TEST BANK For Radiologic Science for Technologists
12th Edition by Stewart C Bushong
Chapters 1 - 40, Complete
TABLE OF CONTENTS
1. Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
2. Basic Physics Primer
3. The Structure of Matter
4. Electromagnetic Energy
5. Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
6. The X-Ray Imaging System
7. The X-Ray Tube
8. X-Ray Production
9. X-Ray Emission
10. X-Ray Interaction with Matter
11. Imaging Science
12. Computed Radiography
13. Digital Radiography
14. Digital Radiographic Technique
15. Image Acquisition
16. Patient-Image Optimization
17. Viewing the Medical Image
18. Picture Archiving and Communication System
19. Image Perception
20. Digital Display Device
21. Medical Image Descriptors
22. Scatter Radiation
23. Radiographic Artifacts
24. Mammography
25. Fluoroscopy
26. Interventional Radiology
27. Computed Tomography
28. Tomosynthesis
29. Human Biology
30. Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
31. Molecular Radiobiology
32. Cellular Radiobiology
33. Deterministic Effects of Radiation
34. Stochastic Effects of Radiation
35. Health Physics
36. Designing for Radiation Protection
37. Radiography/Fluoroscopy Patient Radiation Dose
38. Computed Tomography Patient Radiation Dose
39. Patient Radiation Dose Management
40. Occupational Radiation Dose Management
Chapter 01: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1. Matter is measured in
a. kilograms
b. joules
c. electron volts
d. rems
.
ANS A
Matter is measured in kilograms.
2. Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of
a. energy
b. radiation
c. matter
d. gravity
.
ANS C
Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of matter.
3. Ice and steam are examples of two forms of
a. matter
b. radiation
c. energy
d. work
.
ANS: A
Ice and steam are examples of two forms of matter.
4. The formula E = mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of
a. x-rays
b. electromagnetic radiation
c. nuclear power
d. cathode ray tubes
ANS: C
The formula E = mc2 is the basis for the theory that led to the development of nuclear
power.
5. Radio waves, light, and x-rays are all examples of
a. nuclear
b. thermal
c. electrical
d. electromagnetic
energy.
ANS: D
Electromagnetic energy includes radio waves, light, and x-rays as well as other parts of
the spectrum.
.
6. A moving object has
a. potential
b. kinetic
c. nuclear
d. electromagnetic
energy.
ANS: B
A moving object has kinetic energy.
7. What is the removal of an electron from an atom called?
a. Ionization
b. Pair production
c. Irradiation
d. Electricity
ANS: A
The removal of an electron from an atom is called ionization.
8. Ionizing radiation is capable of removing
from atoms as it passes through
the matter.
a. neutrons
b. protons
c. electrons
d. ions
ANS: C
Ionizing radiation is capable of removing electrons from atoms as it passes through the
matter.
9. The energy of x-rays is _
a. thermal
b. potential
c. kinetic
d. electromagnetic
.
ANS: D
X-rays are a form of electromagnetic energy.
10. The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is
a.
b.
c.
d.
.
atomic fallout
diagnostic x-rays
smoke detectors
nuclear power plants
ANS: B
Medical x-ray exposure is the biggest source of man-made radiation.
11. In the United States, we are exposed to
the natural environment.
a. 0 to 5
b. 5 to 20
c. 20 to 90
_ mSv/year of ionizing radiation from
d. 100 to 300
ANS: A
We are exposed to about 3 mSv/yr of ionizing radiation from natural environmental
sources in the United States.
12. Today, radiology is considered to be a(n)
a. safe
b. unsafe
c. dangerous
d. high-risk
occupation.
ANS: A
Today, radiology is considered to be a safe occupation because of effective radiation
protection practices.
13.
a.
b.
c.
d.
is a special quantity of radiologic science.
Mass
Velocity
Radioactivity
Momentum
ANS: C
Radioactivity is a special quantity of radiologic science.
14. What does ALARA mean?
a. All Level Alert Radiation Accident
b. As Low As Reasonably Achievable
c. Always Leave A Restricted Area
d. As Low As Regulations Allow
ANS: B
ALARA means As Low As Reasonably Achievable.
15. Computed tomography was developed in the
a. 1890s
b. 1920s
c. 1970s
d. 1990s
ANS: C
Computed tomography was developed in the 1970s.
16. Filtration is used to
.
a. absorb low-energy x-rays
b. remove high-energy x-rays
c. restrict the useful beam to the body part imaged
d. fabricate gonadal shields
ANS: A
Filtration is used to absorb low-energy x-rays.
.
TRUE/FALSE
1. Mass is the quantity of matter as described by its energy equivalence.
ANS: T
Mass is the quantity of matter as described by its energy equivalence.
2. Radiation is the removal of an electron from an atom.
ANS: F
Ionization is the removal of an electron from an atom.
3. Radiology emerged as a medical specialty because of the Snook transformer and the
Crookes x-ray tube.
