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CHRLKE Exam Prep Study Kit V14

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Table of Contents
CHRL Knowlege Exam Study Kit ....................................................................................1
Textbook ..........................................................................................................................4
Exam Questions...........................................................................................................148
Answers ........................................................................................................................508
Flashcards ....................................................................................................................514
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Strategy
What are Strategies?5
Strategy is a multi-dimensional concept going well beyond traditional competitive
strategy concepts. Strategies are broad statements that set a direction.
Strategies are a specific, measurable, obtainable set of plans carefully developed
with involvement by an institution's stakeholders. These action statements are
linked to an individual or individuals who are accountable and empowered to
achieve the stated result in a specific desired timeframe. They are patterns of
action, decisions, and policies that guide a group toward a vision or goals.
Strategic human resource management is designed to help companies best
meet the needs of their employees while promoting company goals. Human
resource management deals with any aspects of a business that affects
employees, such as hiring and firing, pay, benefits, training, and administration.
Human resources may also provide work incentives, safety procedure
information, and sick or vacation days.
Strategic human resource management is the proactive management of people.
It requires thinking ahead, and planning ways for a company to better meet the
needs of its employees, and for the employees to better meet the needs of the
company. This can affect the way things are done at a business site, improving
everything from hiring practices and employee training programs to assessment
techniques and discipline.
In Human Resource (HR) and management circles nowadays there is much talk
about Strategic Human Resource Management and many expensive books can
be seen on the shelves of bookshops. But what exactly is SHRM (Strategic
Human Resource Development), what are its key features and how does it differ
from traditional human resource management?
SHRM or Strategic human resource management is a branch of Human resource
management or HRM. It is a fairly new field, which has emerged out of the parent
discipline of human resource management. Much of the early or so called
traditional HRM literature treated the notion of strategy superficially, rather as a
purely operational matter, the results of which cascade down throughout the
organization. There was a kind of unsaid division of territory between peoplecentered values of HR and harder business values where corporate strategies
really belonged. HR practitioners felt uncomfortable in the war cabinet like
atmosphere where corporate strategies were formulated.
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Definition of SHRM
Strategic human resource management can be defined as the linking of human
resources with strategic goals and objectives in order to improve business
performance and develop organizational culture that foster innovation, flexibility
and competitive advantage. In an organization SHRM means accepting and
involving the HR function as a strategic partner in the formulation and
implementation of the company's strategies through HR activities such as
recruiting, selecting, training and rewarding personnel.
How SHRM differs from HRM
In the last two decades there has been an increasing awareness that HR
functions were like an island unto itself with softer people-centered values far
away from the hard world of real business. In order to justify its own existence
HR functions had to be seen as more intimately connected with the strategy and
day to day running of the business side of the enterprise. Many writers in the late
1980s, started clamoring for a more strategic approach to the management of
people than the standard practices of traditional management of people or
industrial relations models. Strategic human resource management focuses on
human resource programs with long-term objectives. Instead of focusing on
internal human resource issues, the focus is on addressing and solving problems
that affect people management programs in the long run and often globally.
Therefore, the primary goal of strategic human resources is to increase
employee productivity by focusing on business obstacles that occur outside of
human resources. The primary actions of a strategic human resource manager
are to identify key HR areas where strategies can be implemented in the long run
to improve the overall employee motivation and productivity. Communication
between HR and top management of the company is vital as without active
participation no cooperation is possible.
Features of Strategic Human Resource Management
The key features of SHRM are
There is an explicit linkage between HR policy and practices and overall
organizational strategic aims and the organizational environment
There is some organizing schema linking individual HR interventions so that they
are mutually supportive
Much of the responsibility for the management of human resources is devolved
down the line
Approaches of the Therefore, to link Human Resource activities with
competency-based performance measures attempts to link Human Resource
activities with business surpluses or profit
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The first one is the human factor; their performance and competency and the
latter is the business surplus. An approach of people concern is based on the
belief that human resources are uniquely important in sustained business
success. An organization gains competitive advantage by using its people
effectively, drawing on their expertise and ingenuity to meet clearly defined
objectives. Integration of the business surplus to the human competency and
performance required adequate strategies. Here the role of strategy comes into
picture. The way in which people are managed, motivated and deployed, and the
availability of skills and knowledge will all shape the business strategy. The
strategic orientation of the business then requires the effective orientation of
human resource to competency and performance excellence.
Benefits of SHRM
Identifying and analyzing external opportunities and threats that may be crucial to
the company's success.
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Provides a clear business strategy and vision for the future.
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To supply competitive intelligence that may be useful in the strategic
planning process.
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To recruit, retain and motivate people.
x
To develop and retain of highly competent people.
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To ensure that people development issues are addressed systematically.
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To supply information regarding the company's internal strengths and
weaknesses.
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To meet the expectations of the customers effectively.
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To ensure high productivity.
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To ensure business surplus thorough competency
Barriers of SHRM
Barriers to successful SHRM implementation are complex. The main reason is a
lack of growth strategy or failure to implement one. Other major barriers are
summarized as follows:
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Inducing the vision and mission of the change effort.
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High resistance due to lack of cooperation from the bottom line.
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Interdepartmental conflict.
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The commitment of the entire senior management team.
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Plans that integrate internal resource with external requirements.
x
Limited time, money and the resources.
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The status quo approach of employees.
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Fear of incompetency of senior level managers to take up strategic steps.
x
Diverse work-force with competitive skill sets.
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Fear towards victimization in the wake of failures.
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Improper strategic assignments and leadership conflict over authority.
x
Ramifications for power relations.
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Vulnerability to legislative changes.
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Resistance that comes through the legitimate labour institutions.
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Presence of an active labour union.
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Rapid structural changes.
x
Economic and market pressures influenced the adoption of strategic
HRM.
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More diverse, outward looking approach.
Financial & Economic environment – context matters
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The current economic environment and situation set the conditions for
firms
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Examples to consider: World War II, Sept 11th 2001 or “Black Monday”
2007 stock market crash
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Human Resources, its practices, policies and overall strategy is affected
by the state of the economy. When the economy is strong, there are
generally more jobs, higher wages and better benefits. Conversely, when
the economy is weak, there is scarcity.
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Many variables, contributing factors and multitude of causes not fully
transparent or obvious / fully understood created a downturn that gained
speed and changed the economy and corporate cultures
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Other examples of less noticeable economic turbulence are firms that
buy/sell commodities in the North / South America and they therefore
have to watch the currency exchange levels and rates (FX)
Demographic Considerations
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Some employee factors to consider when performing HR duties, designing
policy, restructuring organizations:
fl Median or average age
fl Gender split
fl National / ethnic representation
fl Religious affiliations
fl Citizenship / New Comer / Work Visa
fl Language (English / French / Cantonese)
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Employment balance - e.g. Quebec more Franco-phones so they have to
hire more French speaking
Diversity: challenges to balancing this with meritocracy
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Information Technology & Automation
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Workflow systems, databases, robotic process automation, data lakes,
Hadoop systems and Artificial Intelligence are all effects to HR data,
reporting and records management
Internet tech is expanding access to new tools such as personality
evaluations, bio monitoring wearable technology, capability and skills
testing and predictive analytics
HRMS is trending towards a more self-service model (e.g., employees can
change benefits, book vacation, submit expense reports, use flex benefit $
and complete self-assessments all online with no/little direction or
supervision from management
Effects on Overall Society
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Size of the firm, nature of the industry (e.g., accounting vs. farming),
national political climate, age demographics of workers etc.
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Executives and C-Suite leaders in their companies are more involved with
philanthropy, climate change, education and morale issues - This gives
them a Public Relations, Social Media, political, Brand and competitive
advantage
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Local customs, culture and legal frameworks can affect multinational firms
(e.g., religious holidays, clothing etc.)
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Firms must take these factors into account when formulating operating
models and policies. Failure to do so could result is negative employee
experiences and unfavorable media exposure.
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More factors that affect HR and its policies / strategies: Tax rates,
demographics, employee wellness, tariffs, crime rates, need for childcare
Political, National and Legal Environment
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Local laws, political orientation, statutes, Common Law and Jurisdictional
frameworks will have an effect on HR policies and strategies.
The degree of corruption, violence and levels of legal enforcement will
also play roles in shaping HR
How Strategy should be Implemented
In the past, human resource management (HRM) was called the personnel
department. In the past, the personnel department hired people and dealt with
the hiring paperwork and processes.
It is believed the first human resource department was created in 1901 by the
National Cash Register Company (NCR).
They faced a major strike but eventually defeated the union after a lockout. After
this difficult battle, the company president decided to improve worker relations by
organizing a personnel department to handle grievances, discharges, safety
concerns, and other employee issues. The department also kept track of new
legislation surrounding laws impacting the organization. Many other companies
were coming to the same realization that a department was necessary to create
employee satisfaction, which resulted in more productivity. In 1913, Henry Ford
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saw employee turnover at 380 percent and tried to ease the turnover by
increasing wages from $2.50 to $5.00, even though $2.50 was fair during this
time period. Of course, this approach didn’t work for long, and these large
companies began to understand they had to do more than hire and fire if they
were going to meet customer demand.
An overview of the t difference between HR, HCM and HRM
Human Resources (HR): Defined as Human Resources – the function or
department that performs all HR tasks
Human Resources Management (HRM): Defined as the management or
leadership aspects of HR. This means the policy design, goal setting and
strategy crafting
The following duties fall under HRM
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Retention
Training and development
Regulatory issues
Staffing
Basic workplace policies
Compensation and benefits
Human Capital Management is a methodology and framework to employee
placement that perceives people as valuable assets whose value can be
measured and whose future value can be enhanced through betterment and
further development. As an organization grows, it injects capital back into its
companies. Typically, when someone thinks about capital, they think of monies
being put into equipment, buildings, research, and development. However, many
organizations now invest in their human capital and work on strategies to
reinforce this asset.
Ways that organizations invest in their human capital:
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Learning & Training
Salary increases
Health programs
Reimbursement for learning and accreditation expenses
Strategic planning: long term plan or map of an organization assisting it to
become adaptable and competitive
Corporate strategic planning: the act and build of a corporate strategy
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external assessment of opportunities/treats & an internal assessment of
strengths and weaknesses
process not driven by formula but rather an evaluation designed to
determine the relative importance of assumptions that management has
made about the industry and the organization
Strategic Human Resources – This is the coordinated and purposeful synergy of
policies, processes and overall direction to improve a firm’s success
To accomplish this, an HR Department should consider the following functions /
mandates:
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Use HR as a business resource
Consider short, medium and long horizon goals
Thought leader / strategist
Governance Principles in HR
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Systems of control, process, decision rights, change and release
management in order to regulate quality and timing of outcomes
Goals: purpose toward the endeavor is directed
Values: traits or qualities,
vision: goals and aspirations, they are often timeless
mission: define the company's purpose and primary objectives
Objectives: something that one’s actions are intended to attain or
accomplish
each organization requires some form of governance
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flow of governance: owner/stakeholder- board of governors- chief
executive officer- executive managers-managers-workers
each level is supposed to inherit the values and direction from the level
immediately above
tools to define the parameters include:
Use SMART system for goals:
Ideally speaking, each corporate, department, and section objective should be:
S.M.A.R.T
Specific – target a specific area for improvement.
Measurable – quantify or at least suggest an indicator of progress.
Assignable – specify who will do it.
Realistic – state what results can realistically be achieved, given available
resources.
Time-related – specify when the result(s) can be achieved.
Legislative Growth and Greater Due Diligence
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Increase in importance for appropriate governance structures to support
organizations
Governance from the wall street fall examples
How Firms are affected by Governance and Controls
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Strategies must be executed and enabled in order to produce business
value
HR as the expert in human performance, adds value to the organization
Management by Planning – Budgets Matter
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The following are steps that firms typically draft, build, edit, revisit and
iterate:
1) Draft a strategic plan
2) Declare execution and tactical work tasks
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3) Key Performance indicators
4) Allocate funds
5) Measure results
6) Iterate as required
7) Tweak strategy to react to market & performance
Allocations, Budgets, Performance : Cause & Effect Chain
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Success of strategy is typically measured financially
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4 problems with this:
1) Allocation plans are just guessing; they may be educated but
often times you don’t have control of the forecasting of the budget
2) Many organizations budget by estimating- a lot of times there
might be receipts that are collected late, there might be things
promised not yet delivered
3) Several goals or measures may not be measurable or financial
e.g., Quality of service
4) Many brand, corporate citizenship and community outreach
programs may not be intended to increase performance in a
financial way
The Rights of Management – An Overview
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Compromise of core rights (determine organization's
mission/budget/strategy) & operational rights (assign/hire/fire)
Property rights- owner had rights as to how property is used, represents
owners
Management has residual or reserved rights whereby it controls its
business except in cases where there are limitations
These limitations can be due to government or it can be in a case where
there is a union where there is a collective agreement- management limits
some of its rights in exchange for concession of workers apart of the union
Base rule is that if a contract or agreement does not mention an item, then
the default is that Management rights apply
Extends to property right- management can do what they want with
property
Governance – What is the Role of Human Resources?
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Primary role is to provide a framework for management on how to manage
human resources
Establishing the framework of policies, and procedures that workers
should follow
Also have to monitor, investigate and pass judgment on how workers
behave
HR department is basically the organizational police
Responsibility to create and oversee the roles and responsibilities as
defined by job and position descriptions related to organizations wellbeing
within the legal structures in which it operates
The HR management framework
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Role of Human Resource is to set, develop and drive the framework within
which managers fulfill managerial duties
HR does not have any direct responsibility to any staff other than those in
HR
Workers report to their function’s managers and not HR
Primary role is not managing people but setting up the framework within
which others manage
HR supports the board, CEO, their own teams,
Execution and Path Forward on HR Strategy
Making your HR Plan…
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Contains capacity, plans, skills/capabilities required for the firm to achieve
its goals
HRP has the following benefits:
o Assist in project management
o Will help the firm succeed in its goals
Strategic plans answer: what business is the organization in? HRP
answers: what skills are needed for success within this organization
Work best when: these two have a:
o reciprocal & interdependent relationship
What is the Difference Between Skills and Competencies?
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Skills: learned though patterns, mental or physical activities (e.g., motor
skills) that can be measured with key performance indicators (KPIs) e.g.,
running, juggling, work output (in measurable units)
fl
Competencies: More general categories of mixes of hard skills and
cognitive abilities. These can be data analytics, creative writing, structured
problem solving, writing a business case etc.
fl
Competencies are the things people have to be, know and do to achieve
the outputs required in their job
Why are competencies important?
1) Provide a definition of what employees need to be to produce the results
an organization desires, that are consistent with the company’s corporate
strategy
x Explain not just how to do a job but why
x Rely on both tacit knowledge: knowledge that is difficult to be
transferred to another person b means of writing down or
verbalizing it- difficult to measure and comes with experience
x explicit knowledge: knowledge that has been articulated, codified
and stored in a certain media, easily transmitted to others –
encyclopedia
2) When properly defined, competencies and results can be measured
3) Competencies can be learned
4) Organizational and individual competencies can be aligned to produce
competitive advantage
5) Individual and departmental core competencies can be aligned within an
organization
Different aspects of linking HR to strategy:
1) Vertical linkage:
Policies :
performance :
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team
company performance
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2) Horizontal linkage:
HR processes/initiatives :
culture :
create cohesive environment &
impacts employees at all levels
3) Temporal linkage:
Maintain long term strategic perspective, focus on broader
issues regarding the direction of the organization
Organization’s core offerings and competencies are working towards and
map to future strategy
Goal Setting and Links to Strategy
Long Term goals:
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Work backwards. Think about what the firm wants to achieve then plan steps
going back to what should be done now.
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Create a model of where you want to achieve in 10 years from now.
Think about what you need to do in five years, in one year, and in six
months to get to your long-term goal.
Capture what you need to do each month to achieve your goals.
After each monthly goal is achieved, look at your goals and adjust them as
needed
1) Transform the skills and goals of the staff to prepare for the longer-term
horizons
2) Develop leadership team that is capable of delivering the strategy
3) Create an organizational structure and value set that will underpin long
term success
Short Term goals:
1) Make clear links between goals and the big picture of the business
strategy. Make the work meaningful and value add
2) Employee reward and recognition is important to incent good performance
3) Provide training and learning opportunities. Upskilling will pay dividends
4) Track goal performance using metrics, dashboards or scorecards
(remember SMART goals)
Business Savvy & Acumen
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Our goal is to create an environment and capabilities set in which the HR
professional integrate and work well with the functions of business.
The aim is not to train HR in IT, Finance, Tax, Project Management or
Law
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Know Your Business, Niche or Market
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HR needs to become fluent in the lexicon, acronyms and approaches of
business
The Knowledge You Need
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HR impacts all departments in an organization
Therefore, to understand how they impact the departments HR needs to
develop strong sense of how the company operates and increasing their
business knowledge
Need to be aware of issues that affect their organizations- knowledge
about customers, competitors, suppliers, internal processes, infrastructure
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Professional Practice
Code of Ethics - Seven Guideline Principles to steer behaviour:
Duties vs Rules:
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Rules are a set of direct, to the point regulations governing behaviour and
are applied to all members of HRPA where they are responsible for and
organization’s HRPA where they are responsible for an organization's
HRM policies where they act as a consultant
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Duties refer to an HR professional’s obligations to their employer, clients,
employees, other professions and to the public
Risk Management Tasks
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Evidence Based Approach:
External Trends:
Regulatory Powers: Statutory & regulatory powers delegated to HRPA by the
government of Ontario
Fees
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Duties of Manager / Supervisor
Inspections: HRPA may conduct inspections respecting the practices of
members of the Association and companies in accordance with the by-laws.
2013, c. 6, s. 43.
Discipline Committee: discipline committee shall find a member or firm guilty of
professional misconduct in the committee’s opinion the member or firm is guilty
of professional misconduct as defined in the by-law. 2013-, c. 6, s. 34
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Organizational Effectiveness
Porter’s 5 Forces – Strategic Tool
Competitive Rivalry.
This looks at the number and strength of your competitors. Where rivalry is
intense, companies can attract customers with aggressive price cuts and highimpact marketing campaigns. Also, in markets with lots of rivals, your suppliers
and buyers can go elsewhere if they feel that they're not getting a good deal from
you.
Supplier Power
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This is determined by how easy it is for your suppliers to increase their prices.
Buyer Power
Here, you ask yourself how easy it is for buyers to drive your prices down. How
many buyers are there, and how big are their orders?
Threat of Substitution
This refers to the likelihood of your customers finding a different way of doing
what you do.
Threat of New Entry
Your position can be affected by people's ability to enter your market.
SWOT – Strategic Tool
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Strategic tool used to see the internal and external environment of an
organization
Strengths, weaknesses (internal) opportunities, threats (external)
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Externally, hr needs to understand the industry in which its in, their
competitors, new and developing trends in the industry, macro conditions
such as economy that affect organization
Strengths
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What do you do well?
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What do you do better than others?
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What unique strengths and talents do you have?
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What do others see as your strengths?
Weaknesses
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What could you improve?
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What do you avoid?
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Where do you have fewer resources than others?
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What are others likely to see as weaknesses?
Opportunities
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What opportunities are open to you?
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What trends could you take advantage of?
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How can you turn your strengths into opportunities?
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What is going on locally that you could capitalize on?
Threats
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What threats could harm you?
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What is your competition doing?
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What threats do your weaknesses expose you to?
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What obstacles do you have coming up?
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PEST analysis – Strategic Tool
The PEST Analysis is an external analysis in which “P” represents Politics, ‘E’ for
Economic, ‘S’ for social and ‘T’ for Technology. The PEST Analysis describes a
framework of macro environmental factors that are important for strategic
management. It is a useful strategic tool for understanding market growth or
decline, business position, opportunities and direction for the possibly required
actions.
Project Management Frameworks
Project Defined: A project has these characteristics:
•
It is a temporary piece of work with a beginning and an end
•
It creates a new or unique product, service, or outcome
Operations Business as Usual (BAU) vs Projects
Most work can be described as either “operations” or “project”. Operational work
is regular work to support the business, whereas project work ends when the
project is completed and delivered.
Project Management
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The PMBOK 6 Guide breaks project management into knowledge areas and
process groups.
The project management process groups are as follows:
Initiating,
Planning,
Executing,
Monitoring and controlling,
Closing.
The knowledge areas are:
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Integration,
Scope,
Schedule,
Cost,
Quality,
Resource,
Communications,
Risk,
Procurement,
Stakeholder management
Integration Management
Integration management is the key and primary job of a project manager. You
must understand integration from a real-world, large-project perspective.
Integration Management Overview
Performing Integration Management in a project is to keep the complete
interconnected project as one unified set of activities.
Scope Management
Scope management is the process of defining what work is required and then
making sure all of that work-and only that work-is completed. This is generally an
easy topic, but we all have gaps in our knowledge, even regarding things like
scope management that we deal with daily.
Schedule Management
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One of the key responsibilities of a project manager is ensuring that the needed
end date for a project can be met and to create options to make it happen all
before project executing starts.
To answer schedule management questions correctly, you should thoroughly
understand the process of scheduling a project. Although most project managers
use some type of software to assist with scheduling, the exam has often required
test takers to manually draw network diagrams to answer questions about
network diagrams and scheduling.
Cost Management
The following section should help you understand how each part of cost
management fits into the overall project management process
Project Cost Management involves planning, budgeting, and managing costs.
Cost management does not happen in isolation – the project manager needs
input from the project team and key stakeholders. Cost management should
occur early in project planning in order to establish a framework for all cost
management processes and ensure that the project does not go over budget.
Quality Management
Before we start discussing these three processes in detail, let's look at some
basic quality management concepts that you should understand for the exam.
Definition of Quality
What is quality? Quality is defined as the degree to which the project fulfills
requirements.
Resource Management
Human Resource (HR) Management involves all the activities planning, acquiring
and managing people. HR is a soft skill that relies on the project manager’s EQ
rather than IQ. However, it is hard to test for EQ on a standardized test.
Communication Management
Plan communications consider the performing organizations environment (i.e.,
Enterprise Environmental Factors), including its culture and expectations. The
performing organizations processes, procedures, historical records, lessons
learned and other information (i.e., organizational process assets) should also be
taken into consideration
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Risk Management
Risk Management is about anticipating risks and having a plan in place that will
resolve it when it occurs. Risk management saves time, money and efforts. It
reduces unnecessary stress on the project team. Risk management helps
prevent many problems and helps make other problems less likely.
Procurement Management
Procurement is the formal processes many organizations follow obtain goods
and services. Project Procurement Management is the process of selecting,
monitoring and closing vendor contracts.
Stakeholder Management
Stakeholders are individuals who get impacted by the project. A Stakeholder can
be supporter and a resistor.
Project Stakeholder Management involves identification of stakeholders, analysis
of their expectations and influences, development of appropriate strategies to
work with the stakeholders and executing the process. Frequent communication
is required with the stakeholders. Needs and expectations of the stakeholders to
be understood. Managing conflicting interest and involving stakeholders in key
project decisions and activities is also crucial. All of this forms a part of
stakeholder management process. Project manager is expected to possess the
ability to identify the needs and influences of the stakeholders to manage them
effectively.
General Finance & Accounting
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At a high level, the following basic concepts should be understood by HR
practitioners:
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Basic accounting (net present value, costing, internal rate of return,
payback periods etc.)
Budgeting process and cadence
Key capital investments & movements
Costing for HR initiatives (project management)
End to End process & value stream views
In terms of within HR groups:
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Business revenue sources
Functional and cost center view of HR processes (activities-based
costing)
HR Metrics – (attrition, compensation statistics, cost of recruiting, benefits
calcs etc.).
Employee performance management systems & process
Examples of Human Capital Metrics 2
1. Time to hire (time in days)
An important metric for recruitment is the ‘time to hire’. This is the number of
days between a position opening up and a candidate signing the job contract. It’s
an excellent way to measure the efficiency of the recruitment process and
provides insight into the difficulty of filling a certain job position.
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There’s also the time to fill metric. This metric takes the same starting point but
takes the date the candidate starts working as the end point.
2. Cost per hire (total cost of hiring/the number of new hires)
Like the time to hire, the ‘cost per hire’ metric shows how much it costs the
company to hire new employees. This also serves as an indicator of the
efficiency of the recruitment process.
3. Early turnover (percentage of recruits leaving in the first year)
This is arguably the most important metric to determine hiring success in a
company.
This early leaver metric indicates whether there is a mismatch between the
person and the company or between the person and his/her position. Early
turnover is also very expensive. It usually takes 6 to 12 months before
employees have fully learned the ropes and reach their ‘Optimum Productivity
Level’.
4. Time since last promotion (avg time in months since last internal promotion)
This rather straightforward metric is useful in explaining why your high potentials
leave.
HR metrics examples related to revenue
5. Revenue per employee (revenue/total number of employees)
This metric shows the efficiency of the organization as a whole. The ‘revenue per
employee’ metric is an indicator of the quality of hired employees. Check this
Business Insider article to view how the top 12 tech companies in the world score
on this metric.
6. Performance and potential (the 9-box grid)
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The 9-box grid appears when measuring and mapping both an individual’s
performance and potential in three levels. This model shows which employees
are underperformers, valued specialists, emerging potentials or top talents. This
metrics is great for differentiating between, for example, wanted and unwanted
turnover.
In another article, we wrote about the qualitative and quantitative ways to
measure employee performance. Metrics include Net Promoter Score,
management by objectives, number of errors, 360-degree feedback, forced
ranking, etc.
7. Billable hours per employee
This is the most concrete example of a performance measure, and it is especially
relevant in professional service firms (e.g., law and consultancy firms). Relating
this kind of performance to employee engagement or other input metrics makes
for an interesting analysis. Benchmarking this metrics between different
departments and managers/partners can also provide valuable insights.
8. Engagement rating
An engaged workforce is a productive workforce. Engagement might be the most
important ‘soft’ HR outcome. People who like their job and who are proud of their
company are generally more engaged, even if the work environment is stressful
and pressure is high. Engaged employees perform better and are more likely to
perceive stress as an exciting challenge, not as a burden. Additionally, team
engagement is an important metric for a team manager’s success.
9. Cost of HR per employee (e.g., $ 600)
This metric shows the cost efficiency of HR expressed in dollars.
10. Ratio of HR professionals to employees (e.g., 1:60)
Another measure that shows HR’s cost efficiency. An organization with fully
developed analytical capabilities should be able to have a smaller number of HR
professionals do more.
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11. Ratio of HR business partners per employee (e.g., 1:80)
A similar metric to the previous one. Again, a set of highly developed analytics
capabilities will enable HR to measure and predict the impact of HR policies. This
will enable HR to be more efficient and reduce the number of business partners.
12. Turnover (number of leavers/total population in the organization)
This metric shows how many workers leave the company in a given year. When
combined with, for instance, a performance metric, the ‘turnover’ metric can track
the difference in attrition in high and low performers. Preferably you would like to
see low performers leave and high performers stay. This metric also provides HR
business partners with a great amount of information about the departments and
functions in which employees feel at home, and where in the organization they
do not want to work. Additionally, attrition could be a key metric in measuring a
manager’s success.
13. Effectiveness of HR software
This is a more complex metric. Effectiveness of, for instance, learning and
development software are measured in the number of active users, average time
on the platform, session length, total time on platform per user per month, screen
flow, and software retention. These metrics enable HR to determine what works
for the employees and what does not.
14. Absenteeism (absence percentage)
Like turnover, absenteeism is also a strong indicator of dissatisfaction and a
predictor of turnover. This metric can give information to prevent this kind of
leave, as long-term absence can be very costly. Again, differences between
individual managers and departments are very interesting indicators of (potential)
problems and bottlenecks.
Globalization
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Growth in flows of trade and financial capital across borders
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Affects jobs, wages, prosperity, social legislation
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HR will have to develop international competencies
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Corporate International Business Strategies
Domestic Strategy: Internationalizing by exporting goods abroad as a means of
seeking new markets. Do not alter the products for foreign markets.
Multi-domestic Strategy: Concentrates on the development of foreign markets by
selling to foreign nationals. HRM consistent with local economic, political and
legal systems and local person hired to manage.
Multinational Strategy: Standardizing the products and services around the world
to gain efficiency. No adaptation to local environment
Global Strategy: Introducing culturally sensitive products in chosen countries with
the least amount of cost. Combining home HR practices with local practices and
selecting most qualified people for positions no matter where they come from.
Recruitment Options: In the domestic context, one of the key strategic decisions
in recruitment is the internal recruitment versus external recruitment. This twooption decision has a four-option parallel in the international domain and includes
recruitment opportunities such as:
Host Country Nationals (HCNs): Individuals from the subsidiary country who
know the foreign cultural environment well.
Parent Country Nationals (PCNs): Individuals from headquarters who are highly
familiar with the firm’s products and services, as well as with its corporate culture
Third Country Nationals (TCNs): Individuals from a third country who have
intensive international experience and who know the corporate culture from
previous working experience with corporate branches in the third country
Expatriate or home country nationals: Any individual who gives up residence in
his/her home country to take up residence in a foreign country either temporarily
or permanently
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Change Management
John Kotter's 8-Step Process for Leading Change 3
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Create a Sense of Urgency
Build a Guiding Coalition
Form a Strategic Vision and Initiatives
Enlist a Volunteer Army
Enable Action by Removing Barriers
Generate Short-Term Wins
Sustain Acceleration
Institute Change
The Deming Cycle - Plan, Do, Check & Act 4
Plan
The planning phase involves assessing a current process, or a new process, and
figuring out how it can be improved upon. Knowing what types of outputs are
desired helps to develop a plan to fix the process. It is often easier to plan
smaller changes during this phase of the plan so that they can be easily
monitored and the outputs are more predictable.
Do
The do phase allows the plan from the previous step to be enacted. Small
changes are usually tested, and data is gathered to see how effective the change
is.
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Check
During the check phase, the data and results gathered from the do phase are
evaluated. Data is compared to the expected outcomes to see any similarities
and differences. The testing process is also evaluated to see if there were any
changes from the original test created during the planning phase. If the data is
placed in a chart it can make it easier to see any trends if the PDCA cycle is
conducted multiple times. This helps to see what changes work better than
others, and if said changes can be improved as well.
Example: Gap analysis, or Appraisals
Act
If the check phase shows that the plan phase which was implemented in do
phase is an improvement to the prior standard (baseline), then that becomes the
new standard (baseline) for how the organization should act going forward (new
standards are thus said to be enacted). Instead, if the check phase shows that
the plan phase which was implemented in do phase is not an improvement, then
the existing standard (baseline) will remain in place. In either case, if the check
phase showed something different than expected (whether better or worse), then
there is some more learning to be done... and that will suggest potential future
PDCA cycles. Note that some who teach PDCA assert that the act phase
involves making adjustments or corrective actions, but generally it would be
counter to PDCA thinking to propose and decide upon alternative changes
without using a proper plan phase, or to make them the new standard (baseline)
without going through do and check steps.
Determine Competitive Advantage
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Implement and Evaluate the Firm’s Strategy
Job Analysis Methods 5
Job analysis information can be gathered in a variety of ways. One consideration
is who is to conduct the job analysis. Most frequently, a member of the HR staff
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coordinates this effort. Depending on which of the methods discussed next is
used, others who often participate are managers, supervisors, and employees
doing the jobs. For more complex analyses, industrial engineers may conduct
time and motion studies.
Another consideration is the method to be used. Common methods are
observations, interviews, questionnaires, and specialized methods of analysis.
Combinations of these approaches frequently are used, depending on the
situation and the organization. Each of these methods is discussed in some
detail next.
Observation
When the observation method is used, a manager, job analyst, or industrial
engineer observes the individual performing the job and takes notes to describe
the tasks and duties performed. Observation may be continuous or based on
intermittent sampling.
Use of the observation method is limited because many jobs do not have
complete and easily observed job duties or complete job cycles. Thus,
observation may be more useful for repetitive jobs and in conjunction with other
methods. Managers or job analysts using other methods may watch parts of a
job being performed to gain a general familiarity with the job and the conditions
under which it is performed. Multiple observations on several occasions also will
help them use some of the other job analysis methods more effectively.
Work Sampling
As a type of observation, work sampling does not require attention to each
detailed action throughout an entire work cycle. Instead, a manager can
determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical sampling
of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all
actions. Work sampling is particularly useful for routine and repetitive jobs.
Employee Log
Another method requires that employees “observe” their own performances by
keeping a diary/log of their job duties, noting how frequently they are performed
and the time required for each duty. Although this approach sometimes
generates useful information, it may be burdensome for employees to compile an
accurate log. Also, employees sometimes perceive this approach as creating
needless documentation that detracts from the performance of their work.
Interviewing
The interview method of gathering information requires that a manager or HR
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specialist visit each job site and talk with the employees performing each job. A
standardized interview form is used most often to record the information.
Frequently, both the employee and the employee’s supervisor must be
interviewed to obtain a complete understanding of the job.
Some typical interview questions include:
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What is the job being performed?
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What are the major duties of your job position? What exactly do you do?
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What physical locations do you work in?
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What is the education, experience, skill, and [where applicable]
certification and
licensing requirements?
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In what activities do you participate?
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What are the job’s responsibilities and duties?
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What are the basic accountabilities or performance standards that typify
your work?
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What are your responsibilities? What are the environmental and working
conditions
Involved?
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What are the job’s physical demands? The emotional and mental
demands?
What are the health and safety conditions?
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Are you exposed to any hazards or unusual working conditions?
The interview method can be quite time consuming, especially if the interviewer
talks with two or three employees doing each job. Professional and managerial
jobs often are more complicated to analyze and usually require longer interviews.
For these reasons, combining the interview with one of the other methods is
suggested.
Questionnaires
The questionnaire is a widely used method of gathering data on jobs. A survey
instrument is developed and given to employees and managers to complete. The
typical job questionnaire often covers the areas shown below. The major
advantage of the questionnaire method is that information on a large number of
jobs can be collected inexpensively in a relatively short period of time. However,
the questionnaire method assumes that employees can accurately analyze and
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communicate information about their jobs. Employees may vary in their
perceptions of the jobs, and even in their literacy. For these reasons, the
questionnaire method is usually combined with interviews and observations to
clarify and verify the questionnaire information.
One type of questionnaire sometimes used is a checklist. Differing from the
open-ended questionnaire, the checklist offers a simplified way for employees to
give information. An obvious difficulty with the checklist is constructing it, which
can be a complicated and detailed process.
Job Analysis Questionnaire
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Duties and percentage of time spent on each
Work coordination and supervisory responsibilities
Physical activities and characteristics
Decisions made and discretion exercised
Records and reports prepared
Training needed
Materials and equipment used
Financial/budgeting input
External and internal contacts
Knowledge, skills, and abilities used
Working conditions
Special duties performed less frequently
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Workforce Planning & Talent Management
Terminology
Staffing Strategy & Goals
Retention Strategies6
Each employer should keep his workforce satisfied with no room for
disgruntlement. There should be a bunch of other competitive facilities, including
better pay and benefits like bonuses etc.
Employers should also create a warm atmosphere and friendly culture at the
workplace so that each employee feels:
Recognized for his performance
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Appreciated for his quality of work
Rewarded for his share of responsibility
Introduction
Genius begins and labor finishes
Polarization of human resources into two
Species
-loyal
-rolling stones
Four major concerns about retaining employees
x
WHY we should Retain Employees
x
WHAT all we should do to retain employees
x
HOW we should retain employees
The same word can be also read as:
RE - TENSION RE – Tension of Recruiting the right manpower
RE – Tension of Training and Development
RE – Tension of Adaptability Why people leave their job
Job content
Level of responsibility
Company culture
Caliber of colleagues
Salary
Low growth potential
Lack of challenge
Lack of autonomy
Not enough money
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Work environment issues. Why should we retain employees?
Financial Loss.
Dissonance in Customer and Employee Satisfaction.
Reduced Productivity and Quality of Product.
Loser to Competition Why retention in workplace
It takes 5 times more costs in bringing upon new employee to the same level of
production that of an experienced employee.
The graph of success is directly related to retention graph
How to retain employees
A satisfied employee knows clearly what is expected from him.
The quality of supervision an employee receives is critical to employee retention.
The ability of the employee to speak his or her mind freely within the
organization is another key factor in employee retention.
Talent and skill utilization are another environmental factor your key employees
seek in your workplace
The perception of fairness and equitable treatment is important in employee
retention
The easiest to solve and the ones most affecting employee retention are tools
time and training.
Employees one wants to retain seek frequent opportunities to learn and grow in
their careers, knowledge and skill.
Employees should never feel that senior managers did not know he existed.
No matter the circumstances, never, never, ever threaten an employee’s job or
income
Staff members must feel rewarded, recognized and appreciated.
Top management team needs to identify the causes behind the exodus and
understand them.
The employees should be constantly motivated by giving them incentives for
improvement and excellence in future performances.
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A sense of ownership can also be infused through schemes like “Employee
Stock option Plan” (ESOP)
Estimate the Aspirations and Value and Balance with The Worth of the
Employee.
In the words of John Ruskin
“In order that people may be happy in
their work, three things are needed
They must be fit for it
They must not do too much of it
They must have a sense of success in it”
Workforce Analytics Goals
Workforce Plan Development
Examine the Labour Environment
What is happening in the external environment and how it will affect the
organization?
HR must have a good understanding of the company’s past, present and future
business environment
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By understanding the business environment HR can better understand how to
influence the point where the organization meets the environment and where the
strategy meets the market space
Economic factors- competitive trends, regional conditions, state of economy
Technological Changes- innovations that influence production, delivery and
customer behaviour
Political or legislative issues
Social and cultural concerns
Good to partner with other departments who also collect information
Good to use variety of sources
Environments Analytics Factors
Demographic trends
Labour market statistics and trends
Labour & Wage Markets Analysis
Must determine the makeup of the current or future labour market
Can find information with government statistics, sector councils, and professional
associations
Demographics, political enviro, customer focus, competition, globalization,
economics and technology are the top indicators influencing HR work
Study and analyze the following:
Wages and salaries
Benefits
Flex arrangements (e.g., work from home)
Labour force projections
Industry and market layoffs
Employment rates
Average age of the labour force within industry
Level of skill and education of labour force
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Internal Factors to Consider
Assess resources and capabilities
Need to know how all the subsystems interact so they can create alignment
rebalancing as the market shifts
Looks at economic condition, availability of resources, overall strategy etc.
Workforce Planning
Forecasting demand- what does it involve?
Forecasting Basics 7
Human Resource Planning
Human Resource Planning
Objective and Benefits of HRP
Human Resource Planning at Different Levels
HRP Process
HR Demand Forecasting
HR Supply Forecasting
Succession Analysis
Markov Analysis
Forecasting human resource demand is the process of estimating the future
human resource requirement of right quality and right number. As discussed
earlier, potential human resource requirement is to be estimated keeping in view
the organization's plans over a given period of time. Analysis of employment
trends; replacement needs of employees due to death, resignations, retirement
termination; productivity of employees; growth and expansion of organization;
absenteeism and labour turnover are the relevant factors for human resourced
forecasting. Demand forecasting is affected by a number of external and internal
factors.
Job analysis and forecasting about the quality of potential human resource
facilitates demand forecasting. So, existing job design must be thoroughly
evaluated taking into consideration the future capabilities of the present
employees.
Factors Affecting HR Demand Forecasting
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Human Resource Demand Forecasting depends on several factors, some of
which are given below.
Employment trends;
Replacement needs;
Productivity;
Absenteeism; and
Expansion and growth.
There are number of techniques of estimating/forecasting human resources
demand:
(a) Managerial Judgement
(b) Work Study Technique
(c) Ratio-trend Analysis (d) Econometric Models
(e) Delphi Model
(f) Other Techniques
(a) Managerial Judgement: Managerial judgement technique is very common
technique of demand forecasting. This approach is applied by small as well as
large scale organizations. This technique involves two types of approaches i.e.,
'bottom-up approach' and 'top-down approach'. Under the 'bottom-up approach',
line mangers send their departmental requirement of human resources to top
management. Top management ultimately forecasts the human resource
requirement for the overall organization on the basis of proposals of
departmental heads. Under the Top-down approach', top management forecasts
the human resource requirement for the entire organization and various
departments. This information is supplied to various departmental heads for their
review and approval. However, a combination of both the approaches i.e.,
'Participative Approach' should be applied for demand forecasting. Under this
approach, top management and departmental heads meet and decide about the
future human resource requirement. So, demand of human resources can be
forecasted with unanimity under this approach.
(b) Work-Study Technique: This technique is also known as 'work-load analysis'.
This technique is suitable where the estimated work-load is easily measurable.
Under this method, estimated total production and activities for a specific future
period are predicted. This information is translated into number of man-hours
required to produce per units taking into consideration the capability of the
workforce. Past-experience of the management can help in translating the workloads into number of man-hours required. Thus, demand of human resources is
forecasted on the basis of estimated total production and contribution of each
employee in producing each unit items. The following example gives clear idea
about this technique.
Let us assume that the estimated production of an organization is 3.00.000 units.
The standard man-hours required to produce each unit are 2 hours. The past
experiences show that the work ability of each employee in man-hours is 1500
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hours per annum. The work-load and demand of human resources can be
calculated as under:
Estimated total annual production = 300000 units
Standard man-hours needed to produce each unit = 2 hrs.
Estimated man-hours needed to meet estimated annual production (I x ii) =
600000 hrs.
Work ability/contribution per employee in terms of man-hour = 1500 units
Estimated no. of workers needed (iii / iv) = 600000/1500 = 400 units
The above example clearly shows that 400 workers are needed for the year.
Further, absenteeism rate, rate of labour turnover, resignations, deaths, machine
break-down, strikes, power-failure etc. should also be taken into consideration
while estimating future demand of human resources/ manpower.
(c) Ratio-Trend Analysis: Demand for manpower/human resources is also
estimated on the basis of ratio of production level and number of workers
available. This ratio will be used to estimate demand of human resources. The
following example will help in clearly understanding this technique.
Estimated production for next year = 1,40,000 units
Estimated no. of workers needed
(on the basis of ratio-trend of 1: 200) will be = 700
(d) Econometrics Models: These models are based on mathematical and
statistical techniques for estimating future demand. Under these model’s
relationship is established between the dependent variable to be predicted (e.g.,
manpower/human resources) and the independent variables (e.g., sales, total
production, work-load, etc.). Using these models, estimated demand of human
resources can be predicted.
(e) Delphi Technique: Delphi technique is also very important technique used for
estimating demand of human resources. This technique takes into consideration
human resources requirements given by a group of experts i.e., mangers. The
human resource experts collect the manpower needs, summarizes the various
responses and prepare a report. This process is continued until all experts agree
on estimated human resources requirement.
(f) Other Techniques: The other techniques of Human Resources demand
forecasting are specified as under:
(a) Following the techniques of demand forecasting of human resources used by
other similar organizations
(b) Organization-cum-succession-charts
(c) Estimation based on techniques of production
(d) Estimates based on historical records
(e) Statistical techniques e.g., co-relation and regression analysis
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Surplus Mitigation:
Leave of absence
Automation
Process improvement
Downsizing/restructuring
Early retirement packages
Reassignments to other business units
Reduction in work hours
Layoffs
Part time
Shortage Mitigation:
Right Sourcing sourcing
Offering overtime
Work redesign
New recruitment initiatives
Internal promotions
Temporary reassignments
Workforce Planning: Markov Analysis 8
Human Resource supply forecasting is the process of estimating availability of
human resource followed after demand for testing of human resource. For
forecasting supply of human resource, we need to consider internal and external
supply. Internal supply of human resource available by way of transfers,
promotions, retired employees & recall of laid-off employees, etc. Source of
external supply of human resource is availability of labour force in the market and
new recruitment.
External supply of human resource depends on some factors mentioned below.
Supply and demand of jobs
literacy rate of nation
rate of population
industry and expected growth rate and levels
technological development
compensation system based on education, experience, skill and age
The most important techniques for forecasting of human resource supply are
Succession analysis and Markov analysis.
