Nursing Fall 24 Fundamentals Midterm

#separator:tab #html:true What are the standards of professional performance?<ul><li>ethics</li><li> advocacy</li><li> respectful and equitable practice</li><li>communication</li><li>collaboration</li><li>leadership</li><li> education</li><li> scholarly inquiry</li><li>quality of practice</li><li>professional practice evaluation </li><li>resource stewardship </li><li>environmental health</li></ul> What behaviors demonstrates caring in nursing practice?<ul><li>Compassion (motivator)</li><li>Presence (shared bond between nurse and patient)</li><li>Caring touch </li><li>Active listening </li></ul> What are some verbal therapeutic communication techniques?"■ Offering self ■ Calling the patient by name ■ Sharing observations ■ Giving information ■ Using open-ended questions or comments ■ Using humor ■ Verbalizing the implied ■ Paraphrasing or restating communication content ■ Reflecting feelings or emotions ■ Seeking clarification ■ Summarizing ■ Validating" What are some nonverbal therapeutic communication techniques?<ul><li>Active listening</li><li>Silence</li><li>Therapeutic touch </li><li>Welcoming and open posture</li></ul> What are some examples of nontherapeutic communicaton?"Asking ""why"" questions Changing the subject Giving false reassurance Giving advice Giving stereotypical or generalized responses Making judgmental comments Minimizing feelings Disagreeing Being defensive Challenging Probing Testing Rejecting Changing the subject Comparing patient experiences Using personal terms of endearment" What are the roles of a nurse?<ul><li>Care provider</li><li>educator</li><li>advocate</li><li>leader</li><li>change agent</li><li>manager</li><li>researcher</li><li>collaborator</li><li>delegator</li></ul> What are common defense mechanisms?<ul><li>Compensation</li><li>denial</li><li>displacement</li><li>Introjection</li><li>Projection</li><li>Rationalization</li><li>regression</li><li>repression</li><li>sublimination </li><li>supression</li></ul> Defense mechanism: compensationUsing personal strengths or abilities to overcome feelings of inadequacy. Defense mechanism: DenialRefusing to admit the reality of a situation or feeling Defense mechanism: Displacement"Transferring emotional energy away from an actual source of stress to an unrelated person or object." Defense mechanism: IntrojectionTaking on certain characteristics of another individual's personality Defense mechanism: ProjectionAttributing undesirable feelings to another person Defense mechanism: Rationalization"Denying true motives for an action by identifying a more socially acceptable explanation" Defense mechanism: RegressionReverting to behaviors consistent with earlier stages of development. Defense mechanism: repression"Storing painful or hostile feelings in the unconscious, causing them to be temporarily forgotten." Defense mechanism: SubliminationRechanneling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Defense mechanism: SuppressionChoosing not to think consciously about unpleasant feelings What is clinical judgement composed of? (2)Critical thinking and clinical reasoning  Define critical thinking."<ul><li>thinking clearly, precisely, accurately and is how you think though the problems</li><li>question and analyze  </li></ul>" What cognitive activities are important in clinical thinking?"<ul><li>Thinking ahead </li><ul><li>Requires being prepared, anticipating potential challenges, and identifying necessary resources that can provide helpful information </li></ul><li>Thinking-in-action</li><ul><li>Requires knowledge and practical experience to be most effective. ○ </li><li>Involves thinking about multiple options and safely acting simultaneously.</li></ul><li>Thinking back</li><ul><li>Reflection (contemplating or considering) is an essential strategy for improving critical thinking skills.</li></ul></ul>" Define clinical reasoning.<ul><li>the ability to focus and filter clinical data to recognize what is most and least important</li><ul><li>Helps identify whether an actual problem is present.</li></ul></ul> What attributes are required fro successful clinical judgement?<ul><li>A strong knowledge base</li><li>Proficient technical skills</li><li>Early problem recognition</li><li>Effective communication</li><li>Trusting relationships with patients </li><li>Previous experience </li><li>Confidence</li><li>Intuition </li><li>Reflection</li></ul> What is the primary purpose of reflection in nursing practice?To learn from experiences and improve future practice. How does reflection-in-action differ from reflection-on-action?Reflection-in-action occurs during an intervention, while reflection-on-action happens after an experience. Why is reflection considered a valuable tool for improving critical thinking skills in nurses?It helps identify what worked well, what could have been done better, and develop a plan for future improvement. What factors can trigger reflection in nursing practice?Practice experiences, patient outcomes, interactions with colleagues, feedback, research articles, conferences, and continuing education. What are some strategies nurses can use to promote reflection?<ul><li>Clinical journaling</li><li>debriefing with colleagues</li><li>seeking feedback</li><li>participating in peer review</li><li>engaging in self-assessment</li><li>using the 'what if' technique.</li></ul> Why is reflection an essential component of professional development for nurses?It helps nurses grow both personally and professionally. What is the first step of the nursing process?Assessment What methods are used to collect data during the assessment phase?Observation, patient interview, physical assessment, review of records, speaking with family and significant others What is the second step of the nursing process?Diagnosis What is the purpose of the diagnosis step in the nursing process?To identify the patient's problems and needs How do nursing diagnoses differ from medical diagnoses?They consider a patient's situation more holistically, including responses to current circumstances. What is the third step of the nursing process?Planning What are the key components of the planning step?Prioritizing problems, setting goals, identifying interventions What resources can help prioritize problems in the planning step?Maslow's hierarchy of needs and the ABCs of life support What does the acronym SMART stand for in goal setting?Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound What types of interventions can be identified in the planning step?Independent, dependent, collaborative What is the fourth step of the nursing process?Implementation What activities are included in the implementation step?Providing direct and indirect care, coordinating care, documenting care What is the final step of the nursing process?Evaluation What are the key components of the evaluation step?Assessing the patient's response, determining if goals were met, identifying changes needed When should evaluation occur in the nursing process?Throughout all phases of the nursing process What is subjective data?spoken information or symptoms that are typically difficult to validate What is primary data?Information shared by patient What is secondary data?Information shared by family, friends or other members of the health care team How should subjective data be documented?As direct quotes What is objective data?<ul><li>Can be measured or observed </li></ul> How is objective data collected?observation physical examination analysis of laboratory and diagnostic test results. "What is included in the ""health history"" umbrella?"