ANS: F
Radiology emerged as a medical specialty because of the Snook transformer and the
Coolidge x-ray tube.
Chapter 02: Basic Physics Primer
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1. The basic quantities measured in mechanics are _
a. volume; length; meters
b. mass; length; time
c. radioactivity; dose; exposure
d. meters; kilos; seconds
,
, and
ANS: B
The basic quantities measured in mechanics are mass, length, and time.
2. An example of a derived quantity in mechanical physics is a
a. meter
b. second
c. dose
d. volume
ANS: D
Volume is a derived unit.
3. Exposure is measured in units of
a. becquerel
b. sieverts
c. meters
d. grays
ANS: D
.
.
.
Exposure is measured in units of grays.
4. What is the decimal equivalent of the proper fraction 4/1000?
a. 0004
b. 004
c. 04
d. 4
ANS: B
The decimal equivalent of the proper fraction 4/1000 is .004.
5. What is the decimal equivalent of the improper fraction 289/74?
a. 390
b. 3.90
c. 39.0
d. 390.0
ANS: B
The decimal equivalent of the improper fraction 289/74 is 3.90.
6. The first step to expressing a number in scientific notation is to
a. round up to the nearest 1000
b. round down to the nearest 1000
c. write the number in decimal form
d. write the number as a fraction
.
ANS: C
The first step to expressing a number in scientific notation is to write the number in
decimal form.
7. What is 6080 in exponential form?
a. 6080.0
104
b. 608.0
104
c. 6.080
103
d. 6080
103
ANS: C
The number 6080 in exponential form is 6.080
8. Graphs are typically based on two axes; a
a. y-axis; z-axis
b. oblique; horizontal
c. x-axis; y-axis
d. vertical; oblique
103
and a
ANS: C
Most graphs are based on two axes: a horizontal or x-axis and a vertical or y-axis.
9. In radiologic science, all of the following are special quantities, except:
a. exposure.
b. distance.
c. dose.
.
d. effective dose.
ANS: B
In radiologic science, special quantities are those of exposure, dose, effective dose, and
radioactivity.
10. The SI unit of velocity is
a. meters per second
b. miles per hour
c. meters per millisecond
d. kilometers per second
.
ANS: C
Units of velocity in SI are meters per second (m/s).
11. Mass density should be reported in which units?
a. Coulomb/kilogram
b. Newtons per square meter
c. Kilograms per cubic meter
d. Kilograms per square meter
ANS: C
Mass density should be reported with units of kilograms per cubic meter (kg/m3).
12. An object at rest will
a. stay at rest
b. decrease mass
c. increase velocity
d. decrease velocity
if no outside forces are applied.
ANS: A
An object at rest will stay at rest if no outside forces are applied.
13. Which of the following explains the difference between speed and velocity?
a. One has motion, and the other does not.
b. One involves acceleration, and the other does not.
c. One involves time, and the other does not.
d. One has direction, and the other does not.
ANS: B
Velocity includes acceleration and speed does not. Speed is the rate at which an object
covers distance.
14. For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction, this describes which Newton’s
law?
a. Newton’s first law of motion
b. Newton’s second law of motion
c. Newton’s third law of motion
d. Newton’s law of inertia
ANS: C
Newton's third law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite
reaction.
15. Work is the product of
a. force
b. gravity
c. acceleration
d. motion
and distance.
ANS: A
Work is the product of force and distance.
16. The transfer of heat by the emission of infrared radiation is
a. electric radiation
b. magnetic energy
c. mechanical energy
d. thermal radiation
.
ANS: D
Thermal radiation is the transfer of heat by the emission of infrared radiation.
17. What heat transfer takes place when you burn your finger by touching a hot iron?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Electromagnetic
ANS: A
Conduction is the transfer of heat through a material or by touching.
18. What heat transfer takes place when water is boiled?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Electromagnetic
ANS: B
Convection is the mechanical transfer of ―hot‖ molecules in a gas or liquid from one
place to another.
19. What are the two cryogens used in Magnetic resonance imaging with a
superconducting magnet?
a. Gaseous helium and gaseous nitrogen
b. Liquid helium and gaseous nitrogen
c. Gaseous helium and liquid helium
d. Liquid helium and liquid nitrogen
ANS: D
Liquid nitrogen and liquid helium are the two cryogens that are used in magnetic
resonance imaging with a superconducting magnet.
20. When you stretch a rubber band, you are storing _
a. kinetic
b. potential
c. thermal
energy.
d. radiant
ANS: B
Potential energy is the stored energy of position or configuration.
Chapter 03: The Structure of Matter
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1. The term ―atom‖ was first used by the
a. Ethiopians
b. British
c. Greeks
d. Romans
.
ANS: C
The term ―atom‖ was first used by the Greeks.
2. The first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms was
a.
b.
c.
d.
.
J. J. Thomson
John Dalton
Dmitri Mendeleev
Niels Bohr
ANS: B
The first person to describe an element as being composed of identical atoms was John
Dalton.
