situation-oriented
10. The study using interviews of elite gymnastics coaches (Cote,
Salmela, & Russell) showed that expert coaches did not exhibit which of
the following behaviors?
a. gave technical instruction regarding gymnastics progressions
b. provided a supportive environment through positive feedback
*c. pushed gymnasts by constantly issuing threats and yelling
d. stressed conditioning to ensure physical readiness
e. provided opportunities for simulating the mental and technical
demands of the competition
11. Regardless of age, athletes prefer coaches who
a. give positive feedback
b. give technical instruction
c. give negative feedback
d. b and c
*e. a and b
12. The definition of leadership usually seen in the literature is
*a. the behavioral process of influencing individuals and groups
toward set goals
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b. being a positive role model
c. the process of creating change in groups and individuals
d. the process of keeping a group working together without
conflicts
13. According to Fiedler's contingency model, a relationship-oriented
leader would be most effective under which type of situation?
a. favorable
b. unfavorable
*c. moderately favorable
d. either favorable or unfavorable
e. either favorable or moderately favorable
14. When coaches obtain the necessary information from relevant players
and then come to a decision, what type of decision style are they using?
a. consultative-individual
*b. autocratic-consultative
c. consultative-group
d. group
e. relationship-consultative
15. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
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*a. Athletes high in internal locus of control prefer training and
instruction coaching behaviors.
b. Athletes high in external locus of control prefer democratic
coaching behaviors.
c. Females high in trait anxiety preferred autocratic coaching
behaviors.
d. b and c
e. a and c
16. According to research on leadership behavior in youth sports by
Smith and colleagues, which of the following is (are) true?
a. Little League players playing for coaches who attended a
workshop designed to facilitate positive coach-athlete interaction
had a higher dropout rate than a comparable control group.
*b. Players with high self-esteem were not as affected by coaches'
supportiveness and instructiveness as players with low selfesteem.
c. Players with low self-esteem were not as affected by coaches'
supportiveness and instructiveness as players with high selfesteem.
d. a and b
e. a and c
17. Which of the following is (are) a guideline(s) put forth based on 25
years of Smith and Smoll's research?
a. Maintain clear expectations.
b. Reinforce effort as much as results.
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c. Give encouragement and corrective instructional feedback
immediately after a mistake.
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
18. What are the two major categories of behavior from the Coaching
Behavior Assessment System?
a. reactive and instructional
*b. reactive and spontaneous
c. spontaneous and instructional
d. praise and punishment
e. reactive and praise
19. Which of the following results from Smith and Smoll's studies on
coaching behaviors is (are) true?
a. Two-thirds of the behaviors exhibited by coaches were negative.
*b. Players for coaches who displayed high levels of general
technical instruction evaluated their teammates and sport more
positively.
c. There was generally a high relationship between players'
perceptions of coaches' behaviors and the actual coaching
behaviors.
d. a and b
e. b and c
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20. According to successful professional football coach Bill Parcells,
which of the following is NOT a quality of successful leadership?
a. flexibility
b. candor
*c. trust
d. patience
e. loyalty
21. According to Chelladurai's multidimensional model of sport
leadership, which of the following are categories of leader behavior?
a. required leader behavior
b. preferred leader behavior
c. perceived behavior
*d. a and b
e. b and c
22. Which of the following is (are) true regarding antecedents of
coaches' expectations and values?
*a. There are cross-cultural variations in coaching behaviors.
b. Division I athletes thought their coaches were more supportive
than Division III athletes.
c. Coaches high in extrinsic motivation tend to be more autonomous
in their decision making.
d. a and c
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e. a and b
23. According to the multidimensional model of sport leadership,
performance and satisfaction are a function of the degree of congruence
among
*a. three types of leader behavior
b. motivation of the leader
c. leadership style
d. situational characteristics
e. member characteristics
24. Which of the following is (are) FALSE concerning findings from
studies of the antecedent conditions that affect leader behavior?
a. Preference for an autocratic coaching style increases with age.
*b. Females prefer an autocratic style more than males do.
c. Males prefer training and instruction behaviors more than
females do.
d. a and b
e. b and c
25. Which of the following is (are) FALSE concerning findings from
studies of the consequences of leadership behaviors?
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a. High frequencies of social support are related to poor team
performance.
b. High frequencies of social support and democratic decision
making are associated with high satisfaction among athletes.
*c. High levels of cohesion are related to autocratic coaching
behaviors.
d. b and c
26. Which of the following is (are) NOT part of effective leadership?
a. leadership style
b. situational factors
c. athlete characteristics
d. leader qualities
*e. position power
27. According to Martens, which of the following statements is (are)
true?
a. Team-sport athletes prefer more relationship-oriented leaders
than do individual-sport athletes.
*b. As group size increases, an autocratic leadership style
becomes more effective.
c. When little time is available, a relationship-oriented leader
is more effective.
d. a and b
e. b and c
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28. According to Fiedler's contingency model, a task-oriented leader
would be most effective in which type of situation?
a. favorable
b. unfavorable
c. moderately favorable
*d. either favorable or unfavorable
e. either favorable or moderately favorable
29. In a more recent follow-up study on coach John Wooden (Gallimore &
Tharp, 2004), they concluded
a. specific planning was critical to administering the heavy
information load
b. Wooden considered instruction via information a positive
approach to coaching
c. starters received more praise than reserves
d. a and c
*e. a and b
30. In a recent study comparing coaches and peer leaders, coaches tended
to exhibit more
a. autocratic behaviors
b. social support behaviors
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c. training and instruction behaviors
*d. a and c
e. a and b
31. The interactional model(s) of leadership targeted for sport is (are)
known as the
a. multidimensional model of sport leadership
b. cognitive-behavioral model of leadership
c. cognitive-mediational model of leadership
*d. a and c
e. a and b
32. Which of the following is NOT an essential characteristic of
leadership development in sport?
*a. strong relationship with parents
b. enriched tactical knowledge
c. development of high skill
d. strong work ethic
e. good rapport with people
33. Which type of exercise leader was associated with cohesive exercise
groups?
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*a. democratic
b. task-oriented
c. relationship-oriented
d. laissez-faire
e. interactional
34. Which of the following is NOT a principle of energy management
developed by Loehr?
a. Growth ceases when energy investment ceases.
b. Use positive rituals to manage energy.
*c. Never push beyond the comfort zone.
d. Balance energy investments with energy deposits.
e. Energy is highly contagious.
35. The leader takes a visionary position and inspires people to follow
that position. This is characteristic of
*a. transformative leadership
b. contingency management leadership
c. the Bass-Ricardo philosophy of leadership
d. situational leadership
e. democratic leadership
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1. Breakdowns in communication can occur because
a. the sender fails to listen
b. the receiver misinterprets the message
c. the messages are inconsistent
*d. b and c
e. a and c
2. Which of the following is NOT an element of communication?
a. a decision to send a message
*b. paraphrasing the message
c. receivers receiving and interpreting the message
d. internal response of receiver to the message
e. encoding the message
3. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of communication?
a. evaluation
*b. retrospection
c. motivation
d. persuasion
e. problem solving
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4. Which of the following is (are) a guideline(s) for sending effective
messages?
a. Messages should be indirect.
b. Messages should separate fact from fiction.
c. Verbal and nonverbal messages should be congruent.
*d. b and c
e. a and c
5. Which of the following is NOT a type of communication?
a. nonverbal communication
b. intrapersonal communication
c. interpersonal communication
*d. introspective communication
e. b and d
6. Intrapersonal communication is communication with
*a. yourself
b. someone else
c. signs
d. feelings
e. expressions
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7. Nonverbal behaviors that communicate interest and attention include
which of the following?
*a. maintaining eye contact
b. maintaining a closed posture
c. standing no more than 6 feet from the person
d. a and b
e. a and c
8. In the study about watching tennis players in between points, what
percentage of the time did subjects pick the winner of the match?
a. 10%
*b. 75%
c. 35%
d. 55%
e. 25%
9. Nonverbal cues are transmitted via
a. the color of the eyes
b. posture
c. body position
*d. b and c
e. a and c
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10. Proxemics is the study of how we communicate
*a. by the way we use space
b. by the way we dress
c. by the way we use gestures
d. by the way we use speech
e. by the way we touch
11. What percentage of communication time is spent listening?
a. 20%
*b. 40%
c. 10%
d. 70%
e. 25%
12. Supportive listening behaviors
a. are empathetic
b. remain open to new ideas
c. focus on future thoughts and feelings
*d. a and b
e. a and c
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13. Supportive language has which of the following characteristics?
a. manipulative
b. evaluative
*c. descriptive
d. a and c
e. b and c
14. Sullivan devised seven communication exercises to promote more
effective communication. Athletes said they would try to practice which
communication skills?
a. not interrupt others when they are speaking
b. confront issues right away
c. give opinions less often to people with whom they feel
intimidated
*d. a and b
15. Which of the following things should you do during a confrontation?
a. Stop communicating.
*b. Communicate the problem.
c. Rely on nonverbal cues to communicate.
d. a and c
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e. a and b
16. Which of the following would you NOT suggest for communicating with
empathy?
a. Do not attack the character of the person.
b. Be sensitive to the feelings of the other person.
*c. Make sure the other person understands your point of view.
d. a and c
e. b and c
17. Which of the following would you NOT suggest for communicating with
consistency?
a. Be consistent in administering discipline.
b. Never pass an opportunity to praise.
*c. Show more compassion in competition than in practices.
d. Match verbal and nonverbal communication.
e. Be consistent from athlete to athlete.
18. Which of the following is (are) NOT a principle of communication
when setting up team meetings?
a. Everyone will have a chance to speak.
b. People should say at least one positive thing about everybody.
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*c. What is discussed in the meeting is open to others outside the
meeting.
d. a and c
e. b and c
19. The "sandwich approach" consists of which of the following elements?
a. a positive statement
b. future-oriented instructions
c. mistake-contingent general encouragement
*d. a and b
20. Which of the following would you suggest for expressing anger in a
positive manner?
a. Take a time-out before speaking.
b. Try to identify your exact feelings by name.
c. Try to attack the person's character to make your point.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
21. After taking Sullivan's communication training, athletes had the
following reactions to the workshop:
a. I see myself the same as others see me.
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b. It helps to know the goals of my teammates.
c. It is scary to open up, but this makes things easier.
*d. b and c
22. Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication?
a. the belief that silence is safer
b. embarrassment
c. the tendency to tell people what they want to hear
d. inconsistency between actions and words
*e. using active listening skills
23. Which of the following actions can improve coach-athlete
communication?
a. Administer discipline based on the personality of the athlete.
b. Convey rationales about why you expect certain behaviors.
c. Provide a supportive and empathic environment.
*d. b and c
e. a and c
24. When there is a communication breakdown, most people believe that
the problem resides with
a. themselves
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*b. the other person
c. the situation
d. a and b
e. b and c
25. Which of the following is (are) a main reason(s) that communication
is often problematic?
a. Individuals perceive faulty communication to be someone else's
problem.
b. Individuals feel that they are the problem regarding faulty
communication.
c. Individuals prefer two-way communication.
*d. a and c
26. Which of the following is (are) a way(s) to improve active listening
skills?
a. Mentally prepare to listen.
b. Use supportive behaviors as you listen.
c. Employ both verbal and nonverbal listening behaviors.
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
27. Nonverbal communication in sport is important, as shown by the
finding that
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*a. athletes displayed more confidence when their opponents wore
general sportswear
b. athletes displayed more confidence when their opponents wore
sport-specific sportswear
c. athletes displayed less anxiety when they perceived their
opponents as short
d. athletes displayed less anxiety when they perceived their
opponents as tall
28. Which teacher and coach category(ies) of behavior can enhance
communication?
a. clarity
b. confirmation
c. assertiveness
*d. a and b
e. a and c
29. A recent article recommends assuming the perspective of the other
person in order to enhance communication. This involves the use of
*a. role-playing
b. assertiveness training
c. listening skills
d. a and c
e. d and c
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30. Which of the following is NOT an assumption when dealing with a
confrontation?
a. Process is as important as content.
b. Everyone is right from his or her own perspective.
c. There are enough resources to meet all needs.
*d. A confrontation should be viewed as a competition.
e. All needs are perceived to be legitimate.
31. To enhance constructive confrontations, you should
a. describe your feelings
b. describe your thoughts about the event that concerns you
c. describe what you think the other person is feeling
d. a and c
*e. a and b
32. Which of the following are TRUE?
a. Olympic swimmers look to coaches for technical skills before
social competence skills.
b. Communication patterns differ between more versus less
successful tennis doubles teams.
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c. Nonverbal behavior and clothing worn by athletes influence the
ratings others give them regarding their performance.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
33. Recent research on empathy in coaches and athletes found
a. coaches were more capable than athletes in inferring feelings
of closeness
b. coaches of individual sport teams were more accurate in
predicting athlete feelings about the relationship than team sport
coaches
c. coaches' empathy was improved with more exposure to each
athlete
*d. b and c
e. a and c
34. Recent research by Gano-Overway and colleagues on caring and
underserved youth participating in a summer camp found that with
increased caring from the coaches and counselors, underserved youth
*a. exhibited a decrease in anti-social behavior
b. had higher self-esteem
c. had lower state anxiety
d. a and c
e. a and b
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1. Ideally, a PST program should be planned, implemented, and supervised
by a
a. coach
b. general manager
*c. AASP-certified sport psychology consultant
d. coach and athlete
e. NASPSPA-certified sport psychology consultant
2. In general, most coaches state that their sport is at least what
percentage mental?
a. 20%
*b. 50%
c. 80%
d. 90%
e. 25%
3. The importance of the mental side of sports
a. is greatest for elite athletes
b. is greatest for varsity athletes
c. is greatest for recreational athletes
*d. does not differ based on skill level
e. is greatest for young athletes
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4. Which of the following explain(s) why players and coaches often
neglect psychological skills training?
a. lack of knowledge
b. lack of time
c. viewing psychological skills as unchangeable
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
5. Which of the following is (are) FALSE concerning psychological skills
training?
*a. PST is only for problem athletes.
b. PST is for athletes of various abilities.
c. PST will not provide quick solutions to problems.
d. PST has developed a knowledge base using elite athletes.
e. a and b
6. From a psychological perspective, the ultimate goal of psychological
skills training is
a. self-efficacy
*b. self-regulation
c. self-esteem
d. mental preparation
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e. self-concept
7. Results of a study focusing on successful versus unsuccessful
athletes showed that more successful athletes are characterized by
a. higher self-confidence
b. higher anxiety
c. more task-oriented thoughts
d. a and b
*e. a and c
8. Using the psychological skill of relaxation learned in baseball to
deal with anxiety before taking exams would be the goal of which stage
of Kirschenbaum's model of self-regulation?
a. execution
b. problem identification
*c. generalization
d. specialization
e. environmental management
9. Which of the following is not one of the stages in Kirschenbaum's
model of self-regulation?
a. commitment
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b. execution
*c. specialization
d. generalization
e. problem identification
10. The PST knowledge base has come from what sources?
a. research on elite athletes
b. athlete-coach experiences
c. research on youth sport
*d. a and b
11. In conducting research on the mental preparation of Canadian Olympic
athletes, Orlick and Partington found that athletes who performed up to
their potential
*a. developed competitive plans
b. received more feedback from coaches
c. had more extroverted personalities
d. a and b
e. a and c
12. Sport psychology topics that form the basis for PST programs include
which of the following?
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a. confidence building
b. imagery
c. group cohesion
*d. a and b
e. a and c
13. What was the main problem that the basketball player (Jim) faced
shooting free throws in the case study presented at the beginning of the
chapter?
*a. He had not developed the psychological skill of relaxation.
b. He did not have good free-throw shooting form.
c. He received negative feedback from his coach.
d. He had not developed a routine before shooting free throws.
e. He lost his concentration because his girlfriend was in the
audience.
14. The studies investigating the effectiveness of PST in enhancing
performance have generally found
a. that PST enhances the performance of elite but not recreational
athletes
b. that PST enhances the performance of collegiate athletes
c. that PST enhances performance in older and younger athletes
*d. b and c
e. a and b
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15. Which of the following demonstrate(s) psychological skills training?
a. A fitness instructor suggests using positive self-statements to
enhance self-esteem with an overweight client.
b. A physical education teacher uses relaxation training to help
students calm down before going on to their next class.
c. A therapist uses behavior modification techniques to help a
person quit smoking.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
16. When is it generally best to implement a PST program?
a. anytime
*b. during the off-season or preseason
c. after a problem is identified
d. before important competitions
e. before easy competitions
17. When new psychological skills are being learned, how long should
they generally be practiced?
a. 5 days a week, 60 minutes a day
*b. 3 to 5 days a week, 15 to 30 minutes a day
c. twice a week, 30 minutes a day
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d. 5 days a week, 45 to 60 minutes a day
e. 3 days a week, 60 minutes a day
18. After a PST program has been put in place, how long do athletes need
to continue practicing their mental skills?