<ul><li>Demographic data</li><li>Cultural background or ethnic origin</li><li>Chief complaint or current illness</li><li>Allergies and sensitivities</li><li>Medications, vitamins, and herbal supplements</li><li>Immunizations</li><li>Medical history</li><li>Surgical history</li><li>Family history</li><li>Social history</li><li>Cultural and spiritual or religious traditions</li><li>Activities of daily living (ADLs)</li><li>Cognitive or emotional status</li><li>Health promotion practices</li></ul> What is a comprehensive assessment?A thorough evaluation of a patient's physical, psychological, social, cultural, and spiritual status. When is a comprehensive assessment typically done?At an annual visit or upon admission to a hospital. What does obtaining a detailed health history include?Present illness, past medical and surgical history, family history, social history, and review of systems. What are the components of a complete head-to-toe physical examination?Inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation of all body systems. What additional data is reviewed during a comprehensive assessment?Diagnostic test results, medication records, and other relevant data. What factors are considered that may impact the patient's health and care?Cultural, spiritual, and socioeconomic factors. What is the purpose of a comprehensive assessment?To provide a baseline understanding of the patient's overall health status and develop an individualized plan of care. What is a focused assessment?A brief, targeted physical examination in response to a specific patient concern or change in condition. Who most often conducts a focused assessment?A nurse. When might a focused assessment be done?At change of shift, in response to a specific patient concern, or when signs indicate a change in condition. What vital signs are obtained during a focused assessment?Temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, pain level, and oxygen saturation. What areas are examined during a focused assessment?Head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, neck, thorax, abdomen, and extremities. What is the purpose of a focused assessment?To quickly evaluate the patient's current status and identify potential issues or changes. What is an emergency assessment?A physical examination done when time is critical, treatment must begin immediately, or care priorities need to be established quickly. What does an emergency assessment involve?A quick survey of the accident or illness onset and a narrowly focused physical examination of critical injuries or symptoms. What is determined to establish the extent of injury to vital organs during an emergency assessment?Patient responsiveness. What are the primary aspects checked during an emergency assessment?Airway, breathing, and circulation. What injuries and conditions are checked for during an emergency assessment?Deformities, compound fractures, contusions, abrasions, puncture wounds, burns, tenderness, lacerations, bleeding, and swelling. What is the nurse's priority during an emergency assessment?To stabilize one body system at a time while continually reassessing. How often might a nurse reassess a patient during an emergency?Every 5 to 15 minutes, depending on the patient's stability. What is triage in the context of emergency assessment?The classification of patients according to treatment priority based on the urgency of their condition. What is the main goal of triage?To categorize patients by the urgency of their condition. What do medical diagnoses identify and label?Medical (physical and psychological) illnesses. What are nursing diagnoses based on?Patient assessment data and recognized cues. What is included in a problem-focused nursing diagnosis?Problem after assessing patient, related to (cause/etiology), as evidenced by (signs and symptoms). What does a risk nursing diagnosis include?Diagnosis label and risk factors (preceded by 'as evidenced by'). What are the components of health promotion nursing diagnoses?Diagnosis label and defining characteristics. What does 'as evidenced by' indicate in a problem-focused nursing diagnosis?Signs and symptoms. What is delegation in the context of patient care?Transferring responsibility for certain tasks to other personnel. Who can tasks be delegated to in patient care?Unlicensed Assistive Personnel (UAP), Licensed Vocational Nurses (LVN), and Licensed Practical Nurses (LPN). What are the Five Rights of Delegation according to the NCSBN?Right Task, Right Circumstance, Right Person, Right Directions and Communication, Right Supervision and Evaluation. What does the 'Right Task' in the Five Rights of Delegation refer to?The task must be suitable for delegation. What does the 'Right Circumstance' in the Five Rights of Delegation mean?The patient's condition and the environment must be appropriate. What is meant by the 'Right Person' in the Five Rights of Delegation?The delegatee must possess the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience. What does 'Right Directions and Communication' entail in the Five Rights of Delegation?Clear, concise instructions and expectations must be communicated to the delegatee. What is involved in the 'Right Supervision and Evaluation' in the Five Rights of Delegation?The RN must oversee and evaluate the delegatee's performance, providing feedback and intervention as needed. What does the Nurse Practice Act (NPA) outline?What tasks can be delegated and to whom. Who remains accountable for the outcome of a delegated task?The RN. What basic care tasks can be delegated to UAP?Providing hygiene, taking vital signs, helping with ambulation and eating. What is important in the delegation process besides task assignment?Clear communication and mutual respect. What tasks CANNOT be delegated?<ul><li>Nursing process </li><li>Initial and ongoing assessment of critically ill patients</li><li>Initial assessment of unstable patients</li><li>Patient education and teaching</li><li>Sterile procedures (though UAP may assist with trained supervision)</li><li>Putting on and taking off personal protective equipment (PPE)</li></ul> What are care plans?Formal, written guides outlining a patient's needs and interventions. What is the primary function of care plans?Serve as roadmaps for patient care. How do care plans support the accuracy and pertinence of care?Provide concrete evidence. Why is the nursing process important in developing care plans?Ensures professional standards of care are met. What are the typical components included in all care plan formats?Key assessment data, nursing diagnoses, goals, interventions, outcome evaluation. What must be done to standardized care plans?They must be individualized for each patient. What does SMART stand for in goal setting?Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bound. What is the focus of patient-centered goals?The patient's needs and preferences. What is the typical timeframe for short-term goals in care plans?Less than a week. What do long-term goals in care plans focus on?Broader outcomes that may take weeks or months to achieve. What are examples of lifestyle choices that are considered modifiable risk factors?Excessive alcohol intake, poor dietary habits, lack of physical activity, and smoking. What environmental factors can be modified to reduce health risks?Exposure to pollutants, hazardous materials, and unsafe living conditions. Which physiological factors are considered modifiable risk factors?Obesity, hypertension, high cholesterol, and diabetes. What does health promotion encompass?Activities and interventions that empower individuals to make positive lifestyle choices that enhance their overall health and well-being. What aspects of well-being does health promotion emphasize?Physical, emotional, social, intellectual, and spiritual well-being. What activities contribute to physical well-being in health promotion?Engaging in regular exercise, maintaining a healthy weight, consuming a nutritious diet, and getting adequate sleep. How can emotional well-being be managed in health promotion?Managing stress effectively, fostering positive relationships, and developing coping mechanisms. What contributes to social well-being in health promotion?Cultivating meaningful connections, participating in community activities, and seeking support when needed. How can intellectual well-being be enhanced in health promotion?Engaging in lifelong learning, pursuing hobbies, and challenging one's mind. What is involved in spiritual well-being in health promotion?Connecting with one's values and beliefs, finding purpose and meaning in life. What perspective does health promotion take?A holistic perspective that considers all aspects of a person's well-being. What are the key concepts in health promotion?<ul><li>Holistic perspective</li><li>Empowerment and self efficacy </li><li>Positive approach </li><li>Intrinsic motivation</li></ul> What are the key concepts in risk factor reduction?<ul><li>Prevention is key</li><li>Targeted approach </li><li>Individualized strategies</li><li>Step-by-step improvement </li></ul> What are the different kinds of modifyable risk factors?<ul><li>Lifestyle choices</li><li>Enviornmental factors</li><li>phsyiological factors</li></ul> What is the goal of risk factor reduction?Minimizing threats to health by identifying and modifying (or eliminating) modifyable risk factors  Define social determinants of health."conditions in which people live, work, play, and worship that affect their health" What are some examples of positive social determininants of health?