Succession Analysis
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Once a company has forecast the demand for labour, it needs an indication of
the firm's labour supply. Determining the internal labour supply calls for a
detailed analysis of how many people are currently in various job categories or
have specific skills within the organization. The planner then modifies this
analysis to reflect changes expected in the near future as a result of retirements,
promotions, transfers, voluntary turnover, and terminations.
Demand forecasting helps in determining the number and type of
personnel/human resources required in future. The next step in human resource
planning is forecasting supply of human resources. The purpose of supply
forecasting is to determine the size and quality of present and potential human
resources available from within and outside the organization to meet the future
demand of human resources. Supply forecast is the estimate of the number and
kind of potential personnel that could be available to the organization.
Internal supply forecasting can be estimated based on the following:
(a) Current Staffing Level
(b) Projected Outflows This Year
(c) Projected Inflows This Year
Markov Analysis
Transition probability matrix is developed to determine the probabilities of job
incumbents remaining in their jobs for the forecasting period.
The technique is named after Russian mathematician Andrei Andreyev ich
Markov
A transition matrix, or Markov matrix, can be used to model the internal flow of
human resources. These matrices simply show as probabilities the average rate
of historical movement from one job to another. Figure 2-12 presents a very
simple transition matrix. For a line worker, for example, there is a 20% probability
of being gone in 12 months, a 0% probability of promotion to manager, a 15%
probability of promotion to supervisor, and a 65% probability of being a line
worker this time next year. Such transition matrices form the bases for computer
simulations of the internal flow of people through a large organization over time.
Linear Programming 9
Linear programming is a technique to optimize the process of attaining
objectives. Hence, linear programming can be gainfully employed to human
resources.
In an organization, we can look at human resources as assets, costs or both. If
we are looking at human resources as assets, we need to arrange them in such
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a manner that their productivity is maximized. The arrangement of humans in
organizations is called organizational structure. Normally, organizations are
divided into departments. Hence, arranging humans usually translates into
allocating people into departments. Linear programming can help us maximize
organizational productivity by optimizing the process of allocating people into
departments.
If we look at human resources as costs, we can minimize our costs by properly
arranging human resources i.e., allocating employees to departments. Linear
programming can help there. If we want to pursue both productivity and cost
minimization together, we can use linear programming to help there.
The use of linear programming in HR is part of HR Planning that aims to put the
right number of people at the right place to achieve organizational objectives,
which are usually productivity maximization or cost minimization or both.
Subdividing the topic, we can put linear programming as part of HR Supply.
Movement Analysis
Movement analysis is an approach and study used to get insights into staff/talent
supply, specifically the cascade or ‘bull-whip’ effect that job reductions, moves, or
promotions may have on the movements of other staff in the firm.
This helps and allows the HR manager to choose the desired blend (%) of
internal and external supply, for those positions requiring replacement, ranging
from a promote internally approach to replacing attrition entirely through hiring
staff from outside.
Skills and Management Inventories 11
Hiring employees to fill open job positions is a critical process for companies.
Recruiters must handle the hiring process strategically to find the best
candidates. Many companies look within to find top talent to fill open positions
within the company. Internal hiring is a popular recruiting method within many
organizations. To help with the hiring process, many companies take inventory of
employee skills. Knowing the capabilities of employees can help managers hire
the right workers.
Performing a Skills Inventory
Companies desiring to hire internally can perform a skills inventory on their
current employees to help in the promotion decisions. This inventory lists the
professional attributes, abilities and expertise of employees within an
organization. Compiling a skills inventory for each employee within the company
allows managers to quickly access employees’ qualifications to gather a list of
qualified candidates to consider for an open position within the company.
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Managers can give employees questionnaires that allow them to rate their level
of expertise with particular skills. To make the process easier, managers can
email the questionnaires to employees, require that they email back the
completed forms and input the information received in a database.
Posting Jobs in the Workplace
A popular method for internal recruiting is to place job positions on open job
boards within the company or on the company’s website. Employees who believe
they are qualified for the position may decide to apply. Limitations exist with this
form of self-nomination, which means that employees are the judge of whether
they are qualified to seek the job. The self-nomination approach to internal hiring
devalues the human resources department and limits its effectiveness, according
to an article written by Ed Newman on ERE, a website serving corporate
recruiting professionals. Organizations can improve the internal recruiting
process by implementing new strategies, such as requiring employees to obtain
manager approval before applying to an internal job position and requiring
employees to work at their current position for at least 12 months before seeking
other positions.
Benefits and Limitations of Internal Recruiting
The main benefits of recruiting internally are the significant time and costs
savings companies can achieve. Organizations save money because internal
hires typically require less training than new, external hires. Companies can
review the employee’s skill inventory to verify that the employee is qualified for
the job. Unlike external hires, companies are familiar with the capabilities of
current employees. A disadvantage of hiring from within is that the company
must fill the position that is left by the employee receiving the promotion, which
means the company is filling two positions. Another disadvantage is that
companies can miss out on top external candidates who can add value to the
organization in ways internal employees cannot.
Bad Times to Hire Internally
Although internal recruiting provides valuable benefits to a company, times exist
when companies should avoid hiring internally. A company usually benefits more
from external hiring when the organization needs new leadership and direction
because it is underperforming. The familiarity of employees with the
organization’s culture serves as a disadvantage at this point. The need for
employees with specialized skills may cause an organization to seek external
candidates to fill job positions.
Replacement management
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Crafting a process of finding employee for key managerial positions
Succession management
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Making sure that pools of skilled employees are trained and available to
meet the strategic objectives of the organization.
Interview Types
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Structured
Unstructured
Case
Stress
Situational
Behavioral
Performance Management12
The terms 'performance management' and 'performance appraisal' are
sometimes used synonymously, but they are different. Performance
management is a comprehensive, continuous and flexible approach to the
management of organizations, teams and individuals which involves the
maximum amount of dialogue between those concerned.
Performance appraisal is a more limited approach which involves managers
making top-down assessments and rating the performance of their subordinates
at an annual performance appraisal meeting
Performance Management systems typically are:
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A definition of what you want an employee to do for the next performance
period (normally the next quarter, half year or full year). The definition
includes specific objectives for the period, backed up by a job description
which includes the normal expectations for that position
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A review of remuneration/bonuses if these objectives are met
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A review of the personal development objectives
Formally performed quarterly, half yearly or annually but with input all year
round
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Typically, fully automated where the information is accessible to all
participants at any time
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Content rich if the automated Performance Management system has
features such as a Performance Diary
Performance Management
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Defined:
Ongoing process of coaching, measurement and communication between a
people manager and an associate that happens throughout the working year, in
support of accomplishing the strategic objectives of the firm. Includes:
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objectives,
goals,
expectations,
providing feedback,
Managing Employee Performance – The Cycle
Leading performance, providing feedback and scoring progress is not an isolated
set of tasks, focused in on yearly performance reviews. It is an ongoing process
that takes place throughout the year. The Performance Management process is
a cycle, with talks varying year to year based on evolving goals and trends.
The cycle includes Leading, Planning, Checking-In, and Review.
To start this process, you and your employee review overall expectations, which
includes collaborating on the development of performance objectives. Individual
development goals are written. You then develop a plan that directs the
employee's efforts toward achieving specific results to support organizational
excellence and employee success.
Goals and objectives are discussed throughout the year, during check-in
meetings. This provides a framework to ensure employees achieve results
through coaching and mutual feedback.
At the end of the performance period, you review the employee's performance
against expected objectives, as well as the means used and behaviors
demonstrated in achieving those objectives. Together, you establish new
objectives for the next performance period.
Succession Planning Process
Step 1: critical positions
Critical roles are the focus of succession planning processes. Without these key
roles, the firm would be unable to meet its business metrics objectives.
Workforce projection data or demographic analysis is essential in identifying risk
areas. A risk assessment may also be conducted and compared to current and
future vacancies to identify critical positions within your organization.
Step 2: skills &competencies
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Understanding of capabilities needed for successful performance in key areas
and critical positions is essential for guiding learning and development, writing
performance expectations, and for assessing performance. By completing the
process of competency or position profiling within your organization, current and
future employees gain an understanding of the key responsibilities of the position
including the qualifications and behavioral and technical competencies required
to perform them successfully.
Job Based Approach – focus on duties, skills, job experience, and
responsibilities required to perform the job
Competency-Based Approach – focus on measurable attributes that differentiate
successful employees from those who are not
Step 3: Identify succession management strategies
Now that critical positions have been identified and have been profiled for
competencies, the next step is to choose from a menu of several human
resource strategies, including developing internal talent pools, onboarding and
recruitment to address succession planning.
Step 4: Document and implement succession plans
Once strategies have been identified, the next step is to document the strategies
in an action plan. The Succession Planning: Action Plan provides a mechanism
for clearly defining timelines and roles and responsibilities.
Step 5: Evaluate Effectiveness
To ensure that the organization’s succession planning efforts are successful, it is
important to systematically monitor workforce data, evaluate activities and make
necessary adjustments.
Identifying and Accelerating High Potential Employees 13
Aspiration
Aspiration refers to an employee’s willingness and desire to tackle the challenges
and opportunities associated with leadership roles. HiPos may demonstrate an
interest in being involved in decision-making processes, and they often yearn for
more responsibility and independence. They proactively seek out new challenges
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54
and solicit constructive feedback regarding their performance.
Ability
Ability refers to the combination of an employee’s inherent qualities and their
learned skills. HiPos don’t just do their jobs well – they are also fast learners who
leverage their existing strengths to help them acquire new skills quickly. They
welcome professional development opportunities and recognize the value in
augmenting their talents with new knowledge and best practices.
Engagement
HiPos are exceptionally engaged employees, demonstrating a significant
commitment to the success of the company that extends beyond their own
individual performance. They often exemplify many of the qualities that are most
valued within the company culture and can be seen lending a hand to other
employees as necessary in order to bolster the overall efficiency and success of
the team.
Investing in HiPos
Because HiPos ambitiously chase after new challenges, it’s critical to invest in
them and support them if you have any hope of retaining them. It’s no
exaggeration to suggest that a strong HiPo program represents a life-or-death
situation for companies.
One of the easiest ways to support your HiPos is through positive reinforcement.
Let them know that they are at the top of the heap and thank them for their
continued commitment and performance. For true HiPos, this will give them a
strong sense of job satisfaction while also spurring them to aspire to even greater
heights.
Advancing Your HiPos’ Careers
As satisfying as it may be, a pat on the back isn’t enough on its own to keep a
HiPo on the path to leadership. Their aspiration, ability, and engagement must be
rewarded in meaningful, tangible ways. While this can and should take the form
of appropriate compensation and benefits, opportunities for career advancement
are equally important.
For small to midsize companies who may lack robust HR departments, providing
ample opportunities for professional development can be a challenge.
Fortunately, independent executive coaching services are ideal for filling this
role.
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Experienced coaches can draw on their expertise and outside perspective to
help internal HR managers identify and nurture HiPos. Coaching helps
employees develop and refine skills that will allow them to effectively confront
any future challenges – rather than only addressing immediate needs. For this
reason, it is one of the most effective methods of professional development in
terms of employee and employer satisfaction. Employees gain confidence in their
abilities and remain engaged with their work, resulting in an ROI of nearly seven
times the initial investment.
The next generation of leaders
Identifying and supporting HiPos has become an even more critical fact of
effective management due in part to the increasing number of millennials in the
workforce. Many of the qualities that distinguish HiPos can also be applied to
millennials: they are eager to take on greater responsibility, and they have a
strong desire to work in an environment where they feel supported and
encouraged.
By some estimates, millennials are expected to make up as much as 75% of the
workforce by 2025. With the right support, companies could potentially turn huge
swaths of their employees into HiPos by encouraging some of these key
characteristics demonstrated by Gen Y through professional development
opportunities like executive coaching.
HiPos represent the future of any company, and the ways in which employers
support them will determine how bright that future can be. By identifying and
cultivating employees with exceptional aspiration, uncommon ability, and
superior engagement, employers can ensure that the next generation of leaders
is well equipped to boost performance, foster innovation, and drive sustainable
growth.
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56
Labour & Employee Relations
Human Resource Management (HRM): relationship between employer and
individual employees (performance mgmt., training & development,
compensation)
Labour Relations (LR): relationship between groups of employees (collective;
usually unions) and employer
Industrial Relations (IR): employment relationships, usually in unionized settings
Employment Relations (ER): Employment relationships in both union/non-union
firms; encompasses LR and HRM
Dunlop’s Industrial Relations System Model (highlights importance of power &
conflict in employee relations; descriptive only, not predictive)
1.
Actors (govt agencies, workers, associations – labour unions)
2.
Shared Ideology (ideas and beliefs, e.g., capitalism and business
orientation) Assumes actors understand each other and value their roles in
relationship.
3.
Contexts (labour & product markets supply & demand; workplace
constraints e.g., job tasks & work hours; unions try to control supply of labour
impacts total product cost, distribution of power in the larger society)
4.
Web of rules
•
Substantive: outcomes of employee relations (similar to Craig’s outputs
below)
•
procedural,
•
distributive
Craig’s Industrial Relations System
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57
1.
Actors (3): labour (employees & associations), employers & associations
2.
Adds inputs >conversion mechanism> outputs/results; system-based
approach
•
External: legal, economic, ecological, political (ability to pass legislation),
socio-cultural (values & beliefs) (technology not mentioned)
•
Internal: values/standards/principles, goals (that which a person seeks to
obtain or achieve), strategies (processes to achieve goals), power
3.
Outputs:
•
Management: productivity, profitability
•
Labour: equity issues, job rights/ways to achieve fairness in workplace
•
Worker Perceptions: work climate, employee morale, organizational
commitment, union satisfaction, conflict resolution
4.
Adds Feedback Loop = dynamic system, not stagnant
5.
Third Party Interventions
•
Interest arbitration: used by those unable to strike
•
Mediation: no power to enforce resolution
•
Grievance arbitration: binding (written complain that the CA has not been
followed; alleged violation of CA)
•
Conciliation: mandatory/required in Canada before right to strike
•
Fact-finding
•
Mediation/arbitration
•
Strikes/lockouts: can be both conversion mechanism & output; used to
bring closure & produce collective agreement; Unions can use when CA expired
and is up for negotiation; ban on use while CA is in effect
Hebden& Brown: introduced 4th actor = end users
Views of Industrial Relations
•
Neoclassical Economics View: considers unions an artificial barrier to free
market
•
Pluralist and Institutional View: systems approach; IR system represents
this view of IR
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58
•
Human Resources / Strategic Choice: deliberate employer strategies to
minimize conflict and align HR and business strategies
•
Political Economy: inherent conflict between labour and management
Legal Framework / History
•
Statute of Laborers (1349, England): illegal to sell labour at pre-plague
prices
•
Master servant relationship: illegal to quit work, illegal to bargain
collectively or form a union; management controlled almost all work issues;
employer could fire a person for union activity
•
New Model unionism (1850’s): apprenticeships controls labour supply
(socialist unionism)
•
Knights of Labour (1868): sought cooperative businesses owned by
workers, labour group that included African-Americans, females and unskilled
labour
•
Trade Union Act (1872), Breaches of Contract Act (1877), Criminal Law
Amendments Act (1875-76): enabled freedom of association; granted right to
“peaceful” strike (CDA)
•
Taylorism (1873-79): Scientific management –application of engineering
techniques to production process resulted in mass production. (USA)
•
Frederick Taylor (1911): Taylor advocated use of time/motion studies and
performance pay-based systems; focus was on firm efficiency
•
The Haymarket Affair (1886, Chicago): rally for striking workers;
government used power to quell people
•
American Federation of Labour (1886): Gompers (1st president), focus =
economic, not political reform = business unionism (USA)
•
Exclusive jurisdiction: one craft per union; every union can only represent
workers of a single trade or craft
•
Knights of Labour banned
•
Trades & Labour Congress of Canada (TLC) (1886): Daniel Donoghue;
includes Knights of Labour (CDA)
•
Berlin (now Kitchener) Conference is significant in Canadian labour history
as it resulted in the TLC ejecting industrial unions; moved to exclusive jurisdiction
= every union can only represent workers of a single trade or craft
•
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Industrial Disputes Investigation Act (IDIA) (1907): must have 3rd party
59
intervention before a strike (CDA)
•
A new wave of unionism - Industrial unions emerged as a more active and
socially oriented movement to protect workers.
•
Wave 1: 1890-1920: craft or skill-based unions
•
Wave 2: 1930-1940’s: industrial or multi-skill unions; inclusive unionism;
normally all at one site
•
Wave 3: 1960-1975: Public Sector unions; social justice unionism
•
The Snider Case (1925): landmark case determined that labour is
provincial matter (CDA)
•
Wagner Act (1935) named after NY Senator who under Roosevelt (move
to political left). (USA)
•
Employers required to bargain with certified unions, defined unfair labour
practices; created an independent agency (the National Labour Relations Board,
NRLB) that could order remedies for employer violates of the Act
•
Under Wagner: recognition strikes & lockouts illegal; labour boards were
established; and exclusivity principle (only 1 union) introduced.
•
Wagner crafted on Voluntarism: collective bargaining is a private matter
and government intervention should be kept to a minimum
•
TLC expelled CIO affiliates and formed Canadian Congress of Labour
(CCL) (1939) (CDA)
•
P.C. 1003 (1943): The War Times Labour Relations Act whereby
Canadian Privy Council adopts Wagner Act model during wartime (CDA)
•
Created certification procedures and a labour relations board
•
Defined unfair labour practices
•
Enabled board to impose penalties
•
Included: mandatory/required dispute resolution procedures and
conciliation prior to a strike
•
CDA differs from Wagner Act b/c laws require greater govt intervention
(mandatory conciliation; all laws substitute arbitration for the right to strike during
contract term, even if grievances alleged; CA and the law give arbitrators
jurisdiction to resolve disputes)
•
Employment Standards & Employee Rights
•
Std work week; Overtime > 44 hours & legal max; Scheduling; Breaks;
Exclusions/ Human Rights, Health & Safety; Pay & Employment Equity
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60
•
9 hour movement is closely associated with Hamilton
•
Unfair labour practice: alleged violation of provincial labour relations act
(vs grievance: alleged violated of CA)
•
Union Security:
•
Closed shop: union membership a condition of employment
•
Union shop: new employees must join union after probation period
•
Rand Formula (1945): employees do not have to join union; all employees
must pay dues
•
Industrial Relations & Dispute Investigation Act (IRDIA) (1948) (CDA)
•
Canadian Labour Congress (1956) merger of TLC (craft-based) and CCL
(industrial-based), included requirement to explore a tighter relationships with, or
even help form, a political party (CDA); represents 69.6% of the 4.6M union
members in CDA today (union density = union members as a % of labour force)
•
NDP formed (1961) (CDA)
•
When CLC supported formation of NDP party it violated political non-
partisanship (1 of 3) core values of American Federation of Labour
•
Public Service Staff Relations Act (1967): federal PSO workers can
unionize and bargain collectively (CDA)
•
Public Sector union density 4X private sector union density
•
Higher rate of PSO unionization in CDA; unions are better able to recruit
in CDA because of favourable laws, affiliation between organized labour &NDP;
ability to resist concession bargaining
•
Concession bargaining is a key reason why the Canadian Auto Workers
Union (CAW) split from the United Auto Workers Union (UAW)
•
Charter of Rights & Freedoms: govt can invoke the notwithstanding clause
to override the right or freedom (CDA)
•
Before Harris, had Automatic Certification required the union getting 55%
of the bargaining unit to sign union cards (interest in joining union; valid for 6
months); would get union without even telling the employer.
•
Harris government “common sense revolution”: people need to have a
vote, can’t have 55% automatic certification. Now there will be a vote no matter
what; with minimum of 40% of bargaining unit having signed union cards
(achieved through organizing drive process), the union organizers can put the
application into the labour board following which a vote will be held.
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Management can’t interfere with the formation of a trade union, otherwise LRA
says the union will get certification automatically.
•
S. 7(12) application for certification shall include a written description of
the proposed bargaining unit including an estimate of the number of individuals in
the unit
•
S. 8.1 (1) if employer disagrees with the trade union’s estimate of the
number of individuals in the unit, the employer may give the Board a notice that it
disagrees with that estimate (e.g. perhaps includes management that can’t be
union)
•
S. 20 nothing in this section shall be deemed to deprive an employer of
the employer’s freedom to express views so long as the employer does not use
coercion, intimidation, threats, promises or undue influence
-
For example, employer could outline that only guarantee from union is that
the employee will have to pay mandatory fee (Rand), there is no guarantee an
increase in wages, etc.
•
S. 16 following certification the union shall give written notice to the
employer of its desire to bargain with a view to making a collective agreement
•
Ontario Bill 257: made it illegal to hire replacement workers
•
Human Relations: managerial view grounded in the belief that effective
management practices would minimize conflict between employers and
employees
•
Strategic Choice Framework (Kochan, Katz, &McKersie (1986)
•
Emphasizes role of management; transformation of Industrial Relations
•
Trends noted: large drop in unionization density; movement to south, plant
closures in the north, “non-union” system replacing collective bargaining, antiunion activity
•
Strategic Choice Framework
•
IR decision made at three levels: business (strategic), collective
bargaining (firm level where CA are negotiated & implemented, and workplace
(level where front line management deals with workplace issues); (individual is
not a level where IR decisions are made)
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•
Effective Strategies require 3 levels to operate together
•
Parties face a number of choices
•
1990’s saw a significant increase in back-to-work legislation
62
Labour Boards
•
Neutral: serve vital function = provide alternative to courts (faster,
cheaper, greater expertise in labour relations)
•
Tripartite: management, labour, and government stakeholders;
o
Labour board activities: certification/decertification cases, unfair labour
practices, declarations of illegal strikes or lockouts
Recognition Process
•
Bargaining Unit: community of interest must exist (could argue this
condition hasn’t been met); excludes management
•
Unfair Labour Practice: alleged violation of provincial labour relations act
•
Duty of Fair Representation: represent all equally, bargain in good faith,
make serious attempt to reach settlement
The Labour Market: Supply & Demand
•
Non-union firms: labour market forces determine employee compensation
and conditions
•
Supply
o
Inelastic supply = steeper the supply curve, the higher the wages
o
Elastic supply = flat = small wage increase will increase labour supply
•
Demand
o
Inelasticity of demand = steep = small increase in quantity demanded will
result in big increase in wage rate
o
Elastic demand = flat = small increase in quantity demand will have little
impact on wage rate
o
Shape of the demand curve is important b/c influences union’s ability to
raise wages without significantly affecting employment levels = wageemployment trade-off
Labour Power and Marshall’s Condition
•
Substitution Effect: easier to substitute capital for labour, the less power
labour will have to raise wages; substitute factors give firms more power
•
Labour Intensity: degree to which labour costs account for production
costs
•
Demand is more elastic and union have more power when: harder to
substitute labour for capital, labour costs are small % of total costs, market for
substitutes is less competitive, product markets are less competitive
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63
•
Unions also derive power from forged alliances with community groups
•
Monopsony: firm mis sole buyer of labour so if wage setter
Human Resource Management (HRM): relationship between employer and
individual employees
•
Organization Justice: employees perception of fair treatment at work
•
Distributive Justice: employee’s perception of fairness in the outcomes of
workplace decisions
•
Procedural Justice: employees perception of fairness in workplace
procedures
Labour Relations is divided into 3 distinct areas:
1.
Certification: union getting into the workplace; worker right to bank
together, to bargain and strike
Involves union organizing and company trying to stop the union from organizing
Certification means that union has been granted the exclusive right to bargain for
the group of employees.
Labour Relations Act grants certification to trade union and legally obligates
employer to bargain with the union.
•
Bargaining Unit: historically the union, the unionized workers
•
Trade Union: an outside organization acting as the bargaining agent for
the bargaining unit
2.
Negotiation of the Collective Agreement
3.
Fighting over the Collective Agreement & Interpreting the meaning of the
clauses negotiated
Management Strategies Related to Unions
•
Union Acceptance: seek to negotiate best deal
•
Union Resistance: seeks to limit spread, normally oppose union drives,
negotiate in non-confrontational way
•
Union Removal: management seeks to eliminate unions wherever they
exist; engage in extensive campaigns to discourage
•
Union Substitution: establish own forms of representation for employees
that make union redundant
o
Some argue that progressive HRM practices represent a union
substitution management strategy
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64
Non-Standard work arrangements differ from the norm in terms of employment
term, location, schedule, hours of work, and/or pay.
A professional association is an example of non-union representation
High performance work practices can be clustered into the following groups:
employee skills & abilities, motivation, work design (not employee involvement)
Negotiations:
•
an important assumption in industrial relations is that conflict of interest
exists between managers and employees
•
bilateral (2 parties) or multilateral
•
collective bargaining can touch on all 3 types of issues: adversarial
(win/lose), mutual gain (win/win) or both
Sub-processes of Collective Bargaining
•
Distributive bargaining: pie is fixed; adversarial/competitive; distribution of
fixed resource; zero sum game; develop a bottom line (minimum position
necessary to avoid strike/lockout)
Examples: wages, benefits, overtime rates, vacations, holidays
Tactics: disguise own bottom line while trying to discover that of the other party;
control over communication (1 spokesperson)
•
Integrative bargaining: potential for a solution that produces a mutual gain;
refers to process, as well as issues
Examples: health & safety, rest breaks
Tactics: share info, many voices / joint committee structures, array of solutions,
focus on real cases & defined remedies
•
Hybrid
Examples: pensions, plant closure/severance, technological change
•
Intra-team/intra-organizational bargaining: bargaining within teams during
the collective bargaining process (e.g. shift workers or women)
Tactics: use the team caucus to resolve differences;
•
Attitudinal structuring: building mutual respect and trust (e.g. use
permanent joint committee)
Tactics: away-from-the-table meetings
Collective Bargaining Model
CHRL KE
•
Contract Zone: exists if each side’s bottom line overlaps
•
Hick’s model = economic explanation of collective bargaining outcomes;
65
assumes disputes are over monetary issues
•
Employee estimates cost of strike per worked as $0.50 / hour (Total
losses in pay less strike pay and convert to hourly rate)
Union bottom line is $10 - $0.50 = $9.50
•
Management estimates losses from strike converted to $0.40 / hour
Management bottom line is $10 + 0.40 = $10.40 highest offer to avoid strike /
highest cost package
•
When able to negotiate – supports existence of contract zone
•
Triangle of pressures:
o
Employer pressures: potential loss of sales/revenue/profits/market share
o
Union pressures: strike fund, settlements of rival unions, psychological
stress
•
Bargaining steps:
1.
Preparation
2.
Union or management serves notice to bargain (triggers renewal of
collective agreement; otherwise, auto-renewal)
3.
Parties meet
4.
Each party communicates priorities
5.
Momentum builds for a settlement
6.
Contract zone is reached
7.
Settlement or impasse?
8.
Ratification: by secret ballot; process by which parties approve settlement
•
Strategies:
o
Bundle & use leverage on other issues
o
Start with easy issues to build positive momentum and avoid premature
impasse
•
Interest Based Bargaining (IBB): integrative; cooperative; + sum game;
principles, collaborative; win/win;
Steps: identify problem; search for alternative solutions; systematically compare
alternatives
Requires: trust, free exchanges of information; problem-solving approach
•
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Role of Collective Agreement: outlines terms & conditions; establish clear
66
rules and procedures governing workplace practices and relationship between
parties
•
CA Layout:
o
cover page,
o
table of contents,
o
articles
o
clauses: rights of parties; organization of work; labour relations processes
(grievance procedure, arbitration, joint committees), education, training &
development; conditions of work: termination, layoff, recall; corrective action
(progressive discipline): verbal warning ->written warning -> suspension ->
discharge
o
appendices/schedules
o
letters of understanding
•
Management residual rights: retain all rights held before unionization;
except those changed by the agreement
•
Rights of Parties
o
Employee:
-
equity clause references legislation;
-
explicit reference specifies which groups are covered;
-
same-sex benefits issue
•
Special Issues in collective bargaining:
o
Bumping: senior employees pass on their layoff notice to more junior
employees
o
Super Seniority: union representatives in office & other offices have
highest seniority in bargaining unit
o
Pyramiding: idea of compounding of premiums or benefits (overtime,
holiday overtime, shift premium)
•
Grievances: a formal complaint that a specific clause in the CA has been
violated
•
Types: individual, group, union or policy (initiated by union leadership)
(e.g. employer policy re absenteeism introduced by management)
•
Procedure: 3 parties (employee, union, management), plus other parties
at later stages, union usually takes charge and leads through steps; HRM or IR
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67
department involved early on in grievance b/c need consistent interpretation of
agreement
•
Unions have “carriage rights”: the union carries employees employment
contract. The union decides whether to pursue your grievance and not you. For
employees who disagree with union’s decision not to pursue their grievance, they
can pursue a Duty of Fair Representation (DFR). Fair = do not act arbitrarily,
capriciously or in bad faith. The group interests come first, not the individual
interests.
•
If unionized employee is not part of the union, must still pay union dues,
so distinction is meaningless. The union must still respond to grievances,
employee can vote on matters. Employees not part of the union, would not get
strike pay.
•
For each case provide: Issue, Rule (from CA), Analysis, Conclusion
•
Grievance Stages:
o
Informal: try to resolve with immediate supervisor
o
Formal Step 1: employee with union shop steward will bring grievance to
immediate supervisor; supervisor investigates & provides reply to union within
specific time period.
Options: allow, partially allow or deny. If not satisfied, then…
o
Formal Step 2: next level of management and union
Options: allow, partially allow or deny. If not satisfied, then…
o
Formal Step 3: next level of management and union
Options: allow, partially allow or deny. If not satisfied, then…
o
Formal Step 4: move to third party resolutions / interventions
•
Arbitration types:
o
Rights (or grievance) arbitration
-
Conventional Tripartite Arbitration: 3 member board & neutral chairperson
-
Sole Arbitration: neutral chair only
-
Expedited Arbitration: luck of draw; no choice or input
-
3 types: individual, group, policy grievances
-
Problems with Grievance Arbitration: Long delay, costly, “outsider” factor,
increasingly legalistic
o
Interest arbitration (e.g. in public interest as substitute for strike); resolves
disagreement during bargaining; alternative to prohibited strike/ conventional
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68
interest arbitration
-
Final Offer Arbitration / Select (FOS): both sides present their final offers
to the arbitrator and they choose one or the other, no middle ground; relatively
rare
-
First Agreement (First Contract) Arbitration
•
Arbitration is deemed quasi-judicial process: decision is final and binding
(whereas court decisions can be challenged)
•
Decision is based on probable cause / balance of probabilities (no
reasonable doubt premise in labour law – only in criminal law)
o
Standard of proof on the balance of probabilities
o
Onus/burden of proof is carried by the grieving party (existence of CLA,
fact of employment, the act of discipline
o
Then reverse onus: once the griever has established the prima facie case,
onus then shifts to the employer to prove use cause for discipline or discharge
o
If employer satisfactorily demonstrates, then onus shifts to griever to raise
a defense or establish mitigating circumstances
•
Jurisprudence means past decisions in a legal context
•
Arbitration awards do not serve as binding precedents
•
Mitigating factors are argued by the union to reduce a sanction (lessen
penalty) (union show inconsistent application of rules; employer show
premeditated / not spontaneous)
•
Discharge: involuntary termination of employment; when employee work
record indicates no longer fit for employment; little likelihood of rehabilitation, and
earlier corrective actions have failed (see importance of progressive discipline
here)
•
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR): resolves disputes without going to
court; voluntary non-binding process; neutral third party
Defining Industrial Disputes:
•
Strike: work stoppage invoked by union
•
Lockout: work stoppage invoked by management
•
Work to rule: employees perform only to minimum standard required
•
Wildcat strikes: illegal strike during the term of the CA
Strike Statistics: total number, frequency; number of workers involved; person
days not worked; % of working time lost
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69
•
6.9M days in 1980 ->1.3M days in 2001
•
Trends by region: ON, BC, QC are more strike prone vs PEI & Territories
•
Trends by industry: manufacturing & public sector have higher strike rates
vs tourism, finance, real estate & management services
•
Trends internationally: overall drop over past 5 years; Iceland has highest
level, Canada has second highest level of strike activity (6X higher than USA);
however, standards for reporting vary by country
Theories, Causes & Impacts:
•
Kramer &Hyclak (2002) 3 common theories:
o
Accident or Hick’s theory: errors @ bargaining table; accidents; not
rational; unexpected
o
Total joint costs: when cost of strike is low for both parties; when cost of
settling is high compared to cost of striking; differences in cost of strike to one
party relative to the other shifts bargaining power
o
Asymmetric information: use deceptive tactics; call the other side’s bluff;
gather more information about other party’s claims (unless bluffing, strike will be
short b/c cost of strike higher than settling); but not always economic issues
•
Causes:
o
Catalysts: trigger event (e.g. announcement of layoffs)
o
Insulated and Homogeneous Groups: group experiences collective
struggle; sociological perspective
o
Management indifference or unresolved grievances
o
Frustration-aggression
o
Economic factors: strikes more common when economy is booming
and/or firm has backlog of orders
o
Intra-organizational factors: if high conflict within 1 side, can’t agree with
other actor
•
Impacts:
o
Economic: value of firm (e.g. reduce revenue), employee finances (strike
pay is small)
o
Worker Well-Being (relationships, rapport, commitment)
Differences in HRM practices between Union vs Non-Union Firms:
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Non-union = master servant; union with unilateral power
•
Shock effect: shock management into stricter HRM practices
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•
Differing preferences of union vs non-union employees (what looking for in
CA is different)
•
Exit-voice theory: greater collective voice mechanisms in unionized
workplaces provides voice to influence change
Impact of Unions on Management Practices:
1.
Staffing:
a.
Recruitment: how post; unionized firms focus on internal recruitment;
closed-loop clauses; preference for seniority
b.
Selection: unionized firms have more formal, documented promotion
criteria; internal and seniority-based hiring and promotion; more probationary
period especially because need just case to terminate once employed
c.
Deselection/Termination: layoffs are unique to unionized firms; just cause
required to terminated a union worker; unionized employees have right of recall
d.
Staffing Flexibility: limited in unionized firms; less able to contract out and
move job duties
2.
Training & Development: more opportunities; keep current because hard
to terminate
3.
Performance Appraisal: less likely in unionized firm b/c governed by other
elements of CA
4.
Job Evaluation & Job Analysis: unionized as likely as non-union firms to
use formal job evaluation systems; unionized less likely to use subjective
rankings
5.
Total Compensation
a.
Base pay: about 5% higher in unionized firms for same jobs
•
Spillover effect: increase in union wages, results in reduced demand for
union labour, results in higher supply for non-union labour and reduction in
wages in non-union sector
•
Threat effect: non-union employers increase wages to avoid unionization
•
Freemand & Medoff (1984): monopoly effect = higher wages = reduced
employment levels from impact of collective voice
b.
Performance pay: less likely in unionized firms; labour doesn’t want to pit
employees against one another; where exists is group based (profit sharing, gain
sharing)
c.
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Indirect pay / benefits (e.g., pension): 20-40% greater access in unionized
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firms
6.
Equality and Safety: better in unionized firms b/c of CA
Impact of Unions on Firm Efficiency:
•
Economic Theory: unions have a negative impact; constrain firm flexibility,
increase wages above competitive level and encourage adversarial relationship
•
Collective Voice Theory: unions have a positive impact due to improved
communication between management and employees (lower quit rates and
absenteeism); grievance procedure leads to positive work environment; shock
effective results in stringent hiring practices
Impact of Unions on Employee Measures:
•
Intention to quit: lower in unionized firm because seniority is important;
less likely to leave higher pay & benefits, high voice options and due process
provisions
•
Organizational commitment: union provides higher attachment
•
Satisfaction: lower overall job satisfaction for unionized workers related to
job content, promotion opportunities, relationship with supervisor, resource to
perform job (jobs are tightly defined)
•
Union Satisfaction (shorter term measure than union commitment)
•
Union Commitment: positive relationship with organization commitment –
dual commitment
•
Desire to leave union: increases with firm size or dissatisfaction with pay
b/c hierarchy
•
Work climate: good
Public Sector Labour Relations Management:
•
Dual role of government: umpire and employer
•
Imperfect labour market (monopoly/monopsony)
•
Politics & public opinion
•
Probability of freely negotiated settlement declines by 2/3 in the round of
bargaining following back-to-work legislation; 2 sides know government will make
hard decisions so no reason to do themselves
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Union power – Marshall’s conditions re public sector:
•
Demand is not affected by cost or price (favors labour)
•
Labour is not easily substituted (favors labour))
•
Supply of substitutes is inelastic – no difference
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•
Labour is a small proportion of total costs (favors public employers)
•
Essential services: inconsistent between provinces or within educational
levels
Recent developments in dispute resolution:
•
Unfettered Strike Model: works best when services are not essential b/c
otherwise union has too much power; without procedure to determine essential
services invites back-to-work legislation
•
Designation Model: parties negotiate to determine essential services
before bargaining starts (ON) or at the point of impasse (QC); neutral tribunals
are available to adjudicate disputes that arise from these negotiations
•
No strike (Interest Arbitration) model: right to strike is substituted with
interest arbitration (final & binding 3rd party), declining in popularity in CDA
Problems with Interest Arbitration:
•
Chilling Effect: lack of flexibility caused by the parties’ fear a concession
made in negotiations will reduce the arbitration outcome; split difference so don’t
change
•
Narcotic or Dependency Effect: parties may lose ability to freely negotiate
settlements without third party assistance
•
final offer arbitration (modification to Interest Arbitration) designed to
reduce these effects
•
Impact on wage outcomes: upward wage bias
•
Loss of Control: especially budgetary (Adal et al)
•
Innovations
Management Issues
•
Restructuring
•
New Public Management: how bring private sector practices into public
sector
•
Implications:
o
Restraint policies applied to direct employees of the government and to
services like schools, hospitals
o
Policies vary according to the managerial or unionizing status of
employees
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Management: downsized and downgraded
-
Unionized Employees: concessions via adversarial bargaining; legislated
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wage cuts / joint solutions
Union Issues
•
Privatization: most successful rejection strategy associated with these
proposals were suggesting alternatives
Globalization
•
Markets promote efficiency through competition, but do not necessarily
ensure that the benefits of increased efficiency are shared by all
•
A new political economy: a new mode of capitalism has emerged that
requires new modes of labour market regulation
1.
Free Market Globalization: markets will dictate labour conditions and
constrain government regulation in the absence of regulations, minimum wage
laws, wages & conditions will be pushed to a race for the bottom
2.
Institutional Globalization: national institutions (Employment Standards
Agency, Human Rights) mediate between market pressures and society
3.
Integration of Free Market & Institutional Globalization: combo of 1 & 2;
decentralization of bargaining, greater management power, decrease in strikes
•
NAFTA (1994) included a labour side agreement
•
Important question is the extent to which freedom of association and
collective bargaining will be protected under globalization
Union Responses to Globalization:
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Global unions
•
Corporate Codes of Conduct: non-binding standards
•
Global Union Federations (GUF)
•
Weaknesses found in corporate codes: seen as rich country protectionism
•
Labour Rights Campaigns: shift from multinational to transnational
•
International Framework Agreements (IFA)
•
Single Union Global Agreements
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Total Rewards
The Pay Model
Compensation – Refers to all the forms of financial returns and tangible services
and benefits that employees received as part of an employment relationship
(cash compensation, incentives, benefits)
Relational Returns – psychological returns employees believe they receive in the
workplace (recognition, status, employment security, learning opportunities)
Merit Increases – increment to base pay in recognition of past work behaviour
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Cost of Living Adjustment – Percentage increment to base pay provided to all
employees regardless of performance
Implicit Contract – An unwritten understanding between employers and
employees about their reciprocal obligations and returns.
A Pay Model:
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1)
Strategic compensation objectives
a.
Efficiency
i.
Performance
ii.
Quality
iii.
Customers and Stockholders
iv.
Costs
b.
Fairness
c.
Compliance
2)
Strategic policies that form the foundation of the compensation system
a.
Alignment
b.
Competitiveness
c.
Contributors
d.
Management
3)
Techniques of compensation
a.
Alignment
i.
Work analysis
ii.
Descriptions
iii.
Evaluations/Certification
iv.
Internal Structure
b.
Competitiveness
i.
Market Definitions
ii.
Surveys
iii.
Policy Lines
iv.
Pay Structure
c.
Contributors
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i.
Seniority based
ii.
Performance base
iii.
Merit Guidelines
iv.
Incentive Programs
d.
Management
i.
Costs
ii.
Communications
iii.
Change
iv.
Evaluation
Developing a Total Compensation Strategy
Step 1: Assess Total Comp Implications
-
Competitive Dynamics
-
Core Culture/Values
-
Social and Political Context
-
Employee/Union Needs
-
Other HR Systems
Step 2: Map a Total Comp Strategy
-
Objectives
-
Alignment
-
Competitiveness
-
Contributions
-
Management
Step 3: Implement Strategy
-
Design System to Translate Strategy into Action
-
Choose Techniques to Fit Strategy
Step 4: Reassess the Fit
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Realign as Conditions Change
-
Realign as Strategy Changes
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Part 1 – Internal Alignment: Determining the Structure
The Pay Model:
Internal Alignment
-
The pay relationships between the job/skills/competencies within a single
organization
Distributive Justice
-
Perceived fairness of pay or other work outcomes received
Levels
-
One feature of any pay structure is its hierarchical nature – the number of
levels and reporting relationships. Because pay structures typically reflect the
flow of work in the organization, some are more hierarchical with multiple levels,
others are compressed with few levels.
Differentials
-
Pay differences between job levels
Gini Coefficient
-
Statistic that varies between zero and one, increasing with the magnitude
of pay differentials between job levels
Criteria
Content and Value – Content refers to the work performed in a job and
how it gets done (tasks, behaviour, knowledge required, etc.). Value refers to the
work of the work (its relative contribution to the organization objectives.
Job – and Person-Based Structures – Job-based structure looks at work
content (tasks, behaviours, responsibilities). Person-based structures shift the
focus to the employee (skills, knowledge or competencies the employee
possesses.
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Government Policies, Laws and Regulations
-
Human rights legislation forbids pay systems that orientation, discriminate
on the basis of gender, race, religion, sexual orientation, national origin, etc.
-
Pay equity – equal pay for work of equal value based on skill, effort,
responsibility, and working conditions.
-
An internal structure may contain any number of levels, with differentials
of any size, as long as the criteria for setting them do not include gender, race,
religion, or national origin
-
Much pay-related legislation attempts to regulate economic forces to
achieve social welfare objectives. For example, minimum wage legislation and
maximums such as special reporting requirements for executive pay. But
legislation also aims at the differentials
-
Most countries have various legal standards regulating pay structures.
Whatever they are, organizations operating within these countries must abide by
them.
Organizations Human Capital – the education, experience, knowledge, abilities
and skills that people possess is regarded as a major influence on internal
structures
Strategic Choices in designing internal structures
1.
Tailored Structure – pay structure for well-defined jobs with relatively small
differences in pay
2.
Loosely Coupled Structure – pay structure for jobs that are flexible,
adaptable, and changing
Job Evaluation:
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Determining the Internal Job Structure:
Job Analysis Terminology:
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Evaluating the Work: Job Evaluation
Job Structure – hierarchy of all the jobs based on value to the organization;
provides the basis for the pay structure
Job Evaluation – the process of systematically determining the relative worth of
jobs to create a job structure for the organization. The evaluation is based on a
combination of job content, skills required, value to the organization, org culture,
and external market.
Some major decisions in job evaluation:
-
Establish purpose of evaluation
-
Decide whether to sue single or multiple plans
-
Choose among alternative approaches
-
Obtain involvement of relevant stakeholders
-
Evaluate plan’s usefulness
Benchmark Jobs
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-
A job whose contents are well-known, relatively stable, and common
across different employers
Person-Based Pay Structures - Link pay to the depth of breadth of the skills,
abilities, and knowledge a person acquires that are relevant to the work
Skills analysis – a systematic process to identify and collect information about
skills required to perform work in an organization
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Determining the Internal Competency-based Structure:
Part 2: External Competitiveness: Determining the Pay Level
Labour Market Factors:
-
Economist describe two basic types of markets:
1.