*a. as long as they continue to participate in their sports
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year
e. 1 month
19. PST takes what type of approach to mental training?
a. clinical
b. counseling
*c. educational
d. philosophical
e. pragmatic
20. A baseball player's slump can be caused by what kind(s) of problems?
a. psychological
b. biomechanical
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c. physiological
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
21. What is the best way to get information concerning an athlete's
psychological strengths and weaknesses?
a. psychological inventories
b. an oral interview
*c. an oral interview and psychological inventories
d. projective and objective psychological inventories
22. According to Vealey's analysis, which of the following reflect(s)
foundation methods in PST training?
a. physical practice
b. education
c. anxiety management
*d. a and b
23. Which of the following is NOT a common problem in implementing PST
programs?
a. lack of time
b. lack of follow-up by the consultant
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c. the consultant's lack of sport-specific knowledge
d. generating support from administrators, coaches, and athletes
*e. the sport psychologist's knowledge of psychological skill
exercises
24. The Sports United to Promote Education and Recreation program
(SUPER) developed by Danish and his colleagues has as its goal
*a. to teach adolescents skills in sport that they can transfer to
other aspects of their lives
b. to provide recreational activities for inner-city youth
c. to help elite athletes develop mental skills
d. to provide training for new physical education teachers
e. to combine formal physical education in the schools with
recreational activities after school
25. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of INEFFECTIVE
consultants that athletes note in interviews with sport psychologists?
a. They lack sport-specific knowledge.
b. They are too flexible, trying to meet all athletes' individual
needs.
c. They rely on a "canned" approach when implementing mental
skills training.
d. a and b
*e. a and c
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26. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of EFFECTIVE
consultants that athletes note in interviews with sport psychologists?
a. They only conduct one follow-up session with athletes.
b. They are accessible and establish rapport with the athletes.
c. They are flexible in meeting individual athletes' needs.
*d. b and c
e. a and b
27. Performance profiling as a means of assessing athletes' mental
skills works by asking athletes to
a. observe other elite athletes who have excellent psychological
skills
*b. identify, assess, and compare their own mental skills against
those of other elite athletes in their sport
c. take a series of personality tests to determine their strengths
and weaknesses regarding mental skills
d. observe themselves for several weeks and keep a log regarding
their mental skills
28. Which of the following is NOT a phase in PST?
a. education phase
b. practice phase
*c. intervention phase
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d. acquisition phase
29. According to Vealey, which of the following is (are) a foundation
skill(s)?
a. goal setting
b. imagery
*c. self-confidence
d. a and b
e. the sport psychologist's knowledge of psychological skill
exercises
30. New research indicates that which of the following is NOT a
construct in the 4C model of mental toughness?
a. control
b. commitment
*c. consistency
d. challenge
e. confidence
31. Which of the following is (are) a consideration(s) when teaching
mental skills to athletes with disabilities?
a. developing trust and rapport
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b. making sure males consult with males and females with females
c. ensuring that the venues are accessible
d. a and b
*e. a and c
32. The first systematic mental skills training program occurred in
which country?
a. United States
*b. Soviet Union
c. Canada
d. England
e. China
33. According to recent research on mental toughness, which of the
following is (are) a way(s) to increase mental toughness?
a. Create intense competitive practices simulating game
situations.
b. Have high expectations of athletes.
c. Create a negative mental environment because athletes react
positively to threats of punishment.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
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34. Which of the following is NOT a situation requiring mental toughness
according to a recent study?
a. injury and rehabilitation
b. peer and social pressure
*c. autocratic coach
d. balancing different commitments (e.g., school, work, media)
e. difficult environmental and playing conditions
35. A recent study found that coaches particularly use the mental skills
of
*a. self-talk and imagery
b. self-talk and anxiety management
c. imagery and anxiety management
d. routines and imagery
e. routines and self-talk
36. According to Vealey, which of the following is NOT part of a
psychological skills training program?
a. foundation skills
b. personal development skills
c. performance skills
d. team skills
*e. communication skills
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37. Which of the following is (are) a phase(s) of a periodization
program?
a. categorization
b. norming
*c. peaking
d. a and b
e. a and c
38. Experts compared to non-experts
*a. anticipated opponents' intentions quicker
b. had shorter "quiet eye" periods
c. are equal in terms of visual function and visual acuity
d. a and c
e. a and b
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1. The suggested ratio for the time of inhalation to exhalation when
using breath control as a relaxation device is
a. 1:5
*b. 1:2
c. 3:1
d. 5:1
e. 1:4
2. A good starting point for increasing awareness of arousal states is
to
*a. visualize your best and worst performances
b. visualize only your best performance
c. develop relaxation skills
d. learn transcendental meditation
e. learn autogenic training
3. Which of the following is (are) NOT a stage(s) in autogenic training?
a. regulation of breathing
b. regulation of cardiac activity
*c. cooling of the extremities
d. a and c
e. b and c
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4. The two sensations that are emphasized in autogenic training are
a. warmth and cold
*b. warmth and heaviness
c. kinesthetic and heaviness
d. warmth and kinesthetic
e. cold and kinesthetic
5. Autogenic training was developed by
a. Weinberg and Gould
b. Jacobson and Benson
*c. Schultz and Luthe
d. Martens and Landers
e. Schultz and Singer
6. The state of mind produced by the relaxation response is similar to
that described during
a. imagery
b. peak performance
*c. transcendental meditation
d. deep sleep
e. progressive relaxation
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7. The premise of stress inoculation training is to
*a. expose the person to increasing amounts of stress, thereby
enhancing the person's immunity to stress
b. teach both somatic and cognitive anxiety skills
c. teach people that stress is predominantly in their minds
d. teach people to appraise stressful situations
8. Relaxation (anxiety reduction) techniques are usually classified as
*a. cognitive and somatic
b. state and trait
c. sport specific and general
d. cognitive and appraisal
e. somatic and visceral
9. Using an electronic monitoring device that can detect and amplify
internal responses not ordinarily available to us is known as
a. systematic desensitization
b. classical conditioning
c. biological mapping
*d. biofeedback
e. biological conditioning
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10. Effective breathing occurs from the
*a. diaphragm
b. central chest
c. upper chest
d. throat
11. Athletes should make sure that when they are performing a skill
under pressure, they
*a. breathe out during execution of the skill
b. breathe in during execution of the skill
c. hold their breath during execution of the skill
d. breathe shallowly during execution of the skill
12. Ost has developed an applied relaxation technique using progressive
relaxation that can be done at competitions in
a. 10 to 12 minutes
b. 5 to 7 minutes
c. 2 to 4 minutes
*d. 20 to 30 seconds
e. 1 minute
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13. Before starting progressive relaxation, you should
a. dim the lights
b. put on soft music
c. sit down in a comfortable position
*d. a and c
14. Progressive relaxation was developed by
a. Herbert Benson
b. Ken Ravizza
*c. Edmund Jacobson
d. Rainer Martens
e. Daniel Gould
15. Which of the following is (are) NOT a tenet(s) of progressive
relaxation?
*a. Tension and relaxation can occur simultaneously.
b. A decrease in muscle tension will lead to a decrease in mental
tension.
c. Progressively contract and relax the major muscle groups in the
body.
d. a and b
e. b and c
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16. Excess anxiety can produce
a. inappropriate muscle tension
b. inappropriate thoughts
c. somatic (physiological) reactions
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
17. A good way to increase awareness of psychological states in sport is
to
*a. monitor and record your psychological states immediately after
practice and competition
b. talk to teammates
c. practice relaxation techniques
d. practice cognitive restructuring
18. The relaxation response was developed by
*a. Herbert Benson
b. Edmund Jacobson
c. Robert Weinberg
d. Charles Hardy
e. Gunther Schultz
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19. The matching hypothesis refers to
a. matching athletes with coaches to reduce anxiety levels
b. matching athletes with other athletes of similar anxiety levels
*c. matching the type of anxiety management technique to the
specific anxiety problem of each athlete
d. matching athletes to the sport that is least anxiety provoking
to them
20. Which of the following is NOT a coping strategy typically employed
by elite athletes?
a. social support (from friends, coaches, family)
b. time management
c. thought control
*d. superstition
e. rational thinking via self-talk
21. According to research with elite athletes by Gould and colleagues,
athletes
a. prepared for unexpected events
b. usually overtrained
c. placed a great deal of importance on mental training
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*d. a and c
22. Which of the following is NOT a phase in the hypnosis process?
a. induction phase
b. hypnotic phase
*c. autogenic phase
d. waking phase
e. posthypnotic phase
23. According to the study by Eubank and Collins, individuals perceiving
their anxiety as facilitative (as opposed to debilitative) use more
a. emotion-focused coping
b. problem-focused coping
c. imagery
*d. a and b
e. a and c
24. Which of the following statements regarding hypnosis is (are) true?
a. The more open individuals are to receiving suggestions, the
more likely they will benefit from hypnosis.
b. Negative suggestions almost always result in a decrease in
performance.
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c. The deeper the trance, the less likely the hypnosis will be
effective.
*d. a and b
e. a and c
25. Which of the following levels of effort produced the fastest running
times of 400-meter runners?
a. 110%
b. 100%
c. 75%
*d. 95%
26. Both Ron Smith's cognitive-affective stress management training and
Don Meichenbaum's stress inoculation training are examples of
___________ anxiety programs.
*a. multimodal
b. multidisciplinary
c. multivariate
d. cognitive appraisal
e. somatic appraisal
27. The two most widely accepted coping categories are known as
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a. problem-focused and cognitive-focused coping
*b. problem-focused and emotion-focused coping
c. cognitive-focused and somatic-focused coping
d. emotion-focused and somatic-focused coping
e. emotion-focused and cognitive-focused coping
28. Which of the following is NOT an element necessary for achieving the
relaxation response?
a. a quiet environment
b. a passive attitude
c. a mental device
d. a comfortable position
*e. a mantra
29. Which of the following can increase activation?
a. using positive mood words
b. slowing down the breathing rate
c. listening to energizing music
*d. a and c
e. b and c
30. An athlete who is underactivated commonly experiences which of the
following?
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a. heavy feeling in the legs
b. mind wandering
c. feelings of anxiety
*d. a and b
e. b and c
31. Which of the following can be useful as an on-site strategy to help
reduce tension?
a. Smile when the pressure is coming on.
b. Slow down.
c. Stay focused in the present.
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
32. Which of the following is (are) true in terms of resiliency?
a. Sociocultural influences such as social support are not related
to being resilient.
b. The essence of resiliency is the use of different coping
strategies to deal with unpleasant emotions.
c. Mental toughness is seen as critical to being resilient.
*d. b and c
e. a and b
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33. Cognitive restructuring attempts to
*a. identify and modify stress-inducing self-statements
b. improve problem-solving ability
c. improve attentional focus
d. identify different strategies for mental preparation
34. Which of the following is (are) NOT among the interventions for
cognitive-affective stress management training?
a. cognitive restructuring
b. relaxation skills
c. self-instructional training
*d. systematic desensitization
e. a and c
35. Which of the following is NOT a phase in Smith's cognitive-affective
stress management training?
a. pretreatment assessment
b. treatment rationale
c. skill acquisition
d. skill rehearsal
*e. posttreatment assessment
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36. According to the research on biofeedback by Landers and his
colleagues,
a. biofeedback provides a mechanism for coping with precompetitive
anxiety
b. biofeedback can improve the performance of rifle shooters
c. biofeedback provides shooters with a greater awareness of their
heart and respiration rates
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
37. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding research
findings on coping in sport?
a. Athletes use both adaptive and nonadaptive coping strategies.
b. Athletes usually stick with one coping strategy.
c. Athletes who had more adaptive coping strategies had higher
performance.
d. a and b
*e. a and c
38. A key feature in the multimodal anxiety reduction programs is that
they help participants learn
*a. coping skills
b. confidence-building skills
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c. imagery skills
d. goal-setting skills
e. self-esteem
39. Which of the following is NOT a stage in stress inoculation
training?
a. preparing for the stressor
b. coping with the stressor
c. controlling the stressor
d. evaluating coping efforts
*e. removing the stressor
40. For long-term coping, research indicates that the most effective
strategy is
*a. active-problem-focused coping
b. avoidance coping
c. emotion-focused coping
d. cognitive appraisal coping
e. active-avoidance coping
41. Which of the following is (are) a strategy(ies) for coping with
different emotions in sport?
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a. vicarious learning
b. self-analysis
c. reframing
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
42. The "yips" refers to
*a. a condition most often associated with golf that includes
involuntary tremors and jerking of the hands caused by excessive
anxiety
b. a condition associated with losing confidence when sailing
c. an entire team feeling the pressure and thus "choking"
d. a condition usually seen in individual sports characterized by
a loss of attentional focus and an increase in physiological
arousal
43. The most frequently cited stressor in recent studies by Nicholls et
al. was
a. parents or significant others
*b. physical or mental errors
c. ability level of opponent
d. autocratic coaching style
e. importance of the competition
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44. Which of the following is (are) a guideline(s) for giving a peptalk?
a. Give players a plan.
b. Use humor.
c. Stress effort.
*d. a and b
e. a and c
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1. Basic imagery training involves
a. controllability and awareness
*b. controllability and vividness
c. vividness and relaxation
d. relaxation and awareness
e. relaxation and controllability
2. Imagery involves which of the following senses?
a. visual
b. auditory
c. kinesthetic
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
3. Which of the following is NOT a use of imagery?
a. building confidence
b. improving concentration
*c. reducing the amount of physical practice time
d. controlling emotional responses
e. coping with pain and injury
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4. Research using U.S. and Canadian Olympic athletes has shown that
approximately what percent of athletes use imagery?
a. 50%
b. 75%
*c. 95%
d. 85%
e. 60%
5. Vividly imagined events produce an innervation in muscles that is
similar to the innervation produced by physically practicing the
movement. This is an illustration of
a. symbolic learning theory
*b. psychoneuromuscular theory
c. muscular contraction theory
d. innervation theory
e. psychodynamic theory
6. Which of the following is (are) true?
*a. Imagery is used most often prior to competition.
b. Imagery has both motivational and affective roles in changing
behavior.
c. The most often-used imagery is known as cognitive general
imagery.
d. a and c
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7. Imagery functions as a coding system to help individuals acquire
movement patterns. This describes
*a. symbolic learning theory
b. psychoneuromuscular theory
c. psychodynamic theory
d. psychoinnervation theory
e. symbolic interaction theory
8. Suinn's research showing that electrical activity was present in
skiers' legs as they imagined skiing down the slope provided support for
a. symbolic learning theory
*b. psychoneuromuscular theory
c. psychoinnervation theory
d. muscular contraction theory
e. innervation theory
9. What theory was supported by the research literature showing that
subjects using imagery performed consistently better on tasks that were
cognitive than on those that were motoric in nature?
a. psychoneuromuscular theory
b. symbolic interaction theory
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*c. symbolic learning theory
d. psychodynamic theory
e. psychoinnervation theory
10. To determine whether using imagery is effective, evidence has been
gathered from which of the following methods?
a. anecdotal reports
b. case studies
c. archival research
*d. a and b
e. b and c
11. According to the experimental evidence, which of the following is
(are) true?
a. Imagery is effective in improving the learning and performance
of motor skills.
b. Tasks involving mostly cognitive components demonstrate the
greatest positive benefits.
c. Imagery helps individuals only in learning a new skill; it does
not help performance once the skill is well learned.
*d. a and b
e. b and c
12. The main reason(s) that exercisers give for using imagery is (are)
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a. appearance
b. energy
c. relaxation
*d. a and b
13. Which of the following athletes use(s) imagery as part of
preparation for competition?
a. Dwight Stones
b. Jean-Claude Killy
c. Jack Nicklaus
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
14. Internal imagery (as compared to external imagery) makes it easier
for an athlete to experience which of the following senses?
*a. kinesthetic
b. auditory
c. visual
d. olfactory
15. Triple code theory refers to what three parts of the image?
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*a. image itself, image meaning, somatic response to the image
b. image itself, image meaning, cognitive response to the image
c. image itself, image timing, somatic response to the image
d. image meaning, image timing, cognitive response to the image
e. image consistency, image meaning, image timing
16. An athlete tries to image shooting a free throw under pressure, but
the ball keeps hitting the rim and bouncing off. This is an example of a
lack of
a. vividness
b. coordination
*c. controllability
d. experimental control
e. emotionality
17. The PETTLEP model emphasizes which of the following critical factors
in imagery practice?
a. learning
b. evaluation
c. perspective
*d. a and c
e. a and b
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18. Athletes who incorporate all the senses into their image will score
high on what aspect of imagery?
a. controllability
b. coordination
*c. vividness
d. motivation
e. simplicity
19. Which of the following is (are) basic to a successful imagery
training program?
a. realistic expectations
b. relaxed concentration
c. image in slow motion
*d. a and b
20. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Imagery can't help performance; only hard physical practice
can.
b. Imagery can make an average athlete great.