<ul><li>Quality education</li><li>Livable-wage jobs</li><li>Safe neighborhoods</li><li>Social supports</li><li>Healthy and affordable foods</li><li>Health care</li></ul> What are common causes of fires in healthcare facilities?Flammable gases and electrical equipment. What types of flammable gases are often involved in healthcare facility fires?Anesthetics. What types of electrical equipment can cause fires in healthcare facilities?Heating and cooling devices, respiratory devices, beds, and monitors. What is one key policy to prevent fires in healthcare facilities?No-Smoking Policies. Why is oxygen safety important in fire prevention?Oxygen is flammable and should not be used near open flames. What is the purpose of fire drills in healthcare facilities?To prepare staff and patients for a fire emergency. What training is essential for staff in healthcare facilities to handle fire emergencies?Fire extinguisher training. What should staff do after rescuing patients in a fire emergency?Activate the manual-pull station or fire alarm and call 911. How can staff contain a fire in a healthcare facility?By closing doors, confining the fire, and preventing the spread of smoke. What should be done with oxygen and mechanical ventilation during a fire?Turn off oxygen and disconnect patients from mechanical ventilation. When should staff attempt to extinguish a fire?After all patients are evacuated from the area and if it can be done safely. How are patients triaged during an evacuation?Based on their mobility levels. Where do patients and staff gather during a fire evacuation?Designated safe areas. Who plays a crucial role in educating patients and families about fire safety?Nurses and other healthcare professionals. What ongoing training is essential for healthcare staff to maintain fire safety?Training on the RACE protocol, fire extinguisher use, and evacuation procedures. What is the first thing a staff memberes should do in the event of a fire?Rescue all patients in immediate danger and move them to safe areas. What is the acronym used for fire safety in health care?RACE Define each letter in RACE<ul><li>Rescue (patients)</li><li>Activate (fire alarm & call 911)</li><li>Contain (close doors to confine the fire)</li><li>Extinguish (if possible, after pateints are evacuated)</li></ul> What happens to muscle strength after age 70?It declines by 30% to 50%. Why should infants be placed in the supine position for sleeping?To decrease the likelihood of sudden infant death syndrome. What is the leading cause of long-term disability among adults in the United States?Stroke. What characterizes COPD?Impaired airflow in the lungs. How can some medications affect mobility?They can cause side effects such as dizziness and drowsiness. How can diet and exercise affect mobility?They can influence mobility positively or negatively. What nutrients are important for optimal skeletal function?Proteins, calcium, and vitamin D. What lifestyle factors can negatively affect calcium balance?Smoking, high caffeine intake, inadequate calcium intake, sodium, and phosphorus. How can exercise benefit mobility?It helps prevent age-induced declines in mobility. What can physical therapy improve?Range of motion, strength, and balance. What is the role of occupational therapy in mobility?It helps people regain their ability to perform activities of daily living. How can assistive devices help with mobility?They help people maintain their mobility. What can medications manage to aid mobility?Pain and other symptoms that interfere with mobility. When might surgery be necessary for mobility issues?To correct some conditions that affect mobility. How can environmental adaptations promote mobility?They make it easier for people with mobility impairments to get around safely. How does aging affect the number of neurons?"The number of neurons decreases with aging. affects cognition and slows response times." How do musculoskeletal disordors immpact mobility?cause musculoskeletal pain and joint limitations What changes in older adults that impacts mobility?<ul><li>number of neurons decrease</li><ul><li>affects cognition and slows response times</li></ul><li>muscle strength declines</li></ul> How does the musculoskeletal system impact mobility>"Impairment of any component of the musculoskeletal system can restrict range of motion, diminish strength, produce a loss of balance, and cause an unsteady gait." What relationship does the neurologic system have with mobility?"<ul><li>includes cognitive (mental) ability and sensory perception</li><ul><li>Changes in mental status can alter judgment and compromise safety awareness.</li><li>Alterations of the five senses (i.e., vision, hearing, touch, smell, and taste) can produce safety risks that affect mobility</li></ul></ul>" How does an impaired cardiopulmonary system affect mobility?"<ul><li>can impair perfusion </li><ul><li>resulting in symptoms such as shortness of breath and chest pain </li><ul><li>can lead to activity intolerance </li><ul><li>Inactivity can lead to orthostatic hypotension </li></ul></ul></ul></ul>" What factors are important to consider when to comes to patient teaching? (9)<ul><li>Health literacy</li><li>Learning styles (verbal, aural, written, and kinesthetic)</li><li>Age and development stage</li><li>Culture and religion</li><li>Disability</li><li>Enviornment </li><li>Timing</li><li>Availability of resources (i.e. financial, transportation,etc.)</li><li>Motivation and willingness to learn </li></ul> What is the goal of patient educaton?"to help patients understand their health condition and make informed decisions about their care" What are the domains of learning?<ul><li>Cognitive (knowing)</li><li>Psychomotor (doing)</li><li>Affective (feeling)</li></ul> What is sterile technique also known as?Surgical aespsis What is sterile technique?Involves practices that keep an area or object completely free from all microorganisms When is sterile technique (surgical aesepsis) used?<ul><li>in procedures that involve entering sterile body cavities (i.e. surgeries, catheterization, and wound dressing) in sterile fields</li><li>Requires use of sterile instruments (gowns, gloves, drapes)</li></ul> What is clean technique (medical aesepsis) used?Involves practices aimed at reducing and limiting the number of microorganisms to prevent their spread. When is clean technique (medical aesepsis) used?<ul><li>Used for non-invasive procedures </li><ul><li>administering medications</li><li>keeping soiled items off the floor</li></ul></ul> What is clean technique also called?medical asepsis Compare surgical asepsis with medical asepsis.<ul><li>Surgical asepsis</li><ul><li>Involves practices that keep an area or object completely free from all microorganisms </li></ul><li>Medical asepsis </li><ul><li>Focuses on preventing cross-contamination rather than eliminating all microorganisms </li></ul></ul> Define disinfection and sterilization. <ul><li>the removal of pathogenic microorganisms but does not typically destroy spores. </li><li>destroys all microorganisms, including spores. </li></ul> What are common disinfectants?Alchohol and chlorhexidine How is sterilization achieved?through chemical and physical means  What is the purpose of protective isolation?To protect patients with compromised immune systems from microorganisms in the environment. Why might patients undergoing chemotherapy require protective isolation?They have compromised immune systems. What type of room is often used in protective isolation?Positive-pressure room with a HEPA filtration system. Name some items that are restricted in a protective isolation room.Live plants, fresh flowers, raw fruits and vegetables, sushi, and bleu cheese. What are parasites?Organisms that live on or in other organisms. How are parasites transmitted?Through sexual contact, insects, and domestic animals. What type of parasites can cause skin and systemic diseases?Arthropods. How are infections caused by parasites typically treated?With medication. What is the purpose of a positive-pressure room in protective isolation?To prevent outside air from entering the room. What are some protective isolation measures?<ul><li>Positive pressure room with HEPA filtration system</li><li>masks</li><li>meticulous handwashing</li><li>restrictions on visitors and items brought into the room</li></ul> List some things that migh cause patients to need protective isolation? Why?<div>Compromised immune systems</div><ul><li>Chemotherapy </li><li>Bone marrow transplants</li><li>Severe burns</li><li>Conditions (leukemia, HIV, sepsis)</li></ul> What are some types of parasites?<ul><li>Protozoans</li><li>Helminths</li><li>Arthropods</li></ul> What age is the sandwhich generation?35-65 Compare growth and development.