Quoted Price Market – prices are specifically indicated
2.
Bourse Market – Prices are subject to barter or negotiation
-
In both the bourse and the quoted market, employers are the buyers and
the potential employees are the sellers.
-
If the inducements (total comp) offered by the employer and the skills
offered by the employee are mutually acceptable, a deal is struck.
Designing Pay Levels, Mix and Pay Structures
Design the Survey:
-
Consulting firms offer a wide choice of ongoing surveys covering almost
every job family and industry group imaginable
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-
Designing a survey requires answering the following questions:
1.
Who should be involved in the survey design?
2.
How many employers should be included?
3.
Which jobs should be included?
4.
What information should be collected?
Employee Benefits
Benefits Planning and Design Issues:
-
The benefits planning process must address the vital question: “What is
the role of benefits in a total compensation package?”
-
The planning process should include strategies to ensure external
competitiveness and adequacy of benefits
-
Competitiveness requires an understanding of what other firms in your
product and labour market offer as benefits
-
Value in conducting benefit surveys
-
There is a relationship between adequacy and cost-effectiveness
-
More organizations need to consider whether employee benefits are cost
justified
Financing Benefits Plans
-
The final administrative issue involves the question of financing benefits
plans. Alternatives include:
1.
Noncontributory (employer pays total costs)
2.
Contributory (costs shared between employer and employee)
3.
Employee financed (employee pays total costs for some benefits, e.g.,
long-term disability)
Legal Requirements
-
Employers want benefits packages that complies with all aspects of the
law
-
Example – vesting of pension plans which occurs when employees
become entitled to the employer-paid portion of pension benefits upon
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termination of employment, is required by law after no more than 2 years of
employment
Administering the Benefits Program
Employee Benefits Communication:
-
Benefits admin involves
1.
Communicating the benefits program
2.
Claims processing
3.
Cost containment
Benefit Communication:
-
The most frequent method of communicating employee benefits is the
employee benefits handbook (includes description, levels of coverage, eligibility
requirements)
-
Failure to understand benefits components and their value is still one of
the root causes of employee dissatisfaction with a benefits package
-
Effective communication must have:
1.
Must clearly spell out its benefit objectives and ensure that any
communications achieve these objectives
2.
Match the message with the appropriate medium
3.
The content of the communications package must be complete, clear and
free of the complex jargon which so readily invades benefits discussions.
Workers’ Compensation – a mandatory, government-sponsored, employer-paid,
no-fault insurance plan that provides compensation for injuries and diseases that
arise out of, and while in the course of, employment.
Pension Legislation – Plans covering employees in more than one jurisdiction
must comply with the legal requirements of the jurisdiction of registration, but
must also apply the rules of each other jurisdiction for employee working in that
jurisdictions.
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Part 3: Employee Contributions: Determining Individual Pay
Motivation
(1)
What’s important to a person, and (2) offering it in exchange for some (3)
desired behaviours
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The Role of Government and Unions in Compensation
Government as Part of the Employment Relationship:
-
Governments’ usual interests are whether procedures for determining pay
are fair (e.g. pay equity)
-
Safety nets for the unemployed and disadvantaged are sufficient (e.g.
minimum wage, unemployment comp)
-
Employees are protected from exploitation (e.g. overtime pay, child
labour)
-
Individuals, employers and government are key parties in pay decisions
-
Government policy decisions also affect comp by affecting the supply and
demand
-
Supply – legislation aimed at protecting specific groups also tends to
restrict that group’s participations in the labour market
-
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employer (increased business activity, due to lower interest rates) translates into
increased demand for labour and upward pressure on wages.
Employment Standards Act
-
Outlines the minimum terms and conditions of employment (includes, min
wage, paid vacations, paid holidays, OT pay, equal pay for equal work, min age
of employment, etc.)
Communication: Managing the Message
-
Pay sends a powerful message about what matters, therefore, managing
that message is important
-
Pay systems must be fair
-
This is achieved through formal communication
-
Defining the objectives of the communication plan is key
-
There is evidence to suggest that the goodwill engendered by the act of
being open about pay may affect employees’ attitudes toward pay
-
The research also shows that employees in companies with open pay
communication policies are as inaccurate in estimating pay differentials as those
in companies in which pay secrecy prevails
-
However, employees under open pay policies tend to express higher
satisfaction with their pay and with the pay system
Controls as Guidelines:
-
Balance between strict controls and chaos is required to ensure that pay
decisions are directed at the organization’s goals, yet permit sufficient flexibility
for manager and employees to respond to unique situations.
-
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Achieving the balance become part of the art of managing compensation
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Learning and Development
Training vs Development
Training: acquiring of knowledge, skills and abilities to enhance performance in a
current position or assignment
Development: gaining of knowledge, skills and abilities that are mandatory to
perform future responsibilities
ADDIE Model
ADDIE is an instructional systems design (ISD) framework that many
instructional designers and training developers use to develop courses.[1] The
name is an acronym for the five phases it defines for building training and
performance support tools:
Analysis
Design
Development
Implementation
Evaluation
Most current ISD models are variations of the ADDIE process. Other models
include the Dick and Carey and Kemp ISD models. Rapid prototyping is another
common alternative.
Instructional theories are important in instructional materials design. These
include behaviorism, constructivism, social learning, and cognitivism.
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ADDIE Phases
Analysis phase
The analysis phase clarifies the instructional problems and objectives, and
identifies the learning environment and learner's existing knowledge and skills.
Questions the analysis phase addresses include:
Who are the learners and what are their characteristics?
What is the desired new behavior?
What types of learning constraints exist?
What are the delivery options?
What are the pedagogical considerations?
What adult learning theory considerations apply?
What is the timeline for project completion?
The process of asking these questions is often part of a need’s analysis. During
the needs analysis instructional designers (IDs) will determine constraints and
resources in order to fine tune their plan of action.
Design phase
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The design phase deals with learning objectives, assessment instruments,
exercises, content, subject matter analysis, lesson planning, and media
selection. The design phase should be systematic and specific. Systematic
means a logical, orderly method that identifies, develops, and evaluates a set of
planned strategies for attaining project goals. Specific means the team must
execute each element of the instructional design plan with attention to detail. The
design phase may involve writing a design document/design proposal or concept
and structure note to aid final development.
Development phase
In the development phase, instructional designers and developers create and
assemble content assets described in the design phase. If e-learning is involved,
programmers develop or integrate technologies. Designers create storyboards.
Testers debug materials and procedures. The team reviews and revises the
project according to feedback.
Implementation phase
The implementation phase develops procedures for training facilitators and
learners. Training facilitators cover the course curriculum, learning outcomes,
method of delivery, and testing procedures. Preparation for learners includes
training them on new tools (software or hardware) and student registration.
Implementation includes evaluation of the design.
Evaluation phase
The evaluation phase consists of two aspects: formative and summative.
Formative evaluation is present in each stage of the ADDIE process, while
summative evaluation is conducted on finished instructional programs or
products. Donald Kirkpatrick's Four Levels of Learning Evaluation are often
utilized during this phase of the ADDIE process.
Knowledge Types
Knowledge is information that is meaningful in cognitive forms such as
understanding, awareness and ability. It is typically acquired by experience,
information consumption, experimentation and thought processes such as
imagination and critical thinking. Knowledge comes in several varieties and
types:
Explicit Knowledge
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Knowledge that can be articulated in a natural language such as French or
Japanese.
Tacit Knowledge
A general term for knowledge that is difficult to explain, articulate or acquire such
as mastering chess or the piano. Also associated with a sense of innate ability or
unique set of experiences that allows a select few individuals to achieve mastery
of a particular skill.
Learning Organization
In business management, a learning organization is a company that facilitates
the learning of its members and continuously transforms itself. Learning
organizations develop as a result of the pressures facing modern organizations
and enables them to remain competitive in the business environment
Intellectual Capital
Intellectual capital is the intangible value of a business. This includes anything
that isn't physical that adds to the productive capacity of a firm. The following are
the primary types of intellectual capital.
Human Capital
The knowledge, know-how, abilities and creativity of employees. In many cases,
people don't like to be referred to as "capital." Terms such as talent or human
resources are common alternatives.
Structural Capital
Intangible elements of a firm's organizational culture, business processes and
ability to innovate. This includes documents, media, processes, systems,
applications, data, intellectual property and trade secrets.
Relational Capital
A firm's relationship with the outside world including investors, customers,
employees, partners, regulators, communities and other stakeholders. This can
include both informal relationships such as business contacts and formal
contracts.
Knowledge Interpretation and Dissemination
Gathering data from direct and indirect sources:
observations
questionnaires
interviews
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experiments
another research
Processing data for interpretation numerically and or verbally:
HR Metrics
x
x
x
x
employee sampling
statistics
themes or perspectives
Dissemination of findings
written reports
presentations
Employee meetings / town halls
Information communication technology (ICT)
Knowledge Retention
Knowledge Sharing Systems support the process through which explicit or tacit
knowledge is communicated to other individuals. These systems are also
referred to as knowledge repositories.
The two types of explicit knowledge sharing systems most widely discussed in
the KM literature are:
lessons learned and
expertise locator systems.
Systems that support tacit knowledge sharing are those typically utilized by
communities of practice.
Corporate Memory (also known as an organizational memory) is made up of the
aggregate intellectual assets of an organization.
It is the combination of both explicit and tacit knowledge. The loss of Corporate
Memory often results from a lack of appropriate technologies for the organization
and exchange of documents. Another contributing factor to the loss of corporate
memory is the departure of employees because of either turnover or retirement.
KM is concerned with developing applications that will prevent the loss of
corporate memory.
Knowledge sharing systems are classified according to their attributes
Incident report databases
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Incident report databases are used to disseminate information related to
incidents or malfunctions. Incident reports typically describe the incident together
with explanations of the incident, although they may not suggest any
recommendations.
Alert systems
Alert systems were originally intended to disseminate information about a
negative experience that has occurred or is expected to occur. Alert systems
could be used to report problems experienced with technology, such as an alert
system that issues recalls for consumer products.
Best practices databases
Best practices databases describe successful efforts, typically from the
reengineering of business processes that could be applicable to organizational
processes. Best practices differ from lessons learned in that they capture only
successful events, which may not be derived from experience.
Lessons-learned systems
The goal of lessons-learned systems is to capture and provide lessons that can
benefit employees who encounter situations that closely resemble a previous
experience in a similar situation. LLS could be pure repositories of lessons or be
sometimes intermixed with other sources of information.
Expertise locator systems
Expertise-Locator Systems are knowledge repositories that attempt to organize
knowledge by identifying experts who possess specific knowledge. Expertise
locator systems are also known as expert directories, expertise directories, skill
directories, skills catalogues, white pages or yellow pages.
Off the Job Learning Methods
On the job training methods have their own limitations, and in order to have the
overall development of employee’s off-the-job training can also be imparted. The
methods of training which are adopted for the development of employees away
from the field of the job are known as off-the-job methods.
The following are some of the off-the-job techniques:
1. Case study method:
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Usually, case study deals with any problem confronted by a business which can
be solved by an employee. The trainee is given an opportunity to analyze the
case and come out with all possible solutions. This method can enhance analytic
and critical thinking of an employee.
2. Incident method:
Incidents are prepared on the basis of actual situations which happened in
different organizations and each employee in the training group is asked to make
decisions as if it is a real-life situation. Later on, the entire group discusses the
incident and takes decisions related to the incident on the basis of individual and
group decisions.
3. Role play:
In this case also a problem situation is simulated asking the employee to assume
the role of a particular person in the situation. The participant interacts with other
participants assuming different roles. The whole play will be recorded and trainee
gets an opportunity to examine their own performance.
4. In-basket method:
The employees are given information about an imaginary company, its activi ties
and products, HR employed and all data related to the firm. The trainee
(employee under training) has to make notes, delegate tasks and prepare
schedules within a specified time. This can develop situational judgments and
quick decision-making skills of employees.
5. Business games:
According to this method the trainees are divided into groups and each group
has to discuss about various activities and functions of an imaginary
organization. They will discuss and decide about various subjects like production,
promotion, pricing etc. This gives result in co-operative decision-making process.
6. Grid training:
It is a continuous and phased program lasting for six years. It includes phases of
planning development, implementation and evaluation. The grid takes into
consideration parameters like concern for people and concern for people.
7. Lectures:
This will be a suitable method when the numbers of trainees are quite large.
Lectures can be very much helpful in explaining the concepts and principles very
clearly, and face to face interaction is very much possible.
8. Simulation:
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Under this method an imaginary situation is created and trainees are asked to
act on it. For e.g., assuming the role of a marketing manager solving the
marketing problems or creating a new strategy etc.
9. Management education:
At present universities and management institutes gives great emphasis on
management education. For e.g., Mumbai University has started bachelors and
postgraduate degree in Management. Many management Institutes provide not
only degrees but also hands-on experience having collaboration with business
concerns.
10. Conferences:
A meeting of several people to discuss any subject is called conference. Each
par ticipant contributes by analyzing and discussing various issues related to the
topic. Everyone can express their own viewpoint.
On the Job Learning Methods
1. Job rotation:
This training method involves movement of trainee from one job to another gain
knowledge and experience from different job assignments. This method helps
the trainee under stand the problems of other employees.
2. Coaching:
Under this method, the trainee is placed under a particular supervisor who
functions as a coach in training and provides feedback to the trainee. Sometimes
the trainee may not get an opportunity to express his ideas.
3. Job instructions:
Also known as step-by-step training in which the trainer explains the way of
doing the jobs to the trainee and in case of mistakes, corrects the trainee.
4. Committee assignments:
A group of trainees are asked to solve a given organizational problem by
discussing the problem. This helps to improve team work.
5. Internship training:
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Under this method, instructions through theoretical and practical aspects are
provided to the trainees. Usually, students from the engineering and commerce
colleges receive this type of training for a small stipend.
Coaching and Mentoring
Making the Distinction
Traditionally, mentors are chosen within a company to help employees learn the
ropes. In the entrepreneurial world, mentors act as advisers, compensated or
not.
Mentors are successful people who share their hard-won wisdom to provide
insight and guidance as an entrepreneur encounters challenges along her
journey. They typically function in a reactive capacity, responding to issues as
they arise. Mentors may not have expertise in the mentee’s field, but they
understand how to navigate business in general.
Coaches, on the other hand, often have expertise in the same field as the people
they’re helping. They’re usually trained and certified as coaches, possessing
strong process management skills.
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Coaching
Mentoring
Coaching revolves more around specific
development areas/issues
Mentoring revolves more around
developing the mentee professional's
career
The agenda is focused on achieving
specific, immediate goals
Agenda is set by the mentee, with the
mentor providing support and guidance
to prepare them for future roles
Focus is generally on
development/issues at work
Focus is on career and personal
development
Coaching is generally not performed on
the basis that the coach needs to have
direct experience of their client’s formal
occupational role, unless the coaching is
specific and skills-focused
Mentor is usually more experienced
and qualified than the ‘mentee’. Often a
senior person in the organization who
can pass on knowledge, experience
and open doors to otherwise out-ofreach opportunities
Short-term (sometimes time-bounded)
and focused on specific development
areas/issues
More long-term and takes a broader
view of the person
Generally, more structured in nature and Can be more informal and meetings
meetings are scheduled on a regular
can take place as and when the
basis
mentee needs some advice, guidance
or support
Relationship generally has a set
duration
Ongoing relationship that can last for a
long period of time
Lesson Plans
The quality of lesson plans will determine how efficiently training time is used and
how much content employees can learn. The main thing is to make sure they
contain the main elements of the lesson. They’re meant to guide your instruction
so you can maximize classroom time.
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What Are the Components of an Effective Lesson Plan?
1. Materials
2. Spelled out and clear objectives
3. Background information
4. Direct instruction
5. Student practice
6. Closure
7. Demonstration of learning
Transfer of Training Principles*
Citation Schunk, D. (2004). Learning theories: An educational perspective (4th
ed.). Upper Saddle River, NJ, USA: Pearson, p. 220, ISBN 0130384968.
Near
Overlap between situations, original and transfer contexts are similar.
Far
Little overlap between situations, original and transfer settings are dissimilar.
Positive
What is learned in one context enhances learning in a different setting.
Negative
What is learned in one context hinders or delays learning in a different setting.
Vertical
Knowledge of a previous topic is essential to acquire new knowledge.
Horizontal
Knowledge of a previous topic is not essential but helpful to learn a new topic.
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Literal
Intact knowledge transfers to new task.
Figural
Use some aspect of general knowledge to think or learn about a problem.
Low Road
Transfer of well-established skills in almost automatic fashion.
High Road
Transfer involves abstraction so conscious formulations of connections between
contexts.
Kirkpatrick’s Hierarchical Model of Evaluation 14
The Four Levels
fl
fl
fl
fl
Reaction
Learning
Behavior
Results
Level 1: Reaction
This level measures how your trainees (the people being trained), reacted to the
training. Obviously, you want them to feel that the training was a valuable
experience, and you want them to feel good about the instructor, the topic, the
material, its presentation, and the venue.
It's important to measure reaction, because it helps you understand how well the
training was received by your audience. It also helps you improve the training for
future trainees, including identifying important areas or topics that are missing
from the training.
Level 2: Learning
At level 2, you measure what your trainees have learned. How much has their
knowledge increased as a result of the training?
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When you planned the training session, you hopefully started with a list of
specific learning objectives: these should be the starting point for your
measurement. Keep in mind that you can measure learning in different ways
depending on these objectives, and depending on whether you're interested in
changes to knowledge, skills, or attitude.
It's important to measure this, because knowing what your trainees are learning
and what they aren't will help you improve future training.
Level 3: Behavior
At this level, you evaluate how far your trainees have changed their behavior,
based on the training they received. Specifically, this looks at how trainees apply
the information.
It's important to realize that behavior can only change if conditions are favorable.
For instance, imagine you've skipped measurement at the first two Kirkpatrick
levels and, when looking at your group's behavior, you determine that no
behavior change has taken place. Therefore, you assume that your trainees
haven't learned anything and that the training was ineffective.
However, just because behavior hasn't changed, it doesn't mean that trainees
haven't learned anything. Perhaps their boss won't let them apply new
knowledge. Or, maybe they've learned everything you taught, but they have no
desire to apply the knowledge themselves.
Level 4: Results
At this level, you analyze the final results of your training. This includes outcomes
that you or your organization have determined to be good for business, good for
the employees, or good for the bottom line.
Return on Investment Employee Learning
Using a formula for measuring training ROI:
ROI (%) = ((Financial benefits – Training Cost)/Training Cost) x 100
To get the numbers for the ROI, keep count of learning program costs, including
the cost of development and creation, promotion and delivery (associates or
tech), materials and facilities, wages, and training evaluation
Management Development Methods
These methods can be used:
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·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
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The coaching method
Job rotation
Special projects
Case studies
Business games
Simulation
Conferences
Lectures, and
Syndicate method
102
Health, Wellness and Safe Workplace
Occupational Health & Safety OHS Common Terms
Hazard
Any situation with the potential to cause injury or illness.
You may have a hazard to do with:
·
·
·
·
·
·
·
machinery
equipment
raw materials
workplace
other workers
your job
poor housekeeping
Risk
The likelihood that exposure to a hazard will result in injury or disease.
Risk Assessment
Once a hazard is identified, an examination of the risks associated with it is done
to determine the likelihood of injury or illness being caused by the hazard.
Risk Control
Taking action to eliminate or reduce the likelihood that exposure to a hazard will
result in injury or disease.
Workplace Inspections
Planned systematic appraisals of the workplace to identify hazards, assess and
control risks, and to ensure a safe and healthy workplace complying with OHS
legislation.
Incidents
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Occurrences that result in death, injury or illness.
Dangerous Occurrences
Where there is a potential to cause death, injury or illness.
Accidents
any unwanted event that causes harm to people, property, or processes
Workers 3 Basic Rights
Employees have the following three basic rights:
1.
Right to refuse unsafe work.
2.
Right to participate in the workplace health and safety activities through the
Health and Safety Committee (HSC) or as a worker health and safety
representative.
3.
Right to know, or the right to be informed about, actual and potential dangers
in the workplace.
Employer’s Responsibilities
The manager or supervisor must:
Make sure workers work in compliance with OH&S acts and regulations.
Make sure that workers use prescribed protective equipment devices.
Advise workers of potential and actual hazards.
Provide workers with written instructions as to the measures and procedures to
be taken for protection of the worker.
Take every reasonable precaution in the circumstances for the protection of
workers.
Managers and supervisors act on behalf of the employer, and hence have the
responsibility to meet the duties of the employer as specified in the Act for the
work they (the managers and supervisors) direct.
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Employee’s Responsibilities
Employee’s responsibilities include the following:
fl
Work in compliance with OH&S acts and regulations.
fl
Use personal protective equipment and clothing as directed by the
employer.
fl
Report workplace hazards and dangers to the supervisor or employer.
fl
Work in a safe manner as required by the employer and use the
prescribed safety equipment.
fl
Tell the supervisor or employer about any missing or defective equipment
or protective device that may be dangerous.
Joint Health & Safety Committees
https://www.ontario.ca/page/guide-health-and-safety-committees-andrepresentatives
What is a joint health and safety committee?
A joint health and safety committee (JHSC) is composed of worker and employer
representatives. Together, they should be mutually committed to improving
health and safety conditions in the workplace. Committees identify potential
health and safety issues and bring them to the employer's attention and must be
kept informed of health and safety developments in the workplace by the
employer. As well, a designated worker member of the committee inspects the
workplace at least once a month.
When Can a Worker Refuse Work?
The right to refuse unsafe work is one of the three basic health and safety rights
achieved by the labour movement, along with the right to know about the
hazards in the workplace, and the right to participate in workplace health and
safety decisions. And while procedures and circumstances around the right to
refuse may vary from province to province, just about all workers have the legal
right to a healthy and safe workplace that allows (and in some provinces
obligates) them to protect their own safety by refusing to perform work that they
believe has the potential to harm themselves or others at the worksite.
Exercising the right to refuse typically involves setting in motion a series of steps
to resolve the unsafe or dangerous situation. While these steps vary slightly by
jurisdiction, the following is a typical work refusal procedure:
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Workers must report to their supervisor that they are refusing to perform work
because they believe it is unsafe, and state why they believe the situation is
unsafe if the situation isn’t immediately corrected, the worker, supervisor, and a
JHSC member or worker representative investigates
the worker can resume their work if the unsafe condition is resolved with mutual
agreement if the condition is not resolved, a government health and safety
inspector is called to investigate and provide a decision in writing no other worker
should be assigned to do the work unless they have been informed of the work
refusal and the reasons for the refusal
WHMIS
WHMIS stands for Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System. It is a
nationwide system to provide information on hazardous materials used in the
workplace. WHMIS affects workers, employers, suppliers, and regulators.
WHAT IS THE OBJECTIVE OF WHMIS?
The objective of WHMIS is to reduce the risk of illness or injury to employees,
employers, or visitors in the Workplace resulting from the use of controlled
products.
COMPONENTS OF WHMIS
There are three key components to WHMIS:
1. Worker Education and Training
Worker education programs provide instruction on the hazards of hazardous
materials in the workplace and training in understanding and using WHMIS
information.
2. Labels
Labels must be placed on all containers of hazardous materials to alert
employees and workers to the dangers of the product and basic safety
precautions.
3. Material Safety Data Sheets
Provide detailed health and safety information on a product
WHMIS Label Classes
The Eight (8) WHMIS hazard classes are
A: Compressed Gas
Contents of the container are under pressure - anything done to weaken the
structure of the container could result in an explosion or a dramatic release of
pressure.
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B: Flammable/Combustible
"Flammable / Combustible" materials are solids, liquids or gases that will ignite
and continue to burn if exposed to a flame or source of ignition.
C: Oxidizing Materials
Produce oxygen or another oxidizing substance, which can cause or contribute
to combustion of other substances.
D: Poisonous / Infectious
Further separated into three categories D1 / D2 /D3.
D1: Immediate and serious toxic effects
The effects of Class D1 materials are very harmful based on short-term
exposures.
D2: Other Toxic Effects
Produce many different toxic effects.
D3: Biohazard Infectious Materials
Any organism, or the toxins produced by these organisms, that have been shown
or are believed to be a biological hazard in either humans or animals.
E: Corrosive
Cause decomposition of other materials (e.g., metals) or damage tissue.
F: Reactive
React with other substances to produce a wide range of negative reactions.
MSDS Material Safety Data Sheets
Minimum standard:
1. Product information
2. Hazardous ingredients list
3. Physical data
4. Fire and explosion information
5. Reactivity information
6. Toxicological data
7. Preventive measures to
8. First aid measures
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9. Preparation information
Hazard Identification Factors
–Human
–Environmental
–Situational
–Ergonomic
Hazard Identification Methods
What are workplace hazards?
Simply put, workplace hazards are any aspect of work that cause health and
safety risks and have the potential to harm.
Some hazards are more likely to be present in some workplaces than others, and
depending on the work that you do, there will be hazards that are more or less
relevant to your business.
What are the most common workplace hazards?
There are many types of workplace hazards, which tend to come under four main
categories:
physical hazards – the most common workplace hazards, including vibration,
noise and slips, trips and falls;
ergonomic hazards – physical factors that harm the musculoskeletal system,
such as repetitive movement, manual handling and poor body positioning;
chemical hazards – any hazardous substance that can cause harm to your
employees;
biological hazards – bacteria and viruses that can cause health effects, such as
hepatitis, HIV/AIDS and Legionnaires disease.
Common health risks
Some of the most common health risks associated with workplace hazards
include:
breathing problems;
skin irritation;
damage to muscles, bones and joints;
hearing damage; reduced wellbeing.
How to prevent workplace hazards
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The best way to protect yourself and your employees from workplace hazards is
to identify and manage them and take reasonable steps to prevent their potential
to harm.
In order to control workplace hazards and eliminate or reduce the risk, you
should take the following steps:
identify the hazard by carrying out a workplace risk assessment;
determine how employees might be at risk;
evaluate the risks;
record and review hazards at least annually, or earlier if something changes.
Consequences, Exposure & Probability (CEP) Risk Assessment Model
The CEP model is a ‘quick and dirty’ Risk Assessment process that can be easily
used in the field
Risk (R) = Consequences x Probability x Exposure or R = C x P x E
Identify specific hazards and assign them a value for each element below.
The higher the number, the greater the Consequences, Probability or Exposure.
Consequences: Scored 1 to 5. Describes the potential loss or consequence or a
mishap. Protective devices or procedures, engineering controls, and PPE are
used to mitigate Consequences.
Should something go wrong, the results are likely to be found in the following
areas:
Injury, occupational illness or death, Property damage or loss, Mission
degradation,
Reduced morale, Adverse publicity, Administrative and/or disciplinary actions
1=none or slight 2=Minimal 3=Significant 4=Major 5=Catastrophic
Probability: Scored 1 to 5. The likelihood that given the Exposure, the projected
consequences will occur. Training, situational awareness, morale and attitude
change are used to mitigate
Probability.
1=Impossible or remote under normal conditions 2=Unlikely under normal
conditions
3=50/50 chance 4=Greater than 50% chance 5=Very likely
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Exposure: Scored 1 to 4. The amount of time, number of cycles, number of
people and resources(equipment) involved.
1=None or below average 2=Average 3=Above average 4=Great
Compute the value of Risk (R = C x E x P) to evaluate the effectiveness of
mission and risk of execution. Values in the Substantial to Very High range need
to be controlled.
Values Risk Level Action
80-100 Very High Discontinue/STOP
60-79 High Immediate Correction
40-59 Substantial Correction Required
20-39 Possible Attention Needed
1-19 Slight Possibly Acceptable
Compute the Risk Value for each hazard identified. Focus attention from highest
values down.
Hazard Control
•Precontact
–addressing any problems, concerns or issues before an incident or accident
happens
•Contact
–discovering ways in which a dangerous situation is prevented from becoming
more dangerous and harming staff
•Post contact
–making available medical and cleanup process and making sure that the event
can’t reoccur
WSIB Work Well Program
http://www.wsib.on.ca/WSIBPortal/faces/WSIBArticlePage?fGUID=83550210063
5000376&_afrLoop=881292056818000&_afrWindowMode=0&_afrWindowId=null
#%40%3F_afrWindowId%3Dnull%26_afrLoop%3D881292056818000%26_afrWi
ndowMode%3D0%26fGUID%3D835502100635000376%26_adf.ctrlstate%3Dcxpojck67_4
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Work well
Our Work well program looks at the health and safety and return-to-work
performance of your workplace to see if we feel you would benefit from our
support. We provide this service because we want to work together with you to
make your workplace one of the safest and healthiest in the province.
Benefits of Work well
Applying health and safety and disability management best practices is worth it,
regardless of the size or type of your business. The time, energy and resources
you put toward having a good health and safety management system and returnto-work program are much less than the costs of accident recovery and the
related effects on your business (i.e., customer service, resource replacement,
WSIB premium costs, reduced production, quality, etc.).
Employers who take part in our program and make improvements to their
workplace health and safety management systems and return-to-work programs
have fewer injuries, illnesses and reduced lost time. These things all lead to
customer service continuity, improved production and better quality, less
downtime, improved employee morale and greater profit.
Also, employers with better injury and lost-time experience records are eligible
for rebates and decreased premiums through their experience rating program
(NEER, MAP, or CAD-7).
How the program works
We review different statistics to find the workplaces who may need support
because they have more frequent lost-time injuries and workers who are off for
longer periods than average. If your workplace is selected for a Work well
Assessment, we will offer this service to you in writing.
Here’s what you can expect:
The Work well Evaluator will contact you to make an appointment for a visit.
Together you will review and discuss your injury/illness and return-to-work
statistics over the last three years.
To do your assessment, we’ll:
Look at your health and safety and return-to-work program documentation (e.g.,
policies, procedures and records);
Watch your workplace’s practices and procedures in action;
Tour your workplace; and Interview staff and management.
Next, we'll work with you to identify priorities that could have immediate effects
based on what we find and develop an implementation plan to help you make
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improvements to your return-to-work program and overall health and safety
management system.
We’ll continue to offer post-implementation support.
We’ll provide you with recommendations for valuable health and safety and
return-to-work resources.
Workplace Violence
Type I: Criminal intent. In this kind of violent incident, the perpetrator has no
legitimate relationship to the business or its employee(s). Rather, the violence is
incidental to another crime, such as robbery, shoplifting, or trespassing. Acts of
terrorism also fall into this category.
Type II: Customer/client. When the violent person has a legitimate relationship
with the business—for example, the person is a customer, client, patient,
student, or inmate—and becomes violent while being served by the business,
violence falls into this category.
Type III: Worker-on-worker. The perpetrator of Type III violence is an employee
or past employee of the business who attacks or threatens other employee(s) or
past employee(s) in the workplace. Worker-on-worker fatalities accounted for
approximately 15 percent of all workplace homicides in 2014.
Type IV: Personal relationship. The perpetrator usually does not have a
relationship with the business but has a personal relationship with the intended
victim. This category includes victims of domestic violence who are assaulted or
threatened while at work and accounted for about 7 percent of all workplace
homicides in 2014.
Workplace Violence Prevention
·
Start a mediation program to resolve employee disputes rather than letting
them simmer.
·
Document any threats and your response to them including terminating
employees who make a threat.
·
Terminate employees with care and caution by involving witnesses or
security for violent employees.
·
Evaluate security systems regularly including alarms, ID keys, passcodes,
cameras and personnel.
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·
Workplace violence policy and prevention program and communicate it to
staff
·
Have leaders take an active role in employee awareness of the plan; make
sure they are alert to warning signs and know how to respond.
·
Provide regular workplace violence and bullying prevention training for all
employees (both new and current), supervisors and managers.
·
Foster a climate of trust and respect among workers and between
employees and management; eradicate a bad culture of bullying or harassment.
·
Look out for and stake steps to reduce negativity and stress in the
workplace, which can precipitate problematic behavior.
·
Identify and screen out potentially violent individuals before hiring while
maintaining compliance with privacy protections and antidiscrimination laws.
·
Establish procedures and avenues for employees to report threats, other
violence or if there’s imminent danger.
The Importance of Training
It’s not enough to have a plan. You must communicate that plan and each of
these strategies to your employees.
Sexual Harassment as a Health & Safety Issue
How Sexual Harassment Affects Employees
When an employee is being subjected to sexual harassment, the workplace
becomes a hostile environment, with the constant threat of physical and/or
emotional harm. This can lead to severe distress for victims, with individuals at
risk of developing mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, PTSD or
panic attacks, as well as the physical symptoms that accompany these disorders.
Low productivity, motivation and morale levels, or high rates of sick leave or
absenteeism, may also be signs that an employee is suffering from some form of
harassment. As well as causing direct and immediate suffering for individuals,
sexual harassment can interfere with work performance, career progression and
even result in people being forced out of their job and income completely.
How Sexual Harassment Impacts Organizations
A workplace environment that fails to properly address the issue of sexual
harassment will be at risk of developing signs of a negative work culture – low
morale, discontent employees and high levels of absenteeism will soon be
reflected in lower productivity and profits.
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Financially, companies can expect to face higher rates of staff turnover, with the
added strains of hiring and training new staff, as well as the expense of sexual
harassment law suits. A sexual harassment law suit will cost your company
significant amounts of money, in addition to damaging your reputation and brand
name
Must haves:
Explicit company policy forbidding sexual harassment and the presence of
procedures for reporting misconduct may or may not be sufficient to offset liability
–employers will be pressured to take a more active role in maintaining a
harassment-free work environment
–employers will feel greater discomfort with intimate relationships that develop
between supervisors and their subordinates because of the legal implications
•may motivate employers to discourage such office relationships
–employers’ intentions to have effective sexual harassment policies are
insufficient
•to avoid liability, the policies must be functional and must work as well in
practice as they do in theory
Emergency Preparedness Cycle
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Human Resources Metrics, Reporting and
Financial Management
The Relationship between Human Resources, Finance & technology
Labour cost per FTE = labour cost
FTE
Labour cost revenue percent = labour costs
revenue
Costs of benefits as a percentage of total labour costs = benefit costs
labour costs
Return on investment = benefit – cost
cost
Information technology encompasses all of the hardware and software, including
networking and communications technologies. The benefits are:
x Operational – processes are more efficient
x Rational – people are more connected
x Transformational – the way work is done has changed
HRIS enables better access and analysis of workforce information that is secure
and confidential.
Federal and provincial legislation regulate employee information in the following
ways:
x What is collected
x How it is stored
x Who has access?
x How long it is retained
o Ontario Ministry of Labour requires an organization to keep an
employee’s name, address, and employment start date for 3 years
following the termination date
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o Canada Revenue Agency requires that payroll date be kept for a
period of 6 years following the employee’s first tax year with the
employer
T YPES AND USES OF HR METRICS
2 categories of HR metrics:
x Human capital metrics – describe characteristics of the workforce (such as
education level, experience, skills inventories, performance scores, tenure
or service)
x HR metrics – describe the efficiency and effectiveness of HR programs;
look at impact, speed and cost
HR audit – a review of HR policies, programs, processes and documentation to
identify opportunities to improve efficiency, effectiveness, customer satisfaction
and legal compliance
Types of metrics:
x
x
x
x
Efficiency metrics – assess whether things are being done ‘right’; focus on
doing things right
Effectiveness metrics – assess whether the ‘right’ things are being done;
focus on doing the right things
Operational metrics – assess the efficiency and effectiveness of programs
and services to its stakeholders; short-term impact
Strategic metrics – assess the linkage between HR programs and
services and the organization’s strategic goals; long-term impact
5C model of HRM impact:
x
x
x
x
x
Compliance
Client satisfaction (clients include employees, managers, customers)
Culture management
Cost control
Contribution (to the overall effectiveness of the organization)
Metrics are used to:
x
x
x
x
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Establish base lines – to compare current practice with past practice
Conduct benchmarking – to compare current practice with best practices
or practices outside the organization
Track trends – including economic, demographic, or workforce trends
Justify strategic decisions regarding talent management
116
x
Measure the impact of HR on the organization’s bottom line
Service Profit Chain:
Engaged employees  engaged customers sustained profit and growth
Metrics enable HR to:
x
x
x
x
Speak the language of business
Put forward convincing business cases
Report empirical evidence
Ultimately become a strategic business partner
HR dashboard – a tool that visually displays important HR metrics
Productivity metrics:
x
x
Absenteeism measures - # of workdays missed due to illness per full time
equivalent (FTE)
Absenteeism = sick days
FTE
Overtime measures – average # of overtime hours worked by each
individual contributor
x
x
Overtime =
overtime hour_________
individual contributor headcount
Human capital return on investment – rate of return for each dollar
invested in employee pay and benefits
Human capital ROI = (revenue – operating costs)
total FTE
Compensation metrics:
x
Compa-ratio for an individual – show where an individual’s current salary
is compared to the midpoint of the salary band; is typically between 80%
and 120% which is 0.8 and 1.2
Compa-ratio =
individual’s salary___
midpoint of salary band
Recruitment metrics:
x
x
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Vacancy rate - the percent of positions being actively recruited for
Vacancy rate = # vacant positions
headcount
External hire rate = __# external hires__
# all positions filled
117
x
x
Average time to fill a position when hiring externally = sum of all external
days to fill
# external recruits
x
Cost of eternal hires = total external hiring costs
# external recruits
x
Quality of external hires by source = average performance ratings of new recruits
after 3 months from each hiring
Recruitment and selection costs:
x
x
x
x
x
x
Advertising
Screening
Interviewing
Orientation
Training
Learning curve
Retention metrics:
x Turnover = (resignations + retirements + involuntary terminations)
headcount
x Executive voluntary turnover rate = (executive resignations + executive
retirements)
executive headcount
x
Succession planning rate = # of succession planning candidates
executive level headcount
Labour relations metrics:
x Grievance incidence = # of open grievances
unionized headcount
x
Percent of grievances closed = # of grievances closed
# of open grievances
x
Arbitrated grievance rate = # of grievances gone to arbitration
# of open grievances
Learning and development metrics
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Cost per FTE = learning and development cost
FTE
x
Cost as a percent of revenue = learning and development cost
Revenue
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x
Cost as a percent of payroll = learning and development cost
labour costs
x
Incidence = # of learning and development events
FTE
x
Duration = # of learning and development hours
FTE
x
Participation = # employees attending learning and development
# of all employees
The Research Process
Why is research, measurement and evaluation important?
x
x
x
x
Organizations are facing unprecedented challenges
They need strategies that align with their culture and business priorities
HR needs to be able to propose evidence-based solutions that can be
measured for effectiveness
HR can become a strategic partner when it can quantify the impact of
strategies on the organization’s success
The research process is used to predict and measure the value of an initiative.
Why is it difficult to measure the value of an HR program?
1. HR initiatives do not occur in a vacuum (there are multiple other factors
that may alter the outcomes)
2. HR initiatives are mostly “qualitative” as opposed to “quantitative”
3. HR professionals are too busy to conduct research or are unaware of how
to do so
Steps in the research process
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Dependent variable – what you are trying to impact / measure
Independent variable – the variable that has an impact on the dependent variable
Research Design
4 common research designs are:
1. Surveys
2. Experimental
3. Qualitative
4. Existing research
Surveys are used to assess change or create change. They are used to:
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Pinpoint areas of concern
Observe long-term trends
Monitor program impact
Provide input for decisions
Communicate
Perform organization behaviour research
Assist with change and improvement
Show care and interest in employees
Important considerations when conducting surveys include:
x Population sample
x Survey questions
x Data collection method
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x
x
x
x
Data coding
Data analysis
Report format
Feedback mechanism to stakeholders
Sampling involves deciding who and how many people should participate. Types
of sampling include:
x
x
x
Random sampling – a group of employees chosen at random from the
whole organization or population
Stratified sampling – a group of employees who represent the
organization in some way (i.e., gender, department, location); ensures fair
and equal representation as the whole organization
Sampling error – sample is insufficient to reflect the entire population
Types of questions:
x
Structured questions
x
o Easy to analyze
o Limited in scope
o No room for interpretation
Open ended questions
o Difficult to analyze
o Not restrictive in scope
o More subjective
Questions should:
x
x
x
x
x
Be simply worded
Be applicable to all potential
Respondents
Not be leading or loaded
Have a single focus
When using structure questions, it is common to use a Likert Scale (ex. strongly
agree, agree, neutral, disagree, and strongly disagree).
Questions should be designed to avoid:
x
Acquiescence response styles
o When a person proves a positive response to every question
o To avoid, word some questions positively and some negatively in
order to change the scale
x
Social desirability
o When a person gives the answer, they think you want to hear
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o To avoid, use a forced choice behaviorally anchored check-list
Methods for survey distribution include:
x
x
x
x
Hard-copy mail
E-mail
Over the internet
Automated telephone
Important survey distribution considerations include:
x
x
x
x
Whether the survey will be anonymous or confidential
The timing and logistics of distribution and collection
The ease of response
Cost of implementation
The purpose of experimental design is to find relationship between one or more
variables.
Experimental research is conducted in:
x
x
A laboratory – where other variables are controlled
The field – like a workplace where other variables can affect the outcome
of the research
Experimental research designs include:
x
x
x
Pre-test only designs
Pre-test/post-test designs
Pre-test, control group, post-test designs
Qualitative research mainly involves observation and interviews such as:
x
x
x
x
One-on-one interviews
Group interviews
Focus group interviews designed to gather feedback
Debriefing interviews
Reviewing existing research provides a wealth of knowledge and information for
developing HR strategies based on past practice and best practices.
Developing Research Measures
Criterion measures – ensure we are measuring what is important (i.e., how the
competencies related to a job when conducting interview assessments)
Criterion relevance – ensures the criteria are relevant to what we are trying to
predict (i.e., all the right competencies are assessed)
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Criterion deficiency – occurs when we haven’t assessed all the necessary criteria
(i.e., an important competency is missing from our assessment)
Criterion contamination – occurs when we measure things that are irrelevant
4 types of measurement scales:
1. Nominal scales – a list of variables that have no “value” (e.g., department
name)
2. Ordinal scales – a list of variables that have an order (e.g., what
employees like best or least or what they want the most)
3. Interval scales – a scale that tells us the mathematical difference between
two responses (e.g., Likert scale)
4. Ratio scales – show the relationship between two variables (e.g., sales
per employee)
Statistics
Validity – ensures the measure is accurately assessing what is supposed to
measure
Reliability – ensures the consistency of the measure
Types of validity includes:
1. Content validity – ensures the measure accurately measures what it is
supposed to measure
2. Criterion-related validity – ensures that what is being measured is relevant
3. Predictive validity – ensures that the measure can predict the dependent
variable
4. Construct validity – measures abstract constructs such as IQ and
personality type
5. Concurrent validity – when it can be shown
Types of reliability include:
1. Test-retest reliability – when the same person achieves the same score
when tested twice using the same test
2. Split-half reliability/internal consistency reliability – when the score a
person achieves on one-half of the test is the same as the score, they
receive on the other half of the test
3. Inter-rater reliability – ensures reliability across raters
Measures of central tendency
x
x
x
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Mean (also known as an average)
Mode – the response given by most people; most frequent
Median – the middle response (also known as the 50th percentile)
123
Measures of variability -standard deviation is the metric for illustrating the degree
of difference in responses
Measures of association
x
x
Correlations show the relationship between two variables
Expressed as a decimal number; positive perfect correlation is 1, negative
perfect correlation is -1
Regression Analysis
x Uses correlations to predict an outcome
x Most often used in job evaluation to predict job value in terms of a
competitive market salary
Analytical Tools
Types of tools:
x
Affinity diagrams/mind maps – enable us to look at groups of related
issues as a whole
x
Cause and effect diagrams/fish bone diagrams – are used to identify a
problem, sorting causes into 4 categories (machinery, methods, materials,
people)
x
Gantt charts – chart activities against dates
x
Critical path – the minimum time between start and finish of a project
x
Delphi technique – brainstorming using a questionnaire (continuously
send back to the group for feedback)
x
Nominal group technique – when voting follows a brainstorming activity
x
SWOT analysis – examining strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, or
threats to an organization
x
Utility analysis – assessing the dollar value of an initiative in terms of
increased productivity or performance
Human Resources Audits5
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Concept of Human Resource Audit
The word “audit” comes from the Latin verb audire , which means, to listen.