3. The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is a(n)
a. neutron
b. proton
c. electron
d. atom
.
ANS: D
The smallest particle that has all the properties of an element is an atom.
4. The periodic table of the elements was developed by
a. Bohr
b. Rutherford
c. Mendeleev
d. Roentgen
in the late 19th century.
ANS: C
The Periodic Table was developed by Mendeleev.
5. Rutherford’s experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of
.
a. electrons with well-defined orbits
b. a nucleus with an electron cloud
c. electrified plum pudding
d. a ball of hooks and eyes
ANS: C
Rutherford’s experiments in 1911 showed that the atom was composed of a nucleus
with an electron cloud.
6. A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-
defined orbits is the
a. Bohr
b. Thomson
c. Rutherford
d. Dalton
model of the atom.
ANS: A
A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined
orbits is the Bohr model of the atom.
7. What are the fundamental particles of an atom?
a. Quark, positron, negatron
b. Nucleon, electron, proton
c. Proton, neutron, quark
d. Proton, electron, neutron
ANS: D
The fundamental particles of an atom are the proton, electron, and neutron.
8. The chemical element is determined by the number of
a. protons
b. electrons
c. neutrons
d. nucleons
in the atom.
ANS: A
The chemical element is determined by the number of protons in the atom.
9. An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of
a. one
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative
.
ANS: B
An atom in a normal state has an electrical charge of zero.
10. The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their
a. atomic numbers
b. atomic mass units
c. shells
d. isotopes
ANS: C
.
The binding energies, or energy levels, of electrons are represented by their shells.
11. When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of
neutrons, it is called an .
a. isomer
b. isobar
c. isotone
d. isotope
ANS: D
When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of
neutrons, it is called an isotope.
12. When atoms of various elements combine, they form
a. isotopes
b. compounds
c. molecules
d. ions
.
ANS: C
When atoms of various elements combine, they form molecules.
13. An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is a(n)
a. ion
b. molecule
c. isotope
d. isomer
.
ANS: A
An atom that loses or gains one or more electrons is an ion.
14. The maximum number of electrons that can exist in an electron shell is calculated
with the formula
a. 2n
b. 2n2
c. 2/n
d. 2/n2
.
ANS: B
The number of electrons in an electron shell is calculated with the formula 2n2.
15. A neutral atom has the same number of
a. quarks
b. neutrinos
c. neutrons
d. protons
_ and electrons.
ANS: D
A neutral atom has the same number of protons and electrons.
16. The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter
a. J
.
b. K
c. L
d. M
ANS: B
The innermost electron shell is symbolized by the letter K.
17. The shell number of an atom is called the
a. alpha particle
b. chemical element
c. principal quantum number
d. half-life number
.
ANS: C
The shell number of an atom is called the principal quantum number.
18. The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter
a. A
b. X
c. Z
d. n
.
ANS: C
The atomic number of an element is symbolized by the letter Z.
19. Aluminum has an atomic number of 13. How many protons does it have?
a. 13
b. 26
c. 27
d. None of the options
ANS: A
The atomic number equals the number of protons in an atom.
20. Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called
a. isotopes
b. isomers
c. isotones
d. isobars
.
ANS: B
Two identical atoms which exist at different energy states are called isomers.
Chapter 04: Electromagnetic Energy
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1. The four properties of photons are
,
a. size; shape; spin; mass
b. frequency; mass; amplitude; wavelength
c. frequency; wavelength; velocity; amplitude
,
and
.
d. refraction; velocity; spin; amplitude
ANS: C
The properties of photons are frequency, wavelength, velocity, and amplitude.
2. The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a(n)
a. photon
b. electron
c. neutrino
d. quark
ANS: A
The smallest quantity of any type of electromagnetic radiation is a photon.
3. What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation?
a. 8
103 m/s
b. 2
108 m/s
c. 3
108 m/s
d. 4
103 m/s
ANS: C
The velocity of all electromagnetic radiation is 3
108 m/s.
4. The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. wavelength
d. velocity
.
ANS: B
The rate of rise and fall of a sine wave is called its frequency.
5. A hertz (Hz) is equal to
a. 103
b. 102
c. 10
d. 1
cycle(s) per second.
ANS: D
A hertz is equal to 1 cycle per second.
6. What is the electromagnetic wave equation?
a. c = f
b. c = f/
c. c = fv
d. c = f –
ANS: A
The wave equation is c = f .
7. The
of electromagnetic radiation is constant.
a. amplitude
.
b. velocity
c. frequency
d. wavelength
ANS: B
The velocity of electromagnetic radiation is constant.
8. If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2,
then its frequency must
a. double
b. increase four times
c. decrease by half
d. remain constant
.
ANS: C
If the wavelength of a beam of electromagnetic radiation increases by a factor of 2, then
its frequency must decrease by half.