*c. Imagery can improve performance if it is done systematically.
d. a and c
e. b and c
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21. An optimal time to use imagery is
a. before and after practice
b. before and after competition
c. during breaks in the action
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
22. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Individuals should image only successful events.
b. Individuals should image mostly unsuccessful events.
*c. Individuals should image mostly successful events but also
learn to cope with an occasional failure.
d. a and c
23. In terms of the timing of imagery, it is best to image in
*a. real time
b. slow motion
c. fast motion
d. a combination of slow and fast motion
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24. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. Imagery is more effective when individuals are higher in
imagery ability.
b. Imagery ability is defined in terms of image vividness and
controllability.
*c. There are no differences in imagery ability between successful
and less successful performers.
d. a and c
e. a and b
25. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. A combination of physical and mental practice is better than
physical practice alone, given the same time frame.
b. Mental practice can be employed as a substitute for physical
practice if an athlete is injured.
c. Mental practice should be used as a supplement to physical
practice rather than as a replacement for physical practice.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
26. Bioinformational theory states that images have two propositions
called
a. stimulus and appraisal propositions
b. neuromuscular and cognitive propositions
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c. neuromuscular and stimulus propositions
*d. response and stimulus propositions
e. response and neuromuscular propositions
27. According to researcher Pavio, what are the two primary functions of
imagery?
a. cognitive and somatic
b. cognitive and emotional
c. social and cognitive
*d. cognitive and motivational
e. motivational and somatic
28. According to Pavio's work on the different functions of imagery, a
person's imagery of staying relaxed under pressure would be an example
of
*a. motivational-specific imagery
b. motivational-general imagery
c. cognitive-general imagery
d. cognitive-specific imagery
e. somatic-motivational imagery
29. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
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a. According to Mahoney and Avener's study, gymnasts who qualified
for the 1976 Olympic team tended to use external imagery.
*b. External imagery refers to viewing yourself from the
perspective of an external observer.
c. External imagery produces significantly better performance than
internal imagery.
d. a and b
e. b and c
30. Which of the following situations involving the use of imagery might
result in negative consequences or outcomes?
a. imagery creating too much anxiety
b. imagery directing attention to irrelevant cues
c. imagery that makes a performer overconfident
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
31. In a study comparing the use of visual and kinesthetic imagery in
the learning of a skill, it was found that
a. kinesthetic imagery produced better performance than visual
imagery
*b. visual imagery produced better performance than kinesthetic
imagery
c. neither visual nor kinesthetic imagery was better than a
control condition
d. a and c
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e. b and c
32. Psychological explanations for the effectiveness of imagery include
a focus on
a. perfectionism
b. enhancing motivation
c. achieving optimal arousal and focus on task-relevant cues
*d. b and c
e. a and c
33. Exercise imagery has been shown to have several functions, including
a. improving exercise technique
b. helping develop routines
c. enhancing self-concept
*d. a and b
34. According to research, the most effective types of imagery scripts
are
*a. video and audio
b. video and written
c. written and audio
d. kinesthetic and audio
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e. kinesthetic and written
35. The most effective type of imagery for helping athletes maintain
confidence and stay focused is
a. cognitive general
*b. cognitive specific
c. motivational specific
d. motivational general–arousal
e. motivational general–mastery
36. The new Motor Imagery Integrative Model targets which specific areas
where imagery can be effective?
a. strategies and problem solving
b. injury rehabilitation
c. motivation, self-confidence, and anxiety
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
37. According to the latest research (e.g., Caliari, 2008), a player in
a sport using an implement (e.g., baseball, tennis) should focus their
imagery on
a. the direction of the ball
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b. external stimuli
c. the opposition
*d. the movement itself
e. the outcome of performance
38. In a recent study on imagery use in youth sport (Munroe-Chandler et.
al, 2007), which of the following categories of imagery was NOT found?
a. surroundings
b. type of imagery
c. nature of imagery
d. effectiveness of imagery
*e. individual differences
39. The latest research on the timing of imagery would suggest that
imagery timing might be different based on
*a. the task
b. the person
c. individual differences
d. imagery ability
e. stimulus versus response propositions
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1. Which of the following statements regarding self-efficacy is (are)
true?
a. Efficacy affects behavior change but behavior change does not
affect efficacy.
b. Efficacy changes are related to changes in exercise adherence.
c. Exercise behavior can influence feelings of efficacy.
*d. b and c
e. a and c
2. One's confidence can change as the situation changes. This is known
as
a. trait self-confidence
*b. state self-confidence
c. situational self-confidence
d. cognitive self-confidence
e. naturally occurring self-confidence
3. Sport self-confidence is currently viewed as
a. a trait variable
b. a state variable
*c. statelike or traitlike depending on the situation
d. an affective variable
e. a cognitive variable
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4. The probable reason that approximately a dozen runners broke the 4minute barrier within one year after Roger Bannister originally did was
their
a. enhanced training procedures
b. improved equipment
c. faster tracks
*d. expectations that it could be done
e. superior coaching
5. Confidence is seen as multidimensional, consisting of confidence in
a. one's ability to execute physical skills
b. one's level of fitness
c. one's psychological skills
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
6. According to the study by Nelson and Furst on arm wrestling and
expectations,
a. objectively weaker subjects who expected to win actually did
win more often than stronger subjects who expected to lose
b. objectively stronger subjects won regardless of expectations
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c. objectively weaker subjects won regardless of expectations
d. expectations were a better predictor of success than actual
strength was
*e. a and d
7. According to Rosenthal and Jacobson's study on teachers' expectancies
and students' performances,
*a. children identified as "late bloomers" exhibited the greatest
gains in IQ
b. teachers' expectations were not related to IQ scores
c. children identified as "late bloomers" exhibited the slightest
gains in IQ
d. males had higher gains in IQ than females did
e. females had higher gains in IQ scores than males did
8. Coaches often form expectations of athletes based on
a. performance information and media reports
*b. performance information and person cues
c. person cues and media reports
d. scouting and media reports
e. person cues and scouting reports
9. Which of the following is (are) true?
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a. Coaches spend more time with high-expectancy athletes.
b. Coaches show more positive affect to high-expectancy athletes.
c. Coaches spend more time with low-expectancy athletes.
*d. a and b
e. b and c
10. Which of the following is (are) FALSE?
a. Coaches give high-expectancy athletes more instructional
feedback.
b. Coaches provide more praise to high-expectancy athletes.
*c. Coaches provide more beneficial feedback to low-expectancy
athletes.
d. a and b
e. b and c
11. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Low-expectancy athletes exhibit lower performances due to less
effective reinforcement and playing time.
b. Low-expectancy athletes attribute their failures to lack of
effort.
c. Low-expectancy athletes attribute their failures to lack of
ability.
*d. a and c
e. a and b
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12. The four-step process concerning the formation of a coach's
expectations and their effects on the coach's and athlete's behavior
signifies that
a. coaches should continually reevaluate an athlete's ability
throughout the season
b. coaches should carefully monitor their quantity and quality of
reinforcement and instructional feedback
c. coaches should rely on one source to make ability judgments
*d. a and b
13. Self-efficacy theory was originated by
a. Charley Hardy
b. Tara Scanlan
*c. Albert Bandura
d. Larry Brawley
e. Joseph Wolpe
14. Confidence is usually defined by sport psychologists as the
*a. belief that you can successfully perform a desired behavior
b. inner self
c. equivalent of self-esteem
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d. belief that you can do anything you desire if you set your mind
to it
15. Self-efficacy has been used interchangeably with
a. self-esteem
*b. self-confidence
c. self-motivation
d. self-concept
e. self-fulfilling prophecy
16. Confidence can be improved by
a. judgmental thinking
b. acting confidently
c. using imagery
*d. b and c
e. a and b
17. If you want to avoid breaking down an individual's self-confidence,
a. don't criticize people for inconsequential errors
b. don't criticize the behavior; criticize the person
c. don't use sarcasm to motivate people
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*d. a and c
18. Which of the following is (are) NOT a recommendation(s) provided by
Horn regarding expectations of coaches?
a. Coaches should interact infrequently with athletes.
b. Coaches should respond to skill errors with immediate
criticism.
c. Coaches should try to create a mastery-oriented environment.
*d. a and b
e. b and c
19. Collective efficacy refers to
*a. each individual's perception of the efficacy of the team as a
whole
b. the aggregate of each individual's own self-efficacy
c. the coach's view of the efficacy of the team as a whole
d. the belief that the team can win the championship
20. Recent research has identified nine sources of sport selfconfidence. These fit into which of the following categories?
a. climate (environment)
b. self-regulation
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c. arousal
*d. a and b
e. b and c
21. According to the latest thinking, self-efficacy is now called
*a. self-regulatory efficacy
b. self-improvement
c. self-esteem
d. self-worth
e. self-monitoring
22. Research by Gould and his colleagues on setting up detailed plans as
a way to increase confidence showed that
*a. elite athletes had the most detailed plans
b. female athletes had the most detailed plans
c. male athletes had the most detailed plans
d. college athletes had the most detailed plans
23. Coaching efficacy is composed of all of the following areas except
a. game strategy
*b. playing experience
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c. motivation
d. technique
e. character building
24. The relationship between confidence and performance is
a. positive linear
b. negative linear
*c. curvilinear
d. negatively accelerated
e. positively accelerated
25. Research has indicated that live and filmed modeling increases selfefficacy in muscular-endurance tasks. This is an example of
a. verbal persuasion
*b. vicarious experiences
c. performance accomplishments
d. emotional arousal
e. parental expectations
26. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of confidence?
a. positive emotions
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b. effort
c. concentration
d. goals
*e. visualization
27. The strongest and most dependable information on which to base selfefficacy judgments comes from
a. vicarious experiences
*b. performance accomplishments
c. emotional states
d. verbal persuasion
e. physiological states
28. A new program to build self-efficacy in coaches was developed by
Harwood (2008) and targeted which of the following areas?
a. communication
b. imagery
c. commitment
*d. a and c
e. a and b
29. Which of the following is (are) NOT a major source(s) of selfefficacy?
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*a. parental expectations
b. performance accomplishments
c. emotional arousal
d. vicarious experiences
e. a and d
30. Which of the following points about self-efficacy theory is (are)
true?
a. Self-efficacy affects effort expenditure and persistence.
b. Self-efficacy plus ability are enough for success.
c. Self-efficacy is task specific.
*d. a and c
31. Researchers investigating the concept of psychological momentum in
sport found that teams of athletes having momentum
a. will continue to perform well for the next few minutes of play
b. will continue to perform well for the rest of the game
*c. were just as likely to perform poorly as to continue to
perform well
d. are important in individual sports but not in team sports
e. are important in team sports but not in individual sports
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32. According to recent research on the "hot hand" in basketball, if a
coach needed to choose a player to take the last critical shot, he
should choose
a. the player who has the hot hand
b. It doesn't matter whom he chooses.
*c. the player with the hot hand who is also generally a good
shooter
d. the player with the hot hand who is generally not a good
shooter
33. Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the model of
sport confidence?
a. sources of sport confidence
b. constructs of sport confidence
c. factors influencing sport confidence
*d. controllability of sport confidence
e. factors affecting sport confidence
34. Which of the following is true regarding judges' knowing a skater
beforehand?
a. Judges' knowledge of the skater did not affect their scoring.
*b. Skaters who were known to judges were ranked higher than
skaters not known to judges.
c. Skaters known to judges received higher artistic marks than
skaters not known to judges.
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d. a and c
e. b and c
35. The key psychological variable regarding psychological momentum is
a. anxiety
b. motivation
*c. confidence
d. attentional focus
e. perfectionism
36. In a recent study on self-confidence in elite athletes, Hays et al.
(2007) found some additional sources of confidence including
a. experience
b. modeling
c. competitive advantage
*d. a and c
e. a and b
37. According to research on coaching efficacy, coaches higher in self
efficacy (compared to those lower in self-efficacy)
a. were better able to control their emotions
b. were lower in emotional intelligence
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c. had higher winning percentages
*d. a and c
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1. It is recommended that appropriate goals be
a. short-term only
b. long-term only
*c. a combination of short- and long-term
d. short-term early in the season, then long-term midway through
the season
e. either short-term or long-term depending on the way you phrase
your generalized goals
2. Focusing on performance (as opposed to outcome goals) during
competition has been shown to be associated with _____ anxiety and _____
performance.
a. more; poorer
*b. less; superior
c. more; superior
d. less; poorer
e. none of the above
3. Which of the following (according to research by Filby and
colleagues) would produce the best performance?
a. performance goals
b. process goals
c. outcome goals
*d. a combination of goals
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e. subjective goals
4. Studies of goal setting in business have concluded that
a. although goals work in some situations, more often than not,
specific goals are not better than "do your best" goals
b. it does not matter how difficult your goals are—any goal will
be effective
*c. goal setting works very well
d. goal setting is effective but only when the goals are easy
5. Burton (1989a), in a study of basketball skills, found that
a. general goals were just as effective as specific goals
b. goal setting was effective for all tasks
c. short-term goals were more effective than long-term goals
*d. goal setting enhanced performance better on low- as compared
with high-complexity tasks
e. goal setting improved performance more for the subjects who
were told to "do their best" than for those who were told "improve
15%"
6. Directing a performer's attention to important elements of a skill is
*a. one way in which goal setting can influence performance
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b. one indirect thought process that explains goal setting's
impact on athletes
c. not really a part of a systematic goal-setting program because
most athletes can direct their own attention appropriately
d. the same thing as mobilizing the athlete's effort
e. b and c
7. The mechanistic explanation for the effectiveness of goal setting
includes
a. directing the performer's attention to important elements of a
skill
b. mobilizing effort and increasing persistence by providing
incentives
c. the development and employment of new learning strategies
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
8. Burton contends that athletes who set outcome goals will experience
more anxiety and lower self-confidence in competition; this is
a. because their goals are not within their complete control
b. one of the mechanistic explanations for the effectiveness of
goal setting
c. one of the indirect thought-process explanations for the
effectiveness of goal setting
*d. a and c
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9. After a five-month goal-setting program (Burton, 1989) swimmers were
found to
*a. have learned to set performance goals
b. exhibit less anxiety, regardless of their ability to set
performance goals
c. exhibit less anxiety if they set outcome goals rather than
performance goals
d. exhibit higher confidence and improved performance if they set
outcome goals rather than performance goals
e. c and d
10. Having a goal to win the race is an example of a(n) _____ goal,
whereas having a goal to "improve my best time" is an example of a(n)
______ goal.
*a. outcome; performance
b. process; outcome
c. outcome; ego-oriented
d. subjective; objective
e. a and c
11. According to the text, goals should be
a. extremely difficult so that only 10% of your players can reach
them
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b. easy enough to achieve so that self-esteem is enhanced
*c. difficult enough to be a challenge, yet realistic enough to
achieve
d. set to the same value (e.g., the same score, the same time) for
everyone on the same team so that no one is singled out as a
favorite
e. c and d
12. Which of the following is NOT a common obstacle in setting goals?
a. It is too time consuming.
b. There are previous negative experiences in setting goals.
*c. Goals are too unstructured.
d. a and c
e. b and c
13. The phrase "out of sight, out of mind" is a reminder to
*a. write your goals down and place them where they can be easily
seen
b. write your goals down and put them secretly away, only to be
reread at the end of the season
c. use visualization when you set your performance goals
d. sign a behavioral contract with your coach or parents, which
should be placed in a drawer (or some safe place) and reevaluated
once a year
e. constantly use self-talk while competing to refresh your memory
of your goal
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14. According to Snyder, hope involves having a realistic goal and
a. having a very difficult goal
*b. being able to reach the goal
c. having a high level of concentration
d. having a low level of anxiety
e. having the self-talk to support it
15. Which of the following is (are) a common problem(s) when setting
goals?
a. setting too few goals
b. failing to adjust goals
c. failing to recognize individual differences
*d. b and c
16. A formal assessment of an athlete's current ability or needs is
a. part of the instructor's or leader's preparation stage of
implementing a goal-setting program
b. great for identifying what areas you think the athlete needs to
improve
c. part of the education and acquisition stage of implementing a
goal-setting program
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*d. a and b
17. When formulating a goal-setting program with a novice goal setter,
it is best to
a. help the person set multiple goals, such as skill goals,
concentration goals, and technique goals
*b. help the person select one goal from a list of multiple goals
she would like to pursue
c. let the person choose the top two goals from a list of possible
goals that you create for her
d. let the person decide on the type and number of goals to pursue
18. It is important to _____ throughout the entire goal-setting process.
a. provide feedback
b. provide support
c. provide encouragement
d. reevaluate goals
*e. all of the above
19. In developing a goal-setting program, it is important for
individuals to set
a. only performance goals
b. performance and process goals
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c. process and outcome goals
*d. process, performance, and outcome goals
e. performance and outcome goals
20. Which of the following is (are) useful for setting team goals?
a. establishing short-term goals first
b. monitoring progress toward team goals
c. fostering team confidence concerning team goals
*d. b and c
21. Which of the following is (are) true regarding goal-setting
practices of high school and collegiate coaches?
a. The most important part of goal commitment is goal specificity.
b. Coaches were consistent in writing down their goals.