Listening implies an attempt to know the state of the affairs as they exist and as
they are expected/ promised to exist. Auditing as a formal process is rooted in
this feature of listening. Consequently, it is a diagnostic tool to gauge not only the
current status of things but also the gaps between the current status and the
desired status in the area that is being audited.
Auditing has been a routine exercise in the area of finance, especially because it
is a statutory obligation. However, in case of Human Resource, there is no legal
binding to adopt auditing. Some of the companies nevertheless prefer to have
Human Resource audits.
Like any audit, the Human Resource Audit is also a systematic formal process,
which is designed to examine the strategies, policies, procedures,
documentation, structure, systems and practices with respect to the
organization’s human resource management. It systematically and scientifically
assesses the strengths, limitations, and developmental needs of the existing
human resources from the larger point of view of enhancing organizational
performance.
The human resource audit is based on the premise that human resource
processes are dynamic and must continually be redirected and revitalized to
remain responsive to the ever-changing needs. Human Resource Audits are not
routine practices aimed at problem solving. Instead of directly solving problems,
HR audits, like financial audits, help in providing insights into possible causes for
current and future problems.
The findings of these audits aid decision making in the organization and are
usually internal documents that need not necessarily be shared with the public.
Moreover, unlike Financial Audits that are routine, regulated and standardized,
Human Resource Audits are non-routine and may be designed to cater to the
unique needs of the organization at a particular point in time. These are in fact,
studies of an unusual nature. The manner in which the Audit is conducted could
vary from self-directed surveys to interventions by outside consultants.
An HR Audit is like an annual health check-up, it plays a vital role in instilling a
sense of confidence in the Management and the HR functions of an organization.
HR Audit Definition:
Human Resource Audit means the systematic verification of job analysis and
design, recruitment and selection, orientation and placement, training and
development, performance appraisal and job evaluation, employee and
executive remuneration, motivation and morale, participative management,
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communication, welfare and social security, safety and health, industrial
relations, trade unionism, and disputes and their resolution. HR audit is very
much useful to achieve the organizational goal and also is a vital tool which helps
to assess the effectiveness of HR functions of an organization.
An HR audit also goes beyond looking at the hiring process into areas like
employee retention, budgeting, training, employee compensation,
management/employee relations and virtually any process or practice within the
company that affects its people.
A periodic Human Resource audit can qualify its effectiveness within an
organization. Human Resource audits may accomplish a variety of objectives,
such as ensuring legal compliance; helping maintain or improve a competitive
advantage; establishing efficient documentation and technology practices; and
identifying strengths and weaknesses in training, communications and other
employment practices.
Human Resource auditing is something that many companies do annually, just
as they audit their financial information. This gives them an accounting of their
workforce and the efficiency with which the organization as an entity deals with
its people, from recruiting to firing. Human Resource auditing can be likened to a
person going to the doctor for a general check-up to stay well. The process
allows a company to get a general idea of where it stands so it can better correct
any potential problems and plan for the future.
When it comes to physical health, prevention of problems is far better than
waiting until a problem arises and trying to cure it. The same holds true for
human resources auditing. Preventing problems is much easier than trying to fix
them after the fact. Good Human Resource planning and auditing can help
prevent those problems, and save companies money and difficulties.
Human Resource Accounting benefits the company ascertain how much
Investment it has made on its Employees and how much return it can expect
from this Investment.
What is Human Resource Auditing?
The American Accounting Association’s Committee on Human Resource
Accounting (1973) has defined Human Resource Accounting as
“the process of identifying and measuring data about human resources and
communicating this information to interested parties”.
HRA, thus, not only involves measurement of all the costs/ investments
associated with the recruitment, placement, training and development of
employees, but also the quantification of the economic value of the people in an
organization.
Flamholtz (1971) too has offered a similar definition for HRA. They define HRA
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as “the measurement and reporting of the cost and value of people in
organizational resources”.
Who should conduct the audit?
The team that is responsible for the audit should represent a cross-section of the
organization’s staff, including line staff, middle and upper management, and
those responsible for HR functions.
Need and Purpose of Human Resource Auditing
The commonly understood audits are the established and regular accounting
audits carried out in accordance with specific statutory regulations. However, in
the case of human resource audits, there is no legal obligation, but enlightened
managements have voluntarily accepted its usefulness depending upon the
circumstances. The following circumstances may be cited as examples:
x
x
x
x
felt concern by top management,
compulsions of the external forces necessitating a situational audit,
business changing significantly influenced by international business
decisions affecting human resource management, and
an urge on the part of human resource management professionals
towards advancement of the practices and systems.
It is necessary to take a look at these and other questions. Human Resource
audit is highly useful for the purpose
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Does the organization regularly forecast the supply of and demand for
employees in various categories?
Do job analyses exist for all positions in the organization?
Are all potential sources of recruitment identified and evaluated?
Are measurable selection criteria developed and used while filling up
jobs?
Do effective training and development programs exist?
Is there a performance evaluation system that helps assess past and
potential performance?
Is the remuneration program designed to motivate employees?
Is the plant unionized?
Does a grievance procedure exist?
Does the organization have high quality of work life?
Does the HRM practice contribute to organizational effectiveness?
Does the management underestimate the capacity of HRM to contribute to
organizational effectiveness?
Approaches to Human Resources Audit
The following approaches are adopted for purpose of evaluation:
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1. Comparative approach
2. Outside authority approach
3. Statistical approach
4. Compliance approach
5. Management by objectives (MBO) approach
Comparative approach
In this, the auditors identify Competitor Company as the model. The results of
their organization are compared with that Company/ industry.
Outside authority approach
In this, the auditors use standards set by an outside consultant as benchmark for
comparison of own results.
Statistical approach
In this, Statistical measures are performance is developed considering the
company’s existing information.
Compliance approach
In this, auditors review past actions to calculate whether those activities comply
with legal requirements and industry policies and procedures.
Management by objectives (MBO) approach
This approach creates specific goals, against which performance can be
measured, to arrive at final decision about organization’s actual performance with
the set objectives.
Sample Human Resource Audit question
1. How effective is the selection process in ensuring that people are placed
in appropriate positions? Explain.
2. How effective is the appraisal process in accurately assessing
performance? Explain.
3. How effective are rewards (financial and non-financial) in driving
performance? Explain.
4. How effective are the training, development, and career planning activities
in driving performance? Explain.
5. How effective is the appraisal process in differentiating performance levels
for justifying reward allocation decisions? Explain.
6. How effective is the appraisal process in identifying developmental needs
of individuals to guide training, development, and career planning?
Explain.
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7. How effective are the training, development, and career planning activities
in preparing people for selection and placement into new positions in the
organization? Explain.
8. Overall, how effectively are the five components integrated and mutually
supportive? Explain.
Organization and Structure
x
x
x
x
x
Is there an organizational chart?
Does the chart include both employees’ names and position titles?
Does the chart show reporting relationships?
Is the chart updated as changes occur?
As the needs of the organization change, does its structure change?
HR Department Organization
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
Is the department sufficiently staffed for the industry and the size of
organization?
Is the budget in line with other organizations of similar size and industry?
Has the company been involved in any employment lawsuits?
If there have been suits, what were the outcomes?
Is there a job description for each position in the department?
To what position does the top HR position report?
Does the HR Department have a mission statement?
Is the HR mission statement consistent with the vision and mission of the
organization?
Functions of the Human Resource Department
1. For what functions is the HR Department responsible?
Payroll
Benefits
Salary
administration
Recruitment
Training
Labor relations
Safety
Strategic planning
Others
2. Should the HR Department be responsible for all of the functions listed above?
3. Should the HR Department be responsible for functions that are not listed
above?
Human Resources Information Systems5
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An HRIS, the abbreviation for Human Resources Information System, is a
system that lets you keep track of all your employees and information about
them. It is usually done in a database or, more often, in a series of inter-related
databases.
HRIS is the system which seeks to merge the activities associated with human
resource management (HRM) and information technology (IT) into one common
database through the use of enterprise resource planning (ERP) software. The
goal of HRIS is to merge the different parts of human resources, including
payroll, labor productivity, and benefit management into a less capital-intensive
system than the mainframes used to manage activities in the past. Also called
Human Resource Management Systems (HRMS).
Human Resources Information Systems (HRIS) provide software functions,
procedures and processes to manage employees. 2020Software.com ranks the
following HR products as best: Sage ABRAHRMS, PerfectHR, PeopleSoft,
Oracle E-Business Suite HRM, and UltiPro HR. These products are developed
by fiscally stable corporations that provide excellent support and long-term
development strategies.
The HRIS Specialist examines and verifies employee information processed by
automated HR systems. They compile statistical information and prepare reports
relating to payroll, recruiting, position classification, compensation, training, equal
opportunity employment, or affirmative action. They also provide assistance with
HRIS maintenance, troubleshoot user technical problems, and provide training.
Improvements in Technology relating to microcomputers and software have also
had a major impact on the use of information for managing human resources.
Traditionally computers had been used in human resources only for
compensation and benefits-for example, administering payroll. However, new
advances in microchips have made it possible to store large quantities of data on
personnel computers and to perform statistical analyses that were once only
possible with large mainframe computers. A Human Resource Information
System (HRIS) is a system used to acquire, store, manipulate, analyze, retrieve,
and distribute information related to the company’s human resources. From the
manager’s perspective, an HRIS can be used to support strategic decision
making, to avoid litigation, to evaluate programs or policies, or to support daily
operating concerns.
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Definition: A Human Resources Information System, is a system that lets you
keep track of all your employees and information about them. It is usually done in
a database or, more often, in a series of inter-related databases.
These systems include the employee name and contact information and all or
some of the following:
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
x
department,
job title,
grade,
salary,
salary history,
position history,
supervisor,
training completed,
special qualifications,
ethnicity,
date of birth,
disabilities,
veteran’s status,
visa status,
benefits selected,
and more
A computerized HRIS is an information system that makes use of computer and
monitors control and influences the movement of human being from the time they
indicate their intention to join an organization till they separate from it after
joining. It consists of the following sub-system.
Recruitment Information: It includes the placement data bank advertisement
module, general requirement and training requirement data.
Personnel Information: It includes employee information such as transfer
monitoring and increment and promotion details.
Manpower Planning Information: It seeks to provide information that could assist
human resource mobilization, career planning, succession planning and input for
skill development.
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Training Information: It provides information for designing course material,
arrange for need base training and cost analysis of training etc.
Health Information System: This subsystem provides information for
maintenance of health-related activities of the employees.
Appraisal Information: It deals with the performance appraisal and merit rating
information which serves as input for promotion, increment and secession and
career planning etc.
Payroll System: It consists of information concerning wages, salaries incentives,
allowance, perquisite deduction for provident fund etc. Data on compensation
pattern of competitor is also included in it.
Personnel Statistics System: It is a bank of historic and current data used for
various type of analyst.
Typically, the better The Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) provide
overall:
Management of all employee information.
Reporting and analysis of employee information.
Company-related documents such as employee handbooks, emergency
evacuation procedures, and safety guidelines.
Benefits administration including enrollment, status changes, and personal
information updating.
Complete integration with payroll and other company financial software and
accounting systems.
Applicant tracking and resume management.
A human resource Information system can be as large or as small as is
necessary and may contain one or two modules or up-to twenty or so. Hundreds
of HRIS software packages are being marketed for both mainframe and
microcomputers. A great many decisions need to be made in the course of
adopting and implementing an HRIS. The specific needs of the organization
should dictate the type of human resource Information system chosen. Any
project as potentially expensive, complex, and time consuming as the addition or
upgrading of an HRIS requires careful analysis and planning.
The HRIS that most effectively serves companies tracks:
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attendance and paid time off [PTO] use,
pay raises and history,
pay grades and positions held,
performance development plans,
training received,
disciplinary action received,
personal employee information, and occasionally,
management and key employee succession plans,
high potential employee identification, and
applicant tracking, interviewing, and selection.
An effective HRIS provides information on just about anything the company
needs to track and analyze about employees, former employees, and applicants.
Your company will need to select a Human Resources Information System and
customize it to meet your needs.
With an appropriate HRIS, Human Resources staff enables employees to do
their own benefits updates and address changes, thus freeing HR staff for more
strategic functions. Additionally, data necessary for employee management,
knowledge development, career growth and development, and equal treatment is
facilitated. Finally, managers can access the information they need to legally,
ethically, and effectively support the success of their reporting employees.
In adopting a HRIS following issues need to be addressed:
Careful need assessment
What type and size of HRIS should be adopted?
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Whether to develop software or buy and use off the shelf software
Should the HRIS be implemented in total or in stages.
A sound HRIS can offer the following advantages:
Clear definitions of goal.
Reduction in the amount and cost of stored human resource data.
Availability of timely and accurate information about human assets.
Development of performance standard for the human resource division
More meaningful career planning and counselling at all levels.
Individual development through linkage between performance reward and job
training.
High capability to quickly and effectively solve problems.
Implementation of training programs based on knowledge of organizational
needs.
Ability to respond to ever changing statutory and another environment
Status for the human resource functions due to its capability for strategic
planning with the total organization.
Modules in Human Resource Management Systems
1.Payroll Module
Pay process by gathering data on employee:
Time and attendance
Deductions and taxes
Periodic pay checks
Employee tax reports
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2.Time and attendance Module
Standardized time and work-related efforts
Provides flexibility on:
Data collection methods
Labor distribution capabilities
Data analysis features
Cost analysis and efficiency metrics
3.Benefits& Administration Module
Administer and track employee participation in benefits programs
Encompass insurance, compensation, profit sharing and retirement
4.HR Management Module
The system records:
Basic demographic and address data
Selection, training and development
Skills management
Compensation planning records
5.Talent \ Management Systems
Personnel usage within an organization
Identifying potential applicants
Recruiting through:
Company-facing listings
Recruiting sites publications that market to both recruiters and applicants
6.Training Module
Administer employee training and development efforts
Allows HR to track education, qualifications and skills of the employee
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Outlining training courses and materials available to develop skills
7.Employee Self-Service Module
Allows employee to query HR related data
Perform HR transactions over the system (attendance record)
Allows supervisors to approve OT requests from their subordinates
Benefits of Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS)
Become strategic partners with top management
Be more efficient and provide better information for decision making
Increased use of web technology will leave HR for more time for strategic
planning
Enables employees to focus on their administration work
Strategic Architecture enables HR professionals to act as competent manager in
arranging people to their respective positions
Contribute to overall business performance by:
Supporting task of data storage and retrieval
Serving as primary admin support tools
Reporting, statistics and program monitoring
What is the need for HRIS?
Human resource information system refers to the system of gathering,
classifying, processing, recording and dismantling the information required for
efficient and effective management of human resource in an organization. Need
for such a system arises due to several factor.
Organizations that employ a very large number of people, it becomes necessary
to develop employee database for taking personnel issues.
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In a geographically dispersed company, every office requires timely and accurate
information for manpower management. If information is stored in a multiple
location cost and inaccuracy will increase.
Modern day compensation package is complex consisting of many allowance
and deductions etc. A centrally available data can become useful for taking
timely decisions.
Organizations have to comply with several laws of the land. A computerized
information system would store and retrieve data quickly and correctly enabling
the organization to comply with statutory requirements.
With the help of computerization personnel information system, employer record
and file can be integrated and retrieved for cross-referencing and forecasting.
The system should be oriented towards decision making rather than towards
record keeping.
Necessary flexibility for adaptation to changes taking place in the environment
can be built into mechanized information system.
In the field of human resource management, information system has been limited
to payroll preparation, job status and work history report of new hires, termination
and insurance payment. Gradually however progressive companies have started
computerized information system in the area of collective bargaining, employee
manual, training, performance appraisal etc. With sophisticated software,
computer-based information system can be used in almost all the functions of
human resource management.
HRIS software:
Abra Suite: for human resources and payroll management
ABS (Atlas Business Solutions): General Information, Wages information,
emergency information, Reminders, Evaluators, Notes customer information,
Documents and photos, Separation information.
CORT: HRMS: applicant tracking, Attendance tracking and calendars, Wage
information, Skills tracking, Reports-to information, Status tracking, Job history
tracking, Cost center tracking, Reviews and tracking, Mass update and change
tools etc.
HRSOFT: Identify and track senior managers, assess management skills and
talents, generate a wide range of reports, resumes, employee profiles,
replacement tables and succession analysis reports, identify individuals for
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promotion, skills shortages, unexpected vacancy, discover talent deep,
Competency Management, career development, align succession plans etc.
Human Resource Microsystems: sophisticated data collection and reporting,
flexible spending accounts, compensation, employment history, time off, EEO,
qualifications, Applicant/Requisition Tracking, Position Control/Succession
Planning, Training Administration, Organization Charts, HRIS-Pro Net
(employee/managerial self-service), HR Automation (eNotification and
eScheduler), and Performance Pro (performance management)
ORACLE- HRMS: Oracle iRecruitment, Oracle Self-Service Human Resources,
Payroll, HR Intelligence, Oracle Learning Management, Oracle Time and Labor
PEOPLESOFT: Enterprise eRecruit, Enterprise Resume Processing, Enterprise
Services Procurement, Workforce Planning, Warehouse
SAP HR: Human Capital Management (HCM) for Business, All-in-One: Rapid
HR,
SPECTRUM HR: iVantage® and HRVantage®. iVantage is a Web-based HRIS
product designed for organizations with up to 10,000 employees.
VANTAGE: HRA: 'Point-and-Click' report writing, internal Messaging System for
leaving reminders to yourself, to someone else or to everyone using HRA - very
useful for Benefit Applications, Disciplinary Actions, Special Events, Employee
Summary Screen for Basic, leave (Absenteeism) and Salary/Position History,
skills & training module, Leave Tracking Module.
Why to Implement Human Resource Information Software (HRIS) System?
Running a business will generate a lot of information, both related to the
business and related to your employees. You need to be able to harness and
secure this information in a system for a couple of different reasons. First, you
don't want confidential information about your organization or employees getting
into the wrong hands. Additionally, a human resource information software
(HRIS) system is a wise choice because it will reduce the amount of paper
generated, organize your data, streamline processes, and help your company's
bottom line.
So, why is HR information important? Your employees are your biggest assethaving a system in which to contain their private personnel information, safely
and securely is critical. You have worked hard to become an employer of choicedon't ruin that credibility by mishandling confidential information.
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Making a Business Case for the HRIS System
The HRIS system is an investment to an organization. An HRIS system is more
than just a storage and organizational tool to contain confidential information
about your organization's employees. The HRIS system needs to be viewed from
a financial perspective. For instance, an HR manager or department usually has
to justify their expenditures and if HR's functions are not tracked properly, you
could be losing money. These include:
Providing benefits for ineligible employees or their dependents.
Cost of training new employees.
Documenting why people leave the organization because the cost of
terminations is high, and if you can track why people leave, then changes can
ensue.
Not properly recording vacation or sick leave taken. Time and attendance create
a loss of productivity, so having a way to track it to ensure there is not abuse of
the system or employees taking time they don't have will help to reduce the risk
of losing productivity and, ultimately, revenue.
Reduce potential legal expenses in an employee dispute. Accurate and complete
records can help build your case or diffuse a situation before it even gets in the
courts.
Other justifications for a HRIS system can include savings in paper and supply
costs and savings in time spent on human resource tasks. By implementing an
effective HRIS system, the organization is well on their way to increasing
confidentiality of their employees' information.
Critical Analysis
Although almost all HR managers understand the importance of HRIS, the
general perception is that the organization can do without its implantation. Hence
only large companies have started using HRIS to complement its HR activities.
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But HRIS would be very critical for organizations in the near future. This is
because of a number of reasons.
Large amount of data and information to be processed.
Project based work environment.
Employee empowerment.
Increase of knowledge workers & associated information.
Learning organization
The primary reason for delay in HRIS implementation in organizations is because
of the fear psychosis created by "technology" and "IT" in the minds of senior
management. They may not be very tech savvy and fear being left out.
But trends are changing for the better as more and more organizations realize
the importance of IT and technology. Major HRIS providers are concentrating on
the small and middle range organizations as well as large organizations for their
products. They are also coming up with very specific software modules, which
would cater to any of their HR needs. SAP and Peoplesoft provide HR modules
within their business intelligence software. Hence HRIS would soon be an
integral part of HR activities in all organization.
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Human Capital
Any company that wants to achieve great success needs to pay close attention
to human capital management. The employees of a company are the biggest
asset it has and by keeping that asset strong, the company has the best chance
of success. A company that pays little attention to its employees will end up with
a team of employees who are unmotivated and unproductive. Human capital
management can be the difference between a company with a winning team of
employees all pulling together toward a shared goal, and a demoralized group
who are providing little overall value.5
It is important that each and every member of the team is considered as an
individual, each with their own set of strengths and weaknesses. Human capital
management assumes that any lack of knowledge amongst the employees of a
company is purely down to lack of training or teaching, rather than looking upon it
as a fault of an individual or a team.
.
Human capital management provides a strategic approach to managing staff at a
company. It differs from traditional HR practices as it is concerned less with
administrative tasks and procedures and focuses more on getting the most out of
staff for a happy and productive team. Companies who currently do not have any
type of human capital management program in place should think carefully about
implementing one. The employees benefit greatly from human capital
management which in turn means the company benefits greatly too.
The approach to managing and organizing employees through a human capital
management program is done in a number of ways. In essence, the approach
should provide a fully inclusive strategy from even before a new employee is
hired right through to their exit. Another important part of human capital
management is succession planning and talent management. Being able to
identify key members of staff as possible future managers can make the
decision-making process for current senior management more straight forward,
and allow for greater ease with forward planning.
Human Capital Management Defined
Human capital management (HCM) is concerned with obtaining, analyzing and
reporting on data that informs the direction of value-adding people management,
strategic investment and operational decisions at corporate level and at the level
of front-line management. The defining characteristic of HCM is this use of
metrics to guide an approach to managing people that regards them as assets
and emphasizes that competitive advantage is achieved by strategic investments
in those assets through employee engagement and retention, talent
management and learning and development programs.
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The Accounting for People Task Force Report (2003) stated that HCM involves
the systematic analysis, measurement and evaluation of how people policies and
practices create value. The report defined HCM as 'an approach to people
manage
ment that treats it a
s a high-level strategic issue rather than an
operational matter "to be left to the HR people" '. The Task Force expressed the
view that HCM 'has been under-exploited as a way of gaining competitive edge'.
As John Sunderland, Task Force member and Executive Chairman of Cadbury
Schweppes pic commented: 'An organization's success is the product of its
people's competence. That link between people and performance should be
made
holders.'
visible and available to all stake
Nalbantian el al (2004) emphasize the measurement aspect of HCM. They define
human capital as, 'The stock of accumulated knowledge, skills, experience,
creativity and other relevant workforce attributes' and suggest that human capital
management involves 'putting into place the metrics to measure the value of
these attributes and using that knowledge to effectively manage the
organization'. HCM is defined by Kearns (2005b) as the total development of
human
tional value.'
potential
Heexpressed
believes that
as 'HCM
organiza
is
about creating value through people' and that it is 'a people development
philosophy, but the only development that means anything is that which is
translated into value'.
Human Capital and HR
Human capital is not solely the people in organizations— it is what those people
bring and contribute to organizational success. Human capital is the collective
value of the capabilities, knowledge, skills, life experiences, and motivation of an
organizational workforce.
Sometimes human capital is called intellectual capital toing,
reflect the think
knowledge, creativity, and decision making that people in organizations
contribute. For example, firms with high intellectual capital may have technical
and research employees who create new biomedical devices, formulate
prod
ucts
that can be patented, or develop new software for specialized uses. All
these
tal. organizational contributions illustrate the potential value of human capi
A few years ago, a Nobel prize-winning economist, Gary Becker, expanded the
view of human capital by emphasizing that countries managing human capital
better arc more likely to have better economic results.'
The importance of human capital in organizations can be seen in various ways.
One is sheer costs. In some industries, such as the restaurant industry,
employee-related expenditures may exceed 60% of total operating costs. With
such significant levels comes an increasing need to measure the value of human
capital and how it is changing through HR metrics.
Human Capital Management & Human Resources Management
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In the opinion of Mayo (2001) the essential difference between HCM and HRM is
that the former treats people as assets while the latter treats them as costs.
Kearns (2005b) believes that in HCM 'people are value adders, not overheads'
while in HRM 'people are (treated as) a significant cost and should be managed
accordingly'. According to Kearns, in HRM 'the HR team is seen as a support
service to the line' - HR is based around the function and the HR team performs
'a distinct and separate role from other functions'. Conversely, 'HCM is clearly
seen and respected as an equal business partner at senior levels' and is 'holistic,
organization-wide and systems-based' as well as being strategic and concerned
with adding value.
The claim that in HRM employees are treated as costs is not supported by the
descriptions of the concept of HRM produced by American writers such as Beer
et at (1984). In one of the seminal texts on human resource management, they
emphasized the need for: 'a longer-term perspective in managing people and
consideration of people as potential assets rather than merely a variable cost'.
Fombrun et al (1984), in the other seminal text, quite explicitly presented workers
as a key resource that managers use to achieve competitive advantage for their
companies. Grant (1991) lists the main characteristics of human resources in his
general classification of a firm's potential resources as follows:
The training and expertise of employees determines the skills available to the
firm.
The adaptability of employees determines the strategic flexibility of the firm.
The commitment and loyalty of employees determine the firm's ability to
main
tain competitive advantage.
Cappelli and Singh (1992) propose that competitive advantage arises from firmspecific, valuable resources that are difficult to imitate, and stress 'the role of
human resource policies in the creation of valuable, firm-specific skills'. Other
writers confirmed this view.
The HRM argument is that people... are not to be seen as a cost, but as an asset
in which to invest, so adding to their inherent value. (Torrington, 1989, emphasis
in the original)
Of course, all these commentators are writing about HRM as a belief system, not
about how it works in practice. The almost universal replacement of the term
'personnel management' with HR or HRM does not mean that everyone with the
job title of HR director or manager is basing their approach on the HRM
philosophy. Guest commented in 1991 that HRM was 'all hype and hope'.
A survey conducted by Caldwell (2004) provided some support to this view by
establishing that the five most important HR policy areas identified by
respondents were also the five in which the least progress had been made. For
example, while 89 per cent of respondents said the most important HR policy
was 'managing people as assets which are fundamental to the competitive
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advantage of the organization', only 37 per cent stated that they had made any
progress in implementing it.
However, research conducted by Hoque and Moon (2001) found that there were
significant differences between the activities of those described as HR specialists
and those described as personnel specialists. For example, workplace-level
strategic plans are more likely to emphasize employee development in
workplaces with an HR specialist rather than a personnel specialist, and HR
specialists are more likely to be involved in the development of strategic plans
than are personnel specialists.
Both HRM in its proper sense and HCM as defined above treat people as assets.
Although, as William Scott-Jackson, Director of the Centre for Applied HR
Research at Oxford Brookes University argues (Oracle, 2005), You can't simply
treat people as assets, because that depersonalizes them and leads to the
danger that they are viewed in purely financial terms, which does little for allimportant engagement.'
However, there is more to both HRM and HCM than simply treating people as
assets. Each of them also focuses on the importance of adopting an integrated
and strategic approach to managing people, which is the concern of all the
stakeholders in an organization, not just the people management function. So
how does the concept of HCM reinforce or add to the concept of HRM? The
answers to that question are that HCM: draws attention to the importance of what
Kearns (2005b) calls 'management through measurement', the aim being to
establish a clear line of sight between HR interventions and organizational
success;
strengthens the HRM belief that people are assets rather than costs;
focuses attention on the need to base HRM strategies and processes on the
requirement to create value through people and thus further the achievement of
organizational goals;
reinforces the need to be strategic;
emphasizes the role of HR specialists as business partners;
provides guidance on what to measure and how to measure;
underlines the importance of using the measurements to prove that superior
people management is delivering superior results and to indicate the direction in
which HR strategy needs to go.
The concept of HCM complements and strengthens the concept of HRM. It does
not replace it. Both HCM and HRM can be regarded as vital components in the
process of people management.
The choices they make include how much discretionary behaviour they are
prepared to exercise in carrying out their role (discretionary behaviour refers to
the discretion people at work can exercise about the way they do their job and
the amount of effort, care, innovation and productive behaviour they display).
They can also choose whether or not to remain with the organization.
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Bibliography
1 Human Resources Professional Association (HRPA)
https://www.hrpa.ca/
https://www.hrpa.ca/Documents/Designations/Professional-CompetencyFramework.pdf
2 Erik van Vulpenhttps://www.analyticsinhr.com/blog/14-hr-metrics-examples/
3 Dr. John P. Kotter, the 8-Step Process for Leading Change
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Change_management
4 Edwards Deming https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PDCA
5 Job Analysis Methods http://www.whatishumanresource.com/job-analysismethods Whatishumanresource.com
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/strategic-human-resources-management
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/Human-Resource-audit
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/human-resource-information-systems
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/human-capital-management
6 Employee Retention Strategies http://www.whatishumanresource.com/
7 HR Demand Forecasting - FACTORS AFFECTING - Techniques
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/hr-demand-forecasting
8 HR Supply Forecasting - succession analysis - Markov Analysis
http://www.whatishumanresource.com/hr-supply-forecasting
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9 SanketDash,Aug 30, 2017 https://www.quora.com/How-is-linear-programmingapplied-to-human-resources
11 Johnson, Rose. "Skills Inventory and Internal Recruitment Methods." Small
Business - Chron.com, http://smallbusiness.chron.com/skills-inventory-internalrecruitment-methods-30688.html. Accessed 11 October 2018.
12 Performance Management vs Performance
Appraisalhttp://www.whatishumanresource.com/performance-management-vsperformance-appraisal
13 Will Guillaume Foussier | August 9, 2017 https://talentculture.com/how-toidentify-and-retain-high-potential-employees/
14 Donald Kirkpatrick 1994
https://www.mindtools.com/pages/article/kirkpatrick.htm
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Exam Question
Without Answers
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Knowledge Exam Questions
Health & Safety
1) False statement on workplace wellness efforts in Canadian businesses:
a) Health-promotion programs have been slower to develop in Canadian
companies because of our publ ic health care system
b) 64 percent of Canadian companies offer some form of wellness program
c) Canadian companies assume less of the cost for illness, traditionally there has been less of
a financial impetus for them to develop employee health initiatives
d) More than 95 percent of Canadian organizations offered their employees
eight or more wellness programs to help support work and life balance
2) An illustration of engineering controls is:
a) The use of a flexible hose to direct exhaust fumes out of an automobile
garage
b) The construction of a paint spray booth with high powered fans to remove
hazardous paint fumes immedia tely from the area
c) Job rotation and scheduling adjus tments
d) A & B only
3) Except than the foregoing, the following questions mightbe asked while
researching human factors:
a)What time of day did the accident occur
b)What was the worker doing at the time of the accident
c) Was the work being performed according to procedures?
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d) How much experience did the employee have with respect to the particular operation?
4) Except for the above, the minimal legal parts of an occupational health and safety
programme consist of the following:
a) Management commitment and OH&S meetings
b) Search and rescue training
raining
c)Written OH&S policies, procedures, and standards
d) Existence of incident/accident investigations
5) The following parties are involved inOH&S:
a) Community agencies and schools
b) Government and unions
c) Employers and employees
d) All of the above
6) On March 31, 2004, Bill C-45, sometimes known as the "Westray Bill," became
law. save for the following, this legislation means the following:
a) Amends the Criminal Code of Canada to hold corporations and their
stakeholders accountable for work-related acts thatare deemed criminally
negligent
b) That the ramifications for employers failing to provide appropriate health and safety
training have become more seve re in Canada
c) That provincial workers’ compensation acts play a minor role in ensuring
workplaces are safe
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d) Employers bear a large responsibility to ensure Canadian workers are
educated about hazards in the workplace and are able to refuse work deemed unsafe
7) In 2003, Bill C-45 (commonly known as the Westray Bill) established in
__________law an obligation to ensure the health and safety of all workers.
a) Federal
b) Provincial
c) Criminal
d) All of the above
8) The following are steps in the process of hazard control, excep t for:
a) Contact control
b) Pre-contact control
c) Post contact
d) Hierarchy of control
9) Other than the followingmethods for identifying hazards:
a) A safety committee identifies situations that may be unhealthy and unsafefor workers
b)Worker’s report
rt to the super visor or employer
c) Classify hazard identification terms
d) Review first aid records
10) Excluded from atypical health and safety orientation checklist for
employees are:
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a) Transportation of dangerous goods l egislation
b) Supervisor name and telephone number
c) Worker right to refuse unsafe work and procedure for doing so
d) Worker responsibility to report hazards and procedure f or doing so
11) A preventive and integrated approach to stress management in the
workplace excludes the following:
a) Using an integrative team of healthcare professionals
b) Focusing on tertiary interventions
c) Focusing on organizational primary interventions
d) Focusing on individual primary interventions
12) Except for the following,the following are true regarding hearing protection necessary
in noisy environments:
a) Selection criteria for hearing protection include worker hearing ability,
communication demands, comfort, physical constraints of the job, as well as
individual daily noise exposure
b) Each employee should be individually fitted with hearing protectors and
trained in their use, care and main tenance
c) Employers must consider an employees need for specialty products
d) Hearing protection does not need to be replaced until it wears out
13) This statement is false:
a) Claims management, disability management and absence managementis the employers
responsibility
b) Employers “fund”the entire Workers Compensation claims management
system
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c) Absence management is a program to control absences due to “disability” with an
emphasis on controlling unexplained or excessive absenteeism
d) The process of effectively dealing with employees who become disabled is referredto as
“disability management”
14) After a disaster, organisations can assisttheir workers by providing a variety of
services, such as:
a) Daycare and first aid training
b) Crisis counseling, flexible work hours and salary continuation
c) Post information and maps
d) Emergency contact names and numbers
15) Exceptions to the best methods for limiting vibration include the following:
a) Allow time to acclimatize
b) Avoid the source by revising the task
c) Add dampeningdevices
d) Decrease worker exposure time
16) Accidents typically happen from direct contact wi th a kind of energy that exceedsthe
body's or structure's resistance. The energies can include:
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Kinetic
d) All of the above
17) Excluded from the advantages of accident inquiry are the following:
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a) Identifies contributing causes
b) Determines direct causes
c) Reduce lost time injuries
d) Promotes safety awareness among employees
18) If local authorities order you to vacate your house, you should keep the
following easy suggestions in mind, with the exception of:
a) Use travel routes specified by local authorities
b) Mark locations of downed power lines and keep doors unl ocked
c) Wear long-sleeved shirts, long pants and sturdy shoes
d) Take your emergency supplies kit
19) Which aspect of health and safety can be outsourced?
a)Wellness programs.
b) Testing.
c) Program delivery.
d) Benefits.
20) Exceptthan the foregoing, the following questions mightbe asked while
evaluating situational factors:
a)Was the machine operating in a satisfac tory manner
b) Did some unsafeacts contribute to the event
c)Were all the control and display posi tions working and ergonomically sound
d) What was the site or location of the accident
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21) Training in occupational health and safety begins with and is primarily the
duty of:
a) The human resource department
b) The organization
c) The employee
d) The immediate supervisor or manager
22) Federal and provincial legislation grants workers the following rights:
a) The right to participate, the right to rehabilitation, and the right to refuse
unsafe work
b) The right to know, right to rehabilitation, and the right to refuse unsafe work
c) The right to know, the right to participate and the right to refuse unsafe work
d) The right to know, the right to compensation for injury and the righ t to refuse unsafe
work
23) Among the cold-related disorders brought on by thermal stress are:
a) Frostbite
b) Trench foot
c) Hypothermia
d) All of the above
24) Except for the foregoing, the HRM has the following obligations when
dealing with HIV-positive workers or other em ployees with biological illnesses:
a) Outline employment obligations
b) Maintain the privacy of the individual
c) Provide or refer to medical support
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d) Provide information and education to all employees aboutall employee
biological illnesses
25) Other than the foregoing, the following are examples of dangers:
a) Security and violence
b) Equipment and tools
c) Hygiene issues and human factors
d) All of the above
26) When workers detect harmful working circumstances, the law empowers
them to:
a) Refuse to perform their work
b) Contact the police to criminally charge management
c) Inform the media
d) Both A & B
27) Employee assistance programmes (EAP) consist of:
a) Programs designed to help employees with problems that may interfere with worker
productivity, including alcohol and other drug abuse, emotional or
behavioural problems among family members, and financial or legal problems
b) A combination of diagnostic, educational, and behavioural modification
activities designed to support the attainment and maintenance of positive
health
c) Programs designed to guide managers experiencing financial or legal
problems
d) Management counselling and coaching programs
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28) The following are examples of administrative controls:
a) Job rotation to help reduce the overalleffect of a hazard that is increasedby repetition or
continued exposure
b) Required breaks to reduce extended exposure to a specific hazard
c) Reduction in the amount of time that a worker is required to do a repetitive
task
d) All of the above
29) Employers and human resource managers should consider the following
advice in light of the legal duty for due diligence and the experience of
businesses that have dealt with workplace violence.
a) Ensure that employees are trained in how to respond to actual or threatened violence
b) Have a written policy prohibiting viole nce
c) Take all threats of violence seriously
d) All of the above
30) The following are some guidelines for conducting an interview during an
inquiry.
a) Let the individual recall the event in their own way
b) Interview witnesses separately
c) Record information in a timely fashion
d) All of the above
31) Besides the foregoing, administrative controls usethe following:
a) Training of employees
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b) Personal protective equipment
c) Rotation of employees
d) Environmental sampling
32) The hazardous materials information system in the workplace mandates:
a) Suppliers do not label all hazardous products
b) Hazardous materials may not be distributed without government inspection
c) Suppliers provide a material safety data sheet on each hazardous product they produce
d) Chemicals do not necessarily require safe handling instructions
33) Except for the following,the employer is liable for the following:
a) Ensure that workers are adequately trained
b) Provide a safe and healthy workplace
c) Establish and maintain a comprehensive occupational health and safety
program, including a written health and safety policy and an incident
investigation procedure
d) Labeling chemicals in use atthe workplace
34) Except for the following,the following are methods in which HR managers helpto
eliminate the stigma associated with mental illness inthe workplace:
a) Provide correct information to employees
b) Examining their own minds to find where they might have hidden
misconceptions about mental illness
c) Ensure employee mental illness is diagnosed and treated early
d) Stigma is overplayed, and our society is open-minded about mental illness
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35) To analyzethe efficacy of their health-related efforts, organisations might
undertake assessment studies. Among the characteristics of comprehensive
assessment studies are the following:
a) Consideration of the extent to which employees participate in the program
b) Pre-intervention and post-intervention assessments of relevant variables
c) Reliable and valid measures of relevant individual and organizational
outcome variables
d) All of the above
36) Except for the above, investigation delays may result in the following:
a) Changes at the accident site
b) Memory loss
c) Delayed legal reporting
d) Removal of important evidence
37) Which of the following is not mandated by health and safety laws?
a)Workers’ right to refuse unsafe work
b) Using material data sheets
c) Appointment of joint health and safety committee or worker representative
d) Release of employee health data
38) Except for the foregoing, an Incident Investigation Report contains the
following:
a) Lists the injured person(s)
b)Where the incident occurred
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c) Describes the nature of injury/injuries
d) Risk assessment
39) The legal term for the now-obsolete approach to accident prevention that
assumed employees accepted all the typical hazards inherent to a specific
employment was:
a) Accident proneness
b) Assumption of risk
c) Due diligence
d) Worker carelessness assumption
40) The following are not components of an effective employer-sponsored
health promotion effort:
a) Management training to raise awareness of occupa tional health issues and
identification
b) Employee education for heal th promotion or disease prevention
c) EAP services, redesigned benefi t programs to provide easy access to
interventions
d) Cafeteria benefitplans
41) What law guarantees that workers across Canada are aware of the possible dangers of
chemicals in the workplace and are familiar with emergency
protocols for cleaning up a spill?
a) MSDS
b) CSTD
c) WHMIS
d) HPWS
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42) A worker voiced worry to her boss that her computer's emissions were
causing her headaches. She asked pe rmission from her boss to quit working
immediately. The supervisor demand ed, however, that she continue working.