9. The intensity of radiation
in
proportion to the square of the distance
of the object from the source.
a. increases; direct
b. decreases; direct
c. increases; inverse
d. decreases; inverse
ANS: D
The intensity of radiation decreases in inverse proportion to the square of the distance of
the object from the source.
10. The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called
a. reflection
b. refraction
c. attenuation
d. dispersion
.
ANS: C
The reduction of radiation intensity due to scattering and absorption is called attenuation.
11. The intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance because the radiation
a.
b.
c.
d.
.
reduces its velocity
increases in wavelength
loses its energy
is spread out over a greater area
ANS: D
The intensity of radiation on an object is reduced with distance because the radiation is
spread out over a greater area.
12. If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet,
what will the intensity be at 6 feet?
a. 0.4 millilumens
b. 1 millilumen
c. 2 millilumens
d. 16 millilumens
ANS: B
If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet
using the inverse square law, it will be 1 millilumen at 6 feet.
13. The diagnostic range of x-ray energy is
a. 30 to 150 kVp
b. 200 to 300 kVp
c. 300 to 1000 kVp
d. over 1 MV
.
ANS: A
The diagnostic range of x-ray energy is 30 to 150 kVp.
14. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its
a. amplitude
b. frequency
c. velocity
d. wavelength
.
ANS: B
The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency.
15. The mass equivalent of a 100 KeV photon of radiation can be calculated using the
a. inverse square formula
b. equivalent Planck equation
c. relativity formula
d. Planck quantum equation
ANS: C
The mass equivalent of a 100 KeV photon of radiation can be calculated using the
relativity formula.
16. X-rays are usually identified by their
a. energy
b. velocity
c. wavelength
d. hertz
.
ANS: A
X-rays are usually identified by their energy.
17. The lowest energy range of the electromagnetic spectrum is
a. sound waves
b. radio waves
c. gamma rays
d. microwaves
ANS: B
.
.
The lowest energy range on the electromagnetic spectrum is radio waves.
18. Gamma rays are produced in the
a. outer electron shell
b. inner electron shell
c. nucleus
d. K-shell
of the atom.
ANS: C
Gamma rays are produced in the nucleus of the atom.
19. Photons tend to interact with matter
a. equal in size to
b. larger in size than
c. smaller in size than
d. unequal in size to
their wavelength.
ANS: A
Photons tend to interact with matter equal in size to their wavelength.
20. Photons with the highest frequencies have the
a. highest velocity
b. lowest energy
c. longest wavelengths
d. shortest wavelengths
.
ANS: D
Photons with the highest frequencies have the shortest wavelengths.
Chapter 05: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE
CHOICE
1. The smallest unit of electrical charge is the
a. electron
b. proton
c. neutron
d. neutrino
.
ANS: A
The smallest unit of electrical charge is the electron.
2. Electrification occurs through the movement of
a. protons only
b. protons and electrons
c. electrons only
d. electrons and neutrons
.
ANS: C
Electrification occurs only through the movement of electrons.
3. Like charges
a. repel; repel
b. attract; attract
c. attract; repel
d. repel; attract
and unlike charges
_.
ANS: D
Like charges repel and unlike charges attract.
4. Electrostatic force is
proportional to the distance between charges, and
proportional to the product of the charges.
a. directly; inversely
b. inversely; directly
c. inversely; inversely
d. directly; directly
ANS: B
Electrostatic force is inversely proportional to the distance between charges, and directly
proportional to the product of the charges.
5. The charges on an electrified object are distributed
a. in the center of the object
.
b. on the side nearest the charge
c. on the topside of the object
d. evenly throughout the object
ANS: D
The charges on an electrified object are distributed evenly throughout.
6. On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the
.
a. top side
b. underside
c. sharpest curvatures
d. smoothest curvatures
ANS: C
On the surface of an electrified object, the charges concentrate on the sharpest curvature.
7. A
is a source of direct current.
a. wall socket
b. battery
c. generator
d. spark
ANS: B
A battery is a source of direct current.
8. What is the unit of electric potential?
a. Watt
b. Amp
c. Volt
d. Ohm
ANS: C
The unit of electric potential is the volt.
9. An electric potential applied to a conductor produces a(n)
.
a. electric current
b. magnetic field
c. electric insulator and conductor
d. electric current and a magnetic field
ANS: D
When an electric potential is applied to a conductor, both an electric current and a
magnetic field are produced.
10. An alternating (AC) current is represented by a
a. sinusoidal
b. horizontal
line.
c. vertical
d. descending
ANS: A
An alternating (AC) current is represented by a sinusoidal line.
11. A
uses direct current.
a. hair dryer
b. toaster
c. microwave
d. flashlight
ANS: D
A flashlight is battery operated, and batteries use direct current.
12. Alternating current is produced by a
a. battery
b. generator
c. capacitor
d. semiconductor
ANS: B
Alternating current is produced by a generator.
13. What is Ohm’s law?
a. I = V/R
b. V = I/R
c. R = VI
d. I = VR
.
ANS: A
Ohm’s law is I = V/R.