*c. The only disadvantage noted was setting goals unrealistically
high.
d. a and b
e. a and c
22. "Chip a bucket of golf balls onto a practice green three days a
week" is an example of
a. a goal that is much too general to be effective
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b. a performance goal that is both specific and realistic
*c. a strategy for attaining the goal of "lower my handicap by
three strokes"
d. an inflexible strategy for attaining a goal because it leaves
no room for possible interruptions in your schedule
e. a and d
23. Simply telling an athlete to "do your best" is
a. fine for younger kids
b. effective when the sport is well learned
*c. not specific enough
d. effective for developing an athlete's commitment
24. In an attempt to build hope, Gould and colleagues created the Power
4W program. Which of the following is NOT one of the Power 4W
components?
a. want power
b. wish power
*c. wade power
d. will power
e. way power
25. Recent studies have indicated that goal setting has been applied to
which settings?
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*a. physical education; exercise
b. exercise; elite sport
c. exercise; youth sport
d. physical education; youth sports
e. youth sport; elite sport
26. In a recent study by Gano-Overway 2008, what type of athletes
performed the best under failure feedback?
a. ego-oriented
*b. task-oriented
c. relationship-oriented
d. competitive-oriented
e. autocratic-oriented
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1. Which of the following would NOT be classified as an internal
distracter?
a. attending to past events
b. attending to future events
c. overly analyzing body mechanics
*d. crowd noise
e. fatigue
2. Which of the following is NOT a key element included in most
definitions of concentration?
a. the ability to focus attention on the relevant cues
b. maintaining attentional focus for the duration of the
competition
*c. the ability to narrow attentional focus in all situations
d. having the proper attentional focus depending on the situation
3. High scores on the BIT subscale of Nideffer's TAIS indicate
a. an ability to effectively integrate many external stimuli
simultaneously
*b. an ability to effectively integrate several ideas at one time
c. a tendency to become confused and overloaded with external
stimuli
d. chronically narrowed attention
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e. an ability to effectively narrow attention when it is
appropriate
4. An athlete who is losing in a tennis match might tell her opponent
that she is "really following through on her serve nicely." From an
attentional perspective, this is a ploy to have the opponent
a. feel good about herself
*b. start to focus and think too much about her serve
c. lose her intensity
d. use negative self-talk
5. The narrowing and internal focus associated with choking can result
in
a. impaired timing
b. increased coordination
c. poor judgment and decision making
*d. a and c
e. a and b
6. According to the text, "choking" should be defined as
a. a bad performance at a critical time of competition
*b. a process that leads to impaired performance
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c. making a mistake that costs you or your team a victory
d. making a mistake that is emotionally important to an athlete
7. According to a summary of 25 years of research on association and
dissociation,
a. dissociative strategies are associated with running fast more
than associative strategies
b. practice runners prefer association; competitive runners prefer
dissociation
*c. dissociation can reduce the fatigue and monotony of training
or recreational runs
d. a and c
e. b and c
8. Athletes with a preference for a broad-external focus
a. are seldom distracted by an audience
b. rarely try too hard to please others
*c. seem to notice everything that is happening around them
d. are well prepared to act as a coach or informal leader
e. b and c
9. "Cue" words are often effective because
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a. they can help trigger a particular response
b. they can be motivational or emotionally stimulating
c. they broaden attentional focus
*d. a and b
e. b and c
10. Future-oriented thinking (attending to events in the future)
*a. is common among younger athletes
b. involves seeing a past mistake while focusing on the present
c. often takes the form of "what about me" statements
d. a and c
11. "No-look" passes in basketball are accomplished by using
a. a narrow-internal attentional focus
*b. advanced cues to predict teammates' future movements
c. several different types of attentional strategies
d. a narrow-external attentional focus
12. Research investigating differences between experts and novices
concludes that these differences are in large part due to experts'
ability to
a. attend more to advance information to make faster decisions
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b. predict the flight pattern of a ball
c. use "tunnel vision"
*d. a and b
13. Top athletes seem to be able to do just the right thing at just the
right time. From an attentional perspective, research has shown that
this is mostly due to their ability to
*a. analyze situations more quickly and use more anticipatory cues
b. use a narrow-external focus
c. use a broad-external focus
d. use a narrow-internal focus
e. analyze situations by using imagery and positive self-talk
14. If a pole-vaulter shifts attention from imagining the approach to
the pit to focusing on actually seeing the runway, his attentional focus
has changed from _____ to _____.
a. narrow-external; narrow-internal
b. narrow-internal; broad-external
c. broad-internal; narrow-external
d. broad-external; narrow-external
*e. narrow-internal; narrow-external
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15. If a golfer shifts attention just before a tee shot, from the length
of the fairway and the direction of the wind to focusing only on the
ball, her attention has shifted from _____ to _____.
a. broad-internal; narrow-external
b. broad-internal; narrow-internal
c. broad-external; narrow-internal
*d. broad-external; narrow-external
16. An example of Nideffer's broad-external type of attentional focus is
*a. a basketball point guard's rapidly assessing the positioning
of the defense while on a fast break
b. a coach's analyzing the game plan prior to the start of the
competition
c. a baseball pitcher's focusing on the catcher's mitt just before
beginning his pitch
d. a wrestler's practicing mental imagery on the bus ride to a
meet
e. a basketball player's sighting the rim while on the free-throw
line
17. Which of the following best represents William James' classic
description of attention?
a. It involves the ability to pay attention to several things at
once.
*b. It implies withdrawal from some things in order to deal
effectively with others.
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c. It involves components of both width and direction.
d. It involves the components of both internality and stability.
18. Entirely focusing on body mechanics and movements
a. usually helps perform a skill during competition
b. may be inappropriate once a skill becomes automatic
c. may be detrimental to performance because the mind gets in the
way of the body
d. a and b
*e. b and c
19. Using a trigger word to stop negative self-statements is called
*a. thought stopping
b. attentional narrowing
c. external attentional focus
d. peripheral narrowing
e. tunnel vision
20. Tennis and baseball players are able to successfully hit balls
traveling toward them at high speeds because
a. they have learned to watch the ball hit their racket (or bat)
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*b. they have learned to predict the flight of the ball by using
advanced attentional cues
c. they have learned to use a narrow-external focus
d. they have learned to rapidly shift their attentional focus
e. they have learned to use a broad-external focus
21. From an attentional perspective, overlearning of skills
*a. makes the skills more automatic, thus requiring less attention
b. allows for attentional selectivity
c. produces higher amounts of internal attentional control
d. allows for higher amounts of external attentional control
22. Developing competitive plans should focus on what type of goals?
a. outcome goals
b. technical goals
c. performance goals
*d. process goals
e. product goals
23. In preparing for a major competition, many elite athletes structure
training to put themselves under the same sort of pressure encountered
during the actual competition. This is an example of
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a. mental rehearsal
b. precompetitive routines
c. precompetitive plans
*d. simulation training
e. cognitive-behavioral interventions
24. In a study on figure skaters, self-monitoring helped skaters to
become
*a. more task focused
b. more process oriented
c. more determined
d. more willing to listen to coaches
25. Psychophysiological research on attentional processes in archers and
pistol shooters has revealed that accuracy is increased when performers'
brain waves are in which frequency?
a. beta
*b. alpha
c. delta
d. gamma
e. creatine
26. According to Nideffer, effective attenders indicate that they can
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a. deal well with a multitude of stimuli from both external and
internal sources
b. effectively switch their attention from broad to narrow focus
when necessary
c. attend to many stimuli (both internally and externally) while
often becoming overloaded with too much information
*d. a and b
e. a and c
27. Which of the following is NOT a subscale of the Test of Attentional
and Interpersonal Style (TAIS)?
a. external overload
b. reduced focus
c. broad-internal
d. internal overload
*e. broad-narrow
28. Just before shooting, elite pistol shooters display
a. increased galvanic skin responses
b. cardiac acceleration
*c. cardiac deceleration
d. acceleration of the autonomic nervous system
e. reduced blood pressure
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29. According to the new theories of multiple resource pools,
attentional capacity is
a. centralized
*b. distributed throughout the nervous system
c. broad in nature
d. narrow in nature
e. sequential
30. Individuals with a good ability to concentrate, scan, and store
relevant cues are likely to score _____ on a concentration block grid in
1 minute.
*a. in the upper 20s to low 30s
b. in the low 20s
c. somewhere between 45 and 50
d. at least as high as an elite athlete can score in 30 seconds
e. in the upper 60s
31. Why would you want to have a friend wave his arms around you while
you are focusing on a basketball?
a. to assist you in shifting your attention from the ball to the
waving arms
b. to help you in your search for irrelevant cues
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*c. to force you to maintain concentration on the ball
d. a and c
32. Results from the study of self-talk among junior tennis players (Van
Raalte et al., 1994) revealed that
*a. there was more negative self-talk than positive self-talk
b. most of the self-talk was instructional in nature
c. there was a strong relationship between audible, positive selftalk and performance
d. a and b
e. a and c
33. According to recent research, instructional self-talk is best on
what type of tasks?
a. strength
b. endurance
*c. accuracy
d. balance
e. strength and endurance
34. Telling yourself to focus is probably best defined as
a. establishing a routine to be used primarily during "down" times
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b. a method to keep attention focused through the use of eye
control
*c. a cue word for bringing you back into a present focus
d. an exercise that enables you to practice shifting attentional
focus
e. the opposite of "stop!" as an attention-focusing tool
35. Ironic processes in sport refers to
a. ironically performing movement
*b. the idea that trying not to perform an action can trigger its
occurrence accidentally
c. doing something an athlete is not trained to do
d. performing well even with little experience
36. A response to either good or bad performances that causes a
personal, ego-involved reaction during competition is known as
*a. judgmental thinking
b. nonjudgmental thinking
c. ego thought
d. paralysis by analysis
37. To improve concentration, an athlete should
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a. practice without distractions present
b. establish routines
c. practice eye control
*d. b and c
38. Which of the following is (are) a major process(es) involved in
explaining the attention-performance relationship?
a. attentional selectivity
b. attentional capacity
c. attentional reciprocity
d. a and c
*e. a and b
39. Most theories investigating the role of attention in performance
have used what type of approach?
*a. information-processing
b. attentional control
c. conscious control process
d. attentional-arousal
e. limited-capacity
40. The concept of attentional alertness operates under the assumption
that increases in arousal
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*a. narrows attention
b. broadens attention
c. enhances attention
d. disrupts attention
41. Research has indicated that paying attention to step-by-step
instructions is most helpful
a. for elite performers
*b. for new learners
c. for closed skills
d. for open skills
e. continuous skills
42. Which of the following is (are) a principle(s) of effective
concentration?
a. A focused state of mind requires intentional mental effort.
b. Athletes can consciously focus on more than one thought at a
time.
c. During peak performance there is no difference between an
athlete's thoughts and actions.
*d. a and c
e. b and c
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43. The risk of trying to maintain concentration throughout a
competition is
*a. losing concentration due to fatigue
b. too many thoughts
c. attentional selectivity
d. past-oriented thinking
e. future-oriented thinking
44. Controlled processing is mental processing that requires
a. selective attention
*b. conscious attention
c. no attention
d. external attention
e. internal attention
45. Skilled performers should focus on
a. internal factors
*b. external factors
c. body mechanics
d. intrinsic cues
e. mental representations of the skill
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46. Inattentional blindness means
*a. narrowing attentional focus resulting in missing important
cues
b. being too broad in attention and missing internal cues
c. becoming blind to cues due to listening to other players
d. not having sufficient motivation, resulting in inappropriate
focus
e. having an external focus thus becoming blind to internal cues
47. In a recent study by Jordet and Harman (2008) on choking in soccer,
they found that a player was more likely to choke (miss a shot) in a
shootout when
a. a goal would win the game
b. the coach talked to the player before shooting
*c. a goal would tie the game
d. other players talked to the player prior to the shot
e. the player had not scored at all (goal or assist) during the
game
48. In a recent study by Gucciardi and Dimmock (2008), choking was found
to be best explained by the
a. Attention Threshold Hypothesis
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b. Attentional Demand Hypothesis
c. Attentional Capacity Hypothesis
*d. Conscious Processing Hypothesis
e. Reversal Theory
49. Which of the following is (are) true regarding self-talk and
different cultures?
a. positive self-talk is related to better performance in East
Asians
b. East Asians had a higher percentage of negative to positive
self-talk than did European Americans
c. negative self-talk is related to poorer performance in European
Americans
*d. b and c
e. a and b
50. "Maybe the nature, content, and delivery of self-talk may not be as
important as the individual interpretation of that self-talk." This
quote underscores the notion of
a. task specificity
b. attentional control
c. instructional self-talk
d. motivational self-talk
*e. individual differences
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51. According to a recent study relating anxiety and attention regarding
the "quiet eye", it was found that
a. increased anxiety resulted in a longer duration of "quiet eye"
*b. increased anxiety resulted in shorter duration of "quiet eye"
c. anxiety and duration of "quiet eye" were not related
d. increased anxiety produced differences in "quiet eye" for males
and females
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1. Research findings indicate that exercise is associated with
a. increases in energy and alertness
b. changing a bad mood
c. increases in fatigue and anger
*d. a and b
e. a and c
2. Research out of Germany on the "runner's high" has recently revealed
*a. endorphins were produced by the brain during running
b. no specific chemical effects associated with the "runner's
high"
c. a runner needs to run at least 30 minutes to experience the
"runner's high"
d. the "runner's high" is experienced more by females than males
e. the "runner's high" is only experienced by people under 50
years of age
3. The nature of the conclusions from the National Institute of Mental
Health regarding exercise and mental health was
a. causal
*b. correlational
c. descriptive
d. qualitative
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e. quantitative
4. Which of the following statements was (were) a conclusion(s) derived
from the National Institute of Mental Health workshop on physical
activity and mental health?
a. Physical fitness is positively associated with mental health.
b. Males benefit more from exercise than females.
c. Long-term exercise is usually associated with reductions in
traits such as neuroticism and anxiety.
d. a and b
*e. a and c
5. Research investigating the relationship between exercise and quality
of life has revealed that
a. older adults who exercise report greater life satisfaction and
physical health
b. physically active individuals report more stamina and positive
attitudes about work
c. there were no differences in reported quality of life between
college students who participated in an endurance conditioning
program and a comparable control group
*d. a and b
6. According to research studies, the "runner's high" is experienced by
approximately what percentage of runners?
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a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
*e. Results are inconsistent.
7. The relationship between exercise and hardiness has recently been
investigated. A hardy personality style is characterized by
a. a sense of personal control over external events
b. a sense of commitment and purpose in daily life
c. the flexibility to adapt to unexpected changes in life
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
8. The feelings characterizing the "runner's high" are similar to the
concept of
a. beta waves
*b. flow
c. transcendental meditation
d. peripheral narrowing
e. overtraining
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9. Which of the following regarding the relationship between exercise
and depression is (are) true?
a. The positive effects are seen across age, health status, and
gender.
b. Both aerobic exercise and anaerobic exercise are associated
with reductions in depression.
c. Reductions in depression after exercise depend on fitness
levels.
*d. a and b
e. a and c
10. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. Aerobic exercise is associated with less consistent reductions
in state anxiety than anaerobic exercise is.
b. The anxiety reduction after exercise occurs only during
intensity exercise.
*c. Activities such as weightlifting and yoga have been found to
be associated with positive psychological well-being.
d. a and c
e. a and b
11. Researchers have found that exercise usually reduces state anxiety
for approximately
a. 36 hours
b. 30 minutes
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c. 12 hours
*d. 2 to 6 hours
e. 8 to 10 hours
12. Which of the following conditions is generally not related to
positive changes in mood?
a. closed and predictable activities
b. enjoyment
c. rhythmic and repetitive movements
d. abdominal breathing
*e. interpersonal competition
13. Various research studies have indicated that regular physical
activity is associated with
a. positive mental health
b. frequent symptoms of anxiety and depression
c. reduced probability of hypertension and coronary heart disease
d. a and b
*e. a and c
14. Aerobic exercise refers to physical activity that
a. is less than 10 minutes in duration
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b. does not use oxygen
*c. increases pulmonary and cardiovascular fitness
d. a and c
e. b and c
15. The primary measure of mood in sport and exercise is the
*a. Profile of Mood States
b. Positive Affect-Negative Affect Scale
c. mood alteration scale
d. affective checklist
e. Cognitive-Affective Profile
16. Exercise is related to increased quality of life as measured by
a. increased feelings of enjoyment
b. decreased feelings of stress
c. decreased levels of self-confidence
*d. a and b
17. Some new research on the relationship between exercise and
psychological well-being among HIV-1 populations showed that
a. anaerobic exercise produced the most positive psychological
benefits
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*b. both aerobic and weight-training exercise produced positive
psychological benefits
c. aerobic exercise had no effect on psychological well-being
d. a and c
e. a and b
18. A recent study has investigated the relationship between exercise
and multiple sclerosis (MS). Results indicated that exercise produced
a. less pain and fatigue
b. poorer sexual functioning
c. higher levels of energy and vigor
d. a and b
*e. a and c
19. If exercise is used as an adjunct to traditional therapy, then which
of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Anaerobic activities appear to produce the most positive
psychological effects.