The supervisor's conduct was in violation of:
a) The employee’s right to report unsafe conditions
b) The employee’s right to refuse work
c) The employee’s right to participate in health and safety programs
d) The employee’s right to a safe workplace
43) Health and safety legal duties of the employer include:
a) To provide personal protective equipment and proper tools and equipment
b) To ensure a safe workplace by providing inf ormation, education, trainingand supervision
c) To have WCAct and OH&S regulation readily available to workers
d) All of the above
44) Not included in organizational stress management solutions are the
following:
a) Relaxation training and meditation
b) Cognitive-behavioural skills training
c) Increasing social support
d) Nutritional and weight loss programs
45) Control of exposures to non -ionizing radiation often excludes the following:
a) Separation
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b) Isolation
c) Protective equipment
d) Extensive specialized training
46) Safety climate is characterized by:
a) The extent to which employees follow safety rules and procedures
b) Shared perceptions of the importance of safety in the workplace
c) The extent to which employees go beyond compliance and work to actively improve
safety
d) Organizational leadership thatis actively focused on and promotes
occupational health and safety
47) Programming for workplace health promotion may be divided into three
categories:
a) Health practices, wellness policies and education
b) Screening, education, and behavioural change
c) Screening, monitoring and evaluation
d) Education, psychological and physical
48) The key features of an EAP and WHP programme are as follows:
a) Management support and an on-site program coordinator
b) A clear, written policy regarding assistance
c) Supervisory training, employee education and union supp ort
d) All of the above
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49) During any type of emergency:
a) Light matches, candles or turn on electrical switches to increase light
b) Turn off your radio or television
c) Close windows and get everyone outside the building quickly
d) Follow the advice of local emergency officials
50) Except for the following,the following are essential information concerning physical
agents in the workplace:
a) Exposure to some physical agen ts may be inherent
b) Physical agents are present in unexpected places
c) Legislative standards are min imum tolerances
d) Issues are complex, and solutions have to be evaluated for the risks they
introduce to the environment
51) Adaptation to thermal stress depends on the following physical parameters with the
exception of:
a) Experience
b) Age
c) Sex
d) Physical fitness
52) The two most frequent hazards are:
a) Improper technique
b) Prolonged exposure
c) Fatality
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d) A & B only
53) Exceptions to the orientation regulations for young workers include the
following:
a)13 specific items must be included in training/orientation, if applicable
b) Employers must provide training and orientation before the young or new
worker begins work
c) Employee orientation and training can occur after a young worker begins
his/her job
d) Employers must provide additional training if required or requested
54) Why are young workers more susceptible to workplace injuries than older
workers?
a) They are reluctant to ask questions for fear of ap pearing stupid and are
assigned physically demanding or dangerous tasks
b) They receive little or no safety training or supervision and have to use
equipment or machinery designed for adul ts
c) They are unaware of their rights and responsibilities
d) All of the above
55) Employers are required to promptly inform the Workers' Compensation Board of any
accident that:
a) Involved amajor structural failure
b) Resulted in serious injury to or the death of a worker
c) Involved the major release of a hazardous substance
d) All of the above
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56) Except for the above, employer-sponsored health campaigns may include
the following:
a) Hypertension screening
b) Smoking cessation
c) Nutrition, weight control, and physical fitness programs
d) Flexible schedules
57) Substances thatare not readily absorbed by the skin may cause:
a) Airborne respirable contaminants
b) A localized irritation such as dermatitis which may cause the skin to become
white and dry
c) Interactions between various chemicals and biological groups
d) Toxic effects
58) A conventional approach to occupational he alth and safety, the three E's
stress the following:
a) Engineering, education and enforcement
b) Engineering, empowerment and enforcement
c) Empowerment, education and enforcement
d) Ergonomics, education and enforcement
59) You may qualify as a residential employer if you employ the following
workers with the exception of:
a) Nannies, companions, or other person al caregivers
b) Childcare workers to care for children before and after school for an average of<15 hours
per week
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c) Domestic workers such as household cleaners
d) Construction or repair workers or contractors
60) The following are ways an orga nisation may foster a healthy safety culture:
a) Continually review, learn and improve on health and safety initiatives
b) Motivate and reward safe behaviour
c) Have proactive and enacted safety policies and procedures
d) All of the above
61) Except for the following,the following are rules for executing a reenactment:
a) A qualified observer is necessary
b) Analysts should use a show and tell approach
c) Shut down every energy source and lock them out
d) Carefully act out the events
62) The standard steps of a workplace health promotion (WHP) programme are
as follows:
a) Counselling concerning findings and recommendations about personal
health promotion
b) Physical or psychological assessment
c) Referral to in-house or community-based resources
d) All of the above
63) The following are features of effective workplace safety programmes:
a) Existence of regular inspection programs and risk assessments
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b) Management commitment and a functioning joint occupational health and safety
committee or representative group
c) Clearly documented, communicated and enforced accountability for
managers, supervisors, workers, con tractors, etc
d) All of the above
64) Examples of engineering con trols include:
a) Tasks that are redundant or may duplicate work
b) Physical arrangements, designs or alterations of workstations, equipment,
materials, production facilities or other aspects of physical work environment
c) Personal protective equipment
d) Provision, use and scheduling of work activities and resources in workplace
65) Substitution is a hazard control mea sure that evaluates if the hazardous job ortask can
be:
a) Employ other materials or methods
b)Be eliminated
c) Develop different work practices to reduce exposure to hazard
d) B & C only
66) Except for the above, your duties as an employee include the following:
a) Know and follow health and safety requirements affecting your job
b) Ensure that you have first aid training
c) If you don’t know how to do something safely, ask for training before you
begin work
d) Work safely, and encourage your co-workers to do the same
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67) The following technologicaal aspects have been identified as potential
psychosocial stressors:
a) Isolation
b) Control
c) Privacy
d) All of the above
68) The following are exceptions to the general qualities that make solvents
effective and hazardous:
a) High vapor pressure – can create an inhalation hazard
b) Low surface tension – the higher the wetting factor the more absorbent the
chemical will be into the skin
c) Low boiling point – the lower the boili ng point the greater the risk of vaporsin the air
d) Low volatility – the less the chemical evaporation, the less the risk of health &
fire
69) Except for the above, the aims of an OH&S programme should incorporate
the following criteria:
a) Motivate, educate, and train all levels of management and employee
groups in the recognition, reporting, and correction of hazards in the workplace
b) Obtain and maintain support for the program at all levels ofthe organization
c) Provide controls for worker exposure to potential haza rds through the use of
work practices, engineering controls, and personal protective equipment
d) All of the above
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70) Under Occupational Health and Safety legislation in Canada, employees
have three basic rights:
a) right to receive training, right to human dignity, and right to work less than48 hours per
work week
b) right to know, right to training, and right to work free of harassment.
c) right to participate, right to know, and right to refuse unsafe work.
d) right to refuse unsafe work, right to training, right to safety pa y for dangerous work
71) Consider the following regarding the process of identifying risks and
conducting risk assessments:
a) Part of a continuous process of observa tion, control and safety improvement
b) A onetime activity
c) An end in itself
d) A hazard analysis
72) Employers must comply with OH&S regulations, which includes the following
broadresponsibilities:
a) Provide a health and safety policy
b) Establish an occupational health and safety program
c) Provide instruction and training to supervisors and workers
d) All of the above
73) Elimination of a hazard is a control measure that determines if the job or task
involvingthe hazard may be:
a) Substituted
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b) Done differently to avoid the hazard
c) Separated from the worker
d) Restricted to certain workers
74) Except for the following,the following are generic categories of behaviours that
contribute to safe job performance.
a) Proper use of hazard control systems in the workplace
b) Following accepted hygiene practices
c) Development of safe work habits and increased awareness and recognition of workplace
hazards
d) All of the above
75) The agency is the variable most closely related with the cause of an
accident. Except for the following instances of agents:
a) Overexertion
b) Lifting devices
c) Electrical equipment
d) Chemicals
76) The stages below will assist you in developing a personal or family
emergency plan, except for:
a) Ensure a family member has emergency managemen t and first aid training
b) Create an emergency communications plan
c) Establish a meeting place
d) Assemble an emergency supplies kit
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77) Several organizational objectives, except those listed below, may be
pertinent to health and safety training activities.
a) Incidence of “close calls”
b) Accident, injury, and fatality rates
c) WHMIS training
d) Absenteeism
eeism and turnover
78) Premiums for Worker's Compensation are performance-based for firms that:
a) Prevent accidents they can pay less with a premium reduction to 50%
b) Have accidents they pay more with a premium increased risk up to 100%
c) Have accidents their premiums remain the same as their industry classification
d) A & B only
79) Except for the above, the ultimate purpose of an emergency response is to
prepare for the following:
a) Contain disasters
b) Protect and evacuate staff
c) Improve safety training
d) Inform the community
80) In order to work safely, persons must have at least the following criteria,
excluding:
a) The motivation to work safely
b) The knowledge necessary to perform their jobs
c) The opportunity to work safely: the organization supports safe work
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d) Understanding of safety policies and procedures
81) Exceptions to supervisor obligations include the following:
a) Report serious incidents to the WCB
b) Instruct workers in safe work procedures
c) Ensure that only authorized, adequately trained workers operate tools and
equipment or use hazardous chemicals
d) Ensure that equipment and materials are properly handled, stored, and
maintained
82) The following is accurate about stress:
a) Stress events happen primarily in the work environment
b) Is an objectively verifiable event that occurs outside of the individual
c) Is an event appraised by individuals as taxing, exceeding their coping
resources and negatively affecting their health
d) Is an individual’s negative emotional response to or evaluation of stressors
83) Major categories of causes of stress in the workplace may include all ofthe following
except:
a) Ergonomics
b)Workplace relationships
c) Demands of the job
d) Employees control over how they work
84) Other than the following environmental conditions, the risk of an accident occurringis
increased by the following:
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a) Noise
b) Light
c) Vibration
d) All of the above
85) The notion of wellbeing at work arose as an occupa tional health and safety
concernthroughout the 1990s. This tendency is mostly driven by the desire to:
a) Reduce rising health care costs
b) Employee morale
c) Improve employee safety
d) Improve our public healthcare system
86) The exceptions for Personal Pro tective Equipment(PPE) are as follows:
a) No single protective device, such as a facemask, w ill adequately addressall conditions for
all workers
b) Because inhalation is the most common and hazardous route of entry, the
most commonly used protective device is a respirator
c) Workers mustbe trained in WHMIS
d) Should be used as a last hazard control choice
87) The purpose of the Workers' Compensation Board is to:
a) Provide fair compensation to replace workers’ loss of wages
b) Promote the prevention of workplace injury, illness, and disease
c) Rehabilitate workers who are injured
d) All of the above
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88) The following are true about consumption:
a) Ingested solvents maybe absorbed into the bloodstream and carried to
“target organs” where toxic effects can be produced
b)Many solvents enter through the mouth and digestive system
c) Chemicals ingested are not as critical a hazard as chemicals that enter
through the skin or lungs
d) All of the above
89) The majority of chemical exposure results from inhaling airborne pollutants. Except
for the following, the following are inhalation defence levels:
a) Interior of the nasal passage
b) Nose
c) Tiny hairs or cilia and mucus
d) Mouth
90) A human resource manager can establish a hearing conservation
programme with the exception ofthe following components:
a) Random hearing tests
b) Noise measurement and engineered noise control
c) Annual program review
d) Education and training
91) There are two primary approaches to conducting investigations:
a) Interviews and surveys
b) Observation and interviews
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c) Meetings and walk-throughs
d) Reenactments and surveys
92) The exceptions are not natural risks.
a) Earthquake
b) Blackout
c) Flood
d) Drought
93) Except for the following,the following statements regarding engineering
controls are false:
a) All employees must be properly trained in the identification and handling of
dangerous substances
b) The best way to reduce the risk of handling solvents is to find alternatives
c) Spills mustbe properly contained, and employees exposed to the hazard must wear
personal protective equipmentt
d) Training must be ongoing given that new products are introduced into the
workplace
94) After completing a WHMIS training programme, the employee should
comprehend the objective and origin of WHMIS and be able to perform the
tasks below:
a) Read WHMIS supplier and workplace labels
b) Identify SHMIS hazard symbols
c) Read and apply the applicable information on a Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
d) All of the above
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95) Accident reports also include the acciden t type, which attempts to classify
the nature of the accident. Excep t for the following, the following are examples:
a) Caught in or between
b) Chemicals
c) Struck by an object
d) Fall to a lower level
96) The following are criteria for developing an effective workplace emergency
response plan, with the exception of:
a) Coordinate your plan with the local emergency management office
b) Ensure that evacuation routes and emergency exist are wide enough to
accommodate the number of evacuating people and unobstructed at all times
c) Conduct search and rescue drills
d) Establish specific evacuation procedures
97) Risks can be mitigated or reduced by recognising and employing the
following strategies:
a) The path it travels
b) The source of the hazard
c) The employee or recipient of the hazard
d) All of the above
98) The two categories of sexual harassment include:
a) Hostile environment and verbal or physical conduct
b) Sexual coercion and “quid pro quo”
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c) Sexual coercion and hostile environment
d) “Quid pro quo” and verbal or physical conduct
99) The obligation for emergency management starts with:
a) Provincial and territorial governments
b) Government of Canada
c) Municipal and community governments
d) Individuals and their community
100) Chemical substances are:
a) Hazards created by exposure to biological materials
b) Hazards created by one or more chemicals
c) Diseases such as asbestosis and silicosis
d) Spills and burns related to various exposures
101) The hierarchy of hazard control measures is as follows:
a) Elimination, substitution, engineering, administrative and personal protective
equipment
b) Elimination, engineering, administrative, personal protective equipmentand
substitution
c) Personal protective equipment, elimination, substitution, engineering and
administrative
d) Engineering, elimination, substitution, administrative and personal protective
equipment
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102) The safe use and handling of ch emical and biological agents may only be secured by the
active use of the following control
trol procedures, with the
exception of:
a) Good housekeeping
b) Engineering controls
c) Medical surveillance
d) Biosafety levels
103) Except where noted, the following are examples of health promotion
programmes:
a) On-site physical fitness centre
b) Smoking cessation
c) Lunch-time Weight Watchers program
d) Family care benefits
104) The objective of stress management programmes is to inform employees on the causes
and effects of stress and to give all of the following except:
a) Teach relaxation and coping skills
b) Provide easy access to employee assistance programs
c) Manage physiological symptoms
d) Manage psychological symptoms
105) Workers Compensation Boards were established in order to:
a) Give workers the right to compensation for injuries sustained on the job
b) Give employers immunity from lawsuits f iled by injured workers
c) Provide no fault insurance
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d) All of the above
106) Personal Protective Equipment(PPE):
a) Are a good substitute for engineering or adminis trative controls
b) Can only be utilized if all other previous control measures have been shown
not to be ‘practicable'
c) Is a high-level hazard control measure
d) All of the above
107) Which of the following is not one of your employee rights?
a) To participate in workplace health and safety committees and activities
b) To be provided with equipment and safety gear required to do the job safely
c) To receive supervision to make sure you work wi thout putting yourself at
undue risk
d) None of the above
108) Training and supplies in first aid are regulated by workplace health and
safety laws. The precise criteria vary with the exception of the following:
a) The number ofworkers in the workplace
b) Emergency plan
c) The nature (and danger) of the work
d) The distance to the nearest medical facility
109) Orientations for young workers should cover all ofthe following except:
a) Tell workers that it is their duty to refuse the perform work if they believe i tmay be
dangerous to themselves or others
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b) Provide workers with written contact information for their supervisors
c) Explain how to conduct an investigation
d) Inform workers about any known hazards that apply to them and tell them
how to deal safely with these hazards
110) Which of the following statemen ts is false?
a) If a release of a potentially hazardous substance occurs outside the building, or if the
potentially hazardous substance is released into the sewer, storm system, water, or air, it
falls under the jurisdiction of the authority enforcing
environmental legislation
b) The Hazardous Products Act defines a hazardous product and controls its use by requiring
disclosure of the substance(s) and its concentration in a
manufactured product
c) A corporation and its managementcannotbe criminally prosecuted if found negligent in
providing an appropriate standard of occupa tional health and
safety in the workplace, resulting in an employee injury or death
d) Due diligence means taking all reasonable care to protect the well-being of
employees or co-workers
111) Researchers focus on three distinct areas of s tress-related fairness
evaluations:
a) Fairness of outcomes, fairness of processes and fa irness of interpersonal
treatment
b) Distributive justice, procedural justice and fairness of outcomes
c) Interactional justice, procedural justice and fairness of processes
d) Fairness of interpersonal treatment, interactional justice and fairness of
outcomes
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112) Everything except the following is true about Thermodynamic Theory.
a) In hot climates, heat will flow from the body
b) Temperature flows from the high point to the low point
c) In cold climates, heat will flow from the body
d) In hot climates, heat will be absorbed by the body
113) The exceptions regarding noise and hearing are:
a)We hear all sound
b) The human hearing range of frequencies is approximately 20to 20,000 Hz
c) The standards for the measurement of noise use the unit of a decibel
d) The human hearing response is conditional on frequency, duration and
loudness
114) RSI symptoms include the following:
a) Pain
b)Weakness in the limb
c) Lack of endurance and clumsiness
d) All of the above
115) The following risk assessment calculation examines the likelihood that a danger
may result in an injury following the occurrence of the hazard:
a) Exposure
b) Probability
c) Consequences
d) Identification
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116) In addition to humanitarian considerations, on what grounds should
occupational dangers be controlled?
a) Legal
b) Ergonomic
c) Productivity
d) All of the above
117) How should one undertake a risk assessment?
a) Different models can work bes t dependent on the hazards or nature of the job
operations
b) There is no “one single”method
c) Qualitative approaches are a preferred method
d) A & B only
118) The followingstatements are true regarding penetration:
a) A knife or needle may be contaminated wi th a hazardous chemical
b) Penetration occurs whenthe skin is cut or punctured by any sharp object
c) Workers such as doctors, nurses, can eas ily be punctured by a hypodermic needle
d) All of the above
119) The necessity for HRM to comprehend a nd implement successful OH&S
policies and programmes is based on the following:
a) Decreasing costs associated with work-related injuries and illnesses
b) Increasing concerns for industrial-sector workers
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c) The public’s decreasing tolerance for work-related hazards
d) All of the above
120) HR managers may assist workers in mana ging stress by addressing all ofthe above
factors except for:
a) Career progression
b) Counselling support
c) Role ambiguity
d) Work – family conflict
121) Except for the above, the followingare me thods an organisation might
develop a favourable safety climate:
a) Involve all levels of management and employees in safety initiatives
b) Have enacted safety policies and procedures
c) Include safety-related information in the communication of productionrelated goals
d) Write safety manuals
122) For persons to work securely, the following three requirements mustbe met:
a) motivation x opportunity
b) knowledge x skills x abilities
c) opportunity x knowledge
d) ability x motivation x opportunity
123) The issue of how control measures should be arranged or ranked is known
as the hierarchy of control. The following comprises the first level of importance:
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a) Engineering control
b) Substitution
c) Administrative control
d) Elimination
124) Except for the following, emergency response training for an organization’s personnel
should cover the following topics:
a) Purchasing of emergency and first aid equipment
b) Individual roles and responsibilities
c) Potential treats, hazards, and protective actions
d) Notification, warning and communications procedures
125) The following are examples of physical agents with the exception of:
a) Chemicals
b)Vibration
c) Radiation
d) Thermal stress
126) Risk is characterized as:
a) A thing or condition that may expose a person to an injury or occupa tional
disease
b) The first undesired event that could start the accident sequence
c) Is the likelihood that the hazard will lead to injury or the probability of harm
actually occurring
d) A systematic examination of all aspects of the work undertak en to consider what could
cause injury or harm
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127) Exceptions to the supervisor's legal health and safety obligations include
a) Ensure all health and safety activities are coordina ted
b) Know hazards in their area and ensure workers are madeaware of hazards
c) Ensure health and safety of their workers
d) Be knowledgeable about the Workers’ Compensation Act
Organizational Effectiveness
128) Which of the following is false regarding the conduct of a compensation
survey?
a) Surveying about 10 to 15 percent of jobs is sufficient to calibrate the system.
b) Collecting information about wage and salary levels provide an adequate
basis for comparison.
c) Although costly to use on a signif icantscale, the personal interview provides the bestquality information.
d) An essential foundation for any survey is key job ma tching.
129) Which of the following componen ts serves as the foundation for a ranked list of all
jobs within the job evaluation system?
a) total points
b) compensable factors
c) factor degrees
d) factor weightings
130) Which of the following is an employer-desired employee behavior?
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a) organizational citizenship
b) job satisfaction
c) motivation
d) organizational identification
131) Which of the following is essen tial to ensuring the gain-sharing plan's
viability?
a)deciding the split
b) the bonus formula
c) employee participation
d) a valid historical baseline
132) Which of the following is NOT a s trategy for growth?
a) Incremental growth.
b) International growth.
c) Mergers and acquisitions.
d) Bankruptcy.
133) Which step in developing a point-based job evaluation system allows you to quantify
the degree to which each job factor is presen t?
a) weighting the factors
b) defining the factors
c) scaling the factors
d) testing the system
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134) Which of the following is NOT a mer ger necessity?
a) Needs of CEO or managing team.
b) Financial benefits.
c) Strategic benefits.
d) Competitive benefits.
135) What effect does work motivation have?
a) increased job effort
b) decreased work stress
c) cooperative behaviour
d) decreased absenteeism
136) What kind of contract may be violated during a downsizing?
a) Psychological.
b) Common law.
c) EmotionalIntelligence.
d) Social Responsibility.
137) What final step must be taken before survey data can be utilized?
a) determine dispersion rates
b) calculate Compa-ratio
c) age the data
d) adjust job hierarchy to match market data
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138) What are the two most important aspects of each job in an organisation?
a) Job description; job specification
b) Compensation; rank or position
c) Key success factors; organization chart
d) Methods employed,time measurement
139) What significant error have orga nisations made in strategic planning?
a) Failing to incorporate ideas from employees during planning phases.
b) Failing to align HR policies to the external environment.
c) Failing to realize the benefits of strategic planning prior to the process.
d) Failing to include high level managers so that there is no buy-in.
140) What is the replacement supply equivalent when calculating net HR
needs?
a) External HR supply.
b) Hiring to replaceall normal losses.
c) External supply requirements.
d) Hiring to increase overall staffing.
141) You feel overworked, dislike your job, and would quit tomorrow if you could. What
employee disposition are you displaying?
a) motivation
b) job satisfaction
c) organizational identification
d) membership
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142) What is one advantage that external coaches bring to an organization?
a) They reconnect the individual with personal values or missions.
b) They change skills and attitudes for long-term sustainable results.
c) They provide clarity and focus to accelerate the achievement of goals.
d) They compress learning time to optimize skills by building competencies faster through
one-on-one coaching.
143) Which of the following is a developmental function of performance
reviews?
a) help employees to better understand employer expectations
b) monitor overall quality of performance in the firm
c) demonstrate managers care about good employee performance
d) encourage supervisors to commit to performance appraisal process
144) You are angry and resentful because you believe your contribution to the
department is greater than that of the other clerks and you are not receiving
the compensation you deserve. What is causing your dissatisfaction with your
reward?
a) perceived inequity
b) violation of the psychological contract
c) lack of procedural justice
d) discrimination
145) Which of the following is NOT a reason for the slow growth of interest in HR
measurement?
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a) Attempts to position HR as a strategic partner.
b) Business improvement efforts across organizations.
c) The need for objective indicators of success to accompany the analysis of HR activities.
d) HR resists measuring the things that are important.
146) When the organisation of work in the company is re-thought, re-designed,
and re-tooled, the activity is termed
a) implementation of total quality control
b) workflow redesign
c) organizational renovation.
d) business process re-engineering
147) Job design may directly affectall of the following EXCEPTemployee
a) performance.
b) competencies.
c) job satisfaction.
d) physical health
148) Which of the following variables defines the organization's specific product or service
offerings?
a) control system
b) task environment
c) corporate strategy
d) domain
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149) Which of the following is not a transformation process resource?
a) human
b) physical
c) financial
d) consumers
150) Customers were required to come to stores and wait in line, often for out-of-stock
items, in order to do business wi th a struggling company. Its rivals offered
both online and in-store customer service. What was the MAIN reason for this
company's failure?
a) It made people stand in line for a significantperiod of time and this angered many
customers.
b) It located its stores in low-income areas and customers refused to go into
these locations.
c) It became bankrupt and had liquidity problems in keeping the stores going.
d) It was out of touch with reality and did not develop a strategy to match the
external environment.
151) Which of the following forecas ting methods describes impact analysis?
a) A process in which the forecasts and judgmen ts of a selected group of
experts are solicited and summarized in an attempt to determine the future of
employment.
b) A process in which a selected group of experts work independently to
analyze historical data.
c) A forecasting method in which pas t trends are analyzed by a panel of
experts who then predict the probability of future events.
d) A forecasting method that extrapolates from historical organizational i
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152) What are human resources depa rtments doing to become more strategic?
a) Restructuring.
b) Downsizing.
c) Acquisitions
d) Mergers.
153) What is the second step in the process of HR forecasting?
a) Identify organizational goals, objectives, and plans.
b) Develop HR plans and programs to ensure that the right people are in the
right place.
c) Assess in-house skills and other internal supply characteristics.
d) Determine overall demand requir ements for personnel.
154) What are the three most important components of a functional job
analysis?
a) Knowledge, skills, abilities.
b) People, data, things.
c) Intellectual capital, economic capital, human capital.
d) Work output, relationships with others, mental processes.
155) What is the term for the capacity to respond to diverse demands in a
dynamically competitive environment?
a) Adaptability.
b) Flexibility.
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c) Uncertainty.
d) Responsiveness.
156) What is one advantage that external coaches provide to individuals?
a) They give new perspectives on business experience and practices.
b) They retain high performers with incentives other than financial rewards.
c) They reconnect the individual with personal values or missions.
d) They develop key employees for succession planning.
157) Which of the following is a qualitative research technique used to predict
future HR data?
a) Delphi technique.
b) Trend analysis.
c) Impact analysis.
d) Scenario planning.
158) What type of rewards are in teresting jobs, a wide variety of skill sets,
feedback, and autonomy?
a) incentives
b) extrinsic
c) indirect pay
d) intrinsic
159) Which of the following plans allows individuals to be more self-directed and supports
the behaviours required by firms wi th high involvement?
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a) market pricing
b) skill-based
c) job evaluation
d) competency-based
160) According to the succession managemen t process, what are the two
approaches of identifying the characteristics of successful m anagers?
a) Experience-based; salary-based.
b) Succession-based; replacement-based.
c) Job-based; competency-based.
d) Knowledge-based; skills-based.
161) Which of the following job characteristics is not generally linked to
employee motivation and satisfaction?
a) Task identity
b) Skill variety
c) Task significance
d) Task complexity
162) Why is job analysis such an integral part of HR planning?
a) Because all positions must be accounted for in HR planning through a job analysis.
b) Because a job is a group of rela ted duties, tasks and behaviours that are required by
HR planning.
c) Because redundancy and duplication of work need to be determined
through a job analysis to activate the HR plan.
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d) Because if all work is sub-divided in an organization, it is easily determined
who is doing what.
163) Which of the following is NOT an argumen t for measuring the effectiveness of HRM?
a) Data will be available to support resource allocations.
b) Labour costs are most often a firm’s largest controllable cost.
c) Audits will bring HR closer to the line functions of the organization.
d) Employees are not able to appreciate the sophisticated forms of
measurement.
164) What is one effect of technological factors on an organisation?
a) Elimination of lower-level jobs and layers of managemen t.
b) Greater work-life balance for all employees.
c) Fewer options for scheduling work due to the optimality alr eady achieved.
d) Training is minimized due to increasing technology.
165) are most affected by technology, foreign outsourcing, and flexibility in work
arrangement
a) Jobs that are routine
b) Craft-type unionized jobs
c) High-technology jobs
d) Jobs requiring high levels of communication
166) What is the first step involved in succession manag ement?
a) Align Succession ManagementPlans with Strategy.
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b) Identify High-Potential Employees.
c) Identify the Skills and Competencies Needed to Meet Strategic Objectives
d) Provide Developmental Opportunities and Experiences
167) Amanda is annoyed. Her supervisor has informed her that she will now
receive feedback reports on the quality and quan tity of her production and
that she would be personally accountable for reviewing and fixing her own
work. Previously, her boss had p erformed this action. Amanda believes she is
entitled to a raise since she will be "doing her boss's work." Amanda is suffering job
insecurity.
a) enrichment.
b) rotation
c) enlargement.
d) enhancement
168) Why should internal applicants be considered for an internal position?
a) Employees are somewhat informed ofthe new knowledge they would need to possess in
the new position.
b) Employees are usually less expensive to hire because they do not know their market
value.
c) Employees are already socialized to the norms, rules and procedures of the organization.
d) Employees are aware of the low unemployment statistics and are choosing not to look
for work elsewhere.
169) What is the conceptthat refers to the relationship between outputs and
inputs?
a) Efficiency.
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b) Effectiveness.
c) Evaluation.
d) Environment.
170) What is the term for the process of ensuring that skilled employee pools are trained
and available to meet the organization's strategic objectives?
a) Replacementplanning.
b) Succession management.
c) Promotion planning.
d) Job rotation management.
171) What will occur if the HR department is involved early in the merger
process?
a) It is more likely to be complicated.
b) It is more likely to be successful.
c) It is more likely to be too long.
d) It is more likely to be unsuccessful.
172) What is one significant disadvantage of compe tency-based approaches in relation to
job analysis?
a) That they are not well understood and require extensive training.
b) That they are inexpensive relative to other methods.
c) That they have little practical use and are generally confusing.
d) That they are going to be fad-like and have no value in the future.
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173) Which of the following is a valid justification for reevaluating jobs?
a) The compensation-level strategy changes.
b) A new member joins the committee.
c) A new performance system is implemented.
d) There is a high level of appeals.
174) Which of the following must be included in goal-sharingplans?
a) expectation of continuity
b) employee participation
c) achievement levels
d) systematic link between performance improvements and bonus pool
175) What are the benefits of allocating goal-sharing bonuses based on
individual performance?
a) the most egalitarian
b) discourages free riding by someemployees
c) recognizes long-time service employees
d) adjusts for actual time worked during bonus period
176) Which of the following is the correc t term for the process by which an
employee's upward advancement in an organization's hierarchy is achieved through
both lateral and vertical moves?
a) Promotion.
b) Job rotation.
c) Job enlargement.
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d) Job sharing.
177) Which of the following is NOT a reason why a merger or acquisi tion may
fail?
a) Too much diversification.
b) Integration difficulties.
c) Inability to achieve synergy.
d) Too small an acquisition.
178) Which of the following statemen ts regarding compensable factors is true?
a) They are derived from evaluating the performance of employees.
b) Three main categories of factors are more or less universal.
c) Four to six factors are typically needed for a good system.
d) These factors typically include job inputs, job requirements, job outputs, and job
conditions.
179) What is the term for introducing culturally sensitive products into specific
countries at the lowest possible cost?
a) Multidomestic strategy.
b) Multinational strategy.
c) Local strategy.
d) Global strategy.
180) When does an HR deficit occur?
a) HR demand > HR internal supply.
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b) HR demand < HR internal supply
c) HR supply < HR internal demand.
d) HR supply > HR internal demand.
181) What is the conceptthat assumes the existence of a linear relationship
between one or more independent variables that are predicted to influence
the dependent variable?
a) Nominal group technique.
b) Regression analysis.
c) Delphi technique.
d) Envelope Forecasts.
182) What is the most common issue when senior executives attempt to identify highperforming potential employees?
a) Evaluation strategies are generally consistent.
b) The criterion for selection is not clear.
c) Ratings errors, like recency, contras t and leniency, rarely occur.
d) Similar-to-me bias is not typical in these circumstances.
183) How many steps does the strategic planning process involve?
a) 5
b) 3
c) 7
d) 9
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184) Why do organisations with more work practices suffer more from downsizing than
those with fewer?
a) High-involvement work practices are for elite employees.
b) High-involvement work practices are costly to maintain.
c) High-involvement work practices require a cultural buy-in.
d) High-involvement work practices are linked to competitive advantage.
185) Despite the apparent connection between HR planning and strategy, what are some
individuals overly preoccupied with?
a) HR supply and HR demand forecasting.
b) Tailoring HR strategy to the needs of the organization.
c) Acquisition and absorption oflarge numbers of employees.
d) Selection, training and performance management.
186) What is the main advantage of conducting a formal in-house survey?
a) most employers are willing to share information
b) technical expertise is readily available
c) ease of design and costs
d) data quality and appropriateness are ensured
187) Which of the following is NOT a mo tive for outsourcing?
a) Improved service levels.
b) Financial savings.
c) Organizational politics.
d) Culture shock.
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188) Which of the following is not a reason succession planning is essential for HR
planning?
a)When succession planning is fully functioning, it will enable the smooth
movement of employees into new positions without planning.
b) Succession planning leads to greater cost savings and so these savings can
be used to hire better external candida tes.
c) Succession planning save time in positioning candidates into new positions
and so this leaves more time for HR planning.
d) When succession planning takes into account employees’ performance and
promotesthem for it, employees are positively motivated.
189) Which of the following programmes encourages employees to reduce
labour hours per unit of output?
a) Scanlon
b) Improshare
c) Rucker
d) Current Distribution
190) What characteristics are expected of all members of an organisation,
regardless of their position, function, or level of responsibility?
a) Core competencies
b) Role competencies
c) Specific competencies
d) General competencies
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191) Which type of merger occurs whentwo organisations with a buyer-seller
relationship merge or acquire one another?
a)Vertical integration.
b) Takeover.
c) Operating synergy.
d) Consolidation.
192) Why is corporate scorekeeping essen tial for HRM evaluation?
a) It enables the organization to stay current with topics in the HR journals.
b)It focuses managers’ and employees’ attention on what is important to the organization.
c) It allows managers to have a place at the bargaining table.
d) It gives managers a chance to be relevant.
193) Which of the following items belongs in the skills inventory?
a) Hobbies and interests.
b) History of professional jobs held.
c) Assessment centre and appraisal data.
d) Professional association memberships.
194) What is one of the essential components of strategic HRM?
a)Well-trained HR individuals.
b) Strategic HR practices.
c) Formal HR procedures.
d) Overarching mission and vision s tatements.
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195) What is the systematic monitoring of organizationally relevant trends?
a) Environmental scanning.
b) Trend analysis.
c) Regression analysis.
d) Delphitechnique.
196) What is the technique for critical incidents?
a) A qualitative process of job analysis tha t produces behavioural statementss
along a range from superior to ineff ective performance for a specific job.
b) A process that divides a job into a number of key dimensions and each
dimension contains a range of statements of job behaviours tha t are attached to a numerical
scale.
c) A quantitative process that subdivides any knowledge, skills and traits into
categories called critical incidents.
d) A qualitative process that looks at three essential elements including:people, data, and
things so that each of the elements can be rated by level of
complexity and importance.
197) What does an efficient reward system maximize for the business?
a) value added relative to the resources devoted to the reward system
b) cost savings
c)training and development opportunities
d) retention of all employees
198) Which of the following is considered a benefit of the point system for
evaluating employees?
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a) process is objective and scientific
b) its high degree of precision in measuring jobs
c)the simplicity of developing the system
d) only system recognized by pay equity legislation
199) Why is it important to examine each individual job in a job analysis?
a) Job analysis is an important tool to use to measure the entire flow of the
production process person-by--person.
b) Job analysis is an important tool for an HR speci
specialist to ensure that all jobs
collectively work together to achieve the organizational go als and objectives.
c) Job analysis is an important tool to consider in ta ndem with HR Planning
because it is based on individual job specifications.
d) Job analysis is an important tool to gather aggregate results for HR Planning because it
enables the HR specialist to determine if there is a need for
restructuring.
200) Which of the following factors could represent responsibility?
a) managerial techniques
b) volume of work
c) supervision of others
d) stress of multiple demands
201) Which of the following is an advantage of formulating a strategy?
a) Change.
b) Consistency.
c) Comparability.
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d) Communication.
202) What is the core concept of the HR planning process that determines the
net requirement for personnel by analyzing the current and future demand and supply of
human resources?
a) HR forecasting.
b) HR planning.
c) HR surplus.
d) HR deficit.
203) According to a study conducted by the Conference Board of Canada,
what was one of the least significant justifications for using contingent workers?
a) developing labour flexibility to meet demand fluctuations
b) acquiring special expertise
c) controlling benefits costs
d) controlling head count
204) What is the term for the capacity of an individual to acquire specific skills to a desired
level of performance?
a) Adaptability.
b) Ability.
c) Flexibility.
d) Trainability.
205) Which of the following is an example of a motivational process theory?
a) Expectancy Theory of Motivation
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b) Managerial Strategy
c) Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy
d) Hackman/Oldham’s Job Characteristics theory
206) What is the conceptthatemphasizesthe cost savings generated by
economies of scale resulting from a merger or acquisition?
a) Cost-benefit analysis.
b) Operating synergy.
c) Vertical integration.
d) Horizontal integration.
207) As a supervisor, you tend to give all employees high ratings. Which error in
perception are you committing?
a) leniency effect
b) similarity effect
c) central tendency error
d) recency effect
208) Which of the following is an example of restructuring?
a) Turnabout.
b) Liquidity.
c) Bankruptcy.
d) Retreatment.
209) What other financial benefits could encourage a company to merge?
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a) Maintain the variability of cash flow.
b) Opportunity to value an under -valued company.
c) Use funds to keep a mature company operating.
d) Tax differentials are advantageous.
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210) Which of the following is not an obstacle to training transfer?
a) Old habits could notbe changed
b) Reward systems don’t support new skills
c) Did not see a need to apply whatwas learned
d) Skills are not inappropriate in our work uni t
211) What two factors determine the efficiency of a training method?
a) Training motivation; needs assessment
b) Budget; cost effectiveness
c) Training objectives; learning ou tcomes
d) Training design; learning and retention
212) Which learning result, according to Gagné's Classification Scheme, pertains
toprocedural knowledge?
a) Motor skills
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b)Verbal information
c) Intellectual skills
d) Cognitive strategies
213) Why should trainers calculate training programme expenses and benefits?
a)So, they can demonstrate the financial value of their programs
b)So, they know how much to charge their customers for training
c)So,they can rationalize their high prices for training
d) So,they justify why training should be an inves tment not a cost
214) If the benefits of a training programme are $100,000 and the expenditures
are $25,000, what is the benefit-cost ratio?
a) 4
b) 0.4
c) 40
d) 400
215) Which of the following is not a method for incorporating stimulus variety into atraining
programme?
a) By modeling different situations
b) By using different models that vary in terms of their characteristics
c) By using models with different levels of competence in performing the training task
d) By using models that differ according to the experience of the trainees
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216) According to Kirkpatrick, while choosing students for a training programme, four
considerations mustbe taken. Which of the following decisions is one of
these four?
a)What is the cost of the training program?
b)Why should the trainees take the training program?
c)Who can benefit from the training program?
d) When will the training program be held?
217) What is the next step in the implementation process once the
compensation infrastructure has been set up and debugged?
a) conduct the training
b) communicate information on the system
c) launch and adjust the system
d) activate the communication s program
218) What is the term for the sort of motivation that arises from a direct
connection between an employee and the task?
a) Extrinsic motivation
b) Intrinsic motivation
c) Training motivation
d) Motivation to transfer
219) The Learning Transfer System Inventory (LTSI) is comprised of several
components, including chances to use, learner preparedness, transfer design,
peer support, transfer motivation, and supervisor punishmen ts. What is a second distinct
component affecting the LTSI?
a) Performance coaching
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b) Personal capacity for transfer
c) Resistance or openness to change
d) Performance self-efficacy
220) There are several approaches to manage conflict within an organisation, including
conflict avoidance, accommodation, coercion, and c ompromise.
What is an extra method for dispute resolution?
a) Negotiation
b) Collaboration
c) Mediation
d) Discussion
221) What is the term for training programmes that instruct subject-matter
experts in the design and delivery of training programmes?
a) Trainability testers
b) Train-the-trainer
c) Training administrators
d) Training planners
222) What is the idea that examines the process of defining performance
expectations with employees, planning interventions and programmes to
improve performance, and assessing the effectiveness of interventions and
programmes?
a) Balanced scorecard
b) Performance management
c) Process measurement
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d) Training development
223) What is the term for learning experiences that incorporate skill practice
activities that engage and involve the learner actively?
a) Experiential learning
b) Active practice
c) Active learning
d) Self-efficacy
224) If the benefits of a training programme are $100,000 and its expenditures are
$25,000, what is the Return on Investment?
a) -3
b) -5
c) 3
d) 5
225) Develop a lesson plan, choose the trainer, arrange the training facility,
organize the training programme, and adminis ter the training are some ofthe training
delivery activities. What is an extra method of training delivery?
a) Determine the training materials
b) Decide on the location
c) Conduct research on the topic
d) Solicit feedback on the training program
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226) What is the term for the traits and behaviours that determine the
organization's direction and motivate others to pursue it despite challenges and limitations?
a) Management
b) Leadership
c) Delegation
d) Coaching
227) What is the term that describes how a person acquires, processes, and
assesses information during the learning process?
a) Knowledge compilation
b) Declarative knowledge
c) Procedural knowledge
d) Learning style
228) Robert Gagné suggests that a training programme should have nine
instructional events. What is the concluding phase?
a) Enhance retention and transfer
b) Assess performance
c) Provide informative feedback
d) Elicit performance practice
229) Which of the following training techniques has the low est likelihood of
transfer to the job?
a) Role play
b) Behavioural modeling
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c) Discussion
d) Tech-based training
230) How many distinct results are available for a Needs Analysis?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
231) Step four of any training programme is to:
a) Evaluate the training content and methods
b) Decide on the training location and deliver the training program
c)Test the student’s application of learning to the workplace
d) Reassess the needs of the organization
232) What form of objective focuses on the learning process and is process-oriented?
a) Distal goals
b) Process goals
c) Mastery goals
d) Proximal goals
233) Which of the following is not an example of a management function?
a) Organizing
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b) Planning
c) Decision-making
d) Controlling
234) What is the term for programmes that give persons with management
learning opportunities whilethey are employed?
a) Management training
b) On-the-job management development
c) Apprenticeship
d) Management education
235) How would you describe the "non-listener" participant type, ifthere is such a thing?
a) Likes to parade his/her knowledge be fore everyone
b) Shy, reluctant, and silentmost of the time
c) Tends to interrupt, cuts others off, leaps in before others have had their say
d) Has interesting inputs but they do not relate to the topic
236) How can a Needs-Analysis be expedited to qualify as a Just-in-Time Needs
Analysis?
a) Hire outside consultants
b) Link assessment and delivery
c) Get top management buy-in
d) Link data collection to performance
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237) What is the term used to describ e a comparison of the monetary cost of
training to its benefits?
a) Return on investment
b) Cost-effectiveness evaluation
c) Cost-benefit evaluation
d) Return on expectations
238) What is a disadvantage of 360-degree feedback systems?
a) They are less credible to the recipient.
b) They can be complicated to set up.
c) They do not work well in high-involvement organizations.
d) They work better as a basis for meri t pay than for feedback purposes.
239) What circumstances may make compu ter-based training more successful than
classroom instruction?
a)When the instructional methods are different
b)When the instructor chooses the training method
c)When the training is for procedural knowledge
d) When the training is a form of blended training
240) What is the term used to describ e a method for evaluating the value, or
merit, of training programmes for people and organisations?
a) Performance review
b) Program assessment
c) Training evaluation
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d) Data analysis
241) What is the term for a unified instructional unit with a specified learning
objective?
a) Learning activity
b) Lesson plan
c) Lesson
d) Mentorship
242) What is the term for the development of a vast array of management
knowledge and general concepttual skills?
a) Management training
b) On-the-job management development
c) Apprenticeship
d) Management education
243) Which of the following is not a needed set of skills for emotional
intelligence?
a) Motivation
b) Empathy
c) Kindness
d) Self-control
244) What is the term for the methods utilised to transmit training information inside a
training programme?
a) On-the-job training
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b) Active learning
c) Training design
d) Instructional methods
245) What is the term for mentoring actions such as coaching, sponsorship, exposure,
visibility, protection, and the assignment of tough tasks?
a) Apprenticeship
b) Psychosocial support
c) Mentorship
d) Career support
246) How should training and development, individual learning, and
organizational learning be depicted?
a) Individual Learning-Organizational Learning- Training & Development
b) Training & Development-Individual Learning-Organizational Learning
c) Organizational Learning-Individual Learning-Training & Development
d) Training & Development-Organizational Learning-Individual Learning
247) Needs assessment is employed to:
a) Determine if training is a good solutionto performance problems
b) Clarifythe nature of performance gaps
c)Write training objectives
d) All of the above
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248) Attentional counsel, advance organizers, goal orientation, and prepractice briefings are
prepractice training circumstances. What is an extra prerequisite
not listed?
a) Preparatory information
b) Cognitive strategies
c) Prepractice beliefs
d) Distributed practice
249) Not one of the above is a learning style.
a) Assimilating
b) Converging
c) Reflecting
d) Accommodating
250) What form of training necessitates a methodical procedure for continuous
improvement?
a) Blended training
b) Information technology training
c) Team training
d) Total quality management
251) Which of the following is not one of Mintzberg's fundamental management roles?
a) Knowledgeable
b) Interpersonal
c) Informational
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d) Decisional
252) The following is true with respect to reinforcement theory:
a) Has been used in organizations in the form of incentive systems
b) Focuses on the power of external rewards and punishments in the motivation of
behaviour
c) The application of reinforcement theory is sometimes called behaviour
modification
d) All of the above
253) What is the notion that encompasses an organ ization's common beliefs,
values, and assumptions?
a) Organizational climate
b)Vision
c) Organizational culture
d) Mission
254) How can workers contribute to the competitiveness of their firms in a novel way?
a) Employees cantake technical skills training
b) Employees can have pay and benefits cuts
c) Employees can undergo literacy testing
d) Employees can enroll in ethics training
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255) What is the term for a style of training in which a trainee receives instruction and
training at his or her workplace from a supervisor or an experienced
coworker?
a) Job instruction training
b) Off-the-job training
c) On-the-job training
d) Coaching
256) What is the term for training thatemphasizes diversity in the values,
attitudes, and behaviours of persons from various backgrounds?
a) Diversity training
b) Ethics training
c) Cross-cultural training
d) Team training
257) Training is frequently the most effective remedy for performance issues.