14. A charged particle in motion creates a(n)
.
a. negative charge
b. positive charge
c. magnetic field
d. electrostatic charge
ANS: C
A charged particle in motion creates a magnetic field.
15. Electrical power is measured in
.
a. coulombs
b. amperes
c. volts
d. watts
ANS: D
Electrical power is measured in watts.
16. Rubber and glass are
.
a. semiconductors
b. conductors
c. insulators
d. superconductors
ANS: C
Rubber and glass are insulators because they are nonconductors.
17. The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called
.
a. magnetic force
b. electron spin
c. unified field theory
d. magnetic induction
ANS: B
The rotation of electrons on their axis is the property called electron spin.
18. When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create
.
a. a magnetic domain
b. paramagnetic material
c. magnetic resonance
d. a north pole
ANS: A
When a group of dipoles are aligned, they create a magnetic domain.
19. In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every
second
.b.a.1/100
1/120
c. 1/60
d. 1/30
ANS: C
In the United States, alternating current goes through a complete cycle every 1/60
second.
20. What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?
a. Ampere
b. Tesla
c. Dipole
d. Ohm
ANS: B
The SI unit of magnetic field strength is the tesla or gauss.
Chapter 06: The X-Ray Imaging System
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube,
, and
.
a. protective barrier; tabletop
b. operating console; high voltage generator
c. rectification circuit; operating console
d. crane assembly; tabletop
ANS: B
The three main parts of the x-ray imaging system are the x-ray tube, operating console,
and high voltage generator.
2. The operating console contains circuits that are
.
a. both high voltage and low voltage
b. high voltage only
c. low voltage only
d. non-voltage
ANS: C
The operating console contains circuits that are low voltage only.
3. Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the
.
a. line voltage compensator
b. high voltage autotransformer
c. full-wave rectifier
d. automatic exposure control
ANS: A
Variations in power distribution to the x-ray machine are corrected by the line
voltage compensator.
4. The first component to receive power in the x-ray circuit is the
a. mA meter
b. high voltage transformer
c. rectifier
d. autotransformer
ANS: D
The first component in the x-ray circuit is the autotransformer.
5. The autotransformer has
winding(s).
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
ANS: A
The autotransformer has one winding.
6. The
circuit provides electrons for the x-ray tube current.
.
a. rectifier
b. autotransformer
c. high voltage
d. filament
ANS: D
The filament circuit provides electrons for the x-ray tube current.
7. Thermionic emission at the filament determines the
across the x-ray tube
during an exposure.
a. kilovoltage
b. milliamperage
c. resistance
d. magnetism
ANS: B
Thermionic emission at the filament determines the milliamperage across the x-ray tube
during an exposure.
8. A step-down transformer is located in the
circuit.
a. tube
b. timing
c. filament
d. rectifier
ANS: C
A step-down transformer is located in the filament circuit.
9. The most accurate type of timer is the
a. mechanical
timer.
b. electronic
c. synchronous
d. mAs
ANS: B
The most accurate type of timer is the electronic timer.
10. The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure when
.
a. the set time is reached
b. set radiation leaves the x-ray tube
c. sufficient radiation reaches the image receptor
d. the correct mAs is reached
ANS: C
The automatic exposure control (AEC) terminates the exposure when sufficient
radiation reaches the image receptor.
11. The mAs timer is usually set to give the
mA at the
a. highest; highest
b. highest; shortest
c. lowest; shortest
d. lowest; highest
ANS: B
The mAs timer is usually set to give the highest mA at the shortest time.
12. The step-up transformer increases voltage
times
. a. 500 to 1000
b. 200 to 300
c. 60 to 120
time.
d. 20 to 50
ANS: A
The step-up transformer increases voltage 500 to 1000 times.
13. A diode allows electrons to flow from
.
a. anode to cathode
b. cathode to anode
c. cathode to cathode
d. anode to anode
ANS: B
A diode allows electrons to flow from cathode to anode.
14. The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transformer, the
, and the
.
a. autotransformer; timer
b. timer; rectifiers
c. kVp meter; filament transformer
d. filament transformer; rectifiers
ANS: B
The high voltage generator contains the high voltage transformer, the filament
transformer, and the rectifiers.
15. The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high
voltage transformer is _.
a. frequency
b. velocity
c. amplitude
d. potential difference
ANS: C
The difference in the waveform between the primary and secondary sides of the high
voltage transformer is amplitude.
16. In modern imaging systems, the components for rectification are
.
a. capacitor discharge generators
b. high frequency transformers
c. vacuum tubes
d. solid state semiconductors
ANS: D
In modern imaging systems, the components for rectification are solid state
semiconductors.
17. With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the
part of the cycle.
a. zero
b. positive or negative
c. positive
d. negative
ANS: C
With half-wave rectification, the current flows through the x-ray tube during the positive
part of the cycle.
18. Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at
a. 1
b. 60
c. 120
pulse(es) per second.
d. 360
ANS: D
Full-wave rectified, three-phase units provide an x-ray beam at 360 pulses per second.
19. Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with
.
a. high frequency generators
b. single-phase, half-wave rectification
c. single-phase, full-wave rectification
d. three-phase, full-wave rectification
ANS: A
Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with high frequency generators.
20. Most mammography units operate with
generators.
a. capacitor discharge
b. high frequency
c. single-phase
d. three-phase
ANS: B
Most mammography units operate with high frequency generators.
Chapter 07: The X-Ray Tube
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the
a. C-arm
.
b. floor-to-ceiling mount
c. ceiling support system
d. floor support system
ANS: C
The most widely used support structure for the x-ray tube is the ceiling support system.
2. The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective
housing, and the
.
a. anode
b. cathode
c. glass envelope
d. focusing cup
ANS: C
The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective
housing, and the glass envelope.
3. As an x-ray tube ages, the inside can become coated with tungsten, which can cause
in the tube.
a. convection
b. anode pitting
c. off-focus radiation
d. arcing
ANS: D
Tungsten coating within the tube can cause arcing.
4. The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the
a. filament
.
b. anode
c. target
d. rotor
ANS: A
The negative side of the x-ray tube holds the filament.
5. What is the most common cause of tube failure?
a. Cracked anode
b. Loose bearings
c. Pitted anode
d. Tungsten vaporization
ANS: D
The most common cause of tube failure is tungsten vaporization.
6. The filament is made of
.
a. graphite
b. tungsten
c. copper
d. molybdenum
ANS: B
The filament is made of tungsten.
7. Thermionic emission at the filament creates a
a. space charge
b. grid control
c. line focus
d. heel effect
.
ANS: A
Thermionic emission at the filament creates a space charge.
8. The rotating anode is turned by a
.
a. thermal cushion
b. rotating belt
c. magnetic field
d. mechanical pulley
ANS: C
The induction motor works by electromagnetic induction.
9. When electrons bombard the target,
heat.
% of their kinetic energy is converted to
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 99
ANS: D
When electrons bombard the target, 99% of their kinetic energy is converted to
heat.
10. The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a
a. molybdenum
b. graphite
c. tungsten
d. copper
ANS: C
alloy.
The target of the rotating anode is usually coated with a tungsten alloy.
11. The
is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube.
a. filament
b. focal spot
c. focusing cup
d. stator
ANS: B
The focal spot is the source of radiation in the x-ray tube.
12. Because of the line focus principal, the effective focal spot size decreases with
decreasing
.
a. target angle
b. rotor speed
c. window thickness
d. space charge
ANS: A
The size of the effective focal spot decreases as the target angle decreases.
13. High capacity tube rotors revolve at
rpm
.b.a. 3600
2000
c. 6000
d. 10,000
ANS: D
High capacity tube rotors revolve at 10,000 rpm.
14. The x-ray intensity is lower on the anode side of the tube because of the _
.
a. line focus principle
b. heel effect
c. focusing cup
d. filament length
ANS: B
The heel effect causes x-ray intensity to be greater on the anode side of the tube.
15. The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the
part of the patient.
a. upper
b. lower
c. thicker
d. thinner
ANS: C
The cathode side of the tube should be directed toward the thicker part of the patient,
because of the heel effect.
16. What is the formula for heat units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine?
a. kVp
mA
seconds
b. 1.35
kVp
mA
seconds
c. 1.41
kVp
mA
seconds
d. 1.66
kVp
mA
seconds
ANS: B
The formula for heat units is units for a 3-phase, 6-pulse x-ray machine is 1.35
mA
seconds.
17. Tube failure can occur from
.
kVp
a. extrafocal radiation
b. short exposure times
c. high kVp techniques
d. long exposure times
ANS: D
Tube failure can occur from long exposure times.
18. The filament in an x-ray tube is about
cm in length.
a. 1 to 2
b. 3 to 4
c. 8 to 10
d. 10 to 20
ANS: A
The filament in an x-ray tube is about 1 to 2 cm in length.
19. A dual focus tube has two
.
a. anodes
b. filaments
c. rotors
d. stators
ANS: B
The dual focus tube has two filaments.
20. Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show
a. housing cooling times
b. anode cooling times
c. maximum exposure times
.
d. maximum patient doses
ANS: C
Each tube has its own tube rating chart to show maximum exposure times.
Chapter 08: X-Ray Production
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Projectile electrons travel from
.
a. anode to cathode
b. cathode to anode
c. target to patient
d. inner shell to outer shell
ANS: B
Projectile electrons travel from filament to target.
2. During an exposure, most of the
energy of the projectile electrons is converted to
.
a. kinetic; x-rays
b. x-ray; kinetic
c. kinetic; heat
d. heat; kinetic
ANS: C
During an exposure, most of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to
heat.
