All Decks

#separator:tab #html:true " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT an advantage provided by the OSI model? A. It encourages multi-vendor development of hardware and software B. It allows network protocols and connectivity options to be changed without affecting applications C. It requires changes in one layer to propagate to all others D. It divides a complex communications process into smaller pieces to assist with design, troubleshooting, and development "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT an advantage provided by the OSI model? A. It encourages multi-vendor development of hardware and software B. It allows network protocols and connectivity options to be changed without affecting applications C. It requires changes in one layer to propagate to all others D. It divides a complex communications process into smaller pieces to assist with design, troubleshooting, and development <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It requires changes in one layer to propagate to all others Explanation: The OSI model is designed such that changes in one layer do not impact the other layers. Therefore, answer C is incorrect because changes in one layer do not have to propagate to all others. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Answer A, B, and D are all advantages of the OSI model. A: The OSI model promotes multi-vendor development of hardware and software based on network standards. B: The OSI model allows network protocols and connectivity options to be changed without impacting applications. D: The OSI model divides a complex communications process into smaller pieces to assist with design, development, and troubleshooting. Reference: Page Number 70 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT considered a network application? A. Edge B. Internet Explorer C. Microsoft Word D. VoIP calls "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT considered a network application? A. Edge B. Internet Explorer C. Microsoft Word D. VoIP calls <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Microsoft Word Explanation: Microsoft Word is considered an end-user application or stand-alone application, not a network application. Even though you can store Word documents on the network, its primary function is not to facilitate network communications in the same way as applications like Edge or Internet Explorer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Edge and B. Internet Explorer are both network applications as they are used to interface with the user and begin the communication process on the network. D. VoIP calls are also considered a network application as they require network communications to function. Reference: Page Number 72 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the functions of the Presentation layer (layer 6) ? A. Responsible for physical connections between devices B. Handles encryption/decryption, translation, and compression/decompression of data C. Manages data packet forwarding D. Ensures reliable end-to-end communications "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the functions of the Presentation layer (layer 6) ? A. Responsible for physical connections between devices B. Handles encryption/decryption, translation, and compression/decompression of data C. Manages data packet forwarding D. Ensures reliable end-to-end communications <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Handles encryption/decryption, translation, and compression/decompression of data Explanation: The Presentation layer is responsible for representing data in a readable format for the Application layer. It manages tasks like encryption/decryption (for secure transmission), translation (so data is understood by receiving applications), and compression/decompression (for easier transfer). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Physical connections between devices are managed at the Physical layer, not the Presentation layer. C. Data packet forwarding is the task of the Network layer. D. Reliable end-to-end communications are ensured by the Transport layer. Reference: Page Number 73 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three basic forms of communications a network application can use at the Session layer? A. Half-duplex, Full-duplex, Multiplex B. Half-duplex, Simplex, Full-duplex C. Unidirectional, Duplex, Simplex D. Bidirectional, Multidirectional, Half-duplex "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three basic forms of communications a network application can use at the Session layer? A. Half-duplex, Full-duplex, Multiplex B. Half-duplex, Simplex, Full-duplex C. Unidirectional, Duplex, Simplex D. Bidirectional, Multidirectional, Half-duplex <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Half-duplex, Simplex, Full-duplex Explanation: The three basic forms of communications a network application can use at the Session layer are Half-duplex, Full-duplex, and Simplex. Half-duplex is a two-way communication between two hosts where only one side can communicate at a time. Full-duplex is two-way communication between two hosts where both sides can communicate simultaneously. Simplex is a one-way communication between two hosts. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A and D include вЂ™MultiplexвЂ™ and вЂ™MultidirectionalвЂ™ which are not mentioned and the order in Choice D - вЂ™Bidirectional, Multidirectional, Half-duplexвЂ™ is incorrect. In Choice C, вЂ™UnidirectionalвЂ™ is not mentioned as a form of communication at the Session layer, the correct term is вЂ™SimplexвЂ™. Reference: Page Number 73 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Transport layer in a network? A. The Transport layer is responsible for moving information down to the network layer from the TCP or UDP protocol B. The Transport layer presents the application with a socket to communicate with on the network C. The Transport layer contains two protocols: TCP and UDP D. All of the above "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Transport layer in a network? A. The Transport layer is responsible for moving information down to the network layer from the TCP or UDP protocol B. The Transport layer presents the application with a socket to communicate with on the network C. The Transport layer contains two protocols: TCP and UDP D. All of the above <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. All of the above Explanation: The Transport layer has multiple roles: It is responsible for moving data down to the network layer from either the TCP or UDP protocol, presents the application with a socket to communicate on the network, and contains the two protocols, TCP and UDP. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Although all the other options describe the Transport layerвЂ™s functionalities, they each only describe a part of its role. The correct answer is D. All of the above, because it is inclusive of all the roles the Transport layer plays. Reference: Page Number 74 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the responsibilities of the Network layer (layer 3)? A. It is responsible for the physical numbering of hosts and networks. B. It is responsible for the logical numbering of hosts and networks and transporting data between networks. C. Routers operate at the network layer to inhibit the movement of packets between networks. D. The Network layer communicates with the layer below it using a protocol number. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the responsibilities of the Network layer (layer 3)? A. It is responsible for the physical numbering of hosts and networks. B. It is responsible for the logical numbering of hosts and networks and transporting data between networks. C. Routers operate at the network layer to inhibit the movement of packets between networks. D. The Network layer communicates with the layer below it using a protocol number. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is responsible for the logical numbering of hosts and networks and transporting data between networks. Explanation: The Network layer (layer 3) is responsible for the logical numbering of hosts and networks. It is also responsible for transporting data between networks through the process of routing. Routers, which operate at the Network layer, facilitate this movement of packets between networks. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Network layer is responsible for logical, not physical numbering of hosts and networks. C. Routers at the Network layer facilitate, not inhibit, the movement of packets between networks. D. The Network layer communicates with the layer above it (Transport Layer), not below it, using a protocol number. Reference: Page Number 76 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the responsibilities of the Data Link Layer and its sublayers within a network? A. The Data Link Layer is responsible for internet browsing and multimedia streaming. B. The Data Link Layer is only concerned with encryption and decryption of data for secure transmission. C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for the framing of data, addressing hosts via unique MAC addresses and local delivery of frames. It includes the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer (handles communication with the Network layer and CPU-cycle data processing) and the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer (handles hardware processing of frames, error checking and transmission of data at a physical level). D. The Data Link Layer exclusively deals with the transmission and reception of WiFi signals. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the responsibilities of the Data Link Layer and its sublayers within a network? A. The Data Link Layer is responsible for internet browsing and multimedia streaming. B. The Data Link Layer is only concerned with encryption and decryption of data for secure transmission. C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for the framing of data, addressing hosts via unique MAC addresses and local delivery of frames. It includes the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer (handles communication with the Network layer and CPU-cycle data processing) and the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer (handles hardware processing of frames, error checking and transmission of data at a physical level). D. The Data Link Layer exclusively deals with the transmission and reception of WiFi signals. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The Data Link Layer is responsible for the framing of data, addressing hosts via unique MAC addresses and local delivery of frames. It includes the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer (handles communication with the Network layer and CPU-cycle data processing) and the Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer (handles hardware processing of frames, error checking and transmission of data at a physical level). Explanation: The Data Link Layer serves as a communicator between the Physical Layer and Networking Layer. Unique MAC addresses are programmed into the network cards for addressing hosts and the layers handle framing of data, checking and transmitting it at a physical level. This processing is divided between the two sublayers - the Logical Link Control (LLC) and the Media Access Control (MAC). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Data Link Layer doesnвЂ™t directly handle internet browsing or multimedia streaming - these are tasks for higher network layers. B. While the Data Link layer performs certain functions to ensure transmission integrity, it does not perform encryption or decryption for secure transmission - such tasks are usually handled by the Transport Layer or Application Layer. D. Transmission and reception of WiFi signals, while being a part of the overall communication process, falls more into the jurisdiction of the Physical Layer. Reference: Page Number 78 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of the Physical layer in a network? A. Encoding data for transmission via wireless methods only B. Connecting directly with applications over Ethernet or wireless connections C. Transmitting the data of 1s and 0s that is passed down from the Data Link layer D. Identifying problems such as bad connection or loose connection only "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of the Physical layer in a network? A. Encoding data for transmission via wireless methods only B. Connecting directly with applications over Ethernet or wireless connections C. Transmitting the data of 1s and 0s that is passed down from the Data Link layer D. Identifying problems such as bad connection or loose connection only <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Transmitting the data of 1s and 0s that is passed down from the Data Link layer Explanation: The principal function of the Physical layer is to modulate or encode data (in the form of 1s and 0s passed to it from the Data Link layer) for transmission via various physical methods such as radio waves, light, electricity etc. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is incorrect because the Physical layer is not limited to wireless methods, it also transmits data via methods like fiber optics and Ethernet. B is incorrect, applications do not directly link to the Physical layer, but to the Data Link layer. D is incorrect because, while the Physical layer may commonly encounter issues such as loose or bad connections, resolving these issues is not its primary function. Reference: Page Number 82 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) for the Transport layer in the OSI model? A. Datagram B. Segment C. Packet D. Frame "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) for the Transport layer in the OSI model? A. Datagram B. Segment C. Packet D. Frame <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Segment Explanation: During data transmission in the OSI model, the Transport layer creates segments from the datagrams passed on from the upper layers (Application, Presentation, Session). Therefore, the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) for the Transport layer would be a вЂ™SegmentвЂ™. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Datagram is the PDU for the Application, Presentation, and Session layers, not for the Transport layer. C. Packet is the PDU for the Network layer, not for the Transport layer. D. Frame is the PDU for the Data Link layer, not for the Transport layer. Reference: Page Number 82 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the PDU header or type field during the decapsulation process in the OSI model? A. It carries the payload from one layer to the next in the protocol stack. B. It describes the delivery company chosen for transmitting data. C. It holds information which upper layer the payload came from and to which it should be passed. D. It is the envelope placed inside another that specifies street address. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the PDU header or type field during the decapsulation process in the OSI model? A. It carries the payload from one layer to the next in the protocol stack. B. It describes the delivery company chosen for transmitting data. C. It holds information which upper layer the payload came from and to which it should be passed. D. It is the envelope placed inside another that specifies street address. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It holds information which upper layer the payload came from and to which it should be passed. Explanation: During the decapsulation process, the information in the PDU header or type field indicates where the payload originated by specifying which upper layer it came from. It also describes to which upper layer the payload should be transmitted. This is critical for the data to be passed correctly through each layer of the OSI model. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The PDU header does not carry the payload, it holds information about the payloadвЂ™s origin. B. The delivery company, or the TCP/UDP protocol, is not specified in the PDU header. D. Street address information is not placed in the PDU header but rather in another part of the encapsulating frames. Reference: Page Number 83 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some characteristics of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? A. UDP is connection-oriented and highly reliable. B. UDP performs sequencing and retransmits segments if necessary. C. UDP does not provide acknowledgement for received data. D. UDP uses a large amount of overhead at the Transport layer. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some characteristics of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? A. UDP is connection-oriented and highly reliable. B. UDP performs sequencing and retransmits segments if necessary. C. UDP does not provide acknowledgement for received data. D. UDP uses a large amount of overhead at the Transport layer. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. UDP does not provide acknowledgement for received data. Explanation: UDP is connectionless and does not acknowledge receipt of data. It simply passes data from one IP address over the network to another IP address without ensuring the data has been received. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. UDP is not connection-oriented but connectionless. B. UDP does not perform sequencing or retransmit segments; it is the responsibility of the application to take care of these tasks if needed. D. UDP does not use a large amount of overhead at the Transport layer. It is faster than TCP precisely because of its simpler setup. Reference: Page Number 85 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does TCP provide that UDP does not? A. Faster data transmission B. Connectionless data transfer C. Retransmission of lost data segments <div><div><div>D. Negotiation of the timeout state.</div></div></div> "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does TCP provide that UDP does not? A. Faster data transmission B. Connectionless data transfer C. Retransmission of lost data segments <div><div><div>D. Negotiation of the timeout state.</div></div></div> <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Retransmission of lost data segments. Explanation: TCP provides reliable data transfer through the retransmission of lost data segments, ensuring data is delivered accurately and in order.<ul><li>A is incorrect because TCP can be slower than UDP due to its overhead of ensuring data integrity and order.</li><li>B is incorrect because UDP provides connectionless data transfer, not TCP.</li><li>D is incorrect because while TCP does manage timeout and retransmission strategies, negotiation of the timeout state is not a feature distinct to TCP over UDP in the context of the options provided. TCP's main distinction is its reliability and order guarantee through retransmission.</li></ul> Reference: Page Number 85 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Internet Protocol (IP) in data transmission? A. The IP protocol handles the creating and managing of applications. B. The IP protocol is responsible for assigning priorities to data packets. C. The IP protocol is responsible for encapsulating protocols such as UDP, TCP, and delivering the data to the appropriate addresses. D. The IP protocol converts analog signals to digital signals. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Internet Protocol (IP) in data transmission? A. The IP protocol handles the creating and managing of applications. B. The IP protocol is responsible for assigning priorities to data packets. C. The IP protocol is responsible for encapsulating protocols such as UDP, TCP, and delivering the data to the appropriate addresses. D. The IP protocol converts analog signals to digital signals. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The IP protocol is responsible for encapsulating protocols such as UDP, TCP, and delivering the data to the appropriate addresses. Explanation: The Internet Protocol (IP) at the Network layer is responsible for taking the data and encapsulating it with the protocols such as UDP and TCP. The IP addresses the data packets and handles the delivery of these data segments from applications to the destination addresses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The IP protocol does not create or manage applications. B. While IP does include fields for priority and type of service, its primary function isnвЂ™t to assign priorities, but to encapsulate and route data. D. Signal conversion is the role of modem and other networking devices, not the IP. Reference: Page Number 88 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum transmission unit (MTU) in the context of Ethernet? A. The largest data that can be sent in a network without subdividing B. The physical size of the Ethernet cable C. The maximum number of data packets that can be sent in a second D. The maximum number of devices that can be connected in a network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum transmission unit (MTU) in the context of Ethernet? A. The largest data that can be sent in a network without subdividing B. The physical size of the Ethernet cable C. The maximum number of data packets that can be sent in a second D. The maximum number of devices that can be connected in a network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. The largest data that can be sent in a network without subdividing Explanation: The maximum transmission unit (MTU) is the largest size of the data that can be transferred at the Data Link layer in a single transmission. This limit does not include the MAC layer overhead (eg. destination and source MAC address, type field, and FCS). For Ethernet, MTU is typically 1500 bytes, but can be increased to 9000 bytes in the case of a jumbo frame. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The MTU has nothing to do with the physical dimensions of the network cable. C. The MTU is not related to the rate of data transmission (packets per second). D. The MTU has nothing to do with the number of devices in a network. Reference: Page Number 89 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the topology of a network signify? A. The color scheme of the network B. The shape in which the network is connected C. The cost of setting up the network D. The priority of data packets in the network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the topology of a network signify? A. The color scheme of the network B. The shape in which the network is connected C. The cost of setting up the network D. The priority of data packets in the network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. The shape in which the network is connected Explanation: The topology of a network indicates the shape or layout in which all network devices are connected. It diagrams how different devices and nodes interconnect in a network system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Color scheme has no relation to network topology. C. Though network topology might have an indirect impact on set-up costs, it does not directly signify cost. D. Network topology does not define priorities for data packets in a network. Prioritization of data is handled by other network processes and protocols. Reference: Page Number 90 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In regards to wired topologies, which of the following statements is correct? A. They are only used for Ethernet networking. B. They are deprecated and no longer used in any technology areas. C. They are still used in areas such as storage area networks (SANs), industrial control systems, and WANs. D. They are only used in WANs. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In regards to wired topologies, which of the following statements is correct? A. They are only used for Ethernet networking. B. They are deprecated and no longer used in any technology areas. C. They are still used in areas such as storage area networks (SANs), industrial control systems, and WANs. D. They are only used in WANs. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They are still used in areas such as storage area networks (SANs), industrial control systems, and WANs. Explanation: Despite being no longer used for Ethernet networking, wired topologies are still used in other areas of technology such as storage area networks (SANs), industrial control systems, and WANs. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The text states that these topologies are no longer used for Ethernet networking. B. The topologies arenвЂ™t deprecated, they are used in other areas of technology. D. Wired topologies are not only used in WANs, but also in SANs and industrial control systems. Reference: Page Number 91 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between a physical and a logical topology in a network? A. A physical network shows the flow of information while a logical network shows how the devices are physically interconnected B. A logical network shows the flow of information while a physical network shows how the devices are physically interconnected C. A logical network shows the real-time data traffic in the network while a physical network shows the data storage layout D. A logical network shows how devices are interconnected via wireless signals while a physical network shows the wired connections among devices "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between a physical and a logical topology in a network? A. A physical network shows the flow of information while a logical network shows how the devices are physically interconnected B. A logical network shows the flow of information while a physical network shows how the devices are physically interconnected C. A logical network shows the real-time data traffic in the network while a physical network shows the data storage layout D. A logical network shows how devices are interconnected via wireless signals while a physical network shows the wired connections among devices <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. A logical network shows the flow of information while a physical network shows how the devices are physically interconnected Explanation: A logical network reflects the flow of information within a system or network, while the physical network highlights the specifics of the physical interconnections between devices e.g., which port on a router is connected to a switch. The logical network is usually documented first, to provide an overview of the network flow, before the physical interconnections are documented. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This statement falsely reverses the definitions of logical and physical networks. Logical networks concern data flow while physical are about hardware connection. C. Neither a logical nor a physical network primarily reflects real-time data traffic or data storage layouts. D. While the physical network can indeed map wired connections, logical networks can map both wired and wireless flows. Reference: Page Number 91 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the advantages of the Star topology? A. The computers have to be next to each other B. All network devices are wired back to a single computer C. Failure and diagnostic points are spread out across the network D. It concentrates the failure and diagnostic points in a central location "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the advantages of the Star topology? A. The computers have to be next to each other B. All network devices are wired back to a single computer C. Failure and diagnostic points are spread out across the network D. It concentrates the failure and diagnostic points in a central location <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It concentrates the failure and diagnostic points in a central location Explanation: One of the benefits of the star topology is that it centralizes diagnostic points and makes it easier to manage and troubleshoot the network. Other benefits include the fact that you can swap out edge switches from a single location. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. In a star topology, computers do not have to be next to each other. B. In a star topology, all devices are wired back to a hub or switch, not a single computer. C. With a star topology, failure and diagnostic points are not spread across the network; they are unique to each device and central to the main hub or switch. Reference: Page Number 91 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the Token Ring technology utilize in its functioning? A. Each device sends messages simultaneously B. The devices pass a token around the ring, and the device which seizes the token transmits a message C. Messages are sent randomly by each device D. Only one device can transmit messages "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the Token Ring technology utilize in its functioning? A. Each device sends messages simultaneously B. The devices pass a token around the ring, and the device which seizes the token transmits a message C. Messages are sent randomly by each device D. Only one device can transmit messages <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. The devices pass a token around the ring, and the device which seizes the token transmits a message Explanation: The Token Ring protocol works on the principle of token-passing. A central controller sends a 3-byte token frame around the network. Any device that wants to send a message must first seize the token. After a device has seized the token, no other device can transmit a message until the token is released. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Each device does not send messages simultaneously. The Token Ring protocol works by passing a token. B. The token is not sent randomly. It is passed around the devices until one of them seizes it to send a message. D. Not only one device can transmit messages. Any device that can seize the token can transmit a message. Reference: Page Number 92 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is a full mesh topology not typically used at the edge of a network where end-user computers connect? A. Its implementation is less secure. B. The network would not function if a switch were to go down. C. It is too costly to implement. D. It does not provide redundancy in the event of a component failure. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is a full mesh topology not typically used at the edge of a network where end-user computers connect? A. Its implementation is less secure. B. The network would not function if a switch were to go down. C. It is too costly to implement. D. It does not provide redundancy in the event of a component failure. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is too costly to implement. Explanation: The full mesh topology, although it provides redundancy, is not typically used at the edge of a network where end-user computers connect because it would be too costly to implement. This is due to the high number of direct connections necessary for full mesh. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Cost, not security, is the stated reason full mesh is not typically used at the edge of a network. B. Actually, the network will still function in the event of a single switch going down due to the redundancy of connections in a full mesh. D. Full mesh provides stability and redundancy in case of component failure, so this statement contradicts the mentioned benefits of a full mesh topology. Therefore, its denial of redundancy is incorrect. Reference: Page Number 93 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding bus networks? A. A failure on the bus would affect all the computers on the bus B. Bus networks required external terminators on the ends of the bus segment C. SCSI disk networks use a device ID similar to how the MAC address is used on computer bus type networks D. Bus networks are considered the cutting-edge design in networking "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding bus networks? A. A failure on the bus would affect all the computers on the bus B. Bus networks required external terminators on the ends of the bus segment C. SCSI disk networks use a device ID similar to how the MAC address is used on computer bus type networks D. Bus networks are considered the cutting-edge design in networking <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Bus networks are considered the cutting-edge design in networking Explanation: Bus networks are not considered a cutting-edge design in networking. In fact, it is now considered legacy in its design, as indicated in the passage. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The statement is true; a failure on the bus would affect all computers on the bus. B: The statement is true; bus networks required external terminators on the ends of the bus segment to stop the reflection of electrical signals. C: The statement is true; SCSI disk networks use a device ID similar to how MAC addresses are used on computer bus type networks. Reference: Page Number 94 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a hybrid topology in networking? A. It is just another name for a full mesh topology B. It is the combination of multiple topologies used for resiliency, load balancing, and connectivity C. It is a topology where only edge switches are connected D. It is a topology that only uses the SONET ring method "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a hybrid topology in networking? A. It is just another name for a full mesh topology B. It is the combination of multiple topologies used for resiliency, load balancing, and connectivity C. It is a topology where only edge switches are connected D. It is a topology that only uses the SONET ring method <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is the combination of multiple topologies used for resiliency, load balancing, and connectivity Explanation: A hybrid topology in networking combines various distinct network topologies like mesh, star, and ring into one network for the purposes of resiliency, load balancing, and improved connectivity. As per the provided text, edge switches can be connected in a star topology, distribution switches can be connected in a partial mesh, and the core and distribution can be connected in a full mesh. WAN connectivity can be supplied by a SONET ring topology. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Full mesh topology is just one of many possible topologies within a hybrid network. C. Only connecting edge switches does not form a hybrid network; a hybrid network involves multiple different types of connections. D. While a SONET ring can be part of a hybrid network, it alone does not define a hybrid network. Reference: Page Number 95 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of designating a вЂ™typeвЂ™ to various parts of a network? A. To classify the physical components used in those areas B. To quickly identify the areasвЂ™ purpose and help plan for the infrastructure C. To assign names and labels for easy reference D. To identify the software applications running in those areas "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of designating a вЂ™typeвЂ™ to various parts of a network? A. To classify the physical components used in those areas B. To quickly identify the areasвЂ™ purpose and help plan for the infrastructure C. To assign names and labels for easy reference D. To identify the software applications running in those areas <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To quickly identify the areasвЂ™ purpose and help plan for the infrastructure Explanation: The вЂ™typeвЂ™ assigned to different parts of a network allows us to quickly understand what those partsвЂ™ functions are and also helps us plan for what infrastructure the network will serve. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The вЂ™typeвЂ™ refers to the functional purpose of the network areas, not the physical components. C. While it helps quick identification, it is more for functional purposes, not just naming. D. вЂ™TypeвЂ™ is for identifying functional areas of the network, not specific software applications. Reference: Page Number 96 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a characteristic of a strict client-server network operating system, such as Novell Netware? A. Servers can also act as clients B. Clients can serve up files and printers C. Multiple ports need to be opened on client side to egress the network D. Servers are exclusive providers of resources, such as files or printers, and clients only use these resources "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a characteristic of a strict client-server network operating system, such as Novell Netware? A. Servers can also act as clients B. Clients can serve up files and printers C. Multiple ports need to be opened on client side to egress the network D. Servers are exclusive providers of resources, such as files or printers, and clients only use these resources <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Servers are exclusive providers of resources, such as files or printers, and clients only use these resources Explanation: In a strict client-server model like Novell Netware, the servers only serve up resources like files or printers, and the clients only use these resources. Servers cannot act as clients and likewise, clients cannot serve up resources. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. In a strict client-server model, servers cannot also act as clients. This is a characteristic of a peer networking model. B. In a strict client-server model, clients cannot serve up resources. They can only use resources served by the servers. C. Opening ports on client-side for network egress is a security practice and not a characteristic specific to the client-server model. Reference: Page Number 96 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™peerвЂ™, in the context of peer-to-peer networking, refer to? A. A network node that can only function as a client B. A network node that can only function as a server C. A network node that can function as both a client and server simultaneously D. A network node that is involved in illegal activities "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™peerвЂ™, in the context of peer-to-peer networking, refer to? A. A network node that can only function as a client B. A network node that can only function as a server C. A network node that can function as both a client and server simultaneously D. A network node that is involved in illegal activities <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. A network node that can function as both a client and server simultaneously Explanation: In the text, it is mentioned that a peer is nothing more than a network node that can act as both a client and server at the same time, breaking the typical client-server model. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A and B are incorrect because a вЂ™peerвЂ™ in a peer-to-peer network can function not only as a client or a server but as both simultaneously as mentioned in the text. Option D is incorrect as the вЂ™peerвЂ™ in this context does not necessarily imply involvement in illegal activities. The text notes that while many people first heard of peer-to-peer in relation to illegal activities, the concept itself predates those activities and is not inherently illegal. Reference: Page Number 97 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about a LAN is incorrect based on the provided text? A. A LAN denotes the companyвЂ™s internal network B. No consideration is needed for the placement of resources within the LAN C. LAN speeds are usually the fastest within your network design D. When there is a resource local to the clients, it is considered an intranet "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about a LAN is incorrect based on the provided text? A. A LAN denotes the companyвЂ™s internal network B. No consideration is needed for the placement of resources within the LAN C. LAN speeds are usually the fastest within your network design D. When there is a resource local to the clients, it is considered an intranet <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. No consideration is needed for the placement of resources within the LAN Explanation: This statement is incorrect because, even in a LAN setting, consideration must be given to where resources are placed to ensure optimal performance and accessibility. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The text states that a LAN is the вЂ™local areaвЂ™ of a network that is locally managed, therefore, it does represent the companyвЂ™s internal network. C. The text specifies that LAN speeds should always be the fastest within a network design, therefore this statement is correct. D. According to the text, when a resource is local to the clients in a LAN, it is indeed considered an intranet, thus this statement is accurate. Reference: Page Number 97 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is an important consideration when designing a WLAN infrastructure? A. Ignoring the client density it can serve B. Begin without a site survey C. Design for the wireless client density it could serve D. Focus only on wireless access pointsвЂ™ (WAPs) upgradability "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is an important consideration when designing a WLAN infrastructure? A. Ignoring the client density it can serve B. Begin without a site survey C. Design for the wireless client density it could serve D. Focus only on wireless access pointsвЂ™ (WAPs) upgradability <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Design for the wireless client density it could serve Explanation: When designing WLANs, itвЂ™s crucial to consider the wireless client density it could potentially serve. The design needs to accommodate an appropriate number of connections and provide sufficient bandwidth. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is incorrect because ignoring client density can result in a network that canвЂ™t support usage demands. B is incorrect because starting with a site survey can help determine the optimal placement of WAPs. D is incorrect because while upgradability is important, it must be considered with other factors like WAP placement and client density. Reference: Page Number 98 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT a consideration for infrastructure implementation in wide area networks (WAN)? A. Placement of resources within various networks B. The protocols used by the internal networks C. The use of broadcast-based technologies D. The color of the network cables "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT a consideration for infrastructure implementation in wide area networks (WAN)? A. Placement of resources within various networks B. The protocols used by the internal networks C. The use of broadcast-based technologies D. The color of the network cables <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. The color of the network cables Explanation: The color of the network cables has no bearing on WAN infrastructure implementation. Choices A, B, and C are all important considerations for WAN infrastructure implementation. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, C are all incorrect because these are indeed considerations for WAN infrastructure implementation. The placement of resources is important due to varying speeds between WAN and internal networks. The WAN might use different protocols than the internal networks, so this needs to be accounted for, especially for broadcast-based technologies. Reference: Page Number 98 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key characteristic of a metropolitan area network (MAN)? A. It covers a larger geographical area than a WAN B. It is slower than a WAN C. It offers higher connection speeds between network locations D. It requires administrators to be at each location "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key characteristic of a metropolitan area network (MAN)? A. It covers a larger geographical area than a WAN B. It is slower than a WAN C. It offers higher connection speeds between network locations D. It requires administrators to be at each location <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It offers higher connection speeds between network locations Explanation: A significant trait of a MAN is its higher connection speeds between network locations, due to it being built out by the provider as the backbone for the network locations. This key aspect sets it apart from a WAN. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A MAN covers a smaller area, like a city or region of a state, not larger than a WAN. B. Incorrect. A MAN is faster, not slower than a WAN. D. Incorrect. The text specifically states that there might be no administrators at each location since the higher speeds allow for centralization of resources. Reference: Page Number 100 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key consideration for placing resources in Campus Area Network (CAN)? A. Closest to the router B. Closest to the perimeter firewalls C. Closest to the majority of users D. Beside the network server "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key consideration for placing resources in Campus Area Network (CAN)? A. Closest to the router B. Closest to the perimeter firewalls C. Closest to the majority of users D. Beside the network server <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Closest to the majority of users Explanation: In a Campus Area Network, it is recommended to place resources, such as file servers, closest to the majority of users. This is done to maximize the speed and efficiency of the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Placing resources closest to the router does not necessarily ensure efficiency as it depends upon where the majority of users are situated. B. Placing resources closest to the perimeter firewalls isnвЂ™t relevant to efficiency but rather, it is a security consideration. D. Placing resources beside the network server does not necessarily ensure efficiency as it depends upon where the majority of users are situated. Reference: Page Number 100 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a common SAN (Storage Area Network) technology found in data centers? A. Ethernet B. Fibre Channel C. Wi-Fi D. Bluetooth "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a common SAN (Storage Area Network) technology found in data centers? A. Ethernet B. Fibre Channel C. Wi-Fi D. Bluetooth <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Fibre Channel Explanation: According to the given passage, Fibre Channel (FC) is a common SAN technology found in data centers. It is noted that a typical SAN in data centers connects servers to the storage through Fibre Channel switches. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ethernet: Even though Ethernet can be used in SAN environments, particularly in the case of iSCSI or FCoE solutions, it is not specifically mentioned as the data center typical technology in the passage. C. Wi-Fi: Wireless connectivity does not provide the low latency and lossless connectivity typically required for SANs as mentioned in the passage. D. Bluetooth: Bluetooth technology is not suitable for SANs, given its short-range connectivity and low data transfer rates. Reference: Page Number 100 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a characteristic feature of a Personal Area Network (PAN)? A. It must use Bluetooth B. It is only wireless C. It can be wired or wireless D. It is a large-scale network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a characteristic feature of a Personal Area Network (PAN)? A. It must use Bluetooth B. It is only wireless C. It can be wired or wireless D. It is a large-scale network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It can be wired or wireless Explanation: A Personal Area Network (PAN) can be either wired or wireless. This means it has the flexibility to transmit data through cables or airwaves, depending on the devices used and the individualвЂ™s personal preference. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It must use Bluetooth - This statement is incorrect as PANs can use any protocol, not just Bluetooth. B. It is only wireless - This is not true as PANs can be either wired or wireless. D. It is a large-scale network - This is incorrect as a PAN is defined as an вЂ™ultra-smallвЂ™ network for personal use, hence the term вЂ™PersonalвЂ™ in its name. Reference: Page Number 101 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What best describes the function of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)? A. It packet-switches data based on the layer 3 network addressing. B. It uses an MPLS label to packet-switch data and operates at layer 2.5. C. It requires a layer 2 protocol and uses the destination IP address for routing decisions. D. It is a pure layer 3 protocol that eradicates the need for an underlying leased line. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What best describes the function of Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)? A. It packet-switches data based on the layer 3 network addressing. B. It uses an MPLS label to packet-switch data and operates at layer 2.5. C. It requires a layer 2 protocol and uses the destination IP address for routing decisions. D. It is a pure layer 3 protocol that eradicates the need for an underlying leased line. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It uses an MPLS label to packet-switch data and operates at layer 2.5. Explanation: MPLS adds a label to each packet, allowing the data to be packet-switched based on the label, not the layer 3 network addressing. As a result, it functions at layer 2.5, since it does not purely function as a layer 2 or layer 3 protocol. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is incorrect because MPLS does not use layer 3 network addressing for packet switching. C is incorrect because MPLS does not use the destination IP address for routing decisions and it operates at layer 2.5 with added MPLS label, not a pure layer 2 protocol. D is incorrect because MPLS is not a pure layer 3 protocol and it requires an underlying leased line for operation. Reference: Page Number 101 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does SDWAN decouple from branch routers? A. Data plane B. Management plane C. Control plane D. Application plane "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does SDWAN decouple from branch routers? A. Data plane B. Management plane C. Control plane D. Application plane <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Control plane Explanation: SDWAN decouples the control plane from branch routers, which allows an administrator to centrally control policies for branch office routers and determine the prioritization and routing of traffic. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect because the data plane, which is where data is moved, is not decoupled by SDWAN from the branch routers. B. Incorrect because the management plane, which is where the administrator manages the control plane, is not decoupled by SDWAN from the branch routers. D. Incorrect because the application plane is not mentioned in the text and is not a concept applicable in SDWAN context as described within the text. Reference: Page Number 101 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™service-related entry pointвЂ™ refer to in a network? A. The point where the service provider starts their service B. The location of the customer premises equipment (CPE) C. The point in a network where the service provider ends their responsibility and it becomes the customerвЂ™s D. The central point in the network where all data is managed "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™service-related entry pointвЂ™ refer to in a network? A. The point where the service provider starts their service B. The location of the customer premises equipment (CPE) C. The point in a network where the service provider ends their responsibility and it becomes the customerвЂ™s D. The central point in the network where all data is managed <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The point in a network where the service provider ends their responsibility and it becomes the customerвЂ™s Explanation: The service-related entry point defines the point in a network at which the responsibility for the service shifts from the provider to the customer. This is where the service is handed off to the customer, which can be done using various WAN technologies. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The point where the service provider starts their service - This is not correct because the service-related entry point is where the service provider finishes their responsibility, not where they start. B. The location of the customer premises equipment (CPE) - This is not entirely accurate as the location of the CPE is where the customerвЂ™s responsibility begins, not necessarily where the providerвЂ™s ends. D. The central point in the network where all data is managed - This is incorrect because the service-related entry point specifically refers to the transition point between provider and customer responsibilities. Reference: Page Number 103 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the network interface connection (NIC) at a demarcation point in a telephone system? A. It serves as a direct connection to the Internet. B. It segments the internal wiring from the telephone companyвЂ™s local loop wiring. C. It allows you to increase the speed of your internet connection. D. It connects all the devices in your home to a network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the network interface connection (NIC) at a demarcation point in a telephone system? A. It serves as a direct connection to the Internet. B. It segments the internal wiring from the telephone companyвЂ™s local loop wiring. C. It allows you to increase the speed of your internet connection. D. It connects all the devices in your home to a network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It segments the internal wiring from the telephone companyвЂ™s local loop wiring. Explanation: The network interface connection (NIC) at a demarcation point in a telephone system would be installed by the telephone company to segment your internal wiring from the telephone companyвЂ™s local loop wiring. This would mean that everything beyond the demarcation point within your dwelling was your responsibility. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The NIC in this context doesnвЂ™t serve as a direct connection to the Internet. B. While a NIC can impact speeds, its primary purpose isnвЂ™t to increase the speed of your internet connection. C. The NIC does not directly connect all devices in your home to a network; it segments the internal wiring. Reference: Page Number 104 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a Channel Service Unit / Digital Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a network? A. To store data packets for later transmission B. To convert serialized data to a compatible serial protocol for routers C. To amplify the signal strength of the data packets D. To act as a firewall and filter data packets "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a Channel Service Unit / Digital Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a network? A. To store data packets for later transmission B. To convert serialized data to a compatible serial protocol for routers C. To amplify the signal strength of the data packets D. To act as a firewall and filter data packets <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To convert serialized data to a compatible serial protocol for routers Explanation: CSU/DSU devices convert serialized data (like T1 and ISDN) to a serial protocol that routers can understand. They sit between the router and the leased line circuit and play a crucial role in converting channelized data and serialized data. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. CSU/DSUs do not primarily store data packets for later transmission, their primary role is data conversion. C. CSU/DSUs do not amplify signal strength, their purpose is data conversion. D. CSU/DSUs do not act as firewalls nor filter data packets. They primarily handle the conversion of serialized and channelized data. Reference: Page Number 104 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the function of a Smart Jack? A. It is used to replace the router. B. It converts protocols and framing types from the providerвЂ™s network. C. It serves as a diagnostic point for the customer. D. It monitors the performance of internet service and informs the customer. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the function of a Smart Jack? A. It is used to replace the router. B. It converts protocols and framing types from the providerвЂ™s network. C. It serves as a diagnostic point for the customer. D. It monitors the performance of internet service and informs the customer. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It converts protocols and framing types from the providerвЂ™s network. Explanation: A smart jack, typically used with leased line circuits like T1 and ISDN, serves as a diagnostic point for the provider. It allows the provider to convert protocols and framing types from their network. This includes changing the framing type that the CSU/DSU expects. It also provides advanced diagnostic capabilities to the provider such as loopback mode and alarm indication signaling. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A smart jack does not replace a router; it works in conjunction with one. C. While a smart jack does have diagnostic capabilities, it is not for the customerвЂ™s use, but for the provider. D. A smart jack does monitor performance of the line, but the alarm indication signaling is for the providerвЂ™s use, not for informing the customer. Reference: Page Number 105 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does virtualization enable in terms of server hardware utilization? A. Decreased partitioning and individualized use of CPU time B. Increased hardware purchases for each application C. Storage for an infinite number of applications on one server D. Partitioning of server hardware to allow multiple applications to run simultaneously "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does virtualization enable in terms of server hardware utilization? A. Decreased partitioning and individualized use of CPU time B. Increased hardware purchases for each application C. Storage for an infinite number of applications on one server D. Partitioning of server hardware to allow multiple applications to run simultaneously <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Partitioning of server hardware to allow multiple applications to run simultaneously Explanation: Virtualization allows for the partitioning of server hardware under the control of a hypervisor. This enables each virtual machine to utilize a portion of the CPU time. This way, instead of one application having exclusive control of a server, multiple applications can run simultaneously on one physical server, leading to a many-to-one relationship with applications to servers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because virtualization increases, not decreases, partitioning and individualized use of resources such as CPU time. Option B is wrong since virtualization actually reduces hardware purchases as it allows for multiple applications to run on a single physical server rather than requiring individual servers for each application. Option C is incorrect because while virtualization allows for more efficient use of resources, there are still limitations to the number of applications a single server can support due to finite physical resources. Reference: Page Number 105 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is it important to have a good working knowledge of virtualized networking components? A. Because virtualization is a temporary trend B. Because the physical infrastructure is becoming obsolete C. Because virtualization is here to stay and is growing rapidly D. Because virtualized networking components replace the need for physical components "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is it important to have a good working knowledge of virtualized networking components? A. Because virtualization is a temporary trend B. Because the physical infrastructure is becoming obsolete C. Because virtualization is here to stay and is growing rapidly D. Because virtualized networking components replace the need for physical components <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Because virtualization is here to stay and is growing rapidly Explanation: The text states that itвЂ™s important to understand virtualized networking components because virtualization is a technology that is here to stay and its use is growing rapidly. This implies itвЂ™s an essential part of current and future networking environments. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The text contradicts this statement by stating that virtualization is here to stay and growing rapidly. B. The text doesnвЂ™t suggest that physical infrastructure is becoming obsolete. Rather, it suggests that virtualized components operate similarly to physical ones. D. The text does not suggest that virtualized components replace physical ones, but rather operate in a similar fashion. Reference: Page Number 105 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a significant difference between a virtual switch and a physical switch? A. A virtual switch does not perform the same functions as a physical switch B. The number of ports on a virtual switch is fixed like a physical switch C. A virtual switch is not scalable D. A virtual switch can simply add more ports unlike a physical switch "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a significant difference between a virtual switch and a physical switch? A. A virtual switch does not perform the same functions as a physical switch B. The number of ports on a virtual switch is fixed like a physical switch C. A virtual switch is not scalable D. A virtual switch can simply add more ports unlike a physical switch <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. A virtual switch can simply add more ports unlike a physical switch Explanation: Unlike a physical switch where the number of ports is defined and can only be increased by upgrading or replacing the switch, a virtual switch is scalable and can simply add more ports as needed. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect, the virtual switch performs the same functions as a physical switch barring some exceptions regarding how MAC addresses are handled. B. Incorrect, unlike a physical switch, the number of ports on a virtual switch is adjustable which supports its scalable nature. C. Incorrect, a key feature of a virtual switch is its scalability - allowing more ports to be added as required, unlike a physical switch which has a defined number of ports. Reference: Page Number 105 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a characteristic of a virtual NIC? A. It is a physical piece of hardware installed in the VM B. It requires the VMware drivers due to its generic hardware status C. It is a software that emulates physical hardware D. It bypasses communication with the VMвЂ™s virtual switch "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a characteristic of a virtual NIC? A. It is a physical piece of hardware installed in the VM B. It requires the VMware drivers due to its generic hardware status C. It is a software that emulates physical hardware D. It bypasses communication with the VMвЂ™s virtual switch <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a software that emulates physical hardware Explanation: The virtual NIC (vNIC) is a software that behaves or pretends to be a physical hardware. It enables direct communication between the virtual machine (VM) and the virtual switch. This characteristic essentially allows for the emulation of physical network interface cards within a virtual environment. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The virtual NIC is not a physical hardware. It is a software that emulates or pretends to be a hardware. B. The virtual NIC does not generally require the VMware drivers due its generic hardware nature. Specialized NICs like VMwareвЂ™s VMXNET3 does require the appropriate drivers but this is not always the case with all vNICs. D. The vNIC does not bypass communication with the VMвЂ™s virtual switch, it in fact, communicates directly with it. Reference: Page Number 106 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a concern when using Network Function Virtualization (NFV)? A. Physical device failures, such as power supplies and CPUs B. The physical network device failing C. The host that runs the virtual network functions D. Redundancy in the hypervisor "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a concern when using Network Function Virtualization (NFV)? A. Physical device failures, such as power supplies and CPUs B. The physical network device failing C. The host that runs the virtual network functions D. Redundancy in the hypervisor <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The host that runs the virtual network functions Explanation: In Network Function Virtualization, while physical device failures are no longer a concern, the reliability and performance of the host that runs the virtual network functions becomes a critical concern. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Physical device failures, such as power supplies and CPUs, are not a concern in NFV because the functions are virtualized. This is the advantage of using NFV over traditional network functions. B. The physical network device failing is not a concern in NFV, because the functions are virtualized and thus not dependent on the physical deviceвЂ™s wellbeing. D. Redundancy is not a concern because it is built into many hypervisors as a form of fault tolerance or high availability. Reference: Page Number 106 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a significant difference between a virtual firewall kernel module and a virtual firewall appliance? A. Only virtual firewall appliances can apply policies to all hosts in a cluster B. Traffic never leaves the host when a virtual firewall appliance is used C. Virtual firewall kernel modules use policies to apply to all hosts in a cluster D. Only virtual firewall appliances can be configured for Layer 2 MAC addresses or protocol with traditional Layer 3 and Layer 4 rules "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a significant difference between a virtual firewall kernel module and a virtual firewall appliance? A. Only virtual firewall appliances can apply policies to all hosts in a cluster B. Traffic never leaves the host when a virtual firewall appliance is used C. Virtual firewall kernel modules use policies to apply to all hosts in a cluster D. Only virtual firewall appliances can be configured for Layer 2 MAC addresses or protocol with traditional Layer 3 and Layer 4 rules <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Virtual firewall kernel modules use policies to apply to all hosts in a cluster Explanation: Virtual firewall kernel modules apply policies to all hosts in the cluster, which is a key difference compared to a virtual firewall appliance. When a kernel module is used, the traffic never leaves the host, unlike in the case of a virtual firewall appliance. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Both virtual firewall appliances and kernel modules can apply policies to all hosts. B. This is incorrect; traffic does not leave the host when a kernel module is used, not a virtual firewall appliance. D. Both virtual firewall appliances and kernel modules can be configured for Layer 2 MAC addresses and protocol. Reference: Page Number 106 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a virtual router and what feature does it provide? A. A device that is like a physical router, commonly loaded as a VM appliance to facilitate layer 1 routing B. A software application with no similarities to physical router, providing features like VPN services C. An identical to a physical router, loaded as a VM appliance to facilitate layer 3 routing and offering features like BGP routing D. A cloud-based service that replaces physical routers and offers services such as bandwidth management "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a virtual router and what feature does it provide? A. A device that is like a physical router, commonly loaded as a VM appliance to facilitate layer 1 routing B. A software application with no similarities to physical router, providing features like VPN services C. An identical to a physical router, loaded as a VM appliance to facilitate layer 3 routing and offering features like BGP routing D. A cloud-based service that replaces physical routers and offers services such as bandwidth management <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. An identical to a physical router, loaded as a VM appliance to facilitate layer 3 routing and offering features like BGP routing Explanation: A virtual router is almost identical to a physical router and is usually loaded as a VM appliance to provide layer 3 routing, with features such as VPN services, BGP routing, bandwidth management, and others offered by different companies. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Virtual routers perform layer 3 routing, not layer 1. B. Virtual routers are similar to physical routers and offer more than just VPN services. D. While virtual routers can be supported by cloud-based services, they do not вЂ™replaceвЂ™ physical routers and offer more features than just bandwidth management. Reference: Page Number 107 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a hypervisor in a virtual environment? A. To share the host hardware among the virtual machines (VMs) and manage the VMsвЂ™ operations B. To monitor the usage of network bandwidth by each guest OS within the VMs C. To prevent guest operating systems from interacting with the host machine D. To execute automated scripts for storing data across VMs "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a hypervisor in a virtual environment? A. To share the host hardware among the virtual machines (VMs) and manage the VMsвЂ™ operations B. To monitor the usage of network bandwidth by each guest OS within the VMs C. To prevent guest operating systems from interacting with the host machine D. To execute automated scripts for storing data across VMs <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. To share the host hardware among the virtual machines (VMs) and manage the VMsвЂ™ operations Explanation: The hypervisor manages sharing of the hostвЂ™s hardware resources among the VMs based on their needs. It manages the time sharing of VMs to the physical hardware and carries out the virtualization of the guest operating systems. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. While the hypervisor does manage resources, it does not specifically monitor the usage of network bandwidth, this would be a role of network monitoring tools. C. The hypervisor does not prevent interaction between guest OS and the host machine. In fact, it facilitates this interaction through resource allocation. D. Execution of automated scripts for storing data across VMs is not a primary function of the hypervisor. Reference: Page Number 107 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™Service TypeвЂ™ refer to in the context of network connection? A. The type of customer the service provider is targeting B. The type of service offered by the connectivity provider C. The type of link between the provider and customer D. Both B and C "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™Service TypeвЂ™ refer to in the context of network connection? A. The type of customer the service provider is targeting B. The type of service offered by the connectivity provider C. The type of link between the provider and customer D. Both B and C <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Both B and C Explanation: In the context of network connectivity, вЂ™service typeвЂ™ refers to the type of service being offered by the provider, also termed as the provider link. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because вЂ™service typeвЂ™ does not refer to the target customer base. While choices B and C individually offer correct elements of the definition, they only provide a complete definition when combined. Reference: Page Number 108 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why are leased-lines still covered in the Network+ exam despite being an older technology? A. Because they are interesting for historical purposes B. Because they still serve a purpose and newer technologies like MPLS can be overlaid on them C. Because they are less expensive than newer technologies D. Because they are required for certain types of network architectures "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why are leased-lines still covered in the Network+ exam despite being an older technology? A. Because they are interesting for historical purposes B. Because they still serve a purpose and newer technologies like MPLS can be overlaid on them C. Because they are less expensive than newer technologies D. Because they are required for certain types of network architectures <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Because they still serve a purpose and newer technologies like MPLLS can be overlaid on them Explanation: As the text states, leased-lines, despite being an older technology, still serve a purpose in todayвЂ™s networking world. Furthermore, newer leased-line technologies like Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS) can be integrated with them, making them relevant problem solvers in certain scenarios. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Network+ exam is not focused on historical interest but it tests the knowledge that is practically useful in modern network management. C. The text does not mention cost being a factor in why leased-lines are covered in the exam. D. Though leased-lines may be used in certain types of network architectures, the text does not specify this as the reason they are covered on the exam. Reference: Page Number 108 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a common implementation of ISDN? A. Local Area Network (LAN) B. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) C. Virtual Private Network (VPN) D. Fiber Optic Service (FOS) "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a common implementation of ISDN? A. Local Area Network (LAN) B. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) C. Virtual Private Network (VPN) D. Fiber Optic Service (FOS) <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Primary Rate Interface (PRI) Explanation: The integrated services digital network (ISDN) is typically implemented in two modes, Basic Rate Interface (BRI) and Primary Rate Interface (PRI). According to the passage, PRI is the most common implementation. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Local Area Network (LAN) is a network that connects computers within a specific area but is not a mode of ISDN. C. Virtual Private Network (VPN) allows you to create a secure connection to another network over the Internet but is not a mode of ISDN. D. Fiber Optic Service (FOS) is an internet connectivity technology and not a mode of ISDN. Reference: Page Number 108 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a T1 service? A. It converts the channels back into a stream of data. B. It defines the type of service being ordered. C. It checks the data for errors and fixes them. D. It participates in the routing process. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of a Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) in a T1 service? A. It converts the channels back into a stream of data. B. It defines the type of service being ordered. C. It checks the data for errors and fixes them. D. It participates in the routing process. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It converts the channels back into a stream of data. Explanation: The Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is primarily used to convert the channels back into a stream of data. It takes the data from each of the 24 channels or вЂ™bucketsвЂ™ and combines it into a consistent, usable data stream. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The definition of the type of service being ordered is determined when purchasing the service, not specifically by the CSU/DSU. C. The CSU/DSU isnвЂ™t responsible for error-checking or error-correction, its main function is to convert channels into a stream of data. D. The CSU/DSU does not participate in routing process. ThatвЂ™s typically the job of a router or switch. Reference: Page Number 109 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the total bandwidth of an E3 connection? A. 2.048 Mbps B. 34.368 Mbps C. 64 Kbps D. 16 Mbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the total bandwidth of an E3 connection? A. 2.048 Mbps B. 34.368 Mbps C. 64 Kbps D. 16 Mbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 34.368 Mbps Explanation: An E3 is the European standard and it consists of 16 E1 connections. It has a total bandwidth of 34.368 Mbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 2.048 Mbps is the total bandwidth of an E1 connection, not E3. C. 64 Kbps is the speed of a single channel in both E1 and E3 connections. D. 16 Mbps is not a standard bandwidth for E1 or E3 connections. Reference: Page Number 109 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the вЂ™DвЂ™ in 23B + D, in the context of PRIMARY Rate Interface (PRI), represent? A. Data carrier B. Digital Signal C. Delta channel D. Data transfer "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the вЂ™DвЂ™ in 23B + D, in the context of PRIMARY Rate Interface (PRI), represent? A. Data carrier B. Digital Signal C. Delta channel D. Data transfer <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Delta channel Explanation: The D in the 23B+D shorthand for a Primary Rate Interface (PRI) circuit signifies the D (delta) channel. The D channel controls call setup while the B channels carry data or voice calls. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Data carrier - This answer is incorrect as it confuses the roles of D and B channels. It is the B channels that carry data. B. Digital Signal - This answer is misleading because it confuses the signalling within the circuits with the circuit components. D in 23B+D refers to Delta channel, not Digital signal. D. Data transfer - This answer is inaccurate. Although data transfer occurs in ISDN circuit, it is mainly performed by the B (bearer) channels. Reference: Page Number 109 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the approximate speed of an OC-1920? A. 100 Mbps B. 1 Gbps C. 10 Gbps D. 100 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the approximate speed of an OC-1920? A. 100 Mbps B. 1 Gbps C. 10 Gbps D. 100 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. 100 Gbps Explanation: An OC-1920 is made up of 1920 OC1s combined together, which supply approximately 100 Gbps of bandwidth. This is currently the top speed of optical carriers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A, B, and C are incorrect as they underestimate the bandwidth provided by OC-1920 standarts. The correct bandwidth is approximately 100 Gbps indication from OC-1920. Reference: Page Number 109 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a DSLAM in the context of a DSL network? A. A special filter for preventing voice calls from interrupting data communications B. A component of the POTS system that limits frequencies above 3400 hertz C. A piece of equipment at the central office that communicates with a premiseвЂ™s modem D. A particular type of modem specific to DSL connections "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a DSLAM in the context of a DSL network? A. A special filter for preventing voice calls from interrupting data communications B. A component of the POTS system that limits frequencies above 3400 hertz C. A piece of equipment at the central office that communicates with a premiseвЂ™s modem D. A particular type of modem specific to DSL connections <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. A piece of equipment at the central office that communicates with a premiseвЂ™s modem Explanation: The DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) is a piece of equipment located at the central office, or telephone providerвЂ™s main location. It is an integral part of the DSL network and faciliates communication between the central office and the modem at the customerвЂ™s location. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. What is referred to here as a special filter is different from a DSLAM. ItвЂ™s a device used at the premise to prevent voice calls from interrupting data communications. B. The component of the POTS system that limits frequencies above 3400 hertz is separate from the DSLAM and is part of the systemвЂ™s design to filter out such frequencies. D. A DSLAM is not a type of modem, but a separate piece of equipment that facilitates communication between the central office and the modem at a customerвЂ™s location. Reference: Page Number 110 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the typical upload speed of the Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)? A. 10 Mbps B. 0.5 Mbps C. 1 Mbps D. 20 Mbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the typical upload speed of the Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)? A. 10 Mbps B. 0.5 Mbps C. 1 Mbps D. 20 Mbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 0.5 Mbps Explanation: ADSL has a typical upload speed of 0.5 Mbps (or 512 Kbps), which is usually 1/20th of the download speed. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 10 Mbps is the typical download speed for ADSL, not the upload speed. C. 1 Mbps is an incorrect value for the typical upload speed for ADSL. D. 20 Mbps is far higher than the typical upload speed for ADSL. Reference: Page Number 110 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the comparable characteristic of Symmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) to T1 leased lines? A. Both are usually for small businesses B. They deliver the same speed C. They offer high speed for businesses D. Both are expensive options for businesses "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the comparable characteristic of Symmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (SDSL) to T1 leased lines? A. Both are usually for small businesses B. They deliver the same speed C. They offer high speed for businesses D. Both are expensive options for businesses <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. They deliver the same speed Explanation: SDSL is specified in the text as being comparable to T1 leased lines due to their similar data transmission speeds (1.5 Mbps). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: While the text mentions SDSL is commonly offered for small businesses, it does not specify the same for T1 leased lines. C: The text states that the speed provided by SDSL and by inference, T1 leased lines is вЂ™relatively slow for most businesses todayвЂ™ which indicates they do not offer high speed. D: The text explicitly states that SDSL is cheaper than leased lines, indicating they are not both expensive. Reference: Page Number 111 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What can be said about the Very-high-bitrate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL)? A. It supplies symmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload B. It has been replaced by ADSL and SDSL C. It cannot handle data speeds across the same phone lines used to make phone calls D. It can supply asymmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What can be said about the Very-high-bitrate Digital Subscriber Line (VDSL)? A. It supplies symmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload B. It has been replaced by ADSL and SDSL C. It cannot handle data speeds across the same phone lines used to make phone calls D. It can supply asymmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It can supply asymmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload Explanation: VDSL can indeed supply asymmetrical speeds of 300 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because VDSL supplies symmetrical speeds of 100 Mbps download and 100 Mbps upload, not 300 Mbps. Choice B is incorrect because VDSL is the todayвЂ™s replacement for ADSL and SDSL, not the other way around. Choice C is incorrect because VDSL can indeed handle these data speeds across the same phone lines used to make phone calls. Reference: Page Number 111 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Ethernet virtual connections (EVCs) in a Metropolitan Ethernet network? A. To disconnect campus networks B. To connect campus networks together with layer 2 connectivity C. To provide a secure wifi connection D. To reduce the cost of network maintenance "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Ethernet virtual connections (EVCs) in a Metropolitan Ethernet network? A. To disconnect campus networks B. To connect campus networks together with layer 2 connectivity C. To provide a secure wifi connection D. To reduce the cost of network maintenance <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To connect campus networks together with layer 2 connectivity Explanation: In a Metropolitan Ethernet network, Ethernet virtual connections (EVCs) are used to connect campus networks together using layer 2 connectivity. This allows a network that spans a large area to behave as a Local Area Network (LAN). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ethernet virtual connections (EVCs) are not used to disconnect campus networks, but rather to connect them together. C. The purpose of Ethernet virtual connections (EVCs) is not to provide a secure wifi connection. They connect campus networks using layer 2 connectivity. D. Reducing the cost of network maintenance is not the main purpose of Ethernet virtual connections (EVCs). However, using EVCs can lead to cost effectiveness. Reference: Page Number 111 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the specification that broadband cable operates on called? A. High-Level Data Link Control B. DOCSIS C. Digital Subscriber Line D. Fiber-optic node "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the specification that broadband cable operates on called? A. High-Level Data Link Control B. DOCSIS C. Digital Subscriber Line D. Fiber-optic node <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. DOCSIS Explanation: Broadband cable operates on a specification called Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS), which enables high-bandwidth data transfer to an existing cable TV (CATV) system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. High-Level Data Link Control is a protocol for transmitting data over a network, not the specification that broadband cable operates on. C. Digital Subscriber Line is a technology for transmitting digital information over telephone lines, not the specification that broadband cable operates on. D. Fiber-optic node is a device that converts coax communications to a fiber-optic line - not the specification that broadband cable operates on. Reference: Page Number 111 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum theoretical speed of Dial-up with the V.92 specification? A. 56 Kbps B. 53 Kbps C. 100 Kbps D. 65 Kbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum theoretical speed of Dial-up with the V.92 specification? A. 56 Kbps B. 53 Kbps C. 100 Kbps D. 65 Kbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 56 Kbps Explanation: Dial-up with the V.92 specification has a maximum theoretical speed of 56 Kbps. However, North American phone systems limited speeds to 53 Kbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. 