*b. A precise diagnosis of the problem and individually tailored
program of exercise should be employed.
c. Exercise therapy can be used for both underweight and obese
patients.
d. a and b
e. b and c
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20. The results of studies investigating the relationship of exercise
and changes in self-concept have been inconsistent. The main reason for
this is that
*a. self-concept is a multidimensional construct
b. there were not enough subjects in the studies
c. self-concept cannot be measured through paper-and-pencil tests
d. a and c
e. a and b
21. The "runner's high" has been described as
a. complete joy in the run
b. a very alert mind
c. freedom from worry and guilt
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
22. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the relationship
between exercise and self-esteem?
a. Positive changes have been found only with individuals
initially lower in self-esteem.
b. Positive changes in self-esteem through exercise last only one
to two months.
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*c. Positive changes in self-esteem related to exercise have been
found in normal populations.
d. a and b
e. b and c
23. According to Ismail and Young's study on the effects of a fitness
program on middle-aged men, exercise
a. improves fitness levels
b. increases self-confidence
c. increases anxiety
*d. a and b
24. A negative addiction to exercise can result in
a. increased sexual functioning
b. strains on interpersonal relationships
c. decrease in work productivity
*d. b and c
e. a and c
25. The term "positive addiction to exercise" was coined by
a. Gould
b. Burke
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c. Morgan
*d. Glasser
e. Bahrke
26. If a person feels withdrawal symptoms after 24 to 36 hours without
exercise, then the individual is considered
a. positively addicted to exercise
*b. negatively addicted to exercise
c. neurotic
d. psychotic
27. Which of the following psychological explanations has NOT been put
forth to help describe the positive relationship between exercise and
psychological well-being?
a. enhanced feelings of control
b. "time-out"
*c. positive changes in personality
d. positive social interactions
e. feelings of competency
28. Which of the following physiological explanations has NOT been put
forth to help describe the positive relationship between exercise and
psychological well-being?
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a. increases in cerebral blood flow
b. reductions in muscle tension
c. structural changes in the brain
d. increases in endorphins
*e. decreased maximal oxygen consumption to the tissues
29. What conclusion have researchers reached concerning the effects of
exercise on cognitive functioning?
a. Intense exercise bouts enhance cognitive functioning more than
easy exercise bouts.
b. Overall, there is a moderate relationship between exercise and
improved cognitive functioning.
c. Exercise programs conducted over longer periods are associated
with gains in cognitive functioning.
*d. b and c
e. a and b
30. Which illness or disease is predicted to be the second-leading cause
of death after heart disease by 2020?
a. anxiety neurosis
*b. depression
c. skin cancer
d. abdominal cancer
e. pancreatic cancer
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31. Depression is seen most in
a. older adults
*b. girls and women
c. boys and men
d. African American males
e. African American females
32. Recent research on the relationship between cardiovascular fitness
and cognitive functioning indicates that
*a. the effects were largest on tasks involving executive control
b. the effects occur more in males than in females
c. the effects were largest after exercise training exceeded 60
minutes
d. a and b
33. Research on the use of mirrors during exercise for women indicates
a. no mirrors should be used regardless of previous exercise
levels
*b. mirrors should not be used when women have been sedentary
c. there should be at least two mirrors during exercise classes
d. there should be only one mirror used during exercise classes
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34. The effect of exercise on cancer indicates
a. exercise can cause breast cancer to disappear
b. exercise can be beneficial for breast cancer patients
c. exercise can be beneficial to non-breast cancer patients
d. a and b
*e. b and c
35. Recent research on depression and extracurricular organized sport
activities has found that
a. females in extracurricular sport activities exhibited less
depression than those not involved in extracurricular sport
activities
b. there was no difference in depression for young athletes who
participated or had not participated in extracurricular sport
activities
*c. males participating in extracurricular sport activities
exhibited less depression than those not participating in
extracurricular sport activities
d. a and c
36. In a study investigating the effects of winning and losing on
psychological factors, 4-6 days after a regular season competition,
results indicated that winners (when compared to losers) exhibited
a. higher somatic anxiety
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b. lower levels of depression
c. lower levels of anger
*d. a and c
37. Although no empirical research has been conducted to date, Pilates
(a popular form of exercise focusing on flexibility and balance) has
received anecdotal support to help improve quality of life for people
who have
a. HIV
b. pancreatic cancer
*c. Parkinson's
d. muscular dystrophy
e. congestive heart failure
38. A recent study has shown that acute exercise can improve cognitive
functioning in the form of working memory for people
a. over the age of 65
*b. who are low in working memory
c. who have I.Q.s under 100
d. under the age of 30
e. who use English as a second language
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1. The premise of the health belief model is that individuals will
engage in preventive health behaviors depending on the individual's
perception of the
*a. severity of past illnesses
b. time available to exercise
c. social support network
d. exercise history
2. According to the Surgeon General's report, individuals exercising at
______ or lower of their aerobic capacity had the best adherence rates.
a. 40%
*b. 50%
c. 20%
d. 60%
e. 70%
3. Which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?
a. Ten to fifteen percent of all adults participate in vigorous
and frequent physical activity.
b. Fifty percent of adults are sedentary.
c. Seventy-five percent of adults participate in exercise on a
weekly basis.
*d. a and b
e. a and c
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4. The two major categories of processes used by individuals for
behavior change are
a. cognitive and physiological
*b. cognitive and behavioral
c. social and physiological
d. behavioral and social
e. cognitive and social
5. In a large worksite promotion study by Marcus and colleagues, most
participants were classified in which stage of the transtheoretical
model?
a. action
b. action and reaction
c. preparation
d. precontemplation
*e. contemplation
6. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the transtheoretical model?
a. contemplation
b. precontemplation
*c. action and reaction
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d. preparation
e. action
7. The key elements in social cognitive theory are that the environment
affects behavior and behavior affects the environment. This is known as
a. reciprocal control
b. reciprocal interception
c. self-efficacy
*d. reciprocal determinism
e. perceived behavioral control
8. Which of the following styles is most likely to be taken by a
counselor using motivational interviewing?
a. being directive
b. being authoritative
c. being persuasive
d. being confrontational
*e. being a partner
9. In terms of environmental factors affecting adherence, which of the
following is (are) FALSE?
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a. People exercising in groups display higher adherence than
people exercising alone.
*b. People in walking programs have lower adherence than people in
running programs.
c. People who perceive their exercise leader as knowledgeable and
likable exhibit higher levels of adherence.
d. a and b
e. b and c
10. According to the Surgeon General's report, people exercising for
____ at a time had the best adherence rates.
*a. 20 to 30 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes
c. 30 to 40 minutes
d. 15 to 45 minutes
e. 30 to 45 minutes
11. In terms of affecting adherence, which of the following is (are)
true?
a. Overweight people are more likely to adhere to exercise
programs.
b. People with documented heart disease are less likely to adhere
to exercise programs.
*c. The higher the cost of the exercise program, the lower the
adherence.
d. b and c
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e. a and c
12. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Knowing the health benefits of physical activity enhances
adherence.
b. Feelings of enjoyment enhance adherence.
c. Expecting health benefits from exercise enhances adherence.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
13. Reasons for attrition from exercise programs can be classified as
*a. internal and controllable
b. external and controllable
c. internal and uncontrollable
d. external and uncontrollable
14. Studies have shown that in terms of barriers to exercise,
*a. there were no differences between whites and blacks
b. blacks gave lack of time more as a reason for not exercising
c. whites gave lack of time more as a reason for not exercising
d. blacks mentioned lack of energy more often as a barrier to
exercise
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e. whites mentioned lack of energy more often as a barrier to
exercise
15. Which of the following will have a positive effect on adherence to a
new exercise program?
*a. previous participation in supervised exercise programs
b. participation in intercollegiate sports
c. class size
d. b and c
e. a and b
16. According to research on adherence to exercise programs, what
percentage of individuals starting an exercise program will likely drop
out after six months?
*a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 10%
e. 65%
17. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. Exercise of moderate or short duration does not increase
appetite.
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b. Regular exercise can produce substantial decreases in weight
over time.
*c. An estimated 10 to 15 million American adults are overweight.
d. a and c
e. b and c
18. Exercise can be beneficial in which of the following ways?
a. weight control
b. building self-esteem
c. reducing the risk of hypertension
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
19. The theory of planned behavior extends the theory of reasoned action
by including the factor of
a. perceived ability
*b. perceived behavioral control
c. perceived barriers to exercise
d. exercise history
e. previous participation in varsity sport
20. Studies on social support as a strategy to help adherence have
indicated that
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*a. social support, compared to a lack of it in control groups,
produces increases in adherence
b. social support does not increase adherence
c. social support works only with support from spouses and family
d. social support works only with support from close friends
21. Which of the following is (are) recommended for school and community
programs promoting physical activity in young people?
a. Include parents in physical activity instruction.
b. Implement a health education curriculum about healthy
lifestyles.
c. Eliminate extracurricular activities since they distract from
the school's physical education instruction.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
22. The number one barrier to physical activity is
a. lack of energy
b. lack of motivation
c. injury or illness
*d. lack of time
e. lack of facilities
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23. Which of the following is NOT a criterion to evaluate theories of
health behaviors?
a. integration
b. utility
c. parsimony
d. impact
*e. performance
24. In a research study, exercise adherence in a walking program was
maximized when participants were called _______ to prompt them to walk.
*a. once a week
b. once a month
c. once every other week
d. every day
25. Research by Williams (2007; 2008) has indicated that to increase
adherence, obese people should be encouraged to
*a. choose self-paced activities that produce positive effects
b. exercise whenever they choose
c. exercise 3 days a week for 30 minutes each time
d. exercise every day for at least 10 minutes
e. exercise with a partner
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26. The three basic constructs in self-determination theory are
*a. relatedness, autonomy, effectance
b. relatedness, autonomy, sense of control
c. autonomy, sense of control, effectance
d. relatedness, self-efficacy, self-motivation
e. self-motivation, self-efficacy, autonomy
27. Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the
determinants of exercise adherence?
a. Higher income is associated with more active lifestyles.
b. College-educated individuals have lower participation rates in
exercise than those individuals with only a high school education.
c. High self-efficacy is associated with higher levels of physical
activity.
d. a and b
*e. a and c
28. Which of the following is NOT a guideline for setting up an exercise
program to enhance adherence?
*a. Exercise alone.
b. Make the exercise enjoyable.
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c. Reinforce early success.
d. a and c
e. b and c
29. The setting producing the best adherence is
a. worksite
*b. community
c. hospital based
d. home
e. fitness club
30. Which of the following statements is (are) true of the use of a
decision balance sheet?
a. It involves sensitizing potential exercise participants to the
positive and negative outcomes of participating in an exercise
program.
b. It helps exercise leaders make decisions on who will adhere to
an exercise program.
c. It helps exercise leaders make decisions concerning the best
activities for the exercisers.
*d. all of the above
e. none of the above
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31. Two ways to increase intrinsic motivation for exercise are to focus
on one's self and have what type of orientation?
a. product
b. outcome
*c. process
d. performance
32. According to research on association and dissociation strategies and
adherence,
a. dissociation produces better attendance than association does
b. association produces better attendance than dissociation does
c. dissociation produces better long-term maintenance than
association does
*d. a and c
e. b and c
33. According to research on goal setting and adherence,
a. flexible goals are better than rigid goals
b. time-based goals are better than distance-based goals
c. short-term goals (weekly) are better than long-term goals (six
weeks)
*d. a and c
e. a and b
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34. The goal most often given by exercisers was
a. to improve strength
b. to lose weight
*c. to improve cardiovascular fitness
d. to tone muscles
e. to have fun
35. Based on research findings, which of the following statements is
(are) true?
a. Attendance contracts and lotteries are successful in improving
adherence rates.
b. Individual feedback produces more adherence than group
feedback.
c. Self-reward decreases adherence rates.
d. b and c
*e. a and b
36. Which of the following findings using behavior modification
approaches to exercise adherence is (are) true?
a. A poster encouraging stair climbing instead of taking the
elevator immediately increased people's incidences of taking the
stairs from 6% to 34%.
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b. People willing to sign a statement of intent to comply with the
exercise program had significantly better attendance than those
refusing to sign such a statement.
c. Individuals given a choice concerning the activities they
participated in had higher levels of adherence than individuals
who were not given a choice.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
37. According to charting attendance and participation approaches,
charts can be important in
a. maintaining interest
b. keeping people constantly informed
c. enhancing the effects of social facilitation
*d. all of the above
e. a and b
38. Which of the following is NOT an approach used in enhancing exercise
adherence?
a. social support
b. decision making
c. behavior modification
d. goal setting
*e. association
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39. According to American College of Sports Medicine guidelines,
exercise should be
a. performed three or four days a week
b. performed for 45 minutes to 1 hour per exercise bout
c. performed at 50% to 80% of maximal heart rate
*d. a and c
40. For special populations, which of the following is NOT a major
reason for not exercising?
a. inconvenience
b. lack of motivation
c. lack of money
*d. lack of opportunity
e. lack of time
41. Exercise adherence has been difficult in part because of exercise
prescriptions that
a. are too flexible in intensity, frequency, and duration
b. are overly restrictive (do not enhance motivation)
c. are based solely on fitness data (not psychological readiness
to exercise)
*d. b and c
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e. a and c
42. To prevent a relapse in physical activity, it is suggested that a
person
a. use positive self-talk and imagery strategies
b. replace "wants" with "shoulds"
c. expect and plan for lapses
*d. a and c
e. a and b
43. As a person moves through the stages of changes, reasons for
exercise become more
a. external
*b. internal
c. hypothetical
d. behavioral
e. stable
44. According to the ecological model, the key aspect of these models is
a. the social environment
*b. the physical environment
c. one's emotional environment
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d. one's mental outlook on the environment
45. Americans spent much more money on exercise equipment between 1986
and 1996. As a result, the amount of physical activity during that
period has increased
a. 5%
b. 10%
*c. 2%
d. 15%
e. 23%
46. In order to facilitate adherence to mental training, it is suggested
that
a. mental skills be integrated into existing routines
b. enjoyment of mental training be emphasized
c. the perceived costs (e.g., time) of mental training be
increased
*d. a and b
e. e. and c
47. Irregular exercisers, compared to regular exercisers, place more
significance on
a. goals that are more difficult
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b. goals that are too easy
*c. goals that are interfering
d. goals that are specific
e. goals that are general
48. A study by Williams et al. (2006) on the relationship between
enjoyment and adherence to individually-tailored physical activity found
a. greater adherence when participants got to choose enjoyable
activities
*b. the greater the enjoyment at the start of the program, the
greater the adherence
c. enjoyment did not influence adherence to physical activity
d. the greater the enjoyment at the end of the program, the
greater the adherence
49. A recent study by Netz et al. (2008) focusing on age and gender
differences in adherence found
a. males gave more internal reasons (e.g., lack of selfdiscipline) for not exercising than females
b. young adults gave more reasons for not exercising than older
adults
*c. older adults had more internal barriers to not exercising than
younger adults
d. a and c
e. b an c
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50. According to recent studies, which of the following is (are) FALSE?
*a. self-efficacy predicts exercise behavior for type I but not
type II diabetes
b. social support was the best predictor of physical activity in
inner-city African American youth
c. the best predictor of whether an individual would resume
exercise is recovery self-efficacy
d. a and c
e. a and b
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1. Based on research by Petitpas and Danish, which of the following is
(are) a psychological reaction(s) associated with injury?
a. identity loss
b. lack of confidence
c. fear and anxiety
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
2. Which of the following has research shown to be predictive of
athletic injury?
a. personality
b. self-esteem
*c. life stress
d. independence
e. self-concept
3. In a study by Smith, Smoll, and Ptacek examining the relationship
between life stress, social support, coping skills, and injury, the
researchers found that
a. athletes with high levels of life stress had the highest injury
rates
*b. athletes with high levels of life stress and low levels of
social support and coping exhibited the highest injury rates
c. athletes with low levels of social support, high levels of life
stress, and high coping skills exhibited the highest injury rates
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d. athletes with high levels of life stress and high levels of
social support exhibited the highest injury rates
e. there was no relationship between life stress, social support,
coping skills, and injury rates
4. Which of the following is (are) a potential explanation(s) for the
relationship between stress and injury?
a. Stress disrupts an athlete's attention by causing a decline in
peripheral vision.
b. Stress causes muscle tension, which disrupts coordination.
c. Stress causes loss in confidence, which changes movement
patterns.
