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EXAM DUMPS
COMPTIA
FC0-U61
28% OFF Automatically For You
CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam
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1.Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?
A. Eavesdropping
B. Impersonating
C. Destructing
D. Altering
Answer: A
Explanation:
Eavesdropping is an electronic attack where digital communications are intercepted
by an individual whom they are not intended1. This is a confidentiality concern
because it violates the principle of limiting access to information to authorized people
only. Confidentiality is a set of rules that limits access to information1. Eavesdropping
can compromise the secrecy of the information and expose sensitive data to
unauthorized parties.
Reference: Confidentiality, Integrity & Availability Concerns | CompTIA IT
Fundamentals FC0-U61 | 6.1
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2.A software developer develops a software program and writes a document with stepby-step instructions on how to use the software. The developer wants to ensure no
other person or company will publish this document for public use.
Which of the following should the developer use to BEST protect the document?
A. Patent
B. Trademark
C. Watermark
D. Copyright
Answer: D
Explanation:
A document that explains how to use a software program is an example of a written
work that expresses the original ideas of the developer. A copyright is a legal
protection that grants the developer the exclusive right to publish, distribute, and
control the use of the document.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 9:
Intellectual Property1
3.Which of the following database concepts would MOST likely use a CSV file?
A. Data querying
B. Data reports
C. Data importing
D. Data persistence
Answer: C
Explanation:
A CSV file is a comma-separated values file that stores data in a tabular format. A
CSV file can be used to import data from one database to another, or from other
sources such as spreadsheets, text files, or web pages. Data importing is the process
of transferring data between different systems or formats1.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5:
Database Fundamentals2
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4.A help desk technician encounters an issue and wants to find out if a colleague has
encountered the same issue before.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Check Knowledge Base.
B. Search local logs.
C. Research possible theories.
D. No. of users.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Knowledge Base is a collection of information that provides solutions to common
problems or issues encountered by IT professionals. A Knowledge Base can be
accessed online or offline, and can be maintained by an organization or a vendor. A
help desk technician should check the Knowledge Base first before trying other
methods, as it may contain the answer or a workaround for the issue3.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6:
Security2
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5.Which of the following BEST describes the practice of providing user credentials
when logging onto the network?
A. Output
B. Storage
C. Input
D. Processing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Providing user credentials when logging onto the network is an example of input,
which is the process of entering data or commands into a computer system. Input can
be done through various devices, such as keyboards, mice, scanners, cameras,
microphones, or biometric scanners. User credentials are a form of input that identify
and authenticate the user to the network and grant them access to resources1.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2:
Computing Basics2
6.Which of the following allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired network?
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A. Modem
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Access point
Answer: D
Explanation:
An access point is a device that allows wireless devices to communicate to a wired
network. An access point acts as a bridge between the wireless and wired networks,
converting radio signals from wireless devices into data packets that can be
transmitted over the network cable. An access point can also extend the range and
coverage of a wireless network3.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4:
Networking Concepts2
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7.Which of the following computing devices would be used to provide a centralized
means to distribute services to a group of clients and usually possesses a role on a
LAN?
A. Laptop
B. Workstation
C. Mobile phone
D. Server
Answer: D
Explanation:
A server is a computing device that provides a centralized means to distribute
services to a group of clients and usually possesses a role on a LAN. A server can
perform various functions, such as hosting applications, databases, files, web pages,
email, or print jobs. A server can also manage network resources, such as security,
user accounts, or backups. A server typically has more processing power, memory,
and storage capacity than a client device4.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3:
IT Infrastructure2
8.Which of the following describes something in a database that refers to the unique
identifier in the Parent table?
A. Attribute
B. Constraint
C. Foreign key
D. Schema
Answer: C
Explanation:
A foreign key is a column or a set of columns in a table that refers to the unique
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identifier (or primary key) in another table. A foreign key establishes a relationship
between two tables and ensures referential integrity. For example, in a database that
stores information about students and courses, the student table may have a column
called student_id that is the primary key for each student record. The course table
may have a column called student_id that is the foreign key that refers to the
student_id in the student table. This way, the database can link each course record to
the corresponding student record34.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5:
Database Fundamentals2; What is RDBMS (Relational Database Management
System) - Javatpoint5; What is a Relational Database Management System? |
Microsoft Azure6
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9.For which of the following is a relational database management system MOST
commonly used?
A. Building flowcharts
B. Storing information
C. Generating reports
D. Creating diagrams
Answer: B
Explanation:
A relational database management system (RDBMS) is most commonly used for
storing information in a structured and organized way. A RDBMS stores data in
tables, which consist of rows and columns. Each row represents a record or an entity,
and each column represents an attribute or a property of the entity. A RDBMS allows
users to create, update, delete, and query data using a standard language called SQL
(Structured Query Language). A RDBMS also enforces rules and constraints to
ensure data integrity and consistency3465.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5:
Database Fundamentals2; What is RDBMS (Relational Database Management
System) - Javatpoint5; What is a Relational Database Management System? |
Microsoft Azure
10.Which of the following BEST describes an application running on a typical
operating system?
A. Process
B. Thread
C. Function
D. Task
Answer: A
Explanation:
An application running on a typical operating system is an example of a process,
which is a program or a set of instructions that is loaded into memory and executed
by the CPU. A process can have one or more threads, which are subunits of
execution that share the resources of the process. A process can also perform one or
more tasks, which are units of work that the process needs to accomplish. A process
can also call one or more functions, which are blocks of code that perform a specific
operation and return a value123.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2:
Computing Basics4; What is a Process? - Definition from Techopedia5; What is a
Thread? - Definition from Techopedia6
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11.The broadcast signal from a recently installed wireless access point is not as
strong as expected.
Which of the following actions would BEST improve the signal strength?
A. Update from 802.11b to 802.11g.
B. Ensure sources of EMI are removed.
C. Enable WPA2-Enterprise.
D. Use WiFi Protected Setup.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The broadcast signal from a wireless access point can be affected by various factors,
such as distance, obstacles, interference, and configuration. One of the possible
causes of weak signal strength is electromagnetic interference (EMI), which is the
disruption of wireless communication by devices or objects that emit electromagnetic
waves, such as microwaves, cordless phones, power lines, or fluorescent lights. To
improve the signal strength, the user should ensure that sources of EMI are removed
or relocated away from the wireless access point and the wireless devices78.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4:
Networking Concepts4; How to Improve Your Wireless Network Performance - HP®
Tech Takes9
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12.A user is getting an error message when trying to go to a website. A technician
asks the user a few questions to find out more about the issue. The technician opens
a browser locally and browses to the same site as the user.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps is the technician using by browsing to the
same site?
A. Establish a plan of action.
B. Gather information
C. Duplicate the problem.
D. Find the root cause.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The troubleshooting methodology is a systematic approach to solving problems that
involves several steps, such as identifying the problem, establishing a theory of
probable cause, testing the theory, establishing a plan of action, implementing the
solution, verifying functionality, and documenting the findings. One of the steps in
identifying the problem is to duplicate the problem, which means to reproduce the
same error or issue that the user is experiencing. This can help the technician to
verify the symptoms, narrow down the scope, and eliminate possible causes1011.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7:
Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology4; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT
Support and Help Desk | CompTIA12
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13.A user is attempting to print a document to a wireless printer and receives an error
stating the operation could not be completed.