53 Kbps is the speed limit set by North American phone systems not the theoretical maximum speed. C. 100 Kbps and D. 65 Kbps are incorrect as the expected maximum theoretical speed of Dial-up with V.92 specification is 56 Kbps. Reference: Page Number 112 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a challenge with satellite communications? A. It cannot support unidirectional communications. B. The satellite dish cannot operate in bidirectional setup. C. The delay due to transmission distance can make real-time protocols such as VoIP very difficult. D. It cannot support data transmission. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a challenge with satellite communications? A. It cannot support unidirectional communications. B. The satellite dish cannot operate in bidirectional setup. C. The delay due to transmission distance can make real-time protocols such as VoIP very difficult. D. It cannot support data transmission. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The delay due to transmission distance can make real-time protocols such as VoIP very difficult. Explanation: Satellite communications experience delay due to the transmission distance and the speed of light limiting how fast your transmission travels. As the text states, there are four transmissions crossing large distances which needs to be taken into account. Hence, real-time protocols such as VoIP can face significant delay, making it potentially difficult to use in some scenarios. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Satellite communications support both unidirectional and bidirectional communications. Unidirectional allows receiving of data and bidirectional allows both receiving and sending of data. B. A Very Small Aperture Terminal (VSAT) is a type of satellite dish that can operate in a bidirectional setup, meaning it can send and receive data. D. Satellite can support data transmission, both in unidirectional and bidirectional forms. Reference: Page Number 112 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three methods that an internet provider may use to hand off service? A. Satellite, fiber optic, wireless B. Copper, fiber optic, wireless C. Copper, undersea fiber, wireless D. Fiber optic, DSL, wireless "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three methods that an internet provider may use to hand off service? A. Satellite, fiber optic, wireless B. Copper, fiber optic, wireless C. Copper, undersea fiber, wireless D. Fiber optic, DSL, wireless <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Copper, fiber optic, wireless Explanation: The text mentions three methods used by an internet provider to hand off service: copper, fiber optic, or wireless. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because satellite is not mentioned as a method in the given text. Choice C is incorrect because undersea fiber is a specific type of fiber optic method, not a separate method. Choice D is incorrect because DSL is a type of delivery method that utilises copper. However, the text talks about copper specifically, instead of types of implementations like DSL. Reference: Page Number 114 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements best describes copper cablingвЂ™s use in networking? A. It is mainly used for leased lines, broadband cable, DSL, and dial-up. B. It is most effective when the network equipment is more than 100 meters away from the providerвЂ™s termination point. C. Metropolitan Ethernet services can only be acquired as a fiber handoff from the provider. D. Fiber handoffs from the provider are rare due to the limited speed and distance of fiber. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements best describes copper cablingвЂ™s use in networking? A. It is mainly used for leased lines, broadband cable, DSL, and dial-up. B. It is most effective when the network equipment is more than 100 meters away from the providerвЂ™s termination point. C. Metropolitan Ethernet services can only be acquired as a fiber handoff from the provider. D. Fiber handoffs from the provider are rare due to the limited speed and distance of fiber. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It is mainly used for leased lines, broadband cable, DSL, and dial-up. Explanation: From the text, we know the following: вЂ™Copper is used with several services, including leased lines, broadband cable, DSL, and dial-up.вЂ™ This makes option A the correct response. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. This is incorrect because the text tells us that copper cable is used when the equipment is 100 meters or less from the termination point. C. We know this statement is false because the text explains that Metropolitan Ethernet services could be ordered as either a copper or fiber handoff. D. This is incorrect because, according to the text, despite copperвЂ™s limited speed and distances, it is actually fiber handoffs that are more common due to their increased capabilities. Reference: Page Number 114 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes dark fiber as per the text? A. It is a managed fiber service similar to VerizonвЂ™s FiOS B. It is a piece of fiber between locations with the customer responsible for lighting and maintaining it C. It can only be used for WAN connectivity D. It is typically used for extremely short distance connectivity "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes dark fiber as per the text? A. It is a managed fiber service similar to VerizonвЂ™s FiOS B. It is a piece of fiber between locations with the customer responsible for lighting and maintaining it C. It can only be used for WAN connectivity D. It is typically used for extremely short distance connectivity <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is a piece of fiber between locations with the customer responsible for lighting and maintaining it Explanation: From the text, we understand that dark fiber is a piece of fiber from one location to another, and the customer is responsible for lighting it and maintaining it. It is used inside the network campus and can also be used for WAN connectivity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Lit fiber, not dark, is the managed fiber service similar to VerizonвЂ™s FiOS. C. Although dark fiber can be used for WAN connectivity, it is not the only use. D. The text does not suggest that dark fiber is used for extremely short distance connectivity. Reference: Page Number 114 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the range of frequencies on which WiMAX operates? A. 1 GHz to 10 GHz B. 10 GHz to 66 GHz C. 2 GHz to 11 GHz and 10 GHz to 66 GHz D. 1 GHz to 99 GHz "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the range of frequencies on which WiMAX operates? A. 1 GHz to 10 GHz B. 10 GHz to 66 GHz C. 2 GHz to 11 GHz and 10 GHz to 66 GHz D. 1 GHz to 99 GHz <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 2 GHz to 11 GHz and 10 GHz to 66 GHz Explanation: WiMAX operates on a large range of frequencies. It is specified in the IEEE standard 802.16 to operate on 2 GHz to 11 GHz and another range from 10 GHz to 66 GHz. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 1 GHz to 10 GHz, B. 10 GHz to 66 GHz, and D. 1 GHz to 99 GHz: These frequencies are not accurate according to the IEEE standard 802.16, which specifies that WiMAX operates on 2 GHz to 11 GHz and 10 GHz to 66 GHz. Reference: Page Number 114 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which factor determines the selection of either copper or fiber-optic cabling in a network design? A. The price of the cabling B. The complexity of the network design C. The presence of electromagnetic interference D. The personal preference of the network professional "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which factor determines the selection of either copper or fiber-optic cabling in a network design? A. The price of the cabling B. The complexity of the network design C. The presence of electromagnetic interference D. The personal preference of the network professional <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The presence of electromagnetic interference Explanation: The presence of electromagnetic interference (EMI) can affect the performance of the network cabling. This is a major factor in determining whether to use copper cabling (like UTP or STP), or fiber-optic cabling. EMI sources can induce erroneous data into the cable. Therefore, in environments with potential EMI, shielded cabling materials like STP are commonly used. In high interference situations, fiber-optic cabling might be preferred as they are immune to EMI. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The price of the cabling doesnвЂ™t determine the cable type. Cable type is based on network performance and environmental needs. B: The complexity of the network design does not directly determine the cabling type, instead it is based on factors like EMI, distance, and data transmission requirements. D: The selection of the cable type does not depend on the personal preference of the network professional but rather the technical and environmental needs of the network. Reference: Page Number 116 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of copper cabling is commonly used in industrial settings where electromagnetic interference (EMI) can induce erroneous data into the cable? A. Coaxial cable B. Fiber-optic cable C. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) D. Shielded twisted-pair (STP) "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of copper cabling is commonly used in industrial settings where electromagnetic interference (EMI) can induce erroneous data into the cable? A. Coaxial cable B. Fiber-optic cable C. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) D. Shielded twisted-pair (STP) <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Shielded twisted-pair (STP) Explanation: Shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable is commonly used in industrial settings because it can resist the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can cause erroneous data transmission. The cabling design for STP includes a metal weaved shielding that protects the twisted pairs of wires from EMI. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Coaxial cable is not used commonly in networking anymore, B. Fiber-optic cable is not a type of copper cabling, and it is not mentioned as a solution to electromagnetic interference in the text. C. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) is the most common cabling for Ethernet networks and not specifically for industrial settings with high electromagnetic interference. Reference: Page Number 116 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) is incorrect? A. UTP is the most common cabling for Ethernet networks today. B. UTP is shielded from electromagnetic interference (EMI). C. UTP should always be cabled away from electrical lines and non-network cabling. D. UTP cable has a PVC or Teflon cable jacket and contains four pairs of wires. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) is incorrect? A. UTP is the most common cabling for Ethernet networks today. B. UTP is shielded from electromagnetic interference (EMI). C. UTP should always be cabled away from electrical lines and non-network cabling. D. UTP cable has a PVC or Teflon cable jacket and contains four pairs of wires. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. UTP is shielded from electromagnetic interference (EMI). Explanation: UTP is not shielded from electromagnetic interference (EMI). It is actually unshielded from EMI, therefore UTP should be cabled away from electrical lines and non-network cabling. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This statement is correct. UTP is the most common cabling for Ethernet networks today. C. This statement is correct. UTP should be installed away from electrical lines and non-network cabling because it is not shielded from electromagnetic interference (EMI). D. This statement is correct. UTP cable has a PVC or Teflon cable jacket and contains four pairs of wires. Reference: Page Number 116 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In what situation is the use of Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cable most recommended? A. When cabling near large motors, welding equipment, HVAC equipment, high-voltage lighting B. When the cabling is least expensive C. When electromagnetic interference (EMI) is not a concern D. When the Ethernet jack shielding and RJ-45 shielding are not required "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In what situation is the use of Shielded Twisted-Pair (STP) cable most recommended? A. When cabling near large motors, welding equipment, HVAC equipment, high-voltage lighting B. When the cabling is least expensive C. When electromagnetic interference (EMI) is not a concern D. When the Ethernet jack shielding and RJ-45 shielding are not required <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. When cabling near large motors, welding equipment, HVAC equipment, high-voltage lighting Explanation: STP cables are recommended for use in situations where there is a high likelihood of electromagnetic interference (EMI), such as large motors, welding equipment, and high-voltage lighting, as the metal weaved shielding protects the twisted pairs of wires from induced erroneous data. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The price of STP cable is significantly higher than that of UTP cable; hence, it would not be chosen because it is least expensive. C. STP is used precisely because it provides protection from EMI; if EMI were not a concern, other kinds of cable, like UTP, could be used. D. STP cable is more difficult to install because of the shielding required, including Ethernet jack and RJ-45 shielding, not less. Reference: Page Number 116 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one use of the coaxial cable today? A. In ethernet communications on the local area network B. Between servers and switching equipment C. For security cameras and broadband cable networks D. To power home electrical systems "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one use of the coaxial cable today? A. In ethernet communications on the local area network B. Between servers and switching equipment C. For security cameras and broadband cable networks D. To power home electrical systems <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. For security cameras and broadband cable networks Explanation: Coaxial cable is still used today in security cameras and broadband cable networks, even though itвЂ™s no longer used for Ethernet communications on the local area network (LAN). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Coaxial cable is no longer used in Ethernet communications on the LAN. This practice was common in the past but is now obsolete. B. Twinax cable, a kind of coaxial cable, is used between servers and switching equipment, not the common coaxial cable. D. Coaxial cables are not used to power home electrical systems; they are primarily used for data transmission. Reference: Page Number 118 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the differences between stranded and solid core network cabling? A. Stranded cabling is used for permanent installations and solid core cabling is used for flexible connections. B. Stranded cabling can be punched down to a punch panel while solid core cabling cannot. C. Stranded core has a strength member that allows for the cable to be run in a riser while the solid core does not. D. Stranded cabling is used for flexible wiring, such as patch cables, and lacks a strength member. Solid core is used for permanent installations and includes a strength member. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the differences between stranded and solid core network cabling? A. Stranded cabling is used for permanent installations and solid core cabling is used for flexible connections. B. Stranded cabling can be punched down to a punch panel while solid core cabling cannot. C. Stranded core has a strength member that allows for the cable to be run in a riser while the solid core does not. D. Stranded cabling is used for flexible wiring, such as patch cables, and lacks a strength member. Solid core is used for permanent installations and includes a strength member. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Stranded cabling is used for flexible wiring, such as patch cables, and lacks a strength member. Solid core is used for permanent installations and includes a strength member. Explanation: Stranded cabling is meant for wiring that moves around often and lacks a strength member, which makes it unsuitable for raising wiring applications. Solid core cabling, on the other hand, includes a strength member that prevents stretching when used in vertical runs, making it ideal for permanent installations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The characteristics of stranded and solid core cabling have been reversed. B. Stranded cabling cannot be punched down to a panel, while the solid core cabling can. C. Solid core cabling includes a strength member, while stranded cabling does not. Reference: Page Number 119 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is a fiber-optic cable used instead of a conventional copper cable in certain situations? A. Fiber-optic cable provides stronger RF emissions. B. Fiber-optic cable can transmit high data rates over longer distances and is not affected by high EMI. C. Fiber-optic cable has a cheaper manufacturing cost. D. Fiber-optic cable can function without cladding. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is a fiber-optic cable used instead of a conventional copper cable in certain situations? A. Fiber-optic cable provides stronger RF emissions. B. Fiber-optic cable can transmit high data rates over longer distances and is not affected by high EMI. C. Fiber-optic cable has a cheaper manufacturing cost. D. Fiber-optic cable can function without cladding. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Fiber-optic cable can transmit high data rates over longer distances and is not affected by high EMI. Explanation: Fiber-optic cables are chosen over conventional copper cables due to their capability to carry superior data rates over larger distances and their resilience against high EMI, making them ideal for use in the vicinity of EMI-generating devices, like electric blast furnaces. Also, fiber-optic cables do not emit any RF emissions, thus enhancing protocol security, unless you are directly spliced. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Fiber-optic cable actually emits no RF emissions. C. The cost of manufacturing is not mentioned in the information given and often depends on various factors. Furthermore, fiber cables are usually more costly than copper cables. D. Cladding is essential for the operation of a fiber-optic cable, it helps contain the light in the core and aids in its reflection down the core. Reference: Page Number 120 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the standard color of SMF patch cables based on the provided text? A. Blue B. Red C. Yellow D. Green "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the standard color of SMF patch cables based on the provided text? A. Blue B. Red C. Yellow D. Green <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Yellow Explanation: The text specifies that the standard color of SMF patch cables is yellow. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Blue, B. Red, and D. Green are not mentioned as standard colors for SMF patch cables in the given context. Reference: Page Number 121 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the typical use of multimode fiber-optic cable (MMF)? A. Long-distance transmission over several miles B. Short to medium distance transmission in a building C. Wireless connectivity over a large area D. Underground external connectivity "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the typical use of multimode fiber-optic cable (MMF)? A. Long-distance transmission over several miles B. Short to medium distance transmission in a building C. Wireless connectivity over a large area D. Underground external connectivity <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Short to medium distance transmission in a building Explanation: MMF is used for short to medium distances, mainly for internal building connectivity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: MMF is not suitable for long-distance transmission over several miles. It has a maximum distance of 3000 feet. C: MMF is not used for wireless connectivity. It is a physical cable. D: While MMF could potentially be used for underground external connectivity, itвЂ™s typically used for internal building connectivity. Reference: Page Number 121 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main types of cable connectors used in network cabling? A. Copper and Iron B. Fiber-optic and Plastic C. Copper and Fiber-optic D. Iron and Fiber-optic "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main types of cable connectors used in network cabling? A. Copper and Iron B. Fiber-optic and Plastic C. Copper and Fiber-optic D. Iron and Fiber-optic <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Copper and Fiber-optic Explanation: Copper and Fiber-optic are the two primary types of cable connectors used in network cabling, which are discussed in detail in the subsequent sections. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Iron is not a main type of cable connector used in network cabling. B. Plastic is not a main type of cable connector used in network cabling. D. Iron is not a main type of cable connector used in network cabling. Reference: Page Number 122 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of copper connectors? A. They are used to physically connect two devices made of copper B. They are used for easy diagnostic point when connectivity is the suspected problem C. They are a leftover from the mainframe days when wires needed to be screwed down to the screw terminals D. They are meant to show that a device is made out of copper "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of copper connectors? A. They are used to physically connect two devices made of copper B. They are used for easy diagnostic point when connectivity is the suspected problem C. They are a leftover from the mainframe days when wires needed to be screwed down to the screw terminals D. They are meant to show that a device is made out of copper <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. They are used for easy diagnostic point when connectivity is the suspected problem Explanation: Copper connectors serve two main purposes: they enable easy wire connection between two devices and provide an easy diagnostic point when connectivity is the suspected problem. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While copper connectors are used to connect two devices, they are not necessarily made of copper. C. Copper connectors are not a leftover from the mainframe days, instead, they replaced the need to screw down wires to screw terminals. D. Copper connectors donвЂ™t indicate that a device is made of copper. They are usually made of a harder metal and then copper plated. Reference: Page Number 122 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the RJ-45 commonly used for? A. Connecting audio devices B. Connecting network equipment C. Powering desktop computers D. Transferring data over Bluetooth "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the RJ-45 commonly used for? A. Connecting audio devices B. Connecting network equipment C. Powering desktop computers D. Transferring data over Bluetooth <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Connecting network equipment Explanation: The RJ-45 connector is commonly used for connecting network equipment, such as network switches, routers, and network interface cards (NICs). It is a standard for wired Ethernet connectivity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A - RJ-45 is not used for connecting audio devices. B - RJ-45 doesnвЂ™t power desktop computers, it is used for networking. D - RJ-45 is used for wired connections, not Bluetooth which is a wireless technology. Reference: Page Number 122 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the RJ-11 connector? A. It is used for Ethernet connections B. It is used for HDMI connections C. It is used for telephone connections D. It is used for VGA connections "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the RJ-11 connector? A. It is used for Ethernet connections B. It is used for HDMI connections C. It is used for telephone connections D. It is used for VGA connections <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is used for telephone connections Explanation: The RJ-11 connector is used for telephone connections, specifically for landline telephones. It is designated a universal service order code (USOC) of 11 and was adopted by Bell Systems from the FCC for customer compliance in connecting phone equipment. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ethernet connections are typically made using an RJ-45, not an RJ-11 connector. B. HDMI (High Definition Media Input) connections are made with an HDMI cable, not an RJ-11 connector. D. VGA connections are typically made using a VGA cable, not an RJ-11 connector. Reference: Page Number 123 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does BNC in BNC connector stand for and for what purposes are these connectors used? A. Bayonet Neill-Concelman, used for 100BaseT LAN coaxial networks and security camera systems B. Bayesian Network Connector, used for T3 WAN connections and radio equipment C. British Naval Connector, used for 10Base2 LAN coaxial networks and security camera systems D. Binary Network Connection, used for radio equipment and coax cameras "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does BNC in BNC connector stand for and for what purposes are these connectors used? A. Bayonet Neill-Concelman, used for 100BaseT LAN coaxial networks and security camera systems B. Bayesian Network Connector, used for T3 WAN connections and radio equipment C. British Naval Connector, used for 10Base2 LAN coaxial networks and security camera systems D. Binary Network Connection, used for radio equipment and coax cameras <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. British Naval Connector, used for 10Base2 LAN coaxial networks and security camera systems Explanation: BNC in BNC connector stands for either Bayonet Neill-Concelman or British Naval Connector. These connectors were used for 10Base2 LAN coaxial networks and currently are used in security camera systems among other things. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because BNC connectors were used in 10Base2 LAN networks, not 100BaseT. Choice B is incorrect because BNC does not stand for Bayesian Network Connector. Choice D is incorrect as BNC does not signify Binary Network Connection. Reference: Page Number 124 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use for the F-connector? A. Transmit data of up to 2.5 Gbps B. Network between computers in a business C. Use for cable TV and cable modem connections D. Connect RG-6 or RG-59 cabling to fiber optic cables "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use for the F-connector? A. Transmit data of up to 2.5 Gbps B. Network between computers in a business C. Use for cable TV and cable modem connections D. Connect RG-6 or RG-59 cabling to fiber optic cables <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Use for cable TV and cable modem connections Explanation: The F-connector is primarily used for cable TV and cable modem connections. It can also be used for Media over Coax Alliance (MoCA) networking, which is used to allow networking between set-top boxes inside a home or business. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because although the F-connector can transmit data of up to 2.5 Gbps, this is not its primary usage. Option B is also incorrect because the F-connector is not primarily used to network between computers in a business. Option D is incorrect because the F-connector does not connect coaxial cables to fiber optic cables - it is a coaxial connector used with either RG-6 or RG-59 cabling. Reference: Page Number 125 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is crucial to know about fiber connectors in a fiber-optic installation? A. Their respective names and visual differences B. Their color C. Their weight D. Their manufacturer "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is crucial to know about fiber connectors in a fiber-optic installation? A. Their respective names and visual differences B. Their color C. Their weight D. Their manufacturer <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Their respective names and visual differences Explanation: The text states that it is important to know the names and visual differences between the different fiber connectors used in a fiber-optic installation. This will assist in identifying the right connectors to use in different situations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The text does not mention that the color, weight, or manufacturer of the fiber connectors is important in a fiber-optic installation. Reference: Page Number 126 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the Local Connector (LC)? A. It resembles a HDMI-style connector and is commonly found on coaxial cables. B. It can be easily disassembled like the SC connector, allowing you to swap fiber lines side to side. C. It resembles an RJ-style connector, is small in size, and is commonly found on MMF and SMF optic cables. D. It is a large connector and not suited for greater density of ports on a switch. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the Local Connector (LC)? A. It resembles a HDMI-style connector and is commonly found on coaxial cables. B. It can be easily disassembled like the SC connector, allowing you to swap fiber lines side to side. C. It resembles an RJ-style connector, is small in size, and is commonly found on MMF and SMF optic cables. D. It is a large connector and not suited for greater density of ports on a switch. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It resembles an RJ-style connector, is small in size, and is commonly found on MMF and SMF optic cables. Explanation: The Local Connector (LC) resembles an RJ-style connector, is small in size and this allows for a greater density of ports on a switch. It is commonly found on Multimode Fiber (MMF) and Singlemode Fiber (SMF) optic cables. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect as the LC resembles an RJ-style connector and is commonly found on MMF and SMF optic cables, not coaxial cables. Option B is incorrect since the LC connector cannot be disassembled like the SC connector, so fiber lines canвЂ™t be swapped. Option D is incorrect because the LC connector, due to its small size, allows for a greater density of ports on a switch. Reference: Page Number 126 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the purpose and design of a straight tip (ST) connector in fiber-optic cables? A. It is a bayonet-style mechanism designed by AT&T that is commonly used with single-mode fiber. B. It is mainly used for LAN connectivity on MMF. C. It was designed by Cisco for use with multimode fiber. D. Its looseness over time is a major benefit. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the purpose and design of a straight tip (ST) connector in fiber-optic cables? A. It is a bayonet-style mechanism designed by AT&T that is commonly used with single-mode fiber. B. It is mainly used for LAN connectivity on MMF. C. It was designed by Cisco for use with multimode fiber. D. Its looseness over time is a major benefit. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It is a bayonet-style mechanism designed by AT&T that is commonly used with single-mode fiber. Explanation: The straight tip (ST) connector was designed by AT&T for fiber-optic cables. This popular connector is commonly used with single-mode fiber, and it operates similarly to a BNC connector. ItвЂ™s a bayonet-style mechanism that is twisted and locked into position, ensuring that it doesnвЂ™t come loose over time. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B: ST connectors are used for WAN connectivity, not LAN. C: ST connectors were designed by AT&T, not Cisco. D: The feature of ST connectors is that they do not come loose over time as they have a positive locking mechanism. Reference: Page Number 127 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What feature of the Standard Connector (SC) allows the transmit and receive cables to be swapped? A. Its square shape B. Its plastic clip C. Its floating ferrule D. Its push-on/pull-off mating mechanism "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What feature of the Standard Connector (SC) allows the transmit and receive cables to be swapped? A. Its square shape B. Its plastic clip C. Its floating ferrule D. Its push-on/pull-off mating mechanism <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Its plastic clip Explanation: The plastic clip that comes with the SC connector holds the transmit and receive cables secure and allows them to be disassembled and swapped. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The square shape, or вЂ™Square CharlieвЂ™ as it is referred to by installers, is a distinguishing characteristic of the SC connector but has no bearing on its functionality to swap cables. C. The floating ferrule is a component that contains the fiber-optic cable, but it doesnвЂ™t allow for the swapping of transmit and receive cables itself. D. While the push-on/pull-off mating mechanism describes how the connector is inserted or removed, it does not specifically allow for the swapping of transmit and receive cables. Reference: Page Number 127 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary difference between APC and UPC finishes on SC connectors? A. APC cable ends are blue, while UPC cable ends are green B. UPC cable ends have a polished dome to focus light into the core, while APC cable ends have an 8-degree angle C. UPC cable ends are polished in a dome shape, while APC cable ends are polished flat D. APC and UPC both combat reflection loss, but use different methods "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary difference between APC and UPC finishes on SC connectors? A. APC cable ends are blue, while UPC cable ends are green B. UPC cable ends have a polished dome to focus light into the core, while APC cable ends have an 8-degree angle C. UPC cable ends are polished in a dome shape, while APC cable ends are polished flat D. APC and UPC both combat reflection loss, but use different methods <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. UPC cable ends have a polished dome to focus light into the core, while APC cable ends have an 8-degree angle Explanation: UPC and APC finishes are designed to minimize insertion loss in fiber-optic cables. UPC cable ends are polished in a domed shape to focus light directly into the center of the fiber core. On the other hand, APC connectors have an 8-degree angled polish which prevents light that reflects from the far end face from traveling back up the fiber. This results in lower back reflection (or return loss) which is important in applications where multiple signals are combined. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The color of the cable ends doesnвЂ™t represent the functional difference between UPC and APC. UPC is usually blue and APC is green, but the colors are only identifiers and do not specify their operation mode. C. APC cable ends are not polished flat. They have an 8-degree angled finish, unlike the dome-shaped polish on the UPC. D. Although both APC and UPC combat reflection loss, their primary operational differences are not the safeguards against loss. Rather, they differ in the manner of their finishes on SC connectors; UPC with a polished dome and APC with an 8-degree angle. Reference: Page Number 128 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What features make the Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MTRJ) connector increasingly popular? A. It can be disassembled to swap the transmit-and-receive pairs B. It resembles an RJ-45 connector and allows greater port density C. It does not have a locking mechanism D. It is only compatible with multimode fiber optic cables "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What features make the Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MTRJ) connector increasingly popular? A. It can be disassembled to swap the transmit-and-receive pairs B. It resembles an RJ-45 connector and allows greater port density C. It does not have a locking mechanism D. It is only compatible with multimode fiber optic cables <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It resembles an RJ-45 connector and allows greater port density Explanation: The MTRJ connector is gaining popularity because it resembles the RJ-45 connector, has a locking mechanism similar to an Ethernet connector and its smaller size allows for greater density of ports on a switch. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The MTRJ connector cannot be disassembled to swap the transmit-and-receive pairs. C. The MTRJ connector has a locking mechanism similar to an Ethernet connector. D. The MTRJ connector is compatible with both multimode and single-mode fiber-optic cables, not just multimode. Reference: Page Number 129 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a fiber-optic transceiver in the network equipment? A. It converts between the Ethernet and the internal electrical signaling. B. It converts between the internal electrical signaling and light. C. It regulates the speed of the Ethernet connection. D. It ensures compatibility of the media type with the distance. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a fiber-optic transceiver in the network equipment? A. It converts between the Ethernet and the internal electrical signaling. B. It converts between the internal electrical signaling and light. C. It regulates the speed of the Ethernet connection. D. It ensures compatibility of the media type with the distance. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It converts between the internal electrical signaling and light. Explanation: The fiber-optic transceiverвЂ™s main job is to convert the internal electrical signaling of the networking equipment into light, enabling the transmission of data over fiber-optic cables. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is the function of a copper transceiver, not a fiber-optic transceiver. C. While the performance of a transceiver can influence the speed of a connection, it does not directly regulate it. D. While transceivers do require a specific media type for a specific distance, this is not their primary function. Reference: Page Number 130 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum network connectivity that SFPs can support? A. 100 Mbps B. 500 Mbps C. 1 Gbps D. 10 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum network connectivity that SFPs can support? A. 100 Mbps B. 500 Mbps C. 1 Gbps D. 10 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 1 Gbps Explanation: According to the description provided, Small Form-Factor Pluggable transceivers (SFPs) can support up to 1 Gbps of network connectivity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Answer A (100 Mbps), B (500 Mbps), and D (10 Gbps) are incorrect. The text clearly states that SFPs can support up to 1 Gbps of network connectivity, not 100, 500, or 10 Gbps. Reference: Page Number 130 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main differentiator between the SFP and SFP+ transceivers? A. SFP+ has a visually different form factor B. SFP+ can support speeds up to 400 Gbps C. SFP+ cannot be hot-swappable D. SFP+ does not support copper media "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main differentiator between the SFP and SFP+ transceivers? A. SFP+ has a visually different form factor B. SFP+ can support speeds up to 400 Gbps C. SFP+ cannot be hot-swappable D. SFP+ does not support copper media <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. SFP+ can support speeds up to 400 Gbps Explanation: SFP+ transceivers are similar to SFP transceivers, but they can support speeds of 10 Gbps or higher, up to 400 Gbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Both SFP and SFP+ transceivers have similar form factors and are differentiated only by their part numbers. C. SFP+ transceivers are hot-swappable as are SFP transceivers. D. SFP+ transceivers do support copper media as well as fiber-optic media. Reference: Page Number 131 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the overall data transfer capacity per operation of a quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP)? A. 1 Gbps B. 2 Gbps C. 3 Gbps D. 4 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the overall data transfer capacity per operation of a quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP)? A. 1 Gbps B. 2 Gbps C. 3 Gbps D. 4 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. 4 Gbps Explanation: The quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP) transceiver allows for 4x1 Gbps (4 Gbps) operation. This means that it can transmit data at a rate of 4 gigabits per second in one operation. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A, B, and C are incorrect because the QSFP transceiver can transmit data at a rate of 4 gigabits per second, not 1, 2 or 3 gigabits per second. Reference: Page Number 131 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the data transfer speed of a single QSFP+ transceiver? A. 10 Gbps B. 25 Gbps C. 40 Gbps D. 100 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the data transfer speed of a single QSFP+ transceiver? A. 10 Gbps B. 25 Gbps C. 40 Gbps D. 100 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. 100 Gbps Explanation: The quad small form-factor pluggable+ (QSFP+) transceiver allows for 4Г—10 Gbps and 4Г—25 Gbps operation. To fully utilize its quad transceiver, the operation rate would be 40 Gbps and 100 Gbps respectively. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A 10 Gbps and B 25 Gbps are each rate of a single channel in the QSFP+ transceiver, not the total transfer speed. C 40 Gbps is only possible when 4 channels of 10 Gbps are in operation, which does not fully utilize the capabilities of QSFP+. Reference: Page Number 132 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of Media Converters in a network? A. They boost the signal strength of a fibre optic cable B. They convert copper Ethernet to fibre-optic cable and vice versa C. They convert multimode fibre to single-mode fibre and vice versa D. They are used to prevent fibre optic cables from breaking "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of Media Converters in a network? A. They boost the signal strength of a fibre optic cable B. They convert copper Ethernet to fibre-optic cable and vice versa C. They convert multimode fibre to single-mode fibre and vice versa D. They are used to prevent fibre optic cables from breaking <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. They convert copper Ethernet to fibre-optic cable and vice versa Explanation: Media converters primarily help in converting from copper Ethernet to fibre-optic cable and vice versa. This is particularly beneficial for remote locations where Ethernet connectivity is needed but the distance exceeds the 100 meter limit of copper Ethernet. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Boosting the signal strength is not the primary function of media converters, this role is actually fulfilled by repeaters or signal amplifiers. C. While some media converters do convert multimode fibre to single-mode fibre and vice versa, itвЂ™s not their primary function or the most common use. D. Media converters do not prevent fibre optic cables from breaking, they are used to convert signals from one cable type to another. Reference: Page Number 132 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What aspects should be considered when choosing a fiber transceiver? A. Compatibility matrix and application B. Price and manufacturer C. Cable color and packaging D. Model number only "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What aspects should be considered when choosing a fiber transceiver? A. Compatibility matrix and application B. Price and manufacturer C. Cable color and packaging D. Model number only <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Compatibility matrix and application Explanation: The compatibility matrix provides specifics related to speeds, distances supported, cabling to be used and the model number of the transceiver. The application of the transceiver matters whether it needs to be bidirectional or duplex. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Price and manufacturer: While these may be considerations, the compatibility matrix and application are directly related to the functionality of the transceiver. C. Cable color and packaging: These are unrelated aspects. D. Model number only: The model number alone does not provide sufficient information about the full functioning of the transceiver. Reference: Page Number 133 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does it mean when a transceiver is unidirectional? A. It can transmit data but cannot receive it B. It transmits and receives data on a single wavelength C. It transmits data in both directions simultaneously D. It only transmits data in one direction on its side of the connection "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does it mean when a transceiver is unidirectional? A. It can transmit data but cannot receive it B. It transmits and receives data on a single wavelength C. It transmits data in both directions simultaneously D. It only transmits data in one direction on its side of the connection <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It only transmits data in one direction on its side of the connection Explanation: Unidirectional transceiver refers to each side of the connection transmitting data only in one direction. One fiber-optic strand is reserved for transmission and the other for receiving. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It can transmit data but cannot receive it: This is incorrect because each strand in a duplex fiber-optic transceiver is dedicated to either transmitting or receiving, not both or just one. B. It transmits and receives data on a single wavelength: This is incorrect because unidirectional does not refer to the wavelength on which data is transmitted. C. It transmits data in both directions simultaneously: This is incorrect because unidirectional means transmitting data in one direction, not both. Reference: Page Number 134 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum number of separate channels that can be multiplexed together using Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM)? A. 8 channels B. 18 channels C. 28 channels D. 80 channels "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum number of separate channels that can be multiplexed together using Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM)? A. 8 channels B. 18 channels C. 28 channels D. 80 channels <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 18 channels Explanation: Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) allows for up to 18 separate channels to be multiplexed together, using large chunks of light wave space to achieve a nominal 10 Gbps per channel for Ethernet and 16 Gbps per channel for Fibre Channel. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 8 channels and C. 28 channels are incorrect as CWDM only allows up to 18 separate channels to be multiplexed together. D. 80 channels is incorrect as that is the number of channels that Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) allows for, not CWDM. Reference: Page Number 134 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which system uses narrower chunks of light wave space to pack as much data into the bandwidth of the glass? A. Duplex fiber-optic transceiver B. Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) C. Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) D. Dark fiber methods "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which system uses narrower chunks of light wave space to pack as much data into the bandwidth of the glass? A. Duplex fiber-optic transceiver B. Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) C. Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) D. Dark fiber methods <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) Explanation: Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) uses narrower chunks of light wave space to pack as much data into the bandwidth of the glass, allowing up to 80 separate channels to be multiplexed together and closely packed, leading to higher capacity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Duplex fiber-optic transceiver is a device that is allocated for transmit and receive but does not use light wave space to pack data. B. Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) also multiplexes different wavelengths of light onto the same glass media but it uses larger chunks of light wave space, hence less data gets packed compared to DWDM. D. Dark fiber methods refer to fiber optic cables that are yet to be used, but they do not make use of light wave space to pack data. Reference: Page Number 134 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What enables a single fiber-optic cable to transmit and receive data? A. Bidirectional transceivers B. Duplex transceivers C. Semi-reflective mirror D. Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What enables a single fiber-optic cable to transmit and receive data? A. Bidirectional transceivers B. Duplex transceivers C. Semi-reflective mirror D. Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Bidirectional transceivers Explanation: Bidirectional transceivers are used to transmit and receive data on the same fiber-optic cable, which happens by allowing each transceiver to operate on different light wave frequencies. This process is known as bidirectional wavelength division multiplexing (WDM). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Duplex transceivers canвЂ™t transmit and receive data on the same fiber-optic cable (B). A semi-reflective mirror is part of a bidirectional transceiver, but on its own, itвЂ™s not responsible for the bidirectional data transmission (C). Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) is a method used by bidirectional transceivers to transmit and receive data, but itвЂ™s the transceivers that enable the process (D). Reference: Page Number 134 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of termination points in a networking context? A. They function as local storage for data. B. They act as a diagnostic point or termination of responsibility. C. They boost the signal strength of the provider. D. They restrict access to a certain network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of termination points in a networking context? A. They function as local storage for data. B. They act as a diagnostic point or termination of responsibility. C. They boost the signal strength of the provider. D. They restrict access to a certain network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. They act as a diagnostic point or termination of responsibility. Explanation: Termination points are used as a diagnostic point or to determine the end of the responsibility of a provider. The provider is responsible for a clear signal up to this point. They do not function as local storage, boost the signal strength, or manage network access. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Termination points do not function as local storage for data - they serve as the endpoint for a providerвЂ™s service and as diagnostic points. C. Termination points do not boost the signal strength of the provider - it is up to the provider to ensure a clean, clear signal to the termination point. D. Termination points do not restrict network access - they simply represent where a providerвЂ™s service responsibility ends. Reference: Page Number 135 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use of Punchdown Blocks in networking? A. They are primarily used with Voice over IP (VoIP) systems. B. They are almost always used with analog or digital time division multiplexing (TDM) phone installations. C. They are most commonly used with Power over Ethernet (PoE) systems. D. They are used to connect to the networkвЂ™s firewall. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use of Punchdown Blocks in networking? A. They are primarily used with Voice over IP (VoIP) systems. B. They are almost always used with analog or digital time division multiplexing (TDM) phone installations. C. They are most commonly used with Power over Ethernet (PoE) systems. D. They are used to connect to the networkвЂ™s firewall. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. They are almost always used with analog or digital time division multiplexing (TDM) phone installations. Explanation: Punchdown Blocks are usually used in analog or digital TDM phone installations, as they facilitate in connecting and managing the telephony hardware for these systems. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. VoIP systems use Power over Ethernet (PoE) network connections not Punchdown Blocks. C. While PoE is mentioned in the context, it is in relation to VoIP systems, not Punchdown Blocks. D. Punchdown Blocks are more related to dealing with the phone installations and managing hardware, they are not connected to networkвЂ™s firewall directly. Reference: Page Number 135 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of a 66 block in a telephone system? A. To supply power to the telephone system B. To isolate the dial-tone source from the telephone equipment C. To supply a plain old telephone service (POTS) line access to a business or apartment building D. To improve the sound quality of the telephone call "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of a 66 block in a telephone system? A. To supply power to the telephone system B. To isolate the dial-tone source from the telephone equipment C. To supply a plain old telephone service (POTS) line access to a business or apartment building D. To improve the sound quality of the telephone call <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To supply a plain old telephone service (POTS) line access to a business or apartment building Explanation: The primary function of a 66 block is to supply a plain old telephone service (POTS) line access to a business or apartment building. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 66 block does not supply power to the telephone system, it only provides a connection point for telephone lines. B. While the 66 block can be used to isolate the dial-tone source from the telephone equipment for diagnostic purposes, this is not its primary function. It primarily serves as a point of connection for a plain old telephone service (POTS) line to a building. D. The 66 block does not have any effect on the sound quality of a telephone call. Reference: Page Number 136 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a 110 block in the context of analog wiring of telephone equipment? A. It connects directly to the internet service provider. B. It enables wireless communication between devices. C. It facilitates cross-connect between the PBX and the phone equipment. D. It monitors and controls the power supply to the phone equipment. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a 110 block in the context of analog wiring of telephone equipment? A. It connects directly to the internet service provider. B. It enables wireless communication between devices. C. It facilitates cross-connect between the PBX and the phone equipment. D. It monitors and controls the power supply to the phone equipment. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It facilitates cross-connect between the PBX and the phone equipment. Explanation: The 110 block is used in analog wiring of telephone equipment where it facilitates a cross-connect, leading the connection from one side back to the private branch exchange (PBX) and from the other side to the phone equipment. This is a common setup in on-premises or in-house wiring. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The function of the 110 block in this context is not to directly connect to an Internet Service Provider, but to facilitate a cross-connect between the PBX and the phone equipment. B. It does not enable wireless communication between devices; it is used for wired connections in analog telephone equipment. D. The 110 block doesnвЂ™t monitor or control power supply to the phone equipment; it is used for punching down wire pairs in telephone equipment setups. Reference: Page Number 136 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What distinguishes a Krone block panel from a 110 block panel? A. Krone block panel is predominantly used in the United States while 110 block panel is used in the United Kingdom B. Krone block panel has smaller punchdown spades C. The punchdown spades on Krone block are larger and require a specific Krone punchdown tool D. A 110 block punchdown tool can be used on a Krone block panel "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What distinguishes a Krone block panel from a 110 block panel? A. Krone block panel is predominantly used in the United States while 110 block panel is used in the United Kingdom B. Krone block panel has smaller punchdown spades C. The punchdown spades on Krone block are larger and require a specific Krone punchdown tool D. A 110 block punchdown tool can be used on a Krone block panel <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The punchdown spades on Krone block are larger and require a specific Krone punchdown tool Explanation: The Krone block panel distinctively has larger punchdown spades compared to a 110 block panel and specifically requires a Krone punchdown tool. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Incorrect. Krone block panel is used mainly in the United Kingdom and parts of the United States. B: Incorrect, Krone block panel has larger, not smaller, punchdown spades. D: Incorrect. ItвЂ™s specifically mentioned that a 110 block punchdown tool shouldnвЂ™t be used on a Krone block panel. Reference: Page Number 136 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In what context is the BIX punch block panel predominantly found and used? A. In Cisco router installations B. In VoIP-based communication systems C. In Nortel phone switch installations D. In Wi-Fi access point installations "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In what context is the BIX punch block panel predominantly found and used? A. In Cisco router installations B. In VoIP-based communication systems C. In Nortel phone switch installations D. In Wi-Fi access point installations <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. In Nortel phone switch installations Explanation: The BIX punch block panel is predominantly used in the context of Nortel phone switch installations. The wires from the Nortel switch are punched on the back of the BIX punch block panel, and the front is used for cross-connecting a 110 or 66 block that leads to the phone extension. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. In Cisco router installations, BIX punch block panels are uncommon. Typically, these implementations would use different hardware components - not BIX punch block panels. B. In VoIP-based communication systems, BIX punch block panels are less common since these usually rely on network-based protocols and hardware. D. In Wi-Fi access point installations, BIX punch block panels are typically not used since these rely on wireless communication protocols. Reference: Page Number 140 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Where is the back side of a patch panel typically connected to in a wiring closet? A. Computer terminal RJ-45 jack B. The Internet C. The network router D. The patch cable "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Where is the back side of a patch panel typically connected to in a wiring closet? A. Computer terminal RJ-45 jack B. The Internet C. The network router D. The patch cable <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Computer terminal RJ-45 jack Explanation: The text describes that in a wiring closet, the back side of a patch panel is punched down to the network cabling that is connected to the computer terminal RJ-45 jack. This makes it a diagnostic point for Ethernet network connections. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The Internet: The patch panel is not directly connected to the internet. It connects via other network devices like routers and modems. C. The network router: Although the router is part of the network, the back side of the patch panel gets directly connected to the RJ-45 jack. D. The Patch Cable: The patch panel is not connected to a patch cable on the back side. The patch cables are connected to the front side of the patch panel to link with the network switching equipment. Reference: Page Number 140 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two purposes served by fiber distribution panels in a network? A. Terminating the individual fragile strands and limiting the signal range B. Terminating the individual fragile strands and distributing the individual strands C. Distributing the individual strands and providing signal amplification D. Providing signal amplification and serving as a diagnostic point for troubleshooting "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two purposes served by fiber distribution panels in a network? A. Terminating the individual fragile strands and limiting the signal range B. Terminating the individual fragile strands and distributing the individual strands C. Distributing the individual strands and providing signal amplification D. Providing signal amplification and serving as a diagnostic point for troubleshooting <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Terminating the individual fragile strands and distributing the individual strands Explanation: As highlighted in the text, fiber distribution panels help terminate the individual fragile strands to a common fiber-optic connector and also distribute the individual strands. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Limiting the signal range is not mentioned as a function of fiber distribution panels. C. Providing signal amplification is not one of the functions of fiber distribution panels. D. Serving as a diagnostic point for troubleshooting is a function of fiber distribution panels, but it does not provide signal amplification. Reference: Page Number 140 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the primary purposes of cable management in network installation? A. To impress clients and reduce cost B. To allow for easy changes and remove weight from cable ends C. To prevent theft and organize cables D. To look organized and take the weight off the cable ends "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the primary purposes of cable management in network installation? A. To impress clients and reduce cost B. To allow for easy changes and remove weight from cable ends C. To prevent theft and organize cables D. To look organized and take the weight off the cable ends <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. To look organized and take the weight off the cable ends Explanation: The text states that cable management serves two distinct purposes: it makes everything look organized, and it takes the weight off the cable ends. This protects the networkвЂ™s physical infrastructure, especially when it comes to patch cables that do not have a strength member and can strain under their own weight. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The text does not mention that cable management is used to impress clients or reduce cost. B. While easy changes are a consideration in cable management, it is not its primary purpose. C. The text does not indicate that theft prevention is a purpose of cable management, though organization is. Reference: Page Number 141 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the factors that differences between the various categories of network cabling are based on? A. Number of twists per inch, how the pairs are separated inside the jacket, and the thickness of the conductors B. Color of cabling, conductivity, and the thickness of the wires C. Length of network cable, number of twists per inch, and the type of jacket D. Cable diameter, type of metal used in conductor, and length of cable spool "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the factors that differences between the various categories of network cabling are based on? A. Number of twists per inch, how the pairs are separated inside the jacket, and the thickness of the conductors B. Color of cabling, conductivity, and the thickness of the wires C. Length of network cable, number of twists per inch, and the type of jacket D. Cable diameter, type of metal used in conductor, and length of cable spool <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Number of twists per inch, how the pairs are separated inside the jacket, and the thickness of the conductors Explanation: According to the passage, the various categories of network cabling differ based on three main factors: the number of twists per inch (which reduces crosstalk), how the pairs are separated inside the jacket (which also affects crosstalk), and the thickness of the conductors (which allows for higher frequencies and larger data rates). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice B is incorrect because the color of the cabling does not determine the category of network cable. Choice C is incorrect because while cable length can affect signal quality, it is not a factor in categorizing network cables. Choice D is incorrect because the type of metal used in the conductor and length of cable spool are not mentioned in the passage as factors that determine the category of a network cable. Reference: Page Number 142 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one main reason to avoid using Cat 3 cabling in modern network installations? A. Cat 3 cabling is not voice-grade cable B. Cat 3 cabling is more expensive than Cat 5e cabling C. Cat 3 cabling can only support networks up to 10 Mbps D. Cat 3 cabling requires special connectors that are not commonly available "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one main reason to avoid using Cat 3 cabling in modern network installations? A. Cat 3 cabling is not voice-grade cable B. Cat 3 cabling is more expensive than Cat 5e cabling C. Cat 3 cabling can only support networks up to 10 Mbps D. Cat 3 cabling requires special connectors that are not commonly available <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Cat 3 cabling can only support networks up to 10 Mbps Explanation: Cat 3 cabling can only support networks up to speeds of 10 Mbps. With modern advancements in networks and data rates, installations should use at least Cat 5e cabling or higher to ensure the network is future-proofed and can handle high-speed data transfer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect: Cat 3 is referred to as voice-grade cable, but this isnвЂ™t a reason to avoid using it. B. Incorrect: The price between Cat 3 and Cat 5e cabling is essentially the same. D. Incorrect: Cat 3 cabling uses the common RJ-45 connectors that are readily available, so special connectors are not a reason to avoid its use. Reference: Page Number 143 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the classification of Cat 5 cable in terms of network speeds? A. 1 Gbps B. 10 Mbps C. 100 Mbps D. 10 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the classification of Cat 5 cable in terms of network speeds? A. 1 Gbps B. 10 Mbps C. 100 Mbps D. 10 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 100 Mbps Explanation: According to the provided information, Cat 5 cable is classified as a cabling for 100 Mbps networks. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Cat 5e cable is classified for 1 Gbps networks, not Cat 5. B. Cat 3 cable is classified for 10 Mbps networks, not Cat 5. D. Cat 6 and Cat 6a cables are classified for 10 Gbps networks, not Cat 5. Reference: Page Number 143 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum distance that Category 6 cable can cover for a 1 Gbps network? A. 100 meters B. 55 meters C. 33 meters D. 25 meters "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum distance that Category 6 cable can cover for a 1 Gbps network? A. 100 meters B. 55 meters C. 33 meters D. 25 meters <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 100 meters Explanation: According to the text, Category 6 cable can cover a maximum distance of 100 meters for a 1 Gbps network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. 55 meters and C. 33 meters are the maximum distances for 10 Gbps networks, not 1 Gbps. D. 25 meters is not mentioned in the text as a relevant distance for any network using Cat 6 cables. Reference: Page Number 143 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the distinct advantage of Category 6a cable over Category 6 cable? A. Category 6a cable supports 10 Gbps speeds for up to 100 meters, whereas Category 6 cable supports it only for 33 to 55 meters B. Category 6a cable does not require a plastic separator C. Category 6a cable utilizes standard RJ-45 ends D. Category 6a cable can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the distinct advantage of Category 6a cable over Category 6 cable? A. Category 6a cable supports 10 Gbps speeds for up to 100 meters, whereas Category 6 cable supports it only for 33 to 55 meters B. Category 6a cable does not require a plastic separator C. Category 6a cable utilizes standard RJ-45 ends D. Category 6a cable can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Category 6a cable supports 10 Gbps speeds for up to 100 meters, whereas Category 6 cable supports it only for 33 to 55 meters Explanation: Category 6a cable, similar to Category 6, is used in networks requiring 10 Gbps speeds, but the advantage of Cat 6a over Cat 6 is that Cat 6a can maintain this speed over distance up to 100 meters, whereas Cat 6 can only maintain it for 33 to 55 meters. This makes Cat 6a more suitable for long-distance high-speed network configurations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Both Cat 6 and Cat 6a cables use a plastic separator to keep the four pairs spaced and separated. C. Both Cat 6 and Cat 6a cables often need different RJ-45 ends to accommodate the larger cable diameter. D. Neither Cat 6 or Cat 6a cables are capable of transmitting at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps; that is a feature of Category 8 cable. Reference: Page Number 144 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some characteristics of a Category 7 cable? A. ItвЂ™s recognized as a standard by TIA/EIA B. It allows for 10 Gbps network speeds at distances up to 100 meters C. It requires typical RJ-45 connectors D. It is commonly used for installations due to its affordability "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some characteristics of a Category 7 cable? A. ItвЂ™s recognized as a standard by TIA/EIA B. It allows for 10 Gbps network speeds at distances up to 100 meters C. It requires typical RJ-45 connectors D. It is commonly used for installations due to its affordability <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It allows for 10 Gbps network speeds at distances up to 100 meters Explanation: Category 7 (Cat 7) cable allows for 10 Gbps network speeds at distances up to 100 meters. This information is consistent with the text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Cat 7 is not recognized by TIA/EIA as a defined standard. It is considered an unofficial standard. C. Cat 7 requires GG-45 connectors, which look similar to RJ-45 connectors but are not the same. D. Cat 7 is not commonly used for installations due to its difficulty to work with and high cost. Reference: Page Number 144 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What distinguishes Category 7a cable from Category 7 cable? A. Category 7a uses normal shielded RJ-45 connectors B. Category 7a is tested at a higher frequency of 1000 MHz C. Category 7a is certified for higher speeds than 10 Gbps Ethernet D. Category 7a was ratified by TIA/EIA as a standard "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What distinguishes Category 7a cable from Category 7 cable? A. Category 7a uses normal shielded RJ-45 connectors B. Category 7a is tested at a higher frequency of 1000 MHz C. Category 7a is certified for higher speeds than 10 Gbps Ethernet D. Category 7a was ratified by TIA/EIA as a standard <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Category 7a is tested at a higher frequency of 1000 MHz Explanation: Category 7a cable is essentially identical to Category 7 cable, but it is tested at a higher frequency (1000 MHz). Despite the higher testing frequency, Category 7a isnвЂ™t certified for any higher speeds than 10 Gbps Ethernet. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. All Category 7 cables require GG-45 connectors, which are somewhat different from standard RJ-45 connectors, and the same applies to Category 7a. C. Although Category 7a is tested at a higher frequency than Category 7, it isnвЂ™t certified for any higher speeds than 10 Gbps Ethernet. D. Neither Category 7 nor Category 7a were ratified by TIA/EIA as standards Reference: Page Number 144 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes Cat 8 cabling? A. It is a recognized standard for 10 Gbps networks at a maximum distance of 100 meters. B. It is usually used in client-side networking for its economical installation and extended distances. C. It is an STP cable that can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps and has a maximum distance of 30 meters. D. It is used by many AV vendors to transmit video because of its high frequency and ability to transmit high data rates. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes Cat 8 cabling? A. It is a recognized standard for 10 Gbps networks at a maximum distance of 100 meters. B. It is usually used in client-side networking for its economical installation and extended distances. C. It is an STP cable that can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps and has a maximum distance of 30 meters. D. It is used by many AV vendors to transmit video because of its high frequency and ability to transmit high data rates. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is an STP cable that can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps and has a maximum distance of 30 meters. Explanation: Category 8, or Cat 8, is the next generation of cable specification ratified by TIA/EIA as a standard. It is an STP cable type that can transmit at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps, but it has a maximum distance of 30 meters. It can also operate at 10 Gbps and 1 Gbps for backward compatibility. ItвЂ™s often found inside data centers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Cat 8 is capable of transmitting at 25 Gbps or 40 Gbps, not just 10 Gbps. Its maximum distance is 30 meters, not 100 meters. B. Cat 8 is not usually used in client-side networking because of its high installation cost and short operational distance. D. It is Cat 7a, not Cat 8, that is used by many AV vendors for its high transmission frequency and data rates. Reference: Page Number 144 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is RG-6 preferred over RG-59 for new coaxial cable installations? A. RG-6 is cheaper than RG-59 B. RG-6 is thinner than RG-59 C. RG-6 has a larger inner core, insulator, and better shielding than RG-59 D. RG-59 is not readily available in the market "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is RG-6 preferred over RG-59 for new coaxial cable installations? A. RG-6 is cheaper than RG-59 B. RG-6 is thinner than RG-59 C. RG-6 has a larger inner core, insulator, and better shielding than RG-59 D. RG-59 is not readily available in the market <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. RG-6 has a larger inner core, insulator, and better shielding than RG-59 Explanation: RG-6 is preferred over RG-59 because it has a larger inner core, larger insulator and better shielding. This makes it better for infrastructure wiring and the preferred choice for new installations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The text mentions the price difference is nominal, implying RG-6 is not significantly cheaper than RG-59. B: Contrary to this choice, the text clearly states that RG-59 is actually thinner than RG-6. D: While itвЂ™s true that many suppliers have stopped selling or have limited supplies of RG-59, itвЂ™s not the primary reason why RG-6 is preferred. Reference: Page Number 145 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the disadvantages of Twinax cabling as mentioned in the text? A. It has lower speeds compared to fiber-optic cabling B. The transceivers are not part of the cable C. The cable is more fragile than fiber-optic cabling D. The cable comes in a fixed length so it canвЂ™t be cut to fit "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the disadvantages of Twinax cabling as mentioned in the text? A. It has lower speeds compared to fiber-optic cabling B. The transceivers are not part of the cable C. The cable is more fragile than fiber-optic cabling D. The cable comes in a fixed length so it canвЂ™t be cut to fit <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. The cable comes in a fixed length so it canвЂ™t be cut to fit Explanation: The text mentions that one of the disadvantages of Twinax cabling is that it comes in a fixed length, which means that users canвЂ™t cut it down to fit a particular installation. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect as the text mentions that Twinax can achieve speeds of up to 100 Gbps. Choice B is incorrect because the text specifically mentions that the transceivers are part of the Twinax cable. Choice C is incorrect as it is mentioned in the text that Twinax cable is tougher than the glass of fiber-optic cabling. Reference: Page Number 145 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why should the TIA/EIA 568 wiring standards be followed when terminating the RJ-45 connectors on the ends of a patch cable? A. To ensure compatibility with wireless standards B. To follow manufacturer requirements C. To ensure network cabling doesnвЂ™t fail certification and works at the expected speeds D. To standardize the coloring used in the wiring "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why should the TIA/EIA 568 wiring standards be followed when terminating the RJ-45 connectors on the ends of a patch cable? A. To ensure compatibility with wireless standards B. To follow manufacturer requirements C. To ensure network cabling doesnвЂ™t fail certification and works at the expected speeds D. To standardize the coloring used in the wiring <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To ensure network cabling doesnвЂ™t fail certification and works at the expected speeds Explanation: Adhering to the TIA/EIA 568 wiring standards helps avoid failure during network cabling certification and also ensures that the network works at the expected speeds. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because the TIA/EIA 568 wiring standards are related to physical connectivity and have no direct impact on wireless standards. Option B is incorrect because while manufacturers might have their own color coding, the TIA/EIA 568 standards are more universally recognized and important for certification. Option D is wrong because the purpose of these standards is not mainly for color standardization, but for achieving expected performance and ensuring certification pass. Reference: Page Number 146 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which specification is used on one end when creating a crossover cable? A. TIA/EIA 670A B. TIA/EIA 568A C. TIA/EIA 568B D. TIA/EIA 674B "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which specification is used on one end when creating a crossover cable? A. TIA/EIA 670A B. TIA/EIA 568A C. TIA/EIA 568B D. TIA/EIA 674B <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. TIA/EIA 568A Explanation: According to the given text, TIA/EIA 568A specification is not obsolete and is used on one end when creating a crossover cable. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. TIA/EIA 670A and D. TIA/EIA 674B are incorrect as they are not mentioned in the given text. C. TIA/EIA 568B is also wrong because, according to the given text, all patch cables use TIA/EIA 568B specification on both ends and it is not the one used when creating a crossover cable. Reference: Page Number 146 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT a scenario where straight-through cables should be used according to the provided CompTIA Network+ study material? A. Connecting computers to switches B. Connecting routers to switches C. Connecting computer to hubs D. Connecting switches to switches "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT a scenario where straight-through cables should be used according to the provided CompTIA Network+ study material? A. Connecting computers to switches B. Connecting routers to switches C. Connecting computer to hubs D. Connecting switches to switches <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Connecting switches to switches Explanation: According to the provided CompTIA Network+ study material, straight-through cables should be used for connecting computers to switches, routers to switches, or computers to hubs. Connecting switches to switches is not a recommended use for straight-through cables. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This is incorrect because the study material does state that straight-through cables can be used to connect computers to switches. B: This is incorrect because the study material does say that straight-through cables can be used to connect routers to switches. C: This is incorrect because the study material specifies that straight-through cables can be used to connect computers to hubs. Reference: Page Number 147 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Where should crossover cables be used? A. Connecting switches to routers B. Connecting switches to switches C. Connecting computers to modems D. Connecting routers to modems "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Where should crossover cables be used? A. Connecting switches to routers B. Connecting switches to switches C. Connecting computers to modems D. Connecting routers to modems <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Connecting switches to switches Explanation: A crossover cable is used to connect similar type of network devices. Therefore, it should be used for connecting switches to switches, routers to routers, computers to computers and hubs to hubs. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Connecting switches to routers - Incorrect because a straight-through cable is used for connecting devices of different types. C. Connecting computers to modems - Incorrect because a straight-through cable is used in this scenario. D. Connecting routers to modems - Incorrect because a straight-through cable is normally used for this. Reference: Page Number 148 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following 802.3 standards uses all four pairs of a TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling and has a maximum distance limitation of 100 meters? A. 10BaseT B. 100BaseTX C. 1000BaseT D. 10GBaseT "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following 802.3 standards uses all four pairs of a TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling and has a maximum distance limitation of 100 meters? A. 10BaseT B. 100BaseTX C. 1000BaseT D. 10GBaseT <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 1000BaseT Explanation: 1000BaseT, also known as Gigabit Ethernet, uses all four pairs of a TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling and has a maximum distance limitation of 100 meters. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): 10BaseT uses only two pairs of a TIA/EIA Category 3 or higher cabling. 100BaseTX, also known as Fast Ethernet, uses only two of the four pairs of a TIA/EIA Category 5 or higher cabling. 10GBaseT, also called 10 Gigabit Ethernet, uses TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cabling, not Category 5e. Reference: Page Number 149 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the Ethernet speed and maximum distance limitation of the 10GBaseT standard? A. 10 Mbps and 100 meters B. 1 Gbps and 55 meters C. 10 Gbps and 100 meters D. 40 Gbps and 30 meters "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the Ethernet speed and maximum distance limitation of the 10GBaseT standard? A. 10 Mbps and 100 meters B. 1 Gbps and 55 meters C. 10 Gbps and 100 meters D. 40 Gbps and 30 meters <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 10 Gbps and 100 meters Explanation: The 10GBaseT standard, defined by the IEEE as 802.3an, is capable of an Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps (10 Gigabit Ethernet). This standard uses TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cabling. The maximum distance for Category 6 cable is 55 meters, however with Category 6a cable, this distance extends to 100 meters. Hence, the Ethernet speed is 10 Gbps and the maximum distance limitation is 100 meters (with Category 6a cable). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 10 Mbps and 100 meters refers to the 10BaseT standard. B. There is no standard with an Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps and a maximum distance limitation of 55 meters. D. 40 Gbps and 30 meters refers to the 40GBaseT standard. Reference: Page Number 149 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3i? A. 1000BaseT B. 10BaseT C. 100BaseTX D. 10GBaseT "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3i? A. 1000BaseT B. 10BaseT C. 100BaseTX D. 10GBaseT <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 10BaseT Explanation: The text states that the 10BaseT standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3i. This standard is capable of an Ethernet speed of 10 Mbps and is just referred to as Ethernet. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 1000BaseT is defined by the IEEE as 802.3ab, not 802.3i. C. 100BaseTX is defined by the IEEE as 802.3u, not 802.3i. D. 10GBaseT is defined by the IEEE as 802.3an, not 802.3i. Reference: Page Number 149 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the standard, speed, cabling requirement and distance limitation of 100BaseTX in the IEEE 802.3 specifications? A. IEEE 802.3ab, Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps, TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling, maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet) B. IEEE 802.3u, Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, TIA/EIA Category 5 or higher cabling, maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet) C. IEEE 802.3i, Ethernet speed of 10 Mbps, TIA/EIA Category 3 or higher cabling, maximum distance of 100 meters (330 feet) D. IEEE 802.3an, Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cabling, maximum distance of 55 meters or 100 meters with Category 6a cable "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the standard, speed, cabling requirement and distance limitation of 100BaseTX in the IEEE 802.3 specifications? A. IEEE 802.3ab, Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps, TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling, maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet) B. IEEE 802.3u, Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, TIA/EIA Category 5 or higher cabling, maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet) C. IEEE 802.3i, Ethernet speed of 10 Mbps, TIA/EIA Category 3 or higher cabling, maximum distance of 100 meters (330 feet) D. IEEE 802.3an, Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cabling, maximum distance of 55 meters or 100 meters with Category 6a cable <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. IEEE 802.3u, Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, TIA/EIA Category 5 or higher cabling, maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet) Explanation: 100BaseTX is defined by the IEEE as 802.3u and is capable of an Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps. It uses TIA/EIA Category 5 or higher cabling and has a maximum distance limitation of 100 meters. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is the description of 1000BaseT, not 100BaseTX. Option C is the description of 10BaseT, not 100BaseTX. Option D is the description of 10GBaseT, which is capable of an Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, not 100 Mbps. Reference: Page Number 149 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement accurately describes the 1000BaseT standard? A. It is defined by the IEEE as 802.3u B. It uses TIA/EIA Category 3 or higher cabling C. It can achieve an Ethernet speed of 40 Gbps D. It uses all four pairs in the cabling "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement accurately describes the 1000BaseT standard? A. It is defined by the IEEE as 802.3u B. It uses TIA/EIA Category 3 or higher cabling C. It can achieve an Ethernet speed of 40 Gbps D. It uses all four pairs in the cabling <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It uses all four pairs in the cabling Explanation: The 1000BaseT standard, also known as Gigabit Ethernet, uses all four pairs in the cabling. It is defined by the IEEE as 802.3ab and is capable of delivering Ethernet speeds of 1 Gbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 1000BaseT standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3ab, not 802.3u. B. The 1000BaseT standard requires TIA/EIA Category 5e or higher cabling, not Category 3. C. The 1000BaseT standard is capable of delivering Ethernet speeds of 1 Gbps, not 40 Gbps. Reference: Page Number 149 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the standard of Ethernet known as 10GBaseT is defined by and what are its specifications? A. IEEE 802.3bq, Ethernet speed of 40 Gbps, uses Category 8 STP cable B. IEEE 802.3i, Ethernet speed of 10 Mbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 3 cable C. IEEE 802.3an, Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cable D. IEEE 802.3u, Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 5 cable "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the standard of Ethernet known as 10GBaseT is defined by and what are its specifications? A. IEEE 802.3bq, Ethernet speed of 40 Gbps, uses Category 8 STP cable B. IEEE 802.3i, Ethernet speed of 10 Mbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 3 cable C. IEEE 802.3an, Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cable D. IEEE 802.3u, Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 5 cable <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. IEEE 802.3an, Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps, uses TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cable Explanation: 10GBaseT is defined by the IEEE as 802.3an and is capable of an Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps. It uses TIA/EIA Category 6 or higher cabling. Category 6 cable has a maximum distance of 55 meters, and Category 6a cable has a maximum distance limitation of 100 meters (330 feet). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This describes the 40GBaseT standard, not 10GBaseT. B: This describes the 40BaseT standard, not 10GBaseT. D: This describes the 100BaseTX standard, not 10GBaseT. Reference: Page Number 149 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum distance limitation and the Ethernet speed of the 40GBaseT standard? A. Maximum distance of 50 meters and speed of 40 Mbps B. Maximum distance of 30 meters and speed of 40 Gbps C. Maximum distance of 100 meters and speed of 10 Gbps D. Maximum distance of 55 meters and speed of 1 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum distance limitation and the Ethernet speed of the 40GBaseT standard? A. Maximum distance of 50 meters and speed of 40 Mbps B. Maximum distance of 30 meters and speed of 40 Gbps C. Maximum distance of 100 meters and speed of 10 Gbps D. Maximum distance of 55 meters and speed of 1 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Maximum distance of 30 meters and speed of 40 Gbps Explanation: According to the IEEE 802.3bq, the 40GBaseT standard has a maximum distance limitation of 30 meters and is capable of an Ethernet speed of 40 Gbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A suggests the speed in Mbps instead of Gbps and overestimates the maximum distance. Choice C mentions the specifications for a different standard, 10GBaseT. Choice D is also referring to specifications belonging to another standard. Reference: Page Number 149 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following IEEE standards is defined as a вЂ™short haul,вЂ™ providing Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps but with shorter distance coverage using an LED-based source? A. 100BaseFX B. 100BaseSX C. 1000BaseSX D. 10GBaseSR "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following IEEE standards is defined as a вЂ™short haul,вЂ™ providing Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps but with shorter distance coverage using an LED-based source? A. 100BaseFX B. 100BaseSX C. 1000BaseSX D. 10GBaseSR <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 100BaseSX Explanation: The 100BaseSX standard is based on the IEEE 802.3u specification and is often referred to as вЂ™short haul.вЂ™ It provides Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps and uses LED-based source, which makes it cheaper but also means it has a shorter distance coverage compared to some other standards. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 100BaseFX is not considered a вЂ™short haulвЂ™ because it uses a laser-based source and covers a maximum distance of 2 kilometers. C. 1000BaseSX provides Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps over multimode fiber and is also referred to as вЂ™short haul,вЂ™ but this standard does not use an LED-based source. D. 10GBaseSR provides a speed of 10 Gbps, not 100 Mbps. Also, itвЂ™s considered вЂ™short range,вЂ™ but uses a laser, not an LED source. Reference: Page Number 151 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is true about the 100BaseFX standard according to the IEEE 802.3u specification? A. The maximum distance capability is 550 meters. B. It uses an LED-based source. C. It delivers Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps. D. It is capable of Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps over a 1300 nm laser with a 50-micron fiber-optic cable. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is true about the 100BaseFX standard according to the IEEE 802.3u specification? A. The maximum distance capability is 550 meters. B. It uses an LED-based source. C. It delivers Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps. D. It is capable of Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps over a 1300 nm laser with a 50-micron fiber-optic cable. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It is capable of Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps over a 1300 nm laser with a 50-micron fiber-optic cable. Explanation: The 100BaseFX standard according to the IEEE 802.3u is capable of delivering a Fast Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps over a 1300 nm laser with a 50-micron fiber optic cable. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The maximum distance it can cover is 2 kilometers, not 550 meters. B. 100BaseFX uses a laser-based source, not an LED-based source. C. 100BaseFX delivers Ethernet speed of 100 Mbps, not 1 Gbps. Reference: Page Number 151 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one key use for the 100BaseSX standard (IEEE 802.3u) in fiber-optic networks? A. It provides faster speeds than 1000Base and 10GBase standards B. It uses laser-based source to ensure longer distance communication C. It is a cheaper alternative to 100BaseFX as it uses an LED-based source D. It has maximum distance of 2 kilometers using multimode fiber "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one key use for the 100BaseSX standard (IEEE 802.3u) in fiber-optic networks? A. It provides faster speeds than 1000Base and 10GBase standards B. It uses laser-based source to ensure longer distance communication C. It is a cheaper alternative to 100BaseFX as it uses an LED-based source D. It has maximum distance of 2 kilometers using multimode fiber <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a cheaper alternative to 100BaseFX as it uses an LED-based source Explanation: The 100BaseSX is a cheaper alternative to the 100BaseFX standard because it uses an LED-based source instead of a laser-based source. As a result, it is often referred to as вЂ™short haulвЂ™ due to its shorter maximum distance compared to other standards. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Incorrect, the 100BaseSX standard is capable of Fast Ethernet speeds of 100 Mbps, and itвЂ™s being replaced by 1000Base and 10GBase standards. B: Incorrect, the 100BaseSX uses an LED-based source, not laser-based. D: Incorrect, the 100BaseSX has a maximum distance of 550 meters (1804 feet), not 2 kilometers. Reference: Page Number 151 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum distance that 1000BaseSX can achieve over 50-micron fiber-optic cabling? A. 500 meters B. 550 meters C. 600 meters D. 450 meters "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum distance that 1000BaseSX can achieve over 50-micron fiber-optic cabling? A. 500 meters B. 550 meters C. 600 meters D. 450 meters <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 550 meters Explanation: 1000BaseSX uses an 850 nm signal over 50-micron fiber-optic cabling to achieve a maximum distance of 550 meters. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): 500 meters, 600 meters, and 450 meters are incorrect as the text specifies a maximum distance of 550 meters when 1000BaseSX uses a 50-micron fiber-optic cable. Reference: Page Number 151 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following facts align with the definition of 1000BaseLX standard? A. It is capable of an Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps over 9-micron single-mode fiber. B. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae. C. It utilizes a 1300 nm laser over 9-micron single-mode fiber and can reach distances up to 10 kilometers. D. It is known as вЂ™short rangeвЂ™ because it has a maximum distance of 550 meters. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following facts align with the definition of 1000BaseLX standard? A. It is capable of an Ethernet speed of 10 Gbps over 9-micron single-mode fiber. B. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae. C. It utilizes a 1300 nm laser over 9-micron single-mode fiber and can reach distances up to 10 kilometers. D. It is known as вЂ™short rangeвЂ™ because it has a maximum distance of 550 meters. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It utilizes a 1300 nm laser over 9-micron single-mode fiber and can reach distances up to 10 kilometers. Explanation: The 1000BaseLX standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3z and is capable of delivering an Ethernet speed of 1 Gbps on 9-micron single-mode fiber with a 1300 nm laser. Moreover, it is known as вЂ™long haulвЂ™ due to its ability to cover distances up to 10 kilometers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 1000BaseLX standard is capable of delivering Ethernet speeds of 1 Gbps, not 10 Gbps. B. The 1000BaseLX standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3z, not 802.3ae. D. The maximum distance of the 1000BaseLX standard is up to 10 kilometers not 550 meters, and it is commonly referred to as вЂ™long haulвЂ™ rather than вЂ™short rangeвЂ™. Reference: Page Number 151 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the capability and purpose of the 10GBaseSR standard? A. It provides 100 Mbps speed over multimode fiber B. It provides 1 Gbps speed over single-mode fiber C. It provides 10 Gbps speed over single-mode fiber and used when the distance is long D. It provides 10 Gbps speed over multimode fiber and is typically used for budget-conscious installs over short distances "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the capability and purpose of the 10GBaseSR standard? A. It provides 100 Mbps speed over multimode fiber B. It provides 1 Gbps speed over single-mode fiber C. It provides 10 Gbps speed over single-mode fiber and used when the distance is long D. It provides 10 Gbps speed over multimode fiber and is typically used for budget-conscious installs over short distances <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It provides 10 Gbps speed over multimode fiber and is typically used for budget-conscious installs over short distances Explanation: The 10GBaseSR standard facilitates the transmission of data at speeds of up to 10 Gbps over multimode fiber-optic cables. Because it functions over short distances of up to 400 meters, it is commonly referred to as вЂ™short rangeвЂ™. It is a cost-effective solution for installations where high-speed connectivity is required in a building. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It is incorrect because the 10GBaseSR does offer speeds of 10 Gbps over multimode fiber, not 100 Mbps. B. This statement is incorrect because 10GBaseSR is not designed for single-mode fiber and its speed is 10 Gbps, not 1 Gbps. C. Incorrect as the 10GBaseSR operates over multimode fiber, not single-mode fiber, and it is optimized for short ranges rather than long distances. Reference: Page Number 151 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What can you say about 10GBaseLR based on its IEEE definition? A. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3u and uses multimode fiber B. It delivers speed of 1 Gbps over single-mode fiber C. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae and uses single-mode fiber with a maximum distance of 10 kilometers D. It uses an 850 nm laser and has a maximum distance of 400 meters "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What can you say about 10GBaseLR based on its IEEE definition? A. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3u and uses multimode fiber B. It delivers speed of 1 Gbps over single-mode fiber C. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae and uses single-mode fiber with a maximum distance of 10 kilometers D. It uses an 850 nm laser and has a maximum distance of 400 meters <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae and uses single-mode fiber with a maximum distance of 10 kilometers Explanation: The 10GBaseLR standard is defined by the IEEE as 802.3ae. It uses a single-mode fiber with a 1310 nm laser. It is designed for вЂ™long rangeвЂ™ with a maximum distance of 10 kilometers, thus delivering a speed of 10 Gbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 10GBaseLR is defined by IEEE as 802.3ae, not 802.3u, and uses single-mode, not multimode fiber. B. The 10GBaseLR delivers a speed of 10 Gbps, not 1 Gbps. D. The laser used by 10GBaseLR is of 1310 nm, not 850 nm, and the maximum distance is 10 kilometers (6.2 miles), not 400 meters. Reference: Page Number 151 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) as referenced in RFC 1918? A. It assigns public IP addresses to private companies, government entities, and RIRs. B. It assigns private IP addresses to ISPs. C. It distributes the remaining IPv4 addresses to the general public. D. It coordinates IPv6 address space. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) as referenced in RFC 1918? A. It assigns public IP addresses to private companies, government entities, and RIRs. B. It assigns private IP addresses to ISPs. C. It distributes the remaining IPv4 addresses to the general public. D. It coordinates IPv6 address space. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It assigns public IP addresses to private companies, government entities, and RIRs. Explanation: IANA used to assign public IP addresses to private companies and governmental entities, and it coordinates the assignment of public IP addresses to Regional Internet Registries (RIRs). The RIRs, in turn, assign smaller blocks of public IPs to ISPs. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. IANA does not directly assign private IP addresses; they are typically managed within individual private networks. C. This is incorrect. IANA does not distribute the remaining IPv4 addresses to the general public, but to RIRs, which then distribute them to ISPs. D. While IANA is involved in the coordination of the IPv6 address space, the text specifically refers to the role of IANA in relation to IPv4 addresses. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> According to RFC 1918, which private IPv4 address space is reserved for large networks? A. 10.0.0.0/8 B. 172.16.0.0/12 C. 192.168.0.0/16 D. 20.0.0.0/8 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> According to RFC 1918, which private IPv4 address space is reserved for large networks? A. 10.0.0.0/8 B. 172.16.0.0/12 C. 192.168.0.0/16 D. 20.0.0.0/8 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 10.0.0.0/8 Explanation: According to RFC 1918, the address space 10.0.0.0/8 within a range of 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 is defined for large internal networks. These are private and non-Internet routable addresses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. 172.16.0.0/12 is designated for medium internal networks according to RFC 1918, not large networks. C. 192.168.0.0/16 is indicated for small internal networks as per RFC 1918, not for large networks. D. 20.0.0.0/8 is not a valid reserved address range as per RFC 1918. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the range of IP addresses that RFC 1918 defines for medium-sized networks? A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 B. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 C. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 D. 154.0.0.0 to 154.255.255.255 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the range of IP addresses that RFC 1918 defines for medium-sized networks? A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 B. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 C. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 D. 154.0.0.0 to 154.255.255.255 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Explanation: According to RFC 1918, the private IPv4 address spaces reserved for medium sized networks are in the range of 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 corresponds to the larger networks, not the medium ones according to RFC 1918. B. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 is designated for small networks. D. 154.0.0.0 to 154.255.255.255 is not a range specified by RFC 1918 for private IPv4 addresses. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the range of private IP addresses for small networks as per RFC 1918? A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 D. 254.254.0.0 to 254.254.255.255 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the range of private IP addresses for small networks as per RFC 1918? A. 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 D. 254.254.0.0 to 254.254.255.255 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 Explanation: RFC 1918 defines private IP address spaces for small networks in the range of 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255 using the /16 (255.255.0.0) mask. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A. and B. represent the ranges for large networks and medium networks respectively as per RFC 1918. Option D. is not a valid IP address range for private networks. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What regional Internet registry (RIR) is responsible for assigning IPv4 address blocks to private companies in Africa? A. ARIN B. AFRINIC C. APNIC D. RIPE NCC "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What regional Internet registry (RIR) is responsible for assigning IPv4 address blocks to private companies in Africa? A. ARIN B. AFRINIC C. APNIC D. RIPE NCC <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. AFRINIC Explanation: AFRINIC is the regional Internet registry for the Africa region and is responsible for assigning IPv4 address blocks to private companies in that area. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): ARIN is responsible for Canada, the United States, and some Caribbean Islands. APNIC is responsible for the Asia/Pacific Region. RIPE NCC is responsible for Europe, the Middle East, and Central Asia. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does APNIC manage in the Asia/Pacific region? A. Private IPv4 addresses B. Public IPv4 addresses C. Both private and public IPv4 addresses D. None of the above "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does APNIC manage in the Asia/Pacific region? A. Private IPv4 addresses B. Public IPv4 addresses C. Both private and public IPv4 addresses D. None of the above <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Public IPv4 addresses Explanation: APNIC, or the Asia Pacific Network Information Centre, is a regional Internet registry that manages the assignment of public IPv4 address blocks to private companies in the Asia/Pacific region. Other types of addresses, such as private IPv4 addresses, are not managed by APNIC. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Incorrect. Private IPv4 addresses are defined by RFC 1918 and are not assigned by APNIC C: Incorrect. While APNIC assigns public IPv4 addresses, private IPv4 addresses are defined by RFC 1918 and are not assigned by regional registries. D: Incorrect. APNIC does play a role in the management of IPv4 addresses, specifically public IPv4 addresses that are assigned to private companies. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the ARIN as related to IP address assignments? A. ARIN assigns private blocks of IP addresses to private companies B. ARIN is responsible for the general management of IP addresses C. ARIN assigns IP address to ISPs in Canada, the United States, and some Caribbean Islands D. ARIN no longer assigns IPv4 addresses due to shortage "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the ARIN as related to IP address assignments? A. ARIN assigns private blocks of IP addresses to private companies B. ARIN is responsible for the general management of IP addresses C. ARIN assigns IP address to ISPs in Canada, the United States, and some Caribbean Islands D. ARIN no longer assigns IPv4 addresses due to shortage <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. ARIN assigns IP address to ISPs in Canada, the United States, and some Caribbean Islands Explanation: ARIN, or the American Registry for Internet Numbers, is the Regional Internet Registry (RIR) for Canada, the United States, and some Caribbean Islands. It is responsible for assigning IP address blocks to private companies in these regions, often assigning them to Internet Service Providers (ISPs) which then manage and assign IP addresses to their customers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: While ARIN does assign IP address blocks, it doesnвЂ™t assign them directly to private companies вЂ“ it assigns them to Internet Service Providers (ISPs). B: ARINвЂ™s role is more specific than just вЂ™general managementвЂ™ of IP addresses. It assigns IP addresses to ISPs. D: The institution that no longer assigns IPv4 addresses due to shortage is the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA), not ARIN. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of LACNIC in the context of IP addresses? A. It assigns private IPv4 addresses to internal networks B. It manages and assigns IP addresses to ISPs in Latin America and some Caribbean Islands C. It is the only body responsible for the assignment of IPv4 addresses in the Latin America Region D. It directly assigns IPv4 addresses to end users "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of LACNIC in the context of IP addresses? A. It assigns private IPv4 addresses to internal networks B. It manages and assigns IP addresses to ISPs in Latin America and some Caribbean Islands C. It is the only body responsible for the assignment of IPv4 addresses in the Latin America Region D. It directly assigns IPv4 addresses to end users <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It manages and assigns IP addresses to ISPs in Latin America and some Caribbean Islands Explanation: LACNIC (Latin America and Caribbean Network Information Centre) is a Regional Internet Registry (RIR) in charge of assigning IPv4 address blocks in Latin America and some Caribbean islands. But it does not assign IP addresses directly to end users or private companies. Instead, it assigns them to Internet Service Providers (ISPs) who then manage and assign those IP addresses to their customers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. RFC 1918, not LACNIC, defines the private IPv4 addresses for internal networks. C. LACNIC is not the only body responsible for assigning IPv4 addresses in Latin America, ISPs in the region are also involved in the process. D. LACNIC does not directly assign IPv4 addresses to end users, they assign these to ISPs. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements accurately describe RIPE NCC? A. It is the regional Internet registry for Africa. B. It is responsible for assigning IP address blocks to private companies in Europe, the Middle East, and Central Asia. C. It is the Internet Service Provider responsible for the management and assignment of IP addresses to its customers. D. It is the organization that reserves private IPv4 address spaces for internal networks. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements accurately describe RIPE NCC? A. It is the regional Internet registry for Africa. B. It is responsible for assigning IP address blocks to private companies in Europe, the Middle East, and Central Asia. C. It is the Internet Service Provider responsible for the management and assignment of IP addresses to its customers. D. It is the organization that reserves private IPv4 address spaces for internal networks. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is responsible for assigning IP address blocks to private companies in Europe, the Middle East, and Central Asia. Explanation: RIPE NCC is the Regional Internet Registry for Europe, the Middle East, and Central Asia. It is responsible for assigning smaller blocks of IPv4 addresses to private companies in these regions, which are often then assigned to Internet service providers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. AFRINIC is the regional Internet registry for Africa, not RIPE NCC. C. ISPs, not RIPE NCC, are responsible for the management and assignment of IP addresses to their customers. D. It is RFC 1918, not RIPE NCC, that defines the private IPv4 address spaces for internal networks. Reference: Page Number 154 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is network address translation (NAT) primarily used for? A. Translating a network address from English to another language B. Converting an IP address to a physical address C. Translating one network address to another D. Changing a public IP address to a private one internally for routing purposes "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is network address translation (NAT) primarily used for? A. Translating a network address from English to another language B. Converting an IP address to a physical address C. Translating one network address to another D. Changing a public IP address to a private one internally for routing purposes <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Translating one network address to another Explanation: Network address translation (NAT) allows private IP addresses to be converted into public IPs for communication over the internet. It also allows for the conversion of overlapping network addresses for example after company mergers into non overlapping ones. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This isnвЂ™t accurate. NAT doesnвЂ™t involve the conversion of a language. B. This describes another process called ARP (address resolution protocol), not NAT. D. While NAT can convert a public IP address to a private one for internal usage, the primary use is to convert of private IP addresses into public IPs for internet communication, or to handle overlapping network address scenarios. Reference: Page Number 155 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Static Network Address Translation (SNAT)? A. To map one-to-one between local (private or inside) and global (Internet) IP addresses B. To globally route the Internet on your inside network C. To allow all inside local addresses to share a single Global IP D. To encrypt the communication between local and global network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Static Network Address Translation (SNAT)? A. To map one-to-one between local (private or inside) and global (Internet) IP addresses B. To globally route the Internet on your inside network C. To allow all inside local addresses to share a single Global IP D. To encrypt the communication between local and global network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. To map one-to-one between local (private or inside) and global (Internet) IP addresses Explanation: SNAT is used for one-to-one mappings between local (private or inside) and global (Internet) addresses. It takes an internal private IP address and translates it into a public global IP address so that the internal host can communicate with the Internet while keeping its private IP address concealed. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. SNAT does not globally route the internet on your inside network, it simply makes the local IP addresses translatable to global IP addresses. C. This is the function of Dynamic NAT, not Static NAT. D. Encryption is not the purpose of SNAT, its main purpose is the translational process of converting internal local IP addresses to external global IP addresses without letting the packetвЂ™s source and destination addresses get altered during the process. Reference: Page Number 155 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key difference between Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) and Static NAT? A. DNAT does not require as many IP addresses on the inside global side. B. DNAT does not use a one-to-one mapping of IP addresses. C. DNAT dynamically maps an IP address from a pool to the inside local IP address. D. DNAT does not add entries to the table. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key difference between Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) and Static NAT? A. DNAT does not require as many IP addresses on the inside global side. B. DNAT does not use a one-to-one mapping of IP addresses. C. DNAT dynamically maps an IP address from a pool to the inside local IP address. D. DNAT does not add entries to the table. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. DNAT dynamically maps an IP address from a pool to the inside local IP address. Explanation: Unlike static NAT, DNAT dynamically assigns an IP address from a pool to the inside local address. This happens when an internal host is destined for the Internet through the NAT router. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. DNAT still requires as many IP addresses on the inside global side as there are inside local IP addresses, it just does not require static mapping for each. B. DNAT still uses one-to-one mapping, the difference is that it draws from a pool of IP addresses, unlike static NAT. D. DNAT does add entries to the table, with each mapped address recorded. Reference: Page Number 156 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of Port Address Translation (PAT)? A. It creates a one-to-one mapping from private to public IP addresses. B. It creates many-to-one mapping from private to public IP addresses. C. It translates the inside local port number to a different outside global port number. D. It directly maps the inside local port number to the same inside global port number. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of Port Address Translation (PAT)? A. It creates a one-to-one mapping from private to public IP addresses. B. It creates many-to-one mapping from private to public IP addresses. C. It translates the inside local port number to a different outside global port number. D. It directly maps the inside local port number to the same inside global port number. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It creates many-to-one mapping from private to public IP addresses. Explanation: Port Address Translation (PAT) uses a single public (inside global) IP address to translate all of the private (inside local) IP addresses in a house or business. This is considered a many-to-one mapping of IP addresses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. PAT creates a many-to-one mapping, not one-to-one. C. While it does involve ports, the primary function of PAT is not to translate port numbers from local to global. D. The inside local port number doesnвЂ™t need to be the same as the inside global port number in PAT. Reference: Page Number 156 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What function does port forwarding perform behind a NAT? A. It restricts internal hosts from using services offered by external hosts. B. It enables external hosts to contact services on an internal host in the network. C. It allows all incoming traffic from the public interface to the internal network without a static entry mapping. D. It blocks any connection made to the outside IP address. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What function does port forwarding perform behind a NAT? A. It restricts internal hosts from using services offered by external hosts. B. It enables external hosts to contact services on an internal host in the network. C. It allows all incoming traffic from the public interface to the internal network without a static entry mapping. D. It blocks any connection made to the outside IP address. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It enables external hosts to contact services on an internal host in the network. Explanation: Port forwarding allows external hosts on the public Internet to contact and use services on an internal host in a network that exists behind a NAT. This is made possible through a manual static entry mapping of the internal IP address and port to an IP address on the public interface of the router. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Port forwarding does not restrict internal hosts from using external services, but rather it enables external hosts to access internal services. C. Port forwarding does not allow all incoming traffic without a static entry mapping, but instead requires a static entry mapping of the inside local IP address and port to the public interface of the router. D. Port forwarding does not block connections made to the outside IP address, but forwards them to the internal server. Reference: Page Number 158 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the different types of IPv4 address types and components that are also applicable to IPv6? A. Binary, Octal, Decimal and Hexadecimal B. Private, Public and Loopback addresses C. IP addresses, Subnet masks, Broadcast addresses and Gateway D. Link-Local addresses, Unique Local addresses, Global addresses "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the different types of IPv4 address types and components that are also applicable to IPv6? A. Binary, Octal, Decimal and Hexadecimal B. Private, Public and Loopback addresses C. IP addresses, Subnet masks, Broadcast addresses and Gateway D. Link-Local addresses, Unique Local addresses, Global addresses <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. IP addresses, Subnet masks, Broadcast addresses and Gateway Explanation: The concepts of IP addresses, Subnet masks, Broadcast addresses and Gateway are constituents of IPv4 addressing that are also applicable in IPv6. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Binary, Octal, Decimal and Hexadecimal are not address types, but numerical systems used in computing. B. Private, Public and Loopback addresses are categories of IP addresses and while they are used in both IPv4 & IPv6, they are not the fundamental components of IP addressing. D. Link-Local addresses, Unique Local addresses, Global addresses are categories of IP addresses specific to IPv6 addressing. Reference: Page Number 159 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which protocol is not necessarily present at the Network layer in the case of a broadcast frame at the Data Link layer? A. DHCP B. ARP C. IPv4 D. MAC "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which protocol is not necessarily present at the Network layer in the case of a broadcast frame at the Data Link layer? A. DHCP B. ARP C. IPv4 D. MAC <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. MAC Explanation: MAC (Media Access Control) is a sublayer of the Data Link layer, not the Network layer. It is primarily used for addressing and channel access control mechanisms that make it possible for several terminals or network nodes to communicate within a network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): DHCP, ARP, and IPv4 are stated in the text to be possible protocols present at the Network layer when a broadcast frame is received at the Data Link layer. The MAC protocol exists at the Data Link layer, not the Network layer. Reference: Page Number 159 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the range of IP addresses set aside for multicast addressing? A. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B. 200.0.0.0 to 215.255.255.255 C. 190.0.0.0 to 205.255.255.255 D. 244.0.0.0 to 259.255.255.255 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the range of IP addresses set aside for multicast addressing? A. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 B. 200.0.0.0 to 215.255.255.255 C. 190.0.0.0 to 205.255.255.255 D. 244.0.0.0 to 259.255.255.255 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 Explanation: The IP address range for multicast is 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255, which is set aside solely for multicast addressing, allowing multicast broadcasts to be targeted specifically to devices participating in the multicast session. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. 200.0.0.0 to 215.255.255.255, C. 190.0.0.0 to 205.255.255.255, and D. 244.0.0.0 to 259.255.255.255 are incorrect as there is a specific range of IP addresses defined for multicast addressing in the Networking+ guide, which is 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. Reference: Page Number 160 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the characteristic of Unicast communications? A. It is a one-to-many communication B. It is a many-to-many communication C. It is a one-to-one communication D. It is a many-to-one communication "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the characteristic of Unicast communications? A. It is a one-to-many communication B. It is a many-to-many communication C. It is a one-to-one communication D. It is a many-to-one communication <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a one-to-one communication Explanation: Unicast communications is a one-to-one conversation between two devices in a network, where the destination MAC address at the Data Link layer is a specific MAC address on the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because unicast communication is not one-to-many, this describes multicast communication. Option B is incorrect because unicast communication is not many-to-many, this describes a mesh network. Option D is incorrect because unicast communication is not many-to-one, this describes concentration. Reference: Page Number 160 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What best explains the Anycast IP address type? A. It is type of IP address that serves the farthest host logically B. It is a unique IP address assigned to a single host C. It enables multiple hosts to share the same IP address to serve the nearest client D. It is an IP address that is mapped to hundreds of servers globally, without specific route statements "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What best explains the Anycast IP address type? A. It is type of IP address that serves the farthest host logically B. It is a unique IP address assigned to a single host C. It enables multiple hosts to share the same IP address to serve the nearest client D. It is an IP address that is mapped to hundreds of servers globally, without specific route statements <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It enables multiple hosts to share the same IP address to serve the nearest client Explanation: Anycast IP address enables multiservice routing. When a request comes in, it would be directed to the nearest server, enabling sharing and efficient use of resources. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It does not serve the farthest host logically. B. Anycast IP address is not unique, itвЂ™s shared among multiple hosts. D. Whilst itвЂ™s true that Anycast IP address can be mapped to multiple servers, it depends on specific route statements. Reference: Page Number 161 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following IPv4 addresses is reserved for loopback as per RFC 5735? A. 10.0.0.0/8 B. 127.0.0.0/8 C. 192.88.99.0/24 D. 172.16.0.0/12 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following IPv4 addresses is reserved for loopback as per RFC 5735? A. 10.0.0.0/8 B. 127.0.0.0/8 C. 192.88.99.0/24 D. 172.16.0.0/12 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 127.0.0.0/8 Explanation: According to RFC 5735, the IP address block 127.0.0.0/8 is reserved for loopback. This means that these addresses are used to send a вЂ™loopbackвЂ™ message to the internal IPv4 address stack for internal testing and system processes. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 10.0.0.0/8 is one of the address blocks reserved for private IP networks. C. 192.88.99.0/24 is reserved for 6to4 relay anycast addresses typically used in IPv6 to IPv4 conversions. D. 172.16.0.0/12 is another address block reserved for private IP networks. Reference: Page Number 161 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of a subnet mask in network communications? A. It provides routing out of the immediate network B. It calculates the immediate network the host belongs to by pairing with the hostвЂ™s IP address C. It is used in Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol D. It acts as a gateway of last resort in the routing table "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of a subnet mask in network communications? A. It provides routing out of the immediate network B. It calculates the immediate network the host belongs to by pairing with the hostвЂ™s IP address C. It is used in Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol D. It acts as a gateway of last resort in the routing table <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It calculates the immediate network the host belongs to by pairing with the hostвЂ™s IP address Explanation: The subnet mask is used to calculate the immediate network a host belongs to by ANDing it with the hostвЂ™s IP address. If there is a match between the subnet mask applied to the IP address and the IP address of the destination, the traffic is considered local, and an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination host will be sent. Conversely, if there is no match, the traffic is deemed remote, and an ARP request for the default gateway will be sent Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The functionality of routing out of the immediate network is provided by the default gateway, not the subnet mask. C. While it is true that DHCP can be used for assigning IP addresses and other network parameters, the primary functionality of subnet mask is to calculate the network that the host belongs to. D. The gateway of last resort concept is associated with the routing table where if thereвЂ™s no specific route matching the destination network, the packet will take the default gateway. Reference: Page Number 162 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the default gateway in a network setting? A. It helps in configuring the DHCP options. B. It is the IP address that provides routing out of the immediate network. C. It assists with the calculation of the subnet mask. D. It is required for any IP address to function. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the default gateway in a network setting? A. It helps in configuring the DHCP options. B. It is the IP address that provides routing out of the immediate network. C. It assists with the calculation of the subnet mask. D. It is required for any IP address to function. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is the IP address that provides routing out of the immediate network. Explanation: The default gateway in a network setting is the IP address that provides routing out of the immediate network. It is referred to as the gateway of last resort when referring to the routing table, as when there is no specific route in the routing table for the destination network, the packet will take the gateway of last resort to another router that can hopefully provide a route to the destination network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: While DHCP options may contain various configurations, the default gateway itself does not directly assist in configuring these options. C: The process of calculating the subnet mask does not involve the default gateway. D: An IP address does not necessarily require a default gateway to function. Reference: Page Number 162 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In an IP network, what does the subnet mask accomplish? A. It determines the default gateway B. It calculates the network for both the source host and destination host C. It blocks certain IP addresses D. It specifies the time server "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In an IP network, what does the subnet mask accomplish? A. It determines the default gateway B. It calculates the network for both the source host and destination host C. It blocks certain IP addresses D. It specifies the time server <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It calculates the network for both the source host and destination host Explanation: The subnet mask is used by a host to calculate whether the destination host belongs to the immediate network or a remote network, by ANDing the subnet mask with each of the IP addresses. This information then determines whether the packet traffic is sent to a local host or to the default gateway. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The default gateway is determined separately and is not part of the subnet mask function. C: Blocking certain IP addresses is not a function of the subnet mask. D: Time servers are specified through another process, not by the subnet mask. Reference: Page Number 162 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the main functionalities of DHCP options? A. They are mandatory parameters required for network communications B. They are used for configuring the IP address of a network host C. They extend functionalities of network communications such as specifying time servers and DNS servers D. They are used for configuring the subnet mask for every IP address "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the main functionalities of DHCP options? A. They are mandatory parameters required for network communications B. They are used for configuring the IP address of a network host C. They extend functionalities of network communications such as specifying time servers and DNS servers D. They are used for configuring the subnet mask for every IP address <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They extend functionalities of network communications such as specifying time servers and DNS servers Explanation: DHCP options are optional parameters that are usually configured via DHCP, and they extend the functionalities of network communications. Functionalities extended by DHCP options include specification of time servers, DNS servers, the default gateway, and hundreds of other options, indicating that they can be customized as required for network operations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. They are not mandatory for network communications; they are extras that help to extend functionalities. They can be customized as needed but are not required for basic network communication. B. DHCP options are not primarily used for configuring an IP address of any network host. While DHCP may distribute IP addresses, the вЂ™optionsвЂ™ provided by it are supplementary features. D. DHCP options are not used for configuring the subnet mask. Subnet mask configuration is a separate process. Reference: Page Number 162 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What motivated the development of IPv6? A. The proliferation of network address translation (NAT) B. The need for new features not available in IPv4 C. The exhaustion of the IPv4 address space D. The institution of the IETF in 1998 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What motivated the development of IPv6? A. The proliferation of network address translation (NAT) B. The need for new features not available in IPv4 C. The exhaustion of the IPv4 address space D. The institution of the IETF in 1998 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The exhaustion of the IPv4 address space Explanation: IPv6 was developed because of the exhaustion of the IPv4 address space. As more devices connected to the Internet, the need for addresses grew beyond what IPv4 could support. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. NAT was a technique developed to lessen the impact of IPv4 address exhaustion, not the reason for IPv6вЂ™s development. B. While IPv6 did bring new features, the primary motivation for its development was IPv4 address exhaustion. D. The establishment date of the IETF and the publication year of IPv6 may have coincided, but it was not the reason for IPv6вЂ™s development. Reference: Page Number 163 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes how an IPv6 address differs from an IPv4 address? A. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long. B. No binary math is involved with subnetting in an IPv6 address. C. IPv6 addresses are easier to notate than IPv4 addresses. D. There are fewer network and host addresses in IPv6. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes how an IPv6 address differs from an IPv4 address? A. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long. B. No binary math is involved with subnetting in an IPv6 address. C. IPv6 addresses are easier to notate than IPv4 addresses. D. There are fewer network and host addresses in IPv6. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. No binary math is involved with subnetting in an IPv6 address. Explanation: This is correct because the IETF has built subnetting into the IPv6 address, thereby eliminating the need for binary math involved in subnetting. Additionally, IPv6 consists of a 128-bit address, making it much longer than an IPv4 address, offering a larger number of usable addresses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. An IPv6 address is actually 128 bits long, not 32. C. IPv6 addresses are harder to notate than IPv4 addresses, as they require the use of hexadecimal. D. There are significantly more network and host addresses in IPv6 due to the larger 128-bit address space. Reference: Page Number 163 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How can IPv6 addresses be shortened? A. Removing the leading zeros between the colons B. Removing the colons completely C. Adding zeros between the double colons D. Replacing numbers with letters "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How can IPv6 addresses be shortened? A. Removing the leading zeros between the colons B. Removing the colons completely C. Adding zeros between the double colons D. Replacing numbers with letters <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Removing the leading zeros between the colons Explanation: IPv6 addresses can be shortened by removing the leading zeros that are located between the colons: For example, 2001:0db8:0045:0000:0000:0056:0000:0012 can be shortened to 2001:db8:45::56:0:12. Furthermore, zeros between colons can be removed once. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Removing the colons completely is incorrect because the colons are needed for the structure of the address. C. Adding zeros between the double colons is incorrect because it would actually lengthen the address, not shorten it. D. Replacing numbers with letters is incorrect because this would change the whole address and possibly invalidate it. Reference: Page Number 164 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the function of link-local addresses in IPv6 (fe80::/10)? A. They are used for external Internet routing B. They assign the first 24 bits to determine the registry, ISP and company C. They function similar to private IP addresses in IPv4 D. They are used for local access on a network and are unrouteable "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the function of link-local addresses in IPv6 (fe80::/10)? A. They are used for external Internet routing B. They assign the first 24 bits to determine the registry, ISP and company C. They function similar to private IP addresses in IPv4 D. They are used for local access on a network and are unrouteable <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. They are used for local access on a network and are unrouteable Explanation: Link-local addresses in IPv6 (fe80::/10) are used for local access on a network and are unrouteable. They function similarly to link-local addresses in IPv4 or Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) addresses in Microsoft terms. These addresses are specifically meant for communication within a local network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. They are used for external Internet routing - Incorrect because Link-local addresses are specifically tailored for local network access and are unrouteable on the Internet. B. They assign the first 24 bits to determine the registry, ISP, and company - Incorrect. This pattern is seen in global unicast addresses, not in link-local addresses. C. They function similar to private IP addresses in IPv4 - This is incorrect. Unique local addresses in IPv6 function similar to private IP addresses in IPv4, not link-local addresses. Reference: Page Number 165 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement best describes the purpose of unique local addresses in IPv6? A. These addresses are used for direct communications between two hosts. B. Unique local addresses are used for internal routing and not intended for Internet routing. C. These addresses are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity. D. Unique local addresses are used in lieu of broadcasts in IPv6. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement best describes the purpose of unique local addresses in IPv6? A. These addresses are used for direct communications between two hosts. B. Unique local addresses are used for internal routing and not intended for Internet routing. C. These addresses are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity. D. Unique local addresses are used in lieu of broadcasts in IPv6. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Unique local addresses are used for internal routing and not intended for Internet routing. Explanation: Unique local addresses in IPv6 are similar to private IP addresses in IPv4. They are intended for internal routing within a network or organization and are not routable on the public internet. This is consistent with the practice of private addressing in IPv4. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is a description of unicast addresses, not unique addresses. C. This describes anycast addresses, which are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity, not unique local addresses. D. This description applies to multicast addresses which are used in lieu of broadcasts in IPv6, not unique local addresses. Reference: Page Number 166 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of multicast addresses in IPv6? A. They are used for direct communications between two hosts. B. They are used for internal routing and not intended for Internet routing. C. They are used for a one-to-many address used in lieu of broadcasts. D. They are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of multicast addresses in IPv6? A. They are used for direct communications between two hosts. B. They are used for internal routing and not intended for Internet routing. C. They are used for a one-to-many address used in lieu of broadcasts. D. They are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They are used for a one-to-many address used in lieu of broadcasts. Explanation: IPv6 multicast addresses are one-to-many addresses used in lieu of broadcasts because in IPv6, broadcast addresses no longer exist. So whenever you see an address starting with ff, know that it is an IPv6 multicast address. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Direct communications is a characteristic of unicast packets, not multicast addresses. B. Internal routing is a characteristic of unique local addresses, not multicast addresses. D. One-to-nearest connectivity is a feature of anycast addresses, not multicast addresses. Reference: Page Number 166 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are anycast addresses used for in IPv6? A. One-to-many connectivity B. One-to-nearest connectivity C. All-to-one connectivity D. Many-to-one connectivity "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are anycast addresses used for in IPv6? A. One-to-many connectivity B. One-to-nearest connectivity C. All-to-one connectivity D. Many-to-one connectivity <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. One-to-nearest connectivity Explanation: Anycast addresses are used for a one-to-nearest connectivity. The address is a standard global unicast address, but it is populated in multiple routing tables. This means that a network packet sent to an anycast address will be delivered to the closest interface (usually determined by the routing protocol metrics). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. One-to-many connectivity is characteristic of multicast addresses, not anycast. C. All-to-one connectivity is not a typical network addressing terminology. D. Many-to-one also is not a typical network addressing terminology. Reference: Page Number 166 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which tunneling technology is used when an IPv6 host is behind a network address translation (NAT)? A. 6to4 B. Toredo C. ISATAP D. MPLS "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which tunneling technology is used when an IPv6 host is behind a network address translation (NAT)? A. 6to4 B. Toredo C. ISATAP D. MPLS <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Toredo Explanation: Toredo tunneling is used when an IPv6 host is behind a network address translation (NAT). The IPv6 packets are sent as UDP/3544 IPv4 packets to a Toredo server that is connected to the IPv6 network. A Toredo relay is a router that interacts with a Toredo server to facilitate IPv4 clients to IPv6 hosts. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): 6to4 is used for IPv6 networking over an IPv4 network and not specifically when an IPv6 host is behind a NAT. ISATAP allows dual-stack hosts to communicate on an IPv4 network to an IPv6 router, not specifically when an IPv6 host is behind a NAT. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a type of networking technology, not a tunneling technology for IPv6 hosts behind a NAT. Reference: Page Number 166 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a dual-stack router or host in networking? A. A router that runs only IPv4 network stack. B. A host that uses only IPv6 network stack. C. A host or router that runs both IPv4 and IPv6 network stacks simultaneously. D. A router or host that can only communicate on one version of the IP protocol at a time. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a dual-stack router or host in networking? A. A router that runs only IPv4 network stack. B. A host that uses only IPv6 network stack. C. A host or router that runs both IPv4 and IPv6 network stacks simultaneously. D. A router or host that can only communicate on one version of the IP protocol at a time. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. A host or router that runs both IPv4 and IPv6 network stacks simultaneously. Explanation: A dual-stack router or host is one that has both the IPv4 and IPv6 network stacks running simultaneously. This allows it to communicate using both versions of the IP protocol. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect, a dual-stack router or host does not run only IPv4 network stack, it runs both IPv4 and IPv6 network stacks simultaneously. B. This is incorrect because a dual-stack host does not use only IPv6 network stack, it uses both the IPv4 and IPv6 network stacks. D. Incorrect, a dual-stack router or host does not only communicate on one version of the IP protocol at a time, it can communicate on both IPv4 and IPv6. Reference: Page Number 167 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a Router Solicitation (RS) request in an IPv6 network? A. To request an IP address for a new host B. To communicate the hostвЂ™s IP address to the network C. To solicit a Router Advertisement (RA) from the network routers D. To configure a host ID dynamically "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a Router Solicitation (RS) request in an IPv6 network? A. To request an IP address for a new host B. To communicate the hostвЂ™s IP address to the network C. To solicit a Router Advertisement (RA) from the network routers D. To configure a host ID dynamically <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To solicit a Router Advertisement (RA) from the network routers Explanation: When a host boots up in an IPv6 network, it configures itself with a link-local IPv6 network address. It then sends out a Router Solicitation (RS) request, with the purpose of soliciting a Router Advertisement (RA) from the networkвЂ™s routers. The RAs contain the network ID, and upon receipt, the host will assume this network address and configure a host ID dynamically. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A hostвЂ™s link-local IPv6 network address is automatically configured when it boots up, not requested via an RS. B. RS requests are sent out by the host to solicit RAs, not to communicate its own IP address. D. The host configures its own ID dynamically upon receiving an RA, not through an RS. Reference: Page Number 168 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) in IPv6 communication? A. It performs a broadcast for an ARP request and reply B. It multicasts a Neighbor Solicitation to ff02::1 and receives a Neighbor Advertisement in reply C. It uses broadcasts to facilitate traffic and eliminate multicast D. It only manages the neighbor cache, similar to the ARP cache in IPv4 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) in IPv6 communication? A. It performs a broadcast for an ARP request and reply B. It multicasts a Neighbor Solicitation to ff02::1 and receives a Neighbor Advertisement in reply C. It uses broadcasts to facilitate traffic and eliminate multicast D. It only manages the neighbor cache, similar to the ARP cache in IPv4 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It multicasts a Neighbor Solicitation to ff02::1 and receives a Neighbor Advertisement in reply Explanation: The Neighbor Discovery Protocol in IPv6 replaces the function of ARP requests and replies in IPv4. It multicasts a Neighbor Solicitation to a multicast address and receives a Neighbor Advertisement in reply. This process eliminates the use of broadcasts in IPv6 communication. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. NDP in IPv6 does not use broadcast for ARP request and reply, rather it uses multicast. C. NDP uses multicast, not broadcast to facilitate its traffics. D. Managing the neighbor cache is part of the function of NDP in IPv6 but not the whole function itself. Reference: Page Number 168 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following methods for assigning IP addresses is supported by both IPv4 and IPv6? A. Auto-assignment B. Dynamic assignment C. Static assignment D. All of the above "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following methods for assigning IP addresses is supported by both IPv4 and IPv6? A. Auto-assignment B. Dynamic assignment C. Static assignment D. All of the above <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. All of the above Explanation: Both IPv4 and IPv6 support auto-assignment, dynamic assignment, and static assignment of IP addresses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, C are incorrect because both IPv4 and IPv6 support not just one, but all three methods of IP address assignment. Reference: Page Number 169 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the correct order of the process for DHCP on a client? A. Offer, Acknowledge, Discover, Request B. Discover, Acknowledge, Request, Offer C. Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge D. Acknowledge, Request, Discover, Offer "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the correct order of the process for DHCP on a client? A. Offer, Acknowledge, Discover, Request B. Discover, Acknowledge, Request, Offer C. Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge D. Acknowledge, Request, Discover, Offer <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge Explanation: The DHCP process for a client follows the DORA process - Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge. First, the client sends a DHCP Discover broadcast to the network. The server hears this and sends a unicast frame with a DHCP Offer of an IP address, subnet mask, and any options back to the client. The client then broadcasts a DHCP Request for the IP address, subnet mask, and options. Lastly, the request is acknowledged by the server with a DHCP Acknowledge unicast back to the client. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): All the other answer choices mix up the order of DORA - Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge. Answer A starts with Offer which is wrong, it should start with Discover. Answer B starts with Discover which is correct, but then moves to Acknowledge, which is the last step of the DORA process, hence incorrect. Answer D starts with Acknowledge, which is the last step in the process, making it incorrect. Reference: Page Number 169 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the host do to obtain a routable IPv6 address with Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)? A. It sends a Router Solicitation (RS) to the multicast address of all routers from the link-local address. B. It directly requests the router for an address. C. It uses a 64-bit value to assign the interface ID portion of the IPv6 address. D. It determines the routable address on its own without any interaction with the router. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the host do to obtain a routable IPv6 address with Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC)? A. It sends a Router Solicitation (RS) to the multicast address of all routers from the link-local address. B. It directly requests the router for an address. C. It uses a 64-bit value to assign the interface ID portion of the IPv6 address. D. It determines the routable address on its own without any interaction with the router. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It sends a Router Solicitation (RS) to the multicast address of all routers from the link-local address. Explanation: In Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC), when the host needs a routable IPv6 address, it sends a Router Solicitation (RS) to the multicast address of all routers (ff02::2). This is done from the link-local address that was automatically configured and checked. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The host does not directly request the router for an address in Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC). Instead, the host sends a Router Solicitation (RS) to the multicast address of all routers. C. While the 64-bit value is used to auto-assign the interface ID portion of the IPv6 address, this process is for the hostвЂ™s interface ID, not to obtain a routable IPv6 address. D. The host does not determine the routable address on its own without any interaction with the router. It sends a Router Solicitation (RS) to the multicast address of all routers and waits for the Router Advertisement (RA). Reference: Page Number 170 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of EUI-64 in IPv6 addressing? A. It logically assigns the hostвЂ™s user ID to the interface ID. B. It physically assigns the hostвЂ™s MAC address to the interface ID. C. It randomly assigns an interface ID and checks for duplication. D. It pads and inserts the hostвЂ™s MAC address into the interface ID "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of EUI-64 in IPv6 addressing? A. It logically assigns the hostвЂ™s user ID to the interface ID. B. It physically assigns the hostвЂ™s MAC address to the interface ID. C. It randomly assigns an interface ID and checks for duplication. D. It pads and inserts the hostвЂ™s MAC address into the interface ID <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It pads and inserts the hostвЂ™s MAC address into the interface ID Explanation: EUI-64 pads the hostвЂ™s 48-bit MAC address and inserts it into the 64-bit interface ID. This is part of mechanism for logical assignment of the hostвЂ™s MAC address used with IPv6 addressing. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. EUI-64 does not assign the user ID but the MAC address to the interface ID. B. The assignment of the MAC address is logical, not physical. C. While the default auto-assignment process for IPv6 can create a random interface ID and checks for duplication, this is not specifically related to the EUI-64 process. Reference: Page Number 171 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does it mean when the Router Advertisement (RA) message in Stateless DHCPv6 has the O flag set to 1? A. It indicates that the DHCPv6 operates like an IPv4 DHCP server B. It represents вЂ™managed address configurationвЂ™ C. It implies вЂ™other stateful configurationвЂ™ D. It marks that the DHCPv6 assigns IPv6 network addresses "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does it mean when the Router Advertisement (RA) message in Stateless DHCPv6 has the O flag set to 1? A. It indicates that the DHCPv6 operates like an IPv4 DHCP server B. It represents вЂ™managed address configurationвЂ™ C. It implies вЂ™other stateful configurationвЂ™ D. It marks that the DHCPv6 assigns IPv6 network addresses <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It implies вЂ™other stateful configurationвЂ™ Explanation: When the O flag (other stateful configuration) is set to 1 in Stateless DHCPv6, it implies that the DHCP options for critical services such as DNS are provided, despite the fact that DHCPv6 doesnвЂ™t assign IPv6 addresses in this mode. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. DHCPv6 operates like an IPv4 DHCP server in stateful not stateless mode. B. The M flag, not the O flag, represents вЂ™managed address configurationвЂ™. D. DHCPv6 doesnвЂ™t assign IPv6 network addresses in stateless mode - it only provides DHCP options. Reference: Page Number 172 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In which situation is it recommended to use static IP addressing? A. When configuring client computers on a large network B. On network resources such as routers, network printers, and servers C. When the IP address space needs to be centrally managed D. When using IPv4 configuration on Windows 95 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In which situation is it recommended to use static IP addressing? A. When configuring client computers on a large network B. On network resources such as routers, network printers, and servers C. When the IP address space needs to be centrally managed D. When using IPv4 configuration on Windows 95 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. On network resources such as routers, network printers, and servers Explanation: Static IP addressing is recommended for network resources like routers, network printers, and servers. This is because these resources need consistent access points and static IPs provide the stability and predictability required. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. In large networks, dynamic IP addressing is the common standard when configuring client computers, not static IP addressing. C. DHCP is preferred when the IP address space needs to be centrally managed, not static IP addressing. D. The use of the static IP addressing is not dependent on the use of IPv4 or the type of operating system. Reference: Page Number 173 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does APIPA not auto-assign when allocating IP addresses? A. DNS server B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. Physical address "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does APIPA not auto-assign when allocating IP addresses? A. DNS server B. Subnet mask C. Default gateway D. Physical address <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Default gateway Explanation: APIPA auto-assigns an IP address but does not assign a default gateway. Therefore, while it allows for local network connectivity, internetwork connectivity wouldnвЂ™t be possible. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): APIPA does not auto-assign a DNS server or physical address, but these options are incorrect because the question specifically asks which component is not auto-assigned when allocating IP addresses. APIPA does allocate a subnet mask based on the вЂ™Class BвЂ™ network. Reference: Page Number 174 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What occurs when a DHCP reservation is created for a client on a DHCP server? A. The client is provided with a random IP address each time it connects. B. Other hosts can access the reservation IP address without having the matching MAC address. C. The clientвЂ™s MAC address is tied to a specific IP address. D. The reservation IP address is accessible by all clients on the network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What occurs when a DHCP reservation is created for a client on a DHCP server? A. The client is provided with a random IP address each time it connects. B. Other hosts can access the reservation IP address without having the matching MAC address. C. The clientвЂ™s MAC address is tied to a specific IP address. D. The reservation IP address is accessible by all clients on the network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The clientвЂ™s MAC address is tied to a specific IP address. Explanation: When a DHCP reservation is made for a client on a DHCP server, the clientвЂ™s MAC address is linked to a specific IP address, ensuring that the client always obtains the same IP address when the DHCP Discovery packet is received by the server. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The client is not provided with a random IP address each time it connects but rather the same IP address. B. Other hosts cannot gain access to the reservation IP address unless they possess the matching MAC address. D. The reserved IP address is not accessible to all network clients; instead, only the client with the matching MAC address can obtain it. Reference: Page Number 175 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a subinterface in a router configuration? A. To designate the primary IP address for the router B. To facilitate communication between different VLANs C. To regulate traffic based on packet size D. To provide additional storage for data packets "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a subinterface in a router configuration? A. To designate the primary IP address for the router B. To facilitate communication between different VLANs C. To regulate traffic based on packet size D. To provide additional storage for data packets <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To facilitate communication between different VLANs Explanation: Subinterfaces allow a router to contain multiple logical IP addresses. This is helpful when the router needs to interface with multiple VLANs, as each VLAN and IP subnet can have their own assigned subinterface. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The primary IP address for the router is not designated by a subinterface. It is set in the routerвЂ™s primary configuration. C. Regulating traffic based on packet size is a function related to Quality of Service (QoS), and it is not related to the use of subinterfaces. D. Subinterfaces do not provide additional storage for data packets. Their purpose is to allow the router to communicate with multiple VLANs, not to store packets. Reference: Page Number 175 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the class of an IP address that has a default mask of 255.0.0.0 and a range of 1 to 126 for the first octet? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the class of an IP address that has a default mask of 255.0.0.0 and a range of 1 to 126 for the first octet? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Class A Explanation: Class A network IDs have a range of 1 to 126 for the first octet and use the default subnet mask 255.0.0.0. They are typically used for very large networks with millions of hosts. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Class B network IDs have a range of 128 to 191 for the first octet and use the default subnet mask 255.255.0.0. They are typically used for medium-sized networks. C. Class C network IDs have a range of 192 to 223 for the first octet and use the default subnet mask 255.255.255.0. They are typically used for small networks. D. Class D network IDs are not used for individual networks but for specialized IP addresses for multicasting purposes. They do not have a default subnet mask due to their specialized purpose. Reference: Page Number 183 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the defined range and default subnet mask for Class A network IDs? A. Range: 1 to 126, Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 B. Range: 128 to 191, Subnet Mask: 255.255.0.0 C. Range: 1 to 126, Subnet Mask: 255.0.0.0 D. Range: 192 to 223, Subnet Mask: 255.255.0.0 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the defined range and default subnet mask for Class A network IDs? A. Range: 1 to 126, Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 B. Range: 128 to 191, Subnet Mask: 255.255.0.0 C. Range: 1 to 126, Subnet Mask: 255.0.0.0 D. Range: 192 to 223, Subnet Mask: 255.255.0.0 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Range: 1 to 126, Subnet Mask: 255.0.0.0 Explanation: Class A network IDs have a defined range of 1 to 126 for the first octet and a default mask of 255.0.0.0. They are used for really large networks. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This answer incorrectly assigns the Class C subnet mask to Class A. B. This answer includes the range and subnet mask for Class B, not Class A. D. This answer includes the range and subnet mask for Class C, not Class A. Reference: Page Number 183 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the defined range and default mask for a Class B network? A. Range of 1 to 126 with a default mask of 255.0.0.0 B. Range of 192 to 223 with a default mask of 255.255.255.0 C. Range of 128 to 191 with a default mask of 255.255.0.0 D. Range of 224 to 239 with no default subnet mask "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the defined range and default mask for a Class B network? A. Range of 1 to 126 with a default mask of 255.0.0.0 B. Range of 192 to 223 with a default mask of 255.255.255.0 C. Range of 128 to 191 with a default mask of 255.255.0.0 D. Range of 224 to 239 with no default subnet mask <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Range of 128 to 191 with a default mask of 255.255.0.0 Explanation: Class B networks have a defined range of 128 to 191 for the first octet along with a default mask of 255.255.0.0. This range and mask allow for the unique identification of medium-sized networks with the ability to accommodate 65,534 hosts. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is the range and default mask for Class A networks, which are intended for really large networks. B. This is the range and default mask for Class C networks, which are intended for smaller networks. D. This range is for Class D network IDs, which are not used for individual networks and thus do not have a default subnet mask. Reference: Page Number 184 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What defines a Class C network ID, its range and default subnet mask? A. First octet range of 192 to 223, default mask of 255.255.255.0 B. First octet range of 1 to 126, default mask of 255.0.0.0 C. First octet range of 128 to 191, default mask of 255.255.0.0 D. First octet range of 224 to 239, no default subnet mask "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What defines a Class C network ID, its range and default subnet mask? A. First octet range of 192 to 223, default mask of 255.255.255.0 B. First octet range of 1 to 126, default mask of 255.0.0.0 C. First octet range of 128 to 191, default mask of 255.255.0.0 D. First octet range of 224 to 239, no default subnet mask <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. First octet range of 192 to 223, default mask of 255.255.255.0 Explanation: The Class C network ID is defined by a first octet range of 192 to 223 and a default mask of 255.255.255.0. This class is designed for small networks with 2^8 - 2 = 254 hosts. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice B describes a Class A network ID, which has a first octet range of 1 to 126 and a default mask of 255.0.0.0. This class is for large networks with many hosts. Choice C describes a Class B network ID, with a first octet range of 128 to 191 and a default mask of 255.255.0.0. This class is for medium-sized networks. Choice D describes a Class D network ID, which is designed for multicasting purposes and does not have a default subnet mask. Reference: Page Number 184 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Class D network IDs? A. They are used for large networks. B. They are used for small networks. C. They are used for individual networks. D. They are used for multicasting purposes. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Class D network IDs? A. They are used for large networks. B. They are used for small networks. C. They are used for individual networks. D. They are used for multicasting purposes. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. They are used for multicasting purposes. Explanation: Class D network IDs are specialized IP addresses for multicasting, as defined by the IETF and RFC5735. They are not used for individual networks. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect as Class A network IDs are used for large networks, not Class D. B. This statement is false. Class C network IDs are actually used for smaller networks. C. Class D network IDs are not used for individual networks, they are used for multicasting purposes. Reference: Page Number 184 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Class E network IDs in IP addressing? A. They are used for large networks. B. They are used for multicasting purposes. C. They are considered for experimental use only and were never used. D. They are used for small networks. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Class E network IDs in IP addressing? A. They are used for large networks. B. They are used for multicasting purposes. C. They are considered for experimental use only and were never used. D. They are used for small networks. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They are considered for experimental use only and were never used. Explanation: Class E network IDs are not used at allвЂ”they are considered for experimental use only and were never used. All networking devices would have to be reprogrammed to accommodate these addresses, which turned out to be unfeasible. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Class A network IDs are used for really large networks, not Class E. B. The Class D network IDs are used for multicasting purposes, not Class E. D. The Class C network IDs are used for small networks, not Class E. Reference: Page Number 185 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the classless IP address category specify according to the provided text? A. We adhere to the classful assignment of the IETF and supernetting is not possible. B. It mandates that we should stick with /16 mask in Class B addressing. C. It allows subnetting and supernetting due to IPv4 address scarcity and doesnвЂ™t stick to classful assignment of the IETF. D. It doesnвЂ™t allow the grouping of multiple /16 networks into a /12 network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the classless IP address category specify according to the provided text? A. We adhere to the classful assignment of the IETF and supernetting is not possible. B. It mandates that we should stick with /16 mask in Class B addressing. C. It allows subnetting and supernetting due to IPv4 address scarcity and doesnвЂ™t stick to classful assignment of the IETF. D. It doesnвЂ™t allow the grouping of multiple /16 networks into a /12 network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It allows subnetting and supernetting due to IPv4 address scarcity and doesnвЂ™t stick to classful assignment of the IETF. Explanation: The text states that the classless IP address category allows for subnetting and supernetting and does not adhere to the classful assignment of the IETF due to the scarcity of IPv4 addresses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect because the text states that we do not adhere to the classful assignment of the IETF and supernetting is indeed possible. B. This is incorrect because although we are mandated by Class B addressing to have a /16 mask, we elect to group multiple /16 networks into a /12 network according to the text. D. This is also incorrect as the text clearly states that grouping of multiple /16 networks into a /12 network is possible and that itвЂ™s called supernetting. Reference: Page Number 185 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does CIDR notation represent in networking and how does it relate to IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? A. CIDR notation is a network engineerвЂ™s shorthand for notating the network ID in all IPs, regardless of the type. B. CIDR notation is a way of writing out the network mask by counting the number of bits and using them to denote subnet masks in both IPv4 and IPv6. C. CIDR notation only represents the hexadecimal value of an IP address. D. CIDR notation is unique to IPv4 only and does not apply to IPv6 addresses. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does CIDR notation represent in networking and how does it relate to IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? A. CIDR notation is a network engineerвЂ™s shorthand for notating the network ID in all IPs, regardless of the type. B. CIDR notation is a way of writing out the network mask by counting the number of bits and using them to denote subnet masks in both IPv4 and IPv6. C. CIDR notation only represents the hexadecimal value of an IP address. D. CIDR notation is unique to IPv4 only and does not apply to IPv6 addresses. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. CIDR notation is a way of writing out the network mask by counting the number of bits and using them to denote subnet masks in both IPv4 and IPv6. Explanation: CIDR notation uses bits to express the network mask. In the case of IPv4 and IPv6, it shows the subnet mask and network ID respectively. For instance, a network mask of 255.255.255.248 in binary equals to /29 in CIDR notation for IPv4. Additionally, it is used exclusively to denote the network ID for IPv6 because its number is too large and it is in hexadecimal. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is incorrect because CIDR notation isnвЂ™t used for all IPs just to notate the network ID. C is incorrect as CIDR does not only represent the hexadecimal value of an IP address. D is wrong because CIDR notation isnвЂ™t exclusive to IPv4, but is also used to denote the network ID in IPv6. Reference: Page Number 187 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which two protocols are used for creating highly available default gateways using a Virtual IP (VIP) and virtual MAC address? A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) and Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which two protocols are used for creating highly available default gateways using a Virtual IP (VIP) and virtual MAC address? A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) and Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) and Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) Explanation: The text mentions two protocols that can be used to create a highly available default gateway using a Virtual IP (VIP) and to respond to ARP requests with a virtual MAC address: VRRP and HSRP. These protocols ensure that there is no single point of failure for the default gateway by allowing for an active/passive router configuration. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) are unrelated to the creation of highly available default gateways using a Virtual IP (VIP). BGP is a protocol used for exchanging routing information among gateway hosts in a network, while MPLS is a type of data-carrying technique. B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) are also unrelated to this process. OSPF is used for determining the shortest path for data exchange and L2TP is a VPN protocol. D. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) and Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) arenвЂ™t mentioned in the context of creating highly available default gateways using a Virtual IP (VIP). EIGRP is a Cisco proprietary protocol and GRE is a tunneling protocol. Reference: Page Number 188 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is associated with each protocol in supporting network communications, administering networking components, configuring, and troubleshooting networking components? A. The operating system it is used on B. The bandwidth usage C. A Transport layer protocol it operates in and its listening port number D. The type of cable it operates with "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is associated with each protocol in supporting network communications, administering networking components, configuring, and troubleshooting networking components? A. The operating system it is used on B. The bandwidth usage C. A Transport layer protocol it operates in and its listening port number D. The type of cable it operates with <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. A Transport layer protocol it operates in and its listening port number Explanation: Each protocol that supports network communications and helps manage, configure, or troubleshoot networking components is associated with a Transport layer protocol in which it operates. It will also have a specific port number where it listens for requests. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The operating system it is used on is not necessarily associated with each protocol. B. The bandwidth usage is not associated with each protocol; it depends on the network traffic at a given time. D. The type of cable it operates with is not associated with the protocol; different types of cabling may operate with the same protocol. Reference: Page Number 191 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of SSH and what port number does it use? A. SSH is used to securely log in to servers and uses TCP port 25 B. SSH is used to securely log in to servers and uses TCP port 22 C. SSH is used for delivering emails and uses TCP port 22 D. SSH is used for file transfer and uses TCP port 22 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of SSH and what port number does it use? A. SSH is used to securely log in to servers and uses TCP port 25 B. SSH is used to securely log in to servers and uses TCP port 22 C. SSH is used for delivering emails and uses TCP port 22 D. SSH is used for file transfer and uses TCP port 22 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. SSH is used to securely log in to servers and uses TCP port 22 Explanation: SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic protocol that is used to remotely administer Linux servers and network equipment through a text console, securely. It uses public-key cryptography to authenticate and encrypt network access, preventing the password from being transmitted in clear text. It uses TCP port 22. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. SSH doesnвЂ™t use TCP port 25, it uses TCP port 22. C. SMTP, not SSH, is used for delivering emails. D. While SSH can facilitate file transfers using SCP or SFTP, the primary purpose of SSH is to securely log in to servers, not just file transfers. Reference: Page Number 191 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of lookup primarily uses the Domain Name System (DNS)? A. Translating Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) to internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) B. Translating fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses C. Secure Shell (SSH) to Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) translation D. Translating Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) servers to SMTP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of lookup primarily uses the Domain Name System (DNS)? A. Translating Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) to internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) B. Translating fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses C. Secure Shell (SSH) to Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) translation D. Translating Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) servers to SMTP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Translating fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses Explanation: The Domain Name System (DNS) is primarily used for translating fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses, such as www.sybex.com to an IP address of 208.215.179.132. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Translating Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) to Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is not a function of DNS. C. Secure Shell (SSH) to Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) translation isnвЂ™t related to DNS. D. DNS isnвЂ™t primarily for translating Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) servers to SMTP. Reference: Page Number 191 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)? A. It is used to remotely administer Linux servers B. It is used by mail transfer agents (MTAs) to deliver emails to a destination email server C. It is used in translating fully qualified domain names to IP addresses D. It is used for client access on the email server "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of Simple Mail Transport Protocol (SMTP)? A. It is used to remotely administer Linux servers B. It is used by mail transfer agents (MTAs) to deliver emails to a destination email server C. It is used in translating fully qualified domain names to IP addresses D. It is used for client access on the email server <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is used by mail transfer agents (MTAs) to deliver emails to a destination email server Explanation: SMTP is a protocol that guides mail transfer agents in delivering emails to an email server. It operates in the process of delivering the email and not in client access on the email server. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. SSH is used to remotely administer Linux servers, not SMTP. C. DNS is used in translating fully qualified domain names to IP addresses, not SMTP. D. SMTP does not handle client access on the email server. Other protocols such as IMAP and POP are responsible for this task. Reference: Page Number 192 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary benefit of utilizing SMTP TLS? A. It increases the delivery speed of emails B. It ensures that all mail is encrypted in transit C. It eliminates the need for authentication D. It allows the use of UDP instead of TCP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary benefit of utilizing SMTP TLS? A. It increases the delivery speed of emails B. It ensures that all mail is encrypted in transit C. It eliminates the need for authentication D. It allows the use of UDP instead of TCP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It ensures that all mail is encrypted in transit Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) operating over Transport Layer Security (TLS) ensures that all mail is encrypted in transit, increasing the security of the mailвЂ™s content. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While SMTP TLS does work to secure emails, it does not speed up the delivery process. C. SMTP TLS actually does require authentication, particularly with certain services like Office 365. D. SMTP TLS makes use of TCP, not UDP. Reference: Page Number 192 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about SFTP is true? A. SFTP operates on TCP port 53 B. SFTP does not use any form of the SSH protocol C. Command used on many systems for SFTP is scp, which stands for Secure Copy Protocol D. Cloud providers do not use SFTP for authentication of administrators "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about SFTP is true? A. SFTP operates on TCP port 53 B. SFTP does not use any form of the SSH protocol C. Command used on many systems for SFTP is scp, which stands for Secure Copy Protocol D. Cloud providers do not use SFTP for authentication of administrators <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Command used on many systems for SFTP is scp, which stands for Secure Copy Protocol Explanation: SFTP is used with the SSH protocol, and the command used on many of the systems is scp, which stands for Secure Copy Protocol. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Statement A is incorrect because SFTP operates on TCP port 22 and not 53. Statement B is incorrect because SFTP uses the SSH protocol. Statement D is incorrect because itвЂ™s common for cloud providers to use SSH (which SFTP uses) for authentication of administrators. Reference: Page Number 192 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between active and passive modes in FTP? A. Active mode encrypts the data, whereas passive mode does not. B. In active mode, the server initiates the transfer, while in passive mode, the client initiates the transfer. C. Passive mode uses UDP, while active mode uses TCP. D. Active mode is used on the Internet, while passive mode is used on private networks. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between active and passive modes in FTP? A. Active mode encrypts the data, whereas passive mode does not. B. In active mode, the server initiates the transfer, while in passive mode, the client initiates the transfer. C. Passive mode uses UDP, while active mode uses TCP. D. Active mode is used on the Internet, while passive mode is used on private networks. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. In active mode, the server initiates the transfer, while in passive mode, the client initiates the transfer. Explanation: The active and passive modes in FTP mainly differ in who initiates the transfer. In active mode, the server initiates the transfer by sending information from TCP port 20 on the server to the client. In passive mode, to address firewall and NAT network issues, the client initiates the transfer from a port above TCP 1023 and sends it to a waiting port on the server above TCP 1023. The client initiating the transmission to the server is what firewalled and NAT networks expect as a dataflow. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A: Both active and passive modes of FTP do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption isnвЂ™t a distinguishing factor between active and passive mode but rather a feature provided by Secure FTP (SFTP). Choice C: Both active and passive modes in FTP rely on TCP for data transmission and not UDP. Choice D: Both Active and Passive modes are used in various situations on the internet and private networks depending on the networking requirements, it is not tied to the location of use. Reference: Page Number 192 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)? A. It is used to encrypt data during transport. B. It is used to boot computers over the network with the Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and also transfer software images for network devices. C. It is used for remote administration of network devices through a text-based console. D. It is used to provide automatic configuration of IP addresses, subnet masks, and options such as Domain Name System (DNS) servers and the remote gateway to network devices. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)? A. It is used to encrypt data during transport. B. It is used to boot computers over the network with the Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and also transfer software images for network devices. C. It is used for remote administration of network devices through a text-based console. D. It is used to provide automatic configuration of IP addresses, subnet masks, and options such as Domain Name System (DNS) servers and the remote gateway to network devices. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is used to boot computers over the network with the Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and also transfer software images for network devices. Explanation: The TFTP protocol provides no security and is simplistic in operation. It is often used to both boot computers over the network via the Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and transfer software images for network devices during updates. Network devices also use TFTP to back up and restore configurations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: TFTP does not offer any encryption, unlike SFTP. C: Remote administration of network devices through a text-based console is a function of the Telnet protocol. D: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) does this, not TFTP. Reference: Page Number 193 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which disadvantage is associated with Telnet protocol? A. It cannot perform remote administration of network devices. B. It has complex text-based console. C. It lacks encryption compared to SSH protocol. D. Its server does not wait for connection on TCP port 23. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which disadvantage is associated with Telnet protocol? A. It cannot perform remote administration of network devices. B. It has complex text-based console. C. It lacks encryption compared to SSH protocol. D. Its server does not wait for connection on TCP port 23. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It lacks encryption compared to SSH protocol. Explanation: Telnet protocol allows remote administration of network devices however, it lacks encryption as compared to SSH protocol, which makes it less secure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Telnet can perform remote administration of network devices. B. It does not have a complex text-based console but a simple one. D. Its server does wait for connection on TCP port 23. Reference: Page Number 193 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How does the FTP protocol operate in active mode? A. The server initiates the data channel from a port above TCP 1023 and sends it to a waiting port on the client above TCP 1023. B. The client initiates the data channel from a port above TCP 1023 and sends it to the server on TCP port 21. C. The server initiates the transfer from TCP port 20 to a destination port above TCP 1023 on the client. D. The client initiates the transmission to the server for the data channel on TCP port 21. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How does the FTP protocol operate in active mode? A. The server initiates the data channel from a port above TCP 1023 and sends it to a waiting port on the client above TCP 1023. B. The client initiates the data channel from a port above TCP 1023 and sends it to the server on TCP port 21. C. The server initiates the transfer from TCP port 20 to a destination port above TCP 1023 on the client. D. The client initiates the transmission to the server for the data channel on TCP port 21. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The server initiates the transfer from TCP port 20 to a destination port above TCP 1023 on the client. Explanation: In FTPвЂ™s active mode, when a server needs to transfer a file or information to the client, the information comes from TCP port 20 on the server and is sent to a destination port above TCP 1023 directed to the client. This is communicated through the control channel. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is the description of FTPвЂ™s passive mode, not active mode. B. In FTPвЂ™s active mode, the server initiates the transfer, not the client. Also, the client does not send data to the server on TCP port 21, that is the port for the control channel. D. Server initiates the transfer not the client in active mode, and transmission for data channel doesnвЂ™t occur on TCP port 21. Reference: Page Number 193 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the functionality of HTTP and on which TCP port does it operate? A. HTTP is used for remote administration and operates on TCP port 3389 B. HTTP is an application protocol for web data communication and operates on TCP port 80 C. HTTP is used for the encryption of transfers via Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and operates on TCP port 443 D. HTTP is a protocol used for the management of servers and network devices and operates on UDP port 161 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the functionality of HTTP and on which TCP port does it operate? A. HTTP is used for remote administration and operates on TCP port 3389 B. HTTP is an application protocol for web data communication and operates on TCP port 80 C. HTTP is used for the encryption of transfers via Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) and operates on TCP port 443 D. HTTP is a protocol used for the management of servers and network devices and operates on UDP port 161 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. HTTP is an application protocol for web data communication and operates on TCP port 80 Explanation: HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is an application protocol used in web data communications. An HTTP request is made when a webpage is requested from a web server, for example. The server listens for these requests on TCP port 80. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect, this describes the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) which is used for remote administration and operates on TCP port 3389. C. Incorrect, this describes the Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer (HTTPS), which encrypts transfers and operates on TCP port 443. D. Incorrect, this refers to Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), a protocol used in managing servers and network devices, which operates on UDP port 161. Reference: Page Number 194 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of HTTPS and Transport Layer Security (TLS)? A. Encrypting data transfers via Secure Sockets Layer. B. Connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration. C. Collecting data from servers and network devices. D. Making requests for HTML pages on a web server. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of HTTPS and Transport Layer Security (TLS)? A. Encrypting data transfers via Secure Sockets Layer. B. Connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration. C. Collecting data from servers and network devices. D. Making requests for HTML pages on a web server. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Encrypting data transfers via Secure Sockets Layer. Explanation: Hypertext Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer (HTTPS) allows for the same functionality as HTTP, but adds encryption of transfer via Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). Transport Layer Security (TLS) 1.3 is the current standard used for encryption within the HTTPS SSL cryptography suite. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration refers to Remote Desktop Protocol. C. Collecting data from servers and network devices is associated with Simple Network Management Protocol. D. Making requests for HTML pages on a web server refers to Hypertext Transfer Protocol, not its secure counterpart. Reference: Page Number 194 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about SNMP is correct? A. SNMP only operates on TCP B. SNMP monitors servers and network devices using HTTP C. The NMS is notified of problems through SNMP traps sent to UDP port 161 D. SNMP agents and servers listen for requests on UDP port 161 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about SNMP is correct? A. SNMP only operates on TCP B. SNMP monitors servers and network devices using HTTP C. The NMS is notified of problems through SNMP traps sent to UDP port 161 D. SNMP agents and servers listen for requests on UDP port 161 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. SNMP agents and servers listen for requests on UDP port 161 Explanation: SNMP is used for the management of servers and network devices. SNMP interacts with a centrally located network management station (NMS) to perform its functions. SNMP is largely supported via UDP, and specific UDP ports are assigned for communication. SNMP agents and servers specifically listen for requests on UDP port 161. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Although SNMP can operate on TCP, it operates on UDP by default and is commonly supported via UDP. B. SNMP does not use HTTP to monitor servers and network devices. It uses its own protocol. C. While SNMP does send notifications (traps) to the NMS when issues arise, these are sent via UDP port 162, not port 161. Reference: Page Number 194 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? A. It is used for the management of servers and network devices. B. It is an application protocol for web data communications. C. It is used for connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration. D. It provides encryption transfers via Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)? A. It is used for the management of servers and network devices. B. It is an application protocol for web data communications. C. It is used for connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration. D. It provides encryption transfers via Secure Sockets Layer (SSL). <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is used for connecting to another Microsoft computer or server for remote administration. Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft protocol that is primarily used for connecting to other Microsoft computers or servers for remote administration. This often involves using the mstsc.exe client, which is built into the Microsoft operating system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A: This describes the functionality of SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), not RDP. Option B: This describes the functionality of HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), not RDP. Option D: This is a functionality associated with HTTPS, which uses Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) for encrypted data transfers, not RDP. Reference: Page Number 195 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is unique about the Network Time ProtocolвЂ™s (NTP) use of UDP port 123? A. Port 123 is used only for time requests B. Port 123 is used both for request and reply of NTP packets; a symmetrical port C. Port 123 in NTP communicates with VoIP phones D. Port 123 is used only for reply packets of NTP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is unique about the Network Time ProtocolвЂ™s (NTP) use of UDP port 123? A. Port 123 is used only for time requests B. Port 123 is used both for request and reply of NTP packets; a symmetrical port C. Port 123 in NTP communicates with VoIP phones D. Port 123 is used only for reply packets of NTP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Port 123 is used both for request and reply of NTP packets; a symmetrical port Explanation: NTP uses UDP port 123 for both the request and the reply of the NTP packet. This makes it a symmetrical port, which is not a common feature of network protocols. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect because port 123 is not just used for time requests but also for replying to these requests. C. Port 123 in NTP has no relation to VoIP phones. D. This is incorrect because port 123 is not used only for reply packets but also for sending the request packets. Reference: Page Number 195 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) in a communication session? A. It transports the media stream B. It sets up the media stream C. It encrypts the media stream D. It provides backward compatibility with other communication protocols "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) in a communication session? A. It transports the media stream B. It sets up the media stream C. It encrypts the media stream D. It provides backward compatibility with other communication protocols <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It sets up the media stream Explanation: SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is mainly used for the setup and signaling of Voice over IP (VoIP) calls. It does not transport the media stream itself вЂ“ its function is to assist in setting up the media stream for the communication session. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. SIP does not transport the media stream, it only assists in setting it up. C. While SIP can use encryption via Transport Layer Security (TLS), its main function is not to encrypt the media stream. D. Although SIP is backward compatible with other SIP phones, its main function is not to provide backward compatibility with other communication protocols. Reference: Page Number 195 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Server Message Block (SMB) protocol is NOT accurate? A. SMB listens for requests on TCP port 445. B. SMB 3.1.1 is used for database and virtual machine storage over the network. C. SMB is used with Microsoft products and is known as the Common Internet File System (CIFS). D. SMB is a wireless protocol used to connect devices in a Local Area Network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Server Message Block (SMB) protocol is NOT accurate? A. SMB listens for requests on TCP port 445. B. SMB 3.1.1 is used for database and virtual machine storage over the network. C. SMB is used with Microsoft products and is known as the Common Internet File System (CIFS). D. SMB is a wireless protocol used to connect devices in a Local Area Network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. SMB is a wireless protocol used to connect devices in a Local Area Network. Explanation: SMB, or Server Message Block, is a network protocol commonly used for file and printer sharing among devices within a network, primarily associated with Microsoft products. However, it is not a wireless protocol specifically designed for connecting devices in a Local Area Network (LAN). It can run on wireless networks as well as wired ones. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This statement is true. SMB does listen for requests on TCP port 445. B: This statement is true. The current specification of SMB, 3.1.1, is indeed used for database and virtual machine storage over the network. C: This statement is true. SMB is indeed used with Microsoft products and is referred to as the Common Internet File System (CIFS). Reference: Page Number 196 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What functionality does POP3 provide and which port does it use? A. It synchronizes clocks between computers over the Internet and listens for requests on UDP port 123 B. It setup and signaling of VoIP calls and operates on UDP port 5060, 5061 C. It is a common network file and printer sharing protocol and waits for connection on TCP port 445 D. It allows email clients to log in and retrieve email and listens for requests on TCP port 110 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What functionality does POP3 provide and which port does it use? A. It synchronizes clocks between computers over the Internet and listens for requests on UDP port 123 B. It setup and signaling of VoIP calls and operates on UDP port 5060, 5061 C. It is a common network file and printer sharing protocol and waits for connection on TCP port 445 D. It allows email clients to log in and retrieve email and listens for requests on TCP port 110 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It allows email clients to log in and retrieve email and listens for requests on TCP port 110 Explanation: POP3 (Post Office Protocol) allows email clients to log in and retrieve email and listens for requests on TCP port 110. This is what makes it the correct answer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because it describes the function and port of NTP (Network Time Protocol), not POP3. Choice B is incorrect as it talks about SIP (Session Initiation Protocol), which serves a different function and uses different ports. Choice C describes SMB (Server Message Block), which also serves a different purpose and uses a different port. Reference: Page Number 197 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is an important requirement for using POP3 over SSL? A. The email client must support POP3 over SSL. B. IMAP must be disabled on the email server. C. An SSL certificate must be installed in Active Directory. D. LDAP must be configured on the email client. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is an important requirement for using POP3 over SSL? A. The email client must support POP3 over SSL. B. IMAP must be disabled on the email server. C. An SSL certificate must be installed in Active Directory. D. LDAP must be configured on the email client. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. The email client must support POP3 over SSL. Explanation: Since POP3 over SSL is an encrypted version of the protocol, the email client must be able to support this protocol in order to send and receive emails correctly. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. IMAP and POP3 over SSL can coexist on the same server, so itвЂ™s not necessary to disable IMAP. C. Installing an SSL certificate in Active Directory is a requirement for using LDAPS, not POP3 over SSL. D. Configuring LDAP on the email client has nothing to do with using POP3 over SSL. Reference: Page Number 197 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which feature of the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) contributes to its popularity over the Post Office Protocol (POP)? A. IMAP operates on TCP port 143 B. IMAP allows multiple email clients to access the same email box simultaneously C. IMAP transmits information in clear text D. IMAP operates over SSL on TCP port 993 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which feature of the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) contributes to its popularity over the Post Office Protocol (POP)? A. IMAP operates on TCP port 143 B. IMAP allows multiple email clients to access the same email box simultaneously C. IMAP transmits information in clear text D. IMAP operates over SSL on TCP port 993 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. IMAP allows multiple email clients to access the same email box simultaneously Explanation: IMAP allows for multiple email clients to access the same email box simultaneously. This multi-email client access is one of the key features that fashions its sustained popularity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Although IMAP operates on TCP port 143, this does not specifically contribute to its overall popularity over POP. C. Like POP, IMAP is also a clear-text protocol by default, and so the transmission of information in clear text isnвЂ™t a distinguishing feature that would make IMAP more popular. D. While itвЂ™s true that IMAP can operate securely over SSL, this statement refers to secure transmission of data rather than access to the email box, which is the key feature highlighted in the question. Reference: Page Number 197 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does IMAP over SSL do and which port does it operate on? A. Encrypts POP3 traffic and operates on TCP port 995. B. Encrypts IMAP traffic and operates on TCP port 993. C. Encrypts LDAP traffic and operates on TCP port 636. D. Enables multi-email client access on TCP port 143. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does IMAP over SSL do and which port does it operate on? A. Encrypts POP3 traffic and operates on TCP port 995. B. Encrypts IMAP traffic and operates on TCP port 993. C. Encrypts LDAP traffic and operates on TCP port 636. D. Enables multi-email client access on TCP port 143. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Encrypts IMAP traffic and operates on TCP port 993. Explanation: IMAP over SSL (993) can operate over SSL due to its default operation as a clear-text protocol. It essentially encrypts any data in transit, preventing readable interception on TCP port 143. With encryption, all data transmitted is encrypted on TCP port 993. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This option describes POP3 over SSL, not IMAP over SSL. C. This describes LDAPS, not IMAP over SSL. D. Multi-email client access is a feature of IMAP and not specifically IMAP over SSL. It operates on TCP port 143 without SSL. Reference: Page Number 197 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) do? A. Encrypts data in transit using SSL B. Allows email clients to retrieve and read email on the email server C. Search a directory service for objects D. Allows email clients to transmit information in clear text "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) do? A. Encrypts data in transit using SSL B. Allows email clients to retrieve and read email on the email server C. Search a directory service for objects D. Allows email clients to transmit information in clear text <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Search a directory service for objects Explanation: Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is an application protocol that can search a directory service for objects. Microsoft Active Directory (AD) is an example of a directory service that uses LDAP to locate objects. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Encrypts data in transit using SSL: This statement would be correct for LDAPS (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over SSL), not LDAP. LDAPS is the version of LDAP that uses SSL for encryption. B. Allows email clients to retrieve and read email on the email server: This statement is describing IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)вЂ™s function, not LDAP. C. Allows email clients to transmit information in clear text: This statement describes the operation of POP3 protocol, not LDAP. Reference: Page Number 197 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which port does Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over SSL (LDAPS) use? A. TCP port 389 B. TCP port 636 C. UDP port 389 D. TCP port 143 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which port does Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over SSL (LDAPS) use? A. TCP port 389 B. TCP port 636 C. UDP port 389 D. TCP port 143 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. TCP port 636 Explanation: LDAPS operates on TCP port 636 and can also use UDP port 636. It is the version of the LDAP protocol configured with SSL for traffic encryption. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. TCP port 389 and C. UDP port 389 are utilized by the unencrypted version of LDAP. D. TCP port 143 is used by the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for email retrieval. Reference: Page Number 198 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of H.323 protocol? A. It provides admission control and bandwidth control B. It functions as a syslog server C. It is used for communication over the Internet, specifically VoIP and videoconferencing D. It enables communication between Oracle databases "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of H.323 protocol? A. It provides admission control and bandwidth control B. It functions as a syslog server C. It is used for communication over the Internet, specifically VoIP and videoconferencing D. It enables communication between Oracle databases <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is used for communication over the Internet, specifically VoIP and videoconferencing Explanation: The H.323 is a protocol recommended by ITU Telecommunication Standardization Sector (ITU-T) for communications over the Internet. It encompasses all the communication technologies used by VoIP and videoconferencing. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While the H.323 protocol does manage admission control and bandwidth control, that is not its primary function. B. The purpose of a syslog server is to allow for postmortem of problems and security-related events, which is distinct from what the H.323 protocol is used for. D. SQLnet, not H.323, is used for communication between Oracle databases. Reference: Page Number 198 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of a syslog server in a network? A. To provide conferencing call capabilities B. To allow for postmortem of problems and security-related events C. To provide communications over the Internet D. To enable communication between Oracle databases "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of a syslog server in a network? A. To provide conferencing call capabilities B. To allow for postmortem of problems and security-related events C. To provide communications over the Internet D. To enable communication between Oracle databases <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To allow for postmortem of problems and security-related events Explanation: According to the text, the main purpose of syslog is to allow for postmortem of problems and security-related events. For instance, it helps to understand causes of system failures or security incidents by logging relevant events and messages. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Providing conferencing call capabilities is not the function of a syslog server, but rather is a feature of the H.323 protocolвЂ™s multipoint control unit. C. Providing communications over the Internet is also an aspect of the H.323 protocol, not the syslog server. D. Enabling communication between Oracle databases is a function of SQLnet, not the syslog server. Reference: Page Number 198 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the four main functionalities of the H.323 protocol? A. Terminal control, signal transmission, gateway services, and troubleshooting B. Terminal control, gateway services, gatekeeper services, and multipoint control unit C. Terminal control, packet-switching, gateway services, and gatekeeper services D. Terminal control, gateway services, server maintenance, and multipoint control unit "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the four main functionalities of the H.323 protocol? A. Terminal control, signal transmission, gateway services, and troubleshooting B. Terminal control, gateway services, gatekeeper services, and multipoint control unit C. Terminal control, packet-switching, gateway services, and gatekeeper services D. Terminal control, gateway services, server maintenance, and multipoint control unit <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Terminal control, gateway services, gatekeeper services, and multipoint control unit Explanation: The H.323 protocol functionalities as outlined in the text include terminal control (provides endpoint signaling such as the VoIP phone), gateway services (provide transcoding functionality as well as communications with circuit-switched and packet-switched networks), gatekeeper services (provide admission control, bandwidth control, and management of endpoints known as zone management) and multipoint control unit (provides conference call capabilities and call control of data, voice, and video for future in-call conferencing). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Options A, C, and D include terms and functionalities that are not mentioned in the context of H.323, like signal transmission, packet-switching, and server maintenance. These are incorrect as they do not accurately summarize the functionalities of the H.323 protocol as described in the text. Reference: Page Number 198 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which communication technology encompasses all of the technologies used by VoIP and videoconferencing, and performs call setup on TCP port 1720? A. H.323 B. MySQL C. SQLnet D. Syslog "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which communication technology encompasses all of the technologies used by VoIP and videoconferencing, and performs call setup on TCP port 1720? A. H.323 B. MySQL C. SQLnet D. Syslog <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. H.323 Explanation: H.323 is a recommendation by the ITU Telecommunication Standardization Sector for communications over the Internet that encompasses all of the communications technologies used by VoIP and videoconferencing. It performs call setup on TCP port 1720. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): MySQL is an open-source database system that operates on TCP port 3306, itвЂ™s not used for VoIP and videoconferencing. SQLnet is a proprietary networking software developed by Oracle for communication between Oracle databases, it operates on TCP port 1521. Syslog is a server that awaits for syslog messages, primarily for postmortem of problems and security related events, it operates on UDP port 514. Reference: Page Number 199 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of SQLnet (1521) in reference to Oracle databases? A. It enables communication between different data structures within the same database. B. It provides admission control (authentication and authorization), bandwidth control, and management of endpoints. C. It enables communication between Oracle databases for exchanging information for queries. D. It performs call setup on a specific port. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of SQLnet (1521) in reference to Oracle databases? A. It enables communication between different data structures within the same database. B. It provides admission control (authentication and authorization), bandwidth control, and management of endpoints. C. It enables communication between Oracle databases for exchanging information for queries. D. It performs call setup on a specific port. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It enables communication between Oracle databases for exchanging information for queries. Explanation: SQLnet is OracleвЂ™s proprietary networking software that facilitates communication between Oracle databases, primarily to exchange information for queries. This enables client-to-server or server-to-server operations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because SQLnet is not focused on intra-database communication but rather inter-database communication. Choice B is incorrect as the functionalities mentioned are related to the H.323 protocolвЂ™s Gatekeeper services, not SQLnet. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to the function of the H.323 protocol, not SQLnet. Reference: Page Number 199 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which protocol is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) in IPv6? A. TCP B. ICMP C. UDP D. HTTP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which protocol is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) in IPv6? A. TCP B. ICMP C. UDP D. HTTP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. ICMP Explanation: ICMP in IPv6 is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), which is the equivalent of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in IPv4. ICMP in IPv6 takes a much larger role than it does in IPv4. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. TCP - Transmission Control Protocol is another transport protocol for TCP/IP. It is not responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP). C. UDP - The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a transport protocol for TCP/IP. It doesnвЂ™t perform any responsibilities for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP). D. HTTP - HTTP is an application protocol mainly used for transmitting hypertext over networks. It is not responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP). Reference: Page Number 199 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which function does ICMP perform in IPv6 that it does not perform in IPv4? A. It removes the need for UDP B. It is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) C. It operates at layer 4 of the OSI D. It replaces TCP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which function does ICMP perform in IPv6 that it does not perform in IPv4? A. It removes the need for UDP B. It is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) C. It operates at layer 4 of the OSI D. It replaces TCP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) Explanation: In IPv6, ICMP plays a larger role than in IPv4. It is responsible for the Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), equivalent to the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in IPv4. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. ICMP does not remove the need for UDP. Both protocols coexist within the stack. C. ICMP operates at Layer 3 (Network) and not Layer 4. D. ICMP does not replace TCP. Instead, like TCP, it is a key part of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Reference: Page Number 199 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are true? A. UDP is a connection-oriented and sequenced protocol B. UDP connects network applications to the network and is used by real-time protocols. C. UDP is used by DNS for real-time zone transfers D. UDP always ensures the data is populated by the requesting client "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) are true? A. UDP is a connection-oriented and sequenced protocol B. UDP connects network applications to the network and is used by real-time protocols. C. UDP is used by DNS for real-time zone transfers D. UDP always ensures the data is populated by the requesting client <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. UDP connects network applications to the network and is used by real-time protocols. Explanation: UDP is a transport protocol for TCP/IP that connects network applications to the network. It is a connectionless, non-sequenced, and non-acknowledged protocol, often used by applications that donвЂ™t need the overhead of TCP, including request/response and real-time protocols. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. UDP is a connectionless, not connection-oriented protocol. It is also non-sequenced, not sequenced. C. DNS uses UDP for simple queries, but uses TCP, not UDP, when a zone transfer, which is not time-sensitive, needs to take place. D. UDP doesnвЂ™t guarantee the data delivery. Instead, applications using UDP, such as DNS, typically вЂ™ask againвЂ™ if they do not receive a response. Reference: Page Number 199 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What would be a suitable description for TCP? A. It is a support protocol for TCP/IP that operates alongside of the IP protocol on the Network layer. B. It is a transport protocol for TCP/IP, connectionless, non-sequenced, and non-acknowledged. C. It is a transport protocol for TCP/IP, connection-oriented, sequenced, and acknowledged. D. It is responsible for the discovery of the network gateway(s) with ICMP Router Solicitation (RS) and Router Advertisement (RA) packets so that hosts can find a way out of the network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What would be a suitable description for TCP? A. It is a support protocol for TCP/IP that operates alongside of the IP protocol on the Network layer. B. It is a transport protocol for TCP/IP, connectionless, non-sequenced, and non-acknowledged. C. It is a transport protocol for TCP/IP, connection-oriented, sequenced, and acknowledged. D. It is responsible for the discovery of the network gateway(s) with ICMP Router Solicitation (RS) and Router Advertisement (RA) packets so that hosts can find a way out of the network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a transport protocol for TCP/IP, connection-oriented, sequenced, and acknowledged. Explanation: In the context of the text, TCP is described as a transport protocol for TCP/IP that connects network applications to the network. It is connection-oriented, ensures order of data packets, and acknowledges received packets. This means that it guarantees the delivery of packets in the order they were sent. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This description refers to the role of ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) in the TCP/IP stack. B. This description is accurate for UDP (User Datagram Protocol) rather than TCP. D. This function is fulfilled by ICMP in IPv6 and doesnвЂ™t describe the role of TCP. Reference: Page Number 200 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the significance of Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE) in connecting two offices separated by the Internet? A. It prohibits the use of routing protocols B. It enables privacy of data being tunneled through an internetwork C. It discourages the use of GRE because it is a clear-text protocol D. It allows a routing protocol such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) to work between the two offices "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the significance of Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE) in connecting two offices separated by the Internet? A. It prohibits the use of routing protocols B. It enables privacy of data being tunneled through an internetwork C. It discourages the use of GRE because it is a clear-text protocol D. It allows a routing protocol such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) to work between the two offices <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It allows a routing protocol such as Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) to work between the two offices Explanation: GRE uses tunneling and the concept of overlays to make it look like routers A and B are directly connected. This makes it possible for routing protocols such as OSPF to work even when the offices are separated by several Internet routers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: It enables the use of routing protocols, not prohibits. B: GRE doesnвЂ™t ensure the privacy of data as itвЂ™s a clear-text protocol, making it readable and understandable at a glance. C: While itвЂ™s true that GRE is a clear-text protocol and thus unsecured, this does not discourage its use. Instead, itвЂ™s something to be aware of when considering privacy concerns. Reference: Page Number 200 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between IPSecвЂ™s Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)? A. AH performs encryption while ESP assures data has not been altered. B. ESP performs encryption while AH assures data has not been altered. C. AH operates on transport mode while ESP operates on tunnel mode. D. ESP operates on transport mode while AH operates on tunnel mode. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between IPSecвЂ™s Authentication Header (AH) and Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)? A. AH performs encryption while ESP assures data has not been altered. B. ESP performs encryption while AH assures data has not been altered. C. AH operates on transport mode while ESP operates on tunnel mode. D. ESP operates on transport mode while AH operates on tunnel mode. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. ESP performs encryption while AH assures data has not been altered. Explanation: IPSec utilizes both Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) and Authentication Header (AH) protocols. ESP is used to encrypt the data, protecting it from unauthorized access or information leaks. On the other hand, AH is used to ensure that the data has not been altered while in transit, guaranteeing its integrity during the communication process. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The opposite is true -- AH assures data has not been altered while ESP performs encryption. C. Both AH and ESP can operate in either transport mode or tunnel mode. They differ in their functions, not in the mode they operate in. D. Both AH and ESP can operate in either transport mode or tunnel mode. They differ in their functions, not in the mode they operate in. Reference: Page Number 202 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in the IPSec protocol suite do? A. ESP assures that data has not been altered in transit B. ESP encrypts the payload using either a shared key or a private and public keypair C. ESP creates private tunnels that are impervious to eavesdropping or tampering D. ESP operates in either transport mode or tunnel mode "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in the IPSec protocol suite do? A. ESP assures that data has not been altered in transit B. ESP encrypts the payload using either a shared key or a private and public keypair C. ESP creates private tunnels that are impervious to eavesdropping or tampering D. ESP operates in either transport mode or tunnel mode <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. ESP encrypts the payload using either a shared key or a private and public keypair Explanation: Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is part of the IPSec protocol suite and it encrypts the payload using either a shared key (symmetrical encryption) or a private and public keypair (asymmetrical encryption). This helps maintain data security and confidentiality over the internet. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Assuring that data has not been altered in transit is the function of Authentication Header (AH), not ESP. C. The creation of private tunnels impervious to eavesdropping or tampering is an overall function of the IPSec suite, not ESP by itself. D. The operation in either transport mode or tunnel mode is a feature of the IPSec suite, not specifically the ESP protocol. Reference: Page Number 202 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement correctly describes the function of the Authentication Header (AH) protocol in the IPSec protocol suite? A. AH encrypts the payload using a shared key. B. AH authenticates the entire packet, not just the ESP data and ESP tail. C. AH only authenticates the ESP data and ESP tail in the packet. D. AH adds an additional IP header to protect the original IP header. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement correctly describes the function of the Authentication Header (AH) protocol in the IPSec protocol suite? A. AH encrypts the payload using a shared key. B. AH authenticates the entire packet, not just the ESP data and ESP tail. C. AH only authenticates the ESP data and ESP tail in the packet. D. AH adds an additional IP header to protect the original IP header. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. AH authenticates the entire packet, not just the ESP data and ESP tail. Explanation: The primary function of the Authentication Header (AH) protocol is to authenticate the entire packet, augmenting security above just the ESP data and ESP tail. This means the entire packet has not been tampered with during transit, ensuring the integrity of the data. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Encrypting the payload using a shared key is performed by the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP), not the Authentication Header (AH). C. AH does not only authenticate the ESP data and ESP tail, rather it authenticates the entire packet. D. The function of adding an additional IP header to protect the original IP header is performed in Tunnel mode of IPSec operation, not by AH. Reference: Page Number 202 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the significant difference between the TCP and UDP protocols? A. TCP and UDP are applied by the developer differently. B. TCP establishes a connection with a three-way handshake, while UDP does not. C. UDP is responsible for the retransmission of missing segments of data. D. Only TCP is used to connect network applications to the network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the significant difference between the TCP and UDP protocols? A. TCP and UDP are applied by the developer differently. B. TCP establishes a connection with a three-way handshake, while UDP does not. C. UDP is responsible for the retransmission of missing segments of data. D. Only TCP is used to connect network applications to the network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. TCP establishes a connection with a three-way handshake, while UDP does not. Explanation: In a connection-oriented protocol like TCP, a three-way handshake is used to establish a connection and share information. This is not the case in a connectionless protocol like UDP, where neither the source nor the destination tracks the progress of the data transfer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While itвЂ™s true that TCP and UDP might be used differently by developers, this statement doesnвЂ™t capture the main difference between them in their operation at the Transport layer. C. Although applications using UDP, like TFTP, might facilitate retransmission of missing segments, this is not a fundamental aspect of the UDP protocol itself, which is connectionless and doesnвЂ™t inherently track transmission. D. Both TCP and UDP are used to connect network applications to the network, contrary to this statement. Reference: Page Number 203 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What was the hosts file originally used for? A. For translation of hosts to IP addresses. B. For registration of domain names with a name authority. C. As an override to the Domain Name System (DNS). D. For defining the partition of domain namespace. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What was the hosts file originally used for? A. For translation of hosts to IP addresses. B. For registration of domain names with a name authority. C. As an override to the Domain Name System (DNS). D. For defining the partition of domain namespace. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. For translation of hosts to IP addresses. Explanation: Originally, the hosts file was used for translating host names to IP addressing. This was centrally managed in the early days of the ARPAnet when the number of hosts was limited. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The registration of domain names with a name authority is a responsibility of DNS, not the host file. C. Although host files can function as overrides to the DNS system today, that was not their original use. D. The partitioning of the domain namespace is achieved by zone files in DNS, not the host file. Reference: Page Number 205 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements best describes the function and use of the hosts file? A. It is a dynamic file used for translation of hosts to IP addresses. B. It is a static file used for translation of hosts to IP addresses and operates as an override to DNS. C. It is the primary method of resolving fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses on modern networks. D. It is a deprecated file used in the early days of the internet, but it is no longer in use today. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements best describes the function and use of the hosts file? A. It is a dynamic file used for translation of hosts to IP addresses. B. It is a static file used for translation of hosts to IP addresses and operates as an override to DNS. C. It is the primary method of resolving fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to IP addresses on modern networks. D. It is a deprecated file used in the early days of the internet, but it is no longer in use today. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is a static file used for translation of hosts to IP addresses and operates as an override to DNS. Explanation: The hosts file is a static file that was originally used for translation of hosts to IP addresses. It still exists today locally on operating systems as an override to DNS. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because the hosts file is not dynamic. Option C is incorrect because while the hosts file does resolve FQDNs to IP addresses, this is not its primary function on modern networks, DNS servers typically perform this function. Option D is incorrect because although the hosts file was originally used in the early days of internet, it is still in use today as an override to DNS. Reference: Page Number 205 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which types of DNS record would need to be updated if the IP address of a host that has multiple names changes? A. CNAME records B. A records C. MX records D. NS records "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which types of DNS record would need to be updated if the IP address of a host that has multiple names changes? A. CNAME records B. A records C. MX records D. NS records <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. A records Explanation: When a host has multiple names and its IP address changes, the A (Address) records need to be updated. This is because the A records directly link a domain name to an IP address. The CNAME records, which allow a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) to resolve to an A record, would not need to be changed as they just point to the A record. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): CNAME records, MX records and NS records would not need to be updated if the IP address changes, as they do not directly link a domain name to an IP address. Instead, they perform other functions within the DNS system. Reference: Page Number 205 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of a CNAME record in the DNS? A. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an MX record B. It assists a mail server in identifying the mail servers for your domain C. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record D. It contains all the servers responsible for a particular zone file "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of a CNAME record in the DNS? A. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an MX record B. It assists a mail server in identifying the mail servers for your domain C. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record D. It contains all the servers responsible for a particular zone file <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record Explanation: A CNAME record in DNS stands for canonical name record and it is used to resolve an FQDN (fully qualified domain name) to an A record. Unlike multiple A records, which would all need to be updated if you ever change the IP address, with a CNAME record that points to a single A record, only the A recordвЂ™s IP address would need to be changed. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. CNAME records do not resolve to MX records. B. This is the role of MX records, not CNAME records. D. NS records contain all the servers responsible for a particular zone file, not CNAME records. Reference: Page Number 205 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the priority in an MX record indicate for a sending server? A. The order in which mail servers are checked for updates B. The quota for incoming mails C. The order in which mail servers are contacted to send mail D. The volume of mail that can be handled by the server "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the priority in an MX record indicate for a sending server? A. The order in which mail servers are checked for updates B. The quota for incoming mails C. The order in which mail servers are contacted to send mail D. The volume of mail that can be handled by the server <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The order in which mail servers are contacted to send mail Explanation: The priority in an MX record defines the order in which the sending server chooses the hosts to send mail to. The lowest priority is chosen first. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The priority doesnвЂ™t determine the checking order for update. It determines the order of contacting for sending mail. B. The priority in MX records doesnвЂ™t have anything to do with incoming mail quota. D. Priority also doesnвЂ™t signify the volume of mail that can be handled by the server. Reference: Page Number 205 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which DNS record type assists a mail server in identifying the mail server for your domain, and must be published if you wish to receive mail from other servers? A. CNAME records B. NS records C. SOA records D. MX records "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which DNS record type assists a mail server in identifying the mail server for your domain, and must be published if you wish to receive mail from other servers? A. CNAME records B. NS records C. SOA records D. MX records <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. MX records Explanation: MX records assist a mail server in identifying the mail server for your domain. You must publish an MX record for your mail server if you want to receive mail from other mail servers. The @ symbol refers to the domain the zone file belongs to, and the priority is how the sending server picks the host to send mail to; the lowest priority is chosen first. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. CNAME records allow an FQDN to resolve to an A record, but do not assist with mail delivery. B. NS records contain all the servers responsible for a particular zone file, but do not assist with mail delivery. C. SOA records define a zone file and allow secondary DNS servers to know when the zone file has changed, but do not assist with mail delivery. Reference: Page Number 206 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the priority in MX records within a domainвЂ™s zone file? A. Priority determines the order in which the receiving server checks the mails B. Priority sets the level of importance for each mail received C. Priority helps the sending server to choose the recipientвЂ™s host D. Priority sets the sequence for mail delivery within a network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the priority in MX records within a domainвЂ™s zone file? A. Priority determines the order in which the receiving server checks the mails B. Priority sets the level of importance for each mail received C. Priority helps the sending server to choose the recipientвЂ™s host D. Priority sets the sequence for mail delivery within a network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Priority helps the sending server to choose the recipientвЂ™s host Explanation: In the context of MX records, the priority value isnвЂ™t about the importance or sequence of messages. It helps the sending server choose the host to send mail to within a domain, with the lowest priority chosen first. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The order of mail checking isnвЂ™t determined by MX record priority, itвЂ™s typically handled by the receiving serverвЂ™s mail handling protocols. B. The priority in MX records has nothing to do with the importance level of each mail received. D. Priority doesnвЂ™t set the sequence for mail delivery within a network, it determines the server the mail is sent to within a domain. Reference: Page Number 207 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use of a CNAME (Canonical Name) record? A. To identify the mail server for your domain B. To allow an FQDN to resolve to an A record C. To contain all the servers responsible for a particular zone file D. To define a zone file and allow secondary DNS servers to know when the zone file has changed "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use of a CNAME (Canonical Name) record? A. To identify the mail server for your domain B. To allow an FQDN to resolve to an A record C. To contain all the servers responsible for a particular zone file D. To define a zone file and allow secondary DNS servers to know when the zone file has changed <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To allow an FQDN to resolve to an A record Explanation: A CNAME record allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record. It is helpful when you have one host with multiple names. If the IP address ever changes, only the A recordвЂ™s IP address needs to be updated not all the multiple A records if they were created. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. MX (Mail Exchange) records identify the mail server for your domain. C. NS (Name Server) records contain all the servers responsible for a particular zone file. D. SOA (Start of Authority) records define a zone file and inform secondary DNS servers when the zone file has changed. Reference: Page Number 207 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the NS (Name Server) records in a DNS server? A. It provides the IP address of the primary and secondary mail servers for a domain. B. It indicates all the servers that are responsible for a particular zone file. C. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record. D. It defines a zone file and tells secondary DNS servers when the zone file has changed. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the NS (Name Server) records in a DNS server? A. It provides the IP address of the primary and secondary mail servers for a domain. B. It indicates all the servers that are responsible for a particular zone file. C. It allows an FQDN to resolve to an A record. D. It defines a zone file and tells secondary DNS servers when the zone file has changed. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It indicates all the servers that are responsible for a particular zone file. Explanation: NS records represent the list of DNS servers that are authoritative for the zone. If a DNS server does not have an NS record for a zone, it is not allowed to perform a zone transfer, which involves copying the zone file. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This description refers to MX records, not NS records. MX records help in identifying the mail server for a domain. C. This describes the role of CNAME records that allow an FQDN to resolve to an A record. D. This is associated with SOA (Start of Authority) records, not NS records. Reference: Page Number 207 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What information does the SOA (Start of Authority) record in a zone file provide? A. The IP addresses of all servers responsible for the zone file B. The priority for the mail server targeting a specific domain C. The information required for secondary DNS servers to check and identify changes in the zone file D. Multiple names that a single host has "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What information does the SOA (Start of Authority) record in a zone file provide? A. The IP addresses of all servers responsible for the zone file B. The priority for the mail server targeting a specific domain C. The information required for secondary DNS servers to check and identify changes in the zone file D. Multiple names that a single host has <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The information required for secondary DNS servers to check and identify changes in the zone file Explanation: SOA records define a zone file and allow secondary DNS servers to identify when the zone file has changed via the serial number, using a reverse date code. It also contains other details such as how often to check the primary zone file for changes (refresh interval), how often to keep checking if it becomes unavailable (retry interval), and what the default TTL (time to live) is for caching (via the TTL). All other answers are descriptions of other types of DNS records. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. that describes NS (Name Server) records, which contain the IP addresses of all servers responsible for a specific zone file. B. that describes MX (Mail exchange) records, which assist a mail server in identifying the mail server for your domain and include the priority for sending mails. D. that describes CNAME (Canonical Name) records, which allow a Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) to resolve to an A record and can be used when one host has multiple names. Reference: Page Number 207 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the use of a PTR (Pointer Record)? A. It allows a client to resolve an IP address to an FQDN. B. It allows a client to resolve an FQDN to an IP address. C. It allows hosts to add and update their own A records. D. It provides an extra layer of protection with Active Directory integrated zones. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the use of a PTR (Pointer Record)? A. It allows a client to resolve an IP address to an FQDN. B. It allows a client to resolve an FQDN to an IP address. C. It allows hosts to add and update their own A records. D. It provides an extra layer of protection with Active Directory integrated zones. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It allows a client to resolve an IP address to an FQDN. Explanation: A PTR record, or Pointer Record, is primarily used to resolve an IP address to an Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN). This type of query is known as a reverse lookup. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Resolving an FQDN to an IP address is done using an A record, not a PTR record. C. The functionality of allowing hosts to add and update their own A records pertains to Dynamic DNS, not PTR records. D. The protection provided with Active Directory integrated zones is related to Windows Server and Active Directory, not PTR records directly. Reference: Page Number 207 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Dynamic DNS accomplish? A. It prevents hosts from updating their A records B. It forces the administrator to manually maintain PTR records C. It allows hosts to add and update their own A and PTR records D. It removes protection for entries added by hosts "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Dynamic DNS accomplish? A. It prevents hosts from updating their A records B. It forces the administrator to manually maintain PTR records C. It allows hosts to add and update their own A and PTR records D. It removes protection for entries added by hosts <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It allows hosts to add and update their own A and PTR records Explanation: Dynamic DNS allows hosts to add and update their own A (addressing) records and PTR (pointer) records. The entries are then automatically maintained, which leads to consistent accuracy and less work for administrators. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Dynamic DNS actually enables, not prevents, hosts from updating their A records. B. With Dynamic DNS, the maintenance of PTR records is automated, reducing the need for manual updates by administrators. D. Dynamic DNS, particularly in combination with Windows Server and Active Directory, adds security information to the record when the host adds the record, enhancing the protection of these entries. Reference: Page Number 207 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between an internal and an external DNS? A. Internal DNS serves internal clients while external DNS serves external clients B. ThereвЂ™s no difference between internal and external DNS C. External DNS manages the root servers while internal DNS manages the registrar servers D. Internal DNS resolves to public IP addresses and external DNS resolves to private IP addresses "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between an internal and an external DNS? A. Internal DNS serves internal clients while external DNS serves external clients B. ThereвЂ™s no difference between internal and external DNS C. External DNS manages the root servers while internal DNS manages the registrar servers D. Internal DNS resolves to public IP addresses and external DNS resolves to private IP addresses <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Internal DNS serves internal clients while external DNS serves external clients Explanation: An internal DNS caters and provides DNS services to clients INSIDE a particular network and resolves to private IP addresses. On the other hand, an external DNS caters and serves DNS services to clients OUTSIDE the particular network and resolves to public IP addresses. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. This is incorrect because there is a difference between internal and external DNS - the internal DNS deals with clients within a particular network whereas the external deals with clients outside the particular network. C. This is incorrect because both root and registrar servers can be part of the public name authorities. D. This is incorrect because it is the internal DNS that resolves to private IP addresses and the external DNS that resolves to public IP addresses. Reference: Page Number 208 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why might an administrator choose to use a third-party or cloud-hosted DNS service over setting up an external DNS server themselves? A. To maintain separate DNS servers for internal and external queries B. To bypass the need for maintaining a large number of external DNS records C. They lack the knowledge required to set up an external DNS server D. The registrar does not provide DNS services "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why might an administrator choose to use a third-party or cloud-hosted DNS service over setting up an external DNS server themselves? A. To maintain separate DNS servers for internal and external queries B. To bypass the need for maintaining a large number of external DNS records C. They lack the knowledge required to set up an external DNS server D. The registrar does not provide DNS services <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To bypass the need for maintaining a large number of external DNS records Explanation: Many cloud providers, such as Amazon Web Servers (AWS), offer cloud-based DNS services, effectively solving the administrative dilemma of setting up and maintaining an external DNS server--especially if the number of records and maintenance of the external DNS is large. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While maintaining separate DNS servers for internal and external queries is usually a good practice, it is not the primary reason an admin might choose a cloud-hosted DNS. C. The text does not imply that administrators lack the knowledge required to set up an external DNS server. D. The text suggests that it is common for registrars to provide DNS services when a domain name is registered, not that they do not provide DNS services. Reference: Page Number 208 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the dot signify at the end of Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) in DNS resolution? A. It indicates the start of the DNS zone. B. It signifies the root of all DNS resolution. C. It points to the registrar. D. It specifies the Secondary DNS Server. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the dot signify at the end of Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) in DNS resolution? A. It indicates the start of the DNS zone. B. It signifies the root of all DNS resolution. C. It points to the registrar. D. It specifies the Secondary DNS Server. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It signifies the root of all DNS resolution. Explanation: In DNS resolution, the dot at the end of Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) signifies the root of all DNS resolution. It is like the origin from where the resolution process begins. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The dot does not indicate the start of the DNS zone. The DNS zone starts with the internal domain in the internal DNS environments. C. Registrars are pointed to by the root DNS servers, not by a dot at the end of FQDNs. D. The dot does not specify the Secondary DNS Server. The secondary server is a backup that hosts the backup copy of the zone file. Reference: Page Number 209 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key function of a Primary DNS Server? A. ItвЂ™s a backup copy of the zone file B. It hosts a domainвЂ™s zone file C. It resolves DNS on behalf of the client D. It updates through a zone transfer from the primary zone file "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key function of a Primary DNS Server? A. ItвЂ™s a backup copy of the zone file B. It hosts a domainвЂ™s zone file C. It resolves DNS on behalf of the client D. It updates through a zone transfer from the primary zone file <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It hosts a domainвЂ™s zone file Explanation: A Primary DNS ServerвЂ™s main function includes hosting a domainвЂ™s zone file. When the primary zone is hosted on the DNS server, the DNS server is considered the primary DNS server for that particular zone. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Incorrect choices (A and D) describe the functions of a Secondary DNS Server, not a Primary DNS Server. They involve the backup and updates of a zone file via transfer from the primary zone file. Choice (C) could be a function of a DNS server, but is not specific to a Primary DNS server and hence is not the primary function described in the passage for a Primary DNS Server. Reference: Page Number 210 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a Secondary DNS Server in a network domain? A. It act as the primary and authoritative name server for the domain zone. B. It serves as a backup to the primary DNS server and holds a copy of the zone file. C. It resolves DNS on behalf of the client, but does not host a DNS zone. D. It manages the root domain of the DNS hierarchy. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a Secondary DNS Server in a network domain? A. It act as the primary and authoritative name server for the domain zone. B. It serves as a backup to the primary DNS server and holds a copy of the zone file. C. It resolves DNS on behalf of the client, but does not host a DNS zone. D. It manages the root domain of the DNS hierarchy. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It serves as a backup to the primary DNS server and holds a copy of the zone file. Explanation: The Secondary DNS server acts as the backup to the Primary DNS server. It gets updates from the primary server through a process called zone transfer. This is done so that it maintains a secondary (duplicate) copy of the DNS zone file which basically allows for uninterrupted DNS services in case the primary server is unavailable. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is not correct. ItвЂ™s actually the role of the Primary DNS server to host the domainвЂ™s zone file and be the authoritative name server for that zone. C. The secondary DNS server does not resolve DNS on behalf of the client. D. Managing the root domain of the DNS hierarchy is not the role of the secondary DNS server, this is a more abstract concept referring to the highest level of the DNS hierarchy. Reference: Page Number 210 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the Start of Authority (SOA) record in a DNS zone do? A. It processes all DNS queries. B. It keeps records up-to-date on the secondary DNS servers. C. It relates to the management of IP addresses. D. It defines the relationships between primary and secondary DNS servers. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the Start of Authority (SOA) record in a DNS zone do? A. It processes all DNS queries. B. It keeps records up-to-date on the secondary DNS servers. C. It relates to the management of IP addresses. D. It defines the relationships between primary and secondary DNS servers. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It keeps records up-to-date on the secondary DNS servers. Explanation: The Start of Authority (SOA) record in a DNS zone is primarily responsible for keeping records up-to-date on the secondary servers. It includes a serial number and a refresh parameter, which tells the secondary DNS servers how often to request a refresh of the SOA records. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It processes all DNS queries - Incorrect, SOA record does not process all DNS queries, it maintains the up-to-dateness of records on secondary DNS servers. C. It relates to the management of IP addresses - Incorrect, This is not the primary function of the SOA record. D. It defines the relationships between primary and secondary DNS servers - Incorrect, SOA does not define relationships but makes sure the secondary DNS servers have updated records. Reference: Page Number 211 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Time To Live (TTL) refer to in the context of DNS resource records? A. Time interval for the secondary DNS servers to request a refresh of the SOA records B. Duration for which a resource record remains valid in a client or caching DNS server cache C. Time taken for a full zone transfer to be performed D. Duration for which the SOA record remains present on the primary DNS server "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Time To Live (TTL) refer to in the context of DNS resource records? A. Time interval for the secondary DNS servers to request a refresh of the SOA records B. Duration for which a resource record remains valid in a client or caching DNS server cache C. Time taken for a full zone transfer to be performed D. Duration for which the SOA record remains present on the primary DNS server <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Duration for which a resource record remains valid in a client or caching DNS server cache Explanation: Time to Live (TTL) is a value that determines how long a record should stay in a DNS server cache or client cache. It can be set on an individual basis for each resource record, or it can be defined in the Start of Authority (SOA) record. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The refresh interval, not the TTL, determines how often secondary DNS servers request a refresh of the SOA records. C. The TTL has no direct impact on the time taken for a full zone transfer. This would be primarily influenced by factors such as network bandwidth and the size of the zone file. D. The TTL applies to all resource records, not just the SOA record, and it affects its validity in a cache, not its presence on the primary server. Reference: Page Number 211 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What function does a forwarding/caching DNS server primarily serve? A. It hosts multiple zones. B. It queries root servers for top-level domain names. C. It forwards DNS requests to another server and caches the answers. D. It acts as a DNS resolver within the operating system. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What function does a forwarding/caching DNS server primarily serve? A. It hosts multiple zones. B. It queries root servers for top-level domain names. C. It forwards DNS requests to another server and caches the answers. D. It acts as a DNS resolver within the operating system. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It forwards DNS requests to another server and caches the answers. Explanation: A forwarding/caching DNS server primarily forwards the DNS requests to another server, such as an Internet service providerвЂ™s (ISPвЂ™s) DNS server, and also saves bandwidth by caching the responses it receives. This enables it to respond to future similar requests without having to query the ISPвЂ™s DNS server again. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Although a forwarding/caching DNS server can maintain a primary or secondary zone file, itвЂ™s not its primary function. B. ItвЂ™s not the forwarding/caching DNS server that queries the root servers, but rather itвЂ™s the ISPвЂ™s DNS server. D. The DNS resolver within the operating system sends requests to ISPвЂ™s DNS server or an internal DNS server; ItвЂ™s not the role of a forwarding/caching DNS server. Reference: Page Number 212 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between iterative and recursive DNS lookups based on client resolution? A. In an iterative lookup, the client queries the root server directly, while in a recursive lookup, the client queries the ISPвЂ™s DNS server. B. Iterative lookups involve caching the result while recursive lookups donвЂ™t. C. Recursive lookups involve querying different servers starting from the root server to the resource record server, while in iterative lookup, a directed query is made to the internal DNS server. D. In recursive lookups, the client needs to resolve FQDN from the ISPвЂ™s DNS server or an internal DNS server, while in iterative lookups, this process doesnвЂ™t occur. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between iterative and recursive DNS lookups based on client resolution? A. In an iterative lookup, the client queries the root server directly, while in a recursive lookup, the client queries the ISPвЂ™s DNS server. B. Iterative lookups involve caching the result while recursive lookups donвЂ™t. C. Recursive lookups involve querying different servers starting from the root server to the resource record server, while in iterative lookup, a directed query is made to the internal DNS server. D. In recursive lookups, the client needs to resolve FQDN from the ISPвЂ™s DNS server or an internal DNS server, while in iterative lookups, this process doesnвЂ™t occur. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Recursive lookups involve querying different servers starting from the root server to the resource record server, while in iterative lookup, a directed query is made to the internal DNS server. Explanation: For a recursive DNS lookup, after the client queries the ISPвЂ™s DNS server, if the server doesnвЂ™t have the answer it needs to query the root server for the top-level domain name server and then follow the path up to the necessary resource record server. This is a series of queries, effectively following a chain of servers. In an iterative lookup, the client makes a direct request to an internal DNS server, the server will cache the result and it can simultaneously host a zone. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. In both iterative and recursive lookups, the client doesnвЂ™t query the root server directly. Initially, the request goes to either the ISPвЂ™s server or an internal DNS server. B. Both iterative and recursive lookups can involve caching the result. D. In both recursive and iterative lookups, the FQDN needs to be resolved by the client. Reference: Page Number 212 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between forward and reverse zones used in DNS resolution? A. Forward zone is used for reverse IP address resolution and Reverse zone is used for all other queries B. Forward zone is used for all other queries other than reverse queries and Reverse zone is used for reverse IP address resolution C. Both Forward and Reverse zones are used for reverse IP address resolution D. Both Forward and Reverse zones are used for DNS client lookups "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between forward and reverse zones used in DNS resolution? A. Forward zone is used for reverse IP address resolution and Reverse zone is used for all other queries B. Forward zone is used for all other queries other than reverse queries and Reverse zone is used for reverse IP address resolution C. Both Forward and Reverse zones are used for reverse IP address resolution D. Both Forward and Reverse zones are used for DNS client lookups <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Forward zone is used for all other queries other than reverse queries and Reverse zone is used for reverse IP address resolution Explanation: Forward zone files are used for lookups by DNS clients for destination and informational purposes. Basically all other queries other than reverse queries are forward queries. Reverse zone types, on the other hand, are used for reverse IP address resolution which helps us determine the hostname an IP address belongs to. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect because the roles are reversed. Forward zone is not used for reverse IP address resolution and Reverse zone is not used for all other queries. C. This is not correct because both Forward and Reverse zones are not used for reverse IP address resolution. D. This is incorrect because both Forward and Reverse zones are not used for DNS client lookups. Forward zone is used for all other queries other than reverse queries. Reference: Page Number 213 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the DHCP service? A. To calculate network load balancing B. To assign an IPv4 address to clients dynamically as they join the network C. To provide fault tolerance for the network D. To serve as the main interface for network management "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the DHCP service? A. To calculate network load balancing B. To assign an IPv4 address to clients dynamically as they join the network C. To provide fault tolerance for the network D. To serve as the main interface for network management <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To assign an IPv4 address to clients dynamically as they join the network Explanation: The main purpose of the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) service is to dynamically assign an IPv4 address to clients as they join the network. Without DHCP, network administrators would have to manually assign IP addresses to each client, a time-consuming task especially for large networks. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Calculating network load balancing is not the primary purpose of the DHCP service, although some DHCP services might feature this capability. C. Providing fault tolerance is not the main purpose of DHCP, although it can contribute to overall network resilience. D. While DHCP servers can be part of a networkвЂ™s management infrastructure, they do not serve as the main interface for network management. Reference: Page Number 214 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a MAC reservation in DHCP services? A. To avoid IP address conflict between devices. B. To ensure a specific client always receives the same IP address. C. To prevent a specific client from connecting to the network. D. To assign static IP addresses to all devices on a network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a MAC reservation in DHCP services? A. To avoid IP address conflict between devices. B. To ensure a specific client always receives the same IP address. C. To prevent a specific client from connecting to the network. D. To assign static IP addresses to all devices on a network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To ensure a specific client always receives the same IP address. Explanation: MAC reservations in DHCP services are used when a specific client device must receive the same IP address every time. This is done by entering the MAC address of the DHCP client into the DHCP service and specifying an IP address. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While preventing IP address conflicts is one of the functions of the DHCP service, DHCPвЂ™s primary function is to dynamically assign IP addresses to client devices, not specifically avoiding conflicts which is managed by mechanism inside the DHCP protocol. C. MAC reservations do not inherently prevent a specific client from accessing the network; they only dictate the IP address that the client will receive. D. MAC reservations are not used for assigning static IP addresses to all devices on a network. Static IP addressing involves manually configuration on each device itself and does not require DHCP. Reference: Page Number 216 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a DHCP scope in network management? A. It is a manual process to assign IP addresses to specific MAC addresses. B. It denotes a range of IP addresses that are excluded from distribution. C. It is a logical grouping of consecutive IP addresses that a DHCP server can serve out to clients. D. It is the process of assigning IP addresses dynamically through the DHCP service. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a DHCP scope in network management? A. It is a manual process to assign IP addresses to specific MAC addresses. B. It denotes a range of IP addresses that are excluded from distribution. C. It is a logical grouping of consecutive IP addresses that a DHCP server can serve out to clients. D. It is the process of assigning IP addresses dynamically through the DHCP service. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a logical grouping of consecutive IP addresses that a DHCP server can serve out to clients. Explanation: A DHCP scope serves as a logical grouping of IP addresses that the DHCP server can distribute. It helps to organize ranges of IP addresses for effective network management. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This description is more fitting for MAC reservations than DHCP scopes. B. This is incorrect, what is described is the function of IP exclusions within a given scope, not the scope itself. D. This is the general function of DCHP, not specifically of a DHCP scope. Reference: Page Number 216 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of IP exclusions in a DHCP scope? A. To limit the IP addresses served to clients B. For security by blocking IP addresses C. To reserve specific IP addresses for services and devices D. To block unused IP addresses in the pool "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of IP exclusions in a DHCP scope? A. To limit the IP addresses served to clients B. For security by blocking IP addresses C. To reserve specific IP addresses for services and devices D. To block unused IP addresses in the pool <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To reserve specific IP addresses for services and devices Explanation: IP exclusions are used in DHCP to reserve a range of IP addresses for services, servers, or devices that need a static IP. The DHCP server will exclude this range from the IP addresses it serves out to clients. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It doesnвЂ™t limit the range of IP addresses, but exclude certain IP addresses. B. IP exclusions in DHCP do not provide security by blocking IP addresses. D. They do not block unused IP addresses, but instead reserve specific ones for special purposes. Reference: Page Number 216 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is considered the most important among DHCP options? A. Default IP address B. Router option C. Name resolution D. User-specific parameters "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is considered the most important among DHCP options? A. Default IP address B. Router option C. Name resolution D. User-specific parameters <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Router option Explanation: The Router option in DHCP options is considered to be the most important because it configures a default gateway IP address on the client computer. This default gateway is how the client can leave the network through a router, allowing communication with other subnets or the Internet. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because DHCP options usually serve an IP address and subnet mask, but these are not considered the most important options. Option C, Name resolution, is facilitated by DNS server IP address and DNS suffix options, but is not considered the most crucial DHCP option. Option D, User-specific parameters are an extended functionality of options, but again, they are not the most important. Reference: Page Number 217 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What happens when a DHCP lease reaches 87.5 percent of its lease cycle if the DHCP server does not acknowledge renewal attempts? A. The client releases the IP address immediately B. The client auto-assigns itself a new IP address C. The client sends a DHCP Request to any server in hopes of rebinding the lease D. The lease time doubles and the client attempts to renew with the original server "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What happens when a DHCP lease reaches 87.5 percent of its lease cycle if the DHCP server does not acknowledge renewal attempts? A. The client releases the IP address immediately B. The client auto-assigns itself a new IP address C. The client sends a DHCP Request to any server in hopes of rebinding the lease D. The lease time doubles and the client attempts to renew with the original server <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The client sends a DHCP Request to any server in hopes of rebinding the lease Explanation: At 87.5 percent of the lease cycle, if the DHCP server has not acknowledged the renewal attempts, the client will send a DHCP request to any server on the network in an attempt to вЂ™rebindвЂ™ the lease to another server. This occurs in an effort to maintain connectivity without the need to release and then reobtain the IP address. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The client releases the IP address immediately - This only happens when the lease reaches 100 percent of its cycle and no server has acknowledged any renewal attempts. B. The client auto-assigns itself a new IP address - The client does not assign itself a new IP, it would rather continue with the DHCP DORA process to obtain another IP address. D. The lease time doubles and the client attempts to renew with the original server - This does not happen. No doubling of lease time occurs and the client only re-tries to extend the lease with the original server if it hasnвЂ™t got an answer from any other server. Reference: Page Number 217 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How does a DHCP server know which scope to serve the remote subnet when an IP helper or DHCP relay agent is used? A. It uses the MAC address of the client requesting the DHCP address. B. It uses the GIADDR (Gateway Interface Address) field of the DHCP packet. C. The DHCP server determines it based on the subnet value. D. The DHCP server request identifier matches against the IP helper or relay agent identifier. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How does a DHCP server know which scope to serve the remote subnet when an IP helper or DHCP relay agent is used? A. It uses the MAC address of the client requesting the DHCP address. B. It uses the GIADDR (Gateway Interface Address) field of the DHCP packet. C. The DHCP server determines it based on the subnet value. D. The DHCP server request identifier matches against the IP helper or relay agent identifier. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It uses the GIADDR (Gateway Interface Address) field of the DHCP packet. Explanation: The DHCP server determines which scope to serve the remote subnet using the GIADDR (Gateway Interface Address) field of the DHCP packet. The GIADDR field is filled with the IP address of either the IP helper interface or the DHCP relay agent IP address on which the broadcast was heard. It is the router or DHCP relay agentвЂ™s responsibility to complete the GIADDR field. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The MAC address of the client requesting the DHCP address is not used to determine the scope to serve the remote subnet. C: The DHCP server does not determine the scope based on the subnet value. It determines the scope using the GIADDR (Gateway Interface Address) field of the DHCP packet. D: The DHCP server request identifier does not match against the IP helper or relay agent identifier to determine the scope. Only the GIADDR field of the DHCP packet is used to determine the scope. Reference: Page Number 219 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a stratum 16 in NTP indicate? A. It is the highest precision clock B. The host systemвЂ™s clock is not synchronized C. The host system derives its clock from a stratum 15 D. The host system uses an atomic rubidium clock "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a stratum 16 in NTP indicate? A. It is the highest precision clock B. The host systemвЂ™s clock is not synchronized C. The host system derives its clock from a stratum 15 D. The host system uses an atomic rubidium clock <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. The host systemвЂ™s clock is not synchronized Explanation: In Network Time Protocol (NTP), a stratum 16 indicates that the host systemвЂ™s clock is not synchronized. This is at the opposite hierarchical end from a stratum 0, which is the highest precision clock. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The highest precision clock in NTP is a stratum 0, not a stratum 16. C. A stratum 16 does not derive its time from a stratum 15. In fact, it indicates a lack of synchronization. D. Atomic rubidium clocks are generally associated with a stratum 0, not a stratum 16. Reference: Page Number 220 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main difference between the Three-tiered networking model and the Collapsed-core model? A. The Three-tiered model is more modern B. The Collapsed-core model supports only the access layer C. The Collapsed-core model merges the core and distribution layer onto the same piece of switching equipment D. The Three-tiered model is used specifically for small to mid-sized network designs "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main difference between the Three-tiered networking model and the Collapsed-core model? A. The Three-tiered model is more modern B. The Collapsed-core model supports only the access layer C. The Collapsed-core model merges the core and distribution layer onto the same piece of switching equipment D. The Three-tiered model is used specifically for small to mid-sized network designs <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The Collapsed-core model merges the core and distribution layer onto the same piece of switching equipment Explanation: In a Collapsed-core model, the core layer and distribution layer are collapsed into one piece of switching equipment. It is typically adopted in small to mid-sized network designs to save cost and complexity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The Three-tiered networking model was introduced over 20 years ago and is not more modern than the Collapsed-core model. B: In the Collapsed-core model, both the core layer and distribution layer are merged onto the same piece of switching equipment, not only the access layer. D: Both models can be utilized for any size of network designs; however, a Collapsed-core model is often adopted in small to mid-sized network designs due to cost-effectiveness. Reference: Page Number 222 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the characteristics of the core layer in a three-tiered networking model? A. It refers to the edge switching layer that connects the end user hosts. B. It is designed for high availability and focuses on routing and switching of the entire network. C. It is where packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and defining of broadcast domains are performed. D. It provides local switching and the creation of collision domains. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the characteristics of the core layer in a three-tiered networking model? A. It refers to the edge switching layer that connects the end user hosts. B. It is designed for high availability and focuses on routing and switching of the entire network. C. It is where packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and defining of broadcast domains are performed. D. It provides local switching and the creation of collision domains. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is designed for high availability and focuses on routing and switching of the entire network. Explanation: The core layer is the backbone of the network and focuses on the overall connectivity between different geographic areas. It is designed for high availability and main purpose is to provide fast and efficient routing and switching throughout the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This statement describes the access layer, not the core layer. The access layer is responsible for connecting the end user hosts. C. This statement refers to the distribution layer. The distribution layer is responsible for the control plane including packet filtering, security policies, and defining of broadcast domains. D. This describes the access layer, which creates collision domains and provides local switching. Reference: Page Number 223 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of the Distribution Layer in the three-tiered networking model? A. It provides local switching and the creation of collision domains. B. It is where the connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines is found. C. It connects the end user hosts. D. It allows for connectivity to multiple access layer switches and performs function like packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and defining of broadcast domains. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of the Distribution Layer in the three-tiered networking model? A. It provides local switching and the creation of collision domains. B. It is where the connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines is found. C. It connects the end user hosts. D. It allows for connectivity to multiple access layer switches and performs function like packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and defining of broadcast domains. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It allows for connectivity to multiple access layer switches and performs function like packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and defining of broadcast domains. Explanation: The Distribution Layer allows for connectivity to multiple access layer switches. Also, it is where packet filtering, security policies, routing between VLANs, and the defining of broadcast domains happen. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Providing local switching and the creation of collision domains are the functions of the Access Layer, not the Distribution Layer. B. The connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines is a function of the Core Layer, not the Distribution Layer. C. The function mentioned is of the Access Layer, where it connects the end user hosts, not the Distribution Layer. Reference: Page Number 223 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the function of the Access Layer in the three-tiered networking model? A. It provides connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines B. It performs packet filtering, security policies, and routing between VLANs C. It connects the end user hosts and supports QoS, Power over Ethernet, and security D. It performs the functions of both the core layer and distribution layer on the same piece of network switching equipment "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the function of the Access Layer in the three-tiered networking model? A. It provides connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines B. It performs packet filtering, security policies, and routing between VLANs C. It connects the end user hosts and supports QoS, Power over Ethernet, and security D. It performs the functions of both the core layer and distribution layer on the same piece of network switching equipment <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It connects the end user hosts and supports QoS, Power over Ethernet, and security Explanation: The Access Layer in the three-tiered networking model connects the end user hosts and it is where support begins for Quality of Service (QoS), Power over Ethernet, and security (802.1x, web-auth, DHCP snooping). It provides local switching and the creation of collision domains. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The statement is incorrect because it is the core layer that provides connectivity between geographic areas with WAN lines, not the access layer. B: The statement is incorrect as it is the distribution layer that performs packet filtering, security policies, and routing between VLANs, not the access layer. D: This statement is incorrect as the collapsed-core model combines the function of the core layer and the distribution layer on the same piece of network switching equipment. Reference: Page Number 223 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which interface does the SDN controller use to communicate with applications and APIs? A. Southbound Interface (SBI) B. Northbound Interface (NBI) C. Management Plane D. Control Layer "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which interface does the SDN controller use to communicate with applications and APIs? A. Southbound Interface (SBI) B. Northbound Interface (NBI) C. Management Plane D. Control Layer <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Northbound Interface (NBI) Explanation: The Northbound Interface (NBI) is used by the SDN controller to communicate with applications and APIs. It allows applications and APIs access to the SDN controllerвЂ™s logic to monitor and manage network devices that are south of the controller. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Southbound Interface (SBI) is used by the SDN controller to communicate with the network hardware, not with applications and APIs. C. The Management Plane is how devices are managed for the control and flow of data, it does not specify communication between SDN controller and applications or APIs. D. The Control Layer in the software-defined network model is essentially the SDN controller which controls the hardware, but it does not signify the specific communication interface used by the SDN controller to communicate with applications and APIs. Reference: Page Number 223 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the application layer in a software-defined networking model? A. ItвЂ™s where the programmability elements such as applications or APIs are found. B. It communicates directly with the network hardware. C. It allows devices to be managed for the control and flow of data. D. It replaces the need for physical networking devices completely. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the application layer in a software-defined networking model? A. ItвЂ™s where the programmability elements such as applications or APIs are found. B. It communicates directly with the network hardware. C. It allows devices to be managed for the control and flow of data. D. It replaces the need for physical networking devices completely. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. ItвЂ™s where the programmability elements such as applications or APIs are found. Explanation: In the software-defined networking model, the application layer serves as the home to the programmability elements. These elements, which can exist in the form of applications or APIs, are responsible for various services associated with the SDN controller, like monitoring, management, troubleshooting, network policies, security policies, network automation, and network configuration. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The application layer does not communicate directly with network hardwareвЂ”that is function of the southbound interface (SBI). C. While management functions are an important part of a software-defined networking model, they occur across all the layers of the SDN model, not only in the application layer. D. The application layer doesnвЂ™t replace physical networking devicesвЂ” it works in conjunction with virtual and physical devices to enable network programmability and manageability. Reference: Page Number 224 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the northbound interface (NBI) in a software-defined network (SDN)? A. It allows the SDN controller to communicate with network hardware. B. It is responsible for data management in the network. C. It is the interface between the application layer and the control layer, allowing applications and APIs to monitor and manage network devices. D. It is used by administrators to create policies and program the SDN controller. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the northbound interface (NBI) in a software-defined network (SDN)? A. It allows the SDN controller to communicate with network hardware. B. It is responsible for data management in the network. C. It is the interface between the application layer and the control layer, allowing applications and APIs to monitor and manage network devices. D. It is used by administrators to create policies and program the SDN controller. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is the interface between the application layer and the control layer, allowing applications and APIs to monitor and manage network devices. Explanation: The NBI connects the application layer to the control layer, specifically allowing applications and APIs access to monitor and manage the network devices that are under (or south of) the controller. It facilitates the interaction between applications/APIs and the control layer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The SDN controller communicates to network hardware through the southbound interface (SBI), not the NBI. B. Data management is primarily the role of the infrastructure layer, not the NBI. D. While administrators can indeed create policies and program the SDN controller, they do so through applications or APIs that communicate with the SDN controller, not directly through the NBI. Reference: Page Number 224 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the control layer in the software-defined network model? A. It is the interface between the application layer and the SDN controller. B. It is where the network hardware is located. C. It provides management for the control and flow of data. D. It is controlled by the SDN controller and manages networking hardware, protocols, and the flow of data. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the control layer in the software-defined network model? A. It is the interface between the application layer and the SDN controller. B. It is where the network hardware is located. C. It provides management for the control and flow of data. D. It is controlled by the SDN controller and manages networking hardware, protocols, and the flow of data. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It is controlled by the SDN controller and manages networking hardware, protocols, and the flow of data. Explanation: The control layer in the software-defined network model is essentially the SDN controller. It controls everything such as networking hardware, protocols, and the flow of data. The term control plane is similar to how it is used with traditional networking concepts and carries out similar functions. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The interface between the application layer and the SDN controller is the northbound interface, not the control layer. B. The part of the network where the hardware is located is known as the Infrastructure layer, not the control layer. C. The management of the devices for the control and flow of data can be performed across all layers of the SDN model but is not the specific function of the control layer. Reference: Page Number 225 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of the Southbound Interface (SBI) in a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) setup? A. Allows applications and APIs access to the SDN controllerвЂ™s logic to monitor and manage network devices B. It enables management of all devices for the control and flow of data C. It is utilized by the SDN controller to communicate with the network hardware D. It provides programmability elements in the form of applications or APIs "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of the Southbound Interface (SBI) in a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) setup? A. Allows applications and APIs access to the SDN controllerвЂ™s logic to monitor and manage network devices B. It enables management of all devices for the control and flow of data C. It is utilized by the SDN controller to communicate with the network hardware D. It provides programmability elements in the form of applications or APIs <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is utilized by the SDN controller to communicate with the network hardware Explanation: The Southbound Interface (SBI) in an SDN setup is primarily responsible for communication between the network controller and network hardware devices. It is used to program those devices and ensure they adhere to policies across the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because it describes the Northbound Interface and not the Southbound Interface. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to the functionality of the Management Plane, not the SBI. And Choice D describes the functionality of the Application Layer, not the SBI. Reference: Page Number 225 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main responsibility of the infrastructure layer in the software-defined networking model? A. It is the main communication channel between the SDN controller and the network hardware. B. It allows access to the SDN controllerвЂ™s logic to manage network devices. C. It is responsible for data management. D. It serves as the management of devices for the control and flow of data. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main responsibility of the infrastructure layer in the software-defined networking model? A. It is the main communication channel between the SDN controller and the network hardware. B. It allows access to the SDN controllerвЂ™s logic to manage network devices. C. It is responsible for data management. D. It serves as the management of devices for the control and flow of data. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is responsible for data management. Explanation: The Infrastructure Layer is where the network hardware such as routers, switches, VPNs or other devices are located, and is directly responsible for data management. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This is incorrect as it describes the Southbound InterfaceвЂ™s role. B: This is incorrect as it describes the Northbound InterfaceвЂ™s role. D: This is incorrect as it describes the management planeвЂ™s role. Reference: Page Number 225 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In Software-defined Networking (SDN), through which interface does the SDN controller communicate with network devices? A. Northbound Interface (NBI) B. Southbound Interface (SBI) C. Hardware Interface D. Application Interface "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In Software-defined Networking (SDN), through which interface does the SDN controller communicate with network devices? A. Northbound Interface (NBI) B. Southbound Interface (SBI) C. Hardware Interface D. Application Interface <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Southbound Interface (SBI) Explanation: In SDN, the SDN controller communicates with the network devices through the Southbound Interface (SBI). Any policy or network setting is programmed into the network devices through this interface, making the network equipment adhere to these settings throughout the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Northbound Interface (NBI) is used to communicate between the SDN controller and the application or API, not directly with the network devices. C. Hardware Interface is not a term used in context of SDN controllerвЂ™s communication with network devices. D. Application Interface is also not a specific term in the SDN context. In SDN, applications communicate with the SDN controller using the Northbound Interface (NBI), not directly with the network devices. Reference: Page Number 225 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a Spine-Leaf network architecture restrict in terms of direct connections? A. The spine switches cannot be directly connected to one another B. The leaf switches cannot be directly connected to one another C. Hosts (servers) cannot be directly connected to the spine D. All of the above "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a Spine-Leaf network architecture restrict in terms of direct connections? A. The spine switches cannot be directly connected to one another B. The leaf switches cannot be directly connected to one another C. Hosts (servers) cannot be directly connected to the spine D. All of the above <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. All of the above Explanation: In spine-leaf architecture, the spine serves as a backbone that only connects leaf switches. Leaf switches, in turn, connect hosts (servers). Therefore, the architecture restricts a) direct connection between spine switches, b) direct connection between leaf switches, and c) direct connection of hosts (servers) to the spine. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Answer A is incorrect because while itвЂ™s true that spine switches are not directly connected to one another, this choice does not cover all the connection restrictions in a Spine-Leaf network. Answer B is incorrect for the same reason, itвЂ™s true that leaf switches are not directly connected to one another but this does not cover all the restrictions. Answer C is incorrect because while itвЂ™s true that hosts cannot connect directly to the spine, it overlooks the other restrictions in this type of network architecture. Reference: Page Number 226 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In a data center, what type of traffic pattern should be avoided if possible? A. East to West B. North to South C. Across VLANs D. Within the same VLAN "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In a data center, what type of traffic pattern should be avoided if possible? A. East to West B. North to South C. Across VLANs D. Within the same VLAN <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. North to South Explanation: In a data center, the North to South traffic pattern should be avoided if possible because it introduces additional latency. This type of traffic pattern occurs when traffic has to travel up to a router and then back down to its destination. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. East to West traffic is preferred in a data center since it stays on its respective VLAN and does not introduce extra latency. C. Traffic can occur across VLANs, especially in specialized cases such as live migration of virtual machines. However, this does not necessarily need to be avoided because this might be required operation. D. Traffic within the same VLAN is desirable because it results in the least latency and is therefore not to be avoided. Reference: Page Number 227 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a disadvantage of hosting your servers in a public cloud? A. It requires Amazon Web Services or Azure B. It becomes a capital expense C. It requires a monthly reoccurring fee D. It lacks infrastructure "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a disadvantage of hosting your servers in a public cloud? A. It requires Amazon Web Services or Azure B. It becomes a capital expense C. It requires a monthly reoccurring fee D. It lacks infrastructure <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It requires a monthly reoccurring fee Explanation: Hosting a server in a public cloud requires a monthly reoccurring fee because you are renting time on someone elseвЂ™s equipment. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Public cloud hosting does not necessarily require Amazon Web Services or Azure, many Internet service providers (ISPs) also have a public cloud offering. B. It is not a capital expense, it becomes an operational expense because you are renting time on someone elseвЂ™s equipment. D. Public cloud does not lack infrastructure, for a monthly fee, you can rent the infrastructure you need. Reference: Page Number 228 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a disadvantage of public cloud hosting? A. It offers too much control over the hosting environment B. It requires a capital expense that can be deprecated over several years C. It involves monthly reoccurring fees D. It requires a lot of troubleshooting remotely "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a disadvantage of public cloud hosting? A. It offers too much control over the hosting environment B. It requires a capital expense that can be deprecated over several years C. It involves monthly reoccurring fees D. It requires a lot of troubleshooting remotely <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It involves monthly reoccurring fees Explanation: A disadvantage of public cloud hosting is that it involves monthly reoccurring fees because you are essentially renting time on someone elseвЂ™s equipment, hence it is regarded as an operational expense. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Too much control over the hosting environment would generally be regarded as an advantage. It is not associated with public cloud hosting, which typically involves using services managed by another company. B. Public cloud hosting does not require a capital expense that can be deprecated over several years. This is an aspect of company-owned data centers. D. Troubleshooting remotely is associated with Branch Office, not Public Cloud. Reference: Page Number 228 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a disadvantage of public cloud hosting? A. High initial cost B. Lack of control over hosting C. There are no disadvantages D. Monthly reoccurring fee "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a disadvantage of public cloud hosting? A. High initial cost B. Lack of control over hosting C. There are no disadvantages D. Monthly reoccurring fee <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Monthly reoccurring fee Explanation: As the text highlights, the biggest disadvantage to public cloud hosting is the monthly reoccurring fee which becomes a consistent operational expense. This is due to the fact that you are essentially вЂ™rentingвЂ™ time and space on someone elseвЂ™s infrastructure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. High initial cost: This is incorrect. Public cloud hosting generally incurs lower initial costs compared to building and maintaining a company-owned data center. B. Lack of control over hosting: While true that company-owned data centers provide the highest level of control, cloud hosting services typically offer adequate control mechanisms. Therefore, it isnвЂ™t accurate to label lack of control as a вЂ™disadvantageвЂ™ of public cloud hosting. C. There are no disadvantages: This is not true. The text clearly states that the monthly reoccurring fee is a disadvantage of public cloud hosting. Reference: Page Number 229 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the main disadvantages of using a Public Cloud Hosting? A. There is no control over server administration B. It involves a monthly recurring fee C. It lacks cloud connectivity options D. It only works with Amazon Web Services and Azure "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the main disadvantages of using a Public Cloud Hosting? A. There is no control over server administration B. It involves a monthly recurring fee C. It lacks cloud connectivity options D. It only works with Amazon Web Services and Azure <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It involves a monthly recurring fee Explanation: One of the main disadvantages of public cloud hosting is the monthly recurring fee. It becomes an operational expense because youвЂ™re essentially renting time on someone elseвЂ™s equipment. This means your company cannot capitalize an expenditure for the public cloud. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. There is no control over server administration - This is incorrect as the level of control over server administration can vary with different public cloud services. C. It lacks Cloud Connectivity options - This is incorrect as public clouds typically offer a range of Cloud Connectivity options. D. It only works with Amazon Web Services and Azure - This is also incorrect as many Internet Service Providers (ISPs) have their own public cloud offering. Reference: Page Number 229 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a typical scenario of using a colocation for your computing needs? A. Hosting your equipment in your own on-premises data center B. Renting the necessary infrastructure in the public cloud C. Hosting your equipment at an ISPвЂ™s data center D. Placing corporate servers at a main location away from branch offices "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a typical scenario of using a colocation for your computing needs? A. Hosting your equipment in your own on-premises data center B. Renting the necessary infrastructure in the public cloud C. Hosting your equipment at an ISPвЂ™s data center D. Placing corporate servers at a main location away from branch offices <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Hosting your equipment at an ISPвЂ™s data center Explanation: A typical scenario of using a colocation is to host your equipment at an Internet Service ProviderвЂ™s (ISPвЂ™s) data center. This space, sometimes referred to as вЂ™ping and power spaceвЂ™, provides all necessary facilities including uninterrupted power supplies, generators, proper cooling, and internet connectivity. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This choice talks about hosting your equipment in a company-owned data center, which is different than a colocation. B. Renting the necessary infrastructure in the public cloud is not a colocation scenario, but rather a cloud-hosting strategy. D. Placing corporate servers at a main location away from branch offices does not describe a colocation situation. Reference: Page Number 229 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of storage is a cross between a SAN and direct attached storage (DAS), and where the hypervisor is responsible for the storage? A. Network Attached Storage (NAS) B. Hyperconverged Storage C. Storage Area Networks (SANs) D. Independent Disk Storage "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of storage is a cross between a SAN and direct attached storage (DAS), and where the hypervisor is responsible for the storage? A. Network Attached Storage (NAS) B. Hyperconverged Storage C. Storage Area Networks (SANs) D. Independent Disk Storage <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Hyperconverged Storage Explanation: Hyperconverged storage is a type of network storage that is described as a cross between Storage Area Networks (SANs) and Direct Attached Storage (DAS). In this model, the hypervisor is responsible for the storage and communicates with the other hosts in the cluster, removing the requirement of external storage. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Network Attached Storage (NAS) is not a cross between a SAN and DAS, it is a distinct type of storage technology. C. Storage Area Networks (SANs) are not a cross between itself and DAS, it is a separate type of storage. D. Independent Disk Storage is not mentioned in the given text. Reference: Page Number 229 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of Server Message Blocks (SMBs) in a Network Attached Storage (NAS) system? A. Facilitates user authentication for the NAS system B. Responsible for performing commands against a file structure C. Provides backup and replication services for the NAS system D. Ensures high-speed connectivity between the NAS and client devices "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of Server Message Blocks (SMBs) in a Network Attached Storage (NAS) system? A. Facilitates user authentication for the NAS system B. Responsible for performing commands against a file structure C. Provides backup and replication services for the NAS system D. Ensures high-speed connectivity between the NAS and client devices <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Responsible for performing commands against a file structure Explanation: In a Network Attached Storage (NAS) system, Server Message Blocks (SMBs) receive commands from hosts to read, write, and delete files. SMBs then perform these commands against a file structure such as NTFS. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Facilitates user authentication for the NAS system - Incorrect. Security for the data in NAS is facilitated by the filer process and the filesystem, not specifically by SMB. C. Provides backup and replication services for the NAS system - Incorrect. While NAS appliances can support features like backup and replication, these are not specific responsibilities of SMBs. D. Ensures high-speed connectivity between the NAS and client devices - Incorrect. SMBs do not specifically manage the connectivity speed between the NAS system and client devices. This is more related to the network infrastructure. Reference: Page Number 230 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a host bus adapter (HBA) card in a storage area network (SAN)? A. It separates the SAN from the LAN B. It is used to partition devices to a LUN in Fibre Channel C. It coordinates the storage of information directly to the volume on the SAN D. It is used to perform security in the initiator and target as part of the iSCSI protocol "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a host bus adapter (HBA) card in a storage area network (SAN)? A. It separates the SAN from the LAN B. It is used to partition devices to a LUN in Fibre Channel C. It coordinates the storage of information directly to the volume on the SAN D. It is used to perform security in the initiator and target as part of the iSCSI protocol <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It coordinates the storage of information directly to the volume on the SAN Explanation: In a SAN, the host bus adapter (HBA) card, when using Fibre Channel, or the Ethernet card, when using iSCCSI, coordinates the storage of information directly to the volume on the SAN. The hypervisor sends data to the HBA or the iSCSI initiator, which then formats the data to be written or read directly to the logical unit number (LUN) in a block format. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The SAN is separated from the LAN physically or logically, but thatвЂ™s not the role of the HBA card. B: Zoning, not the HBA card, is used to partition devices to a LUN in Fibre Channel. D: Security in the initiator and target as part of the iSCSI protocol is not performed by the HBA card. Reference: Page Number 230 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following are common connection types for Storage Area Networks (SANs)? A. Ethernet B. Fibre Channel C. Wi-Fi D. FCoE "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following are common connection types for Storage Area Networks (SANs)? A. Ethernet B. Fibre Channel C. Wi-Fi D. FCoE <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Fibre Channel Explanation: Among the common types of connectivity options for SANs, Fibre Channel is one of them. It provides a high-speed network technology for data transfer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ethernet is not a common connection type for SANs as they usually require higher bandwidth. C. Wi-Fi, while used for network connections, is not typically used for SANs due to reliability and performance issues. D. Although FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) is mentioned in the given text, this option is incorrect because the question asks for вЂ™commonвЂ™ connection types, and FCoE is not as common as Fibre Channel. Reference: Page Number 231 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are Fiber Channel Worldwide Names (WWNs) likened to? A. IP address B. MAC address C. Usernames D. DNS "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are Fiber Channel Worldwide Names (WWNs) likened to? A. IP address B. MAC address C. Usernames D. DNS <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. MAC address Explanation: Fiber Channel Worldwide Names (WWNs) operates similar to a MAC address. They are hardware addresses that source and destination Fiber Channel devices agree upon. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. IP address - WWNs are not likened to IP address, they function more like MAC address. C. Usernames - WWNs are not likened to Usernames, they are hardware addresses not user identity. D. DNS - WWNs are not likened to DNS, they serve more similar function with MAC address. Reference: Page Number 231 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the function of a Converged Network Adapter (CNA) in a Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) setup? A. It acts as an Ethernet card and encapsulates FC commands into Ethernet frames. B. It reduces the need for Ethernet cables in the data center. C. It directly communicates with the FC storage unit. D. It forwards Ethernet packets to the FC switching plane. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the function of a Converged Network Adapter (CNA) in a Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) setup? A. It acts as an Ethernet card and encapsulates FC commands into Ethernet frames. B. It reduces the need for Ethernet cables in the data center. C. It directly communicates with the FC storage unit. D. It forwards Ethernet packets to the FC switching plane. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It acts as an Ethernet card and encapsulates FC commands into Ethernet frames. Explanation: The Converged Network Adapter (CNA) in a Fiber Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) setup acts as an Ethernet card and a Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter (HBA). When Fibre Channel commands are sent to the CNA, it encapsulates the FC data into an Ethernet frame and sends it to the data center switch. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Incorrect. The CNA does not reduce the need for Ethernet cables; rather, it consolidates communication over Ethernet cables by encapsulating Fibre Channel data. C. Incorrect. The CNA does not directly communicate with the FC storage unit; it sends encapsulated FC data to the data center switch, which then forwards it to the FC switching plane and eventually to the FC storage unit. D. Incorrect. The CNA does not forward Ethernet packets to the FC switching plane; it encapsulates FC commands into Ethernet frames and sends them to the data center switch, which then forwards the data. Reference: Page Number 232 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the typical speeds of iSCSI? A. 500 Mbps to 20 Gbps B. 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps C. 2 Mbps to 10 Gbps D. 100 Mbps to 15 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the typical speeds of iSCSI? A. 500 Mbps to 20 Gbps B. 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps C. 2 Mbps to 10 Gbps D. 100 Mbps to 15 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps Explanation: The typical speeds of iSCSI can range from 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps. This range allows for varying levels of data transfer depending on the specifics of the network and system setup. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 500 Mbps to 20 Gbps: This is incorrect. The typical speeds of iSCSI are higher, ranging from 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps. C. 2 Mbps to 10 Gbps: This is incorrect as the lower limit is too low and the higher limit is too low, the typical speeds of iSCSI are from 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps. D. 100 Mbps to 15 Gbps: This range is incorrect as the speeds of iSCSI range from 1 Gbps to 40 Gbps. Reference: Page Number 233 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is the major difference between InfiniBand and Fibre Channel? A. InfiniBand does not require any switched fabric B. Fibre Channel is used as a SAN connectivity type C. InfiniBand is designed to be an extremely low-latency, high-throughput, and lossless connection D. Very few companies produce the high-end switching equipment needed for InfiniBand "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is the major difference between InfiniBand and Fibre Channel? A. InfiniBand does not require any switched fabric B. Fibre Channel is used as a SAN connectivity type C. InfiniBand is designed to be an extremely low-latency, high-throughput, and lossless connection D. Very few companies produce the high-end switching equipment needed for InfiniBand <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Very few companies produce the high-end switching equipment needed for InfiniBand Explanation: The major difference between InfiniBand and Fibre Channel is that very few companies produce the high-end switching equipment needed for InfiniBand. This makes it different than Fibre Channel which has more manufacturers for its high-end switching equipment. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because InfiniBand still requires a switched fabric, just like Fibre Channel. Choice B is also incorrect because both InfiniBand and Fibre Channel are used as SAN connectivity types, so it is not a distinctive feature. Choice C is false as well because although InfiniBand is designed to be a low-latency, high-throughput, and lossless connection, itвЂ™s not a feature which differentiates it from Fibre Channel. Reference: Page Number 234 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)? A. On-demand self-service B. Resource pooling C. Rapid elasticity D. Limited network access "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is NOT a characteristic of cloud computing as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)? A. On-demand self-service B. Resource pooling C. Rapid elasticity D. Limited network access <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Limited network access Explanation: The NIST does not identify вЂ™Limited network accessвЂ™ as a defining characteristic of cloud computing. Instead, it specifies вЂ™Broad network accessвЂ™ as a key characteristic, meaning the services are accessible over a network and not limited to proprietary connections. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): вЂ™On-demand self-serviceвЂ™ is a characteristic of cloud computing which allows the customer to provision computer capabilities and resources without any human interaction. вЂ™Resource poolingвЂ™ refers to the sharing of resources across multiple virtual instances. вЂ™Rapid elasticityвЂ™ means computer capabilities can be provisioned based on the customerвЂ™s requirements and can be released when less resources are required. These are all characteristics as defined by the NIST. Reference: Page Number 236 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the вЂ™On-Demand Self-ServiceвЂ™ characteristic of cloud computing as defined by NIST entail? A. The capabilities are accessible over a network and are not a contrived system. B. Computer capabilities can be elastically provisioned based on the customerвЂ™s requirements. C. A customer can provision computer capabilities and resources without any human interaction. D. The intent is to time-share a pool of resources over many several virtual instances. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the вЂ™On-Demand Self-ServiceвЂ™ characteristic of cloud computing as defined by NIST entail? A. The capabilities are accessible over a network and are not a contrived system. B. Computer capabilities can be elastically provisioned based on the customerвЂ™s requirements. C. A customer can provision computer capabilities and resources without any human interaction. D. The intent is to time-share a pool of resources over many several virtual instances. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. A customer can provision computer capabilities and resources without any human interaction. Explanation: In the context of cloud computing and as defined by NIST, On-Demand Self-Service means that customers can independently provision computing capabilities such as CPU, storage, network resources, or instances of virtual machines without requiring human intervention from the service provider. This is a critical characteristic of cloud services, enabling scalability and flexibility. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Describes вЂ™Broad Network AccessвЂ™, not вЂ™On-Demand Self-ServiceвЂ™. B. Describes вЂ™Rapid ElasticityвЂ™, not вЂ™On-Demand Self-ServiceвЂ™. D. Describes вЂ™Resource PoolingвЂ™, not вЂ™On-Demand Self-ServiceвЂ™. Reference: Page Number 236 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is meant by вЂ™Broad Network AccessвЂ™ in the context of cloud computing according to NIST? A. It refers to the pool of resources that are shared over many virtual instances. B. It refers to the ability of cloud services to be accessible over a network, not being a proprietary system. C. It signifies the ability to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, etc. D. It refers to the process of allocating resources based on a customerвЂ™s requirements at the time. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is meant by вЂ™Broad Network AccessвЂ™ in the context of cloud computing according to NIST? A. It refers to the pool of resources that are shared over many virtual instances. B. It refers to the ability of cloud services to be accessible over a network, not being a proprietary system. C. It signifies the ability to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, etc. D. It refers to the process of allocating resources based on a customerвЂ™s requirements at the time. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It refers to the ability of cloud services to be accessible over a network, not being a proprietary system. Explanation: According to NIST, вЂ™Broad Network AccessвЂ™ refers to the network accessibility of cloud services. Unlike old mainframe systems that required a proprietary connection, cloud services can be accessed over a network. This access is not restricted to certain devices, and includes mobile devices, laptops, desktop computers, etc. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This description corresponds to вЂ™Resource PoolingвЂ™, another characteristic defined by NIST. C. Monitoring and measuring resource usage describes the вЂ™Measured ServiceвЂ™ characteristic. D. The ability to allocate and deallocate resources based on the load or customerвЂ™s requirement describes вЂ™Rapid ElasticityвЂ™, not вЂ™Broad Network AccessвЂ™. Reference: Page Number 236 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Resource Pooling refer to in the context of cloud computing according to the NIST? A. The capability of a cloud service to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, and accounts B. The provision of computer capabilities and resources, such as CPU, memory, storage, the network, instance of a virtual machine, or any other component of the service, without any human interaction C. The allocation and time-sharing of a pool of resources over multiple virtual instances D. The elastic provisioning of computer capabilities based on customerвЂ™s requirements, such as load "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Resource Pooling refer to in the context of cloud computing according to the NIST? A. The capability of a cloud service to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, and accounts B. The provision of computer capabilities and resources, such as CPU, memory, storage, the network, instance of a virtual machine, or any other component of the service, without any human interaction C. The allocation and time-sharing of a pool of resources over multiple virtual instances D. The elastic provisioning of computer capabilities based on customerвЂ™s requirements, such as load <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The allocation and time-sharing of a pool of resources over multiple virtual instances Explanation: According to the NIST, Resource Pooling in cloud computing refers to the practice of time-sharing a pool of computing resources over several virtual instances. Depending on the type of cloud (public or private), the resource pools can be allotted to different customers or within a single organization. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A refers to вЂ™Measured ServiceвЂ™, an aspect where resources are monitored and controlled. B describes вЂ™On-Demand Self-ServiceвЂ™, a characteristic where resources can be provisioned as needed without human interaction. D describes вЂ™Rapid ElasticityвЂ™, where resources can be provisioned and de-provisioned rapidly based on requirements. Reference: Page Number 236 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the concept of Rapid Elasticity as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)? A. The ability to time-share a pool of resources over several virtual instances B. The customerвЂ™s ability to provision computer capabilities without any human interaction C. Computer capabilities can be provisioned and released based on the customerвЂ™s requirements D. The ability to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, and accounts "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the concept of Rapid Elasticity as defined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)? A. The ability to time-share a pool of resources over several virtual instances B. The customerвЂ™s ability to provision computer capabilities without any human interaction C. Computer capabilities can be provisioned and released based on the customerвЂ™s requirements D. The ability to meter the resources of CPU, network, storage, and accounts <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Computer capabilities can be provisioned and released based on the customerвЂ™s requirements Explanation: Rapid elasticity is the characteristic of cloud computing that allows computer capabilities to be elastically provisioned or released based on the customerвЂ™s requirements at the time. For instance, a web-based company requiring additional capacity during peak times can have resources allocated during the peak and deallocated when the traffic decreases. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is the description of Resource Pooling, not Rapid Elasticity. B. This refers to On-demand self-service, not Rapid Elasticity. D. This refers to Measured Service, not Rapid Elasticity. Reference: Page Number 237 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the вЂ™Measured ServiceвЂ™ characteristic of cloud computing as defined by NIST entail? A. Services can be accessed on demand without any human interaction. B. It refers to the ability to share resources over several virtual instances. C. It allows for the provision and release of resources based on customerвЂ™s requirements. D. It involves the monitoring, reporting, and control of resource usage, often serving as a basis for charges. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the вЂ™Measured ServiceвЂ™ characteristic of cloud computing as defined by NIST entail? A. Services can be accessed on demand without any human interaction. B. It refers to the ability to share resources over several virtual instances. C. It allows for the provision and release of resources based on customerвЂ™s requirements. D. It involves the monitoring, reporting, and control of resource usage, often serving as a basis for charges. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It involves the monitoring, reporting, and control of resource usage, often serving as a basis for charges. Explanation: вЂ™Measured ServiceвЂ™ as defined by NIST for cloud computing refers to the capability to meter the usage of resources such as CPU, network, storage, and accounts. This usage is monitored, reported and controlled, and often serves as the basis for the charges applied for the cloud service. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The on-demand access of services without human interaction refers to вЂ™On-Demand Self-ServiceвЂ™. B. The sharing of resources over several virtual instances pertains to the aspect of вЂ™Resource PoolingвЂ™. C. The ability to provision and release resources on demand based on customerвЂ™s requirements is referred to as вЂ™Rapid ElasticityвЂ™. Reference: Page Number 237 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which cloud delivery model lets the user have equity in the equipment used for cloud computing? A. Public Cloud B. Private Cloud C. Hybrid Cloud D. Community Cloud "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which cloud delivery model lets the user have equity in the equipment used for cloud computing? A. Public Cloud B. Private Cloud C. Hybrid Cloud D. Community Cloud <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Private Cloud Explanation: Private clouds are owned and operated by a single organization. Here, the company purchases the equipment for cloud computing, hence having equity in the equipment. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Public Cloud: This is similar to renting a house. There is no equity in the service, as the computing power belongs to the provider. So, the user does not own the equipment used in this model. C. Hybrid Cloud: This is a mix of public and private cloud. While the private part might involve owning the equipment, the public part does not. So, it is not the best answer. D. Community Cloud: This is shared by organizations with similar needs. It does not necessarily involve owning the equipment. Reference: Page Number 237 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some reasons for a single organization to move to a private cloud deployment? A. Compatibility with legacy systems B. Monetary impact C. Regulations and privacy D. All of the above "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some reasons for a single organization to move to a private cloud deployment? A. Compatibility with legacy systems B. Monetary impact C. Regulations and privacy D. All of the above <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. All of the above Explanation: All the options listed are reasons why an organization might decide to use a private cloud deployment. Compatibility with legacy systems may be needed if public cloud offerings do not support them. Monetary impact is also a factor, as the organization may be able to better manage budgetary concerns with a private cloud. Lastly, regulations and privacy are a consideration as the organization has ultimate control over the cloud and its design. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Compatibility with legacy systems, B. Monetary impact, and C. Regulations and privacy are all correct, but they do not individually represent all the reasons an organization might decide to deploy a private cloud. Reference: Page Number 237 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why might heavily regulated industries struggle to use the public cloud model? A. It is too expensive B. There can be restrictions on where data can be stored and who can access it C. The public cloud model does not provide enough resources D. The public cloud model does not allow renting or leasing of compute time "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why might heavily regulated industries struggle to use the public cloud model? A. It is too expensive B. There can be restrictions on where data can be stored and who can access it C. The public cloud model does not provide enough resources D. The public cloud model does not allow renting or leasing of compute time <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. There can be restrictions on where data can be stored and who can access it Explanation: Heavily regulated industries often have stringent requirements for the storage and handling of data. They might not be able to use the public cloud because it does not give them enough control over where data is stored and who can access it. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While cost can sometimes be a consideration, the text does not suggest this as a specific challenge for heavily regulated industries. C. The public cloud model offers great elasticity of resources, which is typically an advantage rather than a problem. D. Renting or leasing of compute time is a feature of the public cloud model, not a restriction. Reference: Page Number 238 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the hybrid cloud model and what are its benefits? A. ItвЂ™s a standalone model that allows for local storage and server processing. B. ItвЂ™s a combination of the private and public cloud models, allowing for the elasticity of resources or additional capacity through вЂ™cloud burstingвЂ™. C. ItвЂ™s a model used only for private storage and server processing. D. ItвЂ™s a public cloud model that provides large capacity storage and immediate access to resources. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the hybrid cloud model and what are its benefits? A. ItвЂ™s a standalone model that allows for local storage and server processing. B. ItвЂ™s a combination of the private and public cloud models, allowing for the elasticity of resources or additional capacity through вЂ™cloud burstingвЂ™. C. ItвЂ™s a model used only for private storage and server processing. D. ItвЂ™s a public cloud model that provides large capacity storage and immediate access to resources. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. ItвЂ™s a combination of the private and public cloud models, allowing for the elasticity of resources or additional capacity through вЂ™cloud burstingвЂ™. Explanation: The hybrid cloud model is a combination of both the private and public cloud models, allowing for the elasticity of resources or additional capacity, which is also known as вЂ™cloud burstingвЂ™. This model is popular because it allows businesses to leverage public cloud providers while maintaining their own infrastructure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The statement is incorrect because the hybrid model uses both local (private) and public cloud resources, not just local. C. This statement is false because the hybrid cloud model uses resources from both the private and public clouds, not just the private. D. This statement is incorrect as it only describes aspects of a public cloud model and not a hybrid one. Reference: Page Number 239 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the community cloud model? A. A cloud model used only in the healthcare and financial sectors B. A singular infrastructure shared by a group of organizations with specific requirements C. A cloud model used by all government and educational institutions D. A cloud model that restricts access to other membersвЂ™ clouds "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the community cloud model? A. A cloud model used only in the healthcare and financial sectors B. A singular infrastructure shared by a group of organizations with specific requirements C. A cloud model used by all government and educational institutions D. A cloud model that restricts access to other membersвЂ™ clouds <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. A singular infrastructure shared by a group of organizations with specific requirements Explanation: The community cloud model refers to a shared infrastructure among a group of organizations that have similar specific requirements, such as security or special access to another memberвЂ™s cloud. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While community clouds are commonly used in the healthcare and financial sectors, they are not limited to these sectors. C. While government and educational institutions are large adopters of the community cloud model, not all of them use it. D. Community clouds do not restrict access to other membersвЂ™ clouds; rather, they may require special access to another memberвЂ™s cloud. Reference: Page Number 240 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), which three service types are defined for cloud computing? A. Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) B. Networking as a Service (NaaS), Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) C. Software as a Service (SaaS), Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS), and Networking as a Service (NaaS) D. Internet as a Service (InaaS), NaaS, and PaaS "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), which three service types are defined for cloud computing? A. Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) B. Networking as a Service (NaaS), Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) C. Software as a Service (SaaS), Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS), and Networking as a Service (NaaS) D. Internet as a Service (InaaS), NaaS, and PaaS <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) Explanation: The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) has officially defined three service types for cloud computing: Software as a Service (SaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS). Even though there are more service types in cloud computing, NIST believes these additional services fall under one of the already established categories. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Networking as a Service (NaaS) and Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) are not defined as separate categories by NIST, but rather are included under the existing ones. C. DRaaS and Networking as a Service (NaaS) are not defined as separate categories by NIST. D. NIST does not have a service type called вЂ™Internet as a Service (InaaS)вЂ™, and it does not categorize NaaS as a separate service type. Reference: Page Number 242 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the definition of Software as a Service (SaaS) in the context of cloud computing? A. It is a model of cloud computing that allows customers to generate code on the providerвЂ™s platform B. It is an application owned and maintained by the user C. It is any application that you use but do not own or maintain, provided and maintained by the service provider on its cloud D. It is a model of cloud computing that provides storage like SQL "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the definition of Software as a Service (SaaS) in the context of cloud computing? A. It is a model of cloud computing that allows customers to generate code on the providerвЂ™s platform B. It is an application owned and maintained by the user C. It is any application that you use but do not own or maintain, provided and maintained by the service provider on its cloud D. It is a model of cloud computing that provides storage like SQL <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is any application that you use but do not own or maintain, provided and maintained by the service provider on its cloud Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is defined as any application that users access and use but neither own nor maintain on their end. The service is typically accessed through a web browser and is maintained by the service provider on its cloud. Examples of SaaS include Facebook, Gmail, and many other services. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This definition refers to Platform as a Service (PaaS), not Software as a Service (SaaS). B. This is not correct because in SaaS model, the applications are owned and maintained by the service provider, not the user. D. This description refers to a function of some PaaS platforms, not to SaaS. Reference: Page Number 242 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is an accurate description of the Platform as a Service (PaaS) model of cloud computing? A. PaaS is any application that you use but do not own or maintain. B. PaaS allows a customer to generate code on the providerвЂ™s platform that can be executed. C. PaaS only includes web hosting services like GoDaddy and A Small Orange. D. PaaS providers charge the customer based on the amount of storage used. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is an accurate description of the Platform as a Service (PaaS) model of cloud computing? A. PaaS is any application that you use but do not own or maintain. B. PaaS allows a customer to generate code on the providerвЂ™s platform that can be executed. C. PaaS only includes web hosting services like GoDaddy and A Small Orange. D. PaaS providers charge the customer based on the amount of storage used. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. PaaS allows a customer to generate code on the providerвЂ™s platform that can be executed. Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) allows a customer to generate code on the providerвЂ™s platform that can be executed. This means customers can develop applications on the providerвЂ™s platform, which can then run on the cloud. Google App Engine is a good example of a PaaS provider. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This description corresponds to Software as a Service (SaaS), not PaaS. In SaaS, the user does not own or maintain the application. C. While web hosting services like GoDaddy are indeed examples of PaaS, the model is not limited to only these services. PaaS can also cover application development platforms like Google App Engine. D. PaaS providers typically charge customers based on the computing resources consumed (CPU cycles used), not just storage. Reference: Page Number 243 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the IaaS model of cloud computing? A. It allows customers to use the providerвЂ™s infrastructure of compute, network, and storage B. It involves processing of data on the end-user computer C. It revolves around having software support on thin client devices D. It involves direct purchase of physical infrastructure "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the IaaS model of cloud computing? A. It allows customers to use the providerвЂ™s infrastructure of compute, network, and storage B. It involves processing of data on the end-user computer C. It revolves around having software support on thin client devices D. It involves direct purchase of physical infrastructure <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It allows customers to use the providerвЂ™s infrastructure of compute, network, and storage Explanation: IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides cloud-based services and network architecture to users. In this model, customers can utilize the infrastructure of compute, network, and storage provided by companies like AWS, Microsoft Azure, and Rackspace. The customer does not need to concern themselves with the specifics of the host server or storage; the provider manages all the infrastructure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. This explanation describes the standard compute model, not IaaS. C. The thin client model is more closely related to DaaS (Desktop as a Service) than IaaS. D. In the IaaS model, customers rent the infrastructure from the provider instead of making a direct purchase. Reference: Page Number 243 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary benefit of Desktop as a Service (DaaS) in terms of security? A. It allows for data processing in the cloud B. It reduces the risk of physical theft of the edge device C. It increases the speed of the connection D. It enables the use of multiple operating systems "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary benefit of Desktop as a Service (DaaS) in terms of security? A. It allows for data processing in the cloud B. It reduces the risk of physical theft of the edge device C. It increases the speed of the connection D. It enables the use of multiple operating systems <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It allows for data processing in the cloud Explanation: DaaS pushes the processing of data to the cloud. This means that the edge device, or userвЂ™s computer, does not retain a copy of the data that could otherwise be copied onto a USB drive or potentially stolen. This mitigates the risk of data theft or data loss due to malicious activities. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. While DaaS may lessen the impact of physical theft because data does not reside on the edge device, its main security benefit is not about physically protecting the device. C. DaaS does not directly impact the connection speed. D. While DaaS may allow for use of different devices (thin clients), it doesnвЂ™t directly enable use of multiple operating systems. Reference: Page Number 244 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC) and how it is related to DevOps? A. IaC is a manual way of handling network operations and it is not related to DevOps. B. IaC is a term used to describe the ability of developers to provision infrastructure and become an integral part of IT, giving rise to the term DevOps. C. IaC is a simplified process of bug testing by developers and it has a direct link with DevOps. D. IaC is a process involving ticket submission by developers to network operations for managing infrastructure, leading to DevOps. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC) and how it is related to DevOps? A. IaC is a manual way of handling network operations and it is not related to DevOps. B. IaC is a term used to describe the ability of developers to provision infrastructure and become an integral part of IT, giving rise to the term DevOps. C. IaC is a simplified process of bug testing by developers and it has a direct link with DevOps. D. IaC is a process involving ticket submission by developers to network operations for managing infrastructure, leading to DevOps. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. IaC is a term used to describe the ability of developers to provision infrastructure and become an integral part of IT, giving rise to the term DevOps. Explanation: The text describes Infrastructure as Code (IaC) as a practice that gives developers the ability to provision infrastructure, essentially making developers an extension of IT operations. This combination of development and operations is the essence of the term DevOps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This option is incorrect as IaC is not a manual way of handling operations rather it automates the provisioning process. Also, it is closely related to DevOps. C. IaC does not specifically concern bug testing although the development cycle involves testing, IaC primarily concerns the provisioning of infrastructure. D. This option is incorrect as IaC actually aims to remove the need for ticket-based requests by giving developers the power to provision their own infrastructure. Reference: Page Number 244 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a potential drawback of using an imperative approach in orchestrating tasks for installing an application? A. The need for a developer to configure specifics such as hostname or IP. B. ItвЂ™s a less classic approach compared to the declarative approach. C. The success of an installation step can be dependent on the successful completion of a previous step. D. The developer has no control over the installation steps that are executed. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a potential drawback of using an imperative approach in orchestrating tasks for installing an application? A. The need for a developer to configure specifics such as hostname or IP. B. ItвЂ™s a less classic approach compared to the declarative approach. C. The success of an installation step can be dependent on the successful completion of a previous step. D. The developer has no control over the installation steps that are executed. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The success of an installation step can be dependent on the successful completion of a previous step. Explanation: In an imperative approach, steps are listed sequentially to reach a desired state. If a step fails, subsequent steps that rely on the successful completion of that step will also fail. This means that if a step in the middle of the installation process were to fail, it would necessitate debugging of the preceding lines to identify what changed that caused the failure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect. In an imperative approach, configuring specifics like hostname or IP is not a pitfall as they can be turned into variables. B. Incorrect. The classic nature of an approach does not inherently hold any drawbacks. D. Incorrect. Developers have direct control over the installation steps in an imperative approach as they are defining the steps sequentially in order to reach the desired state. Reference: Page Number 245 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes a declarative approach in Infrastructure as Code (IaC)? A. It lists all the steps to get to the desired state, like installing Ubuntu 20.04, configuring hostname, installing Apache etc. B. It relies heavily on the order of installation and if one step errors, the preceding lines need to be debugged. C. It presents a desired state, like having an Ubuntu server with Apache, PHP, and MySQL installed, and doesnвЂ™t concern itself with how that state is reached. D. It requires manual creation of environments for each developer. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes a declarative approach in Infrastructure as Code (IaC)? A. It lists all the steps to get to the desired state, like installing Ubuntu 20.04, configuring hostname, installing Apache etc. B. It relies heavily on the order of installation and if one step errors, the preceding lines need to be debugged. C. It presents a desired state, like having an Ubuntu server with Apache, PHP, and MySQL installed, and doesnвЂ™t concern itself with how that state is reached. D. It requires manual creation of environments for each developer. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It presents a desired state, like having an Ubuntu server with Apache, PHP, and MySQL installed, and doesnвЂ™t concern itself with how that state is reached. Explanation: In a declarative approach, a desired endpoint or state is specified, and the details of how that endpoint is reached are abstracted away. This approach doesnвЂ™t focus on the specific steps or sequence in which these steps should happen, making it more flexible and efficient in deploying identical setups across multiple environments. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This describes an imperative approach, not a declarative approach. B. This misconception is attributed to the imperative approach rather than the declarative approach. D. This statement is not relevant to the declarative approach in Infrastructure as Code (IaC). Manual creation of environments refers to the traditional/silo approach to network operations. Reference: Page Number 245 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the primary benefits of using orchestration software? A. It can only be utilized by skilled developers. B. It enables developers to pay for computer time by the hour. C. It allows developers to spin up and down servers on demand. D. It requires a dedicated server to run. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the primary benefits of using orchestration software? A. It can only be utilized by skilled developers. B. It enables developers to pay for computer time by the hour. C. It allows developers to spin up and down servers on demand. D. It requires a dedicated server to run. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It allows developers to spin up and down servers on demand. Explanation: Orchestration software enables developers to spin up and down servers on demand. This means they can create a Virtual Machine (VM) when they start their day and discard it at the end of the day, paying for computer time used by the second. This makes their work scalable and efficient. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Orchestration software can be utilized by anyone, you donвЂ™t have to be a skilled developer to reap the benefits. It can also be used for installing specific services for a reference server. B: The text mentions that, with orchestration software, computer time is typically paid by the second, not the hour. D: Orchestration software does not explicitly require a dedicated server to run; it can be used on a developerвЂ™s VM or on a cloud-based environment. Reference: Page Number 246 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary configuration language of Chef, and how does it perform installations? A. Python, with a push method from a master server B. Ruby DSL, with a pull method from a master server using the SSH protocol C. Ruby DSL, with push commands sequentially to destination servers D. Puppet DSL and ERB templates, with the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary configuration language of Chef, and how does it perform installations? A. Python, with a push method from a master server B. Ruby DSL, with a pull method from a master server using the SSH protocol C. Ruby DSL, with push commands sequentially to destination servers D. Puppet DSL and ERB templates, with the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Ruby DSL, with a pull method from a master server using the SSH protocol Explanation: Chef uses Ruby Domain-specific language (DSL) to perform configuration tasks. It uses a pull method for installations, with agents periodically polling a master server for infrastructure changes using the SSH protocol. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Python is not used for configurations in Chef, and installations are performed with a pull method, not push. C. Ruby DSL is used for configurations in Chef, but it does not push commands to servers. It uses a pull method from a master server. D. Puppet DSL and ERB templates are used by Puppet, not Chef, and the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS is also specific to Puppet. Reference: Page Number 246 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which Protocol does Puppet use periodically to poll the master server? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS D. TCP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which Protocol does Puppet use periodically to poll the master server? A. HTTPS B. SSH C. XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS D. TCP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS Explanation: Puppet uses XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS to periodically poll the master server. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because HTTPS is used in Puppet but within XML-RPC protocol. Choice B is incorrect because SSH is actually used by Chef, not Puppet. Choice D is incorrect because although TCP is a protocol, itвЂ™s not specifically used by Puppet in this context. Reference: Page Number 246 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of orchestration software, what does Ansible do? A. It uses a pull method of installation from a master server with the SSH protocol. B. It was created as a replacement for Chef and Puppet and allows for a hybrid approach to orchestration. C. It is a client-server architecture and its configuration is performed with a Ruby domain-specific language. D. Agents periodically poll the master server with the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of orchestration software, what does Ansible do? A. It uses a pull method of installation from a master server with the SSH protocol. B. It was created as a replacement for Chef and Puppet and allows for a hybrid approach to orchestration. C. It is a client-server architecture and its configuration is performed with a Ruby domain-specific language. D. Agents periodically poll the master server with the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It was created as a replacement for Chef and Puppet and allows for a hybrid approach to orchestration. Explanation: Ansible was developed as a simplifying tool for complex orchestration that is capable of scaling. It takes a declarative approach to orchestration, but also allows for commands to be implanted, similar to imperative tools, thus making it considered a hybrid orchestration tool. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because Ansible does not use a pull method of installation from a master server with the SSH protocol. This is a feature of Chef. Choice C is incorrect because Ansible does not operate on a client-server architecture thatвЂ™s configured with a Ruby domain-specific language, this describes Chef. Choice D is incorrect because agents do not periodically poll the master server with the XML-RPC protocol over HTTPS in Ansible, this is a characteristic of Puppet. Reference: Page Number 246 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main methods for providing secure access to applications hosted in public clouds that need access to a private data center? A. SSL and SSH B. Firewalls and IDS systems C. VPN and Private-Direct Connection D. MPLS and LAN "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main methods for providing secure access to applications hosted in public clouds that need access to a private data center? A. SSL and SSH B. Firewalls and IDS systems C. VPN and Private-Direct Connection D. MPLS and LAN <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. VPN and Private-Direct Connection Explanation: The two main methods for providing secure access to applications hosted in public clouds that need to access a private data center are via a VPN (virtual private network) and via a Private-Direct Connection. The VPN method involves creating a secure, encrypted tunnel to transmit data over the internet. The Private-Direct Connection method is via a WAN (wide area network) build-out that requires planning and can tie you to a specific data center location. It is costly but provides high security and low latency. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): SSL and SSH are cryptographic protocols used for secure transmission of data over networks but are not primary methods used for accessing applications in public clouds that need to connect to a private data center (A). Firewalls and IDS (Intrusion Detection Systems) are security measures, not connectivity methods (B). MPLS and LAN are also not the primary methods for securing such access (D). Reference: Page Number 247 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What issue could arise with the quality of service when using a VPN to access applications in a public cloud? A. The VPN does not allow for any kind of encryption B. Applications that are prone to latency might run poorly C. The VPN reduces the overall data bandwidth D. The VPN prevents direct access to the cloud provider "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What issue could arise with the quality of service when using a VPN to access applications in a public cloud? A. The VPN does not allow for any kind of encryption B. Applications that are prone to latency might run poorly C. The VPN reduces the overall data bandwidth D. The VPN prevents direct access to the cloud provider <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Applications that are prone to latency might run poorly Explanation: VPNs can transmit data securely over the Internet through an encrypted tunnel. However, this method does not guarantee a certain level of quality of service end to end. Therefore, applications that are sensitive to latency might run poorly over a VPN. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The VPN does allow for encryption, thatвЂ™s one of its main features. C. While a VPN can contribute to a slower Internet connection, it doesnвЂ™t specifically reduce the overall data bandwidth. D. A VPN does not prevent direct access to the cloud provider. It actually provides a secure connection to the cloud. Reference: Page Number 247 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main methods of connecting applications in a public cloud to a private data center? A. Ethernet and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) and Private-Direct Connection C. Broadband Internet and Satellite Connection D. Wireless and Fiber-Optic Connection "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main methods of connecting applications in a public cloud to a private data center? A. Ethernet and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) and Private-Direct Connection C. Broadband Internet and Satellite Connection D. Wireless and Fiber-Optic Connection <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) and Private-Direct Connection Explanation: The two main methods of connection discussed in the text are through a Virtual Private Network (VPN) and a Private-Direct Connection. The VPN can be set up using a virtual appliance provided by the cloud provider or by installing your own. A Private-Direct Connection requires building a private WAN to the public cloud with the aid of a WAN provider or ISP, and offers high security and low latency. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ethernet and Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) - While MPLS is mentioned as a method of connectivity, it is different from a private-direct connection and not used as a main connection method discussed in the text. Ethernet is not mentioned as a connection method at all. C. Broadband Internet and Satellite Connection - Broadband may be used to access cloud applications but is not a main method to connect applications to a private data center. Satellite connection is not mentioned in the text. D. Wireless and Fiber-Optic Connection - Fiber optics may be used in a private-direct connection, but wireless is not mentioned as a main method to connect applications to a private data center. Reference: Page Number 247 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is meant by the term вЂ™MultitenantвЂ™? A. A single user who shares a pool of resources B. The act of reserving access to certain resources for one group C. A platform that supports multiple users or devices at the same time D. A location where hardware is stored "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is meant by the term вЂ™MultitenantвЂ™? A. A single user who shares a pool of resources B. The act of reserving access to certain resources for one group C. A platform that supports multiple users or devices at the same time D. A location where hardware is stored <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. A platform that supports multiple users or devices at the same time Explanation: A вЂ™MultitenantвЂ™ refers to a platform that accommodates multiple users, devices, or groups (tenants) simultaneously. Each tenant shares a pool of resources and has specific privileges. This term is often used in contexts like Microsoft 365 where multiple organizations operate on the same set of servers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect, вЂ™TenantвЂ™ refers to a group of users or devices, not an individual user. B. Incorrect, this describes a tenantвЂ™s privilege, but it doesnвЂ™t define what a вЂ™multitenantвЂ™ is. D. Incorrect, a вЂ™multitenantвЂ™ refers to a platform that supports multiple groups or users, not a location for hardware storage. Reference: Page Number 247 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does elasticity refer to in the context of cloud computing, as per NIST publication SP 800-145? A. Ability to suffer data loss without affecting the userвЂ™s experience B. Ability to scale computing resources as required, without requiring human interaction with the service provider C. Hardware troubleshooting by the cloud provider D. Ensuring optimal security measures in cloud-based platforms "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does elasticity refer to in the context of cloud computing, as per NIST publication SP 800-145? A. Ability to suffer data loss without affecting the userвЂ™s experience B. Ability to scale computing resources as required, without requiring human interaction with the service provider C. Hardware troubleshooting by the cloud provider D. Ensuring optimal security measures in cloud-based platforms <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Ability to scale computing resources as required, without requiring human interaction with the service provider Explanation: In cloud computing, the term вЂ™elasticityвЂ™ refers to the ability for users to scale their computing resources, such as virtual CPU, virtual RAM, network bandwidth, storage etc., (add or remove them) as needed, without requiring any human interaction with the service provider. This scaling is normally performed automatically through a GUI, command line, or an API, and sometimes can be done without a system reboot or service disruption. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Data loss mitigation isnвЂ™t specifically tied to the concept of elasticity. Elasticity deals with resource scaling. C. Hardware troubleshooting by the cloud provider isnвЂ™t directly related to the elasticity concept, which deals largely with provisioning of virtual resources; not physical hardware. D. Security measures are important in all aspects of cloud computing but do not directly associate with the concept of elasticity. Reference: Page Number 248 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the concept of scalability in the context of network resources? A. Increasing resources dynamically to meet current demand B. Deciding to place a web server across multiple data centers C. Decreasing virtual CPU when the load has subsided D. Ensuring the application is written to be optimized for scalability "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the concept of scalability in the context of network resources? A. Increasing resources dynamically to meet current demand B. Deciding to place a web server across multiple data centers C. Decreasing virtual CPU when the load has subsided D. Ensuring the application is written to be optimized for scalability <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Deciding to place a web server across multiple data centers Explanation: Scalability, in the given passage, is defined as a strategic approach to managing resources. This involves decisions such as placing a web server across multiple data centers to ensure that an application or service has the resources it needs as demand increases. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Increasing resources dynamically to meet current demand describes elasticity not scalability, which is a more tactical approach. C. Decreasing virtual CPU when the load has subsided is also part of the elasticity approach. D. Ensuring the application is written to be optimized for scalability is indeed important, but it is not the core definition of scalability as described in the passage. Reference: Page Number 248 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of encryption should be utilized to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks, prevent data interception, and ensure identity theft protection when data is transmitted to or from the public cloud? A. One-way encryption B. Asymmetric encryption C. Symmetric encryption D. None, encryption is not necessary "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of encryption should be utilized to prevent man-in-the-middle attacks, prevent data interception, and ensure identity theft protection when data is transmitted to or from the public cloud? A. One-way encryption B. Asymmetric encryption C. Symmetric encryption D. None, encryption is not necessary <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Asymmetric encryption Explanation: Asymmetric encryption is typically used in instances where data must be sent over an untrusted network (like the Internet). This type of encryption allows for the authentication of the data and strong encryption, which can prevent replay attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and interception of the data. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. One-way encryption is not applicable because it doesnвЂ™t support data authentication and is not strong enough to prevent interference or interception. C. Symmetric encryption doesnвЂ™t provide enough security because if the encryption key is discovered, the data would be vulnerable to interception. D. Encryption is necessary to secure data in transit over unsecure networks. Reference: Page Number 249 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a common setup for enterprise networks in terms of cloud resources allocation? A. All applications are hosted locally in the companyвЂ™s private cloud B. All applications are hosted remotely in the public cloud C. Most applications should be hosted in the public cloud and occasionally in the private cloud D. Most enterprise networks are built on a hybrid cloud model "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a common setup for enterprise networks in terms of cloud resources allocation? A. All applications are hosted locally in the companyвЂ™s private cloud B. All applications are hosted remotely in the public cloud C. Most applications should be hosted in the public cloud and occasionally in the private cloud D. Most enterprise networks are built on a hybrid cloud model <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Most enterprise networks are built on a hybrid cloud model Explanation: The text states вЂ™It is common for most enterprise networks to be built on a hybrid cloud modelвЂ™ where some resources are hosted locally (private cloud) and some resources are hosted remotely (public cloud). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because not all applications are hosted locally in the companyвЂ™s private cloud. Some applications are more suited to be hosted remotely in the public cloud. Choice B is incorrect because not all applications are hosted remotely in the public cloud. Certain applications such as file services should be hosted locally. Choice C is incorrect because it doesnвЂ™t accurately reflect the concept of a hybrid cloud model, which involves both local and remote hosting of resources depending on the requirements or nature of the applications. Reference: Page Number 249 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which among the following is a key difference between network devices and networked devices? A. Network devices are used to connect networked devices. B. Networked devices are used to connect network devices. C. Network devices and networked devices have the same function. D. Networked devices are not necessary for creating a network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which among the following is a key difference between network devices and networked devices? A. Network devices are used to connect networked devices. B. Networked devices are used to connect network devices. C. Network devices and networked devices have the same function. D. Networked devices are not necessary for creating a network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Network devices are used to connect networked devices. Explanation: The key difference between network devices and networked devices is that network devices are used to connect networked devices. As an example mentioned in the passage, a switch (network device) is used to connect a VoIP phone (networked device). This fundamental understanding is crucial when creating a network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. This is incorrect. ItвЂ™s the network devices that connect networked devices, not the other way around. C. This is incorrect because network devices and networked devices do serve different functions. Network devices are used for connecting while networked devices are those being connected. D. This is incorrect. Networked devices are necessary as they are the ones that will be connected by network devices. Reference: Page Number 260 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the functionality of a hub in a network? A. Hubs function at layer 7 (application layer) of the OSI model and perform complex routing. B. Hubs function as multiport repeaters at the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model, repeating Ethernet frames on all ports. C. Hubs boost the fiber-optic signal in WAN applications over long distances. D. Hubs drop frames from devices not participating in the exchange of data, conserving useful bandwidth. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the functionality of a hub in a network? A. Hubs function at layer 7 (application layer) of the OSI model and perform complex routing. B. Hubs function as multiport repeaters at the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model, repeating Ethernet frames on all ports. C. Hubs boost the fiber-optic signal in WAN applications over long distances. D. Hubs drop frames from devices not participating in the exchange of data, conserving useful bandwidth. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Hubs function as multiport repeaters at the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model, repeating Ethernet frames on all ports. Explanation: Hubs operate at the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model. They function as multiport repeaters, repeating the Ethernet frames sent by any device on all other connected ports. This behavior forces devices not participating in the specific exchange of data to вЂ™listenвЂ™ to the conversation and takes up bandwidth, even though these non-participating devices will simply drop the frames. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Hubs do not function at layer 7 (application layer). They function at the Physical layer (layer 1) and do not perform complex routing. C. It is Repeaters, not Hubs, that are used to boost fiber-optic signals for WAN applications over long distances. D. Hubs do not actively drop frames; devices not participating in a specific exchange of data will do this themselves. Hubs repeating frames on all ports actually consume useful bandwidth, not conserve it. Reference: Page Number 260 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Repeaters is correct based on the provided text? A. Repeaters are most commonly used in local area networks (LANs) as a network connectivity device. B. Repeaters are used to boost a fiber-optic signal every 200 Kms when fiber-optic lines are run across a long distance. C. Repeaters act as a security device on a network. D. Repeaters are most commonly used in Wi-Fi networks. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Repeaters is correct based on the provided text? A. Repeaters are most commonly used in local area networks (LANs) as a network connectivity device. B. Repeaters are used to boost a fiber-optic signal every 200 Kms when fiber-optic lines are run across a long distance. C. Repeaters act as a security device on a network. D. Repeaters are most commonly used in Wi-Fi networks. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Repeaters are used to boost a fiber-optic signal every 200 Kms when fiber-optic lines are run across a long distance. Explanation: According to the text, repeaters enhance incoming signals and retransmit them. They were initially used in networking when the attenuation of a signal was an issue. Today, repeaters are used in WAN applications like fiber-optic communications, where they are used to boost the signal every 200 Kms when fiber-optic lines are run across a long span. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Repeaters are not most commonly used in local area networks (LANs) as network connectivity devices, as they have been superseded by other modern devices. C. Repeaters do not act as security devices on a network. Their main function is to boost and retransmit signals. D. The text does not specifically state that repeaters are most commonly used in Wi-Fi networks. Reference: Page Number 261 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What function does a media converter serve in a network setup? A. It ensures that data is encrypted when passing through different media. B. It repeats a digital signal on a different media, converting the signal on the new media. C. It increases the bandwidth of the network. D. It segments the network further for security and control of broadcasts. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What function does a media converter serve in a network setup? A. It ensures that data is encrypted when passing through different media. B. It repeats a digital signal on a different media, converting the signal on the new media. C. It increases the bandwidth of the network. D. It segments the network further for security and control of broadcasts. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It repeats a digital signal on a different media, converting the signal on the new media. Explanation: A media converter repeats a digital signal on a different media type, allowing conversion between copper Ethernet and fiber-optic cable, for example. This allows for network connectivity over distances greater than copper EthernetвЂ™s limit of 100 meters. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Encryption isnвЂ™t typically a function of media converters, but rather of protocols and devices at higher layers of the OSI model. C. Media converters do not inherently increase the bandwidth of a network; they simply enable transmission over a different type of media. D. Segmenting the network for security and control of broadcasts is a feature of managed switches, not media converters. Reference: Page Number 262 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following functions do switches perform at layer 2 (Data Link Layer)? A. Routing B. MAC address learning and forward filter decisions based on MAC addresses learned C. Transmission of analog signals D. Conversion between copper Ethernet and fiber-optic cable. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following functions do switches perform at layer 2 (Data Link Layer)? A. Routing B. MAC address learning and forward filter decisions based on MAC addresses learned C. Transmission of analog signals D. Conversion between copper Ethernet and fiber-optic cable. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. MAC address learning and forward filter decisions based on MAC addresses learned Explanation: Switches function at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model. At this layer, switches perform MAC address learning and make forward filter decisions based on the MAC addresses learned. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Routing is performed at Layer 3 (Network Layer), not Layer 2. C: Analogue signals are the domain of Layer 1 (Physical Layer), not Layer 2. D: The conversion between copper ethernet and fiber-optic cable is achieved by media converters, not switches. Reference: Page Number 262 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What functionality is performed by bridges? A. Routing decisions based on destination IP addresses B. Address learning and filtering decisions based on the MAC address table C. Segmentation of broadcast domains D. Fast ASIC functionality "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What functionality is performed by bridges? A. Routing decisions based on destination IP addresses B. Address learning and filtering decisions based on the MAC address table C. Segmentation of broadcast domains D. Fast ASIC functionality <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Address learning and filtering decisions based on the MAC address table Explanation: Bridges perform address learning and forward filtering decisions based on the MAC address table. They can even use Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). They are usually software-based switches and do not have the functionality of fast Application-Specific Integrated Circuits (ASICs) that physical switches do. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Routing decisions based on destination IP addresses are performed by routers, not bridges. C. Segmentation of broadcast domains is also a function of routers, not bridges. D. Fast ASIC functionality is performed by physical switches, not bridges, which are usually software-based. Reference: Page Number 263 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What vital function do routers perform in network architecture? A. They perform address learning and forwarding decisions based on MAC address B. They bridge traffic via the operating system C. They segment broadcast domains D. They extend the wireless network to the Ethernet network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What vital function do routers perform in network architecture? A. They perform address learning and forwarding decisions based on MAC address B. They bridge traffic via the operating system C. They segment broadcast domains D. They extend the wireless network to the Ethernet network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They segment broadcast domains Explanation: Routers play a critical role in segmenting broadcast domains, which define the boundary within which a network broadcast message can be heard. This functionality is fundamental to controlling network traffic and ensuring efficient data packet delivery. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is a function performed by bridges, not routers. Routers make decisions based on the destination IP address, not MAC addresses. B. This is a function of bridge functionality applied in operating systems but not a primary function of routers. D. While routers can connect different networks, they do not primarily function to extend wireless networks to Ethernet networks; such a function is more associated with wireless access points or bridge functions. Reference: Page Number 264 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the special functionality that a layer 3 switch brings compared to a layer 2 switch? A. It can participate in dynamic routing protocols B. It only routes between VLANs C. It can generate its own electricity D. It does not support switchports "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the special functionality that a layer 3 switch brings compared to a layer 2 switch? A. It can participate in dynamic routing protocols B. It only routes between VLANs C. It can generate its own electricity D. It does not support switchports <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It can participate in dynamic routing protocols Explanation: A layer 3 switch is capable of both switching functionality and routing functionality. One specific feature is that they can participate in dynamic routing protocols, given the right type or model. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B is incorrect because while layer 3 switches can indeed route between VLANs, it is not their only function. C is incorrect because switches do not generate their own electricity, they need to be powered by an external source. D is incorrect because layer 3 switches can support switchports, which can even be converted to routed ports in some instances. Reference: Page Number 265 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of a Wireless Access Point (WAP)? A. To extend the wired network to a wireless network B. To provide internet service to wired devices C. To store network data D. To act as a firewall for the network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of a Wireless Access Point (WAP)? A. To extend the wired network to a wireless network B. To provide internet service to wired devices C. To store network data D. To act as a firewall for the network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. To extend the wired network to a wireless network Explanation: The main functional role of a Wireless Access Point (WAP) is to act as a bridge, extending the wired network to a wireless network. This allows mobile devices and specialized wireless-enabled equipment to access the network infrastructure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. WAPs do not provide internet service to wired devices, they simply allow wireless devices to connect to the already established wired network. C. WAPs do not store network data. D. WAPs are not designed to act as a firewall for the network, their role is to switch traffic between wireless clients and wired components. Reference: Page Number 266 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a wireless LAN controller (WLC or WLAN Controller) when deploying access points? A. It controls only internal functions of the access points like SSID and channel assignment. B. It allows the access points to maintain their full operating system. C. It facilitates aspects such as coordination and deployment services for the client and access points. D. It only manages the configuration data for diagnostics. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a wireless LAN controller (WLC or WLAN Controller) when deploying access points? A. It controls only internal functions of the access points like SSID and channel assignment. B. It allows the access points to maintain their full operating system. C. It facilitates aspects such as coordination and deployment services for the client and access points. D. It only manages the configuration data for diagnostics. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It facilitates aspects such as coordination and deployment services for the client and access points. Explanation: The text explains that a WLC or WLAN Controller provides coordination services for clients as well as deployment services for access points in the network. It also highlights that it is responsible for the control, data, and management planes of the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The WLAN controller does more than just controlling internal functions of the access points. It also does coordination and deployment for the client and access points. B. The access points donвЂ™t need their full operating system; they can use a trimmed-down version known as a lightweight operating system under the direction of the WLAN controller. D. The WLAN controller manages more than just configuration data. It coordinates services for the client, manages the deployment for the access points, and handles data, control, and management planes. Reference: Page Number 268 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a major drawback of using a wireless range extender? A. It decreases the network security B. It reduces the bandwidth by 50 percent C. It requires complex configurations D. It cannot rebroadcast the SSID "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a major drawback of using a wireless range extender? A. It decreases the network security B. It reduces the bandwidth by 50 percent C. It requires complex configurations D. It cannot rebroadcast the SSID <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It reduces the bandwidth by 50 percent Explanation: The major drawback of a wireless range extender is that it reduces the bandwidth by 50 percent as all network communications now must travel two wireless signals to reach the wired network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The text does not mention that wireless range extenders decrease network security. C. The configuration process for a wireless range extender is not mentioned as being particularly complex. D. Wireless range extenders do rebroadcast the SSID as part of their operation. Reference: Page Number 269 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> At which layers do load balancers typically function and make their decisions? A. Layer 7 only B. Layer 4 and Layer 3 C. Layer 2 and Layer 1 D. Layer 6 and Layer 5 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> At which layers do load balancers typically function and make their decisions? A. Layer 7 only B. Layer 4 and Layer 3 C. Layer 2 and Layer 1 D. Layer 6 and Layer 5 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Layer 4 and Layer 3 Explanation: Load balancers typically function at layer 4 (Transport layer) and layer 3 (Network layer), inspecting the Transport layer ports and destination IP addresses. Based on this information and the load of ongoing requests from other users, they decide to forward the new request to the next available server. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Despite Load balancers also functioning at layer 7 (Application layer), they do not function at this layer alone, making this option incorrect. C. Load balancers do not function at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) or Layer 1 (Physical Layer). D. Load balancers do not function at Layer 6 (Presentation Layer) or Layer 5 (Session Layer). These layers are not mentioned as relevant in the context of load balancersвЂ™ functions. Reference: Page Number 270 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary benefit of using a caching proxy server? A. It enables a single sign-on to access multiple services B. It mitigates denial of service (DoS) attacks C. It reduces bandwidth consumption and load on web servers D. It serves clients in the reverse order of requests "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary benefit of using a caching proxy server? A. It enables a single sign-on to access multiple services B. It mitigates denial of service (DoS) attacks C. It reduces bandwidth consumption and load on web servers D. It serves clients in the reverse order of requests <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It reduces bandwidth consumption and load on web servers Explanation: By using a caching proxy, multiple requests for the same data can be served from the cache rather than generating duplicate requests to the Internet. This saves bandwidth and reduces the load on the web servers. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Single sign-on is a feature of a reverse proxy, not a caching proxy. B. While proxies can help mitigate DoS attacks, it is not the primary purpose of a caching proxy. D. Serving clients in reverse order of requests is a function of reverse proxies, not caching proxies. Reference: Page Number 270 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the roles of modulation and demodulation in a modem? A. Modulation is the process of decoding a digital signal to analog, and demodulation is the process of recoding it back to digital. B. Modulation is the process of encoding an analog signal into a digital signal, and demodulation is the process of encoding it back to analog. C. Modulation is the process of encoding a digital signal into an analog signal, and demodulation is the process of decoding it back to digital. D. Modulation and demodulation refer to increasing and decreasing the frequency of the signal respectively. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the roles of modulation and demodulation in a modem? A. Modulation is the process of decoding a digital signal to analog, and demodulation is the process of recoding it back to digital. B. Modulation is the process of encoding an analog signal into a digital signal, and demodulation is the process of encoding it back to analog. C. Modulation is the process of encoding a digital signal into an analog signal, and demodulation is the process of decoding it back to digital. D. Modulation and demodulation refer to increasing and decreasing the frequency of the signal respectively. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Modulation is the process of encoding a digital signal into an analog signal, and demodulation is the process of decoding it back to digital. Explanation: In the context of a modem, modulation is the act of turning a digital signal into an analog one, while demodulation is the process of reversing this encoding back into a digital signal. This is crucial because it allows data to be transmitted over lines that were designed for analog signals, like telephone and cable lines. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect because modulation is actually the encoding of a digital signal into analog form, not the decoding of it. B. This is incorrect because modulation refers to the encoding of a digital signal into analog form, not the other way around. D. This is incorrect because modulation and demodulation refer to the process of encoding and decoding signals, not changing their frequency. Reference: Page Number 272 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of POTS modems in network architecture? A. They are used to encode data over cable lines for broadband Internet connectivity. B. They are primarily found in modern network systems for high-speed data transmission. C. They are used to encode data over telephone lines as audible screeches and can be used as an out-of-band connectivity method for routers or switches. D. They are used to modulate data onto a POTS line to the phone companyвЂ™s central office at a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of POTS modems in network architecture? A. They are used to encode data over cable lines for broadband Internet connectivity. B. They are primarily found in modern network systems for high-speed data transmission. C. They are used to encode data over telephone lines as audible screeches and can be used as an out-of-band connectivity method for routers or switches. D. They are used to modulate data onto a POTS line to the phone companyвЂ™s central office at a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They are used to encode data over telephone lines as audible screeches and can be used as an out-of-band connectivity method for routers or switches. Explanation: POTS modems are considered legacy devices and function by encoding data over telephone lines as audible screeches of chirps and hisses. Although not common in modern network systems, network administrators may use them in out-of-band connectivity methods for routing or switching devices. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Encoding data over cable lines for broadband Internet connectivity is the function of cable modems. B. POTS modems are considered legacy devices and are not found in modern network systems for high-speed data transmission. D. DSL modems, not POTS modems, modulate data onto a POTS line to the phone companyвЂ™s central office at a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz. Reference: Page Number 272 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a cable modem in network architecture? A. It modulates and demodulates chirps and hisses onto a POTS line. B. It is used in broadband Internet connectivity, modulating/demodulating data onto a channel using cable lines. C. It functions by encoding data over telephone lines as audible screeches. D. It communicates directly with the POTS modems. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a cable modem in network architecture? A. It modulates and demodulates chirps and hisses onto a POTS line. B. It is used in broadband Internet connectivity, modulating/demodulating data onto a channel using cable lines. C. It functions by encoding data over telephone lines as audible screeches. D. It communicates directly with the POTS modems. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is used in broadband Internet connectivity, modulating/demodulating data onto a channel using cable lines. Explanation: A cable modem is used in broadband Internet connectivity. It uses the existing cable lines that already carry TV programming to modulate/demodulate data onto a channel and directly communicates with the fiber node in your local area. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Modulating and demodulating chirps and hisses onto a POTS line is the function of a DSL modem. C. Encoding data over telephone lines as audible screeches is the function of a POTS modem. D. Cable modems do not directly communicate with POTS modems, but rather with the fiber node in the local area. Reference: Page Number 272 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a DSL modem? A. It converts data into chirps and hisses for transmission over POTS lines B. It communicates directly with the fiber node in your local area C. It modulates and demodulates signals onto a POTS line to the phone companyвЂ™s central office using a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz D. It is used for providing broadband Internet connectivity "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a DSL modem? A. It converts data into chirps and hisses for transmission over POTS lines B. It communicates directly with the fiber node in your local area C. It modulates and demodulates signals onto a POTS line to the phone companyвЂ™s central office using a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz D. It is used for providing broadband Internet connectivity <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It modulates and demodulates signals onto a POTS line to the phone companyвЂ™s central office using a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz Explanation: A DSL modem acts by modulating and demodulating chirps and hisses onto a POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) line to the phone companyвЂ™s central office (CO). It operates at a frequency higher than 3,400 Hz to transmit signals Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Although DSL modems do convert data into signals, they do not use chirps and hisses for transmission. They use frequencies higher than 3,400 Hz. B. Cable modems, not DSL modems, communicate directly with the fiber node in your local area. D. Although DSL modems are used for internet connectivity, they do not provide broadband internet connectivity. DSL and broadband are two different types of internet services. Reference: Page Number 272 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is true regarding VoIP PBX? A. It requires a separate wired infrastructure B. It is incompatible with TDM phones C. It is incapable of providing enterprise-type call features D. An added feature is the ability for remote offices to use the same VoIP PBX as the main office for all end user communications "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is true regarding VoIP PBX? A. It requires a separate wired infrastructure B. It is incompatible with TDM phones C. It is incapable of providing enterprise-type call features D. An added feature is the ability for remote offices to use the same VoIP PBX as the main office for all end user communications <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. An added feature is the ability for remote offices to use the same VoIP PBX as the main office for all end user communications Explanation: VoIP PBX allows remote offices to use the same system as the main office, which greatly simplifies and streamlines communication across different locations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is incorrect because with VoIP phone systems, we no longer need to maintain a separate wired infrastructure; it is all treated like data. B is incorrect because the text clearly states that VoIP PBX offers all the features a traditional TDM PBX phone system does. C is not true because PBX systems like VoIP PBX provide enterprise-type call features such as call forwarding, pick up groups and conference calling. Reference: Page Number 273 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a VoIP gateway in the context of a telephone network? A. It helps to use a VoIP network for accessing social media. B. It interfaces a VoIP PBX with an existing PBX or the public switched telephone network (PSTN). C. It shields a VoIP network from cyber attacks. D. It improves the speed of internet provided by a VoIP provider. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a VoIP gateway in the context of a telephone network? A. It helps to use a VoIP network for accessing social media. B. It interfaces a VoIP PBX with an existing PBX or the public switched telephone network (PSTN). C. It shields a VoIP network from cyber attacks. D. It improves the speed of internet provided by a VoIP provider. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It interfaces a VoIP PBX with an existing PBX or the public switched telephone network (PSTN). Explanation: A VoIP gateway interfaces a VoIP PBX with an existing PBX or the PSTN. This means that it can bridge the voice data from the IP network with the traditional telephone system, either by transforming IP packets into traditional telephone signals or vice versa. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The primary function of a VoIP gateway is not to provide access to social media. Rather, it enables communication between VoIP PBX with an existing PBX or the PSTN. C. While VoIP gateways may have security measures in place, their primary function is not to defend against cyber attacks. D. The role of a VoIP gateway has nothing to do with improving the speed of the internet provided by a VoIP provider. Reference: Page Number 273 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key difference between an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)? A. IDS only logs and alerts about intrusions, while IPS prevents intrusions B. IDS prevents intrusions, while IPS logs and alerts about them C. IDS operates based on signatures, while IPS operates based on traffic anomalies D. IDS requires a subscription from the provider, while IPS does not "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key difference between an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)? A. IDS only logs and alerts about intrusions, while IPS prevents intrusions B. IDS prevents intrusions, while IPS logs and alerts about them C. IDS operates based on signatures, while IPS operates based on traffic anomalies D. IDS requires a subscription from the provider, while IPS does not <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. IDS only logs and alerts about intrusions, while IPS prevents intrusions Explanation: While both Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) use signature-based and anomaly-based detections, log traffic, and alert administrators about potential intrusions, the major difference is that the IDS simply logs and alerts about the intrusions, while the IPS attempts to prevent the intrusion by dropping the packets of the malicious transmission or actively blocking the offending IP address. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B: Both IDS and IPS log and alert about intrusions, but only IPS tries to prevent them. C: Both IDS and IPS operate based on both signatures and traffic anomalies. D: Both IDS and IPS often require signatures from a provider, usually part of a service agreement. Reference: Page Number 275 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the common actions that are triggered when firewall conditions are met? A. Permit traffic, block traffic, and log traffic B. Create traffic, encrypt traffic, and disable network C. Initiate VPN, set up WPA2, and block SSL D. Allow cookies, decode URL, and deny ICMP Ping "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the common actions that are triggered when firewall conditions are met? A. Permit traffic, block traffic, and log traffic B. Create traffic, encrypt traffic, and disable network C. Initiate VPN, set up WPA2, and block SSL D. Allow cookies, decode URL, and deny ICMP Ping <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Permit traffic, block traffic, and log traffic Explanation: When conditions in a firewall are met, actions are triggered. The most common actions include permitting traffic (allowing it to pass through), blocking traffic (stopping it), and logging traffic (recording details of it for later analysis). These actions are part of the basic functionality of firewalls and provide control over traffic flow and security. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Creating traffic and encrypting traffic are not actions firewalls take when conditions are met, nor do they have the ability to disable a network. C. Firewalls do not initiate VPNs, set up WPA2 encryption, or block SSL encryption. They may allow or disallow traffic that uses these technologies, but the technologies themselves are not defined by the firewall policies. D. Firewalls do not control cookies or URL decoding, and while they can deny ICMP pings, this is not one of the most common actions. Reference: Page Number 276 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a unique feature of a next-generation firewall (NGFW) compared to traditional firewalls? A. NGFW inspects traffic only at layer 3 B. NGFW enables deep packet inspection and uses an IPS to mitigate known threats C. NGFW cannot manage bandwidth at the application level D. NGFW does not allow termination of SSL encryption at the firewall "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a unique feature of a next-generation firewall (NGFW) compared to traditional firewalls? A. NGFW inspects traffic only at layer 3 B. NGFW enables deep packet inspection and uses an IPS to mitigate known threats C. NGFW cannot manage bandwidth at the application level D. NGFW does not allow termination of SSL encryption at the firewall <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. NGFW enables deep packet inspection and uses an IPS to mitigate known threats Explanation: The next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) examine the traffic in depth (deep packet inspection) and use an IPS to manage known threats. They also manage bandwidth at the application level and allow SSL decryption at the firewall for effective inspection, which traditional firewalls do not do. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because both traditional firewalls and NGFWs inspect traffic at layer 3 (network layer). Choice C is incorrect because NGFWs actually help in managing bandwidth at the application level. Choice D is incorrect because most NGFWs allow termination of SSL encryption at the firewall so that deep packet inspection can be performed. Reference: Page Number 277 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a VPN headend (or concentrator) in a network? A. It provides a connection to the internet service provider B. It handles the encryption and decryption process of data packets C. It provides wireless access to devices on the network D. It is responsible for routing packets between different network segments "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a VPN headend (or concentrator) in a network? A. It provides a connection to the internet service provider B. It handles the encryption and decryption process of data packets C. It provides wireless access to devices on the network D. It is responsible for routing packets between different network segments <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It handles the encryption and decryption process of data packets Explanation: A VPN concentrator (headend) handles the encryption and decryption process of data packets. It operates at layer 3 (Network layer) by encrypting the original data, encapsulating it inside various VPN protocols, and terminating the encrypted tunnel back to the original unencrypted packets. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While a VPN concentrator does provide a connection point to a network (especially for remote users), its main function is not to provide a connection to the internet service provider. C. A VPN concentrator is not primarily meant to provide wireless access to devices on the network. D. Routing packets between different network segments is not a primary function of a VPN concentrator - this is typically the role of a router. Reference: Page Number 278 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following types of VoIP phones can be described as a networked device, supplied with power over Ethernet, and contains a small switch inside itself? A. Soft Phone B. Virtual Phone C. Wireless VoIP phone D. Physical Phone "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following types of VoIP phones can be described as a networked device, supplied with power over Ethernet, and contains a small switch inside itself? A. Soft Phone B. Virtual Phone C. Wireless VoIP phone D. Physical Phone <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Physical Phone Explanation: Physical Phones are described in the passage as the most common phones used in many organizations. They are physical devices that are directly connected to the network via a network cable that also supplies power via Power over Ethernet (PoE). The text also mentions that these phones have an internal switch which allows one wire to supply network connection to both the VoIP phone and the desktop computer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Soft Phones are purely software-based, requiring a headset and network connectivity but no physical connection to the network. B. Virtual Phones are hybrids of physical and soft phones; they are not unique physical devices themselves, but rather they route calls to different physical or soft phones configured by the user. C. Wireless VoIP phones are physical devices but they are not wired into the network; they connect wirelessly via 802.11 wireless protocol. Reference: Page Number 278 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key difference between a physical VoIP phone and a soft phone? A. A soft phone requires a physical handset, while a physical VoIP phone does not B. A physical VoIP phone is a type of application, while a soft phone is a standalone device C. A soft phone is a piece of software that performs the functions of a phone, while a physical VoIP phone is a tangible device D. Physical VoIP phones can only be used for voice calls, while soft phones can also send text messages "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key difference between a physical VoIP phone and a soft phone? A. A soft phone requires a physical handset, while a physical VoIP phone does not B. A physical VoIP phone is a type of application, while a soft phone is a standalone device C. A soft phone is a piece of software that performs the functions of a phone, while a physical VoIP phone is a tangible device D. Physical VoIP phones can only be used for voice calls, while soft phones can also send text messages <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. A soft phone is a piece of software that performs the functions of a phone, while a physical VoIP phone is a tangible device Explanation: This is correct, the text describes a physical VoIP phone as a tangible networked device that allows calls to and from the user. On the other hand, a soft phone is described as a piece of software that looks like a physical phone but only exists as a piece of software. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect, both soft phones and physical VoIP phones do not require a physical handset, as they can deliver voice over the IP network. B. This is incorrect, soft phones are the software counterparts of physical VoIP phones, not standalone devices. D. This is incorrect, both physical VoIP phones and soft phones can be used for voice calls. Soft phones, like physical VoIP phones, can also be used for other communication functionalities, not just sending text messages. Reference: Page Number 279 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a soft phone in the context of Voice over IP (VoIP)? A. A physical, networked device that lets you make and receive calls B. A piece of software that mimics a physical phone C. A wireless VoIP phone that can connect to the network wirelessly D. A phone that can switch between VoIP and plain old telephone service "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a soft phone in the context of Voice over IP (VoIP)? A. A physical, networked device that lets you make and receive calls B. A piece of software that mimics a physical phone C. A wireless VoIP phone that can connect to the network wirelessly D. A phone that can switch between VoIP and plain old telephone service <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. A piece of software that mimics a physical phone Explanation: A soft phone is a software solution that emulates the functionality of a physical phone, providing the ability to make and receive calls. It is built for maximum flexibility and is used by organizations to accommodate changing work dynamics such as remote and on-the-go work. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is a description of physical VoIP phones, not soft phones. C. This describes wireless VoIP phones, not soft phones. D. This describes virtual phones, not soft phones. Reference: Page Number 279 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a virtual phone in a VoIP system? A. To replace physical phones entirely B. To allow one device to handle multiple calls at once C. To create a hybrid of physical and soft phones that maintains privacy D. To allow transfer and merging of calls "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a virtual phone in a VoIP system? A. To replace physical phones entirely B. To allow one device to handle multiple calls at once C. To create a hybrid of physical and soft phones that maintains privacy D. To allow transfer and merging of calls <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To create a hybrid of physical and soft phones that maintains privacy Explanation: Virtual phones in VoIP systems act as hybrids between physical and soft phones, allowing functionality across multiple devices, and ensuring privacy by providing the caller with only the virtual number rather than the personal numbers of the worker. These solutions typically allow the caller to see only the virtual number they dialed, protecting the workerвЂ™s personal contact information. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Virtual phones do not aim to replace physical phones entirely; they offer an additional layer of flexibility and privacy. B. A virtual phone doesnвЂ™t necessarily allow one device to handle multiple calls at once, but rather rings on all configured devices when a call comes in. D. Transfer and merging of calls is not a primary function of virtual phones but these features could be present depending on the VoIP system in place. Reference: Page Number 279 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the first step of the network printing process? A. The document is directly sent over the network without any changes. B. Application renders the document using the graphic display interface against the first portion of the print driver for the printer. C. The driver processes the EMF file and renders it with the other portion of the print driver. D. The printer language is transmitted directly to the printer. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the first step of the network printing process? A. The document is directly sent over the network without any changes. B. Application renders the document using the graphic display interface against the first portion of the print driver for the printer. C. The driver processes the EMF file and renders it with the other portion of the print driver. D. The printer language is transmitted directly to the printer. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Application renders the document using the graphic display interface against the first portion of the print driver for the printer. Explanation: When you hit the print button on your client, the application renders the document using the graphic display interface (GDI) against the first portion of the print driver for the particular printer. This first step converts the print to a language called an Enhanced Meta File (EMF). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The document is not directly sent over the network without any changes, rather it undergoes several rendering stages. C. The driver processes the EMF file and renders it with the other portion of the print driver, but this happens after the initial rendering phase described in option B. D. The printer language is not directly transmitted to the printer at the early stage of the printing process. Reference: Page Number 280 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main characteristic of decentralized printing? A. It involves a centralized print server which manages all print jobs B. It encompasses having a single networked client share the printer to the rest of the office C. It applies when each computer manages its own print job from render to transmit over the network D. It insists on the host sharing the printer to be on when someone prints a document "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main characteristic of decentralized printing? A. It involves a centralized print server which manages all print jobs B. It encompasses having a single networked client share the printer to the rest of the office C. It applies when each computer manages its own print job from render to transmit over the network D. It insists on the host sharing the printer to be on when someone prints a document <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It applies when each computer manages its own print job from render to transmit over the network Explanation: In Decentralized printing, the printer language is rendered locally and each computer manages its own print job, from rendering the graphic display interface to transmitting the print language to the printer directly or over the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A refers to Centralized Printing in which every print job passes through a centralized print server. Option B describes Peer-to-Peer printing where a single networked client can share a printer with the rest of the office. Option D is also a feature of Peer-to-Peer printing where the host sharing the printer must be turned on for another device to print. Reference: Page Number 281 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two networks that access control systems have? A. Ethernet network and wireless network B. Bluetooth network and low-voltage network C. Ethernet network and low-voltage network D. Wireless network and Bluetooth network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two networks that access control systems have? A. Ethernet network and wireless network B. Bluetooth network and low-voltage network C. Ethernet network and low-voltage network D. Wireless network and Bluetooth network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Ethernet network and low-voltage network Explanation: Access control systems have two distinct networks: the Ethernet network and the low-voltage network. The Ethernet network is what connects devices and computers with switches and is also what connects the access control panel to the network. The low-voltage network has wiring between the access control panel and various devices at the control point. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Wireless network is not necessarily part of the access control systemвЂ™s networks. B. Bluetooth network is not indicated as part of the access control systemвЂ™s networks. D. Neither wireless nor Bluetooth networks are described as being part of the access control systemвЂ™s networks in the provided text. Reference: Page Number 283 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of the Security Console in an access control system? A. It physically connects the reader and door lock B. It is the application on the security officerвЂ™s desktop computer that communicates with the ACSs for user enrollment C. It is a physical server or a virtual machine where an entry of a userвЂ™s access for various control points are created D. It is the device that reads an employeeвЂ™s swipe card or a keypad for access control "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of the Security Console in an access control system? A. It physically connects the reader and door lock B. It is the application on the security officerвЂ™s desktop computer that communicates with the ACSs for user enrollment C. It is a physical server or a virtual machine where an entry of a userвЂ™s access for various control points are created D. It is the device that reads an employeeвЂ™s swipe card or a keypad for access control <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is the application on the security officerвЂ™s desktop computer that communicates with the ACSs for user enrollment Explanation: The security console, usually software on a security officerвЂ™s computer, communicates with the access control servers to enroll users into the access control system. ItвЂ™s also where audit reports are created. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Physically connecting the reader and door lock is the function of the access control panel, not the security console. C. Creating an entry of a userвЂ™s access is the function of the access control server, not the security console. D. Reading an employeeвЂ™s swipe card or a keypad is the function of the reader, not the security console. Reference: Page Number 284 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of an Access Control Server (ACS) in an access control system? A. Acts as the bridge between the Ethernet and low-voltage networks. B. Produces audit reports showing access attempts at various control points. C. Creates an entry describing a userвЂ™s access for various control points when a user is enrolled. D. Operates as a giant magnet that keeps the door locked when energized. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of an Access Control Server (ACS) in an access control system? A. Acts as the bridge between the Ethernet and low-voltage networks. B. Produces audit reports showing access attempts at various control points. C. Creates an entry describing a userвЂ™s access for various control points when a user is enrolled. D. Operates as a giant magnet that keeps the door locked when energized. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Creates an entry describing a userвЂ™s access for various control points when a user is enrolled. Explanation: The Access Control Server (ACS) is a key component of an access control system, its primary function being to manage the access rights of users. When a user is enrolled in the system, an entry is created within the ACS that details what control points the user can access. The ACS can then manage these access permissions by either responding to requests from the access control panel or downloading its database to all the panels. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This feature is specific to the access control panel, which is the bridge between the Ethernet network and the low-voltage network. B. Producing audit reports is a function generally reserved for the security console, which can generate reports showing when users gained access or attempted to do so at various control points. D. This feature is characteristic of magnetic door locks, not access control servers. Magnetic locks are a type of door lock that stay locked when they are energized. Reference: Page Number 285 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the Access Control Panel in a network security system? A. It connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network B. It creates audit reports for user access management C. It enrolls new users into the access control system D. It rekeys all locks when a master key is lost "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the Access Control Panel in a network security system? A. It connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network B. It creates audit reports for user access management C. It enrolls new users into the access control system D. It rekeys all locks when a master key is lost <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network Explanation: The Access Control Panel serves as the bridge between the Ethernet network and the low-voltage network. It is where the control point, such as the reader and the door lock, are logically configured and physically connected. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The creation of audit reports for user management is actually performed by the Security Console, not the Access Control Panel. C. The enrollment of new users into the access control system is the responsibility of the Access Control Server, not the Access Control Panel. D. The rekeying of all locks when a master key is lost pertains to traditional physical lock and key systems, not a network-based access control system. Reference: Page Number 285 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a Reader in the context of access control systems? A. A device used in access control systems which can use various technologies to authenticate a user B. A piece of software used to interpret keycard data C. A unique identification number assigned to each user D. A component in an Ethernet network that routes data packets "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a Reader in the context of access control systems? A. A device used in access control systems which can use various technologies to authenticate a user B. A piece of software used to interpret keycard data C. A unique identification number assigned to each user D. A component in an Ethernet network that routes data packets <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. A device used in access control systems which can use various technologies to authenticate a user Explanation: In the discussed text, the Reader is described as a device that can employ various technologies such as magstripe cards or RFID cards to authenticate a user in an access control system. Besides card technologies, readers can also include keypads and enchanced security features like duress and kill codes. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. A piece of software used to interpret keycard data - This is incorrect. While a reader does interpret data from a keycard, it is a physical device, not a piece of software. C. A unique identification number assigned to each user - This is incorrect. A unique identification number can be part of the data stored on a keycard that is read by the reader, but it is not the reader itself. D. A component in an Ethernet network that routes data packets - This is incorrect. A reader is not involved in routing data packets. Reference: Page Number 285 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a door lock in an access control system? A. It retracts a pin in the strike to allow the door to open. B. It connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network. C. It is the network that connects devices and computers with switches. D. It is an application on the security officerвЂ™s desktop computer. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a door lock in an access control system? A. It retracts a pin in the strike to allow the door to open. B. It connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network. C. It is the network that connects devices and computers with switches. D. It is an application on the security officerвЂ™s desktop computer. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It retracts a pin in the strike to allow the door to open. Explanation: In an access control system, the door lock is key to controlling access. Either through a mechanical or magnetic configuration, the lock grants or denies access by unlocking or locking the door. The mechanical door lock, specifically, uses a solenoid to retract a latch or a pin in the strike to allow the door to open. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The access control panel, not the door lock, is what connects the Ethernet network to the low-voltage network. C. The Ethernet network, not the door lock, connects devices and computers with switches. D. The security console, not the door lock, can be an application on the security officerвЂ™s desktop computer. Reference: Page Number 285 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two types of camera that can be used in physical security and what are their primary uses? A. Fixed and zoom; recording surveillance activities and covering a larger area than a fixed camera B. Fixed and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ); recording surveillance activities and intervention during accident or medical emergency C. Zoom and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ); covering a larger area and intervention during accident or medical emergency D. Fixed and pan-tilt; recording surveillance activities and covering a larger area "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two types of camera that can be used in physical security and what are their primary uses? A. Fixed and zoom; recording surveillance activities and covering a larger area than a fixed camera B. Fixed and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ); recording surveillance activities and intervention during accident or medical emergency C. Zoom and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ); covering a larger area and intervention during accident or medical emergency D. Fixed and pan-tilt; recording surveillance activities and covering a larger area <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Fixed and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ); recording surveillance activities and intervention during accident or medical emergency Explanation: As described in the material, two types of camera can be deployed: fixed and pan-tilt-zoom (PTZ), where fixed cameras are the best choice when recording for surveillance activities and PTZ cameras allow for 360-degree operations and zooming in on an area, most commonly used for intervention such as covering an area outside during an accident or medical emergency. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): All other options are incorrect because only options B correctly states that fixed cameras are used for recording and PTZ cameras are used for intervention during emergencies. The other types of cameras listed in the other options; zoom and pan-tilt, do not exist in the context of the text. Reference: Page Number 286 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following options correctly describes the HVAC control application? A. It logs data and allows a technician to troubleshoot if needed B. It is a device in the HVAC system that needs controlled in some way C. It is where the HVAC technician can set work schedules, adjust temperatures, and monitor the HVAC system D. It is where the HVAC control server communicates with the control panel "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following options correctly describes the HVAC control application? A. It logs data and allows a technician to troubleshoot if needed B. It is a device in the HVAC system that needs controlled in some way C. It is where the HVAC technician can set work schedules, adjust temperatures, and monitor the HVAC system D. It is where the HVAC control server communicates with the control panel <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is where the HVAC technician can set work schedules, adjust temperatures, and monitor the HVAC system Explanation: The HVAC control application is where the HVAC technician can perform tasks such as setting work schedules, adjusting the temperature, and monitoring/troubleshooting the HVAC system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Logging of data and troubleshoot in case of any issues is the job of HVAC control server, and not the HVAC control application. B. A device in the HVAC system that needs controlling refers to control points, not the HVAC control application. D. Communication between HVAC control server and control panel does not describe the HVAC control application, as its main purpose is for the technicians to manage the system. Reference: Page Number 287 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the role of the HVAC Control Application in a HVAC system? A. It acts as a switch turning the HVAC system on and off. B. It is where the HVAC technician regulates schedules, adjusts temperatures, and examines the system. C. It is a physical panel where programming instructions are deployed. D. It stores data and sends notifications to the technicians. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the role of the HVAC Control Application in a HVAC system? A. It acts as a switch turning the HVAC system on and off. B. It is where the HVAC technician regulates schedules, adjusts temperatures, and examines the system. C. It is a physical panel where programming instructions are deployed. D. It stores data and sends notifications to the technicians. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is where the HVAC technician regulates schedules, adjusts temperatures, and examines the system. Explanation: The HVAC Control Application allows the HVAC technician to control and monitor the HVAC system. This is where tasks are performed such as setting work schedules, adjusting temperatures, and troubleshooting issues within the HVAC system. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The HVAC Control Application is more than just an on and off switch. It provides a user interface for technicians to control several aspects of the HVAC system. C. The physical area where programming instructions are deployed is known as the HVAC Control Panel. D. The function of storing data and sending notifications typically belongs to the HVAC Control Server, not the HVAC Control Application. Reference: Page Number 288 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of HVAC Control Server in an HVAC system? A. To set work schedules and adjust temperatures B. To act as an intermediate layer managing the HVAC control panels C. To act upon the command from serial line D. To directly monitor and troubleshoot the HVAC system "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of HVAC Control Server in an HVAC system? A. To set work schedules and adjust temperatures B. To act as an intermediate layer managing the HVAC control panels C. To act upon the command from serial line D. To directly monitor and troubleshoot the HVAC system <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To act as an intermediate layer managing the HVAC control panels Explanation: The HVAC control server manages all the various HVAC control panels. It also acts as a logging mechanism, thus allowing a technician to understand what went wrong if the HVAC system fails to maintain the desired temperature in a particular room. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Setting work schedules and adjusting temperatures is done by the HVAC Control Application, not the Control Server. C. Acting upon the command from the serial line is a function of the control points, not the Control Server. D. The HVAC Control Server does play a role in monitoring the HVAC system, but the direct monitoring and troubleshooting is done through the HVAC Control Application. Reference: Page Number 288 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main networks within an HVAC control system? A. Wireless and Wired network B. Internet and Intranet network C. Ethernet and Low-voltage network D. Token ring and Bus network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the two main networks within an HVAC control system? A. Wireless and Wired network B. Internet and Intranet network C. Ethernet and Low-voltage network D. Token ring and Bus network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Ethernet and Low-voltage network Explanation: In an HVAC control system, there are two main networks: the Ethernet network and the low-voltage network. The Ethernet network is how the HVAC application communicates with the HVAC control server and how the server communicates with the HVAC control panels. The low-voltage network is typically a serial communication network that connects different units. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Wireless and Wired network: This choice is incorrect because the text does not mention wireless or wired networks in the context of HVAC control systems. B. Internet and Intranet network: While the HVAC control system might utilize Internet or Intranet for communication purposes, these are not the two primary networks that form the HVAC control system. D. Token ring and Bus network: Token ring and Bus are types of network topologies, not specific networks within an HVAC control system. Reference: Page Number 289 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which component of an HVAC system controls the on/off functions and related controls? A. HVAC Control Application B. HVAC Control Server C. HVAC Control Panel D. Control Points "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which component of an HVAC system controls the on/off functions and related controls? A. HVAC Control Application B. HVAC Control Server C. HVAC Control Panel D. Control Points <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Control Points Explanation: Control points are any devices in the HVAC system that need to be turned on or off or controlled in some fashion. The control point will be connected to the HVAC control panel with a daisy-chained line running a serial protocol. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): The HVAC Control Application is where the technician performs tasks like setting work schedules and adjusting temperatures. The HVAC Control Server manages all the various HVAC control panels and logs data. The HVAC Control Panel receives programming instructions from the server and runs those instructions autonomously. Reference: Page Number 289 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Internet of Things (IoT) in the context of home networks is incorrect? A. Smart thermostats can track when you are home and adjust the heating and cooling cycles accordingly B. Smart speakers such as Google Nest, Amazon Echo, and Apple HomePod can be controlled entirely by voice commands C. Smart refrigerators only operate with AppleвЂ™s iOS operating system, prohibiting apps from being downloaded D. Smart doorbells are able to sense motion at the door, send an alert to your cellphone and provide video footage "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements about Internet of Things (IoT) in the context of home networks is incorrect? A. Smart thermostats can track when you are home and adjust the heating and cooling cycles accordingly B. Smart speakers such as Google Nest, Amazon Echo, and Apple HomePod can be controlled entirely by voice commands C. Smart refrigerators only operate with AppleвЂ™s iOS operating system, prohibiting apps from being downloaded D. Smart doorbells are able to sense motion at the door, send an alert to your cellphone and provide video footage <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Smart refrigerators only operate with AppleвЂ™s iOS operating system, prohibiting apps from being downloaded Explanation: In the provided text, it is stated that smart refrigerators usually run the Android operating system which allows many different types of apps to be downloaded, therefore, stating that they only operate with AppleвЂ™s iOS operating system is incorrect. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The text mentions that smart thermostats can track when you are home and adjust the heating and cooling cycles accordingly. B. The description provided for smart speakers clearly states that they can be controlled using voice commands to perform tasks like controlling other smart devices, checking the weather or playing music. D. The details about smart doorbells in the text specifies that they are able to detect motion at the door, send alerts to cellphones, and provide video footage. Reference: Page Number 289 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main difference between a traditional refrigerator and a smart refrigerator in terms of IoT features? A. A smart refrigerator stores food products. B. A smart refrigerator has a touchscreen resembling a giant smartphone. C. A smart refrigerator has an Android operating system. D. A smart refrigerator uses wireless technology. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main difference between a traditional refrigerator and a smart refrigerator in terms of IoT features? A. A smart refrigerator stores food products. B. A smart refrigerator has a touchscreen resembling a giant smartphone. C. A smart refrigerator has an Android operating system. D. A smart refrigerator uses wireless technology. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. A smart refrigerator has a touchscreen resembling a giant smartphone. Explanation: The main difference between a traditional refrigerator and a smart refrigerator in terms of IoT features is that a smart refrigerator includes a touchscreen interface that resembles a giant smartphone. This screen is accessible via applications that allow the user to view pictures, weather conditions, messages, shopping lists, etc. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Both traditional and smart refrigerators store food, this is not a unique feature of smart refrigerators in terms of IoT. C. Even though a smart refrigerator can run the Android operating system, this is not the main difference between the two in terms of IoT features. D. While wireless technology is often a part of many IoT devices, it does not specifically distinguish a smart refrigerator from a traditional refrigerator. Reference: Page Number 290 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a unique feature of smart speakers in a home network? A. They can display pictures taken with your phone B. They track when you are home and when you arenвЂ™t C. They allow synchronized playback of an audio source across multiple devices D. They communicate with the Internet and an app on your cellphone when someone approaches your door "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a unique feature of smart speakers in a home network? A. They can display pictures taken with your phone B. They track when you are home and when you arenвЂ™t C. They allow synchronized playback of an audio source across multiple devices D. They communicate with the Internet and an app on your cellphone when someone approaches your door <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They allow synchronized playback of an audio source across multiple devices Explanation: Smart speakers, such as Google Nest, Amazon Echo, and Apple HomePod, allow synchronized playback of an audio source, meaning they can all play the same audio source (music, news, audiobook, podcast) at the same time. This coordination creates a seamless audio environment throughout your home. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The capability to display pictures taken with your phone is a feature of a smart refrigerator, not a smart speaker. B. Tracking when you are home and when you arenвЂ™t is a feature of a smart thermostat, not a smart speaker. D. Communicating with the Internet and an app on your cellphone when someone approaches your door is a feature of a smart doorbell, not a smart speaker. Reference: Page Number 290 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one functionality of a smart thermostat? A. It tracks when you are home and adjusts the heating and cooling cycles accordingly. B. It downloads various apps for entertainment purposes. C. It plays synchronized audio playback across your home. D. It records motion at your doorstep to prevent package theft. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one functionality of a smart thermostat? A. It tracks when you are home and adjusts the heating and cooling cycles accordingly. B. It downloads various apps for entertainment purposes. C. It plays synchronized audio playback across your home. D. It records motion at your doorstep to prevent package theft. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It tracks when you are home and adjusts the heating and cooling cycles accordingly. Explanation: Smart thermostats have the ability to learn your habits and adjust the heating and cooling cycles in your home. They track when youвЂ™re home and not home, and adjust the HVAC system to be more economical. They can also react based on the current weather conditions. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The ability to download apps for entertainment is a feature more commonly associated with devices such as smart refrigerators or phones, not smart thermostats. C. Synchronized audio playback is a feature of smart speakers, not smart thermostats. D. Motion recording at the doorstep is a feature associated with smart doorbells, not smart thermostats. Reference: Page Number 290 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of Smart Doorbells in the context of IoT? A. Signal a foreseeable failure in factory devices B. Monitor soil dampness in a crop field C. Secure homes and packages by notifying the user of any motion detected at the door D. Track when the homeowner is home and when they arenвЂ™t "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary function of Smart Doorbells in the context of IoT? A. Signal a foreseeable failure in factory devices B. Monitor soil dampness in a crop field C. Secure homes and packages by notifying the user of any motion detected at the door D. Track when the homeowner is home and when they arenвЂ™t <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Secure homes and packages by notifying the user of any motion detected at the door Explanation: Smart Doorbells have become a common tool in securing homes. The technology detects motion at the door and instantly sends an alert to the userвЂ™s cellphone. This is aimed at preventing theft, especially of packages dropped off at the door. ItвЂ™s also useful for other purposes such as avoiding disturbances or giving the illusion of somebody being at home. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Signal a foreseeable failure in factory devices: This is a potential use of IoT devices, but not specific to smart doorbells. B. Monitor soil dampness in a crop field: Again, this is a potential use of IoT devices, but not relevant to smart doorbells. D. Track when the homeowner is home and when they arenвЂ™t: This functionality is associated with smart thermostats, not smart doorbells. Reference: Page Number 290 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main purpose of the Supervisory System in SCADA? A. To program devices in the process line. B. To control and monitor the distribution of resources. C. To measure, monitor, and control plant production. D. To analyze and store data on the cloud. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main purpose of the Supervisory System in SCADA? A. To program devices in the process line. B. To control and monitor the distribution of resources. C. To measure, monitor, and control plant production. D. To analyze and store data on the cloud. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To measure, monitor, and control plant production. Explanation: The Supervisory System in SCADA is used for measurement, monitoring, and controlling production. It is often redundant as its failure could disrupt the entire production line. These systems have databases where production metrics are stored for quality control and customer usage in the case of utilities. Generally, this system is found in the server farm at the main plant. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The Programmable Logic Controller (PLC), not the supervisory system, is used to program devices in the process line. B. While the Supervisory System does monitor production, its scope is not specific to resource distribution. D. The supervisory system is typically located in a server farm at the main plant, not in the cloud, to minimize latency. Reference: Page Number 291 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What role does the Supervisory System play in an industrial environment? A. It distributes energy and resources B. It measures, monitors and controls plant production C. It allows remote control to the industrial process D. It develops and programs ladder logic into the controllers "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What role does the Supervisory System play in an industrial environment? A. It distributes energy and resources B. It measures, monitors and controls plant production C. It allows remote control to the industrial process D. It develops and programs ladder logic into the controllers <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It measures, monitors and controls plant production Explanation: The Supervisory System is crucial in the monitoring, controlling and measurement of plant production. It allows for the observation and control of production metrics and processes and can store these metrics for quality control and customer usage where applicable. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Distributing energy and resources is the job of SCADA systems not the Supervisory System. C. Remote control to the industrial process is enabled by Remote Terminal Units not the Supervisory System. D. The development and programming of ladder logic is done by the Programmable Logic Controller, not the Supervisory System. Reference: Page Number 292 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) in an industrial control system do? A. It provides a human-machine interface to observe the production line. B. It allows operators to intervene and control processes in case of issues from remote locations. C. It runs logic circuits to control various parameters and components in a production environment. D. It supervises the entire plant operation, measuring, monitoring, and controlling production metrics. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) in an industrial control system do? A. It provides a human-machine interface to observe the production line. B. It allows operators to intervene and control processes in case of issues from remote locations. C. It runs logic circuits to control various parameters and components in a production environment. D. It supervises the entire plant operation, measuring, monitoring, and controlling production metrics. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It runs logic circuits to control various parameters and components in a production environment. Explanation: A Programmable Logic Controller (PLC) in an industrial control system runs logic circuits to carry out tasks. It can control inputs and outputs that are wired to machinery or other components of the production process. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is the role of the Human Machine Interface (HMI), not the PLC. Option B describes the functionality of a Remote Terminal Unit (RTU). Option D describes the Supervisory System, which oversees the entire plant operation. Reference: Page Number 292 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the function of the Human Machine Interface (HMI) in an industrial control system? A. ItвЂ™s responsible for physically manipulating production components on the assembly line B. ItвЂ™s a server hosting a database where production metrics are stored C. ItвЂ™s a visualization tool used by plant operators to monitor the production line, and identify and adjust processes as necessary D. ItвЂ™s a computer unit located in remote facilities with remote control capabilities "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the function of the Human Machine Interface (HMI) in an industrial control system? A. ItвЂ™s responsible for physically manipulating production components on the assembly line B. ItвЂ™s a server hosting a database where production metrics are stored C. ItвЂ™s a visualization tool used by plant operators to monitor the production line, and identify and adjust processes as necessary D. ItвЂ™s a computer unit located in remote facilities with remote control capabilities <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. ItвЂ™s a visualization tool used by plant operators to monitor the production line, and identify and adjust processes as necessary Explanation: The HMI is a human interaction part of the industrial control system. It provides a simple layout or visual of the production line and displays various metrics to plant operators. Operators can use this interface to track the production process in real-time, identify faults or failures in the line, and make necessary adjustments. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect, the physical manipulation of production components is usually done by Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs) and not the HMI. B. Incorrect, databases for production metric storage are part of the supervisory systems, not the HMI. D. Incorrect, the functionality described here is of a Remote Terminal Unit (RTU), not the HMI. Reference: Page Number 292 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of industrial control systems, which characteristic of a Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) distinguishes it from a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC)? A. An RTU has inputs and outputs just like a PLC B. RTUs use ladder logic programming like PLCs C. The RTU has an independent microprocessor and remote control capabilities D. An RTU performs functions autonomously like a PLC "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of industrial control systems, which characteristic of a Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) distinguishes it from a Programmable Logic Controller (PLC)? A. An RTU has inputs and outputs just like a PLC B. RTUs use ladder logic programming like PLCs C. The RTU has an independent microprocessor and remote control capabilities D. An RTU performs functions autonomously like a PLC <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The RTU has an independent microprocessor and remote control capabilities Explanation: One major characteristic of an RTU that sets it apart from a PLC is that the RTU has an independent microprocessor. This allows it to be installed at a remote facility and programmed for remote control capabilities. Therefore, unlike PLCs, RTUs can operate independently and manage the production from a distance. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Both RTU and PLC have this capability, so this does not single out the RTU. B. While PLCs are often programmed using ladder logic, an RTU can be programmed using proprietary languages, Visual Basic, C#, C++, and ladder logic. Therefore, this answer is not specifically unique to RTUs. D. Both RTUs and PLCs can run autonomously; thus, this answer does not distinguish an RTU from a PLC. Reference: Page Number 292 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary reason that the Supervisory System isnвЂ™t usually located in the cloud within Industrial control systems? A. Cost B. Latency issues C. Scalability D. Data Security "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary reason that the Supervisory System isnвЂ™t usually located in the cloud within Industrial control systems? A. Cost B. Latency issues C. Scalability D. Data Security <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Latency issues Explanation: The Supervisory System is usually not located in the cloud because it needs to be as low latency as possible. Any delay in the processing and transmission of information could disrupt the timing and coordination necessary for the successful functioning of the automated manufacturing process. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Although cost might be a factor in some cases, itвЂ™s not the primary reason stated in the text. C. Scalability is not mentioned as a key issue for not using cloud-based supervisory systems in the text. D. While data security is generally a concern in any system, itвЂ™s not cited as a specific reason for not using the cloud for the supervisory system in the passage. Reference: Page Number 292 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a router use to make routing decisions? A. The destination host B. The source IP address C. The TTL value D. The destination network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does a router use to make routing decisions? A. The destination host B. The source IP address C. The TTL value D. The destination network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. The destination network Explanation: Routers base all routing decisions on the destination network, not the host or source IP. The router looks at the destination IP address, calculates the network it belongs to, and then refers to its internal routing table to decide which interface to send the packet out. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The destination host - Routers do not care about the host when making routing decisions. B. The source IP address - The source address in the packet is never relevant in this process, except for the destination host so they can respond to the originating source. C. The TTL value - While the TTL value does decrement with each routing decision and the packet is dropped when the TTL reaches 0, it does not factor into the routing decision itself. Reference: Page Number 294 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of routing is useful in stub networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface? A. Dynamic Routing B. Static Routing C. Default Routing D. Hybrid Routing "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of routing is useful in stub networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface? A. Dynamic Routing B. Static Routing C. Default Routing D. Hybrid Routing <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Default Routing Explanation: Default routing is used in stub networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface. A perfect example of this is the Internet. Default routing can also be referred to as the gateway of last resort. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Dynamic Routing is not specifically used for stub networks although it can be used in a such a network, its primary use is to reduce the workload of the administrators by automating the learning of routes. B. Static Routing is typically used in smaller networks and requires manual updates from the network administrator. It is not specifically useful for stub networks. D. Hybrid Routing - There arenвЂ™t вЂ™Hybrid RoutingвЂ™. This is associated with hybrid dynamic routing protocols that use aspects of both distance-vector and link-state routing protocols. Reference: Page Number 294 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a characteristic of static routing? A. It optimizes routing decisions with the use of protocols B. It doesnвЂ™t require manual intervention to update routing tables C. It is automatically updated when a new network is introduced D. It is generally used in small networks where there is not much change "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a characteristic of static routing? A. It optimizes routing decisions with the use of protocols B. It doesnвЂ™t require manual intervention to update routing tables C. It is automatically updated when a new network is introduced D. It is generally used in small networks where there is not much change <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It is generally used in small networks where there is not much change Explanation: Static routing doesnвЂ™t have automatic updates for routing tables or the capacity for decision making in terms of which path to use. It is suitable for small networks due to the manual nature of updating routing information. This makes it a good choice for networks with little change, where its rigidity is not a drawback. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Static routing does not use protocols to optimize decisions. B. Static routing actually requires manual intervention to update routing tables, unlike dynamic routing. C. New networks are not automatically included in static routing, manual intervention is needed. Reference: Page Number 295 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of routing reduces the amount of administrator intervention and optimizes routing decisions through the use of routing protocols ? A. Static Routing B. Default Routing C. Dynamic Routing D. Hybrid Routing "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which type of routing reduces the amount of administrator intervention and optimizes routing decisions through the use of routing protocols ? A. Static Routing B. Default Routing C. Dynamic Routing D. Hybrid Routing <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Dynamic Routing Explanation: Dynamic Routing reduces the amount of administrator intervention by automating the trading of routing tables or entries with the use of routing protocols. This allows routers to learn new routes to networks from other routers participating in the dynamic routing process. Routing decisions are optimized with the use of routing protocols in the dynamic routing process. Multiple routes to the same destination network can exist; the routing protocol will select the best route based on the metric. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Static Routing: This type of routing requires manual updating by a network administrator and is generally used in small networks without much change because it is time-consuming for the network administrator. B. Default Routing: This type of routing is useful in stub networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface. Default routing is not necessarily optimized or automated. D. Hybrid Routing: This is not a valid type of routing. Reference: Page Number 296 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is default routing primarily useful for in a network setup? A. Networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface B. Networks that require regular administrative intervention C. Small networks with almost no change D. Networks that need to automate the trading of routing tables or entries with the use of routing protocols "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is default routing primarily useful for in a network setup? A. Networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface B. Networks that require regular administrative intervention C. Small networks with almost no change D. Networks that need to automate the trading of routing tables or entries with the use of routing protocols <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Networks where all destination networks are reachable through a particular gateway or interface Explanation: Default routing is primarily beneficial in stub networks where all destinations are reachable through a specific gateway or interface. All packets not matched in the routing table are passed to the default gateway (also known as the gateway of last resort), which then routes the packets to their appropriate destinations. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Networks that require regular administrative intervention are not best suited for default routing, as it involves less administrative intervention. C. Small networks with virtually no change are well suited for static routing, not default routing. D. Networks needing automated trading of routing tables are better suited for dynamic routing, not default routing. Reference: Page Number 296 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is considered an exterior routing protocol? A. OSPF B. EIGRP C. RIP D. BGP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is considered an exterior routing protocol? A. OSPF B. EIGRP C. RIP D. BGP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. BGP Explanation: According to the given text, Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is used as the main routing protocol on the Internet, thus it is considered an exterior routing protocol. All other routing protocols (with exception of BGP) are considered interior routing protocols, meaning they are primarily used within a network, not on the exterior (Internet). Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. OSPF, B. EIGRP, and C. RIP are all incorrect because they are considered interior routing protocols, meant to be used on the interior of a network as opposed to the exterior (Internet). As stated in the given text, BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is the only exterior routing protocol among the given choices. Reference: Page Number 296 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement accurately describes the characteristics of the Distance-vector routing protocol, RIP? A. RIP sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 60 seconds. B. RIP version 1 uses the multicast address to send routing updates. C. RIP version 2 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.9 to send routing updates and the initial table. D. RIP has a maximum hop count of 20. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which statement accurately describes the characteristics of the Distance-vector routing protocol, RIP? A. RIP sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 60 seconds. B. RIP version 1 uses the multicast address to send routing updates. C. RIP version 2 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.9 to send routing updates and the initial table. D. RIP has a maximum hop count of 20. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. RIP version 2 uses the multicast address of 224.0.0.9 to send routing updates and the initial table. Explanation: RIP version 2 does use the multicast address of 224.0.0.9 to send routing updates and the initial table to participating routers. This version of RIP enables classless routing by transmitting the table with the subnet mask included to handle the problem of using subnets in the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. RIP sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds, not every 60 seconds. B. RIP version 1 uses broadcasts to send routing updates and the initial routing table, not multicast address. D. RIP has a maximum hop count of 15, not 20. A destination network with a hop count of 16 is deemed unreachable. Reference: Page Number 298 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the RIP (Routing Information Protocol)? A. It is a distance-vector routing protocol used in large networks. B. RIP sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds and has a maximum hop count of 30. C. It is a link-state routing protocol with a slow convergence time susceptible to routing loops. D. It is a true distance-vector routing protocol used for dynamic routing in small networks. It sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds and has a maximum hop count of 15. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following best describes the RIP (Routing Information Protocol)? A. It is a distance-vector routing protocol used in large networks. B. RIP sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds and has a maximum hop count of 30. C. It is a link-state routing protocol with a slow convergence time susceptible to routing loops. D. It is a true distance-vector routing protocol used for dynamic routing in small networks. It sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds and has a maximum hop count of 15. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It is a true distance-vector routing protocol used for dynamic routing in small networks. It sends the complete routing table to the neighboring router out all active interfaces every 30 seconds and has a maximum hop count of 15. Explanation: RIP is indeed a distance-vector routing protocol primarily used in small networks. It broadcasts complete routing tables to neighboring routers over all active networks every 30 seconds and limits the maximum hop count to 15. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. RIP is actually used in smaller networks, not larger ones. B. The correct maximum hop count for RIP is 15, not 30. C. RIP is a distance-vector routing protocol, not a link-state routing protocol. Reference: Page Number 298 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What process does OSPF use to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculate routes? A. Bandwidth metric B. EIGRP protocol C. OSPFv3 protocol D. Dijkstra algorithm "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What process does OSPF use to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculate routes? A. Bandwidth metric B. EIGRP protocol C. OSPFv3 protocol D. Dijkstra algorithm <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Dijkstra algorithm Explanation: OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) uses the Dijkstra algorithm to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculate routes based on the bandwidth metric. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, and C are incorrect. OSPF does not use a bandwidth metric, EIGRP protocol, or OSPFv3 protocol to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculate routes. OSPF uses the Dijkstra algorithm for this purpose. Reference: Page Number 299 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What primary metric is used by OSPF in its routing decisions and to construct the initial shortest path tree? A. Hop count B. Bandwidth C. Amount of traffic D. Signal strength "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What primary metric is used by OSPF in its routing decisions and to construct the initial shortest path tree? A. Hop count B. Bandwidth C. Amount of traffic D. Signal strength <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Bandwidth Explanation: Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) uses the Dijkstra algorithm to construct the initial shortest path tree and calculates routes based on the bandwidth metric. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: Hop count is not the primary metric used by OSPF. It is more closely associated with routing protocols like RIP. C: OSPF doesnвЂ™t base its routing decisions on the amount of traffic. D: Signal strength is not a factor OSPF considers directly while making its routing decisions. Reference: Page Number 299 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is EIGRP not considered a true distance-vector routing protocol? A. It doesnвЂ™t use hop count solely for routing decisions. B. It uses only IP-based routing. C. It doesnвЂ™t support classless routing. D. It is not compatible with IPv6. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why is EIGRP not considered a true distance-vector routing protocol? A. It doesnвЂ™t use hop count solely for routing decisions. B. It uses only IP-based routing. C. It doesnвЂ™t support classless routing. D. It is not compatible with IPv6. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It doesnвЂ™t use hop count solely for routing decisions. Explanation: EIGRP doesnвЂ™t use hop count solely for routing decisions; it can use a combination of bandwidth, delay, load, reliability, and maximum transmission units (MTUs), making it not a true distance-vector routing protocol. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. EIGRP supports not only IPv4 but also IPv6, using protocol-dependent modules (PDMs). C. EIGRP does support classless routing (subnets), variable-length subnet masking (VLSM), discontiguous networks, and summarization of networks. D. EIGRP supports IPv6, not only IPv4. ThereвЂ™s also an IPv6 version of EIGRP called EIGRPv6. Reference: Page Number 300 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum hop count in EIGRP? A. 255 B. 100 C. 50 D. 500 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum hop count in EIGRP? A. 255 B. 100 C. 50 D. 500 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 255 Explanation: The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) supports a maximum hop count of 255, making it a suitable option for large network systems. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B: The default hop count for EIGRP is 100, not the maximum. C: There is no evidence given in the text regarding a 50 hop count limit. D: The maximum hop count for EIGRP is 255, not 500. Reference: Page Number 300 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT correct about a path-vector protocol? A. BGP is a path-vector routing protocol used for Internet routing of IPv4 and IPv6 B. Path-vector routing protocols are classified as distance-vector routing protocols because they listen to peer routers for their information C. Path-vector routing protocols base their routing decisions on the speed of the connection D. BGP uses a process called the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm for choosing the best route to the destination network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT correct about a path-vector protocol? A. BGP is a path-vector routing protocol used for Internet routing of IPv4 and IPv6 B. Path-vector routing protocols are classified as distance-vector routing protocols because they listen to peer routers for their information C. Path-vector routing protocols base their routing decisions on the speed of the connection D. BGP uses a process called the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm for choosing the best route to the destination network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Path-vector routing protocols base their routing decisions on the speed of the connection Explanation: Path-vector routing protocol does not base its decisions on speed of the connection. Rather, BGP chooses the best path based on factors like network policies, path attributes etc. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A is incorrect because the text rightly states that BGP is a path-vector routing protocol used for internet routing of IPv4 and IPv6. B is incorrect because path-vector routing protocols indeed listen to peer routers for their information. D is incorrect because it is true that BGP uses a process called the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm for choosing the best route to the destination network. Reference: Page Number 302 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does BGP use the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm for? A. Choosing the best route to the source network B. Monitoring the network traffic C. Choosing the best route to the destination network D. Securing internal network "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does BGP use the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm for? A. Choosing the best route to the source network B. Monitoring the network traffic C. Choosing the best route to the destination network D. Securing internal network <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Choosing the best route to the destination network Explanation: The BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm to choose the best route to the destination network. This is part of how it manages to maintain stability and reliability in Internet routing. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The BGP Best Path Selection algorithm doesnвЂ™t choose the best route to the source network. It selects the best route to the destination network. B. Monitoring the network traffic is not the primary function of the BGP Best Path Selection algorithm. The main purpose of this algorithm is to select the best route to the destination network. D. The BGP Best Path Selection algorithm is not used to secure internal network, but rather to select the optimal path to the destination network for data transmission. Reference: Page Number 302 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why should VoIP take a higher precedence in the network than simple web browsing or file-based access? A. Because VoIP uses less data B. Because VoIP is a non-time-sensitive service C. Because VoIP is a time-sensitive service D. Because VoIP uses more data "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Why should VoIP take a higher precedence in the network than simple web browsing or file-based access? A. Because VoIP uses less data B. Because VoIP is a non-time-sensitive service C. Because VoIP is a time-sensitive service D. Because VoIP uses more data <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Because VoIP is a time-sensitive service Explanation: VoIP should take a higher precedence in the network than simple web browsing or even file-based access because it is a time-sensitive service. Any delay in the data transfer could affect the quality of the call. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The amount of data used by VoIP is not the reason for its priority in network traffic. B. VoIP is in fact a time-sensitive service, not a non-time-sensitive service. D. Using more data doesnвЂ™t automatically make a service take precedence over others. Reference: Page Number 302 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of traffic shaping in networking? A. To increase the speed of the internet connection B. To regulate data transfer to fit the speed of the connection C. To add extra protective layer to the network traffic D. To make sure the network traffic is encrypted "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of traffic shaping in networking? A. To increase the speed of the internet connection B. To regulate data transfer to fit the speed of the connection C. To add extra protective layer to the network traffic D. To make sure the network traffic is encrypted <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To regulate data transfer to fit the speed of the connection Explanation: Traffic shaping is used to control the volume of outgoing traffic on a network connection to meet the specified speed limit. In this context, it slows down the bit rate to 800 Mbps to avoid overage costs over 800 Mbps, not to increase the speed of the internet or to add an extra layer of protection or to encrypt the network traffic. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Traffic shaping does not increase the speed of internet connection. Rather, it controls or restricts the speed of the data transfer to meet the bandwidth limit. C. The purpose of traffic shaping is not to add an extra layer of protection but to control the amount of outgoing traffic. D. It does not encrypt network traffic, itвЂ™s about controlling speed of data transfer. Reference: Page Number 303 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which layers of the OSI model can QoS be achieved at? A. Layer 3 and Layer 2 B. Layer 5 and Layer 6 C. Layer 4 and Layer 5 D. Layer 1 and Layer 4 "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which layers of the OSI model can QoS be achieved at? A. Layer 3 and Layer 2 B. Layer 5 and Layer 6 C. Layer 4 and Layer 5 D. Layer 1 and Layer 4 <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Layer 3 and Layer 2 Explanation: Quality of Service (QoS) can be achieved at Layer 3 (Network Layer) and Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B, C, D: QoS canвЂ™t be achieved at layers 5, 6, 4, or 1. ItвЂ™s only possible at Layers 2 (Data Link Layer) and 3 (Network Layer) of the OSI model. Reference: Page Number 304 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the DSCP Assured Forwarding (AF) values in DiffServ? A. They determine the speed of data transfer. B. They identify the queue and drop probability of traffic. C. They define the QoS markings. D. They secure the IP header at layer 3. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the DSCP Assured Forwarding (AF) values in DiffServ? A. They determine the speed of data transfer. B. They identify the queue and drop probability of traffic. C. They define the QoS markings. D. They secure the IP header at layer 3. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. They identify the queue and drop probability of traffic. Explanation: In DiffServ, the DSCP Assured Forwarding (AF) values are a combination of a two-digit value. The first digit identifies the queue, with 1 being worst and 4 being best. The second digit refers to the drop probability, where 1 is low and 3 is high. Therefore, these values determine how traffic is queued and the likelihood of it being dropped. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The AF values in Diffserv do not determine the speed of the data transfer, they are used for queue identification and drop probability. C: The QoS markings were originally used by the IP Precedence (IPP), not DSCP. D: The security of the IP header at layer 3 is not determined by the DSCPвЂ™s AF values. Reference: Page Number 304 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Class of Service (CoS) within the layer 2 802.1Q frame? A. CoS is used to calculate the speed of data transfer between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. B. CoS is used to dictate the security protocols between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. C. CoS is used for the prioritization of traffic between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. D. CoS is used to determine the storage capacity of switches on 802.1Q trunk links. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Class of Service (CoS) within the layer 2 802.1Q frame? A. CoS is used to calculate the speed of data transfer between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. B. CoS is used to dictate the security protocols between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. C. CoS is used for the prioritization of traffic between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. D. CoS is used to determine the storage capacity of switches on 802.1Q trunk links. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. CoS is used for the prioritization of traffic between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. Explanation: Class of Service (CoS) is utilized to prioritize traffic between switches on 802.1Q trunk links. It helps determine which data should be processed first based on its priority level. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: CoS does not impact the actual speed at which data is transferred, it only affects priority of different data packets. B: CoS does not dictate the security protocols, its purpose is to aid in traffic prioritization. D: CoS is not related to storage capacity of switches; its function lies in prioritizing traffic. Reference: Page Number 305 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Within the context of Ethernet and IP Communications, what effect does a collision have on a network? A. It increases the network bandwidth. B. It has no effect on the network. C. It slows down traffic and reduces bandwidth. D. It expands the broadcast domain. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Within the context of Ethernet and IP Communications, what effect does a collision have on a network? A. It increases the network bandwidth. B. It has no effect on the network. C. It slows down traffic and reduces bandwidth. D. It expands the broadcast domain. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It slows down traffic and reduces bandwidth. Explanation: A collision occurs when two nodes send a frame simultaneously on the same physical network. It causes nodes to stop and wait, effectively reducing the network bandwidth and slowing down traffic. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A collision reduces the network bandwidth, not increases it. B. Collisions have a significant impact on the network by slowing traffic and reduces bandwidth. D. Collisions and broadcast domains are separate concepts. Collisions affect data transfer rates, whereas broadcast domains encompass the range of network devices that receive broadcast messages. Reference: Page Number 307 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the best method to handle collisions in a network? A. Replace all switches with hubs B. Segregate the network into different broadcast domains C. Increase the bandwidth capacity D. Replace all hubs with switches and ensure full-duplex Ethernet connectivity "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the best method to handle collisions in a network? A. Replace all switches with hubs B. Segregate the network into different broadcast domains C. Increase the bandwidth capacity D. Replace all hubs with switches and ensure full-duplex Ethernet connectivity <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Replace all hubs with switches and ensure full-duplex Ethernet connectivity Explanation: Replacing all hubs with switches and ensuring full-duplex Ethernet connectivity is the most effective method to handle collisions in a network. Switches put each node in its own collision domain regardless of half-duplex or full-duplex operation. Full-duplex communications, which can only be achieved with switches, reserve a pair of wires for transmit and a pair of wires for receive, ensuring that collisions will not occur. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Replacing all switches with hubs would indeed increase the likelihood of collisions because hubs communicate using half-duplex Ethernet and use the same pair of wires to transmit and receive data. B. Segregating the network into different broadcast domains would not directly handle collision problems, it deals with broadcast traffic which is a separate issue. C. Increasing the bandwidth capacity does not eliminate the issue of collisions. It could potentially alleviate the impacts of collisions by providing more resources to the network, but the root cause is not addressed. Reference: Page Number 307 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What can be used to reduce the impact of broadcast traffic in a network? A. Replace all hubs with switches B. Create additional network segments C. Increase the number of switches D. Reduce the usage of ARP protocol "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What can be used to reduce the impact of broadcast traffic in a network? A. Replace all hubs with switches B. Create additional network segments C. Increase the number of switches D. Reduce the usage of ARP protocol <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Create additional network segments Explanation: To mitigate the congestion that broadcasts can cause, more broadcast domains can be created, thereby limiting the number of devices impacted. This can be achieved by constructing additional network segments and connecting these segments with a router. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Replacing all hubs with switches helps in solving collisions, not reducing broadcast traffic impact. C. Increasing the number of switches does not necessarily reduce the broadcast traffic; rather, it affects collision domains. D. Reducing the usage of ARP protocol is not feasible because ARP is necessary for normal communications as it is used for resolving IPs to their associated MAC addresses. Reference: Page Number 307 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a collision domain and how does it affect network communications? A. ItвЂ™s a terminology used to describe all devices that receive a broadcast, thereby affecting network communication through uniting all devices B. ItвЂ™s the group of nodes that receive broadcasts sent out by a device, ultimately slowing down network speed due to the need of resolving all system IPs C. ItвЂ™s the situation when two nodes send a frame simultaneously on the same physical network causing a collision, reducing the bandwidth and affecting communication D. ItвЂ™s a term used to define all devices that send broadcast messages, ultimately affecting the network by increasing broadcast traffic "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a collision domain and how does it affect network communications? A. ItвЂ™s a terminology used to describe all devices that receive a broadcast, thereby affecting network communication through uniting all devices B. ItвЂ™s the group of nodes that receive broadcasts sent out by a device, ultimately slowing down network speed due to the need of resolving all system IPs C. ItвЂ™s the situation when two nodes send a frame simultaneously on the same physical network causing a collision, reducing the bandwidth and affecting communication D. ItвЂ™s a term used to define all devices that send broadcast messages, ultimately affecting the network by increasing broadcast traffic <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. ItвЂ™s the situation when two nodes send a frame simultaneously on the same physical network causing a collision, reducing the bandwidth and affecting communication Explanation: A collision domain refers to a network scenario where one or more networks begin to transmit data at the same time ultimately ending in a data collision. This reduces the networkвЂ™s communication efficiency because a collision requires all nodes on the network to stop and wait for a random period of time via the CSMA/CD contention method, making no data transmittable during this wait time. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A and B are incorrect because they describe a broadcast domain, not a collision domain. Option D is also incorrect because it does not accurately define a collision domain, it is detailing an outcome of frequently initiating broadcasts, but not the situation of a network collision. Reference: Page Number 309 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in a network? A. It is used to derive the layer 2 destination MAC address for the destination IP address. B. It is used to prevent broadcast traffic in IPv6 networks. C. It is exclusively used by IPv6 to replace MAC address. D. It is used to detect duplicate addresses in the network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) in a network? A. It is used to derive the layer 2 destination MAC address for the destination IP address. B. It is used to prevent broadcast traffic in IPv6 networks. C. It is exclusively used by IPv6 to replace MAC address. D. It is used to detect duplicate addresses in the network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It is used to derive the layer 2 destination MAC address for the destination IP address. Explanation: ARP is used to find the layer 2 destination MAC address associated with a given IP address. It does so by sending an ARP request to all the devices on the network. When a device sees its IP address in the ARP request, it will send back an ARP reply containing its MAC address. The device that originally asked will then store this information in its ARP table. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. ARP is not used to prevent broadcast traffic in IPv6 networks. In fact, IPv4 networks, which use ARP, canвЂ™t work without broadcasts. IPv6 networks, on the other hand, use Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP), not ARP. C. ARP is not exclusively used by IPv6 or used to replace MAC addresses. ARP is used by IPv4 networks to associate IP addresses with MAC addresses. In contrast, IPv6 uses NDP for this purpose. D. Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) is used to identify duplicate addresses in a network, not ARP. Reference: Page Number 309 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key difference between the operation of the IPv4 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)? A. ARP uses unicast, while NDP uses multicast B. NDP uses broadcasts, while ARP uses multicast C. ARP uses broadcasts, while NDP uses multicast D. NDP uses unicast, while ARP uses broadcasts "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key difference between the operation of the IPv4 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) and the IPv6 Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP)? A. ARP uses unicast, while NDP uses multicast B. NDP uses broadcasts, while ARP uses multicast C. ARP uses broadcasts, while NDP uses multicast D. NDP uses unicast, while ARP uses broadcasts <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. ARP uses broadcasts, while NDP uses multicast Explanation: In an IPv4 network, when two hosts begin to communicate, the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) would send a broadcast to all listening hosts and devices on the network to find the MAC address corresponding to the destination IP address. The broadcast mechanism poses a challenge as the network size grows, with an increase in the residual bandwidth required from ARP. The Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) used by IPv6, however, resolves the destination layer 2 MAC address for a given destination IPv6 address using multicast traffic rather than broadcasts. This significantly reduces residual traffic. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect because ARP uses broadcasts, not unicasts, and NDP uses multicast, not unicast. B. This is misleading as it is ARP that uses broadcasts, not NDP. Further, NDP is dependent on multicast, not broadcast. D. This is not accurate since NDP makes use of multicast packets, not unicast, and ARP utilizes broadcasts, not unicast. Reference: Page Number 309 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three defining characteristics of a switchport? A. Speed, Duplex, and MAC Address B. Duplex, Flow Control, and IP Address C. Speed, MAC Address, and Flow Control D. Speed, Duplex, and Flow Control "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three defining characteristics of a switchport? A. Speed, Duplex, and MAC Address B. Duplex, Flow Control, and IP Address C. Speed, MAC Address, and Flow Control D. Speed, Duplex, and Flow Control <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Speed, Duplex, and Flow Control Explanation: Every switchport has three defining characteristics: Speed indicates the rate of data transmission, measured in bits per second. Duplex refers to how data is transmitted and received - either half-duplex, where the same set of wires are used to express transmit and receive, or full-duplex, which uses a separate set of wires for transmitting and receiving. Flow Control is the mechanism that coordinates communication between the sender and the switchport, especially when the switchport buffers are full. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. MAC Address is an element of a network device, not a characteristic of a switchport. B. IP Address is an address assigned to a device on a network, not a characteristic of a switchport. C. MAC Address is an element of a network device, not a characteristic of a switchport. Reference: Page Number 310 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How is the speed of a port on a switch measured? A. In megabytes per second B. In bits per second C. In gigahertz D. In data packets per second "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> How is the speed of a port on a switch measured? A. In megabytes per second B. In bits per second C. In gigahertz D. In data packets per second <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. In bits per second Explanation: The speed of a port on a switch is measured in bits per second, with the possibilities of different speeds such as 10 Mb/s, 100 Mb/s, 1 Gb/s, 10 Gb/s, 25 Gb/s, and more. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The speed of a port is not measured in megabytes per second, but in bits per second. C. Gigahertz is a unit of frequency, not speed. D. The speed of a port is not typically measured in data packets per second, but in bits per second. Reference: Page Number 310 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the operation of a port in full-duplex mode? A. The same wires are used to transmit and receive data creating a single collision domain. B. A set of wires is dedicated for transmitting and a set is dedicated for receiving data, allowing for simultaneous data transmission and reception. C. The port transmits and receives data alternatively, leading to possible transmission collision. D. The port operates at half the speed of wire bidirectionally "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following describes the operation of a port in full-duplex mode? A. The same wires are used to transmit and receive data creating a single collision domain. B. A set of wires is dedicated for transmitting and a set is dedicated for receiving data, allowing for simultaneous data transmission and reception. C. The port transmits and receives data alternatively, leading to possible transmission collision. D. The port operates at half the speed of wire bidirectionally <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. A set of wires is dedicated for transmitting and a set is dedicated for receiving data, allowing for simultaneous data transmission and reception. Explanation: In full-duplex mode, a set of wires is dedicated for transmitting data and another set is dedicated for receiving data. This setup allows simultaneous transmission and reception of data without risk of collision. Furthermore, if the switch supports the full speed of the wire, the switchport can potentially switch the full speed of the wire bidirectionally. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A describes half-duplex operation, not full-duplex. Choice C and D are incorrect. In full-duplex mode, data transmission and reception can occur simultaneously without risk of collision and the switchport can potentially switch at the full speed of the wire bidirectionally. Reference: Page Number 310 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of flow control in Ethernet? A. It increases the speed of the switchport B. It allows the port to communicate back to the sender to temporarily stop sending data if the switchport buffers are full C. It ensures the port is operating at half-duplex D. It allows for backward compatibility with slower speeds "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of flow control in Ethernet? A. It increases the speed of the switchport B. It allows the port to communicate back to the sender to temporarily stop sending data if the switchport buffers are full C. It ensures the port is operating at half-duplex D. It allows for backward compatibility with slower speeds <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It allows the port to communicate back to the sender to temporarily stop sending data if the switchport buffers are full Explanation: Flow Control, also known as 802.3x pause frames, is a feature of Ethernet that allows a port to communicate back to the sender to transiently halt sending data if the switchport buffers are full. This is important in situations where high, uninterrupted speeds are required. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Flow control doesnвЂ™t increase the speed of the switchport but helps manage traffic if the buffers are full. C. Flow control and duplex mode are different characteristics of a switchport; flow control does not ensure half-duplex operation. D. Backward compatibility is related to the speed characteristic of the switchport and not to flow control. Reference: Page Number 311 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of the Collision Detection (CD) in the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)? A. To stop any data transmission B. To detect simultaneous data transmission and signal a temporary jam C. To assign different access times to nodes D. To enable conversations without back-off algorithms "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main function of the Collision Detection (CD) in the Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)? A. To stop any data transmission B. To detect simultaneous data transmission and signal a temporary jam C. To assign different access times to nodes D. To enable conversations without back-off algorithms <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To detect simultaneous data transmission and signal a temporary jam Explanation: The вЂ™Collision DetectionвЂ™ (CD) part of CSMA/CD is there to detect when two network nodes are attempting to transmit data at the same time. When this simultaneous transmission, or вЂ™collisionвЂ™, is detected, the nodes both transmit a temporary jam signal. This prevents any other nodes from creating additional collisions. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The CD does not stop data transmission; it merely regulates them to avoid collisions. C. CD does not assign different access times to nodes; all nodes have equal access after a random back-off time. D. CD uses the back-off algorithm to determine the random amount of time before transmission can be attempted again. Reference: Page Number 311 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three basic functions of a switch related to the MAC address? A. MAC address learning, backward filtering, and loop acceleration B. MAC address learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance C. MAC address detection, forward propagating, and loop recreation D. MAC address amplification, forward projection, and loop bypassing "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three basic functions of a switch related to the MAC address? A. MAC address learning, backward filtering, and loop acceleration B. MAC address learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance C. MAC address detection, forward propagating, and loop recreation D. MAC address amplification, forward projection, and loop bypassing <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. MAC address learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance Explanation: The text discusses three basic functions a switch performs related to the MAC address: MAC address learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance. MAC address learning occurs when the switch learns and stores the MAC address on the port it was received. Forward filtering corresponds to the switch deciding on the destination port based on the MAC address table. Loop avoidance is a high-end feature of more expensive switches that prevents the creation of network loops. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Backward filtering and loop acceleration are not functions of a switch. MAC address learning is correct. C. A switch does not perform MAC address detection, forward propagating, or loop recreation. D. A switch does not amplify MAC addresses, project them forward, or bypass loops. Reference: Page Number 311 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three basic functions of MAC address? A. Learning, forward filtering, and encryption B. Learning, backward filtering, and loop avoidance C. Learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance D. Learning, forward filtering, and routing "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the three basic functions of MAC address? A. Learning, forward filtering, and encryption B. Learning, backward filtering, and loop avoidance C. Learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance D. Learning, forward filtering, and routing <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance Explanation: The three basic functions of MAC address performed by a switch are learning, forward filtering, and loop avoidance. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because encryption is not one of the basic functions of a MAC address. Choice B is incorrect because thereвЂ™s no function called вЂ™backward filteringвЂ™. Choice D is wrong because routing is not a basic function of MAC address but rather a feature offered by more advanced switches. Reference: Page Number 311 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. To block data from being switched on a primary link B. To allow multiple paths between switching equipment for better bandwidth C. To create redundant connections in a network and avoid switching loops D. To initiate a broadcast storm when there are redundant links "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. To block data from being switched on a primary link B. To allow multiple paths between switching equipment for better bandwidth C. To create redundant connections in a network and avoid switching loops D. To initiate a broadcast storm when there are redundant links <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To create redundant connections in a network and avoid switching loops Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is specifically used to create redundant connections in a network and avoid switching loops, which can cut the bandwidth in half or even cause a broadcast storm, severely impairing bandwidth and significantly increasing CPU utilization as each hostвЂ™s operating system processes the broadcasts. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. STP doesnвЂ™t block data from being switched on a primary link; it blocks data on redundant links when the primary link is up and running. B. While STP does allow for redundancy, its main goal is not to improve bandwidth but rather to prevent switching loops that can consume bandwidth. D. STP actually works to prevent broadcast storms, not initiate them. Reference: Page Number 313 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) in the STP (802.1D) protocol? A. It helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge. B. It elects the root bridge among the switches. C. It blocks redundant links from causing a switching loop. D. It forwards BPDUs on blocking ports. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) in the STP (802.1D) protocol? A. It helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge. B. It elects the root bridge among the switches. C. It blocks redundant links from causing a switching loop. D. It forwards BPDUs on blocking ports. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It blocks redundant links from causing a switching loop. Explanation: The Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) is used in the STP protocol to prevent switching loops by blocking redundant links. Blocking these redundant links ensures that there is only one active path between any two nodes on a network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It is the port cost that helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge, not the Spanning Tree Algorithm. B. The root bridge is not elected by the STA but rather is the switch with the lowest bridge ID. D. Forwarding BPDUs on blocking ports is not a function of the STA, but rather a characteristic of the blocking ports themselves. Reference: Page Number 314 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™Root BridgeвЂ™ in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) refer to? A. It refers to the switches that are not the root bridge B. It is the redundant link with the highest cost to the root bridge C. It refers to the switch with the highest bridge ID D. It refers to the switch with the lowest bridge ID "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the term вЂ™Root BridgeвЂ™ in Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) refer to? A. It refers to the switches that are not the root bridge B. It is the redundant link with the highest cost to the root bridge C. It refers to the switch with the highest bridge ID D. It refers to the switch with the lowest bridge ID <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It refers to the switch with the lowest bridge ID Explanation: In the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), the Root Bridge is defined as the switch with the lowest bridge ID. All other switches must make their way to the root bridge in the network, as it becomes the focus of the network. It is where all the servers are often located, and all redundancy is managed with the root. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The switches that are not the root bridge are called Non-Root bridges. B. The redundant link with the higher cost to the root bridge is called the Blocking Port. C. The Root bridge is the switch with the lowest bridge ID, not the highest. Reference: Page Number 314 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a notable characteristic of Non-Root Bridges in the context of Spanning Tree Protocol? A. They have the lowest MAC address on the switch B. They are where the servers are usually located C. They participate in STP by exchanging Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) D. They have the highest bridge priority "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a notable characteristic of Non-Root Bridges in the context of Spanning Tree Protocol? A. They have the lowest MAC address on the switch B. They are where the servers are usually located C. They participate in STP by exchanging Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) D. They have the highest bridge priority <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They participate in STP by exchanging Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) Explanation: The text states that Non-Root Bridges participate in Spanning Tree Protocol by exchanging Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). This is a key part of how they interact with the network and contribute to the functioning of the STP. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Having the lowest MAC address on the switch is related to the calculation of the bridge ID, it does not characterize Non-Root Bridges specifically. B. The root bridge, not Non-Root Bridges, is often where servers are located. D. The bridge priority being highest does not describe Non-Root Bridges. In fact, the bridge with the lowest priority (which can be adjusted) becomes the root bridge. Reference: Page Number 315 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the Bridge ID in the Spanning Tree Protocol represent? A. The cost of the port leading to the root bridge B. The calculation based on the lowest MAC address on the switch and the priority C. The speed of the networkвЂ™s link D. The port that leads to the root bridge on an adjacent switch "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the Bridge ID in the Spanning Tree Protocol represent? A. The cost of the port leading to the root bridge B. The calculation based on the lowest MAC address on the switch and the priority C. The speed of the networkвЂ™s link D. The port that leads to the root bridge on an adjacent switch <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. The calculation based on the lowest MAC address on the switch and the priority Explanation: The Bridge ID in the Spanning Tree Protocol represents the calculation of the lowest MAC address on the switch and its priority. It does not represent the cost of a port, the speed of a network link, or the port leading to the root bridge. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The cost of the port leading to the root bridge refers to the вЂ™Port CostвЂ™ concept, and it is used to determine the fastest connection to the Root Bridge, not the Bridge ID. C. The speed of the networkвЂ™s link refers to the вЂ™Link speedвЂ™ and is used to determine the cost of a connection, not the Bridge ID. D. The port that leads to the root bridge on an adjacent switch is referred to as the вЂ™Root PortвЂ™, and again, this does not relate to the Bridge ID. Reference: Page Number 315 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the port cost in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. It helps determine the root bridge B. It helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge C. It helps determine which switch has the lowest MAC address D. It helps determine which port the servers are located "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the port cost in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. It helps determine the root bridge B. It helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge C. It helps determine which switch has the lowest MAC address D. It helps determine which port the servers are located <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It helps determine the fastest connection to the root bridge Explanation: The port cost in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used to identify the fastest path to the root bridge. This is important in managing redundancy and preventing switching loops in the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The root bridge is determined by the lowest bridge ID, not the port cost. C. The MAC Address of the switch plays a role in determining the bridge ID, but is separate from the port cost. D. The location of servers doesnвЂ™t depend on the port cost but in many cases, the servers are located at the root bridge. Reference: Page Number 315 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Root Port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. It is the link with the lowest MAC address. B. It is the port that is not allowed to forward frames. C. It is the port leading to the root bridge on the adjacent switch. D. It is the switch with the lowest bridge ID. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the Root Port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. It is the link with the lowest MAC address. B. It is the port that is not allowed to forward frames. C. It is the port leading to the root bridge on the adjacent switch. D. It is the switch with the lowest bridge ID. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is the port leading to the root bridge on the adjacent switch. Explanation: The root port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is the port that leads to the root bridge from the adjacent switch. In case of multiple ports from the same switch leading to the root bridge, the port with the lowest cost becomes the root port. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The link with the lowest MAC address is used in calculating the bridge ID, not defining the root port. B. The port that is not allowed to forward frames is known as a Blocking Port, not a Root Port. D. The switch with the lowest bridge ID is called the Root Bridge, not the Root Port. Reference: Page Number 315 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a Forwarding Port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. It is the port that has the highest cost and is not allowed to forward frames. B. It is the port leading to the root bridge on the adjacent switch. C. It is the port that is allowed to forward frames and assists in forwarding frames to a root bridge with the lowest cost. D. It is the redundant link that has a higher cost to the root bridge and will not forward data. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of a Forwarding Port in the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. It is the port that has the highest cost and is not allowed to forward frames. B. It is the port leading to the root bridge on the adjacent switch. C. It is the port that is allowed to forward frames and assists in forwarding frames to a root bridge with the lowest cost. D. It is the redundant link that has a higher cost to the root bridge and will not forward data. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is the port that is allowed to forward frames and assists in forwarding frames to a root bridge with the lowest cost. Explanation: In the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), a Forwarding Port is a port that is allowed to forward frames to the root bridge, and is designated as such because it has the lowest cost. This helps in managing network redundancy and preventing switching loops. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This explanation refers to a Blocking Port, not a Forwarding Port. B. This definition is for a Root Port, not a Forwarding Port. D. This definition refers to a Blocking Port, but it also incorrectly suggests that BPDUs are not forwarded when in reality they are. Reference: Page Number 315 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a Blocking Port in the STP (802.1D) protocol? A. To forward frames to the root bridge B. To forward all data within the network C. To prevent forwarding of frames but allow forwarding of BPDUs D. To guarantee the functioning of redundant links "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of a Blocking Port in the STP (802.1D) protocol? A. To forward frames to the root bridge B. To forward all data within the network C. To prevent forwarding of frames but allow forwarding of BPDUs D. To guarantee the functioning of redundant links <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To prevent forwarding of frames but allow forwarding of BPDUs Explanation: In the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), a blocking port is utilized to block the forwarding of frames, preventing formation of loops in the network. However, it still allows the forwarding of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) in order to maintain network structure and information. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Forwarding frames to the root bridge is done by a forwarding port, not a blocking port. B. Blocking port is not responsible for forwarding all data within the network. It specifically blocks forwarding of frames except for BPDUs. D. Blocking port does not guarantee the functioning of redundant links. It is used to prevent loop formation in the network structure. Reference: Page Number 315 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What happens to the switch with the higher cost in STP operations? A. Its port is put into a root mode B. Its port is put into a forwarding mode C. Its port is put into a blocking mode D. Its port is disconnected "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What happens to the switch with the higher cost in STP operations? A. Its port is put into a root mode B. Its port is put into a forwarding mode C. Its port is put into a blocking mode D. Its port is disconnected <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Its port is put into a blocking mode Explanation: In a Spanning Tree Protocol operation, once the root bridge is selected and all of its ports are put into forwarding mode, any redundant link is evaluated. The switch with the lower cost will have its port put into forwarding mode, while the switch with the higher cost will have its port put into a blocking mode. This blocks redundant links and helps avoid switching loops. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. вЂ™Root modeвЂ™ doesnвЂ™t exist in the context of STP. The terms are forwarding and blocking mode. B. In STP operation, the port on the switch with the higher cost is put into blocking mode, not forwarding mode. D. Ports in the switch with a higher cost are not necessarily disconnected. They are put into blocking mode, but they can start forwarding traffic again if network changes occur. Reference: Page Number 315 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the blocking state in STP port states? A. To allow the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches and calculate its own STP database. B. To ensure that a loop will not occur by blocking traffic. C. To forward frames if the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port. D. To disable a port. This is manually done by an administrator. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the blocking state in STP port states? A. To allow the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches and calculate its own STP database. B. To ensure that a loop will not occur by blocking traffic. C. To forward frames if the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port. D. To disable a port. This is manually done by an administrator. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To ensure that a loop will not occur by blocking traffic. Explanation: The blocking state is the initial state of any active port. Its purpose is to prevent a switching loop from happening in the network by blocking all user data frames. BPDUs are still transmitted during this state to enable the Spanning Tree Algorithm to calculate redundant paths. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This describes the вЂ™LearningвЂ™ and вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ states. The switch listens to BPDU in order to compute its own database in вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ state and allows it to learn from BPDU to calculate STP database in вЂ™LearningвЂ™ state. C. This describes the вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ state. In this state frames are allowed to forward if the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port. D. This misconception may occur as the вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state also involves stopping traffic. However, the вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state is not, technically, a part of the STP port states and is manually enacted by an administrator. Reference: Page Number 317 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state indicate in port transitions of a switch? A. It is the first state of any active port. B. It ensures that a loop will not occur. C. It is a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator. D. It indicates that the port has a redundant path or is the lowest cost port. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state indicate in port transitions of a switch? A. It is the first state of any active port. B. It ensures that a loop will not occur. C. It is a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator. D. It indicates that the port has a redundant path or is the lowest cost port. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator. Explanation: вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ refers to a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator. ItвЂ™s not really an STP port state. Bypassed by an administrator for reasons like maintenance, security, or fault isolation, this port will not forward frames. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The вЂ™BlockingвЂ™ state is the first state of any active port, not вЂ™DisabledвЂ™. B. The вЂ™BlockingвЂ™ state, not the вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state, ensures that a loop will not occur. D. The вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ state, not the вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state, indicates that the port does not have a redundant path nor is the lowest cost port, and is thus capable of forwarding frames. Reference: Page Number 317 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the вЂ™blockingвЂ™ state in a switch port transition? A. To disable the port manually B. To forward frames C. To allow the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches D. To prevent loop occurrence by not allowing frame forwarding "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the вЂ™blockingвЂ™ state in a switch port transition? A. To disable the port manually B. To forward frames C. To allow the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches D. To prevent loop occurrence by not allowing frame forwarding <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. To prevent loop occurrence by not allowing frame forwarding Explanation: The вЂ™blockingвЂ™ state is the first state that a port transitions to when it becomes active on a switch. Its primary role is to prevent potential switching loops in the network. Although no frames are forwarded in this state, BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) are still transmitted so the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) can calculate redundant paths. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Disabling the port manually refers to the вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state, not вЂ™BlockingвЂ™. B. The вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ state is responsible for frame forwardage, not вЂ™BlockingвЂ™. C. вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ and вЂ™LearningвЂ™ stages entail the switch listening to BPDUs of other switches, not вЂ™BlockingвЂ™. Reference: Page Number 317 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of port states in a switchвЂ™s STP processes, what is the purpose of the вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ state? A. It functions to disable a port that has been turned off by an administrator. B. It allows the port to forward frames. C. It calculates redundant paths by transmitting BPDUs. D. It allows the port to listen for BPDUs. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of port states in a switchвЂ™s STP processes, what is the purpose of the вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ state? A. It functions to disable a port that has been turned off by an administrator. B. It allows the port to forward frames. C. It calculates redundant paths by transmitting BPDUs. D. It allows the port to listen for BPDUs. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It allows the port to listen for BPDUs. Explanation: The вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ state in a switchвЂ™s STP processes allows the port to listen for Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs). Through these BPDUs, the port can gain information about the network topology. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The function of disabling a port that has been turned off by an administrator is associated with the вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state, not the вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ state. B. The function of allowing the port to forward frames is associated with the вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ state, not the вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ state. C. The function of calculating redundant paths by transmitting BPDUs is associated with the вЂ™BlockingвЂ™ state, not the вЂ™ListeningвЂ™ state. Reference: Page Number 317 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the вЂ™LearningвЂ™ port state in a switch? A. It ensures that a loop will not occur in the network B. It allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches so that it can calculate its own STP database C. It allows the switch to forward frames. D. It is a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the вЂ™LearningвЂ™ port state in a switch? A. It ensures that a loop will not occur in the network B. It allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches so that it can calculate its own STP database C. It allows the switch to forward frames. D. It is a state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches so that it can calculate its own STP database Explanation: The вЂ™LearningвЂ™ port state works in conjunction with a listening port; it allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches so that it can calculate its own STP database. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ensuring that a loop will not occur in the network is the function of the вЂ™BlockingвЂ™ port state, not the вЂ™LearningвЂ™ port state. C. Allowing the switch to forward frames is the function of the вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ port state, not the вЂ™LearningвЂ™ port state. D. The state of any port that has been disabled by an administrator is termed as вЂ™DisabledвЂ™, not the вЂ™LearningвЂ™ port state. Reference: Page Number 318 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ state in a switch port transition? A. It is the state where the port has been disabled by an administrator B. It is the first state of any active port, ensuring that a loop will not occur C. It is the state that allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches D. If the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port, it transitions into this mode where frames are allowed to be forwarded "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the role of the вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ state in a switch port transition? A. It is the state where the port has been disabled by an administrator B. It is the first state of any active port, ensuring that a loop will not occur C. It is the state that allows the switch to listen to BPDUs of other switches D. If the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port, it transitions into this mode where frames are allowed to be forwarded <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. If the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port, it transitions into this mode where frames are allowed to be forwarded Explanation: The вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™ state of a port is the final transition stage when the port does not have a redundant path or is the lowest cost port. At this stage, frames are allowed to be forwarded. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This describes the вЂ™DisabledвЂ™ state, not вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™. B. This describes the вЂ™BlockingвЂ™ state, not вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™. C. This describes the вЂ™LearningвЂ™ state, not вЂ™ForwardingвЂ™. Reference: Page Number 318 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What happens during the STP convergence in a network? A. All active ports are placed into a forwarding or blocking mode. B. All active ports are placed into a listening or learning mode. C. All active ports are placed into a forwarding and blocking mode simultaneously. D. All active ports are stopped and then restarted. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What happens during the STP convergence in a network? A. All active ports are placed into a forwarding or blocking mode. B. All active ports are placed into a listening or learning mode. C. All active ports are placed into a forwarding and blocking mode simultaneously. D. All active ports are stopped and then restarted. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. All active ports are placed into a forwarding or blocking mode. Explanation: During STP convergence, all active ports on the switch are placed into either a forwarding or blocking mode. They are not put into listening or learning mode, nor are they stopped and restarted. Also, the ports do not operate in forward and blocking mode simultaneously. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. All active ports are not placed into a listening or learning mode during STP convergence, these modes are part of the transition process. C. The ports do not operate in both forwarding and blocking mode simultaneously during STP convergence. D. The active ports on the switch are not stopped and restarted during the STP convergence. Unplugging and plugging back in can cause a delay in frame forwarding, but this does not equate to the ports being stopped and then restarted. Reference: Page Number 318 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the enhancements introduced in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) compared to the original Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. RSTP introduces a slower convergence time than STP. B. RSTP does not consider path cost when calculating forwarding ports. C. RSTP introduces two port modes: backup and alternate ports. D. RSTP is not backward compatible with STP. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the enhancements introduced in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) compared to the original Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. RSTP introduces a slower convergence time than STP. B. RSTP does not consider path cost when calculating forwarding ports. C. RSTP introduces two port modes: backup and alternate ports. D. RSTP is not backward compatible with STP. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. RSTP introduces two port modes: backup and alternate ports. Explanation: RSTP introduces two additional port modes to STP: backup and alternate ports. The addition of these port roles contributes to faster convergence times in the network because it allows for the efficient use of redundant paths. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect, RSTP offers fast convergence time compared to the original STP. This is achieved due to RSTP being more proactive with calculations. B. Incorrect, one of the main differences between RSTP and STP is that RSTP does consider path cost when calculating forwarding ports. The entire path is calculated versus the individual port cost under STP. D. Incorrect, RSTP is backward compatible with STP, allowing it to be configured on a port-by-port basis on most switches. Reference: Page Number 318 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary mechanism to segment networks? A. Duplex B. Port Mirroring C. Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary mechanism to segment networks? A. Duplex B. Port Mirroring C. Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) D. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs) Explanation: The primary mechanism to segment networks is through the use of Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs). VLANs allow for logical segmentation of a network inside a physical switch, creating separate broadcast domains inside the same physical switch and controlling the number of broadcasts that each client can hear. They also provide scalability, flexibility for maintenance, security through the grouping of users and the application of access control lists and increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing their size. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Duplex, Port Mirroring, and Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) are properties of switched interfaces, not the primary mechanism for network segmentation. Duplex refers to the ability of information to travel in two directions, either simultaneously (full-duplex) or alternately (half-duplex). Port Mirroring is a method of monitoring network traffic by forwarding a copy of each incoming and outgoing packet from one port of a network switch to another port. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that builds a logical loop-free topology for Ethernet networks. Reference: Page Number 318 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the main uses of VLANs in a network? A. Provide Internet access to clients B. Partition a network into subnetworks C. Ensure all nodes have equal access to the network D. Deliver power to network devices "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is one of the main uses of VLANs in a network? A. Provide Internet access to clients B. Partition a network into subnetworks C. Ensure all nodes have equal access to the network D. Deliver power to network devices <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Partition a network into subnetworks Explanation: VLANs primarily segment networks into several smaller sub-networks or partitions (known as broadcast domains). They provide logical separation of networks within the same physical infrastructure, controlling broadcasts, enhancing security, and achieving scalability. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Providing Internet access to clients is the role of a router or modem, not specifically a feature of VLAN. C. VLANs do not ensure all nodes have equal access to the network. In fact, they are used to logically separate nodes within a network. D. Power delivery to network devices is achieved through Power over Ethernet (PoE), not VLANs. Reference: Page Number 319 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the 802.1Q trunking protocol do? A. It deals with routing between VLANs B. It appends a VLAN tag to frames as they pass between switches C. It manages the IP addresses for devices on the network D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does the 802.1Q trunking protocol do? A. It deals with routing between VLANs B. It appends a VLAN tag to frames as they pass between switches C. It manages the IP addresses for devices on the network D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It appends a VLAN tag to frames as they pass between switches Explanation: The 802.1Q trunking protocol append a VLAN tag to frames as they are switched between network switches. This allows the information about the VLAN membership of the frame to be carried over the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A - ISL, not 802.1Q, is proprietary to Cisco and handles routing. Option C - IP management is not a function of 802.1Q. ItвЂ™s typically handled by other network protocols, such as DHCP. Option D - Filtering traffic based on MAC addresses is not a function of 802.1Q. ItвЂ™s handled by access control lists (ACLs) or other security measures. Reference: Page Number 322 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between a tagging port and an untagging port in an 802.1Q trunk system? A. A tagging port forwards information to the far side switch with a VLAN tag while a untagging port reads it. B. A tagging port simply refers to a voice port while an untagging port serves as communication between two switches. C. An untagging port removes the VLAN tag from a frame while a tagging port attaches it. D. A tagging port forwards the tagged data to normal network clients and an untagging port removes it. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the difference between a tagging port and an untagging port in an 802.1Q trunk system? A. A tagging port forwards information to the far side switch with a VLAN tag while a untagging port reads it. B. A tagging port simply refers to a voice port while an untagging port serves as communication between two switches. C. An untagging port removes the VLAN tag from a frame while a tagging port attaches it. D. A tagging port forwards the tagged data to normal network clients and an untagging port removes it. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. An untagging port removes the VLAN tag from a frame while a tagging port attaches it. Explanation: In an 802.1Q trunk system, a tagging port attaches a VLAN tag to the frame before it leaves. An untagging port, on the other hand, removes the VLAN tag from the frame when it leaves. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. A tagging port forwards information to the far side switch with a VLAN tag while an untagging port reads it - This is incorrect because untagging ports actually remove the VLAN tag from a frame. B. A tagging port simply refers to a voice port while an untagging port serves as communication between two switches - This is incorrect because voice ports are ports that listen for tagging information for VoIP data. C. A tagging port forwards the tagged data to normal network clients and an untagging port removes it - This is incorrect because normal network clients donвЂ™t need to see the 802.1Q tagging information. Reference: Page Number 323 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a Voice VLAN in a network? A. It allows a switchport to support only a computer. B. It allows a switchport to support only a VoIP phone. C. It allows a switchport to support both a VoIP phone and a computer simultaneously. D. It blocks all traffic to the VoIP phone and computer. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of a Voice VLAN in a network? A. It allows a switchport to support only a computer. B. It allows a switchport to support only a VoIP phone. C. It allows a switchport to support both a VoIP phone and a computer simultaneously. D. It blocks all traffic to the VoIP phone and computer. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It allows a switchport to support both a VoIP phone and a computer simultaneously. Explanation: A voice VLAN allows a switchport to support both a VoIP phone and a computer at the same time, by acting as both a tagged port for the VoIP traffic and an untagged port for the computerвЂ™s data traffic. This is made possible by the small switch inside the phone that can divert traffic tagged with the voice VLAN to the phone and untagged traffic to the computer. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A, B, D: These choices are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the function of a Voice VLAN. A Voice VLAN allows a switchport to support both a VoIP phone and a computer simultaneously, not only one or the other (choices A and B), and certainly not blocking all traffic (choice D). Reference: Page Number 324 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a feature on a managed switch that can be used to secure your network? A. Port mirroring B. Load balancing C. Port security D. Power over Ethernet "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a feature on a managed switch that can be used to secure your network? A. Port mirroring B. Load balancing C. Port security D. Power over Ethernet <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Port security Explanation: Port security is a feature on a managed switch that can be used to increase the security of your network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Port mirroring is used for diagnosing problems and not for increasing network security. Load balancing and Power over Ethernet are also features of managed switches, but they are not primarily used for increasing network security. Reference: Page Number 325 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of port mirroring in a network switch? A. To capture packets for analyzing network issues. B. To create a separate collision domain. C. To isolate the conversation from other ports. D. To increase the bandwidth of the network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of port mirroring in a network switch? A. To capture packets for analyzing network issues. B. To create a separate collision domain. C. To isolate the conversation from other ports. D. To increase the bandwidth of the network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. To capture packets for analyzing network issues. Explanation: Port mirroring functionality allows for the mirroring of a port to another port. This functionality enables network administrators to eavesdrop on a conversation and record it for analysis with a packet capture host. It is a method used to diagnose and solve network issues. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Creating a separate collision domain is a problem that can occur if a hub is used, not a usefulness of port mirroring. C. Port isolation is a function of the switch, not specifically of port mirroring. D. Port mirroring does not increase network bandwidth; it is used for network diagnostics and troubleshooting. Reference: Page Number 325 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky in Port Security? A. To prevent the switch from recording the MAC address B. To enable the switch to remember only the first MAC address and restrict the port to that address C. To allow the switch to remember all MAC addresses connecting to this port D. To remove the MAC address from the switching table after a period of inactivity "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of the command switchport port-security mac-address sticky in Port Security? A. To prevent the switch from recording the MAC address B. To enable the switch to remember only the first MAC address and restrict the port to that address C. To allow the switch to remember all MAC addresses connecting to this port D. To remove the MAC address from the switching table after a period of inactivity <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To enable the switch to remember only the first MAC address and restrict the port to that address Explanation: The switchport port-security mac-address sticky command is used to make the switch remember the first MAC address that connects to that port, and restricts the port to only that address. Unless an administrator clears it, this address is remembered indefinitely. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The command is not used to prevent the switch from recording the MAC address. Rather, it allows the switch to remember the first MAC address and restricts the port to that address. C. The command is not meant to enable the switch to remember all MAC addresses connecting to a port, but only the first one. D. The command is meant to retain the MAC address indefinitely, not to remove it after a period of inactivity. Reference: Page Number 325 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main purpose of port aggregation? A. To reduce the size of data frames B. To increase bandwidth between switches C. To decrease latency in networks D. To simplify switch configurations "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main purpose of port aggregation? A. To reduce the size of data frames B. To increase bandwidth between switches C. To decrease latency in networks D. To simplify switch configurations <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. To increase bandwidth between switches Explanation: Port aggregation is a mechanism for aggregating (combining) multiple ports together to increase the bandwidth between switches. You can combine multiple links, such as 1 Gbps connections, to provide higher bandwidth, such as 2 Gbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A is incorrect because port aggregation doesnвЂ™t reduce the size of data frames. It combines multiple ports to increase the bandwidth between switches. Choice C is incorrect because while decreasing latency is an important aspect of network management, it is not the primary function of port aggregation. Port aggregation is used to increase bandwidth between switches. Choice D is incorrect because port aggregation doesnвЂ™t simplify switch configurations. Instead, it requires additional configuration to aggregate the ports. Reference: Page Number 326 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the functionality of the Auto-Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover (MDI-X)? A. It allows for automatic detection of the transmit and receive pair. B. It aggregates ports together for increasing bandwidth between switches. C. It supports larger framing of data up to 9000 bytes. D. It is a proprietary Cisco protocol for port aggregation. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the functionality of the Auto-Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover (MDI-X)? A. It allows for automatic detection of the transmit and receive pair. B. It aggregates ports together for increasing bandwidth between switches. C. It supports larger framing of data up to 9000 bytes. D. It is a proprietary Cisco protocol for port aggregation. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It allows for automatic detection of the transmit and receive pair. Explanation: The Auto-Medium-Dependent Interface Crossover (MDI-X) allows for automatic detection of the transmit and receive pair, autocrossing the connection when a straight-through cable is present, connecting a switch to another switch. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The aggregating ports together for increasing bandwidth between switches is done by a mechanism called port aggregation, not by MDI-X. C. The support for larger framing of data up to 9000 bytes is a feature of jumbo frames, not MDI-X. D. The proprietary Cisco protocol for port aggregation is called Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP), not MDI-X. Reference: Page Number 327 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a possible disadvantage of using jumbo frames in a network? A. They reduce the maximum transmission unit (MTU) B. They cause packet fragmentation C. They can decrease network performance if not all equipment support them D. They are not supported by iSCSI storage "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a possible disadvantage of using jumbo frames in a network? A. They reduce the maximum transmission unit (MTU) B. They cause packet fragmentation C. They can decrease network performance if not all equipment support them D. They are not supported by iSCSI storage <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. They can decrease network performance if not all equipment support them Explanation: While jumbo frames can improve network performance by preventing data fragmentation, they require all network equipment in the switching path to support this larger framing of data, also known as the maximum transmission unit (MTU). If not, using jumbo frames can actually cause a decrease in network performance. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Jumbo frames do not reduce the maximum transmission unit (MTU), but instead, they increase the size of an Ethernet frame. B. Rather than causing packet fragmentation, jumbo frames actually help to prevent it. D. Jumbo frames are supported and can actually benefit iSCCI storage systems. The notion that they arenвЂ™t supported by iSCSI storage is incorrect. Reference: Page Number 327 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements accurately describes the standards for Power over Ethernet (PoE)? A. PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 25.5 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras. B. PoE+ (802.3at) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power. C. PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras. D. PoE+ (802.3at) is sometimes required for the latest wireless standards on WAPs that require less power than PoE (802.3af). "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements accurately describes the standards for Power over Ethernet (PoE)? A. PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 25.5 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras. B. PoE+ (802.3at) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power. C. PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras. D. PoE+ (802.3at) is sometimes required for the latest wireless standards on WAPs that require less power than PoE (802.3af). <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras. Explanation: This is correct because the text states that вЂ™The PoE (802.3af) standard is used to supply up to 15.4 watts of power and is commonly used with phone and video surveillance cameras.вЂ™ Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This statement is incorrect because the PoE (802.3af) standard supplies up to 15.4 watts of power, not 25.5 watts. B. This statement is incorrect because the PoE+ (802.3at) standard is used to supply up to 25.5 watts of power, not 15.4 watts. D. This statement is incorrect because the PoE+ (802.3at) is sometimes required for the latest wireless standards on WAPs that require more power, not less power, than PoE (802.3af). Reference: Page Number 327 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements accurately describes the 802.11 standards? A. The 802.11b standard has a maximum speed of 18 Mbps. B. The 802.11g standard operates on the 5 GHz frequencies. C. The 802.11a standard had a maximum distance of 190 feet and operates on the 5 GHz frequencies. D. The 802.11b standard was ratified in 2001. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements accurately describes the 802.11 standards? A. The 802.11b standard has a maximum speed of 18 Mbps. B. The 802.11g standard operates on the 5 GHz frequencies. C. The 802.11a standard had a maximum distance of 190 feet and operates on the 5 GHz frequencies. D. The 802.11b standard was ratified in 2001. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. The 802.11a standard had a maximum distance of 190 feet and operates on the 5 GHz frequencies. Explanation: The 802.11a standard, ratified in 1999, operates on the 5 GHz frequencies in the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band. The standard is capable of a maximum speed of 54 Mbps and a maximum distance of 190 feet. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Incorrect because the 802.11b standard has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps, not 18 Mbps. B. Incorrect because the 802.11g standard operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies, not 5 GHz. D. Incorrect because the 802.11b standard was ratified in 1999, not 2001. Reference: Page Number 329 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some key characteristics of the 802.11b wireless protocol standard? A. Operates on 5 GHz frequencies, uses OFDM modulation, and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps B. Operates on 2.4 GHz frequencies, uses DSSS modulation, and has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps C. Operates on 2.4 GHz frequencies, uses OFDM modulation, and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps D. Operates on 5 GHz frequencies, uses DSSS modulation, and has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some key characteristics of the 802.11b wireless protocol standard? A. Operates on 5 GHz frequencies, uses OFDM modulation, and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps B. Operates on 2.4 GHz frequencies, uses DSSS modulation, and has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps C. Operates on 2.4 GHz frequencies, uses OFDM modulation, and has a maximum speed of 54 Mbps D. Operates on 5 GHz frequencies, uses DSSS modulation, and has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. Operates on 2.4 GHz frequencies, uses DSSS modulation, and has a maximum speed of 11 Mbps Explanation: The 802.11b wireless protocol standard operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies and uses DSSS (Direct-Sequence Spread Spectrum) modulation. Its maximum speed is 11 Mbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This answer describes characteristics of the 802.11a standard. C. This answer describes characteristics of the 802.11g standard. D. No standard operates on a 5 GHz frequency with DSSS modulation and a maximum speed of 11 Mbps. Reference: Page Number 329 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is true about the 802.11a standard? A. It was ratified in 1999 and was primarily used in home networks. B. It operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies. C. It uses orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) modulation. D. It is capable of a maximum distance of 350 feet. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is true about the 802.11a standard? A. It was ratified in 1999 and was primarily used in home networks. B. It operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies. C. It uses orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) modulation. D. It is capable of a maximum distance of 350 feet. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It uses orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) modulation. Explanation: The 802.11a standard uses orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) modulation. This has become the standard for all subsequent wireless standards. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 802.11a was primarily used in corporate networks. B. 802.11a operates on the 5GHz frequencies, not 2.4GHz. D. The maximum distance for 802.11a is 190 feet, not 350 feet. Reference: Page Number 329 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum speed and frequency of 802.11g? A. 54 Mbps and 2.4 GHz B. 11 Mbps and 5 GHz C. 600 Mbps and 2.4 GHz D. 54 Mbps and 5 GHz "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum speed and frequency of 802.11g? A. 54 Mbps and 2.4 GHz B. 11 Mbps and 5 GHz C. 600 Mbps and 2.4 GHz D. 54 Mbps and 5 GHz <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 54 Mbps and 2.4 GHz Explanation: 802.11g operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies in the ISM radio band and it is capable of a maximum speed of 54 Mbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The maximum speed of 802.11g is 54 Mbps, not 11 Mbps, and it operates at 2.4 GHz, not 5 GHz. C. The 802.11g does not attain a maximum speed of 600 Mbps, thatвЂ™s an attribute of the 802.11n standard. D. While the maximum speed is correct, the 802.11g operates at 2.4 GHz, not 5 GHz. Reference: Page Number 330 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following features was introduced with the 802.11n wireless standard? A. Maximum speed of 600 Mbps B. Utilizing the 5 GHz frequencies in the U-NII radio band C. Backward compatibility with 802.11g D. All of the above "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following features was introduced with the 802.11n wireless standard? A. Maximum speed of 600 Mbps B. Utilizing the 5 GHz frequencies in the U-NII radio band C. Backward compatibility with 802.11g D. All of the above <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. All of the above Explanation: The 802.11n wireless standard introduced a wide variety of features such as a maximum speed of 600 Mbps, utilizing the 5 GHz frequencies in the U-NII radio band, and backward compatibility with 802.11g. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): All options are correct. The 802.11n standard indeed introduced a maximum speed of 600 Mbps, utilized the 5 GHz frequencies in the U-NII radio band, and was backward compatible with 802.11g. Reference: Page Number 330 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the 802.11ac standard? A. It operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies and is capable of a maximum speed of 600 Mbps B. It was ratified in 2003 and became very popular because it introduced newer features C. It operates on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and ISM, can use 25 frequencies of non-overlapping channels, and can theoretically reach maximum speeds of 6.93 Gbps D. It operates exclusively on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and is not compatible with all previous 5 GHz wireless standards "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following correctly describes the 802.11ac standard? A. It operates on the 2.4 GHz frequencies and is capable of a maximum speed of 600 Mbps B. It was ratified in 2003 and became very popular because it introduced newer features C. It operates on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and ISM, can use 25 frequencies of non-overlapping channels, and can theoretically reach maximum speeds of 6.93 Gbps D. It operates exclusively on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and is not compatible with all previous 5 GHz wireless standards <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It operates on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and ISM, can use 25 frequencies of non-overlapping channels, and can theoretically reach maximum speeds of 6.93 Gbps Explanation: The 802.11ac standard operates on the 5 GHz frequencies of the U-NII radio band and ISM. It can use 25 frequencies of non-overlapping channels and permits channel bonding of up to eight 20 MHz channels to provide a single 160 MHz channel for higher speeds. Theoretically, it could reach maximum speeds of 6.93 Gbps with 802.11ac Wave 2. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The description belongs to the 802.11n standard not the 802.11ac standard. B. The 802.11g standard was ratified in 2003, not the 802.11ac standard. D. The 802.11ac standard is compatible with all previous 5 GHz wireless standards. Reference: Page Number 331 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a unique feature of the 802.11ax standard? A. It operates only on the 2.4 GHz radio band B. It has a maximum speed of 600 Mbps C. It includes a feature called Target Wake Time (TWT) D. It can use 23 frequencies of nonoverlapping channels "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a unique feature of the 802.11ax standard? A. It operates only on the 2.4 GHz radio band B. It has a maximum speed of 600 Mbps C. It includes a feature called Target Wake Time (TWT) D. It can use 23 frequencies of nonoverlapping channels <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It includes a feature called Target Wake Time (TWT) Explanation: The 802.11ax standard includes a feature called Target Wake Time (TWT), which can extend battery performance for mobile and IoT wireless devices. The wake interval is negotiated between a client and an access point, allowing the device to enter into a sleep cycle and wake up at a specific time to receive information or transmit to the access point. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 802.11ax standard operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz radio bands. B. The 802.11ax standard can deliver a theoretical speed of 14 Gbps, not 600 Mbps which is the speed associated with the 802.11n standard. D. The 802.11ax standard has 25 non-overlapping channels in the 5 GHz band and not 23. Reference: Page Number 331 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which frequencies are governed by the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band? A. 2.4 GHz B. 6 GHz C. 5 GHz D. All of the above "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which frequencies are governed by the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band? A. 2.4 GHz B. 6 GHz C. 5 GHz D. All of the above <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 5 GHz Explanation: The 5 GHz frequencies used with WLANs are governed by the Unlicensed National Information Infrastructure (U-NII) radio band. This is specifically mentioned in the text provided. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 2.4 GHz frequencies are governed by the industrial, scientific, and medical (ISM) radio bands, not U-NII radio band. B. It is indicated in the text that the 6 GHz will be used in the future, but it does not specify that U-NII governs these frequencies. D. All of the above is incorrect because both the 2.4 GHz and 6 GHz are not governed by the U-NII. Reference: Page Number 332 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which wireless standards operate on 2.4 GHz frequencies? A. 802.11a and 802.11n B. 802.11a and 802.11ac C. 802.11b/g/n D. 802.11ac and 802.11ax "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which wireless standards operate on 2.4 GHz frequencies? A. 802.11a and 802.11n B. 802.11a and 802.11ac C. 802.11b/g/n D. 802.11ac and 802.11ax <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. 802.11b/g/n Explanation: The wireless standards that operate on 2.4 GHz frequencies are 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n. This is stated in the excerpt. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 802.11a and 802.11n operate on 5 GHz frequencies, not 2.4 GHz. B. 802.11a and 802.11ac operate on 5 GHz frequencies, not 2.4 GHz. D. 802.11ac does not support 2.4 GHz, and while 802.11ax does, it is not mentioned in the excerpt that it operates specifically on 2.4 GHz (it supports both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz). Reference: Page Number 332 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which standards operate on the 5 GHz frequency in WLANs? A. 802.11 a/n/ac/ax B. 802.11 b/g/n C. 802.11 a/b/g D. 802.11 n/ac "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which standards operate on the 5 GHz frequency in WLANs? A. 802.11 a/n/ac/ax B. 802.11 b/g/n C. 802.11 a/b/g D. 802.11 n/ac <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 802.11 a/n/ac/ax Explanation: The 802.11 a/n/ac/ax standards operate on the 5 GHz frequency spectrum, as mentioned in the text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. 802.11 b/g/n standards operate at the 2.4 GHz frequency. C. 802.11 a/b/g is a combination of standards, not all are related to 5 GHz frequency. D. The 802.11 n/ac standards only represent a part of the standards that operate on the 5GHz frequency. Reference: Page Number 333 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements is true about wireless system installation based on the text? A. Indoor wireless communications are more effective than outdoor because of lesser obstructions. B. The 802.11 b/g/n standards provide the highest wireless speeds. C. Wireless signals are only affected by backscatter and absorption. D. As client station moves away from the wireless access point, the speed is automatically reduced. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following statements is true about wireless system installation based on the text? A. Indoor wireless communications are more effective than outdoor because of lesser obstructions. B. The 802.11 b/g/n standards provide the highest wireless speeds. C. Wireless signals are only affected by backscatter and absorption. D. As client station moves away from the wireless access point, the speed is automatically reduced. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. As client station moves away from the wireless access point, the speed is automatically reduced. Explanation: The text states that as the client station moves further away from the wireless access point, the speed is automatically reduced for a minimized error rate and maximum throughput. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The text actually states that outdoor wireless communications are more effective than indoor due to open spaces, reducing backscatter and absorption. B. The text specifies that speeds will always be higher on 5 GHz wireless, such as the 802.11 a/n/ac standards, not the 802.11 b/g/n standards. C. Although backscatter and absorption are listed as two common problems with wireless signals, the text doesnвЂ™t state that they are the only factors affecting wireless signals. Reference: Page Number 333 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which frequency allows for higher speed in a wireless system? A. 2.4 GHz B. 5.0 GHz C. 1.3 GHz D. 90 GHz "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which frequency allows for higher speed in a wireless system? A. 2.4 GHz B. 5.0 GHz C. 1.3 GHz D. 90 GHz <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 5.0 GHz Explanation: The text indicates that speeds will always be higher on a 5 GHz wireless, such as the 802.11 a/n/ac standards. This is because these standards can utilize a maximum of 25 non-overlapping channels, as opposed to the 2.4 GHz band used by 802.11 b/g/n standards, which can only use three non-overlapping channels. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Option A is incorrect because the 2.4 GHz band only allows for three non-overlapping channels in wireless systems. Option C is incorrect because the text does not mention a 1.3 GHz band for a wireless system. Option D is also incorrect as the measurement of 90 GHz is not a frequency used in wireless systems. Reference: Page Number 333 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the throughput rate possible with the introduction of 802.11ac that allows eight 20 MHz channels to be bonded together? A. 7 Gbps B. 14 Gbps C. 10 Gbps D. 20 Gbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the throughput rate possible with the introduction of 802.11ac that allows eight 20 MHz channels to be bonded together? A. 7 Gbps B. 14 Gbps C. 10 Gbps D. 20 Gbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 14 Gbps Explanation: With the introduction of 802.11ac, we can now bond eight 20 MHz channels together for 160 MHz of bandwidth. With modern modulation and coding techniques, we can obtain the throughput of 14 Gbps over these bonded channels! Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): Choice A, C, and D are incorrect. 802.11ac can combine eight 20 MHz channels for 160 MHz, and the advanced modulation and coding techniques used allows the throughput of 14 Gbps over these bonded channels, not 7, 10 or 20 Gbps. Reference: Page Number 334 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main challenges associated with channel bonding? A. Bonding doesnвЂ™t increase the throughput B. The number of non-overlapping channels diminishes C. Bonding cannot be done with 2.4 GHz radio band D. The complexity of your design decreases "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main challenges associated with channel bonding? A. Bonding doesnвЂ™t increase the throughput B. The number of non-overlapping channels diminishes C. Bonding cannot be done with 2.4 GHz radio band D. The complexity of your design decreases <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. The number of non-overlapping channels diminishes Explanation: One of the main challenges with channel bonding is that the number of non-overlapping channels decreases. This could limit the success and throughput of your network design. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Bonding can actually increase the throughput by combining channels for greater bandwidth. C. Channel bonding can technically be done with the 2.4 GHz band, but it is not typically practical because there are only three non-overlapping channels available. D. Channel bonding can actually increase the complexity of your network design because of the need to manage and configure multiple bonded channels. Reference: Page Number 334 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main purpose of using MIMO technology in wireless devices? A. To degrade the overall signal quality B. To share time between various clients C. To use multipath transmissions to increase overall signal quality D. To transmit signals in open spaces "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the main purpose of using MIMO technology in wireless devices? A. To degrade the overall signal quality B. To share time between various clients C. To use multipath transmissions to increase overall signal quality D. To transmit signals in open spaces <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. To use multipath transmissions to increase overall signal quality Explanation: MIMO technology allows for wireless devices to transmit and receive the same signal across multiple antennas, which are then compared and combined to bolster the overall signal quality. This method utilizes multipath transmissions, where the signal bounces off reflective surfaces and reaches the destination through various paths. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. MIMO is utilized to enhance the signal quality, not degrade it. B. Sharing time among clients is a feature of standard MIMO, not the primary purpose. D. MIMO is turned off in open spaces where there is no multipath transmission. Reference: Page Number 336 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the main differences between unidirectional and omnidirectional antennas? A. Unidirectional antennas have a uniform radiation pattern, while omnidirectional antennas have a specific range of coverage B. Unidirectional antennas, such as a Yagi antenna, have a decibel gain of 13.5 dBi, while omnidirectional antennas operate at a higher frequency C. Unidirectional antennas form a conical radiation pattern and focus in one direction, while omnidirectional antennas provide uniform coverage in all directions D. Unidirectional antennas are most commonly used, while omnidirectional antennas are preferred for specialized applications "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are the main differences between unidirectional and omnidirectional antennas? A. Unidirectional antennas have a uniform radiation pattern, while omnidirectional antennas have a specific range of coverage B. Unidirectional antennas, such as a Yagi antenna, have a decibel gain of 13.5 dBi, while omnidirectional antennas operate at a higher frequency C. Unidirectional antennas form a conical radiation pattern and focus in one direction, while omnidirectional antennas provide uniform coverage in all directions D. Unidirectional antennas are most commonly used, while omnidirectional antennas are preferred for specialized applications <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Unidirectional antennas form a conical radiation pattern and focus in one direction, while omnidirectional antennas provide uniform coverage in all directions Explanation: As per the information given, a unidirectional antenna such as a Yagi produces a specific pattern that focuses in one direction, much like a blunt cone. In contrast, an omnidirectional antenna produces a uniform radiation pattern in all directions, which can be visualized as a doughnut shape. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This statement is incorrect as the unidirectional antenna has a focused pattern while the omnidirectional antenna provides uniform coverage. B. The frequency operating range and the decibel gain are not the main distinguishing characteristics between unidirectional and omnidirectional antennas. D. The use and application of antennas do not determine their categorization into unidirectional or omnidirectional, rather itвЂ™s the radiation pattern that does. Reference: Page Number 337 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What crucial information does a site survey provide when designing a wireless network? A. The cost and acquisition of the wireless equipment B. The optimal placement of Wireless Access Points (WAPs) and coverage area visualization C. The resellerвЂ™s contact information D. The model and firmware of the office laptops "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What crucial information does a site survey provide when designing a wireless network? A. The cost and acquisition of the wireless equipment B. The optimal placement of Wireless Access Points (WAPs) and coverage area visualization C. The resellerвЂ™s contact information D. The model and firmware of the office laptops <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. The optimal placement of Wireless Access Points (WAPs) and coverage area visualization Explanation: A site survey helps in temporary positioning of the equipment (including WAPs) to understand the best places for their installation and also creates a heat map to visualize the coverage area to ensure significant wireless network coverage. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The cost and acquisition of the wireless equipment is important for the overall project but itвЂ™s not the aim of a site survey. C. The resellerвЂ™s contact information might come in handy but itвЂ™s not primarily obtained via a site survey. D. Office laptopsвЂ™ model and firmware do not pertain directly to a site survey. Reference: Page Number 338 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the disadvantage of ad hoc wireless networks compared to infrastructure mode? A. They cannot support peer-to-peer network connections B. The maximum distance between two devices can exceed 200 feet C. Usually only two devices can be connected together D. The service canвЂ™t span multiple access points "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What are some of the disadvantage of ad hoc wireless networks compared to infrastructure mode? A. They cannot support peer-to-peer network connections B. The maximum distance between two devices can exceed 200 feet C. Usually only two devices can be connected together D. The service canвЂ™t span multiple access points <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Usually only two devices can be connected together Explanation: In ad hoc mode, both clients must arbitrate the request-to-send and clear-to-send (RTS/CTS) signaling, which limits the connection to usually two devices only. ItвЂ™s also highlighted that the distance at which two devices can communicate is normally less than 100 feet due to the clientвЂ™s lower transmitting power and smaller antenna size. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ad hoc wireless networks are specifically meant for supporting peer-to-peer network connections when no wireless infrastructure is available. B. The maximum distance between two devices is actually usually less than 100 feet in ad hoc mode, not over 200 feet. D. This is not a limitation of ad hoc mode, the service in fact cannot span multiple access points in ad hoc mode. Reference: Page Number 339 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a Service Set Identifier (SSID) in wireless networking? A. It is the physical connection between wireless devices. B. It is the type of frequency used to establish wireless connections. C. It is the access point that facilitates wireless communications. D. It is the friendly network name seen by users when they join a wireless network. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a Service Set Identifier (SSID) in wireless networking? A. It is the physical connection between wireless devices. B. It is the type of frequency used to establish wireless connections. C. It is the access point that facilitates wireless communications. D. It is the friendly network name seen by users when they join a wireless network. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. It is the friendly network name seen by users when they join a wireless network. Explanation: In the context of wireless networking, the Service Set Identifier (SSID) is essentially the friendly network name that users will see when they join a network or check the status of an already joined network. Apart from that, to the wireless devices, SSID identifies a set of wireless services either between two clients or between a client and an access point. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. SSID is not the physical connection, but the identifier of the wireless network. B. SSID is not related to the frequency used in wireless connections; it is a network identifier. C. SSID is not an access point, but a network name that users could see and connect to. Reference: Page Number 339 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a disadvantage of an Ad Hoc wireless network? A. It can only function in infrastructure mode B. It requires a lot of infrastructure C. Its distance of communication is usually less than 100 feet D. It allows too many devices to connect "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a disadvantage of an Ad Hoc wireless network? A. It can only function in infrastructure mode B. It requires a lot of infrastructure C. Its distance of communication is usually less than 100 feet D. It allows too many devices to connect <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Its distance of communication is usually less than 100 feet Explanation: Ad Hoc wireless networks often have a shorter communication distance than traditional wireless networks with a WAP. This is due to the lower transmitting power of client wireless adapters and the smaller size of the clientвЂ™s antenna in comparison to WAP antennas. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Ad Hoc networks actually do not function in infrastructure mode, they are peer-to-peer networks. B. Ad Hoc networks do not require a lot of infrastructure, in fact, they do not require any infrastructure at all. D. Ad Hoc networks are usually limited to only two devices due to the need for both devices to arbitrate the request-to-send and clear-to-send signaling. Reference: Page Number 339 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding wireless networks? A. Wireless devices can only communicate with each other when they are not connected to a WAP B. Basic service set (BSS) consists of multiple WAPs wired to a network C. An ESS requires a wireless LAN controller (WLC) to be created D. In an Infrastructure mode, wireless devices communicate directly to the WAP, even if they are communicating with each other and right next to each other "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding wireless networks? A. Wireless devices can only communicate with each other when they are not connected to a WAP B. Basic service set (BSS) consists of multiple WAPs wired to a network C. An ESS requires a wireless LAN controller (WLC) to be created D. In an Infrastructure mode, wireless devices communicate directly to the WAP, even if they are communicating with each other and right next to each other <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. In an Infrastructure mode, wireless devices communicate directly to the WAP, even if they are communicating with each other and right next to each other Explanation: Infrastructure mode extends the wired network to a wireless network with the use of a wireless access point (WAP). Wireless devices communicate directly with the WAP, even if they are communicating with each other and right next to each other. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: This is incorrect. Wireless devices in an infrastructure mode communicate directly with the WAP, regardless of whether or not they were communicating with each other. B: This is incorrect. A basic service set (BSS) consists of a single WAP wired to a network. C: This is incorrect. An ESS can be created without a WLC. Each BSS cell will operate autonomously and this could be problematic, but it is not a requirement. Reference: Page Number 340 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary role of a wireless LAN controller in a mesh network? A. It coordinates channel assignment and forwards traffic between WAPs. B. It provides power to all WAPs in the network. C. It delivers Internet connection to all mesh WAPs. D. It manages the cabling costs of the WAPs. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary role of a wireless LAN controller in a mesh network? A. It coordinates channel assignment and forwards traffic between WAPs. B. It provides power to all WAPs in the network. C. It delivers Internet connection to all mesh WAPs. D. It manages the cabling costs of the WAPs. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. It coordinates channel assignment and forwards traffic between WAPs. Explanation: A wireless LAN controller in a mesh network has the role of coordinating channel assignment and forwarding traffic between Wireless Access Points (WAPs). This ensures optimal performance and efficient use of available bandwidth. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Although the WAPs require power, it is not the primary role of the wireless LAN controller to provide power to all WAPs in the network. C. The Internet connection delivered to the mesh WAPs is usually provided by a separate network device, not the wireless LAN controller. D. The wireless LAN controller does not manage the cabling costs of the WAPs in the network. Its primary function is related to network performance, not budget or costs. Reference: Page Number 342 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following are two aspects of wireless security that should be focused on according to the text? A. Encryption and Hardware B. Authentication/Authorization and Firmware C. Encryption and Authentication/Authorization D. Firmware and Hardware "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following are two aspects of wireless security that should be focused on according to the text? A. Encryption and Hardware B. Authentication/Authorization and Firmware C. Encryption and Authentication/Authorization D. Firmware and Hardware <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Encryption and Authentication/Authorization Explanation: According to the text, encryption and authentication/authorization are the two aspects of wireless security that should be paid attention to. Encryption helps to secure data transmission and prevent eavesdropping, while authentication/authorization helps to ensure that unauthorized users cannot access protected parts of the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Encryption and Hardware: While encryption is correct, hardware is not specifically mentioned in the text as a focus area for wireless security. B. Authentication/Authorization and Firmware: While authentication/authorization is correct, firmware is mentioned in the context of upgrading the deviceвЂ™s encryption capabilities, not as a focus area for wireless security. D. Firmware and Hardware: Neither of these aspects are specifically highlighted in the text as areas to focus on for wireless security. Reference: Page Number 343 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key difference between the encryption method used in WPA and the one used in WPA2? A. WPA uses TKIP while WPA2 uses AES B. WPA2 uses TKIP while WPA uses AES C. Both WPA and WPA2 use TKIP only D. Both WPA and WPA2 use AES only "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the key difference between the encryption method used in WPA and the one used in WPA2? A. WPA uses TKIP while WPA2 uses AES B. WPA2 uses TKIP while WPA uses AES C. Both WPA and WPA2 use TKIP only D. Both WPA and WPA2 use AES only <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. WPA uses TKIP while WPA2 uses AES Explanation: WPA introduced Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP), which uses the RC4 algorithm to provide per-packet keying to prevent eavesdropping. In WPA2, TKIP was replaced with Counter Cipher Mode (CCM) with Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) and uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm to protect data, which is more secure. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. WPA2 uses TKIP while WPA uses AES - This is incorrect as it is the other way round, WPA uses TKIP while WPA2 uses AES. C. Both WPA and WPA2 use TKIP only - This is incorrect. While WPA uses TKIP, WPA2 replaced TKIP with AES. D. Both WPA and WPA2 use AES only - This is incorrect. Only WPA2 uses AES, and WPA uses TKIP. Reference: Page Number 344 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key difference between WPA and WPA2? A. WPA uses 256-bit keys while WPA2 uses 64-bit keys B. WPA uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm while WPA2 uses the RC4 algorithm C. WPA operates in two modes of preshared key and enterprise mode while WPA2 operates only in preshared key mode. D. WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) using RC4 algorithm, whereas WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a key difference between WPA and WPA2? A. WPA uses 256-bit keys while WPA2 uses 64-bit keys B. WPA uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm while WPA2 uses the RC4 algorithm C. WPA operates in two modes of preshared key and enterprise mode while WPA2 operates only in preshared key mode. D. WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) using RC4 algorithm, whereas WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) using RC4 algorithm, whereas WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm. Explanation: WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) which uses the RC4 algorithm. In comparison, WPA2 uses the more secure Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Both WPA and WPA2 use 256-bit keys. B. WPA uses the RC4 algorithm and WPA2 uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm. C. Both WPA and WPA2 operates in two modes: preshared key and enterprise mode. Reference: Page Number 344 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the successor to WPA and what encryption standard does it use to protect data? A. WPA3 and RC4 B. WPA2 and TKIP C. WPA2 and AES D. WPA3 and AES "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the successor to WPA and what encryption standard does it use to protect data? A. WPA3 and RC4 B. WPA2 and TKIP C. WPA2 and AES D. WPA3 and AES <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. WPA2 and AES Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) is the successor to WPA and it uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) algorithm to protect data. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. WPA3 and RC4: WPA3 is actually the successor to WPA2 not WPA, and WPA3 does not use RC4 encryption. B. WPA2 and TKIP: While WPA2 is the successor to WPA, WPA2 uses AES encryption and not TKIP. D. WPA3 and AES: is incorrect because WPA3 is the successor to WPA2, not WPA. Reference: Page Number 344 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) use in conjunction with message integrity checks (MICs) to check the integrity of messages received by the access point? A. Michael B. RC4 Seed C. MAC Address D. Initialization Vector "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) use in conjunction with message integrity checks (MICs) to check the integrity of messages received by the access point? A. Michael B. RC4 Seed C. MAC Address D. Initialization Vector <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Michael Explanation: TKIP uses the MIC protocol, also known as Michael, a 32-bit cyclic redundancy check (CRC), in conjunction to check the integrity of messages received by the access point. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Although RC4 Seed is used in conjunction with TKIP, itвЂ™s not directly involved in checking the integrity of messages. C. MAC Address is used to derive the key for RC4 encryption but doesnвЂ™t directly check message integrity. D. The Initialization Vector is used along with the MAC address to seed the RC4 algorithm, but it does not directly check the message integrity. Reference: Page Number 345 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the MIC in CCMP-AES? A. It is used to seed the AES encryption B. It is used to encrypt the next block of text C. It is used to check the integrity of wireless data received D. It is used to rekey the session "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of the MIC in CCMP-AES? A. It is used to seed the AES encryption B. It is used to encrypt the next block of text C. It is used to check the integrity of wireless data received D. It is used to rekey the session <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is used to check the integrity of wireless data received Explanation: In CCMP-AES, the Message Integrity Code (MIC) is used to check the integrity of wireless data received. It ensures that the data has not been tampered with during transmission. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. The 128-bit key is used to seed the AES encryption, not the MIC. B. The ciphered text from the previous block is used to encrypt the next block of text in a process called code block chaining (CBC), not the MIC. D. If the MIC fails, then CCMP-AES rekeys the session, so the MIC itself does not perform the rekeying process. Reference: Page Number 345 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of wireless network security, what is the role of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)? A. It encrypts the data being transmitted over the network B. It allows supplicants and authenticators to use various methods of encryption for authentication C. It organizes data into packets for transmission over the network D. It is the method by which data integrity checks are conducted "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> In the context of wireless network security, what is the role of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)? A. It encrypts the data being transmitted over the network B. It allows supplicants and authenticators to use various methods of encryption for authentication C. It organizes data into packets for transmission over the network D. It is the method by which data integrity checks are conducted <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It allows supplicants and authenticators to use various methods of encryption for authentication Explanation: EAP or Extensible Authentication Protocol is an IETF standard that enables supplicants and authenticators to use different forms of encryption for authentication purposes across an 802.1x network. It doesnвЂ™t do the actual encryption of data (that is typically done by protocols like WPA2), nor does it organize data into packets or conduct data integrity checks. Its role is solely focused on facilitating the authentication process in a flexible, extensible way. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. While encryption is a crucial part of wireless network security, EAP is not the protocol that encrypts data - itвЂ™s used for authentication. C. EAP doesnвЂ™t handle the organization of data into packets for transmission; this falls within the purview of other protocols such as IP or TCP. D. EAP doesnвЂ™t conduct data integrity checks. It facilitates various methods of encryption for authentication. Reference: Page Number 345 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Transport Layer Security (TLS) in the context of Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP)? A. Provide an encrypted tunnel and authentication between the host and the authenticating server before credentials are passed. B. Provide an open tunnel for transferring credentials. C. Provides a password for the user to authenticate. D. Protects EAP messages by providing a digital signature. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the function of Transport Layer Security (TLS) in the context of Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol (PEAP)? A. Provide an encrypted tunnel and authentication between the host and the authenticating server before credentials are passed. B. Provide an open tunnel for transferring credentials. C. Provides a password for the user to authenticate. D. Protects EAP messages by providing a digital signature. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. Provide an encrypted tunnel and authentication between the host and the authenticating server before credentials are passed. Explanation: TLS within the context of PEAP provides an encrypted tunnel and authentication between the host and the authentication server prior to the passing of credentials. This ensures a secure method of transmission and verifies the entities involved. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. Provide an open tunnel for transferring credentials - Incorrect. TLS doesnвЂ™t provide an open tunnel, it encrypts the tunnel for secure transmission of credentials. C. Provides a password for the user to authenticate - Incorrect. TLS in PEAP does not provide the authentication password, but provides the secure platform for the transmission of it. D. Protects EAP messages by providing a digital signature - Incorrect. While TLS does involve digital signatures, in the context of PEAP, TLS mainly provides an encrypted tunnel and authentication between the entities before the credentials are passed. Reference: Page Number 346 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Phase 2 in the EAP-FAST protocol? A. It creates a shared secret for use in Phase 1 B. It establishes a secure tunnel for data transmission C. It allows authentication to occur between the supplicant and authentication server D. It replaces the older Cisco proprietary protocol of LEAP "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of Phase 2 in the EAP-FAST protocol? A. It creates a shared secret for use in Phase 1 B. It establishes a secure tunnel for data transmission C. It allows authentication to occur between the supplicant and authentication server D. It replaces the older Cisco proprietary protocol of LEAP <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It allows authentication to occur between the supplicant and authentication server Explanation: Phase 2 of the EAP-FAST protocol is where authentication occurs between the supplicant and the authentication server. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Creating a shared secret is the purpose of Phase 0, not Phase 2. B. Establishing a secure tunnel is the purpose of Phase 1, not Phase 2. D. EAP-FAST as a whole, not Phase 2 specifically, is positioned to replace the older Cisco proprietary protocol of LEAP. Reference: Page Number 346 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the principal characteristic when EAP-TLS is deployed in conjunction with a certificate authority? A. The deployment is less secure B. Each user or computer is issued a group certificate C. Shared passphrases are used D. Each user or computer is issued an individual certificate "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the principal characteristic when EAP-TLS is deployed in conjunction with a certificate authority? A. The deployment is less secure B. Each user or computer is issued a group certificate C. Shared passphrases are used D. Each user or computer is issued an individual certificate <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: D. Each user or computer is issued an individual certificate Explanation: When EAP-TLS is deployed in conjunction with a certificate authority, each user or computer is issued an individual certificate. This adds extra security to the deployment. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: The deployment becomes more secure because each user or computer is issued an individual certificate, not less secure. B: Each user or computer gets their own individual certificate, not a group certificate. C: Shared passphrases are used with Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), not when EAP-TLS is deployed with a certificate authority. Reference: Page Number 347 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a significant weakness of using a shared passphrase with the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) standard? A. It has a high administrative burden B. It requires an agent to be installed on devices C. It can easily be cracked with tools D. It requires geofencing to be effective "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is a significant weakness of using a shared passphrase with the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) standard? A. It has a high administrative burden B. It requires an agent to be installed on devices C. It can easily be cracked with tools D. It requires geofencing to be effective <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It can easily be cracked with tools Explanation: WEP uses a shared passphrase for 64- or 128-bit encryption, however, this passphrase can easily be cracked with specific tools such as Aircrack-NG, making it a weaker form of security. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. High administrative burden is a characteristic of MAC address filtering, not WEP with shared passphrases. B. The installation of an agent on devices is related to geofencing, not WEP. D. Geofencing and WEP are separate security measures and one does not require the other to function correctly. Reference: Page Number 347 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use of a preshared key (PSK) in network security? A. It is mainly used with MAC address filtering B. It is primarily used with the wireless protocols WPA and WPA2 personal mode C. It is predominantly used with Geofencing D. It is extensively used in EAP-TLS deployments "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the primary use of a preshared key (PSK) in network security? A. It is mainly used with MAC address filtering B. It is primarily used with the wireless protocols WPA and WPA2 personal mode C. It is predominantly used with Geofencing D. It is extensively used in EAP-TLS deployments <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is primarily used with the wireless protocols WPA and WPA2 personal mode Explanation: A preshared key (PSK) is widely used with the wireless protocols WPA and WPA2 personal mode for home wireless applications. It is a symmetrical encryption, where the key that encrypts the data also decrypts the data. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A: MAC address filtering, while a part of network security, specifically restricts access based on MAC addresses and does not use a PSK. C: Geofencing is a location-based service that does not require a PSK for its operation. D: While PSK can potentially be used with EAP-TLS, it is not the common practice outside of testing scenarios. Reference: Page Number 347 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of MAC filtering in wireless network systems? A. It is used to control mobile devices by their location. B. It is used to provide only whitelisted MAC addresses access to the wireless system. C. It is used to provide 64- or 128-bit encryption via the shared passphrase. D. It is used to transmit the credentials over TLS. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of MAC filtering in wireless network systems? A. It is used to control mobile devices by their location. B. It is used to provide only whitelisted MAC addresses access to the wireless system. C. It is used to provide 64- or 128-bit encryption via the shared passphrase. D. It is used to transmit the credentials over TLS. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. It is used to provide only whitelisted MAC addresses access to the wireless system. Explanation: MAC address filtering is used in wireless network systems to secure the network by providing access only to whitelisted MAC addresses. This prevents unauthorized devices from accessing the network. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. Controlling mobile devices by their location is done through geofencing, not MAC filtering. C. Providing 64- or 128-bit encryption via the shared passphrase is a feature of WEP, not MAC filtering. D. Transmitting the credentials over TLS is a feature of the EAP-TLS protocol, not MAC filtering. Reference: Page Number 347 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is geofencing in the context of mobile device security? A. It is an encryption method used in wireless protocols. B. It is a type of MAC address filtering. C. It is a location-based control method involving a virtual perimeter. D. It is an authentication protocol for securing wireless systems. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is geofencing in the context of mobile device security? A. It is an encryption method used in wireless protocols. B. It is a type of MAC address filtering. C. It is a location-based control method involving a virtual perimeter. D. It is an authentication protocol for securing wireless systems. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a location-based control method involving a virtual perimeter. Explanation: Geofencing is a method of controlling mobile devices by their location. It creates a virtual perimeter around an area using mapping software. When a device is outside of this perimeter, it is considered in violation of compliance. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect. Geofencing is not related to encryption methods. It uses location data, not encryption, to control device access. B. This is incorrect. MAC filtering secures wireless systems by only allowing access to whitelisted MAC addresses. It is not related to geofencing. D. This is incorrect. Geofencing is a method for controlling access based on location, not an authentication protocol. Reference: Page Number 347 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of using Cellular connectivity methods? A. It excels in providing constant stream of data B. It is typically used for connecting businesses to the Internet C. It excels in providing mobility for workers with a laptop and cell card D. It is used in remote areas that need constant data stream "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the purpose of using Cellular connectivity methods? A. It excels in providing constant stream of data B. It is typically used for connecting businesses to the Internet C. It excels in providing mobility for workers with a laptop and cell card D. It is used in remote areas that need constant data stream <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It excels in providing mobility for workers with a laptop and cell card Explanation: Cellular connectivity methods excel in providing mobility for workers with a laptop and cell card. This is advantageous because it allows workers to remain connected to the internet even when theyвЂ™re away from their typical work locations. They also are used in remote locations that donвЂ™t require a constant data stream. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. It excels in providing constant stream of data - Incorrect, Cellular connectivity methods are usually not suitable for constant stream of data. B. It is typically used for connecting businesses to the Internet - Incorrect, Cellular connectivity methods are typically not used for connecting businesses to the internet as they are metered by the provider on a monthly basis. D. It is used in remote areas that need constant data stream - Incorrect, Cellular connectivity methods are used in remote areas that do not necessarily require constant data stream. Reference: Page Number 348 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which legacy cellular network protocol that provided 2G network services has been incorporated into GSM cellular network protocols? A. CDMA B. GSM C. TDMA D. Edge "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which legacy cellular network protocol that provided 2G network services has been incorporated into GSM cellular network protocols? A. CDMA B. GSM C. TDMA D. Edge <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. TDMA Explanation: In the text, it is stated that Time-division multiple access (TDMA), a legacy cellular network protocol, provided 2G network services and has been incorporated into GSM cellular network protocols. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. CDMA, or Code Division Multiple Access, was a competitor to GSM networks. B. GSM, or Global System for Mobile Communications, is a standard developed by the European Telecommunications Standards Institute. It is not the legacy protocol incorporated into itself. D. Edge or Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution is used as a connectivity method for cellular data on 2G networks. It wasnвЂ™t incorporated into GSM. Rather, it was built upon GSM Reference: Page Number 348 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum data speed that the CDMA protocol can deliver? A. 3 Mbps B. 1 Mbps C. 200 Kbps D. 168 Mbps "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum data speed that the CDMA protocol can deliver? A. 3 Mbps B. 1 Mbps C. 200 Kbps D. 168 Mbps <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. 3 Mbps Explanation: CDMA-2000, a 3G protocol used by many providers that support CDMA, can deliver a maximum of 3 Mbps for data. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. 1 Mbps is the maximum data speed of Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (Edge) used for cellular data on 2G networks. C. 200 Kbps was the initial maximum speed of 3G when it was first introduced. D. 168 Mbps is the theoretical speed of High-Speed Packet Access Plus (HSPA+), a variation of third-generation cellular that uses GSM networks. Reference: Page Number 348 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is true about Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM)? A. It is compatible with CDMA equipment. B. It is a standard developed by the United States. C. Its maximum data speed for Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (Edge) is 500 Kbps. D. It was originally designed by Qualcomm as a competitor to CDMA networks. "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is true about Global System for Mobile Communications (GSM)? A. It is compatible with CDMA equipment. B. It is a standard developed by the United States. C. Its maximum data speed for Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (Edge) is 500 Kbps. D. It was originally designed by Qualcomm as a competitor to CDMA networks. <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. Its maximum data speed for Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (Edge) is 500 Kbps. Explanation: GSM (Global System for Mobile Communications) is a global standard used worldwide and offers Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution (Edge) with a maximum data speed of 1 Mbps, but is typically limited to 500 Kbps. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. GSM is not compatible with CDMA equipment. Instead, AT&T and T-Mobile are among the providers that use GSM networks. B. GSM was developed by the European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI), not the United States. D. CDMA was developed by Qualcomm as a competitor to GSM networks, not the other way round. Reference: Page Number 348 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum data throughput for LTE/4G? A. 1 Gbps download, 500 Mbps upload B. 299 Mbps download, 75.4 Mbps upload C. 20 Gbps download, 10 Gbps upload D. 50 Mbps downloads, 250 Mbps uploads "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> What is the maximum data throughput for LTE/4G? A. 1 Gbps download, 500 Mbps upload B. 299 Mbps download, 75.4 Mbps upload C. 20 Gbps download, 10 Gbps upload D. 50 Mbps downloads, 250 Mbps uploads <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: B. 299 Mbps download, 75.4 Mbps upload Explanation: The maximum data throughput for LTE/4G is 299 Mbps download and 75.4 Mbps upload. This information is stated in the provided text. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. 1 Gbps download, 500 Mbps upload are the speeds for the proposed LTE Advanced, not LTE/4G. C. 20 Gbps download, 10 Gbps upload are the theoretical maximum data throughputs for 5G, not LTE/4G. D. 50 Mbps downloads, 250 Mbps uploads are the speeds most providers will throttle down to for 5G, not LTE/4G. Reference: Page Number 349 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT a feature or characteristic of 5G technology? A. It offers lower latency of less than 10 milliseconds. B. It can support 100x more devices than LTE/4G. C. It is a CDMA technology. D. It was created by the 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP). "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> Which of the following is NOT a feature or characteristic of 5G technology? A. It offers lower latency of less than 10 milliseconds. B. It can support 100x more devices than LTE/4G. C. It is a CDMA technology. D. It was created by the 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP). <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: C. It is a CDMA technology. Explanation: 5G technology is not a CDMA technology. Instead, 4G LTE, which is the technology replaced by 5G, specifically utilizes orthogonal frequency-division multiple access (OFDMA), not CDMA. The text provides no indication that 5G is based on CDMA technology. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): A. This is incorrect because 5G does indeed offer lower latency. The text specifically notes that the latency time is under 10 milliseconds, which is less than that of 4G technology which was 20 to 30 milliseconds. B. This is incorrect because the text does mention that 5G can support 100x more devices than 4G LTE. D. This statement is incorrect because according to the text, 5G was developed by the 3rd Generation Partnership Project (3GPP). Reference: Page Number 349 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> According to the text, why is it necessary to define and compare metrics when managing performance and troubleshooting? A. To have a measure of success B. To subjectively evaluate the problem C. To ensure that problems persist D. To decrease the effectiveness "" <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshmadakor.tech/it</a></center><hr> According to the text, why is it necessary to define and compare metrics when managing performance and troubleshooting? A. To have a measure of success B. To subjectively evaluate the problem C. To ensure that problems persist D. To decrease the effectiveness <hr id=""answer""> Correct Answer: A. To have a measure of success Explanation: According to the text, defining and comparing metrics allows for an objective approach in managing performance and troubleshooting. If a metric is defined, then a measure of success can be established, allowing one to know definitively if a problem is actually present and when it has been resolved. This concept applies to anything, including networks. Incorrect Answer Explanation(s): B. The text emphasizes the need for objectivity, not subjectivity, in evaluating problems. C. The goal of managing performance and troubleshooting is to resolve problems, not ensure they persist. D. Defining and comparing metrics is intended to increase, not decrease, the effectiveness of performance management and troubleshooting. Reference: Page Number 361 in <a href=""https://www.amazon.com/dp/111980695X?&_encoding=UTF8&tag=joshmadakor-20&linkCode=ur2&linkId=b994fd90850d1ea5c00d95418fc1e0cd&camp=1789&creative=9325"">CompTIA Network+ Review Guide: Exam N10-008 5th Edition</a> " " <center>рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» Hands-On IT / Help Desk Training - New IT Career in Months! рџ‘©вЂЌрџ’» <a href=""https://joshmadakor.tech/it"">https://joshm

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