*d. a and b
5. Which type(s) of attitudes have consultants identified as being
related to injury?
a. Act tough and always give 110%.
b. If you are injured, you are worthless.
c. Pressure is a privilege.
*d. a and b
e. a and c
6. In a study by Gould and colleagues (1997), the greatest sources of
stress for individuals rehabilitating from injury were
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a. psychological and physical
*b. psychological and social
c. physical and social
d. physical and emotional
e. emotional and behavioral
7. Which of the following is (are) a typical reaction(s) to injury?
a. Injury is viewed as a disaster.
b. Injury is viewed as a way to get a break from tedious practice.
c. Injury is viewed as a socially acceptable reason for not
playing.
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
8. Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of grief
reaction?
a. denial
b. depression
c. anger
*d. rationalization
e. bargaining
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9. Which is the first stage of the grief reaction response?
a. anger
b. acceptance and reorganization
c. rationalization
d. depression
*e. denial
10. Which of the following factors influence(s) the stress response,
which in turn influences the probability of injury?
a. coping resources
b. personality
c. ability level
d. a and c
*e. a and b
11. How many children and adults are estimated to be injured in sport,
exercise, and recreational settings each year?
a. 9 to 10 million
*b. 3 to 4 million
c. 1 to 2 million
d. 6 to 7 million
e. 600,000 to 800,000
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12. From a study of injured elite skiers, which of the following was NOT
a recommendation to coaches for helping athletes cope with season-ending
injuries and for facilitating rehabilitation?
*a. Motivate by pushing the athlete hard to improve.
b. Provide positive empathy and support.
c. Provide for lots of coach-athlete contact and involvement.
d. Have realistic expectations.
e. Understand individual differences.
13. Which of the following is (are) a guideline(s) for providing social
support for injury recovery?
a. Need is greatest when the rehabilitation process is fastest.
b. Family and friends provide information support, whereas coaches
provide emotional support.
*c. Social support that athletes need varies across the
rehabilitation phases.
d. a and b
e. b and c
14. According to Cupal and Brewer's (2001) study on effects of imagery
and relaxation on recovery from injury, relaxation plus imagery versus a
control or placebo control condition produced
a. less reinjury anxiety
b. greater knee strength
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c. no change in pain
d. a and c
*e. a and b
15. The three phases of injury recovery as expressed in the model by
Bianco, Malo, and Orlick (1999) include which of the following?
a. injury or illness phase
b. injury and pain management phase
c. rehabilitation and recovery phase
d. a and b
*e. a and c
16. A variety of studies investigated the effects of psychological
training on adherence to injury rehabilitation protocols. Which of the
following psychological factors was (were) found to be related to
rehabilitation adherence?
a. self-motivation
b. positive self-talk
c. attentional control
*d. a and b
17. Which of the following has NOT been identified as a sign of
potential problematic adjustment to athletic injury?
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a. rapid mood swings
b. withdrawal from significant others
*c. high levels of anxiety
d. feelings of anger and confusion
e. exaggerated bragging about accomplishments
18. In interviews with fast- and slow-healing athletes, Ievleva and
Orlick found that fast healers used more
a. goal setting
b. positive self-talk
c. relaxation
*d. a and b
19. Which of the following characteristics was (were) identified by
athletic trainers as a way to distinguish between athletes who coped
most and least successfully with injury?
a. willingness to listen to the trainer
b. maintaining a positive attitude about injury
c. low life stress
*d. a and b
20. Which of the following is NOT one of the procedures used in the
rehabilitation process?
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a. educating individuals relative to the injury and recovery
process
b. fostering social support
*c. being overly optimistic
d. building rapport with the injured individual
e. preparing the individual to cope with setbacks
21. According to Hardy and Crace, social support may take the form of
a. emotional support
b. informational support
c. qualitative support
*d. a and b
22. Which of the following is (are) a psychological skill(s) employed
during the rehabilitation process?
a. goal setting
b. self-talk
c. simulation
*d. a and b
e. a and c
23. Building rapport with an injured athlete can be accomplished by
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a. being there
b. showing empathy
c. being overly optimistic
*d. a and b
24. From a study of injured elite skiers, which of the following was NOT
a recommendation to other athletes for coping with season-ending
injuries and facilitating rehabilitation?
a. Set goals.
b. Use imagery.
*c. Focus on quantity training.
d. Use social resources.
e. Work on mental skills training.
25. Research by Perna and colleagues has shown that high levels of
stress can affect the physiology of injury recovery by
a. causing a disturbance in sleep
b. interfering with the removal of damaged tissue
c. interfering with the body's healing process
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
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26. Research by Perna and colleagues using cognitive-behavioral stress
management on rowers found
*a. a decrease in days lost due to injury over the season
b. fewer rowers got injured throughout the season
c. there was no effect on days lost due to injury over the season
d. injury actually increased in rowers across the season
27. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. over 25 million people are injured each year in the U.S.
participating in sport, exercise, and recreation settings
b. there are approximately 3.7 million emergency room sport injury
visits each year
c. Swedish data indicate that approximately 75% of elite Swedish
soccer players get injured each season
*d. approximately 10 million children under the age of 14
experience an injury each season
e. a and d
28. The stress-injury model explains physical injuries but may also be
used to explain
a. physical performance
*b. physical illness
c. physical fitness
d. burnout
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e. overtraining
29. Stress management has been shown to be particularly effective in
reducing injuries for individuals who are
a. high in perfectionism
*b. high in risk of becoming injured
c. low in hardiness
d. high in state anxiety
e. low in hope
30. Imagery has been used in injury rehabilitation in which of the
following ways?
a. setting of goals
b. relaxation
c. maintaining a positive attitude
*d. all of the above
e. b and c
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1. Which of the following is not a factor predisposing athletes to
eating disorders?
a. weight restrictions and standards
*b. parental pressure
c. performance demands
d. critical comments about body shape and weight
e. coach and peer pressure
2. The two most abused substances in the United States are
a. stimulants and anabolic steroids
b. marijuana and alcohol
*c. alcohol and tobacco
d. beta-blockers and stimulants
e. anabolic steroids and beta-blockers
3. Substance abuse and eating disorders in athletes should be treated by
a. an educational sport psychologist
*b. a clinical sport psychologist
c. a social worker
d. an educational counseling psychologist
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4. What percentage of athletes said they would take a performanceenhancing substance, even if it meant they would die from the side
effects, if the substance guaranteed winning every competition for the
next five years?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
*d. 60%
e. 5%
5. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-IV)
states that one of the criteria for psychoactive substance abuse is that
the disturbance has persisted for at least
a. six months
b. two weeks
*c. one month
d. three months
e. one week
6. Garner and Rosen recommend that if a coach suspects an athlete has an
eating disorder, the coach should
a. immediately discuss her concerns with the parents
b. drop the athlete from the team until the condition is resolved
*c. discuss her concerns with the athlete in a private meeting
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d. go to the athlete's teammates to find out what's going on
7. Research suggests that people are less likely to take drugs if they
have
a. a low level of anxiety
*b. high self-esteem
c. a low level of aggression
d. a highly competitive nature
8. Unusual eating patterns are often one of the best indicators of an
eating disorder. If a person hides food and disappears after eating,
this can be a sign of
*a. bulimia
b. anorexia nervosa
c. anorexia nervosa and bulimia
d. psychological depression
e. c and d
9. Which of the following is (are) true?
a. About 25% of high school athletes take performance-enhancing
drugs.
*b. Close to 50% of elite athletes report steroid use.
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c. Athletes report that approximately 80% of their teammates are
using steroids.
d. a and b
e. b and c
10. Which of the following is (are) true regarding the prevalence of
eating disorders in sport?
a. There are no differences in frequency of eating disorders
between athlete and nonathlete populations.
b. Eating disorders in athletics tend to be sport specific.
c. A significant percentage of athletes engage in some type of
weight loss behavior.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
11. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders (DSM-IV), which of the following is (are) characteristic of
bulimia?
a. recurrent episodes of binge eating in a discrete period of time
b. a minimum average of four binge-eating episodes a week for at
least six months
c. a feeling of lack of control over eating behavior during eating
binges
*d. a and c
e. a and b
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12. The most prevalent form of eating problems is
a. anorexia
b. bulimia
*c. disordered eating
d. anorexbulimia
e. secondary anorexia
13. According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental
Disorders (DSM-IV), which of the following is (are) characteristic of
anorexia nervosa?
a. refusal to maintain minimal body weight (15% below normal)
b. intense fear of weight loss
c. disturbed body image
*d. a and c
e. b and c
14. According to Thompson, eating disorders are likely to appear in
individuals with
a. low self-esteem
b. high stress levels related to pleasing others
c. high levels of aggression
*d. a and b
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15. Which of the following is (are) characteristic of bulimia?
a. Eating behavior results in significant weight loss.
b. Eating behavior is excessive in an effort to feel better.
c. Feelings of guilt from eating result in purging.
*d. b and c
16. Thompson and Garner and Rosen list some dos and don'ts for dealing
with eating disorders. Which of the following are don'ts?
a. Get help and advice from a specialist.
b. Emphasize the importance of good long-term nutrition.
c. Recommend weight loss in order to improve performance.
d. Hold team weigh-ins.
*e. c and d
17. Which of the following is NOT an approach or technique to detect and
combat drug use?
a. family systems approach
b. educational approaches
c. cognitive techniques
d. behavioral techniques
*e. psychophysiological techniques
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18. In general, what percentage of collegiate athletes (football and
basketball players) engage in some form of gambling?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 40%
d. 50%
*e. 75%
19. Which of the following is (are) true?
*a. About 2% of the population are compulsive gamblers.
b. About 15% of the population are problem gamblers.
c. About 15% of college students are compulsive gamblers.
d. a and c
e. a and b
20. Which of the following is (are) a characteristic(s) of compulsive
gamblers?
a. boastfulness
b. pessimism
c. extreme competitiveness
d. a and b
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*e. a and c
21. Which of the following is (are) a technique(s) to reduce the
probability of becoming negatively addicted to exercise?
a. working out regularly with a faster partner
b. keeping the intensity of exercise high to maximize benefits
*c. setting realistic short- and long-term goals
d. a and c
e. b and c
22. Which of the following is (are) a symptom(s) of a person who is
negatively addicted to exercise?
a. decreased tolerance to the amount of exercise performed
b. exercise is given increased priority over other activities
c. relief or withdrawal of symptoms by continuing to exercise
*d. a and b
23. If we look at high school and college athletes' use of steroids,
certain gender differences appear. For instance,
a. females use steroids twice as often as males
b. males use steroids 10 times as often as females
*c. males use steroids 3 to 5 times as often as females
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d. females use steroids twice as often as males but only in
individual sports
e. females use steroids twice as often as males but only in team
sports
24. Educating athletes and exercisers about the harmful effects of drug
use usually deters what percentage of people from using drugs?
*a. 5%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
e. 50%
25. The most common physical reason for athletes to use drugs is
*a. for performance enhancement
b. to help recovery from injury
c. to control appetite
d. to look better
e. to feel better
26. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of people who are
substance abusers?
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a. major change in personality
b. poor hygiene and grooming
*c. very little sweating
d. impaired judgment
e. muscle twitches
27. Which of the following is (are) NOT a good way(s) to detect drug use
and abuse?
a. drug testing
*b. searching the athletes' lockers on a random basis
c. observation
d. listening
e. a and d
28. When discussing the effects of anabolic steroids with athletes,
coaches should
a. discuss the health risks involved in taking anabolic steroids
b. deemphasize the performance gains of anabolic steroids
c. inform the athletes of the policy of the organization in cases
of drug use
*d. a and c
29. Which of the following is the most common recreational drug?
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a. marijuana
*b. alcohol
c. tobacco
d. cocaine
e. amphetamines
30. Which of the following is NOT common among the side effects of
ingesting anabolic steroids?
a. increased risk of liver disease
b. increased aggression
c. loss of coordination
d. premature heart disease
*e. increased optimism
31. An effect of stimulants on performance is
a. reduced pain
*b. reduced fatigue
c. increased strength
d. steadier nerves
e. increased muscle endurance
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32. The major categories of drugs in sport and exercise are performanceenhancing and recreational drugs. Performance-enhancing drugs include
a. anabolic steroids
b. beta-blockers
c. cocaine
*d. a and b
33. Which of the following is (are) a psychological reason(s) for
athletes to use drugs?
a. build confidence
b. reduce anxiety
c. increase extroversion
*d. a and b
e. a and c
34. Which of the following is (are) NOT among guidelines for preventing
eating disorders in athletes and exercisers?
a. promote proper nutritional practices
*b. focus on body weight to prevent overeating
c. be sensitive to weight issues
d. use a cognitive dissonance intervention
e. a and c
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35. According to research, about what percentage of men desire to change
their physique?
a. 20%
*b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 70%
e. 5%
36. Which of the following personality traits is (are) related to eating
disorders in athletes?
a. submissiveness
b. shyness
c. conformity
d. a and b
*e. a and c
37. Which of the following major professional sports does NOT have a
mandatory drug policy?
a. baseball
b. basketball
*c. hockey
d. football
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38. The rate of steroid use in high schools has increased from 1 in 27
in 1999 to what in 2003?
a. 1 in 10
*b. 1 in 16
c. 1 in 20
d. 1 in 7
e. 1 in 22
39. What percentage of high school girls admit to using steroids at
least once?
*a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
e. 25%
40. A recent decision-making model for drug use in sports has the three
components of costs, benefits, and
a. personality factors
*b. situational factors
c. specific rules of the sport
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d. a and b
e. b and c
41. In a 2003 survey, what percentage of male and female athletes,
respectively, bet on sports?
a. 10% and 30%
*b. 35% and 10%
c. 20% and 25%
d. 5% and 10%
e. 50% and 20%
42. The Mitchell Report focused on
a. the use of steroids in football
b. the potential for gambling on professional basketball games by
referees
*c. the use of steroids in baseball
d. the reasons for fighting in professional hockey
e. the salary cap in professional basketball
43. Which of the following psychiatric disorders has the highest
associated mortality rate (5%)?
a. compulsive gambling
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*b. anorexia nervosa
c. bulimia
d. paranoid schizophrenia
e. obsessive-compulsive disorder
44. A recent study (Kerr et al. 2006) found that when compared to
retired gymnasts (looking back on their careers), gymnasts still active
in their careers
a. reported significantly more eating disorders
*b. reported significantly fewer eating disorders
c. reported lower levels of injury
d. reported higher satisfaction rates with coaches
e. reported higher levels of overtraining
45. A recent review article (Striegel-Moore & Bulik, 2007) discussing
the influence of environmental and genetic factors on the development of
eating disorders concluded
a. genetic factors are more predictive of eating disorders than
environmental factors
b. environmental factors were more predictive of eating disorders
than genetic factors
*c. the interaction of genetic and environmental factors needs to
be explored
d. genetic factors were particularly important until age 7
e. environmental factors were particularly important from ages 816
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46. Research by Martens et al. (2008) found that athletes in the offseason were at risk for
a. increased use of recreational drugs (e.g., marijuana)
*b. heavy drinking
c. gaining weight
d. increased gambling
e. inactivity
47. Viagra may be on the banned list of substances in the future because
it has the potential to
a. increase strength
b. increase confidence
c. decrease anxiety
*d. increase endurance
e. decrease percent body fat
48. A study by Donahue et al. (2006) on motivation and sportspersonship
found
a. intrinsic motivation was associated with higher levels of
sportspersonship
b. extrinsic motivation was associated with lower levels of
sportspersonship
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c. there was no relationship between sportspersonship and
motivation
*d. a and b
49. A Web-based individualized feedback program (Martens et al., 2006)
has shown to
*a. significantly reduce drinking in athletes at high risk for
drinking
b. significantly reduce use of steroids in high school athletes
c. significantly reduce the use of appetite suppressants
d. significantly increase sportspersonhip
e. significantly reduce eating disorders
50. A recent survey by Ellenbogen et al. (2008) on NCAA college athletes
and gambling found
*a. approximately half of the athletes were unsure of the rules
regarding gambling and NCAA athletes
b. approximately 75% of male athletes and 65% of female athletes
reported gambling
c. approximately 20% of male athletes reported having a gambling
problem
d. a and c
e. a and b
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51. The ATLAS and ATHENA programs focus on
a. reducing substance abuse in professional athletes
b. reducing eating disorders in collegiate athletes
*c. reducing substance abuse and poor nutrition among high school
boys and girls
d. reducing gambling among collegiate and professional male
athletes
e. reducing substance abuse in professional male football and
basketball players
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1. Recent cross-cultural research has revealed that staleness is a
problem for approximately what percentage of adolescents?