<ul><li>Growth </li><ul><li>increase in size </li></ul><li>Development</li><ul><li>increasing maturation (physical, thought process, and behavioral)</li></ul></ul> How is growth predictable?<ul><li>from head to tail (cephalocaudal)</li><li> from near to far (proximodistal)</li></ul> What is the duration of the adolescent growth spurt?24-36 months What significant changes occur during puberty?Breast development, menstruation, testicular enlargement, growth of body hair, and voice changes How do the heart and lungs change during adolescence?They grow to adult size, increasing blood volume and exercise capacity What is still developing in teenagers that can contribute to risky behaviors?Impulse control Why are peer relationships important for teenagers?Teens often seek acceptance from their peer group What is the leading cause of death among teenagers?Accidents, particularly motor vehicle crashes What is the second leading cause of death among teenagers?Suicide What is the third leading cause of death in the 10-24 year old age group?Homicide What type of education do teenagers need regarding sexual health?Education about safe sex practices, including contraception and STIs What mental health disorders are common during adolescence?Depression, anxiety, and eating disorders Why do teenagers have increased nutritional needs?Due to rapid growth and development What can lead to unhealthy eating habits in teenagers?Busy schedules and social pressures What type of information do teenagers need about health risks?Accurate and age-appropriate information What screenings should be conducted for teenagers?Mental health assessments, blood pressure checks, and STI screenings What should parents and teenagers be counseled about regarding safety?Accident prevention strategies, including safe driving practices, substance use prevention, and violence prevention What type of communication should be encouraged between parents, healthcare providers, and teenagers?Open communication about physical and mental health concerns What role can nurses play in supporting the health of teenagers?Advocate, educator, counselor, screener, and referral source What cognitive skills are teenagers developing?"Abstract thinking skills and the ability to consider multiple perspectives sense of identiy and values begine to develop" What psychosocial struggles may teenagers deal with?Body image and self-esteem What are the health risks for teenagers?<ul><li>motovehicular accidents</li><li>suicide</li><li>homicide</li><li>substane use</li><li>sexual health </li><li>mental health</li><li>nutrition</li></ul> What health promotional activities should be done on teenagers?<ul><li>Health education</li><li>Vaccinations</li><li>safety counseling </li><li>opene communication (to parents and healthcare providers)</li></ul> What age is associated with trust vs mistrust?18 months  What age is associated with autonomy vs shame and doubt?18 months to 3 years What age is associated with initiative vs guilt?3-6 yo What age is associated with industry vs inferiority?6-12 yo What age is associated with identify vs role confusion?12-18 yo What age is associated with itimacy vs association?18-35 yo What age is associated with generativity vs stagnation35-55 yo What age is associated with integrity vs despair?55+ List eriksons development theory in order.<ol><li>Trust vs mistrust</li><li>Autonomy vs shame and doubt</li><li>Initiative vs guilt</li><li>Industry vs inferiority </li><li>Identidy vs role confusion</li><li>Intimacy vs isolation</li><li>Generativity vs stagnation</li><li>Integrity vs despair </li></ol> What is the crisis in the Trust vs. Mistrust stage?Infants must learn to trust their caregivers to meet their basic needs. What is the crisis in the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage?Toddlers begin to assert their independence and develop a sense of control over their bodies and actions. What is the crisis in the Initiative vs. Guilt stage?Preschoolers continue to explore their world and develop a sense of purpose. What is the crisis in the Industry vs. Inferiority stage?School-aged children strive to develop a sense of competence and mastery in their academic and social pursuits. What is the crisis in the Identity vs. Role Confusion stage?Adolescents explore different roles and identities as they try to figure out who they are and where they belong. What is the crisis in the Intimacy vs. Isolation stage?Young adults seek to develop intimate, loving relationships with others. What is the crisis in the Generativity vs. Stagnation stage?Middle-aged adults focus on contributing to society and leaving a legacy for future generations. What is the crisis in the Integrity vs. Despair stage?Older adults reflect on their lives and come to terms with their accomplishments and failures. What is the positive outcome of the Integrity vs. Despair stage?Feel satisfied with their lives (develop a sense of integreity) What is the negative outcome of the Integrity vs. Despair stage?Have regrets or feel that their lives have been wasted. (despair) What is the positive outcome of the Trust vs. Mistrust stage?If needs are consistently met, they develop a sense of trust in the world. What is the negative outcome of the Trust vs. Mistrust stage?If needs are unmet, they may develop mistrust and a sense of insecurity. What is the positive outcome of the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage?if allowed to eplore and make choices within safe boundries they may develop a sense of autonomy What is the negative outcome of the Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt stage?If toddlers are overly restricted or criticized, they may develop shame and doubt in their abilities What is the positive outcome of the Initiative vs. Guilt stage?If preschoolers are encouraged to initiate activities and take risks, they develop a sense of initiative What is the negative outcome of the Initiative vs. Guilt stage?If preschoolers are discouraged or punished for their efforts, they may develop guilt and a fear of trying new things What is the positive outcome of the Industry vs. Inferiority stage?If children are successful in their endeavors, they develop a sense of industry and a belief in their abilities What is the negative outcome of the Industry vs. Inferiority stage?If children experience repeated failures or are compared unfavorably to their peers, they may develop feelings of inferiority What is the positive outcome of the Identity vs. Role Confusion stage?If adolescents successfully navigate this stage, they emerge with a strong sense of identity What is the negative outcome of the Identity vs. Role Confusion stage?If adolescents are unable to establish a sense of identity, they may experience role confusion and uncertainty about their future What is the negative outcome of the Intimacy vs. Isolation stage? If young adults are unable to form close relationships, they may fee isolated and lonely What is the positive outcome of the Intimacy vs. Isolation stage? If young adults are able to form healthy relationships, they experience intimacy and a sense of connection What is the positive outcome of the Generativity vs. Stagnation stage? If middle-aged adults find ways to be productive and give back to others, they experience generativity What is the negative outcome of the Generativity vs. Stagnation stage?If middle-aged adults become self-centered and fail to find meaning in their lives, they may experience stagnation. What type of facility helps older adults with activities like cooking, cleaning, and laundry?Assisted Living Which facility is suitable for older adults whose caregivers are unavailable during work hours?Adult Day Care What type of care is provided in Adult Foster Care and Group Homes?Supervision for safety reasons What type of facility provides care for older adults with mobility or memory impairment?Long-Term Care Facilities (Nursing Homes) What is the main goal of palliative care?To provide the best quality of life by relieving pain and symptoms of chronic illnesses What type of care is provided for patients in the final days of life?Hospice Care What type of housing caters to older adults with varying care needs and offers a range of services and activities?Retirement Homes and Communities What is a preferred solution for older adults who wish to remain in their own homes but need assistance with daily responsibilities?Home Care What type of facility offers short-term rehabilitation services until residents can return to independent living?Long-Term Care Facilities (Nursing Homes) What type of care aims to relieve pain and symptoms of chronic illnesses without focusing on life expectancy?Palliative Care Which facility option is for older adults who need help with ADLs but live semi-independently?Assisted Living What type of facility is suitable for older adults who need supervision for safety reasons but can care for themselves?Adult Foster Care and Group Homes What type of care provides comfort and symptom management for terminally ill patients?Hospice Care What type of housing facility offers amenities and activities to enhance residents' daily lives and sense of belonging?Retirement Homes and Communities What services might be included in home care for older adults?Nursing care, housekeeping, and therapy What are the different healthcare facility options for older adults?