Which of the following should the user do to correct this issue?
A. Ensure both devices are connected to the LAN.
B. Enable task scheduling.
C. Reset the proxy settings to their default values.
D. Review the fault tolerance configurations.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A wireless printer is a device that can print documents or images from a computer or
mobile device
without using a cable connection. To use a wireless printer, both the printer and the
device that sends the print job must be connected to the same local area network
(LAN), either wirelessly or through an Ethernet cable. If the user receives an error
message when trying to print to a wireless printer, one of the possible solutions is to
ensure both devices are connected to the LAN. The user can check the network
settings on both devices and make sure they have valid IP addresses and network
connectivity1314.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3:
IT Infrastructure4; How to Troubleshoot WiFi Printer Problems - Lifewire
14.Which of the following relational database constructs is used to ensure valid
values are entered for a column?
A. Schema
B. Permissions
C. Constraint
D. Column
Answer: C
Explanation:
A constraint is a rule or a restriction that is applied to a column or a table in a
relational database to ensure that only valid values are entered. Constraints help to
maintain the integrity, accuracy, and consistency of the data. For example, a
constraint can be used to specify that a column must not contain null values, or that a
column must contain unique values, or that a column must match a value in another
table12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5:
Database Fundamentals3; Constraints in Relational Database Model - Online
Tutorials Library
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15.A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential
information on the
laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the
laptop is stolen.
Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this?
A. Encryption
B. Compression
C. Permissions
D. Auditing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a
secret key or algorithm. Encryption helps to protect the confidentiality and privacy of
data, especially when it is stored on a device or transmitted over a network.
Encryption can prevent unauthorized access to data by anyone who does not have
the correct key or algorithm to decrypt it. For example, a user can encrypt the data on
their laptop using a password or a biometric authentication method, so that even if the
laptop is stolen, the data cannot be accessed by the thief56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6:
Security3; What is Encryption? - Definition from Techopedia
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16.A systems administrator uses a program that interacts directly with hardware to
manage storage, network, and virtual machines.
This program is an example of:
A. a storage area network.
B. an embedded OS.
C. network attached storage.
D. a Type 1 hypervisor.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A hypervisor is a software program that allows multiple operating systems (OS) to run
on the same physical hardware as virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor can be
classified into two types: Type 1 and Type 2. A Type 1 hypervisor interacts directly
with the hardware and does not need an underlying OS to function. A Type 1
hypervisor is also known as a bare-metal hypervisor or a native hypervisor. A Type 1
hypervisor can manage storage, network, and VMs more efficiently and securely than
a Type 2 hypervisor89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 3:
IT Infrastructure3; What is Hypervisor? - Definition from Techopedia10
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17.Which of the following is a compiled language?
A. Perl
B. JScript
C. Java
D. PowerShell
Answer: C
Explanation:
A compiled language is a programming language that requires its source code to be
converted into machine code before it can be executed by the CPU. A compiled
language uses a compiler, which is a program that translates the source code into an
executable file that contains machine code. A compiled language typically runs faster
and more efficiently than an interpreted language, which does not need to be
compiled before execution. Java is an example of a compiled language that can run
on different platforms using the Java Virtual Machine (JVM), which interprets the
machine code for the specific hardware1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4:
Software Development3; What is Compiled Language? - Definition from
Techopedia13
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18.Which of the following actions is the FINAL step in the standard troubleshooting
methodology?
A. Document the solution and cause.
B. Create a new theory of cause.
C. Research the problem online.
D. Implement preventive measures.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The final step in the standard troubleshooting methodology is to document the
solution and cause of the problem. This step involves recording the details of the
problem, the steps taken to resolve it, the outcome of the solution, and any preventive
measures implemented to avoid future occurrences. Documenting the solution and
cause can help to create a knowledge base for future reference, improve
communication among IT professionals, and facilitate continuous improvement12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7:
Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology3; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT
Support and Help Desk | CompTIA4
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19.Which of the following is a value that uniquely identifies a database record?
A. Foreign key
B. Public key
C. Primary key
D. Private key
Answer: C
Explanation:
A primary key is a value that uniquely identifies a database record or a row in a table.
A primary key can be a single column or a combination of columns that have unique
values for each record. A primary key ensures that each record can be distinguished
from others and prevents duplicate data. For example, in a database that stores
information about employees, the employee ID column can be used as a primary key
for each employee record56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5:
Database Fundamentals3; What is Primary Key? - Definition from Techopedia7
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20.A systems administrator wants to return results for a time range within a database.
Which of the following commands should the administrator use?
A. SELECT
B. INSERT
C. DELETE
D. UPDATE
Answer: A
Explanation:
A SELECT command is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that is used
to return results for a time range within a database. A SELECT command can specify
the columns and rows to be retrieved from one or more tables based on certain
criteria or conditions. A SELECT command can also use functions or operators to
manipulate or filter the data. For example, a SELECT command can use the
BETWEEN operator to specify a time range for a date column89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5:
Database Fundamentals3; SQL SELECT
Statement - W3Schools10
21.Which of the following statements BEST describes binary?
A. A notational system used to represent an “on” or “off” state
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B. A notational system used to represent media access control
C. A notational system used to represent Internet protocol addressing
D. A notational system used to represent a storage unit of measurement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Binary is a notational system used to represent an “on” or “off” state in digital
devices or systems. Binary uses only two symbols: 0 (off) and 1 (on). Binary is also
known as base 2 notation, because each symbol represents a power of 2. Binary is
the fundamental building block of all computer operations and data storage, as it can
encode any type of information using sequences of bits (binary digits)1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 2:
Computing Basics3; What is Binary? - Definition from Techopedia
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22.Joe, a developer, is writing a program in which he needs to store a number that
changes over the duration of the program’s run.
Which of the following would Joe MOST likely use to accomplish this?
A. Loop
B. Variable
C. Constant
D. Function
Answer: B
Explanation:
A variable is a named memory location that can store a number or any other type of
data that changes over the duration of the program’s run. A variable can be assigned
a value, modified, or used in calculations or operations. A variable is different from a
constant, which is a fixed value that does not change. A variable is also different from
a loop, which is a control structure that repeats a block of code until a condition is
met. A variable is also different from a function, which is a named block of code that
performs a specific task and can be reused12.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4:
Software Development3; What is Variable? - Definition from Techopedia
23.An end user’s computer has been failing to open its word processing software. An
IT technician successfully solves the problem.
Which of the following best describes the technician’s NEXT step?
A. Restart the computer.
B. Contact other users.
C. Disconnect the peripherals.
D. Document the findings.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The final step in the standard troubleshooting methodology is to document the
findings of the problem and the solution. This step involves recording the details of the
problem, the steps taken to resolve it, the outcome of the solution, and any preventive
measures implemented to avoid future occurrences. Documenting the findings can
help to create a knowledge base for future reference, improve communication among
IT professionals, and facilitate continuous improvement56.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 7:
Explain the Troubleshooting Methodology3; Troubleshooting Methodology | IT
Support and Help Desk | CompTIA7
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24.A regulation requires new applicants to provide a scan of their retinas in case of
any future legal questions regarding who applied for the position.
Which of the following concepts is this an example of?