Under what circumstances is training not the optimal solution?
a) If the task is performed frequently
b) If coaching is expensive
c) If the task is difficult
d) If correct performance is critical
258) What is the term used to describ e a conditioned reaction that happens in conditions
distinct from those encountered duringlearning?
a) Chaining
b) Generalization
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c) Shaping
d) Observation
259) What is the
he term for an in tervention that teaches trainees to anticipate
transfer barriers and high-risk scenarios in the workplace and to build coping skills and
methods to overcome these obstacles?
a) Training intervention
b) Conflict management
c) Relapse prevention
d) Conflict resolution
260) What is the term for an agreement stating how newly acquired skills will be
implemented on the job?
a) Performance contract
b) Employment contract
c) Training contract
d) Knowledge contract
261) What do the majority of businesses do for basic sk ill training?
a) Purchase pre-packaged materials from other organizations
b) Form alliances with educational institutions for trainees’ benefit
c) Hire external experts to deliver specific content to trainees
d) Set up online courses and evaluation for trainees
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262) What is the term for a formal, organised, and methodical approach to on-the-job
training consisting of four steps: preparation, teaching, performance,
and follow-up?
a) Coaching
b) Job instruction training
c) Mentoring
d) Apprenticeship
263) What is the term for the extent to which the trainee reports getting
assistance in his or her efforts to transmit the acquired skills?
a) Perceived support
b) Organizational support
c) Perceived organizational support
d) Anticipated support
264) According to a research, Canadian companies are no t training and
development leaders. What proportion of adult employees participate in jobrelated training, according to this s tudy?
a) 0.2
b) 0.1
c) 0.3
d) 0.4
265) Which of the following is not a category of general management abilities?
a) Technical
b) Conceptual
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c) Knowledgeable
d) Interpersonal
266) What is the Net Benefit if the benefits of a training programme are $100,000 and its
expenses are $25,000?
a)(75 000)
b)(125 000)
c) 75 000
d) 125 000
267) What is the term used to describ e what learners are anticipated to be able to achieve
upon completion of a training programme?
a) Training objective
b) Active practice
c) Training design
d) Adaptive expertise
268)What is the term for an approach to learning tha t takes into consideration
the distinctions between adult and child learners and is geared towards adults?
a) Andragogy
b) Pedagogy
c) Asynchronous
d) Synchronous
269) Why is on-the-job training the most prevalent and abused training method?
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a) Because it is not well planned or structured
b) Because it is chronically under-funded
c) Because it is over-used as an approach
d) Because it is taught by inexperienced people
270) Which of the following groups must receive comprehensive training in order to
comprehend the system and its components?
a) key HR department support staff
b) all employees covered by the new system
c)those who have role in operatting the system
d) managers and supervisors
271) What term refers to a technique for estimating the financial advantages of human
resource initiatives like training and development?
a) Financial analysis
b) Utility analysis
c) Break-even analysis
d) Benefit-cost analysis
272) There are four essential components of learning organisations. Vision,
culture, and learning dynamics or sys tems are three of these aspects. How is the fourth
dimension defined?
a) Knowledge management and infrastructure
b) Intellectual capital and emotional intelligence
c) Human attributes: knowledge, skills and abilities
d) Communities of practice and learningenvironmen ts
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273) What is the term for groups of individuals with shared interests and concerns who
gather frequently to share their experiences and exp ertise, learn from one
another, and develop new methods to working and problem-solving?
a) Informal learning
b) Self-directed work teams
c) Self-directed learning
d) Communities of practice
274) What is the term used to describ e training that utilizestechnology to
provide courses?
a) Technology-based training
b) Traditional training
c) Computer-based training
d) E-Learning
275) The majority of kinds of learning involve the transmission of skills, knowledge, and
data. Which form of learning comes na turally and unintentionally as a result of work?
a) Informal learning
b) Organizational learning
c) Learning acquisition
d) Formal learning
276) Which model views mistakes as undesirable and damaging to the learning process?
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a)TIMS
b) EMT
c) JIT
d) LMS
277) What is synchronous training comparable to?
a) A computer simulation
b) A pre-recorded session
c) A live classroom
d) A mentorship opportunity
278) What is the term for training programme extensions that include a review of the
training material?
a) Self-coaching
b) Post-training supplements
c) Apprenticeship
d) Booster sessions
279) Which of the following is not a common component of blended training?
a) Computer technology
b) Classroom training
c) Applied on-site learning
d) Off-the-job training
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280) What is the term for the gradual generalization of knowledge and abilities
through time?
a) Generalization
b) Transfer of training
c) Maintenance
d) Trainability
281) Formal and informal learning are distinct in a number of ways, including
control, relevance, structure, and outcomes. Which factor is the last one missing fromthis
list?
a) Specificity
b) Content
c) Timing
d) Needs
282) What is the term for a collection of procedures that emphasizes
comprehension of the mental processes and needs for executing a job?
a) Cognitive task analysis
b) Team task analysis
c) Person analysis
d) Task analysis
283) What is the term for the capacity to apply knowledge and abilities to a
variety of activities, contexts, and situations?
a) Routine expertise
b) Active learning
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c) Exploratory learning
d) Adaptive expertise
284) Which of the following job analysis techniques focuses on the behaviours that
comprise a job and uses job elements to describe work activities?
a) interviews
b) PAQ
c) observation
d) FJA
285) What is the most important skill that a trainer must possess in order tobe effective?
a) The ability to be motivating and arousing
b) The ability to be enthusiastic and excited
c) The ability to communicate and be humorous
d) The ability to make the material interesting
286) What is the greatest benefit of computer-based training for an
organisation?
a) Employees’ performance can be tracked for mandatory training and
certification
b) Overall training costs are reduced due to the elimination of typical costs
c) Large numbers of employees can be trained within a short period of time
d) All trainees receive the same training irrespective of their location
287) Why do some businesses avoid doi ng training evaluations?
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a) Because of the perception that organizations lack the expertise
b) Because of the perception that they are too complicated
c) Because of the perception the information is not used
d) Because of the perception the quality of training will not improve
288) What is the term for items that may be bought or sold, such as patents,
copyrights, and other types of intellectual property?
a) Knowledge
b) Intellectual capital
c) Explicit knowledge
d) Knowledge management
289) Which of these is not a Web 2.0 application?
a) Blogs
b)Webinars
c)Wikis
d) Podcasts
290) Which of the following is not a benefit of off-the-job training?
a) Trainer has control over the training environment
b) Trainer has a wide variety of ins tructional methods
c) Training cost is much lower than On-the-Job Training
d) A large number oftrainees can be trained at one time
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291) The composite learning index (CLI)identifies learning to know, learning to
do, and learning to live together as the pillars of lifelong learning. What is the
CLI's final recommended pillar?
a) Learning to believe
b) Learning to grow
c) Learning to learn
d) Learning to be
292) What is the term used to describ ethe process of recognising all training
expenditures?
a) Expensing
b) Direct costs
c) Indirect costs
d) Costing
293) Intranets, extranets, electronic performance support systems, and
electronic simulations are among the most important forms of technologybased training. What is not an extra sort of technology-based training?
a) Teleconference
b) Multimedia
c) Television
d) Wii
294) What is the term for the aspects of the workplace that might either promote or
impedethe use of training?
a) Learning culture
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b) Organizational climate
c) Training transfer climate
d) Organizational culture
295) What is the term for a test that examines a person's capacity to learn and
carry out training tasks?
a) Trainability test
b) Training pre-test
c) Knowledgetest
d) Employmenttest
296) Which of the following is a fundamental component of performance
management?
a) motivation
b) results
c) measures
d) strategy
297) What is the term used to describe a process in which people or groups take initiative
and responsibility for their own learning and manage their own learning experiences?
a) Instructor-led training
b) Self-directed learning
c) Asynchronous training
d) Synchronous training
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298) Which of these is not a normal organizational learninglevel?
a) Individual level
b) Organizational level
c) Group level
d) Team level
299) What kicks off the requirements analysis process?
a) Idea
b) Itch
c) Ideal
d) ILD
300) Which idea describes a training strategy in which learners are exposed to a variety of
occupations, functions, and organizational areas?
a) Job enlargement
b) Cross training
c) Job rotation
d) Job enrichment
301) What is the term for a system of HR practices and policies that often involves stringent
recruiting and selection procedures, performance-based incentive
compensation, performance management, an emphasis on employee
participation, and substantial training and development programmes?
a) ISD
b) HPWS
c) SHRM
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d) eHRM
302) What does the term far transfer mean?
a) The extent to which trainees can apply what was learned intraining to
situations that are very similar to those in which they were trained
b) The transfer of knowledge and skills across different settings or contexts at the same
level
c) Transfer from the individual or trainee level to the organizational level or the
extent to which changes in trainee behaviour or performance transfer to
organizational level outcomes
d) The extent to which trainees can apply whatwas learned intraining to novel or different
situations from those in which they were trained
303) Once the cost and benefit of a training programme are determined, what is the next
step in establishing the value of a training programme?
a) Calculate the return on investment
b) Calculate the benefit-cost ratio
c) Calculate the net benefit
d) Calculate the cost-effectiveness evaluation
304) One of the key benefits of computer-based training is its flexibility, as
learners do not have to quit their jobs to attend classes. What else is a benefitof computerbased training?
a) Personalization
b) Customization
c) Self-learning
d) Learner control
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305) What is the notion that offers trainees with step-by-step instructions and the rules,
principles, and methods for effective performance?
a) Proceduralized instruction
b) Exploratory/ discovery learning
c) Active learning
d) Routine expertise
306) Role play is a type of teaching in which trainees practice new behaviours in a safe
setting. Whatis role play's three phases?
a) Organizing; analyzing; control
b) Planning; implementing; feedback
c) Innovation; trial runs; conclusions
d) Development; enactment; debriefing
307) What should train programmes incorporate to optimize learning and
retention using technology-based training?
a) Cognitive ability
b) Active practice
c) Self-efficacy
d) Attitudes
308) What did Québec do to comba t the unwillingness of Canadian
organisations to invest in training?
a) Companies would have 3 years to build up their investment in training to the Canadian
average
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b) Companies with payrolls over $1 million would ha ve to spend 1% in training,
otherwise pay a payroll tax
c) Companies must use accreditted training bodies and spend at least $100 000
d) Companies that apply for payroll funding can earn tax credits
309) What is the term for a trainee's intention to apply skills and information
acquired during training on the job?
a) Motivation to transfer
b) Motivation to know
c) Motivation to train
d) Motivation to learn
310) What is the term for a computerized system that delivers information,
guidance, and learning opportunities to enhance performance?
a) Computer-based training
b) E-learning
c) Asynchronous training
d) Electronic performance support system
311) What is the term used to describ e a form of training in which learners
acceptthe challenge of studying and solving real-world issues and assume
responsibility for the solution?
a) Action learning
b) Active learning
c) Case method
d) Simulation
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312) What is the term for activities including structured competition that help
trainees to acquire certain skills?
a) Role play
b) Games
c) Simulations
d) Case method
313) What is the relationship be tween Learnability and Readiness to Learn?
a) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability X Motivation) + Perceptions of
the Work Environment
b) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability X Motivation X Perceptions of the Work
Environment)
c) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = Ability (Motivation + Perceptions of the
Work Environment)
d) Readiness to Learn and Trainability = (Ability + Motivation) (Perceptions of the Work
Environment)
314) In training environments, what form of motivation emphasizes the direction, intensity,
and persistence of learning-directed behaviour?
a) Extrinsic motivation
b) Intrinsic motivation
c) Training motivation
d) Motivation to transfer
315) There are three stages to a needs analysis, including an organizational
analysis and a person analysis. The third level of analysis is.
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a) Unit analysis
b) Divisional analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Task analysis
316) There are several On-the--Job Training methods, including on-the-spot
lecture, observed performance/feedback, following Nellie, and job-aid
approach. Which of the following is another approach to On -the-Job Training?
a) Following Alan
b) The natural step
c) On-the-spot discussion
d) The training step
317) What is the term for the utilization of an external vendor to deliver training
and development programmes and services?
a) Restructuring
b) Outsourcing
c) Downsizing
d) Strategizing
318) What is a fundamental aspect of management development?
a) Leadership
b) Self-efficacy
c) Decision-making
d) Attitude
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319) What is the term used to describ e programmes that expose new
employees to their employment, their coworkers, and the organisation?
a) On-the-job training
b) Essential skills training
c) Team training
d) Orientation training
320) What is the term for activities based on the premise that every action has a
consequence, and that if the result is a reward, the action will be repeated?
a) Motivation Theories
b)Work Motivation
c) ERG Theory
d) Contingency Management
321) What category in the Model of Training Effectiveness does not flow into
Learning and Retention?
a) Trainee Characteristics
b) Individual Behaviour and Performance
c) Work Environment
d) Training Design
322) Human impediments to effective performance includelack of information, skills,
motivation, and group norms. What is the last remaining human obstacle to performance?
a) Poor job design
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b) Counterproductive reward systems
c) Informal leaders
d) Ill-defined goals and objectives
323) What is the term for arranging a programme such that trainees feel as
though they are involved in a dialogue with the programme?
a) Personalization
b) Customization
c) Human interaction
d) Needs assessment
324) The overall configuration of Baldwin and Ford's model of the Transfer of
Training Process is as follows.
a) Training Inputs- Conditions of Transfer- Training Outputs
b) Conditions of Transfer- Training Inputs- Training Outputs
c) Training Inputs- Training Outputs- Conditions of Transfer
d) Conditions of Transfer- Training Inputs- Training Outputs
325) Which of the following is not a primary variable examined in an evaluation of
training?
a) Learning
b) Reactions
c) Behaviour
d) Needs assessment
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326) What is the notion that examines the creation, sharing, diffusion, and use of knowledge
in organisations?
a) Knowledge management
b) Traditional ecological knowledge
c) Intellectual capital
d) Organizational learning
327) Typically, a Request for Proposal (RFP) would include a pre-qualification
checklist, a full explanation of the opportuni ty, a description of the business and itsculture,
and the project's scope. What other details would the RFP contain?
a) A description of the current economy
b) A detailed budget for the work
c) An assessment of recent demographics
d) A detailed statement of work
328) not duplicate
a) It is an opportunity for trainees to get answers to questions
b) It helps trainees recognize what they do not know but should know
c) It is a way for trainers to learn about what is important to trainees
d) It allows trainees to get advice on matters that are of concern to them
329) Which of these does not pertain to a Person Analysis?
a) Determine gap
b) Define desire performance
c) Identify obstacles
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d) Obtain description
330) It is essential to examine the training program's schedule. What is one
question that must be asked regarding the timing of the training programme?
a)Who is going to attend the training event?
b)What time of day will the training event be held?
c)What needs are being fulfilled with the training event?
d) How long will the training event last?
331) Under what conditions is a team-based reward system the most effective
means of rewarding team performance?
a) lack of strong intrinsic motivation
b) no evidence of free riders
c) strong positive group norms do not exist
d) group sanctions against poor contributors are ineffective
332) What portion of the Model of Training Effectiveness feeds into Individual
Behaviour and Performance?
a) Learning and Retention
b) Self-Efficacy
c) Cognitive Ability
d) Training Motivation
333) The Instruction Systems Design (ISD) model excludes the items listed below.
a) Training design
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b) Needs analysis
c) Safety climate
d) Training delivery
334) What is the term for the utilization of several training techniques, such as
classroom instruction, on-the-job training, and computer technology?
a) Active practice
b) Blended training
c) Attentional advice
d) Metacognition
335) What is the term used to describ ethe process of identifying performance
gaps or inadequacies in employee and organizational performance?
a) Needs analysis
b) Task analysis
c) Organizational analysis
d) Person analysis
336) What is the phrase for the process of analyzingemployee behaviour to see if
performance fulfils expectations?
a) Needs analysis
b) Task analysis
c) Organizational analysis
d) Person analysis
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337) Although the Conference Board of Canada discovered that one in five
firms invest more than 3% of payroll in training,many organisations do not
prioritizetraining. Why do businesses not invest in training?
a) Organizations view training as an investment rather than a cost
b) Training is linked to an organization’s success
c) Canadians do not care about how competitive they are
d) Training is first to go when there are cuts to discretionary spending
338) Job task analysis is a step in the process of training requirements analysis in which:
a) Individual employees’ behaviour is studiedto identify gaps in performance
b) The jobs and specific job tasks that are in need oftraining are identified and studied
c) A person’s current performance is comparedto a desired standard
d) The knowledge, skill and behavioural changes of trainees are analyzed
339) What is the term for training programmes thatemphasize the utilizationof computers
and computer systems?
a) Computer-based training
b) Information technology training
c) Computer software training
d) Blended training
340) What is the term for providing lea rners with training experiences and
situations that closely mimic the actual workplace?
a) Transfer elements
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b) Identical elements
c) Retention elements
d) General elements
341) What is the term that describes the capacity to deliver learning and training
opportunities when and whenthey are required?
a) Just-in-time learning
b) Outsourcing
c) Training and development
d) Rapid e-learning
342) Global rivalry, the labour market, and change are among the most
influential environmental influences on human resources and tra ining and
development. What is the fourth factor that influences these factors?
a) Technology
b) Ecology
c) Legislation
d) Competitors
343) Which of the following in Baldwi n and Ford's concept of the Transfer of the
Training Process is not a training input?
a) Training Design
b) Trainee Characteristics
c) Work Environment
d) Trainee Knowledge
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344) What is the term for response measurements that assess learners'
preferences for a training programme?
a) Negative reactions
b) Positive reactions
c) Affective reactions
d) Utility reactions
345) Apprenticeship training has a num ber of advantages, including an
effective recruiting strategy, two-way skill development, higher-quality work,
better production, and enhanced safety. What is an additional advantage of
apprenticeshiptraining?
a) Cost effectiveness
b) Improve company reputation
c) Improve employee morale
d) Increase competitiveness
346) The most advanced learningmanagement systems include evaluation
tools, course catalogues, and communication capabilities. What is an extra
characteristic of an advanced learning management system?
a) Performance reviews
b) Individual learningplans
c) Training programs
d) Training activities
347) Which of the following benefits of training and development is not
included?
a) Increase HR effectiveness
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b) Facilitate organizational strategy
c) Link business strategy to organizational strategy
d) Improve employee recruitment and retention
348) What is the term for the capacity to control one's own and other people’s emotions
and one's interactions with others?
a) Leadership
b) Management
c) Conflict resolution
d) Emotional intelligence
349) What is the term used to describ e whether training information is studied
and performed all at once or in segments?
a) Feedback or knowledge of results
b) Conditions of practice
c) Overlearning
d) Whole versus part learning
350) Because of his lack of enthusiasm in the classroom, ra ting your instructor
poorly in all performance categories is an example of what type of perceptual error?
a) central tendency error
b) harshness effect
c) similarity effect
d) halo error
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351) What is the notion in which learners are openly encouraged to make
mistakes during training in order to lea rn from them?
a) Exploratory learning
b) Active learning
c) Error-management training
d) Error-avoidant training
352) Robert Gagné suggests that a training programme should have nine
instructional events. What is the initial p hase?
a) Describe the objectives
b) Gain attention
c) Stimulate recall of prior knowledge
d) Present the material to be learned
353) The purpose of team training is to enhance the performance and
efficiency of teams in areas such as commun ication, coordination,
compensating behaviour, and mutual performance monitoring. What is another area that
team training may enhance?
a) Diversity training
b) Exchange of feedback
c) Sexual harassment
d) Cross-cultural training
354) What is the term used in research when a comparison is not done to
another group of untrained individu als?
a) Quasi-experimental designs
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b) Training evaluation designs
c) Experimental designs
d) Non-experimental designs
355) What is the term for a person who possesses the informa tion, skills, and
abilities necessary to do a task or job?
a)Adaptive expert
b) Attentional advisor
c) Subject-matter expert
d) Blended trainer
356) What is the term for a seminar that takes place live via the Internet?
a)Webcast
b) Asynchronous training
c) Synchronous training
d) Webinar
357) There are four parts of Training Design in the Model of Training Effectiveness,
including active practice, active learning, and error managementtraining. What is the fourth
element of the Training Design process?
a) Training motivation
b) Cognitive ability
c) Self-efficacy
d) Conditions of practice
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358) Evaluation of training programmes needs expertise in several domains.
What is one area in which evaluation of training programmes does not need
knowledge?
a) Data analysis
b) Research design
c) Measurement
d) Qualitative analysis
359) Which kind of instruction is the least successful since it allows learners to
passively absorb information?
a) Case incident
b)Video conferencing
c) Games
d) Simulations
360) What is the term for a training methodology that offers learners authority
over their own learning?
a) Conditions of practice
b) Active learning
c) Exploratory learning
d) Active practice
361) What is the term for the supply of information on the value or efficacy of a training
programme?
a) Summative evaluations
b) Formative evaluations
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c) Descriptive evaluations
d) Causal evaluations
362) What is the term for the study of acquiring the information, skills, and abilities
necessary to accomplish future work responsibilities?
a) Training
b) Knowledge management
c) Human capital
d) Development
363) What is the term for sequences of activities pe rformed by persons that result in
particular outcomes?
a) Skills
b) Abilities
c) Attitudes
d) Behaviours
364) You offered your sales associates the opportunity to train new sales staff in
an effort to foster team spirit. You cannot comprehend why your s ales staff,who are
compensated solely on commission for clothing sold, lacks interest in training new
employees. What type of problem with rewards are you experiencing?
a) production of desired behaviour and undesira ble consequences
b) failure to produce desired behaviour
c) production of reward dissatisfaction
d) organizational identification
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365) What is the term used to describ e a training technique in which students see a
model executing a task and then attempt to copy it?
a) Behaviour modeling
b) Behaviour management
c) Behavioural method
d) Behavioural modification
366) What is the notion that illustrates that a training approach has varying
impacts on learners with varying attitudes?
a) Role play
b) Behaviour modeling
c)psychological fidelity
d) Aptitude-treatment interaction
367) Which of the following is not a leading cause of training programme
failure?
a) Regarding training as an Event
b) Failure to isolate the effects of training
c) Failure to respond to needs of employees
d) Failure to recognize non-training solutions
368) A case study's goals are to infuse trainees' education with reality, expose them to
several situations simultaneously, and educate them how to make
judgments. What is a secondary purpose of the case study approach when
used for training?
a) Analyze data and organize obj ective evidence
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b) Teach trainees to be creative and think independently
c) Train participants to be resilient to the ideas of others
d) Develop evidence-based skills, abilities and knowledge
369) What is the COMA model used for?
a) Culture, Organizational, Managemen t, Adaptive
b) Cognitive, Organizational, Mo tivational, Attitudinal
c) Control, Observational, Motivational, Active
d) Climate, Observational, Management, Analysis
370) The followingwill affect the type of training content:
a) The training objectives
b) The training needs analysis
c) The training budgets
d) A & B only
371) What is the term for a method of instruction that promotes interactive
learning environments?
a) Blended training
b)Web 2.0
c)social constructivism
d) Group discussions
372) What is the term used to describ ethe evaluation of a training program’s capacity to
satisfy management expectations?
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a) Return on expectations
b) Return on investment
c) Return on equity
d) Return on evaluation
373) Which of the following questions regarding the training facility does not
contribute to an effective learning environment?
a) Is the room conducive to learning?
b) Is the room free from noise or distraction?
c) Is the room set up in a manner that is appropriate for the training program?
d) Is the room brightly lit and well ventilated?
374) Which of the following training techniques w ill not affect the learners'
attitudes?
a) Role play
b) Discussion
c) Games
d) Case study
375) What is the term for deeply established preconceptions, generalizations, or imagesthat
impact our understanding of the world and our actions?
a) Mental models
b) Structural capital
c) Implicit knowledge
d) Formal learning
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376) Who possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to complete a task or
job?
a) Knowledge manager
b) Subject-matter expert
c) Trainer
d) Content specialist
377) What form of activity may be utilised to welcome attendees to a training event?
a) Serve an exotic breakfast to entice a bigger crowd
b) Hire a motivational speaker for a breakfast meeting
c) Have trainees spontaneously meet their colleagues
d) Write a trainee’s name on a n ame card
378) What need, according to Alderfer's theory, is comparable to Maslow's
esteem and self-actualization needs?
a) Growth needs
b) Existence needs
c) Learning needs
d) Relatedness needs
379) Lack of tools and processes, fast technological change, and ineffective
work design are all technical obstacles to successful performance. What is the last
remaining technical obstacle to performance?
a) Resources sub-optimized
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b) Lack of performance measurements
c) Ineffective feedback
d) Raw data, not normative data
380) What is the term for the process of obtaining information and skills, as well as a
change in an individual's behaviour as a result of experience?
a) Intelligence
b) Intellectual capital
c) Learning
d) Knowledge Management
381) What is the notion that relates to exposing a person to various regions and
experiences inside an organisation?
a) Job enlargement
b) Job sharing
c) Job rotation
d) Cross training
382) What is the term for the knowledge, experience, relationships, process
discoveries, inventions, market presence, and community influence of an
organisation?
a) Renewal capital
b) Human capital
c) Intellectual capital
d) Relationship capital
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383) When calculating the advantages of training programmes, it is vital to
make professional assumptions and judgments. What other considerations are crucial
when engaging in this estimating procedure?
a) The credibility of the information source for the estimate
b) The quality and timeliness of the information
c) The consistency and comparrability of the information
d) The understandability and usefulness of the information
384) Which of the following degree statements regarding "supervisory
responsibility" is an example of inconsistent construct formation?
a) degree 2: Responsible for supervision of one to three subordinates
b) degree 1: No supervisory responsibili ties
c) degree 3: Responsible for supervision of four to nine subordina tes
d) degree 4: Responsible for development of annual operating budget
385) What is the idea that relates to the psychological circumstances of the
simulation being comparable to those of the actual work environment?
a) Physical fidelity
b) Simulations
c) Role play
d) psychological fidelity
386) What is the primary impediment to training transfer?
a) Immediate manager does not support the training
b) No time is provided to use the skills
c) The culture in the work group does not supp ort the training
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d) Skills could notbe appliedto the job
387) What is the formula for calculating the ROI for a training programme?
a) ROI = (Cost of the Program)/ (Benefits – Cost of the Program)
b) ROI = (Benefits – Cost of the Program )/ (Cost of the Program)
c) ROI = (Cost of the Program – Benefits)/(Benefits)
d) ROI = (Benefits)/(Cost of the Program – Benefits)
388) What is the term for teaching employees how to execute each other's
jobs?
a) Job enlargement
b) Job rotation
c) Cross training
d) Apprenticeship
389) Which of the following is not a learning organisation principle?
a) Continuous learning is considered to be a h allmark of learning organizations
b) Learning organizations are more profitabl ethan other organizations
c) In a learning organization everybody is considered to be a learner
d) Learning is part of a change process and in fact enables change
390) What is the term that describes the compilation, storage, dissemination,
and application of "know-what" and "know-how"?
a) Explicit knowledge
b) Knowledge management
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c) Structural knowledge
d) Strategic knowledge
391) If there is a participant type known as the "rigid one," how would you
describe this person?
a) A problem magnifier who finds the world unfair and is a specialist in blaming and faultfinding
b)Will find loopholes in your ideas and presen t impossible “what-if?” scenarios
c) Constantly looks for opportunities to disagree, to show up the other
participants and the trainer
d) Staunchly takes a position on an issue and will rarely, if at all, move from it
392) Which of the following is not a feature of a community of practice,
according to Wenger and Lave?
a) Community
b) Practice
c) Interests
d) Domain
393) What term refers to the process of locating the point at which benefits
equal expenses and utility equals zero?
a) Financial analysis
b) Utility analysis
c) Break-even analysis
d) Benefit-cost analysis
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394) According to studies, organisations tha t spend in staff training generate
more revenues and profits. What further evidence do these studies provide for
the effectiveness of training?
a) Productivity
b) Cost-benefit analysis
c) Trend analysis
d) Link to strategy
395) The composite learning index (CLI) advocates lifelong learning as
advantageous to an individual's development. What two additional entities gain from lifetime
learning?
a) The community and the country
b) The family and the organization
c) The organization and the communi ty
d) The community and the province
396) How does the conditioning process flow within conditioning theory?
a) Behaviour-Stimulus-Consequence
b) Stimulus-Behaviour-Consequence
c) Stimulus-Consequence-Behaviour
d) None of the above
397) Which of the following is not a common method for evaluating behaviour?
a) Observations
b) Self-reports
c) Video recording
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d) Production indicators
398) Which of the following benefits of On-the-Job Training is not a benefit?
a) Trainees’ application of training occurs with less difficulty
b) Trainees’ application of training is more direct and immediate
c) Training is more customized to needs of trainees
d) Training cost is much lower than Off-the-Job Training
399) What is the term for the process of accom plishing goals efficiently and
effectively through and with other individuals?
a) Management
b) Leadership
c) Delegation
d) Coaching
400) According to the text, there is evidence that a trainee's motivation will
increase the more interaction he or she has wi th an instructor during computer-based
instruction. What else will occur when student-instructor engagementis high?
a) The employee will have greater on-the-job knowledge
b) The employee will have greater job performance
c) The employee will have a more positive attitude toward learning
d) The employee will have a more developed technology-based skill set
401) Which method of job evaluation is utilised less frequently than the others
due to its complexity?
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a) point method
b) factor comparison method c)
ranking
d) classification
Professional Practice
402) What is the third step in selecting an outsourcing vendor?
a) Establish a team to evaluate these bids.
b) Inform the staff of the affected function.
c) Prepare a request for proposal.
d) Invite internal and external bids.
403) Which of the following is NOT a succession manag ement weak point?
a) Risk of the spotlight.
b) Elitism.
c) Selection bias.
d) Predictable futures.
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404) Before introducing any HR programme, wha t chain or flowchart must be
developed?
a) Employee competencies à HR program à HR strategy à corporate strategy
b) HR supply à HR demand à HR prog ram à organizational outcome
c) HR program à employee competencies à organizational strategy à
organizational outcome
d) HR supply à employee competencies à HR strategy à organizational
outcome
405) Which of the following is not a central tendency measure used to interpret survey
data?
a) weighted average
b) mean
c) compa-ratio
d) median
406) Human capital is
a) the collective talents of the management of the organization
b) the people in the organization
c) also called intellectual capital
d) of critical importance to the firm, but non-measurable
407) What is the term for individuals from the subsidiary country who are familiar with the
foreign cultural environment?
a) HCNs.
b) PCNs.
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c) MCNs.
d) TCNs.
408) Which of the following is TRUE ab out exit interviews?
a) Exit interviews are notvery useful because employees use it as a tool for
revenge against supervisors and co-workers
b) Employees are more willing to give the true reason for quitting before they have
leftthe building for the last time
c) Employees may not give frank answers in exi t interviews because they are afraid it
will affect their references
d) Exit interviews are best conducted in a free-form manner because each
employee’s reasons for leaving are unique
409) What is the conceptthat serves as a method for calculating the profitor loss
resulting from various approaches?
a) Utility analysis.
b) Benchmarking.
c) Audit.
d) Cost-Benefit.
410) How many steps comprise the job analysis procedure?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
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411) If an employee survey generates negative resul ts
a) no feedback should be given to em ployees
b) the employees should be given only the positive feedback
c) action should be taken on the results, but no feedback should be given to
the employees
d) the negative results mustbe communicatedto the employees
412) What is the most effective activity for leader development?
a) Special projects within job responsibilities.
b) Computer-based learning.
c) Articles and books.
d) Expatriate assignments.
413) Which of the following is an advantage of the competency-based job
analysis approach?
a) That it is easy to collect data the second time once the initial benchmark has been done.
b) That there are numerous compe tencies that are common to a broader
occupational group.
c) That many competencies over-lap and can be attached to numerous
individuals in a collective manner.
d) That competencies are much more basic to define than skills, knowledge
and abilities.
414) Which source of evaluation is more likely to observe typical behaviour
rather than atypical behavior?
a) supervisor
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b) subordinate
c) customer
d) peer
415) Which of the following findings is supported by research?
a) organizations perceived to be concerned ab out employee welfare had
lower affective commitment than other organizations
b) procedural justice was strongly related to affective commitment
c) distributive justice had a positive impact on affective commitment
d) the key issue to generate organizational commitment is what individuals
receive from their jobs
416) As a smaller, non-unionized private-sector employer, which of the following violates
the Ontario Pay Equity Act?
a) The pay levels for male comparator jobs are lowered to achieve pay equity.
b) Casual workers are excluded from the pay equity plan.
c) Only managers are members of the pay equity commit tee.
d) A modified ranking system is used to meetthe requirements of the pay equity legislation.
417) Religion
a) mustbe afforded reasonable accommodation short of undue hardship by
employers
b) can never be a bona fide occupation al qualification
c) does not have to be accommoda ted by employers if the religion is not
“mainstream.”
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d) can be the subject of a pre-employment inquiry if the applicant wears
clothing indicating membership in a non-Judeo-Christian religion
418) Which of the following is not one of three types of downsizing strategies,
according to Kim Cameron?
a)Work redesign.
b) Systematic change.
c) Outsourcing.
d) Workforce reduction.
419) Which of the following is a factor intern al to the HR forecasting process?
a) Governmental regulations.
b) Technological changes.
c) Production budgets.
d) Industry and product life cycles.
420) According to a Canadian study cited in the text, how do serial downsizers fare five
years after the downsizing in terms of morale, quality of life, and
organizational commitment?
a) Scored increasing better with these measures.
b) Scored most poorly relative to these measures.
c) Scored the same before and after downsizing wi th these measures.
d) Scored better at firstthen worse with these measures.
421) What is the initial step in choosing HRM technology solutions?
a) Evaluate vendors and products.
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b) Explore the marketplace.
c) Prepare a budget.
d) Conduct a needs analysis.
422) Which of the following is NOT a reason why flexible work schedules are
becoming more and more of a re tention tool?
a) Dual career couples in the “sandwich generation” are caring for both
children and elderly parents
b)Workload pressures have increased due to downsizing
c) People are placing a higher premium on self-actualization away from work
through hobbies, the arts and community involvement
d) Employees feel that they are working more hours and more da ys thanthey
prefer
423) Any reward system's success or fa ilure depends on which of the following?
a) how well itis applied
b) how well it follows best practices
c) how well it fits the needs of employees
d) how well it fits the organization and i ts strategy
424) Concept A is defined as a complex mathematical procedure commonly
used for project analysis in engineering and business ap plications; it can
determine an optimum or best-supply mix solution to minimize costs or other
constraints. What is Concept A?
a) Linear programming.
b) Movement analysis.
c) Markov model.
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d) Vacancy model.
425) What are the top three benefits downsizing vic tims will receive?
a) Job search support; severance pay; extended notice.
b) Severance pays; benefits continuation; outplacement counseling.
c) Job referral service; family counselingsevera nce pay.
d) Severance pays; retraining assistance; benefits continuation.
426) A traditional fixed benefits system would likely be most compatible with
which management strategy?
a) hybrid
b) classical
c) human relations
d) high involvement
427) There are three types of discrimina tion
a) systemic, blatant, and dispa rate
b) malicious, intentional, and systemic
c) direct, indirect, and systemic
d) indirect, obvious, and systemic
428) What are the required components of the position analysis questionnaire?
a) Mental processes; relationships with others
b) Information input; data
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c) Job context; physical things
d) Work output; problem-solving
429) What is the term for the process of reducing a human resource supply by allowingthe
size of the workforce to decrease naturally due to the normal
pattern of losses associated with retirements, deaths, voluntary turnover, etc.?
a) Retention.
b) HR surplus.
c) Hiring freeze.
d) Attrition.
430) Which Canadian law has had a positive impact on the promotion and
protection of human rights in Canada?
a) pay equity legislation
b) employment standards
c)the Fair Employment Equity Act
d) the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom
431) What is the method for makinglong -term forecasts using expert
evaluations?
a) Delphi technique.
b) Nominal group technique.
c) Trend analysis.
d) Regression analysis.
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432) Which of the following terms describes an organization's mix of intrinsic and extrinsic
rewards?
a) compensation strategy
b) compensation system
c) reward system
d) reward strategy
433) Which of the following is NOT a specific technique for job analysis?
a) Position Analysis Questionnaire.
b) The Hay System
c)Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
d) Delphi Technique.
434) Which of the following is NOT a method for management development??
a) Promotion.
b) Job enlargement
c) Special assignments.
d) Formal training and development.
435) Which of the following is a factor external to the HR forecasting process?
a) Organizational culture.
b) Demographic changes.
c) Job analysis.
d) Organizational structure.
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436) What is an example of BFOR?
a) Appearance for waiters and waitresses working in a restaurant
b) Requiring multilingualism in a hospital serving an ethnically diverse population of
patients
c) Sexual orientation, namely heterosexuality, to work in a grade school
d) Gender, namely female, to work in a daycare cen tre
437) If information is not received in a timely manner, accurate forecasts of HR
supply and HR demand are not possible. Which of the following is a way for
human resources to maximize its capacity?
a) E-learning.
b) Enterprise portals.
c)Web-based IT.
d) Relational database.
438) What do HR professionals identify as a need?
a) That they are ill-trained and require a significant amount of HR training.
b) That they should be playing a greater role in strategic HR planning.
c) That they are often excluded from high-level HR planning
d) That they should be evaluating the human capital more thoroughly.
439) A long-termplan for the orderly replacement of key employees is called
a) succession planning
b) transition mapping
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c) replacement forecasting
d) executive development
440) Which of the following is not one of Mintzberg's Five Ps?
a) Participant.
b) Perspective.
c) Program.
d) Process.
441) What is the definition of knowledge communi ties, which allow employees from a
single company or multiple companies to access and benefit from
specializedtask-related knowledge?
a) Relational database.
b) Business intelligence.
c) Enterprise portals.
d) Scripted demo.
442) How do appraisers use a numerical scale to evaluate a series of employee
characteristics?
a) behavioural observation scales
b) forced distribution
c)behaviorally anchored rating scales
d) graphic rating scale
443) Itis predictedthat Canadian employers will face skilled shortages du
the ageing of the workplace. Which jobs will be most affected?
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a) employees in Canadian federal public service and the RCMP
b) pilots and teachers
c) real estate agents and taxi drivers
d) architects and domestic workers
444) Which corporate strategy prioritizes the rapid identification and exploitation of new
opportunities?
a) prospector
b) defender
c) analyzer
d) focused differentiator
445) Which of the following is TRUE ab out diversity in the Canadian workforce?
a) Canada's immigration policy is to partly offset the aging of the population
and the increase in the retirement rate
b) Canada is one of the few coun tries in the western world that is actively
looking for immigrants that are highly qualified
c) The Canadian workforce has become more diverse raci ally and ethnically,
with 20% of Canada's
d) All of the above
446) What is the conceptthat is defined as a set of activities undertaken to
improve organizational efficiency, productivity, and/or competitiveness that
impact the workforce size, costs, and work processes?
a)Work redesign.
b)Workforce reduction.
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c) Restructuring.
d) Downsizing.
447) The HR Scorecard includes four componen ts. The customer perspective, the financial
perspective, and the internal business perspec tive are three of these
elements. What element is the fourth?
a) Employee perspective.
b) Innovation and learning perspective.
c) Strategic perspective.
d) Efficiency perspective.
448) The main impediment to HR being recognized as a strategic contributor to
organizational success is that HR is
a) HR activities are not quantitatively measurable
b) not critical to the success of an organization
c) justification for HR expenditures using hard data is lacking
d) HR does not have a professional credentialing process
449) What major qualification is necessary for success i n HR?
a) a certification such as the CHRP
b) liking to work with people
c) strong interpersonal skills
d) business acumen
450) A financial measure that shows that the HR function is generating more
return than the organization’s cost of capital is?
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a) return on investment
b) economic value added
c) benchmarking
d) balancing the scorecard
451) In order for diversity management to succeed in the organisation
commitment to change must begin with
a) HR professionals
b) lower-level employees
c) middle managers
d) top management
452) Which of the following activities in an incremental growth strategy support this type
of strategy?
a) Remove products that are not sellingwell.
b) Change the distribution networks.
c) Expand into international markets.
d) Managetechnology to have low-cost providers.
453) The focus of HR _______________ is to have the right number of people with the right
capabilities in the right place at the right time
a) planning
b) strategy
c) efficiency
d) benchmarking
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454) What exactly is deculture?
a)When a company attempts to absorb the culture of another organization into its own.
b)When a company tries to take away the culture of another organization.
c)When a company that is acquired does not value the culture of the
dominant partner.
d) When a company resist merging with another organization.
455) Which of the following, according to the expectancy theory, is an example of positive
expectation?
a) You believe your effort will lead to good performance.
b) You believe your manager will reward your good performance.
c) You value the reward offered.
d) You expect to be rewarded for your effort.
456) Which of the following is NOT a reason why c ompanies reduce their
workforce?
a) Introduction of new technology.
b) Getting rid of employee deadwood.
c) Declining profits.
d) Change in competitor’s strategy.
457) One of the four elements of a good organizational ethics programmes is a
system for confidential reporting of ethical misconduct or questionable
behaviour. The main reason that employees, including HR professionals, do not
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report ethical concerns are
a) a culture of "don't ask, don't tell" in most organizations
b) fear of prosecution for slander and/or lib el by the accused party
c) employees are not able to distinguish between ethical and unethical
behaviours
d) concerns about current and future employmentbeing affected
458) How does Autoglass determine the ranking of the highest bidder?
a) Cultural fit.
b) Software competency.
c) Contract condition.
d) Contract length.
459) A combination of an unstable environmen t, a prospector corporate
strategy, intensive technology, a small organisation size, and a highly skilled work force
would be favourable for what type of managerial strategy?
a) hybrid
b) classical
c)high involvement
d) human relations
460) What are the three distinct categories of forecasting activity?
a) Cost-based; activity-based; retention-based.
b) Revenue-based; planning-based; contingency-based.
c) Transaction-based; event-based; process-based.
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d) Profit-based; focus-based; category-based.
461) Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with the Nominal Group Technique?
a) All participants have an equal voice.
b) Its effective for brainstorming sessions.
c) The data are highly reliable and valid.
d) The results are cost-effective.
462) Retention is a problem in the modern workplace because
a) the slump in births after the baby-boom has left more jobs to fill than there are new
workers to fill them
b) new entrants to the workforce have no organizational loyalty and move to
other organizations for minor reasons.
c)there are fewer qualified and productive workers in the Canadian workforce.
d) female workers are taking full advantage of parental lea ve to extend their
time away from the workforce
463) What is a scale economy?
a)When it is more economical to apply the same process to multiple users.
b)When the costs of one activity are spread over more users and the unit cost is less.
c)When there are more users because of having one process appli ed to them.
d) When one provider is able to conduct services for a variety of users.
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464) What is the term for the source of workers to meet demand requirements, whether
obtained internally or from exttern
ernal agencies?
a) HR Surplus.
b) HR Deficit.
c) HR Demand.
d) HR Supply.
465) What is the conceptthatemphasizesthe expansion of foreign markets
through sales to foreign nationals?
a) Multinational strategy.
b) Adaptive IHRM approach.
c) Multidomestic strategy.
d) Exportive IHRM approach
466) Which of the following is NOT a dis advantage of job analysis?
a) Time and costs of job analysis
b) Lack of expertise in preparing the job analysis
c) Job description or specification that is too vague
d) Job analysis that is neither updated nor reviewed
467) What is the conceptthat describes perceptions or opinions regarding
organizational attributes?
a) Attitudes.
b)Values.
c) Culture.
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d) Climate.
468) Which of the following is the most significant challenge affecting HR
practices and processes in an international context?
a) Corporate social responsibility.
b) Ecological issues.
c) Workforce diversity.
d) Municipal Bylaws.
469) The Employment Equity Act argued that:
a) there are no true differences among p eople except those attributed to them by
discriminatory bias
b) differences among people should be ignored and everyone should be
treated equally.
c) organizations should hire groups of peopl e based on their race, age, gender, or national
origin to make up for historical discrimination
d) the only differences that should make count in employment opportunities are those of
job-related qualifications
470) Which of the following methods can be used to evaluate employee
potential?
a)Behaviorally anchored rating scales; HRMS
b) Performance appraisals; Assessmentcenters
c) Mentorship; On-the-job training.
d) Simulations; Replacement planning.
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471) Compliance, client satisfaction, culture management, and cos t
managementare included in the 5C Model of HRM Impact. What is the fifth component
of this design?
a) Consistency.
b) Continuity.
c) Contribution.
d) Compensation.
472) What is a major risk associa ted with HR strategic planning?
a) That the costs associated with strategic HR planning are significant.
b) That strategic HR planning is relatively easy and so is rarely done.
c) That an organization loses its flexibility from becoming myopic.
d) That an organization becomes ove rly committed to one strategy.