3. At the target, the projectile electrons interact with
.
a. outer-shell electrons
b. inner-shell electrons
c. atomic nuclei
d. inner-shell and outer-shell electrons
ANS: D
The projectile electrons interact with both outer-shell and inner-shell electrons in the
target.
4. The efficiency of x-ray production is
the tube current.
a. indirectly proportional to
b. directly proportional to
c. not affected by
d. strongly affected by
ANS: C
The efficiency of x-ray production is unrelated to tube current.
5. Most of the heat generated at the target is due to _
.
a. inner-shell ionization
b. outer-shell excitation
c. nucleus bombardment
d. K x-rays
ANS: B
Most of the heat generated at the target is due to outer-shell excitation.
6. The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to
a. rotor speed
b. filament current
c. kVp
.
d. tube current
ANS: D
The production of heat at the anode is directly proportional to tube current.
7. The efficiency of x-ray production increases as
increases.
a. mA
b. kVp
c. time
d. mA and kVp
ANS: B
The efficiency of x-ray production increases as kVp increases.
8. Approximately
of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to x-rays
at the target.
a. 1%
b. 10%
c. 50%
d. 99%
ANS: B
Approximately 1% of the kinetic energy of the electrons is converted to x-rays at the target.
9. Electron interactions at the inner shell of the target atoms produce
a. gamma
b. Bremsstrahlung
c. characteristic
d. alpha
radiation.
ANS: C
Electron interactions at the inner shell of the target atoms produce characteristic
radiation.
10. The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are -shell x-rays.
a. K
b. L
c. M
d. N
ANS: A
The useful characteristic x-rays from tungsten targets are K-shell x-rays.
11. Characteristic K-shell x-rays have an effective energy of
keV
b.
. a. 30.6
c. 12
d. 69
ANS: D
Characteristic K-shell x-rays have an effective energy of 69 keV.
12. Most of the x-rays produced at the target are
a. bremsstrahlung
b. characteristic
c. gamma
d. beta
ANS: A
Most of the x-rays produced at the target are bremsstrahlung.
.
13. At 55 kVp,
of the x-rays produced are
bremsstrahlung. a. 15%
b. 80%
c. 100%
d. none
ANS: C
At 55 kVp, 100% of the x-rays produced are bremsstrahlung.
14. Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by
at the target.
a. outer shell excitation
b. slowing electrons
c. K-shell interactions
d. L-shell interactions
ANS: B
Bremsstrahlung x-rays are produced by slowing electrons at the target.
15. Characteristic x-rays are produced by
.
a. braking electrons
b. excitation of outer shell electrons
c. nuclear fragmentation
d. released binding energy
ANS: D
Characteristic x-rays are produced by released binding energy.
16. The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased
a. kVp
.
b. mAs
c. filtration
d. rotor speed
ANS: B
The quantity of bremsstrahlung radiation increases proportionately with increased mAs.
17. An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have a continuous emission spectrum with a
maximum energy of keV.
a. 30
b. 69
c. 100
d. 140
ANS: C
An exposure taken at 100 kVp would have an emission spectrum with a maximum
energy of 100 keV.
18. The
of an x-ray beam is higher when the peak of the emission
spectrum is further to the
_.
a. quality; right
b. quantity; right
c. quality; left
d. quantity; left
ANS: A
The quality of an x-ray beam is higher when the emission spectrum is further to the right.
19. An increase in mAs would
a. increase; position alone
the
of the emission spectrum.
b. increase; amplitude alone
c. increase; amplitude and position
d. not affect; amplitude and position
ANS: B
An increase in mAs would increase only the amplitude of the emission spectrum.
20. An increase in kVp would
the
of the emission spectrum.
a. increase; position alone
b. increase; amplitude alone
c. increase; amplitude and position
d. not affect; amplitude and position
ANS: C
An increase in kVp would increase the amplitude and position of the emission spectrum.
Chapter 09: X-Ray Emission
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Grays, or milligrays, in air are the measurement for x-ray
.
a. quantity and intensity
b. exposure and quantity
c. intensity and exposure
d. quantity, exposure and intensity
ANS: D
Grays are the measurement for x-ray quantity, exposure or intensity.
2. The number of x-rays in the useful beam defines x-ray
.
a. kVp
b. quality
c. Intensity
d. mAs
ANS: C
The number of x-rays in the useful beam defines x-ray intensity.
3. Standard x-ray machines produce about
SID.
µGya/mAs at 70 kVp measured at 100 cm
a. 20
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200
ANS: B
Standard x-ray machines produce about 50 µGya/mAs at 70 kVp measured at 100 cm SID.
4. X-ray intensity increases in direct proportion to increases in
.
a. mAs
b. kVp
c. distance
d. filtration
ANS: A
X-ray quantity increases in direct proportion to increases in mAs.
5. If the distance from the source to the image (SID) is reduced by half, how is the
x-ray intensity at the image affected?
a. It is increased 4 times.
b. It is doubled.
c. It is reduced by 1/2.
d. It is reduced by 1/4.