<ul><li>Assisted living</li><li>Adult day care</li><li>Adult foster care and group homes</li><li>Long term care facilities (nursing homes)</li><li>Palliative care and hospice care</li><li>Retirement homes and communities</li><li>Home care</li></ul> What is assisted living?"for older adults who need help with activities of daily living (ADLs), such as cooking, cleaning, and laundry. Residents live semi-independently but receive help with tasks they can no longer perform themselves." What is adult day care?"s for older adults who cannot care for themselves and whose caregivers are unavailable during work hours" What is adult foster care and group homes?"for older adults who can care for themselves but need supervision for safety reasons" What is are long term care facilities (nurisng homes)?"<ul><li>provide care for older adults who can no longer care for themselves, often due to mobility or memory impairment. </li><li>They may also offer short-term rehabilitation services until residents can return to independent livin</li></ul>" What is palliative care?"aims to provide the patient with the best quality of life by relieving pain and symptoms of chronic illnesses" What is hospice care?provides comfort and symptom management for terminally ill patients What are retirement homes and communities?"<ul><li>cater to older adults with varying care needs. They offer a range of living services, amenities, and activities to enhance residents' daily lives and sense of belonging</li></ul>" What is home care?"<ul><li>solution for many older adults who wish to remain in their own homes but require assistance with daily responsibilities</li><li>Services may include nursing care, housekeeping, and therapy</li></ul>" What are the risk factors for CVA (stroke)?<ul><li>Hypertension</li><li>Diabetes</li><li>Obesity </li><li>Hyperlipidemia</li><li>Cardiac disorders</li><li>Age </li><li>Gender</li><li>Morphology</li><li>Lifestyle</li><li>Metabolic syndrome</li></ul> How does hypertension increase risk of stroke?Can damange arteries Wat health problems is obesity linked to that increase the risk for stroke?<ul><li>high blood pressure</li><li>diabetes</li></ul> What is hyperlipidemia? How does it increase the risk of stroke?<ul><li>High LDL cholesterol levels --> atherosclerosis</li></ul> What relationship does age have with stroke risk?<ul><li>Older = more at risk</li></ul> Why are older people more at risk for stroke?<ul><li>decline in number of neurons and changes in the central nervous system</li></ul> What lifestyle choices increase the risk of a stroke?<ul><li>smoking, a high-cholesterol diet, and excessive alcohol </li><ul><li>can cause hypertension</li></ul></ul> What does nonmaleficence mean?Do no harm. What is required by nonmaleficence?Avoiding actions that may cause harm. What does respect for autonomy mean in healthcare?Patients have the freedom to make independent health care decisions. How do nurses promote autonomy?By supporting patients in their decisions about treatment. What does justice mean in the context of healthcare?Treating all patients fairly and equitably. What is veracity in healthcare?The obligation to be truthful. How do nurses exhibit accountability?By being honest, accepting consequences, and practicing based on evidence-based research. What does confidentiality mean in healthcare?Keeping private patient information limited to authorized individuals and agencies. Why is confidentiality important?For building trust with patients and protecting their privacy. What does fidelity mean in nursing?Keeping promises or agreements made with others. What does responsibility mean in the context of nursing?Being reliable and dependable and performing duties safely and competently. What is the definition of beneficence in healthcare?Doing good and acting in the best interest of the patient, even when it goes against your own personal feelings. What does accountability mean?Being willing to accept responsibility for their actions. What is advocacy in nursing?Supporting or promoting the interests of others, even if you disagree with them. What causes sleep deprivation?Chronic lack of sufficient sleep and/or poor quality sleep. <ul><li>medical conditions</li><li>medications</li><li>lifestyle factors</li><li>changes in sleep patterns</li></ul> How does sleep deprivation affect pain sensitivity?Increases sensitivity to pain. What neuromuscular issue can result from sleep deprivation?Decreased neuromuscular coordination. What emotional symptom is common with sleep deprivation?Irritability. How does sleep deprivation impact concentration?Difficulty concentrating. What severe cognitive symptom can occur with sleep deprivation?Disorientation. What extreme symptom can sleep deprivation cause involving perception?Hallucinations. What long-term health issue is associated with sleep deprivation and blood pressure?Hypertension. How can sleep deprivation affect body weight?Weight gain. What should treatment for sleep deprivation focus on?Addressing the underlying causes. Why does hospitalization often lead to sleep deprivation?Unfamiliar environment, constant light and noise, and interruptions for medical care. How does shift work contribute to sleep deprivation?Disrupts the body's natural circadian rhythms. How does sleep deprivation impair cognitive function?Difficulty concentrating and making decisions. What is a negative impact of sleep deprivation on nurses' ability to provide care?Impaired ability to provide safe and effective patient care. What is one way to promote sleep and prevent sleep deprivation?Establishing a regular sleep-wake cycle. How can a bedtime routine help with sleep?Creating a relaxing bedtime routine. What substances should be avoided before bed to prevent sleep deprivation?Caffeine and alcohol. What mental health practices can help prevent sleep deprivation?Managing stress and anxiety. How does sleep deprivation impact alertness?causes fatigue What are the long term effects of sleep deprivation?<ul><li>Hypertension</li><li>weight gain</li><li>inflammation</li><li>altered glucose metabolism</li><li>altered hormone regulation</li><li>increased seizure frequency (in people with seizure disorders)</li></ul> What are some things that promote sleep and prevent sleep deprivation? (7)<ul><li>Establishing a regular sleep-wake cycle </li><li>Creating a relaxing bedtime routine </li><li>Avoiding caffeine and alcohol before bed </li><li>Ensuring a comfortable sleep environment </li><li>Getting regular exercise </li><li>Taking steps to manage stress and anxiety </li><li>Avoiding the use of electronic devices before bed </li></ul> What tasks can UAP assist with during evening care?Oral care, partial bath, skin care, back rub, bed linen, toileting, light snack or water. What does assisting with a partial bath involve?Cleansing the face and hands. How can environmental control promote sleep?By creating a quiet, darkened room with a comfortable temperature. What are 'sleep windows' in a hospital setting?Periods of at least 90 to 120 minutes for uninterrupted sleep. How can nurses minimize interruptions in a hospital environment?By clustering care to reduce the number of room entries. Why is it important to respect circadian rhythms in patient care?To maintain the body's natural sleep-wake cycle and promote better sleep quality. When should care activities be scheduled to respect circadian rhythms?During the patient's usual wakeful periods. What is another name for Restless Leg Syndrome?Willis-Ekbom disease What is the defining symptom of Restless Leg Syndrome?An irresistible urge to move the legs What sensations do people with Restless Leg Syndrome often describe?Crawling, tingling, burning, aching, or itching When are the symptoms of Restless Leg Syndrome most pronounced?When a person is at rest, especially in the evening or at night What provides temporary relief from Restless Leg Syndrome symptoms?Moving the legs, such as walking, stretching, or rubbing them How does Restless Leg Syndrome affect sleep?It makes it difficult to fall asleep and stay asleep, leading to sleep deprivation and daytime fatigue What percentage of the population is affected by Restless Leg Syndrome?Up to 10% Which age group has a higher prevalence of Restless Leg Syndrome?Older adults What medical conditions can be associated with Restless Leg Syndrome?Iron deficiency, pregnancy, peripheral neuropathy, and end-stage renal disease Which medications can worsen Restless Leg Syndrome symptoms?Antihistamines and some antidepressants What lifestyle changes can help manage Restless Leg Syndrome?Decreasing caffeine, alcohol, and tobacco use; regular exercise; maintaining a regular sleep pattern; taking a warm bath before bed; eating a light snack containing carbohydrates before bed What supplement may be helpful for those with iron deficiency and Restless Leg Syndrome?Iron supplements Which type of medications are primarily used to treat Parkinson's disease and can help with Restless Leg Syndrome?Dopaminergic agents, such as ropinirole and pramipexole How is rotigotine administered for Restless Leg Syndrome?Through a skin patch "Restless leg syndrome may be related to [...]""Restless leg syndrome may be related to genetics " What medications are used to treat restless leg syndrome?