A. Non-repudiation
B. Authentication
C. Integrity
D. Accounting
Answer: A
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is a security concept that refers to the ability to prove the origin and
authenticity of an action or communication, such as an email or a document. Nonrepudiation prevents someone from denying their involvement or responsibility for
something they have done or sent. Non-repudiation can be achieved by using
methods such as digital signatures, encryption, timestamps, or biometric data. For
example, scanning the retinas of new applicants can provide non-repudiation in case
of any future legal questions regarding who applied for the position89.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6:
Security3; What is Non-Repudiation? - Definition from Techopedia10
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25.Which of the following is an advantage of installing an application to the cloud?
A. Data is not stored locally.
B. Support is not required.
C. Service is not required.
D. Internet access is not required.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An advantage of installing an application to the cloud is that data is not stored locally
on the user’s device or computer. This means that data can be accessed from
anywhere with an internet connection, without taking up space on the device or
computer. Data stored in the cloud can also be more secure and reliable than data
stored locally, as it can be protected by encryption, backup, and redundancy
measures provided by the cloud service provider1112.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 5:
Database Fundamentals3; What are Cloud Applications? - Definition from
Techopedia13
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26.A small company wants to set up a server that is accessible from the company
network as well as the Internet.
Which of the following is MOST important to determine before allowing employees to
access the server remotely?
A. The quality of the computer used to connect
B. A security method of allowing connections
C. The employees’ home ISP speeds
D. The geographical location of the employees
Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important factor to determine before allowing employees to access the
server remotely is a security method of allowing connections. This means that the
company needs to implement a way of verifying the identity and authorization of the
employees who want to connect to the server from outside the company network or
the internet. A security method of allowing connections can include using passwords,
tokens, certificates, VPNs, firewalls, or encryption. A security method of allowing
connections can prevent unauthorized access, data breaches, malware infections, or
other cyberattacks on the server1415.
Reference: = CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide, 2nd Edition, Chapter 6:
Security3; Remote Access Security Best Practices - Cisco Meraki
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27.A program needs to choose apples, oranges, or bananas based on an input.
Which of the following programming constructs is BEST to use?
A. Variable
B. If
C. Datatype
D. Comment
Answer: B
Explanation:
An if statement is a programming construct that is best to use when a program needs
to choose among different options based on an input. An if statement evaluates a
condition and executes a block of code if the condition is true. An if statement can
also have an else clause that executes a different block of code if the condition is
false. An if statement can also have multiple else-if clauses that check for additional
conditions. For example, a program that chooses apples, oranges, or bananas based
on an input could use an if statement like this:
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A variable is a named memory location that can store a value, not a programming
construct that can choose among options. A datatype is a classification of data that
defines the possible values and operations for that data, not a programming construct
that can choose among options. A comment is a remark or explanation in the source
code that is ignored by the compiler or interpreter, not a programming construct that
can choose among options.
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28.A UPS provides protection against:
A. denial of service
B. replay attack.
C. power outages.
D. wiretapping.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) provides protection against power outages by
providing backup power to connected devices in case of a power failure. A UPS
typically consists of a battery, an inverter, and a surge protector. A UPS can prevent
data loss, hardware damage, or downtime caused by sudden loss of electricity. A
UPS can also protect against power surges, spikes, or fluctuations that can harm
electronic devices.
A denial of service (DoS) is a cyberattack that attempts to disrupt the normal
functioning of a network or system by overwhelming it with traffic or requests. A UPS
does not provide protection against DoS attacks, as they target the network layer, not
the physical layer. A replay attack is a cyberattack that involves intercepting and
retransmitting data to impersonate or deceive another party. A UPS does not provide
protection against replay attacks, as they target the application layer, not the physical
layer. Wiretapping is the act of secretly monitoring or recording the communication or
data transmission of another party. A UPS does not provide protection against
wiretapping, as it does not encrypt or secure the data.
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29.A company executive wants to view company training videos from a DVD.
Which of the following components would accomplish this task?
A. Optical drive
B. Hard disk drive
C. Solid state drive
D. Flash drive
Answer: A
Explanation:
An optical drive is a component that can accomplish the task of viewing company
training videos from a DVD. An optical drive is a device that can read and write data
from optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs. An optical drive uses a laser
beam to access the data stored on the disc. An optical drive can play video or audio
files from optical discs, as well as install software or store data.
A hard disk drive (HDD) is a component that can store large amounts of data on
magnetic platters, but it cannot read or write data from optical discs. A solid state
drive (SSD) is a component that can store data on flash memory chips, but it cannot
read or write data from optical discs. A flash drive is a component that can store data
on flash memory chips and connect to a USB port, but it cannot read or write data
from optical discs.
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30.A technician is troubleshooting a problem. The technician tests the theory and
determines the theory is confirmed.
Which of the following should be the technician’s NEXT step?
A. Implement the solution.
B. Document lessons learned.
C. Establish a plan of action.
D. Verify full system functionality.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The technician’s next step after testing the theory and determining the theory is
confirmed is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential
effects. This step involves preparing a specific method to implement the solution and
considering how the solution might affect other components or users. The technician
should also test the plan in an isolated environment before applying it to the actual
system.
Implementing the solution is not the next step after testing the theory and determining
the theory is confirmed, as it requires establishing a plan of action first. Documenting
lessons learned is not the next step after testing the theory and determining the
theory is confirmed, as it comes after verifying full system functionality and
implementing preventive measures. Verifying full system functionality is not the next
step after testing the theory and determining the theory is confirmed, as it comes after
implementing the solution.
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31.Given the following pseudocode:
If the Breakfast program ran on Sunday, which of the following would be the output?
A. Oatmeal
B. Bacon and eggs
C. Waffles
D. Pancakes
Answer: D
Explanation:
The output of the Breakfast program if it ran on Sunday would be pancakes. The
program uses an if-else-if-else statement to choose among different breakfast options
based on the day of the week input. The program first checks if the day input is equal
to “Saturday”. If this condition is true, it prints “Waffles” and ends. If this condition is
false, it checks if the day input is equal to “Sunday”. If this condition is true, it prints
“Pancakes” and ends. If this condition is false, it prints “Oatmeal” and ends. Since
the day input is “Sunday”, the second condition is true, and the program prints
“Pancakes”.
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32.A desktop administrator just connected a printer to a workstation, but the
workstation does not recognize the printer.
Which of the following does the workstation MOST likely need for the printer to
function?
A. Permission
B. Ink cartridge
C. USB cable
D. Driver
Answer: D
Explanation:
A driver is a software component that enables a device, such as a printer, to
communicate with the operating system of a computer. Without a proper driver, the
workstation will not be able to recognize or use the printer. Therefore, the workstation
most likely needs a driver for the printer to function. The other options are not relevant
to the problem of device recognition.
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33.Which of the following BEST describes a kilobyte?
A. A kilobyte is a measurement of storage (e.g., 100KB).
B. A kilobyte is a measurement of throughput (e.g.,100Kbps).
C. A kilobyte is a measurement of power (e.g., 100KW).
D. A kilobyte is a measurement of processor speed (e.g., 2.4KHz).
Answer: A
Explanation:
A kilobyte is a unit of digital information that equals 1,024 bytes. A byte is the smallest
unit of data that can be stored or processed by a computer. A kilobyte can store a
small amount of text, such as a few sentences or a paragraph. Storage devices, such
as hard disks and flash drives, use kilobytes and other larger units, such as
megabytes and gigabytes, to measure their capacity and performance.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 38.