473) Why is evaluating human resources alongside organizationalstrategies necessary?
a) To calculate the attrition and retention of employees over time.
b) To determine how many people ne ed to be hired and fired.
c) To formulate the organizational mission and goals.
d) To align the HR strategy with the organizational strategy.
474) Which of the following must be completed prior to conducting a job
evaluation?
a) job analysis
b) performance appraisal
c) developing pay grades
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d) external equity
475) Why is evaluating human resources alongside organizational strategies
necessary?
a) To calculate the attrition and retention of employees over time.
b) To determine how many people ne ed to be hired and fired.
c) To formulate the organizational mission and goals.
d) To align the HR strategy with the organizational strategy.
476) Which of the following must be completed prior to conducting a job
evaluation?
a) job analysis
b) performance appraisal
c) developing pay grades
d) external equity
477) What type of merger is created when two companies compete in distinct markets?
a) Horizontal merger.
b)Vertical merger.
c) Conglomerate merger.
d) Takeover merger.
478) Which of the following is not an acceptable reason for market leadership?
a) this is the best choice when undecided
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b) the firm needs high quality applicants
c) labour costs are low as a proportion of total cost
d) poor noncompensation rewards are offered
479) Which of the following is a cruci al aspect of the implementation plan
development?
a) preparing the compensation budget
b) deciding whether to outsource
c)the plan for communicating the new system
d) planning for information technology
480) What is the foundation of the Strategic HR Planning Model?
a) It is based upon Porter’s Differentiation Strategy for Selection, Compensation,
Performance Evaluation, and Labour Relations.
b) It is based upon generic corporate and business strategies linked with
complex bundled HR policies and practices.
c) It is based upon the concept of hoarding employees and outsourcing.
d) It is based upon Mintzberg’s 5 Ps of Strategy.
481) In the Strategic HR PlanningMod el, which of the following is NOT a
characteristic?
a) Assessing strengths and weaknesses
b) Going international.
c) Outsourcing.
d) Employee hoarding.
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482) Which of the following approaches to employee motivation is considered by many to
be the most effective?
a) management by objectives
b)behaviorally anchored rating scales
c) field review
d) behavioural observation scales
483) What is the competitive edge?
a) The steps or activities necessary to accomplish a goal.
b) The process by which strategy is put into action.
c) A firm’s qualities that enable it to earn a higher profit than its competitors.
d) A firm’s characteristics that allow it to influence the external environment.
484) What distinguishes business strategy from corporate strategy?
a) Corporate strategy looks at buildinglong-term competitive advantage.
b) Business strategy tends to be short-term and corporate strategy is long-term.
c) Business strategy focuses on long-term survival and growth.
d) Corporate strategy is aimed at one line of business in a diversified company.
485) In a manner analogous to comparing apples and oranges, this method is
used to determine the relative value of various jobs to the organization.
a) job evaluation
b) job analysis
c) market pricing
d) internal equity
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486) What is Y in the simple regression prediction model?
a) The dependent variable.
b) The slope of the linear relationship.
c) The independent variable.
d) The constant or intercept.
487) What method is used to analyze personnel supply, specificallythe chain or ripple
effectthat promotions or job losses have on other em ployees?
a) Linear programming.
b) Movement analysis.
c) Markov model.
d) Vacancy model.
488) What does outsourcing a form consist of?
a) Restructuring.
b) Downsizing.
c) Training.
d) HR planning.
489) When an employee quits in the first few months after hiring, it is likely due to
a) inadequate screening before hire
b) poor relationship with the supervisor
c) lack of career opportunities
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d) non-competitive pay
490) How is an interest group defined?
a) Groups of individuals who have interests in a few areas of business for an
organization.
b) Groups of individuals who have inves ted significant amounts of money in an
organization.
c) Groups of people who have ves ted interests in an organization’s decisions.
d) Groups of people who have agreed to focus on only a few main items within
anorganization.
491) Which of the following is typicall y NOT included in diversity training?
a) cultural awareness
b) sensitivity training
c) consciousness-raising
d) legal awareness
492) What is one of the benefits
ts of trend analysis?
a) Limited use.
b) Simplistic forecast.
c) Cost-effective.
d) User friendly.
493) Which of these is NOT a characteristic of advanced information
technologies?
a) Communication properties.
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b) Improved transmission capacity.
c) Competitive advantage
d) Decision-aiding ability.
494) Which of these is NOT an advantage of HR forecasting?
a) Increases organizational flexibility.
b) Ensures a closelinkage to the macro business forecas ting process.
c) Enables the organization to rationall yplan for the future.
d) Reduces HR costs.
495) The roleplayed by HR wherein the HR func tion is the champion of the
employee is the _________ role
a) operational
b) strategic
c) advocate
d) representative
496) All of the following are operational activities of HR except __________, which is a strategic
activity
a) complying with laws, policies, and procedures
b) analyzing HR metrics and measurements
c) recruiting and selecting employees
d) responding to goals and objectives set by executives
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497) What determines the extent to which a person is compelled to fulfill a
specific need?
a) motivation
b) need salience
c) core job dimensions
d) positive reinforcement
498) Which personnel category receives above-average consideration during
the forecasting process?
a) Employment Equity Designated Groups.
b) Union members.
c) Managers-in-training.
d) Stakeholders.
499) Using a manager’s best guess as the basis for forecasting the staffing needs in a
departmentis classified as a _____________ method
a) mathematical
b) judgmental
c) quantitative
d) non-intuitive
500) What is the conceptthat examines the connection between the
operational index and labour demand?
a) Employee Requirement Ratio.
b) Return on Investment.
c) Forecasted Labour Demand.
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d) Single-variable Relationship.
501) High-involvement organisations typically require what type of employee conduct?
a) membership and task behaviour
b) task behaviour
c) task, membership, and organizational citizenship
d) membership behaviour
502) Which of the following is a response tim e efficiency metric?
a) Number of interviews per selection.
b) Time to process benefits.
c) Cost per training day.
d) Time to process an EAP application.
503) What aspect of selection and recruitment can be outsourced?
a) Employee assistance programs.
b) Pension.
c) Reference checking.
d) Program evaluation.
504) Which classification categorizes technologies based on the type of
production process?
a) Perrow’s
b) Thompson’s
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c) Woodward’s
d) Mile and Snow
505) Which of the following statemen ts would not constitute a job description?
a) office administration training
b) college diploma or equivalent
c) proficient in use of computers
d) supervise clerical staff
506) What requirements does Canadian law impose on the use of personal
information for administrative purposes?
a) That it is protected, duplicated, and secure.
b) That it contains medical records, employmenttests and drug tests.
c) That it is dependable, password protected, and restricted.
d) That it is accurate, up-to-date, and complete as possible.
507) What is the purpose of a human resource mana gement strategy?
a) To determine the requirement for HR supply and HR demand.
b) To align the organization’s strategies to de termine the needs for human
resources.
c) To focus on the needs of the external environment and respond with HR
management.
d) To capitalize on the distinctive competencies of the organization and to add value via the
use of human resources.
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508) What broadens the geographic scope of the market for particular
professions?
a)many industries competing for the same labour
b) the more specialized the job
c)the size of the firm
d) an employer is paying less than its competitors
509) Which of the following is NOT cha racteristic of international strategic HR
planning?
a) Forecasting global competence needs.
b) Projecting global competence supply.
c) Developing a blueprint to establishglobal competence pools.
d) Estimating local competence demands.
510) What is the concept behind along-term forecasting method based on expert
evaluations?
a) Nominal Group Technique.
b) Delphi Technique.
c) Staffing Table.
d) Envelope Forecasts.
511) Which of the following is NOT a s tep in conducting a successful index or trend
analysis?
a) Calculate the forecasted demand for labour.
b) Track the business index over time.
c) Track the workforce size over time.
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d) Calculate the employee requirement deficit.
512) All of the following are considered to be drivers of retention EXCEPT
a) job design and work
b) employee relationships
c) career opportunities
d) macroeconomic factors
513) How do you define a mission statement?
a) An articulation of a view of a realistic, credible, and attractive future for the
organization.
b) The basic beliefs that govern individuals and group behaviour in an
organization.
c) A clear and compelling goal that serves to unite an organization’s efforts.
d) The common values that bind an organization together over time.
514) The fact that only about 14.4 percent of the highest-ranking executive
management jobs in Canadian companies are held by women is evidence of
a) glass walls
b) the glass ceiling
c) careers of glass
d) “one-way” glass
515) Which of the following statemen ts is FALSE? Workers over 40
a) can be fired if they are poor performers
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b)are protected by Canadian Human Rights legislations if age is a job-related qualification
c) can be disciplined if they break organizational rules
d) can be replaced with younger (cheaper) employees if the firm can prove
there is financial business necessity
516) Which of the following examples represents an extrinsic reward?
a) indirect pay
b) a challenging job
c) meaningful tasks
d) empowerment
517) What factors as a new busin ess owner determine the optimal managerial strategy for
your organization?
a) organizational system
b) structural variables
c) contextual variables
d) inputs
518) Which reward strategy is suitable for businesses employing a traditional
managerial strategy?
a)mainly extrinsic economic rewards unrelated to performance
b) liberal fringe benefits and loyalty rewards
c) extrinsic economic rewards tied to output or time worked
d) wide variety of both extrinsic and in trinsic rewards
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519) What is the term for systematic considera tion of the moral repercussions of one’s
actions and decisions on numerous s takeholders?
a) Morality
b) Social responsibility
c) Ethics
d) Mission
520) An HRMS system serves two major purposes in organisations:
a) strategic and technological
b) technological and operational
c) administrative and effectiveness
d) technological and workflow
521) What is the term that encompasses all hardware and software, as well as networking
and communication technologies?
a) eHR
b) IT
c) SHRM
d) HRIS
522) Which of the following strategies cannot be utilised to effectively manage a
downsizing?
a) Paying attention to top manag ement talent.
b) Controlling the rumor mill.
c) Getting people involved
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d) Seeking informal sources of information.
523) The downsizing technique that has the most negative effect on the
departing and surviving employees is
a) voluntary separations
b) attrition
c) early retirements
d) layoffs
524) The responsibility for carrying out HR ac tivities
a) is mostly that of managers in the organization with the guidance of HR
professionals
b) resides solely with HR professional
c)is divided between HR professionals and the managers of the organization
d) ultimately rests with the Board of Directors
525) Which of the following behavioural objectives is most appropriate for
organisations employing a traditional management strategy?
a) promote learning and development
b) maintain moderate to high retention
c) attract applicants to staff initial needs and replace turnover
d) promote high citizenship behaviour
526) Customer satisfaction can be measured in a numbe r of ways. What
method is typically reserved for the collection of other types of data?
a) Surveys.
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b) Informal feedback.
c) Critical incident method.
d) Quasi-experimentation.
527) What is the most frequently reported measure, according to The Global
Human Capital Study 2008?
a) Customer satisfaction/loyalty.
b) Units of output per employee.
c) Employee engagement/satisfaction.
d) Employee retention/turnover.
528) What is a skill development objective related to global competence?
a) To learn the company’s worldwide business structure.
b) To transact business in another country.
c) To learn about international business issues.
d) To learn aboutthe network of worldwide professional contacts.
529) How many supplyalternatives exist when determining HR supply?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
530) What action can be taken to expedite the development of candidates?
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a) Spend less time on training.
b) Are not guaranteed a promotion.
c) Spend more time in assignmen ts.
d) Are not assigned a mentor.
531) What is the least effective method of leader development?
a) Formal workshops.
b) Expatriate assignments.
c) Tests and assessments.
d) Coaching.
532) All of the following are areas of HR compe tencies EXCEPT
a) business knowledge
b)interpersonal skills
c) personal credibility
d) HR delivery
533) What is one way in which downsizing can be unethical, despite its legality?
a) Information may be released in an untimely manner.
b) Communication patterns can s tay static.
c) Communication may be selective to survivors only.
d) Information about downsizingmay be concealed.
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534) Based on the findings of two surveys conducted in 2007, wha t was the most prevalent
method of downsizing?
a)Workplace restructuring.
b) Eliminating tasks.
c) Redesigning jobs.
d) Contracting out.
535) What is technique?
a) The formulation of organizational missions, goals, objectives and action plans.
b) The plan that changes incrementally due to environmental chang es.
c) The attempt to increase the viability of an organization and its mission.
d) The plan for how an organization intends to achieve i ts mission and
objectives.
536) How can one generate future scenarios that differ significantly from those
generated by extrapolating present trends?
a) Regression analysis.
b) Scenario planning.
c) Trend analysis.
d) Delphitechnique
537) What is the conceptthat describes the degree to which the needs,
demands, goals, objectives, and/or structure of one component match those of another
component?
a) Fit.
b) Flexibility.
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c) Adaptability.
d) Static.
538) The Canadian economy has shif ted from a ________ economy to a
_________ economy.
a) manufacturing, service
b) physical asset based, financial asset based
c) growing, stagnant
d) labour-rich, labour-poor
539) An indication of an advanced a pproach to diversity management in an
organisation is/are
a) a preference for the traditional status quo
b) an inclusive culture
c) implementation of employment equity.
d) frequent lawsuits
540) What are the origins of extrinsic rewards in the workplace?
a) job content
b) higher-order human needs
c) job context
d) incentives
541) What is one of the most influential trends influencing management today?
a) Acquisitions.
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b) Mergers.
c) Outsourcing.
d) Repatriation.
542) Which of the following is NOT a common me thod for evaluating HRM
practices?
a) Costing measures.
b) Activity-based measures.
c) Client satisfaction.
d) Employee satisfaction.
543) Quid pro quo sexual harassment
a)is exemplified by nepotism in the workplace
b) is the creation of a hostile working environment
c) usually results from consensual relationships at work
d) demands sexual favours in return for employment outcomes
544) When conducting a trend analysis, four normal indices are utilised. Which is the most
prevalent?
a) Number of clients served.
b) Direct labour hours.
c) Sales level.
d) Number of units produced.
545) What is the fourth step in the Delphi technique?
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a) Define and refine the Issue or Question.
b)Orient the Experts.
c) Continue Issuing Questionnaires.
d) Issue the First-Round Questionnaire.
546) Which of the following is a measure of volume efficiency?
a) Ratio of benefits expense to total operating expense.
b) Ratio of filled positions to authorized posi tions.
c) Time to respond to requests by category.
d) Processing costs per benefit claim.
547) What is the unwritten agreement between employers and employees that has
historically ensured job security and rewa rds for loyal service?
a) Psychological contract.
b) Common law.
c) EmotionalIntelligence.
d) Social Responsibility
548) What is the alternative moniker for the vacancy model?
a) Opportunity model.
b) Sequencing model.
c) Position model.
d) Post model.
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549) What is a major Canadian source used by HR planners to remain current?
a) HR Magazine.
b) HR Professional.
c) Personnel.
d) Training and Development.
550) What is the concept of two or more organisations merging to form a new entity?
a) Takeover.
b) Merger.
c) Acquisition.
d) Consolidation.
551) Which of these is NOT a method for identifying managerial talent?
a) Talent management culture.
b) Replacement charts.
c) Strategic replacement.
d) Permanent replacements.
552) Which type of justice describes the fairness of the decision to downsize?
a) Legislative.
b) Procedural.
c) Distributive.
d) Interactional.
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553) Sarah is the sole survivor in her department of a merger that resulted in all of her coworkers being transferred or taking early retirement. Although Sarah’s
pay is competitive, the transfers and retirements were handled in a humane
manner, and Sarah has been given a written job contract for five years, Sarah is strongly
thinking about quitting. Which driver of retention is probably lacking in
Sarah’s case?
a) work/life balancing
b) values and culture of the employer
c) careerplanning
d) employee relationships
554) What is the third step of the job analysis procedure?
a) Define and formalize new methods and performance standards.
b) Examine the recorded data on the job or process.
c) Determine the job or process to be analyzed.
d) For the job or process, main tain new methods and performance standards.
555) Which of the following is NOT a trait of effective measurement?
a) Trackable.
b) Actionable.
c) Comparable.
d) Reportable.
556) What are two typical examples of technology effectiveness within an
organisation?
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a) System satisfaction; informa
rmation timeliness.
b) Information satisfaction; information quality.
c) Cost-benefit; system quality.
d) Attitude; advantages.
557) Which of the following is a true statement?
a) The greater the profitability of the acquiring company, the greater the
chance the company will win the bid.
b) The greater the ego of the acquiring compa ny’s CEO, the higher the
premium the company is likelyy to pay.
c) The lesser the ego of the acquiring compa ny’s CEO, the lower the premium the
company is likely to pay.
d) The lesser the profitability of the acquiring company, the lesser the chance the
company will win the bid.
558) Which of the following provides the highest proportion of justification for
initiating an acquisition or merger?
a) Growth in market share.
b) Access to new products.
c) Access to management talent.
d) Access to new markets.
559) is the most frequent type of harassment
a) Same sex harassment
b) Harassment of subordinate to supervisor
c) Employee to another employee
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d) Customer to employee
560) What is the definition of a contractual relationship for the external provision of
business services?
a) Psychological contract.
b) Outsourcing.
c) Common law contract.
d) Takeover.
561) The primary determinant of ethical behaviour in an organisation is the
a) norms of the community in which the organization is located
b) quality of the HR administrative function
c) organization's culture
d) selectiveness in hiring process
562) What two things can change when an organisation implements HR
technology?
a) Organizational culture and organization al climate.
b) Communication patterns and p ower dynamics
c) Organizational chart and organizational behaviour.
d) Leadership and labour relations.
563) What is discrimination?
a) pay equity legislation
b) treating people differently, negatively or adversely without a good rea
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c) paying employees in different job categories different wages
d) firing an employee
564) Who stated, "The ultimate test of good management is succession
management, ensuring a replacement for the CEO?"
a) Peter Drucker
b) Henry Mintzberg
c) W. Richard Scott
d) Alan Saks
565) Which of the following is an effective job description?
a) composes correspondence of a sim ple and straightforward nature for supervisor
b) uses a variety of tools
c) performs other duties as assigned
d) handles mail
566) The fundamental employee record is
a) interviewer’s report
b) application form
c) background check
d) employment test result summary
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General Questions
567) What is the definition of constructive dismissal?
a) a lay-off.
b) dismissal for just cause.
c) a “disguised’ dismissal where the employer changes the job so completely that the
employment contract has ended.
d) a dismissal without
hout a severance package.
568) Which of the following is a popular belief on the use of intuition in decision making?
a) it is fast or leads to quick dec isions
b) it is seldom a positive force
c) it involves new and different patterns of information
d) it is a conscious activity
569) Which
hich of the following applicable to the GHOST Model of the internal
organisation?
a) goals, outcomes and staff
b) goals, human resources and organizational structure
c) goals, opportunities and structure
d) goals, outcomes and talent
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570) Which best describes the extent to which a job requires the execution of a wholetask or
series of tasks?
a) task significance
b) autonomy
c) skill variety
d) task identity
571) Which of the following disciplines of research concentrating on the
influence of work teams, work motivation and workplace health on
organizational performance?
a) sociology
b) psychology
c) anthropology
d) medicine
572) Human, informational, ma terial, and financial resources best define which
aspect of an organisation system?
a) throughputs
b) inputs
c)the transformation
d) outputs
573) In response to the rise of dual -career couples, single-parent homes, and job demands,
several Canadian firms have introduced family-friendly perks. Which
of the following perks is geared at families?
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a) life insurance benefit
b) tuition refund program
c) flexible scheduling
d) better medical benefits
574) Which influencetechnique most accurately describes using the assistance
of others to persuade you to do some thing?
a) ingratiation
b) exchange
c) coalition
d) consultation
575) What precedent did Wallace v. United Grain Growers establish in Canada?
a) employers have the right to proceed with constructive dismissal.
b) employers have the obligation of good faith and fair dealings in the
manner of dismissal.
c) employers can lay-off employees only with “just cause”.
d) employers have the right of “administrative” and “just cause” dismissal.
576) Which better describes the degree of differentiation most influenced by the specific
expertise, education, or training of an employee?
a) vertical differentiation
b) spatial differentiation
c) horizontal differentiation
d) departmental differentiation
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577) According to the path-goal theory, the leader should employ which of the following
approaches if the followers are highly-trained experts and the
assignment is tough but achievable?
a) supportive
b) directive
c) achievement oriented
d) participative
578) Individual variable compensation is NOT acceptable if
a) the employees value pay equity.
b) competition is the basis of the organization’s culture
c) output cannot be measured objectively.
d) employee performance levels are similar.
579) A ____________ functions sim ilar to a bank account. The company and
employee group agree on a yearly exp enditure per employee. This money is in the form of
benefits, and the workers withdraw the corresponding account
credits.
a) managed health care plan
b) co-payments plan
c) health spending account
d) defined contributions plan
580) Examples include application forms, examinations, interviews, and
educational requirements.
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a) KSAs
b) selection criteria
c) predictors
d) specifications
581) Performance evaluation is the process of assessing an employee's job
performance and conveying the results to the employee.
a) appraisal
b) management
c) modification
d) improvement
582) If the focus is on rules and regulations to ensure that things are done
correctly, which aspect of the interpersonal interaction model of organizational culture is
evident?
a) role
b) power
c) process
d) achievement
583) What is a common HR function in an organisation?
a) Merchandise budgeting
b) Logistics
c) Market planning
d) Compensation
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584) Which of the following best describes a persistent conviction that a specific action or
condition of existence is preferred?
a) value
b) commitment
c) engagement
d) attitude
585) Employees value benefit options and benefit flexibility. However, the
disadvantage of this flexibility is
a) erosion of the organization’s a bility to use benefits strategically.
b) loss of tax advantages for the employer.
c) increased administrative costs for the employer.
d) higher potential for discrimination lawsuits by employees.
586) What is the expected outcome of fact-based and as objective as feasible performance
evaluations?
a) lead to increased competition
b) help create less political behaviour
c) lead to ambiguous authority
d) lead to fewer advancement opportunities
587) How do you define the extent to which users intend or actually use
technology as a regular part of their jobs?
a) Technology acceptance.
b) Technology self-service.
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c) Technology outsourcing.
d) Technology saturation.
588) In response to the markets' need for enhanced overall performance,
several businesses have turned to "benchmarking" to strengthen their
commercial position. Which better characterizes "benchmarking"?
a) Looking at the best practices in only competing companies
b) “Marking up” benches while trying to come up wi ththe ultimate solution
c) Being aware of your closest competition and mimicking their practices
d) Looking at the best practices in other companies, whe ther they are
competitors or not
589) Which describes charismatic leadership the best?
a) is very different than transformational leadership
b) is very different than transformational leadership
c) becomes a very effective leadership approach when combined with
personalized power motivation
d) has great potential for high levels of achievement but also risks of destructive courses of
action
590) The leadership replacements idea suggests that the leadership style may
change when conditions such as hig h job feedback and team cohesiveness are present.
a) democratic
b) autocratic
c) production-oriented
d) laissez-faire
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591) Due to fears over terrorism and violent crime, an import-export firm with
regular international visitors are considering implementing an advanced video
monitoring system. Which of the followingis NOT a suggested video surveillance
technique?
a) Perform surveillance for only legitimate business purposes.
b) Include all rooms and areas in which visitors may enter, including restrooms.
c) Strictly limit those who will view the videos.
d) Inform employees about the policy.
592) The three components of intercultural competency training consist of all of the
following EXCEPT
a) defensive
b) cognitive
c) emotional
d) behavioural
593) Which bestcharacterizesthe process through which team members pass
work back and forth?
a) pooled interdependence
b) reciprocal interdependence
c) sequential interdependence
d) task interdependence
594) The technique of utilizing fewer pay grades with greater ranges than in
traditional compensation systems is known as.
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a) Pay compression
b) Pay matrix
c)Red circling
d) Broadbanding
595) The premise that previous behaviours are reliable indicators of future
actions arethe foundation for ______ interviews.
a) behavioural
b) stress
c) situational
d) competency
596) Despite the company's investment in safety training, the accident rate at the facility
continues to remain high. This exemplifies a _____________ issue.
a) gap analysis
b) transfer of training
c) cross training
d) training priorities
597) Colleges and universities are viewed as valuable providers of
a) licensed and certified employees
b) clerical and administrative employees
c) entry-level professional and technical employees
d) independent contractors
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598) Larry is interviewing for the position of pharmaceu tical sales representative. Larry is
52 years old and appears to be his age. Even though Larry is qualified for the position, the
interviewer is worried that he would create a poor impression
on the physicians in the sales zone. The interviewer's ide al sales representative is a lady in
her 30s. The interviewer has made an omission.
a) stereotyping
b) halo
c) cultural noise
d) snap judgment
599) According to Blake and Mouton, whose place on the Leadership Grid
would a manager with a low concern for output and a high care for people
occupy?
a) 1,9
b) 1,1
c) 9,1
d) 9,9
600) According to Schnieder, wha t is the simplest approach to explain
corporate culture?
a) “the way we do things around here”
b) “the best way to serve our customers”
c) “the way to maximize profits for our shareholders”
d) “the way to maintain our competitive edge”
601) Most likely to determine if the training had an effect on the trainees is the
_______ design.
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a) post-measure with a control group
b) post-measure
c) pre-post measure
d) pre-post measure with a control group
602) Which of the enumerated characteristics represents the essence of
empowerment?
a) meaning, teamwork, competence, and trust
b) teamwork, delegation, trust, and autonomy
c) delegation, trust, competence, and autonomy
d) meaning, competence, and self -determination
603) Which of the following interview formats has the LEAST amount of selection validity?
a) situational
b) non-directive
c) competency
d) behavioural
604) Which of the following best represents the discipline that shapes corporate culture
and behaviour patterns?
a) sociology
b) anthropology
c) engineering
d) psychology
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605) The process of organizing, training, and reassigning worldwide personnel to their home
nations is known as repatriation.
a) rehabilitation
b) reintegration
c) expatriation
d) repatriation
606) Using market pricing to determine wages and pay in a company is
regarded as unorthodox.
a) overly reliant on a limited number of sources of data.
b) excessively affected by internal organizational p olitics.
c) more likely to result in stable pay systems from year to year than traditional job
evaluation
d) less subjective than traditional job evaluation.
607) In general, research indicates that individuals utiliseALL ofthe following
elements to choose a job EXCEPT
a) personal interests
b) compensation level
c) self-image
d) social background
608) Which of the following is typical of Flat organisation structures?
a) close supervision
b) narrow spans of control
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c) long communication channels
d) high ratios of employees to supervisors
609) Which best describes a human resource activity that guarantees pleasant and
productive relationships between employees and their supervisors,
managers, and/or union representatives?
a) Employee and labour relations
b) Planning
c) Performance management
d) Training and development
610) Which of the options below can serve as a vertical and horizontal
integrating device?
a) cross-functional teams
b) a well-defined chain of command
c) an assistant to the president
d) management information systems
611) Which of the following best shows the support for trait theories to find
universally distinctive characteristics of leaders?
a)When looking at physical attributes, height has been the attribute mostoften attributed to
leaders
b) Trait studies have identified physical attributes as being more important to
leadership than personality or leader abilities such as intelligence.
c) Findings on traits as a basis for explainingleader effectiveness are neither
strong nor uniform.
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d) Trait theory studies have tended to conclude that there are strong
implications for training and development rather than selection.
612) Which of the following best describes "What will be expected of me?"
based on "individual reactions to change"?
a) fear of the unknown
b) fear of loss
c) selective perception
d) fear of failure
613) Which of the following claims about systematic performance evaluations
versus informal performance evaluations is TRUE?
a) Informal appraisals require face to face in teraction of the supervisor with the subordinate
while systematic appraisals do not
b) Systematic appraisals operate on a regular time schedule.
c) Systematic appraisals prevent “surprises” during the employee’s annual
review
d) Informal appraisals focus entirely on developmental issues
614) People who will live in their native nation, bu t who will go to other countries to do
business
a) need as much cross-cultural training as expatriates do
b) do not need cross-cultural training since they will reside in their home country
c) benefit the most from training in foreign customs and practices
d) only need cross-cultural training if they do not speak the languag
language of the
country(ies) to which they will be traveling
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615) Grouping individuals who do similar duties or have comparable knowledge is
synonymous with which of the following?
a) task grouping
b) functional grouping
c) activity grouping
d) horizontal grouping
616) The same sum is paid to all employees regardless of the number of hours
worked.
a) salary
b) wage
c) commission
d) incentive
617) In identifying the proper bargaining unit, the labour board will examine a
number of variables, excluding those listed below.
a) traditional industry groupings for bargaining purposes.
b) similar wages, hours and working conditions.
c) similar levels of knowledge, skills and abilities.
d) close physical location and interaction and working relationships
618) The commission system is the most dangerous method of sales pay for a
salesperson.
a) straight commission
b) salary-only
c) salary plus commission
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d) salary plus bonus
619) All of the following are bestpractices for a Canadian business operating in a dangerous
nation.
a) buy ransom and kidnap insurance for its employees.
b) remove identifying signs from its buildings
c) hire no local people.
d) restrict access to its facilities.
620) After a prominent actor wore a "Lorna bag" in a blockbuster film, the Lorna Handbag
Company received an avalanche of orders for their handbags
featuring a patented clasp mechanism. The Lorna Company had to __________ in order to
swiftly increase the number of staff in order to fulf ill the orders.
a) ad hoc
b) sporadic
c) intensive
d) targeted
621) In 2008, what proportion of Canada's gross domestic product was
exported?
a) 30
b) 20
c) 40
d) 50
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622) Which stage of team growth is marked by conflict, confusion, and the formation
of cliques as team members battle with issues of leadership and control?
a) storming
b)norming
c) forming
d) performing
623) The Conference Board of Canada performed a survey toestablish what organisations
wantto develop new and enhancedp rocesses, products, and services. Which competencies
were included inthe textbook's incomplete list?
a) Mathematics
b) Literacy
c) Technology aptitude
d) Adopting a “can-do” attitude
624) Which medium of communica tion has a high to moderate data capacity and a low to
moderate information density?
a) face-to-face communication
b) written communication
c)telephone communication
d) voice mail
625) There are __ WHMIS danger symbols a)9
b) 10
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c) 8
d) 5
626) Which of the following would typically appea r on a BARS for a cashier in a
video store?
a) Customer had to approach clerk for assista nce.
b) Employee is not meeting expectations in the timely customer service area.
c) Employee rates a 2 on a scale of 1 to 7 in timeliness of customer service
d) On May 11, Jim continued to speak on his cell phone while the customer
walked up and down the aisles for five minutes, looking directly at Jim, who
ignored her. Finally the customer had to ask Jim for help
627) All of the following are exceptions to the list of benefits of Internet recruiting:
a) time savings
b) increased job security for HR staff
c) cost savings
d) expanded pool of applicants
628) Which identifies today's demographic difficulties and employee concerns
the best?
a) A diversified and aging workforce; rising levels of education; balancing work
and family
b) A diversified and aging workforce; embracing technology; a concern for
privacy
c) The Canadian labour force is more educated; employees want a balance
between home and work; globalization
d) Increasing productivity; embracing technology; an educated workforc
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629) The __________________ guaran tees that employees are paid at least the
minimum wage.
a) Fair Pay Act.
b) Employment Standards Act
c) Compensation Act
d) Provincial Fair Labour Act
630) What is the primary distinction between employment expansion and job
enrichment?
a) enrichment horizontally loads a job whereas enlargement vertically loads a
job
b) enlargement has a minimal impact on employee motivation
c) enrichment vertically loads a job whereas enlargement horizontally loads a
job
d) enlargement empowers employees while enrichment does not
631) In which phase of Lewin's change model are individuals urged to abandon previous
behaviours by disrupting the equilibrium?
a) moving
b) freezing
c) unfreezing
d) shifting
632) Which definition better describes the tendency to attribute one's
shortcomings on external causes?
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a) known as the fundamental attribution error
b) remedied by the discounting principle
c) has been shown to not be related to cultural pre-dispositions
d) known as the self-serving bias
633) Work-family conflictis defined by organizational specialists as:
a) A type of inter-role conflict in which the role pressures experienced in the
work and family domains are incompatible
b) Pressures experienced in the work and family domains that are in opposition and
participation in one role is made more difficult by virtue of participation in the other role
c) A form of inter-role conflict in which the responsibilities of two separate roles are
incompatible in some respect
d) All of the above
634) These are the three leading causes of injuries in Canada:
a) lack of training, electrocution, exposure to chemical substance.
b) exposure to solvent, machine injuries, workplace violence.
c) ineffective safety device, bodily reaction, losing balance.
d) overextending, falling and bodily reaction.
635) Sometimes, ______________ are referred to as "people's capitalism."
a) Profit-sharing
b) ESOPs
c) Gainsharing
d) Straight commission systems
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636) What is the outcome of a study of the communication skills and
performance of managers?
a) higher performingmanagers are better and less apprehensive
communicators than lower performing managers
b) higher performing managers' communication skills were no better than lower performing
managers
c) higher performing managers had significantly greater social cognitive abilities than lower
performing managers
d) female managers consistently outperformed male managers when
communication skills were aboutthe same
637) The chief executive officer of the organisation has asked the director of
training if an outdoor training programme would be offeredthis year. The
director of training stated that the programme was somewhat costly per
participant and that the measurable benefits were unclear. The CEO stated that she would
want to see the training programme continue since she has had such positive feedback from
participants. Based on the training evaluation's _________ level, the CEO is willing to invest the
money on training.
a) learning
b) behaviour
c) reaction
d) results
638) The production company Sandlot Films is seeking extras for their upcoming
adaptation of National Velvet. For many scenarios featuring a fox hunt, forty
extras are required. Each extra must be a talented hunt-seat equestrian over the age of 18,
with a physical appearance be tween
years old and a
tween 20 and 60 yea
weight between
ween 110 and 185 pounds (so that they fit into the costumes). Twenty
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ladies and twenty men with these attributes will beemployed. Sandlot Films
employs the _________ method to pick the extras.
a) minimum cutoff
b) compensatory
c) multiple hurdles
d) physical traits
639) In a reciprocal relationship like employment, every right is accompanied with an
obligation.
a) benefit
b) responsibility.
c) cost
d) contractual duty.
640) The ________ provides a share of i ts revenues to its employees.
a) Stock options plans
b) ESOP
c) Earning at risk (EAR)
d) Profit sharing
641) Which of the following is NOT a ma ndatory government benefit?
a) provincial Medicare
b) disability and survivor benefits
c) employment insurance (EI)
d) life insurance
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642) If the training manager of an organisation examined grievances,
accidents, wastage/scrap, complaints, and exit interviews, you might infer that the training
manager was considering ___________ data sources in his/her
training requirements analysis.
a) job/task
b) individual
c) organizational
d) work
643) What separates societies with a high context from those with a low
context?
a) expression clearly and logically as possible
b) maintain social harmony
c)the language used
d) non-verbal communication used
644) Which of the following describes wh en an employee's incentive stems from
compensation?
a) intrinsic
b) extrinsic
c) content
d) process
645) Modern technology has produced HRIS; which of the following bestdefines the benefit
of such a system?
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a) It creates less work for HR by doing i t all for them.
b) It creates a position for technology workers
c) It is a database that can only store and retrieve information.
d) It can assistthe human resources practitioner to make skilled decisions based on
historical data.
646) Which feature of an individual's psychological disposition is represented by assessing
an entity favorably or unfavorably?
a) one's mood
b) an attitude
c) values
d) beliefs
647) In the event of a disagreement, a neutral third party sets the terms of the
settlement between the disputing parties.
a) mediation
b) conciliation
c) arbitration
d) disposition
648) A firm that charges 30% of the executive's first year compensation upon the executive’s
hire is a/an executive search firm.
a) contingency
b) retainer
c) open-ended
d) fee-based
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649) Which of the following is not a significantorganizational design context
variable?
a) leadershipstyle
b) external environment
c) strategy and goals
d) technology
650) Which best describes the extent to which people are required to be group members
within their business or society?
a) in-group collectivism
b) individualism versus collectivism
c) assertive
d) global leadershipand organizational behaviour effectiveness
651) What is the most difficult aspect of environmen
environmental scanning?
a) It is not clear how far ahead tthe scan should go.
b) Experts will have varying op inions and strengths.
c) Techniques will often vary and give conflicting results.
d) It is difficult to isolate the critical from the insignificant.
652) Alex manages five salespeople. One employee (Jane) has been on the
job for around six months, three have been on the work for two years, and one has been on
the job for four years (Max). Alex ranks Jane higher than Max in his performance evaluation
since her sales are comparable to Max's and she has
mastered her duties in a very shor t amount of time. Alex has made the following rating
error:
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a) primacy
b) leniency
c) central tendency.
d) varying standards
653) A team whose members interact electronically via Web-based technology and who
meet infrequently or never in person is known as a ________ team.
a) electronic
b) virtual
c)special purpose
d) cyber
654) The goal of incentives such as gainsharing is to encourage workers' ____
effort.
a) discretionary
b) average
c) excessive
d) satisfactory
655) Which of the following is commonly referred to as the window through
which we communicate with others and which determines the quality,
precision, and clarity of communica tion?
a) a communication filters
b) a perceptual screen
c) an interpretation funnels
d) the communication vacuums
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656) Which statement best describes Kotter's fifth phase for successful largescale change?
a) empower action
b) increase urgency
c) create short-term wins
d) don’t let up
657) A low percentage of acceptance suggests that
a) only a small proportion of applicants have acceptable KSAs
b) the organization’s recruiters are successful in “closing the deal” with
applicants
c)the yield ratio comparing formal applications and offer recipients is high.
d) most applicants reject job offers from the organization
658) Employers have the following essential rights under health and safety law:
a) right to training, right to participate in safety committee, right to adequate
compensation when injured.
b) right to know, right to participate, right to refuse unsafe work.
c) right to refuse unsafe work, right to rehabili tation, right to pre-injury pay.
d) right to protective device, right to training, right to a safe workplace
659) Susan, a manager of publiic relations at a textile company, has spent six
months with Habitat for Humanity constructing homes for low-income families. She is
currently returning to her employer's employment. Susan has been
a) involved in outdoor training
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b) on a sabbatical
c) in phased retirement
d) taking part in hands-on development
660) Which quality best describes McClelland's desires for accomplishment,
power, and affiliation?
a) process
b) inherited
c) learned
d) extrinsic
661) Which of the following individual rewards has the least relationship to real
employeeperformance?
a) recognition award
b) spot bonus
c) employee-of-the month award
d) service award
662) If group incentives are handed out, employees will perceive a tighter
relationship between their performance and their reward.
a) semiannually
b) annually
c) quarterly
d) monthly
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663) You see an occurrence at work in which a supervisor harshly criticizes a
worker in front of numerous other workers. You la ter discover that the employee did not
commit an error. Which of the following bes t describes the
communication of the supervisor?
a) a territorial space violation
b) non-defensive communication
c) paralanguage
d) superiority
664) In Canada, workers join unions because they _____________________ and
think unions can help them.
a) have deep anti-business sentiments
b)are dissatisfied with how they are treated by their employer
c) are politically motivated
d) wish to gain financially as much as the employer canbe forcedto give
665) Which is the least successful method of persuasion, regardless of the
circumstances?
a) upward appeals
b) consultation
c) pressure
d) ingratiation
666) Which best describes an approach to combat social loafing?
a) formal evaluation of member contributions
b) motivational training
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c) emphasizing task functions
d) setting clear group goals
667) Which of the following best describes when a supervisor's high expectations for a new
employee are met by the employee's high performance?
a) stereotyping
b) impression management
c) perceptual bias
d) self-fulfilling prophecy
668) Which of the following best describes a dinner during which the presidentof a college
or institution presents scholarships to outstanding students?
a) a ritual
b) personal enactment
c) a symbol
d) a ceremony
669) What is a synonym for SMART goals?
a) specific, moderate, attainable, risky and have a time frame
b) specific, moderate, attainable, relevant and have a time frame
c) self-determined, measurable, attainable, risky and have a time frame
d) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant and have a time frame
670) Which company has a succession ma nagement programme that could
replace its CEO within six hours in the event of an unexpected death?
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a)Petro Canada.
b) The Bay.
c) Cara Foods.
d) McDonald’s.
671) How does a work objective rela te to one's own values?
a) meaningfulness
b) alienation
c) simplification
d) design
672) Which best describes a crucial HR action that ensures the appropriate
people with the right talents are in the right place, at the right moment, and at the right
time?
a) Development
b) Job design
c) Performance Management
d) Planning
673) Work-family conflictis characterized by:
a) A form of work-family conflict in which work demands interfere with the
fulfillment of family responsibilities
b) Is the amount of time a person spends in a particular role
c) A form of work-family conflict in which family demands interfere with the
fulfillment of work responsibilities
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d) The degree to which a person identifies with a particular role and sees the role as a
central component of his or her self-concept
674) Which of the following best represents societies that primarily utilise
language to convey their thoughts, emotions, and ideas as cl early and
rationally as possible?
a) low-context
b) high-context
c) evaluative
d) strategic
675) Except for the foregoing, the Worker's Compensation Act's objectives
include the following:
a) Conduct accident investigations
b) Promote culture of commitment to safety and health
c) Foster co-operative and consultative relationships
d) Minimize social and economic costs of work related accidents, injuries, and illnesses
676) Which of the following best describes a win–lose negotiation tactic, in
which one side profits at the expense of the other?
a) distributive bargaining
b) bargaining zone
c) integrative bargaining
d) BATNA
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677) Which of the following best describes Change, in which an organisation
transitions to a fundamentally new and sometimes unknowable future state?
a) first-order, incremental (developmental) change
b) planned organizational change
c) organizational structure (OS)
d) second-order, discontinuous (transformational) change
678) Which best identifies the processes, methods, and systems that an
organisation performs exceptionally welland thatare widely acknowledgedas boosting the
organization’s performance and efficiency in certain areas
a) high performance organizations
b) triple bottom line
c) best-practice methods
d) job components
679) An employee with poor interpersonal skills but the highest sales volume is
assessed only on sales performance. Which of the following describes this
procedure most accurately?
a) the cognitive miser
b) selective perception
c)the self-fulfilling prophecy
d) stereotyping
680) Which of the following compa nies CANNOT lawfully utilise a polygraph
exam to make recruiting decisions?
a) a private high school in Toronto
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b) the city of Calgary’s Fire department
c) a pharmaceutical manufacturing company in Montreal
d) a company providing security guards for conventions in Winnipeg
681) Geneviève is a Montreal-based accountant for the Greek Bank. Geneviève is a citizen of
Canada. Geneviève is one of:
a) host-country national
b) expatriate
c)third-country national
d) global employee
682) When encapsulated growth develops
a) developmentis “encapsulated” into easy to learn segments
b) an employee learns a skill for testing purposes, but has not internalized it in
order to apply it in the workplace
c) management developmentis taught online in “capsules” or lesson modules
d) an individual learns new ideas and returns to a workplace that is unchanged.
683) There are ___ strikes during the duration of the collective bargaining
agreement.
a) Contract
b)Wildcat
c) Economic
d) Sympathy
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684) Mark is seeking employment as a bank loan officer. He was given a test in
which he was presented with the scenario of a person asking for a second
mortgage on his property. Mark is provided wi th decision-making rules and a list of
potential options. Mark is being give a
a)situational judgmenttest
b) realistic job preview
c) cognitive ability test
d) behavioural test
685) All of the following assertions are true except:
a) union membership is experiencing an increase in the manufacturing sector.
b) union membership is in decline because of foreign competi tion.
c) union membership is decreasing due to a shift from a manufacturing to a
service economy.
d) union membership has decreased due to more white-collar jobs which are
typically not unionized.
686) What was Frederick Taylor renowned for?
a) Scientific Management.
b) Delphi Technique.
c)Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales.
d) Position Analysis Questionnaire.