<ul><li>Dopaminergic agents (primarily used to treat parkinsons)</li><ul><li>ropinrole</li><li>pramipexole</li></ul><li>Gabapentin</li><ul><li>anticonvulsant</li></ul><li>Rotigotine</li><li>Benzodiazaphines or opiod medications</li></ul> What are nurses legally and ethically obligated to provide?Safe and competent care. What can result from a nurse's failure to provide safe and competent care?Legal liability, disciplinary action, and harm to patients. What is Constitutional Law derived from?A formal, written constitution. Who enacts Statutory Law?Legislative bodies such as state legislatures or the U.S. Congress. What does each state have that defines the scope of nursing practice?Nurse Practice Act (NPA). What are intentional torts?Wrongs committed deliberately. What is assault in the context of nursing?Threatening to cause harm. What is battery in the context of nursing?Causing actual physical harm. What is false imprisonment in nursing?Restraining a person without justification. What are unintentional torts?Acts or omissions that cause unintended harm. <ul><li>negligence</li><li>malpractice</li></ul> What is negligence in nursing?Failing to act in a reasonable and prudent manner, resulting in harm. What is malpractice in nursing?Professional negligence that falls below the accepted standard of care and results in harm. What does 'Duty' refer to in the context of malpractice?The nurse owed a duty of care to the patient. What does 'Dereliction' refer to in the context of malpractice?The nurse breached the duty by failing to meet the standard of care. What does 'Damages' refer to in the context of malpractice?The patient suffered actual harm or injury. What does 'Direct Cause' refer to in the context of malpractice?A causal relationship exists between the nurse's breach of duty and the patient's injury. Who creates rules and regulations under Regulatory Law?Administrative bodies such as state boards of nursing. (given authority by state legislatures) What is Case Law determined by?Judicial decisions from individual court cases. Decisions set legal precedents that mya guide future decisions in similar cases. What is defamation of character?Making false and damaging statements about another person. (can be verbal or written) What are torts?Civil wrongs committed by one person against another. (can be intentional or unintentional) What is invasion of privacy in nursing?Disclosing private patient information without consent. What are the 4 D's of negligence?Duty, Dereliction, Damages, Direct Cause. what are intentional torts?<div>Committed deliberetly</div><ul><li>assault </li><li>battery </li><li>defamatoin of character</li><li>false imprisonment </li><li>invasion of privacy </li></ul> What are prevent professional liability issues?<ul><li>Professional practice conduct</li><li>adherence to principals of delegation</li><li>Accurate and timely documentation</li></ul> Why is professional practice conduct important?<ul><li>maintain professional boundaries with patients. </li><li>Avoid behaviors that could be interpreted as inappropriate or exploitive.</li></ul> What are examples of boundary violatons in professional practice conduct?<ul><li>Engaging in personal relationships with patients</li><li>Accepting gifts from patients</li><li>Disclosing personal information to patients</li></ul> Whys is accurate and timely documentation important?<ul><li>Medical record is a legal document </li><li>Errors are a legal liability, compromise patient safety, and make reimbursement for care difficult </li></ul> What is the nurse's responsibility regarding informed consent?Ensuring patients understand the risks and benefits of proposed treatments and procedures before giving their consent. What are advance directives?Legal documents that allow patients to express their wishes regarding medical care if they become incapacitated. What protection do Good Samaritan Laws offer healthcare professionals?Legal protection when providing emergency care, as long as they act within their scope of practice and do not receive compensation. What must nurses be aware of regarding euthanasia and medical aid in dying?The legal and ethical implications and advocating for their patients' wishes. When should physical restraints be used?Only as a last resort to prevent harm to the patient or others. What must nurses know about the use of physical restraints?should only be used as a last resort to prevent harm to the patient or others What is one requirement most states have for nurses to maintain their licenses?Completing continuing education units (CEUs) regularly. How can nurses demonstrate their knowledge and skills in their areas of expertise?By pursuing specialty certification. What are healthcare facilities engaged in to improve patient safety?Ongoing quality improvement initiatives. What is the purpose of continuing education for nurses?To maintain their licenses and enhance patient safety. Why is specialty certification important for nurses?It demonstrates their knowledge and skills, enhancing patient safety. What are some initiatives that aim to enhace patient safety and protect nurses legally?<ul><li>CEU's to maintain nursing licesnes</li><li>specialty certification</li><li>evidence based practice</li><li>Quality improvement initiatives </li></ul> What is the Code of Ethics for Nurses described as?A succinct statement of the ethical values, obligations, duties, and professional ideals of nurses How many provisions are outlined in the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses?Nine What does Provision 1 of the ANA Code of Ethics for Nurses state?The nurse practices with compassion and respect for the inherent dignity, worth, and unique attributes of every person What can cause moral distress in nurses?Being unable to act in accordance with their ethical beliefs due to organizational constraints or conflicting values What are the feelings associated with moral distress?Guilt, frustration, and burnout What does Provision 4 state about the nurse's responsibilities (ANA code of ethics)?The nurse has authority, accountability, and responsibility for nursing practice; makes decisions; and takes action consistent with the obligation to promote health and provide optimal care "What duties does Provision 5 highlight for the nurse? (ANA Code of ethics)"The nurse owes the same duties to self as to others, including promoting health and safety, preserving wholeness of character and integrity, maintaining competence, and continuing personal and professional growth "What is the nurse's primary commitment according to Provision 2? (ANA code of ethics)"The patient, whether an individual, family, group, community, or population "What does Provision 3 emphasize? (ANA code of ethics)"The nurse promotes, advocates for, and protects the rights, health, and safety of the patient "What does Provision 6 focus on? (ANA code of ethics)"The nurse, through individual and collective effort, establishes, maintains, and improves the ethical environment of the work setting and conditions of employment conducive to safe, quality health care "What is the focus of Provision 7? (ANA code of ethics)"The nurse, in all roles and settings, advances the profession through research and scholarly inquiry, professional standards development, and the generation of both nursing and health policy "What does Provision 8 emphasize? (ANA code of ethics)"The nurse collaborates with other health professionals and the public to protect human rights, promote health diplomacy, and reduce health disparities "What is the focus of Provision 9? (ANA code of ethics)"The profession of nursing, collectively through its professional organizations, must articulate nursing values, maintain the integrity of the profession, and integrate principles of social justice into nursing and health policy What is bioethics?"Application of ethical principles to complex healthcare issues (genetic testing, cloing, end of life care, etc.)" What are the ethical theories?