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34.Which of the following security concerns is a threat to confidentiality?
A. Replay attack
B. Denial of service
C. Service outage
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: D
Explanation:
Dumpster diving is a technique used by attackers to obtain sensitive information from
discarded documents, such as passwords, account numbers, or personal details. This
information can be used to breach the confidentiality of an organization or an
individual. Confidentiality is the principle of protecting information from unauthorized
access or disclosure. To prevent dumpster diving, documents containing confidential
information should be shredded or securely disposed of.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 206.
35.Which of the following software license models allows a developer to modify the
original code and release its own version of the application?
A. Proprietary software
B. Commercial software
C. Open-source software
D. Cross-platform software
Answer: C
Explanation:
Open source software is software that allows anyone to access, modify, and distribute
its source code, which is the human-readable instructions that make up the software.
Open source software encourages collaboration and innovation among developers
and users. Examples of open source software include Linux, Firefox, and WordPress.
Other types of software license models, such as proprietary and commercial software,
restrict the access and modification of the source code.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 122.
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36.Which of the following are the basic computing operations?
A. Input, process, output, and feedback
B. Input, output, storage, and feedback
C. Input, process, and output
D. Input, process, output, and storage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Input, process, output, and storage are the basic computing operations that describe
how a computer system works. Input is the data or instructions that are entered into
the computer system by the user or another device. Process is the manipulation or
transformation of the input data by the computer system according to a set of rules or
algorithms. Output is the result or information that is displayed or sent by the
computer system to the user or another device. Storage is the retention or
preservation of the input, output, or intermediate data by the computer system for
future use.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 28.
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37.Which of the following would work BEST stored as a flat file rather than stored in a
database?
A. Contact list
B. Movie theater locations
C. Directions to doctor’s office
D. Store inventory
Answer: C
Explanation:
Directions to doctor’s office would work best stored as a flat file rather than stored in
a database. A flat file is a simple text file that contains one record per line and has a
fixed structure or format. A flat file is suitable for storing simple or static data that does
not require frequent updates or complex queries. A database is a collection of
organized data that can be accessed, manipulated, and updated using a database
management system (DBMS). A database is suitable for storing complex or dynamic
data that requires frequent updates or complex queries.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
pages 142-143.
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38.An administrator grants permission for a user to access data in a database.
Which of the following actions was performed?
A. Data correlation
B. Data manipulation
C. Data gathering
D. Data definition
Answer: D
Explanation:
Data definition is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting the structure and
objects of a database, such as tables, fields, indexes, and views. Data definition is
performed using data definition language (DDL), which is a subset of SQL
commands. An administrator can use DDL to grant or revoke permissions for a user
to access data in a database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 144.
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39.An employee is asked to generate a report on a student information system. The
employee uses spreadsheet software and connects to a remote database to pull data
for the report.
Which of the following types of application architectures did the employee use?
A. Standalone application
B. Client-server application
C. Web application
D. Cloud application
Answer: B
Explanation:
A client-server application is an application that runs on a client device and
communicates with a server device over a network. The client device requests data or
services from the server device, and the server device responds to the requests. A
spreadsheet software that connects to a remote database is an example of a clientserver application. The spreadsheet software acts as the client, and the database
acts as the server.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 128.
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40.Ann, a user, is experiencing difficulty getting her IP-based security camera to
function at her house after a rain storm that caused a power interruption. The camera
has an LED light indicating it has power.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. The power interruption caused the camera to malfunction.
B. Ann has a compatibility problem with the camera.
C. A firmware update needs to be applied to the camera.
D. Ann’s Internet connection and wireless router are still down.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Ann’s IP-based security camera requires an Internet connection and a wireless router
to function properly. The camera has an LED light indicating it has power, which
means it is not malfunctioning due to the power interruption. However, the power
interruption may have affected Ann’s Internet connection and wireless router, which
are still down. This would prevent the camera from communicating with the network
and the cloud service that stores the video footage.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 178.
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41.A programmer needs to store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as
possible. The data does not need to remain persistent.
Which of the following is the BEST option for storing the data?
A. Flat file
B. Memory
C. Relational database
D. Solid state drive
Answer: B
Explanation:
Memory is the component of a computer system that stores data temporarily for fast
access by the processor. Memory does not need to remain persistent, which means it
does not retain data when the power is turned off. A programmer can use memory to
store output in a place that can be accessed as quickly as possible by the processor.
Memory is also known as RAM (random access memory).
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 36.
42.Which of the following intellectual property concepts BEST represents a legally
protected slogan of a business?
A. Contract
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Trademark
Answer: D
Explanation:
A trademark is a type of intellectual property that protects a word, phrase, symbol, or
design that identifies and distinguishes the source of goods or services of one party
from those of others. A slogan of a business is an example of a trademark that can be
legally protected from unauthorized use by other parties. A trademark can be
registered with the appropriate authority to obtain exclusive rights and benefits.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 211.
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43.Which of the following is a wireless communication that requires devices to be
within 6in of each other to transfer information?
A. Infrared
B. NFC
C. Bluetooth
D. WiFi
Answer: B
Explanation:
NFC stands for near field communication, which is a wireless communication
technology that allows devices to exchange data or perform transactions when they
are within a few centimeters of each other. NFC uses radio frequency identification
(RFID) to create a short-range wireless connection. NFC is commonly used for
contactless payments, smart cards, and digital wallets.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 174.
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44.The IT department has established a new password policy for employees.
Specifically, the policy reads:
Passwords must not contain common dictionary words
Passwords must contain at least one special character.
Passwords must be different from the las six passwords used.
Passwords must use at least one capital letter or number.
Which of the following practices are being employed? (Select TWO).
A. Password lockout
B. Password complexity
C. Password expiration
D. Passwords history
E. Password length
F. Password age
Answer: B, D
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Explanation:
Password complexity and password history are two practices that are being employed
by the IT department to establish a new password policy for employees. Password
complexity is the requirement that passwords must contain a combination of different
types of characters, such as letters, numbers, and symbols. Password complexity
makes passwords harder to guess or crack by attackers. Password history is the
record of the previous passwords used by a user. Password history prevents users
from reusing the same passwords over and over again, which reduces the risk of
compromise.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 208.
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45.Which of the following would MOST likely prevent malware sent as compromised
file via email from infecting a person’s computer?
A. Email previewing
B. Patching
C. Clear browsing cache
D. Kill process
Answer: B
Explanation:
Patching would be the most likely way to prevent malware sent as a compromised file
via email from infecting a person’s computer. Patching is the process of applying
updates or fixes to software or hardware to improve performance, security, or
functionality. Patching can help prevent malware infections by closing the
vulnerabilities or flaws that malware exploits to infect systems. Users should regularly
patch their operating systems, applications, and antivirus software to protect their
computers from malware attacks.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study
Guide (FC0-U61), page 202.
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46.A user wants to use a laptop outside the house and still remain connected to the
Internet.
Which of the following would be the BEST choice to accomplish this task?