*a. 30% to 40%
b. 10% to 20%
c. 50% to 60%
d. 20% to 30%
e. 40% to 50%
2. Increased burnout among athletes in recent years is due to which of
the following factors?
a. increased pressure from coaches
b. year-round training and competition
c. increased financial rewards for success
*d. b and c
e. a and c
3. According to the latest research on overtraining, if the source of
the stressor is psychological, then the recovery strategy should focus
on
a. nutrition
*b. thought management strategies
c. active rest
d. rest
e. hydration
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4. According to Morgan's research, which of the following is true?
*a. The heavier the training stimulus, the greater the mood
disturbance.
b. The heavier the training stimulus, the less the mood
disturbance.
c. The amount of training is not related to mood disturbance.
d. Athletes experiencing overtraining display an inverted-U
profile.
5. According to Morgan's research, top-level athletes form a
psychological profile known as the
*a. iceberg profile
b. inverted-U profile
c. U-shaped profile
d. peak performance profile
e. Morgan profile
6. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of burnout?
a. lack of caring
*b. elevated resting heart rate
c. sleep disturbances
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d. physical and mental exhaustion
e. increased anxiety
7. Morgan's research on athletes' training stress and mood states has
shown that
a. positive mental health is associated with high performance
levels
b. mood state disturbance is associated with decreases in
performance
c. as training loads increase, mood states improve
d. a and c
*e. a and b
8. Based on Silva's study on burnout and staleness, which of the
following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. Forty-two percent of athletes experience overtraining.
b. Twenty-five percent of athletes experience burnout at some
point in their careers.
c. More than 70% of athletes reported some staleness during their
sport seasons.
*d. a and b
e. b and c
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9. Which of the following is NOT a component of Smith's model of
burnout?
a. situational demands
b. cognitive appraisal of demands
*c. cognitive responses
d. physiological responses
e. coping behaviors
10. A new sport-specific burnout scale developed by Raedeke and Smith
has three burnout subscales including which of the following?
a. reduced sense of accomplishment
b. sport devaluation
c. detachment with others
*d. a and b
11. The common thread or threads among the different definitions of
burnout include
a. physical, but not mental, exhaustion
b. high feeling of personal accomplishment
*c. impersonal responses to others
d. a and c
e. b and c
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12. According to the new model of overtraining developed by Kentta and
Hassmen, overtraining can lead to
a. improved performance
b. no change in performance
c. impaired performance
*d. all of the above
e. b and c
13. In various research studies investigating staleness in athletes, at
least _____ of athletes reported staleness as occurring at least one
time in their careers.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
*e. 30%
14. The difference between overtraining and periodized training depends
largely on individual differences and
a. personality differences
*b. capabilities
c. mood states
d. perfectionism
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e. Type A behavior
15. The deliberate strategy of exposing athletes to high-volume and
high-intensity loads for performance enhancement is called
a. overtraining
b. burnout
*c. periodized training
d. staleness
16. Overtraining refers to a training cycle of approximately
*a. a few days to a few weeks
b. a few weeks to two months
c. a few days to one year
d. a few days to six months
e. six months to one year
17. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of overtraining?
a. apathy
b. sleep disturbances
c. mood changes
d. weight loss
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*e. deteriorating relationships
18. Which of the following is NOT a component of burnout in the Maslach
Burnout Inventory?
*a. isolation
b. emotional exhaustion
c. depersonalization
d. personal accomplishment
19. Which of the following suggestions did burned-out youth tennis
players give other players to help prevent burnout in the future?
a. Try to make it fun.
b. Balance tennis with other aspects of your life.
c. Don't take much time off because you will lose motivation.
*d. a and b
20. Which of the following suggestions did burned-out youth tennis
players give to parents to help prevent burnout in the future?
a. Get more involved with your tennis-playing children.
b. Do not push your child at all.
*c. Involve your child in decision making.
d. a and b
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e. b and c
21. Raedeke argues that burnout can be studied within a sport commitment
approach. In essence, many athletes feel burned out but nevertheless
continue to participate in their sport because of
a. social pressure from others
b. perceived lack of control over the situation
c. too much self-identity tied up with their sport
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
22. Which of the following is (are) a helpful treatment(s) for burnout?
a. Take relaxation breaks.
b. Keep a positive outlook.
c. Keep working out but with a friend.
*d. a and b
e. a and c
23. According to Dale and Weinberg's study on leadership style and
burnout,
*a. coaches with a consideration style of leadership exhibited
higher levels of burnout than coaches with an initiating structure
style of leadership
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b. coaches with an initiating structure style of leadership
exhibited higher levels of burnout than coaches with a
consideration leadership style
c. there was no relationship between leadership style and burnout
d. coaches with a laissez-faire leadership style exhibited the
highest level of burnout
24. According to Murphy's study of training loads and mood states among
Olympic judo athletes,
a. increased conditioning training produced increases in negative
mood states
b. increased sport-specific training produced increases in
negative mood states
c. increased conditioning training did not result in increases in
negative mood state
*d. b and c
e. a and b
25. According to the research on burnout among athletic trainers and
officials,
*a. both athletic trainers and officials feel that role conflict
is related to burnout
b. time demands are related to burnout for officials
c. fear of negative evaluation is related to burnout for athletic
trainers
d. a and c
e. b and c
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26. The principle psychological symptom of staleness is
a. lowered self-esteem
*b. increased mood disturbance
c. high levels of aggression
d. lowered anxiety
e. lowered self-efficacy
27. The motivational map of burned-out youth tennis players that Gould
and colleagues developed underscores the importance of _____________ in
determining burnout.
*a. individual differences
b. training methods
c. goal orientations
d. group interactions
e. social support
28. The factor that youth tennis players note most often regarding their
reasons for burnout is
a. physiological
*b. psychological
c. social
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d. biomechanical
e. motoric
29. Gould and colleagues summarized their findings by stating that there
are two major "strains" of burnout. These two strains are _________ and
_________ in nature.
a. social-psychological; cognitive
b. sociological; psychological
c. psychological; cognitive
*d. social-psychological; physical
e. physical; cognitive
30. In a series of studies involving competitive youth tennis players,
Gould and colleagues found that burnout involved
a. logistical concerns
b. social and interpersonal concerns
c. physical concerns
*d. all of the above
e. b and c
31. Compared to Silva's model of burnout and Smith's model of burnout,
Coakley's model is more ___________ in orientation.
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a. physiological
b. psychological
c. cognitive
*d. sociological
e. anthropological
32. Coakley's model of burnout emphasizes which two concepts?
a. self-efficacy and training stress
*b. unidimensional identity and the lack of athlete control over
the environment
c. distress and eustress
d. external stressors and perceptions of control
e. training stress and cognitive-affective reactions
33. According to Silva's model of burnout, the key component to
producing burnout is
*a. the potential negative stress of too much training
b. increased pressure to win
c. lack of feelings of personal accomplishment
d. increased isolation
e. decreased perceptions of control
34. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of burnout?
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a. depersonalization
*b. cognitive dissociation
c. decreased feelings of personal accomplishment
d. isolation
e. emotional and physical exhaustion
35. According to the research on gender and coaches' burnout,
a. males have higher burnout rates than females
b. females have higher burnout rates than males
*c. no conclusive results have been found
d. males have higher rates than females only in individual sports
e. males have higher rates than females only in team sports
36. According to research by Gould and colleagues, approximately what
percentage of Olympians reported that they overtrained for the Olympics?
*a. 50%
b. 5%
c. 20%
d. 30%
e. 65%
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37. Recent research by Meehan and colleagues has indicated that feelings
of overtraining can occur because of
*a. nonsport stress
b. high physical demands of the sport
c. high mental demands of the sport
d. pressure from teammates
e. pressure from coaches
38. Research by Gastafsson (2007) indicates that severe burnout occurs
in what percentage of elite adolescent athletes?
a. 10%-15%
*b. 1%-2%
c. 20%-25%
d. 7%-9%
e. 30%-35%
39. Research investigating self-determination theory and burnout has
found
a. higher levels of competence, autonomy, and relatedness were
related to lower levels of burnout
b. self-determined forms of motivation were related to lower
levels of burnout
c. higher levels of self-esteem and self-efficacy were related to
lower levels of burnout
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*d. a and b
e. a and c
40. Hjam et al. (2007) investigated gender differences and burnout in
coaches and found
*a. coaches of female teams had higher levels of burnout than
coaches of male teams
b. female coaches had higher levels of burnout than male coaches
c. no differences in burnout among male and female coaches
d. male coaches had higher levels of burnout than female coaches
e. both male and female coaches of individual sports had lower
levels of burnout than coaches of team sports
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1. Which of the following is NOT a negative dimension of friendship as
identified by young athletes?
a. betrayal
b. inaccessibility
c. conflict
*d. lack of empathy
e. unattractive personal qualities
2. Gould and Martens found that, on average, children participated for
____ hours per week in their specific sport.
a. 5
*b. 11
c. 15
d. 8
e. 3
3. Sport participation for youth peaks at what age?
a. 9 years old
b. 14 years old
c. 17 years old
*d. 12 years old
e. 10 years old
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4. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Sport participation builds character.
b. Sport participation builds leadership skills.
*c. The benefits of sport participation depend on the quality of
the adult leadership.
d. a and b
5. Dropout rates for youth sport participants have been estimated to be
about what percentage each year?
a. 10%
b. 20%
*c. 35%
d. 45%
e. 5%
6. Which of the following is the number one reason that young athletes
give for participating in school and other youth sports?
a. to make new friends
b. to improve skills
c. to get exercise
d. to stay in shape
*e. to have fun
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7. Which of the following is NOT one of the top five reasons given for
participating in youth sport?
a. to improve sport skills
b. to stay in shape
c. to have fun
*d. to make new friends
e. to do something I'm good at
8. Which is the major reason that young athletes give for dropping out
of sport?
*a. other things to do
b. boredom
c. did not like the coach
d. did not like the pressure
e. not exciting enough
9. According to the swimming study by Gould and colleagues, what
percentage of young athletes dropped out of competitive sport because of
negative experiences (e.g., too much pressure, no fun)?
a. 10%
b. 19%
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c. 44%
*d. 28%
e. 37%
10. Research has indicated that participants in youth sport differ from
dropouts in what psychological attribute?
*a. perceived competence
b. trait anxiety
c. self-esteem
d. independence
e. self-motivation
11. A good way to enhance young athletes' perceptions of their abilities
is to have them
a. focus on winning
b. focus on comparing their performance to that of other athletes
*c. focus on improving their own performance
d. a and b
12. In the study by Klint and Weiss on former competitive youth
gymnasts, what percentage were still participating in gymnastics or in
another sport?
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a. 40%
b. 80%
c. 27%
*d. 95%
e. 77%
13. The reasons given most often for participating in youth sport are
a. extrinsic in nature
*b. intrinsic in nature
c. equally divided between intrinsic and extrinsic motives
d. situational in nature
e. personal in nature
14. Approximately how many children under the age of 18 are involved in
school and other sport programs?
a. 10 million
b. 5 million
*c. 45 million
d. 1 million
e. 50 million
15. Which of the following statements regarding peer relationships is
(are) true?
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a. Female participants, as compared to their male counterparts,
identify emotional support as a positive aspect of friendship.
b. Children who have more positive relationships with peers in
physical activity reported more positive feelings toward physical
activity.
c. Intimacy (close personal bonds), as a positive aspect of peer
friendships, was seen as less important with increasing age.
*d. a and b
16. In reviewing the literature that had reported personal accounts of
burnout among young athletes, Gould found which of the following to be
important factors associated with the burnout?
a. coaches' lack of overtraining knowledge
b. parental pressure
c. very high self- and other-imposed expectations
*d. b and c
e. a and c
17. The positive "sandwich" approach to correcting errors involves
*a. positive statement, corrective feedback, positive statement
b. corrective feedback, positive statement, corrective feedback
c. positive statement, negative statement, positive statement
d. verbal feedback, nonverbal feedback, verbal feedback
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18. According to recent research on early specialization and
participation in competitive sport, elite athletes
a. start to specialize in one sport by age 5
b. start to specialize in one sport by age 8
*c. start out playing many sports at an early age
d. start out specializing in one sport by age 10
19. Which of the following is NOT a coaching guideline put forth by
Smoll and Smith (1980) and Weiss (1991)?
a. Catch kids doing things right.
*b. Reward outcome more than effort.
c. Develop realistic expectations.
d. Modify skills and activities for appropriate developmental
levels.
e. Employ a positive "sandwich" approach to error correction.
20. Which of the following is (are) an aspect(s) of the Sport Friendship
Quality Scale developed by Weiss and Smith?
a. loyalty and intimacy
b. conflict resolution
c. self-esteem enhancement and supportiveness
*d. all of the above
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e. a and c
21. Smith, Smoll, and Curtis (1979), in phase 2 of their study comparing
an experimental group of coaches using a positive approach with a
control group of coaches, found that players who played for experimental
coaches
a. rated their coaches as better teachers
b. liked their teammates and coaches more
c. exhibited lower levels of trait anxiety
*d. a and b
22. Which of the following did Orlick and McCaffrey recommend for
modifying arousal regulation strategies in children?
a. Keep strategies fun.
b. Do not use arousal regulation strategies for children under 9
years old.
c. Use concrete physical strategies.
*d. a and c
e. a and b
23. According to the code of ethics developed by the American Sport
Education Program, which of the following is NOT part of a sport
parent's responsibility?
a. Help your child set realistic performance goals.
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b. Keep winning in perspective.
c. Discipline your child appropriately when necessary.
*d. Act as a coach as well as a parent if you know the sport.
e. Make sure the coach is qualified to guide your child through
the sport experience.
24. According to the study by Coakley on youth sport burnout, which of
the following was (were) found to be characteristic of children who have
burned out in sport?
a. They viewed themselves only as athletes.
b. Coaches and parents made all the important decisions with
little input from the young athletes.
c. They played on a series of losing teams.
d. a and c
*e. a and b
25. Which of the following is (are) NOT among situational variables that
cause increased state anxiety in young athletes?
a. game outcome (i.e., winning versus losing)
b. event importance
c. type of sport (i.e., individual versus team)
*d. coaching style
e. c and d
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26. Based on research with elite high school wrestlers and distance
runners, which of the following are the two major sources of the stress
experienced by junior elite athletes?
a. fear of failure and coaches' expectations
b. coaches' expectations and feelings of inadequacy
c. parents' expectations and fear of failure
*d. fear of failure and feelings of inadequacy
e. parents' expectations and feelings of inadequacy
27. A young athlete is "at risk" for developing heightened state anxiety
if he has which of the following characteristics?
a. high self-esteem
b. frequent worries about failure
c. low self-performance expectations
*d. b and c
e. a and b
28. According to research, which of the following statements concerning
trait anxiety and young athletes is (are) true?
*a. Young athletes have only slightly elevated levels of trait
anxiety.
b. Sport participation causes high levels of trait anxiety.
c. Sport participation produces lower levels of trait anxiety.
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d. Sport participation produces higher levels of trait anxiety
only for girls.
e. Sport participation produces higher levels of trait anxiety
only for boys.
29. According to the study by Simon and Martens comparing state anxiety
before competitive sports with that before other childhood evaluative
activities, the activity with the highest state anxiety levels was
a. baseball
b. football
c. golf
*d. band solo
e. school test
30. Based on the research on peer friendships, what implication(s) can
you draw for practice?
a. Coaches should use an autocratic coaching style.
b. Teamwork and group goals should be emphasized.
c. Time should be provided for children to be with their friends.
d. a and b
*e. b and c
31. According to Coakley (2006), parents are becoming overly involved in
their child's sport because
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a. parents are wealthier
b. parents have more time on their hands
c. their child's success makes it more likely they will receive a
college scholarship
*d. their child's success reflects their worth as a parent
e. parents have easier access to gamers and practices
32. The professionalization of children's sports can be seen in
a. early specialization
b. year-round training
c. private coaching
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
33. Most sport psychologists are opposed to taking a professionalized
approach to children's sports because
*a. it focuses the majority of resources on the most talented
children
b. it creates more anxiety in young athletes
c. it decreases young athletes' self-esteem
d. it creates unequal competition
e. it undermines self-efficacy in young athletes
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34. Which of the following is (are) a common myth(s) regarding children
in sport?
a. athlete talent can be accurately predicted at a young age
b. stages of athletic development can be skipped
c. early sport specialization is not needed for later success
*d. a and b
e. b and c
35. In 1990, The Women's Tennis Association instituted a rule regarding
age-eligibility that limited the amount of tournament play for young
players. Looking at its success over a 10-year period, it was found that
a. career length increased significantly
b. players under 21 won more tournaments
c. premature retirements were reduced
*d. a and c
e. b and c
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1. In the case study of Billy the hockey goalie, what did he learn?