ANS: A
If the SID is reduced by 1/2, the intensity at the image increases 4 times, because of the
inverse square law.
6. If filter thickness is
, then x-ray intensity is
.
a. reduced; reduced
b. increased; reduced
c. reduced; increased
d. increased; reduced and reduced; increased
ANS: D
If filter thickness is increased, then x-ray intensity is decreased and if filter thickness is
decreased, then x-ray intensity is increased.
7. A 10% increase in kVp has
mAs.
effect on x-ray intensity than/as a 10% increase in
a. the same
b. much greater
c. less
d. much less
ANS: B
A 10% increase in kVp has much greater effect on x-ray intensity than a 10% increase in
mAs.
8. If the quantity of electrons hitting the target is doubled, the x-ray intensity is
a. reduced by half
b. just slightly increased
.
c. increased by a factor of two
d. increased by a factor of four
ANS: C
If x-ray quantity is doubled, the optical density on the finished radiograph will be
increased by a factor of two.
9. If a technologist changes the technique from 70 kVp @ 200 mAs to 70 kVp @ 400 mAs,
the x-ray intensity will
.
a. double
b. remain the same
c. decrease by half
d. increase by
ANS: A
If the technologist changes from 200 mAs to 400 mAs, the x-ray intensity will double.
10. The inverse square law has the same effect on x-ray
and x-ray _
a. intensity; energy
b. quantity; exposure
c. intensity; quantity
d. intensity; exposure
ANS: D
The inverse square law has the same effect on x-ray intensity and x-ray exposure.
11. An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs
. a. 15%
b. 30%
.
c. 50%
d. 100%
ANS: D
An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs 100%.
12. If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 20 mAs is 1.0 mGya, what would it be at 5 mAs?
a. 0.25 mGya
b. 0.5 mGya
c. 2.0 mGya
d. 4.0 mGya
ANS: A
If the intensity of a 70 kVp exposure at 20 mAs is 1.0 mGya, it would be 0.25 mGya at 5
mAs because exposure is proportional to mAs.
13. If an exposure is 0.5 mGya at an SID of 40 inches, what would the exposure be at an
SID of 60 inches?
a. 0.222 mGya
b. 0.333 mGya
c. 0.75 mGya
d. 1.125 mGya
ANS: A
If an exposure is 0.5 mGya at an SID of 40 inches, it would be at 0.222 mGya at an SID of
60 inches because of the inverse square law.
14. X-ray intensity is proportional to
a. distance
b. kVp
.
c. kVp2
d. filtration
ANS: C
X-ray intensity is proportional to kVp2.
15. The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray
.
a. quantity
b. quality
c. intensity
d. energy
ANS: B
The penetrability of an x-ray beam is called x-ray quality.
16. An x-ray beam that could pass through dense tissue would have high
.
a. penetrability
b. quality and quantity
c. quantity
d. penetrability and quality
ANS: D
An x-ray that could pass through thick tissue would have high quality and
penetrability.
17. A low-quality beam would also have low
a. penetrability
b. quantity
c. mAs
d. intensity
.
ANS: A
A low quality beam would also have low penetrability.
18. Beam energy is affected by
.
a. mAs and distance
b. kVp and mAs
c. kVp and filtration
d. filtration and mAs
ANS: C
Beam quality is affected by kVp and filtration.
19. The half value layer (HVL) of an x-ray beam is a measurement of beam
.
a. intensity
b. energy
c. quantity
d. exposure
ANS: B
The half value layer (HVL) of an x-ray beam is a measurement of beam energy.
20. Image contrast is affected by
.
a. beam quality
b. kVp
c. mAs and kVp
d. beam quality and kVp
ANS: D
Image contrast is affected by beam quality and kVp.
Chapter 10: X-Ray Interaction with Matter
Bushong: Radiologic Science for Technologists, 12th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are
.
a. Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption
b. Compton scattering and pair production
c. photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering
d. coherent scattering and Thompson scattering
ANS: A
The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are Compton
scattering and photoelectric absorption.
2. An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during
.
a. photoelectric absorption
b. Compton scattering
c. coherent scattering
d. pair production
ANS: C
An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during coherent scattering.
3. An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during
a. photoelectric interactions
b. Compton interactions
c. coherent scattering
d. pair production
.
ANS: B
An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during Compton interactions.
4. Which x-ray interaction involves the ejection of the K-shell electron?
a. Coherent scattering
b. Compton interaction
c. Pair production
d. Photoelectric absorption
ANS: D
Photoelectric absorption involves the ejection of the K-shell electron.
5. The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains
of the energy of
the incident photon.
a. none
b. little
c. most
d. all
ANS: C
The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains most of the energy of
the incident photon.
6. Compton scatter is directed at
beam. a. a 180°
b. a 90°
c. a 0°
d. any
ANS: D
angle from the incident
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IF YOU WANT THIS TEST BANK OR
SOLUTION MANUAL EMAIL ME
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CHAPTERS IN PDF FORMAT