A. Thunderbolt cable
B. Bluetooth module
C. Infrared port
D. WLAN card
Answer: D
Explanation:
A WLAN card would be the best choice for a user who wants to use a laptop outside
the house and still remain connected to the Internet. A WLAN card stands for wireless
local area network card, which is a device that allows a laptop to connect to a wireless
network using radio waves. A WLAN card can enable a laptop to access the Internet
through public or private wireless hotspots, such as cafes, libraries, airports, or
homes.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 170.
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47.Joe, a user, finds out his password for a social media site has been compromised.
Joe tells a friend that his email and banking accounts are probably also compromised.
Which of the following has Joe MOST likely performed?
A. Password reuse
B. Snooping
C. Social engineering
D. Phishing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Password reuse is the practice of using the same password for multiple accounts or
services. Password reuse is a bad security habit that can lead to compromise of
multiple accounts if one of them is breached by an attacker. Joe has most likely
performed password reuse if he thinks his email and banking accounts are also
compromised after his password for a social media site was compromised. Joe
should use different passwords for different accounts and change them regularly to
prevent password reuse.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 208.
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48.A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless
network to prevent
unauthorized access.
Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?
A. WPA
B. SSID
C. WEP
D. WPA2
Answer: D
Explanation:
WPA2 is the most secure protocol for securing a wireless network and preventing
unauthorized access. WPA2 stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access 2, which is an
encryption standard that provides strong security and privacy for wireless
communications. WPA2 uses AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) to encrypt data
and CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code
Protocol) to authenticate data. WPA2 also supports PSK (Pre-Shared Key) and EAP
(Extensible Authentication Protocol) methods for verifying the identity of users or
devices that connect to the wireless network.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 172.
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49.Which of the following network protocols will MOST likely be used when sending
and receiving Internet email? (Select TWO.)
A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
E. ICMP
F. SFTP
Answer: A, B
Explanation:
SMTP and POP3 are the most likely network protocols that will be used when sending
and receiving Internet email. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is
a protocol that enables the transmission of email messages from a client to a server
or from one server to another. SMTP is used to send outgoing email messages.
POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, which is a protocol that enables the
retrieval of email messages from a server to a client. POP3 is used to download
incoming email messages.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 166.
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50.A database administrator finds that a table is not needed in a relational database.
Which of the following commands is used to completely remove the table and its
data?
A. UPDATE
B. DELETE
C. ALTER
D. DROP
Answer: D
Explanation:
DROP is the command that is used to completely remove a table and its data from a
relational database. DROP is a SQL (Structured Query Language) statement that
deletes the definition and contents of a database object, such as a table, index, or
view. DROP cannot be undone, so it should be used with caution. For example, the
statement DROP TABLE Customers; will delete the table named Customers and all
its data from the database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 144.
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51.A technician is called to replace a display for a workstation.
Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect the display to the
workstation?
A. USB
B. NFC
C. DSL
D. DVI
Answer: D
Explanation:
DVI is the most likely connector that would be used to connect a display to a
workstation. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface, which is a standard that transmits
digital video signals between devices. DVI can support high-resolution displays and
multiple monitors.
DVI connectors have three types:
DVI-A (analog), DVI-D (digital), and DVI-I (integrated). DVI connectors have different
numbers of pins depending on the type and mode.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 54.
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52.Ann, the president of a company, has requested assistance with choosing the
appropriate Internet connectivity for her home. The home is in a remote location and
has no connectivity to existing infrastructure.
Which of the following Internet service types should MOST likely be used?
A. Fiber
B. DSL
C. Cable
D. Satellite
Answer: D
Explanation:
Satellite would be the best choice for Internet service for a home in a remote location
that has no connectivity to existing infrastructure. Satellite Internet service uses
satellites in orbit to provide wireless Internet access to users who have a satellite dish
installed at their location. Satellite Internet service can cover areas where other types
of Internet service are not available or reliable, such as rural or remote locations.
Satellite Internet service can offer high-speed broadband connections, but it may also
have drawbacks such as high latency, weather interference, and data caps.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 168.
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53.Which of the following is MOST likely used to represent international text data?
A. ASCII
B. Octal
C. Hexadecimal
D. Unicode
Answer: D
Explanation:
: Unicode is the most likely encoding standard used to represent international text
data. Unicode is a universal character set that can encode over a million characters
from different languages, scripts, symbols, and emojis. Unicode supports multiple
encoding forms, such as UTF-8, UTF-16, and UTF-32, that use different numbers of
bytes to represent each character. Unicode enables consistent and interoperable
representation and processing of text data across different platforms and applications.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 138.
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54.For a disaster recovery exercise, a company wants to ensure customer data is
recovered before operational data.
This is an example of:
A. redundancy.
B. replication.
C. prioritization.
D. fault tolerance.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prioritization is the example of a disaster recovery exercise that involves ensuring
customer data is recovered before operational data. Prioritization is the process of
ranking or ordering the importance or urgency of tasks, goals, or resources. In
disaster recovery, prioritization helps to determine which data, systems, or functions
should be restored first based on their criticality or impact on the business continuity.
For example, a company may prioritize customer data over operational data because
customer data is more valuable or essential for the business operations.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 200.
55.Which of the following operating systems do not require extensions on files to
execute a program? (Select TWO).
A. Windows 7
B. Windows 8
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C. UNIX
D. Windows Server 2012
E. Android
F. Linux
Answer: C, F
Explanation:
UNIX and Linux are the examples of operating systems that do not require extensions
on files to execute a program. UNIX and Linux are operating systems that are based
on the same kernel and share many features and commands. UNIX and Linux do not
rely on file extensions to determine the file type or function. Instead, they use file
permissions and attributes to indicate whether a file is executable or not. File
extensions are optional and mainly used for human readability or compatibility with
other systems.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 86.
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56.A technician needs to install a wireless router for a client that supports speeds up
to 11Mbps and operates on the 2.4GHz band.
Which of the following should the technician select?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: B
Explanation:
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57.11b is the wireless standard that supports speeds up to 11Mbps and operates on
the 2.4GHz band. 802.11b is one of the earliest versions of the IEEE 802.11 family of
standards for wireless local area networks (WLANs). 802.11b uses direct-sequence
spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation to transmit data over radio waves. 802.11b has
a maximum theoretical data rate of 11Mbps and a typical range of up to 150 feet
indoors or 300 feet outdoors. 802.11b operates on the same frequency band as some
cordless phones, microwaves, and Bluetooth devices, which may cause interference
or signal degradation.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 171.
58.Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?
A. Password and passphrase
B. Fingerprint and retina scan
C. Hardware token and smartphone
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D. Smart card and PIN
Answer: D
Explanation:
Smart card and PIN are the examples of multifactor authentication. Multifactor
authentication is a security method that requires two or more factors or pieces of
evidence to verify the identity of a user or device. The factors are usually classified
into three categories: something you know (such as a password or PIN), something
you have (such as a smart card or token), or something you are (such as a fingerprint
or retina scan). Multifactor authentication provides stronger security than single-factor
authentication because it reduces the risk of compromise if one factor is lost or stolen.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 207.
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59.Which of the following language types would a web developer MOST likely use to
create a website?