*a. how to be rough and tough without getting thrown out of the
game
b. how to control his aggression
c. how to deal with aggressive teammates
d. how to deal with aggressive coaches
e. how to use his mental skills to improve his effectiveness
2. Which of the following is (are) NOT among criteria for judging
aggression?
a. It involves intent.
b. It involves harm or injury.
*c. It must be directed toward a human being.
d. a and c
e. b and c
3. Which of the following would be classified as an aggressive act?
a. throwing a helmet in disgust after striking out
*b. punching an umpire because he made a bad call
c. accidentally hitting and injuring a batter with a wild fastball
d. b and c
e. a and b
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4. "Good aggression" (playing within the rules with high intensity) is
known in sport psychology as
*a. assertive behavior
b. aggression with purpose
c. aggression with emotion
d. intentional aggression
e. unintentional aggression
5. Instrumental aggression is aggression occurring
a. with the intent to harm physically
*b. in the quest of some nonaggressive goal
c. with the intent to harm psychologically
d. a and b
e. a and c
6. A linebacker intends to hurt and injure any receiver who catches a
ball over the middle. This is an example of
a. instrumental aggression
*b. reactive aggression
c. assertive behavior
d. judgmental aggression
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7. Most aggression in sport falls in which of the following categories?
*a. instrumental aggression
b. reactive aggression
c. judgmental aggression
d. intentional aggression
e. physical aggression
8. Which of the following is NOT one of the four most prominent theories
of aggression?
a. instinct theory
b. frustration-aggression theory
c. social learning theory
d. revised frustration-aggression theory
*e. reactive-instrumental aggression theory
9. Which of the following have shown the strongest relationship?
*a. aggressive behavior and media violence
b. academic achievement and homework
c. passive smoking and lung cancer
d. condom use and sexually transmitted HIV
e. All are equal in their relationships.
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10. Individuals have an innate predisposition to be aggressive, which
builds up and eventually must be expressed. This represents the major
premise of which theory?
a. social learning theory
b. frustration-aggression theory
c. revised frustration-aggression theory
*d. instinct theory
e. instrumental-reactive aggression theory
11. The general aggression model proposes that when aggression occurs,
it will be
a. reactive versus instrumental
*b. thought out versus impulsive
c. reactive versus hostile
d. internal versus external
e. individual versus group
12. Smith's research concerning violence in hockey showed that
a. many coaches, parents, and teammates accept and reinforce the
modeling of aggressive acts
b. violence is modeled by young amateur hockey players
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c. aggressive play is discouraged by coaches and parents
*d. a and b
e. a and c
13. The peer conflict resolution program developed to help resolve
conflicts in a nonviolent way uses ________ as mediators in resolving
student conflicts.
a. parents
b. trained counselors
*c. students with good leadership and communication skills
d. college students studying counseling
e. superintendents
14. Which of the following is NOT an aspect of the revised frustrationaggression hypothesis?
a. Frustration increases the likelihood of aggression.
b. Frustration produces increased anger or pain.
c. Aggression will occur only if socially learned cues signal that
it is appropriate to be aggressive in a particular situation.
*d. Frustration produces physical but not psychological
aggression.
15. Research testing the catharsis notion of spectator aggression has
shown that
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a. fans become less aggressive after watching a sporting event
b. fans become more aggressive after watching violent contact
sports
c. fans are not affected in terms of aggressive tendencies by
watching a sporting event
d. fans become more aggressive under the influence of alcohol
*e. b and d
16. According to research, which of the following statements concerning
spectator aggression is (are) true?
a. Males exhibit higher levels of aggression than females.
b. Working-class individuals are more often involved in aggressive
spectator actions.
c. Small-scale, on-the-field aggressive acts serve as triggers for
crowd aggression.
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
17. Which of the following is NOT an explanation put forth to explain
athletes' aggressive behavior?
a. They want to show how tough they are.
b. The opposition has annoyed them.
c. They are affected by team (group) pressures.
d. They see it as part of their role.
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*e. They were born with an aggressive urge.
18. Research on game reasoning (also called bracketed morality) has
shown that
*a. athletes view aggressive acts that would be judged
inappropriate in society in general as more appropriate in the
sport environment
b. athletes view aggressive acts as more appropriate in society
than in the sport environment
c. athletes have higher moral development than nonathletes
d. a and c
e. b and c
19. The research examining the relationship between aggression and
performance supports which conclusion?
a. Aggression facilitates performance.
b. Aggression is detrimental to performance.
*c. Aggression sometimes facilitates performance and sometimes
does not.
d. Aggression facilitates performance only in team-sport athletes.
20. In which of the following situations is aggression likely to occur?
a. when participants are winning
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b. when participants are embarrassed
c. when participants perceive they are the recipients of poor
officiating
d. a and c
*e. b and c
21. General strategies for controlling spectator aggression include
which of the following?
a. Develop strict alcohol control policies.
b. Immediately penalize spectators for aggressive acts.
c. Use experienced officials.
*d. a and b
e. a and c
22. In the case study of head football coach Tom Martinez, Coach
Martinez dealt with the area of aggressive play by
*a. setting up specific guidelines distinguishing assertive play
from inappropriate aggressive play
b. punishing all aggressive play
c. rewarding sportspersonlike behavior
d. a and c
23. When David Stern, commissioner of the National Basketball
Association, banned Latrell Sprewell for choking his coach, he stated,
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"A sports league does not have to accept or condone behavior that would
not be tolerated in any other segment of society." In this statement
Stern clearly indicated that _________ morality would not be accepted or
tolerated.
a. immature
*b. bracketed
c. undesirable
d. irreverent
e. neglectful
24. Which of the following is NOT a useful step in resolving peer
conflict (especially in teenagers) in a nonviolent way?
a. Record the facts.
b. Develop an action plan.
*c. Express thoughts but not feelings.
d. Outline necessary changes.
e. Follow up.
25. The International Society of Sport Psychology developed a position
paper on aggression in sport. Which of the following statements is NOT
one of their recommendations?
a. Ban alcoholic beverages at sporting events.
b. Ensure adequate facilities and space.
c. Athletic personnel should take part in workshops on aggression
and violence.
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*d. Let athletes decide on what punishments fit different
aggressive and violent behaviors.
e. Raise the level of coaching, with an emphasis on fair play,
especially with younger athletes.
26. Bandura's research showed that children who saw adult models commit
violent acts repeated those acts more than children who were not exposed
to such aggressive models. This supports which theory of aggression?
a. instinct theory
b. frustration-aggression theory
*c. social learning theory
d. revised frustration-aggression theory
e. instrumental-reactive aggression theory
27. According to more recent research by Anderson and Bushman,
aggression ranging from instrumental to reactive should be viewed
a. as a circle
*b. along a continuum
c. as either reactive or instrumental
d. as an inverted-U
e. as a linear function
28. The general aggression model proposes that the probability of
aggression increases because of
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a. situational causes
b. personal beliefs and attitudes
*c. an interaction of situations and personal beliefs
d. frustration
e. modeling
29. According to the study by Gee and Lee (2007) investigating
aggressive play and hockey, it was found that
*a. North American players exhibited more aggressive acts (i.e.,
penalties) than did European players
b. European players displayed more aggressive acts than did
American players
c. aggressive acts increased as the records of the two teams
became more dissimilar
d. aggressive acts have decreased in the NHL over the last 10
years
e. aggressive acts are correlated with number of years in the
league
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1. The belief that an athlete will do the right thing when faced with a
moral dilemma refers to
*a. integrity
b. fairness
c. compassion
d. morality
e. honesty
2. According to the levels of moral reasoning, the highest level (Level
5) is characterized by
a. following external rules and regulations
b. treating others as you would like to be treated
*c. what is best for all involved
d. external control
e. an eye-for-an-eye orientation
3. Which of the following definitions does Martens think captures the
meaning of good sporting behavior?
a. Treat others as you would want them to treat you.
*b. There is no universally accepted definition of good sporting
behavior.
c. Act in a fair and equitable manner.
d. Play by the rules.
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4. The structural-developmental approach to good sporting behavior
focuses on
*a. how psychological growth changes as a child interacts with the
environment to shape moral reasoning
b. reinforcement as the key to developing moral reasoning
c. a behavioral model that advocates a stimulus-response approach
to the development of good sporting behavior
d. how innate developmental factors dictate the development of
good sporting behavior
5. Geibenk and McKenzie studied the use of social learning in a physical
education setting, finding that
*a. the use of modeling and reinforcement reduced the bad sporting
behaviors of fifth-grade boys
b. the use of social comparison reduced bad sporting behaviors of
high school wrestlers
c. the use of modeling was not effective in reducing bad sporting
behaviors of high school football players
d. the use of rewards was effective in increasing good sporting
behaviors in female elite gymnasts
6. Which of the following is (are) NOT part of social learning?
a. modeling
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b. reinforcement
c. social comparison
*d. attributions
e. c and d
7. The social learning approach to good sporting behavior and moral
development is best summarized by the work of
a. Dan Kirschenbaum
*b. Albert Bandura
c. Kevin Burke
d. Joan Duda
e. Maureen Weiss
8. Character development is most facilitated by building a
*a. task-oriented climate
b. ego-oriented climate
c. competitive climate
d. high-performance climate
e. relationship-oriented climate
9. The decision process whereby the rightness or wrongness of a course
of action is determined is the definition of
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a. moral development
b. moral behavior
c. moral learning
*d. moral reasoning
10. The lowest level of moral reasoning is characterized by
a. internal control
b. an eye for an eye
*c. external control
d. conformity
e. the golden rule
11. Recent evidence indicates that approximately what percentage of
youth athletes try to hurt an opponent?
a. 25%
b. 3%
*c. 13%
d. 19%
e. 1%
12. The definition of good sporting behavior put forth by Shields and
Bredemeier emphasizes which of these statements?
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*a. Ethical standards will take precedence over strategic gain
when these are in conflict.
b. Treat others as you would like them to treat you.
c. Have respect for other players, coaches, and officials.
d. Appropriate moral development is different for different ages.
e. Good sporting behavior is an individualized concept.
13. In research by Vallerand and colleagues (1996), which of the
following was NOT one of the factors that athletes reported as making up
the components of good sporting behavior?
a. full commitment to participation
b. respect and concern for rules and officials
c. respect and concern for the opponent
*d. respect and concern for coaches and parents
e. avoiding poor attitudes toward participation
14. In a study investigating moral development in elementary school
children and the Fair Play for Kids activities, it was found that
a. moral development was higher for the Fair Play group than in
the control condition only in physical education classes
b. there were no differences between the control and Fair Play
groups
*c. both Fair Play groups had higher moral development than the
control group
d. a and c
e. b and c
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15. In a summary of 20 years of research on moral development,
Bredemeier and Shields found that
a. athletes have higher levels of moral development than
nonathletes
b. males have higher levels of moral reasoning than females
*c. athletes' game reasoning differs from reasoning used in
everyday life
d. a and b
e. b and c
16. A rule in youth sport might state that everyone must play in the
game. However, one coach plays certain players of lower ability for only
a couple of minutes each game so the team has a better chance of
winning. This action violates the concept of
*a. fair play
b. good sporting behavior
c. character development
d. developmental appropriateness
e. character formation
17. According to Shields and Bredemeier, morality in sport comprises
a. fair play
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b. character
c. good sporting behavior
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
18. Tennis great Chris Evert felt that good sporting behavior meant
*a. acting in a classy and dignified way
b. playing with all your heart and intensity
c. showing respect for your opponent
d. never arguing with an official or opponent
e. treating others as you would want them to treat you
19. The process of experience and growth by which an individual develops
the capacity to morally reason is the definition of
a. moral behavior
b. moral reasoning
*c. moral development
d. moral learning
20. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
*a. Participants in organized sport are less likely than
nonparticipants to engage in delinquent behavior.
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b. Participants in organized sport are more likely than
nonparticipants to engage in delinquent behavior.
c. Participation in competitive sport has no relationship to
delinquent behavior.
d. Participation in organized sport only reduces delinquent
behavior for middle- and upper-middle class youths.
e. a and d
21. Which of the following is (are) among strategies for developing
resiliency in youth?
a. Focus on individual strengths rather than weaknesses.
b. Link the program with the community.
c. Build programs with large numbers to reach the most youth.
*d. a and b
22. Which of the following is not one of the levels in Hellison's levels
of responsibility model?
a. self-direction
*b. self-appraisal
c. self-control
d. caring
e. involvement
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23. Some physical educators have developed programs to enhance
resiliency in "at-risk" youth. The attributes displayed by resilient
youths include which of the following?
a. autonomy
b. social competence
c. perfectionism
d. a and c
*e. a and b
24. It has been proposed that sport participation can serve as an
alternative to gang behavior by providing
a. increased physical skill development
b. exposure to positive role models
c. increased self-esteem
*d. b and c
e. a and b
25. In Trulson's (1986) study investigating the use of sport involvement
to reduce delinquency and aggression, it was found that
a. participation in basketball and football reduced aggressive
tendencies
b. participation in taekwondo, which emphasizes fighting and selfdefense, reduced aggressive tendencies
*c. participation in taekwondo, which emphasizes philosophical
reflection and meditation, reduced aggressive tendencies
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d. a and c
e. b and c
26. Physical education expert Eric Larson thinks that extracurricular
activities can have a positive influence on youth development because
a. sport is extrinsically motivating
b. sport efforts are directed toward a goal over time
c. sport requires youth to experience setbacks and overcome
challenges
*d. b and c
e. a and c
27. According to the structural-developmental approach, moral reasoning
depends in large part on the
a. emotional development of the individual
b. physical development of the individual
*c. cognitive development of the individual
d. psychological development of the individual
e. maturational development of the individual
28. Which of the following is NOT an explanation for the relationship
between sport participation and delinquency?
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a. differential association
b. social bonding
*c. undifferentiated arousal
d. labeling
e. economic strains
29. At what stage of moral development is an athlete who takes illegal
performance-enhancing drugs and defends her actions by the premise that
it is OK because everyone does?
a. external control
*b. eye for an eye
c. treat others as you want them to treat you
d. following external rules
e. what is best for all involved
30. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
a. Developing good sporting behavior through competitive sport
involvement automatically transfers to nonphysical activity.
b. Physical educators and coaches should be teaching participants
basic values such as honesty and empathy.
c. Physical educators and coaches should teach religious values to
help build moral development.
*d. a and c
e. b and c
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31. Which of the following statements is (are) true?
a. Emphasizing winning undermines good sporting behavior.
b. Emphasizing winning provides opportunities to build good
sporting behavior.
*c. Emphasizing winning does not automatically have a good or bad
influence on building good sporting behavior.
d. a and c
e. b and c
32. Which of the following statements is (are) FALSE?
*a. You should define good sporting behavior in very general
terms.
b. Rationales explaining your definition of good sporting behavior
should be regularly conveyed to participants.
c. Role taking should be especially emphasized around ages 7 to 8
years.
d. a and c
e. a and b
33. When conveying rationales for good sporting behavior, coaches should
emphasize
a. why a behavior is considered good or bad
b. the intent of actions
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c. role taking
*d. all of the above
e. a and c
34. Which of the following strategies is (are) useful for enhancing
moral development and good sporting behavior?
a. Discuss moral dilemmas.
b. Treat all players fairly.
c. Reward good sporting behaviors and punish bad sporting
behaviors.
*d. a and c
e. b and c
35. Research indicates that participation in sport
a. increases moral development
b. decreases moral development
*c. does not necessarily increase or decrease moral development
d. increases moral development for elite athletes
e. increases moral development for individual-sport athletes
36. Which of the following is NOT one of the moral action stages
hypothesized by Miller and colleagues (1997)?
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a. making a choice to act morally
b. deciding the best course of moral action
c. implementing a moral response
*d. reviewing history of moral choices
e. interpreting the situation as one that involves moral judgment
37. The social-psychological approach to studying morality in sport
emphasizes
*a. that both personal and situational factors help determine good
sporting behavior
b. that social factors are the key to developing good sporting
behavior
c. group dynamics in developing good sporting behavior
d. situational factors in developing good sporting behavior
38. Participation in sport keeps kids off the street and out of trouble.
This is central to which explanation of the relationship between
organized sport and delinquency?
a. labeling
b. economic strains
c. undifferentiated arousal
d. social bonding
*e. differential association
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39. Recent research by Moria Stuart indicates that children aged 10 to
12 had concerns about
a. the fairness of adult actions
b. positive team behaviors
c. negative game behaviors
d. b and c
*e. a and c
40. According to Arnold's work, in order for character to be developed
through sport and physical activity,
a. coaches should have to go through a certification process
*b. character development needs to be a mind-set of physical
activity leaders
c. teachers should have the children read more about character
development
d. parents should be more involved with teaching character
development
e. character cannot be developed through sport.
41. Which of the following is (are) NOT among the types of hazing?
a. physical
b. psychological
c. alcohol related
*d. gender-related
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e. a and b
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