<ul><li>Deontology</li><li>Utilitarianism</li></ul> What is deontology?"<ul><li>focuses on the rightness or wrongness of actions themselves, regardless of their consequences. </li><li>It emphasizes adherence to rules, duties, and obligations</li></ul>" What is utilitarianism?<ul><li>focuses on the greatest good for the greatest number of people.</li><li>involves weighing the benefits and harms of actions and choosing the option that maximizes benefit</li></ul> What are the key elements of informed consent?<ul><li>complete disclosure of information</li><ul><li>Exact details of treatment</li><li>necessity of treatment</li><li>benefits and risks</li><li>alternatives</li></ul><li>Patient comprehension</li><li>Volunatry consent </li><ul><li>no coercion</li></ul><li>Competence </li></ul> What are the special considerations regarding infromed consent?<ul><li>Minors</li><ul><li>consent obtained from parents or legal gaurdians</li></ul><li>Incompetent patients</li><ul><li>consent obtained from legal gaurdian, power of attorney, or health care proxy</li></ul><li>Cultural and language barriers</li><ul><li>professional interpreters should be used </li></ul></ul> What is the primary responsibility of nurses in sexuality-related assessments?Identify patient needs, provide education, and facilitate appropriate interventions and referrals. How should nurses approach sexuality assessments to create a safe environment?With a matter-of-fact and non-judgmental attitude. What communication techniques are essential for establishing trust with patients?Open-ended questions, active listening, and clear, non-judgmental language. Why is ensuring privacy and confidentiality crucial in sexuality assessments?It makes patients feel safe disclosing personal information. How do sexual health and needs change throughout the lifespan?They are influenced by developmental milestones, physical changes, and social influences. What influences sexual attitudes, practices, and values significantly?Cultural, ethnic, and religious beliefs. What is the first stage of the PLISSIT model?"Permission. <ul><li>nurse obtains permission from the patient to talk about sexual matters </li></ul>" What does the 'LI' in the PLISSIT model stand for?"Limited Information. <ul><li>This stage involves providing the patient with basic information that is relevant to their specific situation or concerns </li></ul>" What is provided at the 'SS' stage of the PLISSIT model?"Specific suggestions. <ul><li>Based on the information gathered and the patient's needs, the nurse offers specific suggestions </li></ul>" What happens at the 'IT' stage of the PLISSIT model?Intensive therapy <ul><li>Referral to a specialist or therapist for more in-depth care.</li></ul> What information is included in a sexual health history?Past and current sexual practices, reproductive history, STI history, sexual dysfunction history, sexual identity and self-concept, and medication use. What diagnosis is appropriate for changes in sexual desire, arousal, or response?Impaired Sexual Functioning. What diagnosis applies to harmful or risky sexual behaviors?Problematic Sexual Behavior. What diagnosis is used for patients who have experienced sexual assault?Rape Trauma Response. What is important to keep in mind when conducting a sexuality related assessment?<ul><li>Normalize sexuality</li><li>overcome personal discomfort</li><li>utilize therapeutic communication</li><li>maintain privacy and confidentiality </li><li>consideration of lifespan</li><li>cultural sensitivity </li></ul> What assessment model is used for a sexual assessment?PLISSIT <ul><li>P = permission</li><li>LI = limited informatoin</li><li>SS = specific suggestions</li><li>IT = intensive therapy</li></ul> What is included in a sexual health history?<ul><li>Past and current sexual practices</li><li>Reproductive history</li><li>STI history </li><li>Sexual dysfunction history</li><li>Sexual identity and self-concept </li><li>Medication use (as some medications can affect sexual function)</li></ul> What is impaired sexual functioning?"when a patient experiences changes in sexual desire, arousal, or response" What is problematic sexual behavior?"where a patient engages in sexual behaviors that are harmful or risky" What signs and symptoms are potential indicators of abuse?<ul><li>Physical injuries</li><ul><li>bruises, cuts, burns</li></ul><li>Mental health issues</li><ul><li>depression, anxiety, PTSD</li></ul><li>Harmful health behaviors</li><ul><li>Substance abuse, smoking, risky sexual behaviors</li></ul><li>Vague somatic complaints</li><ul><li>headaches, chronic pain, sleep disturbances</li></ul><li>Frequent healthcare visits without clear explanations</li><li>partner control</li><ul><li>over appointments, finances, or social interactions</li></ul><li>Fear or anxiety related to partner</li></ul> How do you make a patient feel safe when asking about potential abuse?<ul><li>ensure privacy </li><li>use open body language </li><li>listen attentively </li><li>validate the patients feelings</li><li>avoid judgemental language </li></ul> How do you display open body language to a potential victim of abuse?<ul><li>Maintain eye contact, lean in slightly, and avoid crossing your arms.</li></ul> How should you respond to a disclosure of abuse?<ul><li>believe the patient</li><li>assess immediate safety </li><li>provide information and resources</li><li>document conversation</li><li>resport suspected abuse </li></ul> What is delirium characterized by?A reversible state of acute confusion that develops rapidly over 1 to 2 days. What are the key features of delirium?Fluctuating awareness, impaired memory and attention, disorganized thinking, hallucinations, and disturbed sleep-wake cycles. What are common causes of delirium?Drug or alcohol use, medication side effects, infections, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, low oxygen levels, pain, and sensory overload. Is delirium reversible?Yes, once the underlying cause is identified and treated. What is dementia characterized by?A permanent and progressive decline in mental function with a gradual onset. What are the key features of dementia?Memory loss, impaired judgment and reasoning, language difficulties, and changes in behavior and personality. What are the types of dementia?Alzheimer's disease and Lewy body dementia. What characterizes Lewy body dementia?The buildup of abnormal protein deposits in the brain. What are contributing factors to dementia?Genetics, environmental factors, and aging. Is dementia reversible?No, it worsens over time. What is depression characterized by?Persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and loss of interest in activities. What are the key features of depression?Depressed mood, loss of interest or pleasure, changes in appetite and weight, sleep disturbances, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, and thoughts of death or suicide. What are the types of depression?Major depression and persistent depressive disorder. What characterizes major depression?Symptoms present for at least two weeks. What characterizes persistent depressive disorder?Symptoms lasting for at least two years. What are the causes of depression?Genetic predisposition, chemical imbalances in the brain, life events and stressors, social isolation, medical conditions, and medication side effects. Is depression reversible?Yes, with therapy, medication, and lifestyle changes. What characterizes Alzheimer's disease?"Most common Amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, and cerebral atrophy." What are some interventions for sensory overload?