A. Interpreted
B. Query
C. Compiled
D. Assembly
Answer: A
Explanation:
Interpreted is the type of language that a web developer would most likely use to
create a website. Interpreted languages are languages that do not need to be
compiled before execution. Instead, they are translated into machine code by an
interpreter program at run time. Interpreted languages are often used for web
development because they are portable, flexible, and easy to modify. Examples of
interpreted languages include HTML, CSS, JavaScript, PHP, and Python.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 132-133. edge browser. The user has the page open in a Microsoft Edge
browser window whose metadata is:
60.A developer is creating specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and
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conditional statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems.
Which of the following is being developed?
A. Algorithm
B. Software
C. Pseudocode
D. Flowchart
Answer: A
Explanation:
An algorithm is a set of specific step-by-step instructions/procedures and conditional
statements that will be used by a computer program to solve problems. An algorithm
defines the logic and sequence of actions that a computer program must follow to
perform a task or achieve a goal. An algorithm can be expressed in various ways,
such as pseudocode, flowchart, or natural language.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 131.
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61.A startup company has created a logo. The company wants to ensure no other
entity can use the logo for any purpose.
Which of the following should the company use to BEST protect the logo? (Select
TWO).
A. Patent
B. Copyright
C. NDA
D. Trademark
E. EULA
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
A logo is a graphical representation of a company’s name, brand, or identity. A logo
can be protected by both copyright and trademark laws. Copyright is a type of
intellectual property that protects the original expression of ideas in tangible forms,
such as books, music, art, or software. Copyright protects the logo from being copied,
reproduced, or distributed without the permission of the owner. Trademark is a type of
intellectual property that protects a word, phrase, symbol, or design that identifies and
distinguishes the source of goods or services of one party from those of others.
Trademark protects the logo from being used by other parties in a way that causes
confusion or deception among consumers.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 211.
62.Which of the following would be BEST to keep the data on a laptop safe if the
laptop is lost or stolen?
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A. Host-based firewall
B. Strong administrator password
C. Anti-malware software
D. Full disk encryption
Answer: D
Explanation:
Full disk encryption would be the best way to keep the data on a laptop safe if the
laptop is lost or stolen. Full disk encryption is a security technique that encrypts all the
data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. Full disk
encryption prevents unauthorized access to the data without the correct password or
key. Full disk encryption can protect the data on a laptop even if the laptop is
physically removed or tampered with.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 203.
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63.In which of the following situations should there be come expectation of privacy?
A. Posting a comment on a friend’s social media page
B. Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site
C. Posting a comment on a video sharing site
D. Sending email and pictures to a close relative
Answer: B
Explanation:
Submitting personal information on a school enrollment site is an example of a
situation where there should be some expectation of privacy. Privacy is the right or
ability of individuals or groups to control or limit the access or disclosure of their
personal information by others. Personal information is any information that can
identify or relate to a specific person, such as name, address, phone number, email,
social security number, etc. A school enrollment site should have a privacy policy that
explains how it collects, uses, and protects the personal information of its users.
Users should read and understand the privacy policy before submitting their personal
information on the site.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 205.
64.Which of the following data types should a developer use when creating a variable
to hold a postal code?
A. Integer
B. String
C. Float
D. Boolean
Answer: B
Explanation:
A string is the data type that a developer should use when creating a variable to hold
a postal code. A string is a sequence of characters that can represent text, symbols,
or numbers. A string can store any value that can be typed on a keyboard, such as
“Hello”, “123”, or “90210”. A string is enclosed by quotation marks to distinguish it
from other types of data. A postal code is an example of a value that can be stored as
a string.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 139.
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65.Which of the following is the closest to machine language?
A. Scripted languages
B. Compiled languages
C. Query languages
D. Assembly languages
Answer: D
Explanation:
Assembly languages are the closest to machine language among the given options.
Machine language is the lowest-level programming language that consists of binary
codes (0s and 1s) that can be directly understood by the processor. Machine
language is specific to each type of processor and hardware platform. Assembly
languages are low-level programming languages that use mnemonic codes
(abbreviations or symbols) to represent machine language instructions. Assembly
languages are easier to read and write than machine language, but they still require
an assembler program to convert them into machine language.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 132-133.
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66.A function is BEST used for enabling programs to:
A. hold a list of numbers.
B. be divided into reusable components.
C. define needed constant values.
D. define variables to hold different values.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A function is best used for enabling programs to define variables to hold different
values. A function is a named block of code that performs a specific task or operation.
A function can have one or more parameters, which are variables that hold the input
values for the function. A function can also have a return value, which is the output
value that the function produces. A function can be called or invoked by other parts of
the program to execute the code inside the function. A function can help programs to
avoid repeating the same code, improve readability and modularity, and reduce errors
and complexity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 133.
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67.When transferring a file across the network, which of the following would be the
FASTEST transfer rate?
A. 1001Kbps
B. 110Mbps
C. 1.22Gbps
D. 123Mbps
Answer: C
Explanation:
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68.22Gbps would be the fastest transfer rate when transferring a file across the
network among the given options. A transfer rate is a measure of how much data can
be transmitted or received over a network in a given time. A transfer rate is usually
expressed in bits per second (bps) or its multiples, such as Kbps (kilobits per second),
Mbps (megabits per second), or Gbps (gigabits per second). A higher transfer rate
means faster data transmission or reception. 1.22Gbps is equivalent to 1,220Mbps,
which is higher than 110Mbps, 123Mbps, or 1001Kbps.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 164.
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69.A technician has been asked to assign an IP address to a new desktop computer.
Which of the following is a valid IP address the technician should assign?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 172.16.2.189
C. 192.168.257.1
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: B
Explanation:
70.16.2.189 is a valid IP address that a technician can assign to a new desktop
computer. An IP address is a unique identifier that is assigned to a device on a
network that uses the Internet Protocol (IP). An IP address consists of four numbers
separated by dots, each ranging from 0 to 255. For example, 192.168.1.1 is an IP
address. An IP address can be classified into different classes based on the first
number: Class A (1-126), Class B (128-191), Class C (192-223), Class D (224-239),
and Class E (240-255). Each class has a different range of IP addresses that can be
used for public or private networks. 172.16.2.189 is a Class B IP address that belongs
to the private network range of 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 165.
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71.A game developer is purchasing a computing device to develop a game and
recognizes the game engine software will require a device with high-end
specifications that can be upgraded.
Which of the following devices would be BEST for the developer to buy?
A. Laptop
B. Server
C. Game console
D. Workstation
Answer: D
Explanation:
A workstation would be the best device for a game developer to buy if the game
engine software requires high-end specifications and upgradability. A workstation is a
computing device that is designed for professional or specialized applications that
require high performance, reliability, and scalability. A workstation typically has more
powerful components than a standard desktop computer, such as faster processors,
larger memory, better graphics cards, and more storage options. A workstation can
also be customized and upgraded to meet specific needs or preferences.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 26.
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72.A company requires several reports that analyze related information from sales,
inventory, marketing, and compensation data.
Which of the following is the BEST place to store this data?
A. Flat file
B. Word processor
C. Database
D. Network share
Answer: C
Explanation:
A database would be the best place to store data that requires analysis from multiple
sources, such as sales, inventory, marketing, and compensation data. A database is
a collection of organized and related data that can be stored, accessed, manipulated,
and analyzed by software applications or users. A database can store various types
of data, such as text, numbers, dates, images, etc., in tables, records, fields, or other
structures. A database can also support queries, reports, transactions, security,
backup, and recovery functions.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 142.
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73.A computer user is downloading software from the Internet and notices the
following at the end of the install file: “…x86.exe”.
Which of the following statements BEST represents what the “…x86.exe” means in
the installation file?
A. x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU architecture.
B. x86 supports an installation on a 32-bit and a 64-bit CPU architecture.
C. x86 only supports an installation on a 64-bit CPU architecture.
D. x86 supports an installation on a 16-bit CPU architecture.
Answer: A
Explanation:
x86 only supports an installation on a 32-bit CPU architecture is the statement that
best represents what the “…x86.exe” means in the installation file. x86 is a term that
refers to a family of processors or instruction sets that use 32-bit registers and
memory addresses. x86 processors can only run software applications that are
compatible with the 32-bit architecture. An installation file that has the suffix
“…x86.exe” indicates that the file is an executable file that can only be installed on a
32-bit system. A 64-bit system can run both 32-bit and 64-bit applications, but a 32-bit
system can only run 32-bit applications.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 34.
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74.Which of the following would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol?
A. Document sharing software
B. Instant messaging software
C. Conferencing software
D. Email software
Answer: D
Explanation:
Email software would be used to send messages using the SMTP protocol. SMTP
stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is a network protocol that enables the
transmission of email messages from a client to a server or from one server to
another. Email software is an application that allows users to compose, send, receive,
and manage email messages using SMTP or other protocols, such as POP3 or IMAP.
Examples of email software include Microsoft Outlook, Gmail, Yahoo Mail, etc.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 166.
75.Malware infections are being caused by websites.
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Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet
browsing?
A. Turn on private browsing
B. Delete browsing history on program close.
C. Notify when downloads are complete.
D. Configure prompting before downloading content.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Configuring prompting before downloading content will help prevent infections caused
by Internet browsing. Prompting before downloading content is a browser setting that
asks the user for confirmation or permission before downloading any file or program
from a website. This setting can help prevent malware infections by allowing the user
to check the source, type, and size of the file or program before downloading it.
Prompting before downloading content can also help the user avoid unwanted or
unnecessary downloads that may consume bandwidth or storage space.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 202.
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76.Which of the following is an example of information a company would ask
employees to handle in a sensitive manner?
A. Customer date of birth
B. The first and last name of the Chief Executive Officer (CEO)
C. Customer service number
D. Company social media screen name
Answer: A
Explanation:
Customer date of birth is an example of information that a company would ask
employees to handle in a sensitive manner. Sensitive information is any information
that can identify or relate to a specific person, such as name, address, phone number,
email, social security number, date of birth, etc.
Sensitive information can also include financial, medical, legal, or personal records of
a person. Sensitive information should be handled with care and confidentiality by
employees to protect the privacy and security of the customers and the company.
Employees should follow the company’s policies and procedures for handling
sensitive information, such as encrypting, locking, shredding, or disposing of it
properly.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 205.
77.The sales department needs to keep a customer list that contains names, contact
information, and sales records. This list will need to be edited by multiple people at
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the same time.
Which of the following applications should be used to create this list?
A. Database software
B. Word processing software
C. Conferencing software
D. Presentation software
Answer: A
Explanation:
Database software would be the best application to create a list that contains names,
contact information, and sales records that can be edited by multiple people at the
same time. Database software is an application that allows users to create, store,
access, manipulate, and analyze data in an organized and structured way. Database
software can store various types of data in tables, records, fields, or other structures.
Database software can also support queries, reports, transactions, security, backup,
and recovery functions. Database software can allow multiple users to edit the same
data concurrently with proper permissions and controls.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 142.
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78.Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann
finds that she can only get to local (intranet) pages.
Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?
A. Renew the IP address.
B. Configure the browser proxy settings.
C. Clear the browser cache.
D. Disable the pop-up blocker
Answer: A
Explanation:
Renewing the IP address would most likely fix the problem of not being able to access
the Internet after connecting to the corporate WiFi. An IP address is a unique identifier
that is assigned to a device on a network that uses the Internet Protocol (IP). An IP
address consists of four numbers separated by dots, each ranging from 0 to 255. For
example, 192.168.1.1 is an IP address. An IP address can be assigned statically
(manually) or dynamically (automatically) by a DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol) server on the network. Sometimes, an IP address may become invalid or
conflict with another device on the network, which may prevent the device from
accessing the Internet or other network resources. Renewing the IP address is a
process of releasing the current IP address and requesting a new IP address from the
DHCP server. Renewing the IP address can help resolve any IP address issues and
restore network connectivity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 165-166.
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79.Which of the following would be considered the BEST method of securely
distributing medical records?
A. Encrypted flash drive
B. Social networking sites
C. Fax
D. FTP file sharing
Answer: A
Explanation:
An encrypted flash drive would be the best method of securely distributing medical
records among the given options. An encrypted flash drive is a portable storage
device that uses encryption to protect the data stored on it. Encryption is a process of
transforming data into an unreadable form that can only be restored with a key or
password. Encryption can prevent unauthorized access or disclosure of sensitive or
confidential data, such as medical records, if the flash drive is lost or stolen. An
encrypted flash drive can also be used to transfer data between different devices or
locations securely.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 203.
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80.Which of the following should have the HIGHEST expectation of privacy?
A. A picture posted to a social media website
B. A presentation saved to a corporate file server
C. A locally stored word processing document
D. A spreadsheet emailed to a business client
Answer: C
Explanation:
A locally stored word processing document would have the highest expectation of
privacy among the given options. Privacy is the right or ability of individuals or groups
to control or limit the access or disclosure of their personal information by others. A
locally stored word processing document is a file that contains text, images, or other
data that is created and saved on a device’s internal storage, such as a hard drive or
SSD. A locally stored word processing document can have a higher level of privacy
than a file that is shared, uploaded, or transmitted over the Internet or a network,
because it is less exposed to potential threats or breaches. However, a locally stored
word processing document may still require additional security measures, such as
encryption, password protection, or backup, to ensure its privacy and integrity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 205.
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81.Which of the following storage devices have a spinning disk? (Choose two.)
A. Optical drive
B. SSD
C. HDD
D. Flash drive
E. RAM
F. ROM
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Optical drive and HDD are the examples of storage devices that have a spinning disk
among the given options. A spinning disk is a component of a storage device that
rotates at high speed to store and access data on its surface. A spinning disk is
usually made of metal, glass, or plastic and coated with a magnetic material. A
spinning disk has one or more read/write heads that move across the disk to read or
write data on concentric tracks or sectors. An optical drive is a storage device that
uses laser beams to read or write data on optical discs, such as CDs, DVDs, or Bluray discs. An HDD (hard disk drive) is a storage device that uses magnetic fields to
read or write data on hard disks.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 38-39.
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82.Which of the following computer components allows for communication over a
computer network?
A. RAM
B. NIC
C. CPU
D. NAS
Answer: B
Explanation:
A NIC (network interface card) is the computer component that allows for
communication over a computer network. A NIC is a hardware device that connects a
computer to a network cable or a wireless access point. A NIC enables the computer
to send and receive data packets over the network using protocols such as TCP/IP
(Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol). A NIC has a unique identifier called
a MAC (media access control) address that distinguishes it from other devices on the
network.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 169.
83.A company desires to implement a six-month survey site within a remote location.