<ul><li>Dimming Lights</li><li>Adjusting Alarms</li><li>Clustering Care </li><li>Managing Pain </li><li>Individualized Soothing Interventions</li><li>Family Visits for Reality Orientation</li></ul> What are common home hazards?Falls, toxins, fires and electrical hazards, abuse, motorized and nonmotorized transportation. What is a key intervention for fall prevention?Maintaining clutter-free walkways. How can bathrooms be made safer to prevent falls?Using non-slip mats. Where should grab bars be installed to prevent falls?Near toilets and in showers. What is a crucial step in fire prevention?Installing and maintaining smoke detectors. Why is it important to develop and practice a fire escape plan?To ensure everyone knows how to exit safely during a fire. What is a key safety measure for carbon monoxide?Installing carbon monoxide detectors. Why should fuel-burning appliances be inspected regularly?To ensure they are functioning safely and not emitting carbon monoxide. What should be done to homes built before 1978 to prevent lead exposure?Having them inspected for lead-based paint. Why is it important to wash hands thoroughly, especially after outdoor activities?To reduce lead exposure. Why is ongoing evaluation of the home environment important?Because circumstances can change over time. Where is adequate lighting most important in homes to prevent falls?hallways and stairways. What should be readily available to combat small fires?fire extinguishers How can poisoning be prevented in the home?"Storing chemicals and medications securely and out of reach of children. Using childproof caps Proper labelling" What should be avoided when using generators?"indoor use can cause CO2 poisoning" How can you reduce lead exposure via water?Installing water filters certified to remove lead. What medications affect sexual function?<ul><li>Anticonvulsants</li><li>Antidepressants</li><li>Antihistamines</li><li>Antihypertensives</li><li>Antipsychotics</li><li>Antispasmodics</li><li>Narcotics </li></ul> What effect can phenytoin have on sexual function?It can lead to a decrease in sexual desire and function. Which types of antidepressants can cause male impotence and reduced testosterone levels?Tricyclics, MAOIs, and lithium. What are the sexual side effects of SSRIs?Delayed ejaculation, absent or delayed orgasm, and diminished sexual desire. How can antihistamines affect sexual function in women?They can lead to decreased sexual desire and reduced vaginal lubrication. What sexual dysfunctions can ACE inhibitors, alpha and beta blockers, and calcium channel blockers cause?Decreased sexual desire in both men and women, and erectile dysfunction in men. What are the sexual side effects of antipsychotics?Reduced sexual desire, erectile dysfunction, and ejaculation dysfunction. How do antispasmodics contribute to male impotence?By relaxing smooth muscle. What sexual impairments are linked to increased dependence on narcotics?Erectile dysfunction, ejaculation dysfunction, decreased desire in both sexes, and reduced testosterone and semen production in men. How does moderate alcohol consumption affect sexual function?It might reduce inhibitions and temporarily improve sexual function. What are the consequences of increased alcohol intake on sexual function?Reduced sexual function. What are the chronic effects of alcoholism on sexual function in men?Impotence, permanent dysfunction, and sterility. How does chronic alcoholism affect sexual function in women?Reduced sexual desire and orgasmic dysfunction. What initial effects can marijuana have on sexual function?It might lower inhibitions and increase sexual function. What are the chronic effects of marijuana use on sexual function?Decreased sexual desire in both men and women, and male impotence. What kind of medication is phenytoin?Anticonvulsant What kind of medications are tricyclics, MAOIs, and lithium?antidepressants What aspects of sexuality are addressed in sexual health and development across the lifespan?Physical, emotional, and social aspects. What concepts are included under gender identity?Sex, gender identity, gender roles, and sexual orientation. What are common topics covered about STDs or STIs?Symptoms, modes of transmission, prevention strategies, and treatments. What factors can affect sexuality and sexual function?Family dynamics, culture, religion, previous experiences, cognition, environment, personal expectations, and ethics. What are some barriers to SHE implementation?Variability in curriculum and delivery, lack of resources and support, resistance from parents and communities. Why is strong policy commitment important for SHE implementation?It ensures clear and supportive policies at the state and local levels. Why is evidence-based and medically accurate information crucial for SHE?It ensures the use of curricula and materials grounded in scientific evidence and medical accuracy. Why are trained and committed educators vital for SHE?They are knowledgeable, comfortable, and committed to teaching about sexual health. How can community involvement benefit SHE programs?It increases acceptance and support by engaging parents, families, and community members. What personal barriers must nurses overcome in safe sex education?Discomfort or biases related to discussing sexual health. What should nurses assess in patients' sexual health needs?Individual knowledge gaps, concerns, and risk factors. What type of education should nurses provide?Accurate and age-appropriate information on STIs, contraception, safe sex practices, and healthy relationships. What teaching strategies should nurses use?Patient-centered methods, such as the teach-back method. What information should be provided about contraceptive options?Effectiveness, advantages, disadvantages, and mechanisms of action. What does education on sexual response explore?Physiological and psychological responses to sexual stimulation. What are a nurses responsibilites in safe sex education?<ul><li>Overcoming personal barriers</li><li>Creating a safe and nonjudgemental enviornment</li><li>assessing patients sexual health needs</li><li>providing tailored education</li><li>Utilizing effective teaching strategies</li><li>connecting patients with resources </li><li>Advocating for comprehensive safe sex education</li></ul> What skills are encompassed by cognition?Language, calculation, memory, attention, reasoning, learning, problem-solving, and decision-making. Why is recognizing age-related changes in the nervous system important?It helps differentiate between normal aging and potential cognitive or sensory impairments. How can lifestyle choices impact cognitive and sensory function?Smoking, alcohol consumption, drug use, and exposure to loud noises or excessive ultraviolet light can impact function. What pre-existing conditions can increase the risk of sensory or cognitive alterations?Diabetes, renal disease, hypertension, and history of stroke or traumatic brain injury. How can the environment negatively impact sensory organs?Exposure to environmental toxins, loud noises, and excessive ultraviolet light can impact hearing and vision. What types of medications can alter sensory or cognitive function?Over-the-counter drugs, prescriptions, and herbal supplements. What is perception in the context of sensation?The process of interpreting sensory information transmitted to the central nervous system. What changes in the nervous system are associated with aging?Decrease in neurons and synapses. How does smoking affect cognitive and sensory function?It can negatively impact function. Why is medical history important in assessing sensory and cognitive function?Pre-existing conditions can increase the risk of alterations. How can loud noises impact sensory function?They can negatively affect hearing. What is the role of sensory receptors in sensation?They detect stimuli. How can excessive ultraviolet light affect sensory function?It can negatively impact vision. Why is it important to consider the side effects of medications in sensory and cognitive assessments?They can alter function. What is the process called when sensations are transmitted to the central nervous system for interpretation?Perception. How can a history of stroke affect sensory and cognitive function?It can increase the risk of alterations. What is the role of memory in cognition?It is a skill encompassed by cognition. How can exposure to environmental toxins affect sensory function?It can negatively impact sensory organs. How can hypertension affect sensory and cognitive function?It can increase the risk of alterations. How can renal disease affect sensory and cognitive function?It can increase the risk of alterations. How can traumatic brain injury affect sensory and cognitive function?It can increase the risk of alterations. What is involved in sensation?"Detection of stimuli by sensory receptors throughout the body transmission of sensations to the central nervous system for processing and interpretation. (percetion)"

Nursing Fall 24 Fundamentals Midterm

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