Which of the following is the BEST option for Internet service?
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A. Cellular
B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Fiber
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cellular would be the best option for Internet service for a six-month survey site in a
remote location among the given options. Cellular Internet service uses cellular
networks to provide wireless Internet access to devices that have a cellular modem,
such as smartphones, tablets, laptops, etc. Cellular Internet service can cover areas
where other types of Internet service are not available or reliable, such as rural or
remote locations. Cellular Internet service can offer high-speed broadband
connections using technologies such as 3G, 4G, LTE, etc., but it may also have
drawbacks such as limited coverage, signal interference, data caps, or high costs.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 168.
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84.Which of the following authorization techniques is used to assign permissions and
authorize a user based on job title or function?
A. Rule-based access control
B. Mandatory access control
C. Role-based access control
D. Discretionary access control
Answer: C
Explanation:
Role-based access control is the authorization technique that is used to assign
permissions and authorize a user based on job title or function. Role-based access
control is a security method that defines roles for users or groups and assigns
permissions for each role based on their responsibilities or tasks. Role-based access
control simplifies the management of user access rights by allowing administrators to
grant or revoke permissions based on roles rather than individual users.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 207.
85.A user has purchased a high-end graphics card that contains a GPU.
Which of the following processes is being performed by the GPU on the graphics
card?
A. Input
B. Output
C. Storage
D. Processing
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Answer: D
Explanation:
Processing is the process that is being performed by the GPU on the graphics card. A
GPU (graphics processing unit) is a specialized processor that is designed to handle
graphics-related tasks, such as rendering images, videos, animations, or games. A
GPU can perform parallel computations faster and more efficiently than a CPU
(central processing unit), which is the main processor of a computer. A GPU can be
integrated into the motherboard or installed as a separate component on a graphics
card. A graphics card is an expansion card that connects to a slot on the motherboard
and provides video output to a display device, such as a monitor or projector.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 35.
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86.A company purchased a software program. The EULA states that the software can
be installed on as many computers as the company wants, but only four users can be
using the software at any point in time.
Which of the following types of licenses is this an example of?
A. Group license
B. Concurrent license
C. Subscription license
D. Open-source license
Answer: B
Explanation:
: A concurrent license is a type of software license that allows a software program to
be installed on as many computers as the company wants, but only a limited number
of users can use the software at the same time. A concurrent license is based on the
number of simultaneous users rather than the number of installations. A concurrent
license can help a company save money and resources by sharing the software
among multiple users who do not need to use the software all the time.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 211.
87.A user at a company visits a weather website often during the day. The user
browses to the site in the afternoon and notices that the temperature listed is from the
morning and is not the current temperature. The user closes the page and tries again
with the same result.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Proxy server
B. Browser add-on
C. Corrupted cache
D. Script blocker
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Answer: C
Explanation:
A corrupted cache is the most likely cause of the problem of seeing outdated
information on a website. A cache is a temporary storage area that stores copies of
frequently accessed data, such as web pages, images, or files. A cache can improve
the performance and speed of data retrieval by reducing the need to access the
original source. However, sometimes a cache may become corrupted or outdated,
which may cause errors or inconsistencies in displaying the data. A corrupted cache
may show old or incorrect information on a website instead of the current or updated
information. To fix this problem, the user can clear the browser cache and reload the
website.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 202.
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88.Which of the following application delivery mechanisms BEST describes
infrastructure located in an individual organization’s datacenter?
A. Private
B. Traditional
C. Public
D. Cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Traditional is the application delivery mechanism that best describes infrastructure
located in an individual organization’s datacenter. Traditional application delivery is a
method of deploying and running software applications on physical servers or
hardware that are owned and managed by the organization itself. Traditional
application delivery requires the organization to purchase, install, configure, maintain,
and secure the infrastructure and resources needed to support the applications.
Traditional application delivery offers more control and customization over the
applications, but it also involves more cost and complexity.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 144.
89.A database administrator wants to populate a database with large amounts of data
from an external source.
Which of the following actions should be used to get the database populated?
A. EXPORT
B. IMPORT
C. SELECT
D. ALTER
Answer: B
Explanation:
IMPORT is the action that should be used to populate a database with large amounts
of data from an external source. IMPORT is a command or function that allows a
database to read and load data from an external file or source into a table or structure
within the database. IMPORT can help a database administrator to transfer or migrate
data from one database to another or from a different format to a database format.
IMPORT can also help a database administrator to backup or restore data from a file
or source.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 143.
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90.Which of the following would a company consider an asset?
A. An external company used to destroy defective hard drives
B. Information residing on backup tapes
C. A company-sponsored technology conference
D. A certified third-party vendor that provides critical components
Answer: B
Explanation:
Information residing on backup tapes is an example of an asset that a company would
consider valuable or important. An asset is any resource or item that has value or
benefit for an organization, such as hardware, software, data, personnel, etc. An
asset can be tangible or intangible, physical or digital, owned or leased, etc.
Information residing on backup tapes is an asset because it contains data that may be
critical or essential for the organization’s operations, functions, or goals. Information
residing on backup tapes may also contain sensitive or confidential data that needs to
be protected from loss, damage, theft, or unauthorized access.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 204.
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91.A company will begin to allow staff to work from home by means of formal request.
Which of the following is the BEST way for the company to document this change?
A. Written procedure
B. Written policy
C. Written email
D. Written memo
Answer: B
Explanation:
A written policy is the best way for a company to document a change that allows staff
to work from home by means of formal request. A policy is a statement or guideline
that defines the rules, standards, or procedures for an organization’s actions,
decisions, or behaviors. A policy can help an organization to achieve its objectives,
comply with regulations, ensure consistency and quality, and communicate
expectations and responsibilities. A written policy is a policy that is documented in a
formal document that can be distributed, reviewed, updated, and enforced by the
organization. A written policy can help a company to document a change that affects
its staff, such as working from home, by specifying the criteria, process, benefits,
limitations, and consequences of the change.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 210.
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92.A company’s team members have both old and new laptops.
Which of the following connectors should be available in the conference room to
ensure everyone can use the conference room projectors? (Choose two.)
A. USB
B. HDMI
C. FireWire
D. VGA
E. Bluetooth
F. RJ45
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
HDMI and VGA are the connectors that should be available in the conference room to
ensure everyone can use the conference room projectors. HDMI and VGA are types
of video connectors that are used to connect a video source, such as a laptop, to a
video output, such as a projector. HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia
Interface, which is a digital connector that can transmit high-quality video and audio
signals over a single cable. VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, which is an analog
connector that can transmit standard-definition video signals over a 15-pin cable.
HDMI and VGA are common video connectors that are found on old and new laptops,
respectively. Having both HDMI and VGA connectors in the conference room can
ensure compatibility and connectivity for different laptops and projectors.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 40.
93.A programmer uses DML to modify:
A. files
B. permissions
C. data
D. backups
Answer: C
Explanation:
A programmer uses DML to modify data in a database. DML stands for Data
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Manipulation Language, which is a subset of SQL (Structured Query Language) that
is used to manipulate or change data in a database. DML includes commands or
statements such as INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE, which can be used to
add, modify, remove, or combine data in a table or structure within a database. DML
can help a programmer to perform various operations or functions on the data in a
database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61),
page 143.
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