687) Flextime definition:
a) Flexible work arrangements in which two employees divide the responsibilities of a
single position
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b) Flexible work arrangements that permits employees to have variable start
and finish times to their workday
c) Flexible work arrangements in which an employee regularly makes use of
telecommunications technology to complete work assignments away from the
office, usually at home
d) Flexible work arrangements in which two employees share responsibilities of a
singleposition
688) The ___________________ method to training compares actual and intended organizational
performance and brings a trainer and organisation together to
determine what should be done to improve organizational performance.
a) performance consulting
b) gap closure
c) business process re-engineering
d) targeted training
689) Which of the following is the proper conclusion rega rdingthe third stage of Lewin’s
change model?
a) changes in the reward structure was not needed in generating new
behaviours.
b) showing, framing, and displaying the organizations mission statement in
managers' offices led to significant behavioural change.
c) changing the culture was the quickest way to generate behavioural change.
d) changing the reward system is often needed.
690) All of the following workers canbe classified as contingent workers EXCEPT
a) temporary workers
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b) virtual employees
c)independent contractors
d) leased employees
691) WHMIS relies on the following components:
a) Materials Safety Data Sheets provide additional information
b) Labels designed to alert workers of hazardous products
c) Employee training
d) All of the above
692) The followingcharacteristics characterize a possibly aggressive employee:
a) has been recently disciplined by the manager
b) a loner and blames others
c) has been denied a promotion or a pay raise
d) is stuck in a dead-end job
693) Jocelyn is a professional symphony orchestra musician. For the Christmas
season, the orchestra will perform a new symphony composed by a prominent live
composer. In order to master this new symphony, Jocelyn and the o ther
musicians will have to engage in in tensive practice.
a) contextual learning
b) remedial skills training
c) active practice
d) enhancement of self-efficacy
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694) Multiple-organizational jobs are those that are done by people who
execute similar responsibilities and demand similar KSAs.
a) generic
b) benchmark
c) key survey
d) baseline
695) Which of the following best demonstrates the notion of an employee taking on
communication responsibilities in addition to their usual duties?
a) communication champion
b) communication strategist
c) communication evaluator
d) communication critic
696) Which best describes the type of conflict resolution (also known as
surrendering and accommodatting)
ing) that entails ignoring one's own desires in
favour of those of others? Italso suggests a lack of care for oneself and a
preoccupation with others.
a) obliging
b) dominating
c) avoiding
d) compromising
697) As a supervisor of a group of em ployees with an internal locus of control,
which of the following actions should you take?
a) allow them considerable leeway in determining how to perform their work
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b) closely supervise them
c) expect to frequently discipline group members for slowness and lack of
initiative
d) provide explicit and frequent job instructions
698) The reason for the rise in Canadian health care expenditures is an increase in
a) dental, vision care and hospi talization fee
b) prescriptions drugs, dental and medical services
c) prescriptions drugs, employee assistance program and vision care
d) medical devices (hearing aids, orthopedic inserts etc..), prescriptions drugs
and paid medical leave
699) Which influence strategy best reflects the use of regular checks and
continuous reminders to persuade another individu al?
a) ingratiation
b) pressure
c) rational persuasion
d) legitimizing
700) Except for the following,the following things are true.
a) the frequency of inspections depends on the type of workplace.
b) workplace inspections are carried out to ensure compliance with the
occupational health and safety act and regulations
c)the inspector has the authority to enter any workplace without a warrant or
notice.
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d) inspections are always conducted in response to a specific complaint in the workplace
701) Individuals who have been downsized or who have reac hed early career
plateaus in large businesses must be adaptable and acquire additional and
diversified information, skills, and competencies. This viewpoint views careers as
a) linear
b) cyclical
c) rhythmic
d) interrupted
702) Hourly workers in Canada are entitled to an overtime pay rate of $____ per hour.
a) one and one half the hourly ra te. (1.5)
b)twice the hourly rate. (2)
c) one and one seventy-five the hourly rate (1.75)
d) two and one half the hourly rate (2.5).
703) In a typical corporation, Human Resources
a) coordinates the use of time-off benefits.
b) answers simple questions regarding benefits
c) monitors benefits usage.
d) maintains good communications with employees near retirement.
704) In contrast to the _____________ method, the _____________ approach
considers overseas assignments as permanent rather than transitory.
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a) global market, balance-sheet
b) balance-sheet, global market
c) tax-equalization, balance-sheet
d) balance-sheet, tax-equalization
705) Which of the following statemen ts regarding planning for information
technology is accurate?
a) Most employers wonder whether to use computers in compensation
administration.
b) PIPEDA requires Web-based benefits systems administrators to limit access to
employee records to only a few authorized persons.
c) The availability of off-the-shelf computer packages eliminates the need to
customize the software to the needs of your organization.
d) Making the pay statements available on the company’s website complies
with Bill 88.
706) Orientation training should ideally meetall ofthe following objectives
EXCEPT
a) basic skills training for new employees
b) favourable impression of the organization and the other employees
c) socialization and integration of new employees
d) acceleration of employee productivity
707) A huge school district is transitioning from an antiquated type of payroll
processing to a far more advanced computer-based payroll system. When
upgrading to this system, it is quite probable that _________ will manage the
training needs of the organisation.
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a) a third-party computer training consultant
b) each individual school’s HR profession in conjunc tion with the school’s
computer professional
c)the vendor of the system
d) the district’s school board internal training department
708) Need theories of work motivation attemp t to solve which of the following
questions?
a) what motivates you to work
b) what motivates you to be productive
c) what motivates you to work with others
d) what motivates you at work
709) In addition to employment expansion, which of the following was designed to boost
employee work satisfaction?
a) job design
b) job specification
c) job rotation
d) job enrichment
710) According to Kotter and Heskett, which of the following best represents the impact of
corporate culture on a company's long-term economic
performance?
a) no impact
b) a significant impact
c) a slight impact
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d) no greater impact than any other variable.
711) Which best describes a systematic method to decision making that
concentrates on discreetly creating options, prohibits criticism of alternatives, and
employs a voting mechanism to determine group choices?
a) dialectical inquiry
b) the Delphitechnique
c)the nominal group
d) devil's advocacy
712) The _____________________ affirms to the applicant that the gathered
information is secure.
a) Employment Standard Act
b) Pay Equity Act
c) Privacy Act
d) Charter of Rights and Freedoms
713) The primary Canadian statutes addressing pay discrimination on the basis of gender
are:
a) The Pay Equity Act
b) The Employment Standard Act
c) The Human Right Legislation
d) All of the above
714) One disadvantage of spot bonuses is that
a) the amounts are usually too small to be motivating.
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b) employees passed over for bonuses may be jealous.
c) employees receiving bonuses are embarrassed because of their public
nature.
d) supervisors tend to give all their employees spot bonuses eventually, wh ich reducesthe
motivating value
715) Due to the cost of maintaining a regular workforce and the following
factors, a significant number of businesses choose flexible staffing:
a) willingness of temporary workers to take dead end jobs
b) need for stable, dependable employees
c) higher KSAs temporary workers and independent contractors possess
d) need to avoid some ofthe costs of full-time benefits such as vacation pay
and pensions plans
716) John, who is 55 years old, was le t off from the firm he has worked for since
graduating from college. John was promoted from staff accountant to Chief
Financial Officer inside the organisation. He was well regarded inside the
organisation and business sector. John was laid off, however, after the
acquisition of his employment by another company. John's experience is
characterized as
a) forced retirement
b) phased retirement
c)the “career end” stage
d) the “late career” stage
717) The Canadian Criminal Code introduced _____________, which establishes criminal
responsibility on organisations and people who fail to take reasonable precautionsto
safeguard employees and the public.
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a) Bill C-45 also known as the Westray Bill
b) Part 2 of the Canada Labour Code
c) The 9-11 the Anti-terrorist Act
d) The Occupational Health and Safety Acts
718) Which best describes a technique that connects companies to their
positive change potential by systematically investigating every strength,
innovation, achievement, imaginative tale, hope, positive tradition, and
passion?
a) open space technology (OST)
b) team development(TD)
c) appreciative inquiry (AI)
d) social networking (SN)
719) What is the term used to describ ethe return of PCNs, TCNs, and even HCNs to their
home headquarters or home subsidiaries?
a) Repatriation.
b) Patriation.
c) Culture shock.
d) Reverse culture shock.
720) If a non-family employee in a family-owned business is content with her
compensation but dissatisfied with the method in which pay rises are handled
(with relatives receiving bigger raises), she is experiencing a sense of inequity.
a) distributive injustice.
b) external inequity.
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c) procedural injustice.
d) compensatory inequity
721) Which form of conflict is characterized by interpersonal incompatibilities
and characterized by rage, tension, and friction?
a) task
b) process
c) relationship
d) inter-group
722) Which of the following is a key element of overall quality management?
a) customer needs are met, and their expectations exceeded
b) employee driven suggestion systems
c)the use of computers
d) the sub-optimization of resource allocation
723) Which phrase best describes evaluations of the perceived fairness of
outcomes or allocations?
a) entitlement
b) procedural justice
c) distributive justice
d) benevolence
724) Clarence's pension is entirely funded by his job. This is a con tingency plan.
a) contributory
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b) non-contributory
c) defined benefit
d) cash balance
725) Except otherwise noted, the following are disadvantages of profit-sharing
agreements.
a) profits may be high in some years and non-existent in other years.
b) the employer must disclose financial and profit information to employees.
c) an employee’s efforts may have little effect on the organization’s profits.
d) employees view the bonuses as too small to be motivational.
726) Which group feature develops slowly but can lead to excellent group
performance (or, conversely, poor group performance)?
a) social loafing
b) loss of individuality
c) status insecurity of members
d) cohesion
727) Which of the following describes three of the four typical change targets?
a) communications, processes, reward systems
b) processes, structure, technology
c) structure, communications, people
d) technology, communication, people
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728) Which best reflects a statement from the Levi Strauss Aspirations Statement:
leadership that exemplifies the specified ethical behaviour standards,
a) espoused value
b) assumption
c) enacted value
d) artifact
729) On June 1, 2004, _________ adopted an an ti-bullying law to combat
workplace harassment.
a) Prince Edward Island
b)British Columbia
c) Ontario
d) Quebec
730) How can unemployment be a good thing?
a) It provides an opportunity to feel sad and remorseful.
b) It provides an opportunity to have a better work-life balance.
c) It provides an opportunity to end a dismal career.
d) Itprovides an opportunity to have a financial challenge.
731) Development advantages
a) primarily the organization
b) primarily the employee.
c) both the employee and the organization
d) primarily the organization to which the employee willlater move
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732) Which describes the extent to which a work contains a variety of tasks and
requiresthe individual to utilise diverse skills and abilities?
a) skill variety
b) task variety
c) task identity
d) task significance
733) Greg can acquire discounted shares of stock in his employer's firm. His
company will provide an equal amount. Greg makes inves tments. This is known as a/an
a) phantom stock plan.
b) Employee Stock Ownership Plan.
c) stock purchase plan
d) 401(k) plan
734) Which definition best describes dominating, overanalyzing, delaying, and deflecting?
a) blocking roles
b) cultural diversity
c) co-dependency
d) loss of individuality
735) Denise and Teresa are enrolled in an organizational behaviour course.
Denise beats Teresa on the first exam in OB, but Teresa convinces herselfthat
Denise is a poor comparison because Denise is a psych ologymajor, and she is
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an accounting student. Which of the following explains Teresa's reaction the
best?
a) Teresa is a low self-monitor.
b) Teresa's high self-esteem is protecting her from this unfavourable comparison.
c) Teresa has an external locus of control.
d) Teresa probably has an inflated generalized belief of her capabilities.
736) Based on the premise that individuals are driven towards self-actualization, which
better describes a more people-centered approach to personality
theory?
a) trait theory
b) psychodynamic theory
c) humanistic theory
d) the integrative approach
737) For being condemned, job assessment methods have been critiqued.
a) devaluing female-dominated jobs
b) being unrelated to the market economy for jobs
c) continuing external inequities in jobs requiring manual labour
d) being inappropriate for valuing jobs requiring high knowledge levels
738) Which best describes the characteristic of the majority of political
behaviours?
a)be ignored by most employees
b) drain energy from the organization
c) increase the energy level inthe organization
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d) have no real effect on the organization
739) When supervisors choose their own subordinates
a) validity and effectiveness of the process may suffer
b) selection criteria tend to be excessively stringent
c) reliability of the process increases
d) subsequent employee performance is improved
740) In a defined contribution pension plan, the employer makes an annual
contribution to the employee's pension account.
a) ESOP
b) cash balance
c)defined benefit
d) defined contribution
741) Individual career planning involves all ofthe following criteria EXCEPT
a) assessing alternative paths inside and outside the organization
b) planninglife and work goals
c) planning career ladders
d) identifying personal abilities and interests
742) What is an example of a belief or assumption concerning people, work, and the
organisation?
a) overt part of an organization
b) formal organization
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c) covert part of an organization
d) social surface
743) A ______________ is a tactic used to enhance the workers' job conditions, such as wages
and benefits.
a) Social unionism
b) Distributive unionism
c) Integrative unionism
d) Business unionism
744) When Jack applied for the job of dean of the College of Business, a
committee of seven faculty members questioned him. This is a _____ sort of
interview.
a) behavioural
b) stress
c) situational
d) competency
745) What separates a group consisting of two or more people with shared
interests or goals from a team?
a) A team may be dozens of people wh oare quickly assembled to perform a task that may
only take a few minutes
b) A team consists of two or more persons who are loos ely tiedtogether, yet
each member works independently
c) A team has several persons but the performance or contribution of any
particular member is inconsequential for the team's output
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d) A team is usually a small number of people who are interdependent and
committed to a common goal for which they are mutually accountable
746) A/an ________________ offers a "work finding" service to job-seekers and
gives businesses with candidates from which to choose.
a) professional employer organization
b) employment agency
c) employee leasing company
d) independent contractor
747) Which three levels of research does organizational behaviour concentrate on?
a) management, interpersonal, and work design
b) executive, interpersonal, and organ izational structure
c) interpersonal, group dynamics in orga nizations, and work design
d) individual, group and organizational
748) Which of the following is a key flaw in social perception:
a) humanistic understandings
b) effective management
c) misinterpretations
d) collaboration
749) Which generation is typically competitive, optimistic, and respectful of
authority?
a) Baby Boomers
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b) Generation X
c) Generation Y
d) Veterans
750) Which of the following is an essential part of a manager's exercise of reward authority
in determining employee wage increases?
a) it has no effect on employee performance
b) it only works if the worker values the reward
c)the extent of the reward does not affectthe amount of employee effort
d) it relates to monetary factors only
751) If a high-performing employee intends to remain with a business for a long
time, his or her total compensation over a 10-year period would be greater if the individual
is eligible for a longevity bonus.
a) annual individual performance increases were added to base pay.
b) annual individual performance bonuses wer e paid in lump sums annuallywith a stable
base pay.
c) base pay increases weretied to the Consumer PriceIndex and no
performance bonuses were paid.
d) base pay increases are tied to increases in the wage market line and no
performance bonuses were paid.
752) Which of the following examples best demonstrates meeting employee
needs through praise, recognition, and reward prog rammes?
a) self-actualization
b) esteem
c) social
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d) security
753) Typically, an organisation recruit in
a) several geographic laboursmarkets
b) one geographic labour market
c)the global labour markets
d) national labour markets for executive jobs and local markets for all other jobs
754) Which best describes the thesis that, under some circumstances, leaders
mightminimizethe amount ofleadership they exert owing to the exis tence of
replacements or "neutralizers"?
a)fielders’ contingency theory
b) path-goal contingency theory
c) leadership substitutes theory
d) transformational leadership theory
755) Which better encapsulates Kanter's emphasis on power?
a) one’s ability to exercise power and do things for others, particularly persons in need
b) one’s inclination to be coercive
c) one’s expertise in accomplishing job tasks and reaching production
objectives
d) one’s charisma and liking by others
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756) As a member of a study group, you believe that the efforts of others pale in
comparisonto your own. According to Equity Theory, how w ould you feel if you all received
the same grade on the assignment?
a) under-rewarded
b) over-rewarded
c) equitably rewarded
d) that the instructor is biased
757) Bonuses, incentives, and differences in the magnitude of raises across
employees arecharacteristic of organisations with a _______ pay strategy.
a) equity-based
b) entitlement
c) equity-based
d) performance
758) If a union election were held with 800 employees eligible to vote, and 500
employees actually cast ballots, how many votes would the UNION require in
order to win?
a) 400
b) 401
c) 251
d) 200
759) Which of the statements below is TRUE?
a) Job analysis needs to be conducted every three months to keep up with the pace of
technological changes
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b) Job analysis and job descriptions will unrealistically limit managerial flexibility.
c) Operations managers are responsible for job analysis.
d) Through job descriptions employees know what is expected and whatthe job
responsibilities include.
760) Which of the following is NOT an example of management's unfair labour
practices?
a) Interrogating employees about their voting intentions during a union drive.
b) A promise to alter the terms of employment in response to the results of a
union drive.
c) Disciplining an employee for proper cause.
d) During a drive, requiring one -on-one meetings with employees.
761) Numerous software and internet businesses appearto prioritizetechnology over solid
management and planningmethods. Which culture best defines this?
a) chaotic
b) frozen
c) power
d) bureaucratic
762) What are some names for independen t work groups?
a) quality teams
b) quality circles
c) self-managed work teams
d) cross-functional work teams
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763) Which of these employees is most likely to feel task identity?
a) hairdresser/stylist
b) assembly line worker in a commerci al bakery
c) data entry clerk for a health insurance company.
d) mail sorter in a regional postal sorting facility.
764) The oldest and least structtured approach to employee developmenton the job
is/are
a) coaching by supervisors
b) formal mentoring programs
c) “assistant to” positions
d) the corporate university
765) Barbara participates in coaching rising staff. She is beginning to detach from her
profession, despite the fact that she is a respected leader inside the business. Barbara's
career is in its ________ phase.
a) late career
b) mid-career
c) careerplateau
d) career exit
766) Which of the following conflict resolution methods results in both sides
(persons or groups) sacrificing something to achieve an agreement?
a) avoiding
b) collaborating
c) compromising
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d) accommodating
767) Which of the following perspec tives holds that humans are replaceable
and occupations are defined by technology?
a) redundancy of parts
b) redundancy of function
c) redundancy of specialization
d) redundancy of standardization
768) Which of the following are organizational conflict sources?
a) healthy and personal
b) healthy and unhealthy
c) structural and unhealthy
d) structural and personal
769) Which best describes a word used to explain how certain managers regard the
personal needs of their employees?
a) Culture
b) Duty to accommodate
c) Flex time
d) Family friendly
770) What application receives the leas t amount ofIT support on average?
a) Tracking labour costs.
b) Posting job openings within the organization.
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c) Generating organizational charts.
d) Measuring the needs and results of diversity initiatives.
771) A survey of 1,200 Canadian employees assessed their satisfaction with
pension schemes and health coverage. The conclusion of the survey was that
while employees are usually content, there is potential for improvement. What
actions may employers do to boost employee satisfaction?
a) Conduct attitude surveys and have a commun ication planto the employees
b) Increase health care and pension benefi ts
c) Adopt flexible benefits plans.
d) Leave everything status quo as it is difficultto satisfy everybody.
772) Which best reflects Toyota's formation of organic work units?
a) autonomy, task significance
b) task identity, task significance
c) skill variety, task identity
d) feedback, task significance
773) All assertions are true except:
a)whistleblowing is when an individual reports real or perceived wrongs
committed by his/her employer.
b) whistle-blowing legislation extends to all Canadian employers.
c) it is common for whistle-blower to experience demotion, dismissal and
negative treatment from the employer.
d) the culture of the organization often affects the degree to which employees
report inappropriate or illegal actions internally.
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774) Which of the statements below is TRUE?
a) Employee self-rating data is often used only for “political purposes,” and then discarded
because employees tend to inflate their ratings.
b) Multisource feedback is frowned up on by the courts because it uses parties
not directly involved in the employment relationship.
c) Supervisors frequently have negative reactions to the prospect of their
subordinates rating them
d) Field reviews are rarely used because no one within the organization can
evaluate the validity of the performance appraisal.
775) Which practice can result in diminishing sources for internal management
talent and burnout for some managers with more responsibilities?
a) active inertia
b) structural rationalization
c) de-layering
d) Downsizing
776) Which of the following bestcharacterizes the perceiver's thought process or the
waythey gather and analyze information about another person?
a) cognitive structure
b) the strength of situational cues
c) self-concept
d) attitude structuring
777) Unwritten expectations on the nature of the job relationship might be a/an.
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a) implied contract.
b) statutory relationship.
c) violation of good faith and fair dealing.
d) employment-at-will situation.
778) Which of the following are the Six distinct power sources?
a) legitimate, reward, coercive, referent, en titlement, and informational power
b) legitimate, recognition, coercive, referent, exper t and information power
c) legitimate, recognition, coercive, referent, entitlement and individual power
d) legitimate, reward, coercive, referent, expert, and inf ormation power
779) What is the connection between contamination and deficiency?
a) Job description
b) Corporate strategy
c) Business strategy
d) Job analysis
780) Which of the following is NOT a "reasonableness " requirement for the salary of a CEO?
a) Is this CEO’s pay more than 20times the pay of the average employee in the company?
b)Would another company hire this person as CEO?
c) How does this CEO’s compensa tion compare with other CEOs’ compensation insimilar
companies in the same industry?
d) What would an investor pay for the CEO’s lev el of performance?
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781) Which of the following distinctions has been identified between the theories of
Herzberg, McClelland, Maslow, and Vroom?
a) cultural
b) economic
c) political
d) psychological
782) Which kind of tasks or decisions are most suited for the right hemisphere of
the brain?
a) develop visions and strategic plans
b) flowchart work processes
c) day-to-day operations
d) tax preparations
783) Which of the following is NOT a technology-related pitfall?
a) Unrealistic time frames.
b) Lack of user involvement.
c) Lack of financial resources.
d) Change of needs.
784) Which better describes bringing in an outside individual or organisation to
handle duties that might be completed internally?
a) Outsourcing
b) Downsizing
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c) Globalization
d) Recruitment
785) Employers must restrict employees with union sympathies from using their e-mail
systems to promote pro-union content.
a) include an anti-union organizing policy in its employee handbook.
b) not allow any personal or non-business use of company e-mail by any
employee.
c) monitor all e-mails with employee written consent and discipline all
employees involved in pro-union activity.
d) implement a zero-tolerance policy.
786) Which of the following is an app ropriate method for managing choices to
prevent commitment escalation?
a)don't reward people who admit to poor decisions.
b) make managers accountable for their decisions.
c) limit the number of resources managers can allocate to various situations.
d) having groups rather than individuals make initial investment decisions.
787) Verbal persuasion, responsiveness, and decision -makingare typical markers of _______
based performance data.
a) behaviour
b) trait
c) results
d) organization
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788) Which statement reflects the path-goal theory most accurately?
a) Leaders adapt their behaviour and style to fit the cha racteristics of the
environment in which they work.
b) Leaders adapt their behaviour and style to fit the cha racteristics of the
followers.
c) Leaders structure the situation so as to best fit their leader style.
d) Leaders adapt their behaviour and style to fit the characteristics of the work
environment and followers.
789) For a team to be effective, a company must give which of the following?
a) appoint a strong team leader
b) be supportive and engaged
c) select appropriate members
d) leave the team to do their task
790) Which term describes a building manager who is accountable for every
element of the facility's operation?
a) low task significance
b) job design satisfaction
c) high task significance
d) job enrichment
791) Which four phases comprise the creative process?
a)illumination, verification, preparation, calculation
b) incubation, illumination, verification, prepa ration
c) calculation, incubation, illumination, verification,
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d) verification, calculation, preparation, incubation
792) The safest and most successful method for teaching eye doctors a new laser
procedure would be to employ simulations.
a) distance learning
b) massed practice
c) computer simulation
d) instructor-led training
793) internal promotion is another phrase for
a) employee development
b) job posting
c) internal recruitment
d) EEO compliance
794) What is a synonym for PIPEDA?
a) The Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
b) The Peoples’Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
c) The Personal Information Protection and Economic Documents Act
d) The People’s Information Protection and Economic Documents Act
795) Which of the following best describes that attitudes are develop on the basis of:
a) the interaction between information and experience
b) experience
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c) evaluative responding
d) understanding
796) Which of the following best describes vertical difference through reporting
relationships and scope of control?
a) integration
b) differentiation
c) context
d) hierarchy of authority
797) What is a synonym for HP WP's?
a) high performance work practices
b) help peoplewith performance
c) helping performance with people
d) high performance with practices
798) Which of the following is an example of a circumstance involving a
programmed decision?
a) reorder of raw materials from an established sup plier
b) arranging financing for constructing a new $50 million office building
c) purchase of a new mainframe computer
d) a firm's purchaseconsideration of a parts manufacturer
799) What application receives the highest level of IT supp ort on average?
a) Data such as wages, vacation, and sick time.
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b) Online service delivery of employee assistance programs.
c) Self-assessment and career development guidance.
d) Letting employees make changes totheir own benefits.
800) Which of the following would be the most significant if employees cannot
fully engage in all phases of decision making?
a) identifying problems, genera ting alternatives, selecting solutions
b) identifying problems, planning implementations, evaluation results
c) generating alternatives, planning implementations, evaluating results
d) verification, calculation, preparation, incubation
801) Which of the following objects has been suggested as the most effective
means of reinforcing values?
a) rituals
b) stories
c) symbols
d) ceremonies
802) Which of the following is an ex ample of the consequences of a mechanical approachto
job design?
a) lower motivation
b) higher absenteeism
c) lower job satisfaction
d) lower stress levels
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803) Assessmentcenters are typically utilised to determine
a) professional aptitude
b) technical expertise
c) leadership skills
d) management potential
804) Unless it has a/an ___________, a handbook for employees can be a
contract.
a) release
b) disclaimer
c) disclosure
d) attainder
805) _______________ matches the ideal candidate with the ideal position.
a) Selection
b) Placement
c) Recruitment
d) Testing
806) Which best describes the procedure through which an organisation
decides how to divide its work?
a) coordination
b) integration
c) differentiation
d) organization charting
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807) Numerous Canadian court rulings have made it very apparent that, in
order to be legitimate, performance evaluations must meetall ofthe following criteria
EXCEPT
a) it must be non-discriminatory.
b) it mustbe viewed as fair by employees
c) it must be documented
d) it must be job related
808) According to the text, for a number of years, the s tandard method for cost
management consisted of a decrease across the board or the elimination of
individuals depending on performance. How many months would it take for a
corporation to reap the savings from these employment cuts?
a) 6
b) 6 to 8
c) 12
d) 6 to 18
809) In general, team incentives increase the satisfaction of people who work in teams.
a) variably
b) equally
c) evenly
d) equitably
810) Training is the initial stage in a systematic training process.
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a) design
b) evaluation
c) delivery
d) needs assessment
811) Which of the following is NOT a cause for worry among em ployers
regarding substance abuse?
a) increased absenteeism
b) moral outrage
c) potential for antagonistic behaviour
d) slower work pace
812) What is the most effective method for replacing unproductive employees?
a) non-progressive discipline.
b) self-discipline.
c) progressive discipline.
d) “hot rule” discipline.
813) In an interdependent relattionship, which better describes the impression of conflicting
desires, objectives, attitudes, emotions, or behaviours?
a) jurisdictional ambiguity
b) conflict
c) cognitive component of emotion
d) relational component of emotion
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814) Which better describes differences in a speaker's speech?
a) proxemics
b) kinesics
c) paralanguage
d) filters
815) Which best represents the belief that informal organisations arise and
govern people's activities as they self-organize and create behavioural
patterns?
a) leaderless organization view
b) corporate governance view
c)triple bottom line view
d) complex adaptive system view
816) Ralph is participating in a department-wide quality control training
programme, although he believes he does not require the training. Ralph is
deficient
a) skills
b) motivation to learn
c) self-efficacy
d) ability to learn
817) ________ focuses on particular, recognizable knowledge and skills for the employee’s
current position, whereas ________ focuses on helping people
acquire new skills applicable to both their curren t and future positions.
a) Education, development
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b) Training, education
c) Development, education
d) Training, development
818) A corporation that employs a "lead the market" compensation model pays its
employees based on the _________ quartile.
a) second
b) first
c) average/mean
d) third
819) Which best describes any feedback people receive regarding their
behaviour or performance, its impact on others, or a comparison to a standard or
expectation?
a) encoding
b) decoding
c) feedback
d) messaging
820) The ___________ is the last phase of unionization.
a) Election of union officials
b) Signing the collective agreement
c) Certification of the bargaining union by the labour board
d) Collective bargaining
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821) Which best describes a crucial task of HR professionals that ensures proper systems
are in place to regularly offer feedback to employees?
a) Development
b) Job design
c) Performance Management
d) Planning
822) What makes affective commitment distinct from normative commitment?
a) the strength of an individual’s identification with an organization
b) an individual’s belief they cannot afford to leave
c) an individual’s perceived obligation to remain with an organization
d) an individual’s desire to remain within the organization
823) The goal of ABC Radio Compa ny is to provide superior customer service.
Their selection procedure identifies and employs candidates with the required
competencies. Its training programme emphasizes customer service standards, and their
performance evaluation system evaluates employees based on their customer service.
Which represents this sort of aim most accurately?
a) Strategic human resource management
b) Business strategy
c) Human resource processes
d) Business plan
824) What is an example of an environmen tal scanning-induced response?
a) Employee hoarding and the war for talent.
b) Localization and globalization.
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c) Outsourcing and restructuring.
d) Contingent work and work-life-balance.
825) Which skills/qualities are most significant in establishing a candidate's
compatibility with an organization's culture?
a) conceptual
b) technical
c) soft
d) hard
826) Which of the following is included with a comp any's rivals and customers?
a) labour market
b) formal structure
c) external task environment
d) transformation technology
827) What differentiates motivators and hygienic factors?
a) valance
b) intrinsic factors
c) extrinsic factors
d) relatedness
828) What is NOT a "soft" cost associated with retention programmes?
a) Lost business and customer contacts.
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b) Decline in morale and productivity.
c) Bonuses or increased salaries or inducemen ts.
d) Decreased quality or quantity of work.
829) The increased usage of teams in companies has resulted in pay
adjustments of different forms. The most effective use of team-based
remuneration was
a) paying each team member according to his/her individual contribution to
the team
b) variable pay on top of base pay.
c) paying everyone on the team the same amount.
d) team-member determination of individual team member pay
830) Managers must fulfil the quality, creativity, variety, and responsiveness
expectations of customers. Which of the following best describes a global
approach to quality management standards that may encompass both
product design and delivery?
a) ISO 9000
b) Total quality management(TQM)
c) Six Sigma
d) Management by Objectives
831) The statement that which we produce, we support reflects which essential method for
controlling reactions to change?
a) communication
b) support
c) participation
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d) creativity in problem solving
832) __________ are most likely to produce a large number of "job seekers" who
are not serious about finding new employment.
a) Internet job boards
b) On-line internal job posting systems
c) Professional association websites
d) Professional association websites
833) Which bestcharacterizes a system in which employees concurrently report to a
functional manager and a product or project manager?
a) organic
b) mechanistic
c) cross-functional team
d) Matrix
834) You are beginning your senior year of college and anticipate graduating in May.
Selecting classes for your last year of study is a crucial undertaking. All
courses except two are electives. Which best represents the method through
which you will choose your courses?
a) irrational model
b) garbage can model
c) random model
d) bounded rationality model
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835) Which of the following does Fiedler recomme nd for matching a leader to an
advantageous leadership situation?
a) follower skill training
b) leader behaviour training
c) better selection and assignment of leaders
d) reengineer the situation
836) The most prevalent form of executive long-term reward is/are
a) ESOPs
b) stock option plans
c) profit-sharing.
d) yearend bonuses.
837) Which statement best explains the function of the Attribution Theory?
a) explain causes of behaviour in organiza tions
b) measure behaviour in organ izations
c) specify correct or appropriate behaviour in organizations
d) observe behaviour in organizations
838) MBO is most effective when utilised
a) with employees who have performance def iciencies that mustberectified quickly
b) when the employee has control over his/her job.
c) when the organization has an autocratic culture.
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d) with employees who are new to the organization and need specific
performance guidance.
839) Which best describes a system of principles and practiceswhose basic
concepts include understanding client demands, executing things correctly the first time,
and seeking continual improvement?
a) Total Quality Management
b) Six Sigma
c) ISO 9000
d) Benchmarking
840) Which assertion is false?
a) One of the goals of worker’s compensation is to prevent injuries and reduce the
psychological impact of an injury
b) An employer is likely liable for an employee injured while doing employer
related work at home.
c) Claims for psychological trauma are covered by worker’s compensation.
d) Worker’s compensation is to rehabilitate an injured worker so he or she can
return to work as quickly as possible
841) If an employee sends racist emails to coworkers, he or she will be
terminated.
a) the employer can be held liable for this behaviour.
b) there is no legal problem if the e-mail is not made public.
c)there is no legal problem unless a minority employee makes a complaint.
d) only the employees themselves are subject to legal action.
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842) Which of the following characteristics will a perceiver notice if a target
deviates from the norm?
a) values
b) attitudes
c) ethics
d) physical characteristics
843) If firms grow flatter and more team-based, employees with greater
decision-making responsibilities will become more?
a) interdependent
b) skilled in the interpersonal area
c) relaxed
d) confident
844) Which process influences the ideas, actions, and emotions of others?
a) influence
b) power
c) powerlessness
d) political behaviour
845) Employers in Canada provide between 10 and 12 legal vacations each
year. What factors explain the variation in the amount of vacations provided to employees?
a) federal, provincial and territorial laws.
b) full time vs. part time status. Full time employees get more legal holidays
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c) whether the employee worked the last scheduled day before the legal
holiday.
d) the employee’s seniority.
846) Which best describes acts that are not formally sanctioned by an
organisation but are performed to influence others to achieve personal goals?
a) illegitimate power
b) coercion
c) utilitarian power
d) political behaviour
847) Who among the following developed the Expectation Theory?
a)Victor Vroom
b) Frederick Hertzberg
c) Stacey Adams
d) Douglas McGregor
848) Which term describes a member of a work group who contributes very little and
engages in laziness?
a) likes to experience control over others
b) exhibits negative affectivity
c) has an internal locus of control
d) will be successful ifleft alone
849) Georgette requested inclusion in the new safety training programme for
chemical leak situations in the workplace, but her requestwas refused. M
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her section, however, were accep ted. She thinks that she was disqualified
because the HR department and the supervisors believed that, as a young
woman, she would be exposed to pollutants that may interfere with her
capacity to carry children. Which of the statements below is TRUE?
a) HR managers and supervisors are foll owing Canada’s safety rule, which
applies in training situations.
b) This is a realistic concern for HR managers and supervisors, but no laws cover this
childbearing risk issue
c) Georgette may have a legal case against the organization on human rights
charges of discrimination
d) Georgette is not a member of a protected class in this case because i t is an
objective, rather than a subjective, judgment by HR managers and supervisors
850) The efficacy of leaders, according to Fiedler, depends on which of the
following statements?
a) the least preferred co-worker
b) the favorableness of their situation
c) task structure
d) position power
851) Among the issues associated with visual rating scales are all ofthe following EXCEPT
a) often separate traits or factors are grouped together in one box
b) they encourage errors by raters.
c) different raters can interpret the same descriptive words differently
d) it is difficult to make the graphic rating scales job specific
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852) The ________________ is a mon thly supplement provided to Canadian
residents who receive a basic pension and ha ve little or no other income.
a) Compassionate Care Benefit(CCB)
b) Old age security (OAS)
c) Guaranteed Income Supplement (GIS)
d) Additional Retirement Benefit (ADR)
853) Which of the following elements of secondary diversity impact values?
a) age, gender and income level
b) educational level and marital status
c) ethnicity, age and income level
d) educational level,age and gender
854) The personality trait most associated with success across the majority of
businesses and professions are
a) openness to experience
b) extroversion
c) emotional stability
d) conscientiousness
855) According to Lewin's model, for change initiatives to be effective, which of the
following is necessary?
a) they mustbe introduced incrementally and receive that necessary resource allocation
b) there must be top management support
c) effective communication will be essential
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d) the three-stage process must be comple ted
856) Which best reflects the organizational culture of a company working in a
high-risk, slow-feedback environmen t, such as pharmaceutical and aerospace companies?
a) work-hard, play-hard
b) tough-guy macho
c) bet-the-company
d) process
857) What are the consequences for violating work place health and safety
legislation?
a) closing the business and jail penalties
b) financial and/or jail term.
c) public relation penalties and financial
d) Closing the business
858) High levels of work-family conflictare linkedto:
a) Increased long-term disability claims
b) Moderate turnover
c) Reduced work performance and hig her rates of absenteeism
d) Increase workers compensation premiums
859) Which best describes a personal characteristic that confers authority on a leader’s
referent?
a) referent power
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b) reward power
c) charisma
d) expert power
860) You are the owner and operator of a precas t concrete business that
specializes in huge beams, walls, and other components for major commercial
constructions. You also distribute and install in addition to manufacturing. One of your
installation foremen has just informed you that another company's
ironworkers installed the door jams for a buildingwhen you had instructed your
team to do so. On which conflict example is this scenario based?
a) jurisdictional ambiguity
b) authority relationships
c) Interdependence
d) status inconsistencies
861) Which may be more likely to occur in a group when devoted members
participate in unethical or even violent behaviour?
a) social loafing is emphasized
b) group cohesion declines
c)there is a loss of individuality
d) there is not a norm for moral behaviour
862) What is population statistics research?
a) Markov analysis.
b) Demographics.
c) Competitive intelligence.
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d) Attrition.
863) Job rotation is frequently utilised as a development strategy when
a) opportunities for promotion are sca rce
b) corporate funding is low
c) employees are not highly talented but can be developed
d) technical and professional employees wish to advance in their fields
864) Discipline is an instance of
a) coercion
b) punishment
c) encouragement
d) training
865) What are the two ways points are assigned using the Hay System?
a)Working condition; accountability.
b) Know-how; problem-solving.
c) Critical tasks; supervision of people.
d) Levels of knowledge; breadth of knowledge.
866) HR professionals in unionized or union-threatened workplaces are often
responsible for
a) administering the labour agreement on a daily basis.
b) avoiding unfair labour practices during organizing events.
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c) helping to negotiate labour agreements.
d) resolving grievances and problems between management and employees.
867) Employee Stock Ownership Plans (ESOPs) involve the risk for employees that
a) ESOPs are not regulated by the federal governmen t.
b) taxes on the ESOP profits can be very hig h when the employees leave the
firm.
c) failing organizations can usee the ESOP funds to offset losses.
d) the employee’s retirement and salary depend on the same company’s
performance
868) Which best describes a communication tool that employs images and
other graphics to consistently communicate vital ideas to employees while
engaging them?
a) supportive communication
b) learning map
c) multi-source feedback
d) congruent communication
869) Which of the following is most indicative of current studies on women's
leadership?
a)Women use transformational approaches to leadership more frequently than transactional
approaches to leadership
b) The same leadership traits may be interpreted differently in a man and a
woman because of stereotypes.
c) Women use transactional app roaches more frequently thantransformational approaches.
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d) Women do not develop unique relationships with employees independentof group
membership.
870) The vice-president of HR for a funeral services firm is an example of a/an
a) HR generalist
b) HR specialist
c) certified HR professional
d) HR service vendor
871) If the team incentive results in increased team performance that leads to
increased organizational income, then the incentive is seen to be effective.
a) equitable
b) painless
c) self-funding
d) low impact
872) According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, which of the following is a
motivating factor?
a) fringe benefits
b) growth
c) supervision
d) working conditions
873) Which best describes the process of wielding power through influencing the ideas,
actions, and emotions of others?
a) Influence
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b) Power
c) Political behaviour
d) powerlessness
874) Which statement provides the best opportunity for a team to create
common understandings?
a) are diverse ethnically
b) vary opinions
c) are heterogeneous
d) interact
875) Except for one, all ofthese claims are accurate.
a) the joint health and safety committee must have equal number of employer and
employee representation.
b) the role of the joint health and safety committee is to provide a neutral
environment where labour and mana gement can work together to create a
safe and healthy workplace.
c) all Canadian jurisdictions require a join t health and safety committee.
d) joint health and safety commit tees are requiredto meet regularly and deal with worker
health and safety concerns and participate in identifying risks
876) Which demographic has been targeted by unions to increase
membership?
a) contingent and part time workers.
b) banking employees.
c) managers.
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d) high tech employees.
877) Which of the following market characteristics that define culture must be
examined?
a) performance and feedback
b) risk and skill level
c) risk and feedback
d) performance and skilllevel
878) The functions of HR that are most likely to be outsourced are those falling in HR’s
___________ role
a) operational
b) strategic
c) advocate
d) representative
879) Which sentence best represents a person who is imaginative, inquisitive,
and perceptive?
a) conscientiousness
b) extroversion
c) openness to experience
d) agreeableness
880) In a complete incentive’s compensation model,the following practices
would NOT be present:
a) heavy use of variable pay
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b) base pay makes up the largest part of individual compensation
c) knowledge/skill-based broadbands determine pay grades
d) flexible and portable benefits are offered.
881) The VERY FIRST stage of an accident inquiry by a safety committee is to:
a) interview witnesses to the accident.
b) interview the injured party.
c) review the scene of the accident.
d) conduct tests to replicate the accident.
882) What is the third activity for al tering organizational behaviour?
a) change behaviour
b) culture communication
c) examining justifications for changed behaviour
d) socializing members who fit in with the new culture
883) Which best describes the system of management control and performance monitoring?
a) triple bottom line
b) corporate social responsibility
c) ethical behaviour
d) corporate governance
884) Which is best suitable for the MBO objective-setting procedure?
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a) group
b) individual
c) participative
d) bottom-up
885) The notion that some employees perform better than others justifythe
utilization of ______________ in businesses.
a) variable pay
b) pay equality
c) organizational incentives
d) team bonuses
886) Which is the foundation of an evaluation of a certain scenario, event, or
issue?
a) attitude
b) value
c) mood
d) belief
887) The majority of Sam's staff have received performance evaluations of 4on a scale from
1 to 7. This indicates that Sam is present.
a) is guilty of central tendency error.
b) is misusing the forced-distribution method
c) has offsetting halo and horns errors
d) uses varying standards for his employees.
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888) A condition in an employment contractthat bans an employee from
working for a competitor in the same industry for a specific period of time is
known as a non-compete clause.
a) statutory requirement.
b) implied contract.
c) non-compete agreement
d) non-piracy agreement.
889) The proverb "Managers tend to manage as they were managed" suggests that
managers tend to manage as they were handled.
a) managers learn through behavior modeling
b) managers are born, not made
c) leadershipmustbe experienced before it can be exercised
d) the pattern of bad management cannot be broken in an organization
890) What measures may a business use to de ter employee theft?
a) Install filters on employees’ computers and install cameras in all work areas.
b) Before hiring the employer can screen the applicants and do background
investigations.
c) Have restrictive covenants in the employment contract.
d) Use the golden-muse approach.
891) According to the 2006 Census, what proportion of the growth in the
Canadian labour force is attributabl e to immigrants?
a) 60
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b) 70
c) 50
d) 40
892) When structured input is obtained from a supervisor, sub ordinates, peers, and
customers, this best describes the situation.
a) mapping
b) communication championing
c) multi-source feedback
d) upward communication
893) The greatest disadvantage of psychological testing is
a)many invalid and unreliable tests are available from consulting firms
b) it requires skilled professionals to interpretthe tests
c) employees resist psychological testing as an invasion of privacy and an
attempt to “box in” their careers
d) psychological testing has been shown to be of lit tle practical value in
employee analysis
894) This is a violation of the Fair Labor Standards Act if a worker is dismissed
without an opportunity to explain the circumstances.
a) due process.
b) employment-at-will.
c) statutory rights.
d) distributive justice.
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895) Which best describes the progression of ethical decision-making through
the stages of maturity?
a) cognitive moral development
b) Machiavellianism
c) deontology
d) utilitarianism
896) Who was the Delphi technique named after?
a) The manager at the Rand Corp., J. Delphi.
b) The Greek oracle at Delphi.
c)The Harvard professor, Dr. M. D. Delphi
d) The Greek myth, Delphi.
897) A ________ is the series of employment-related occupations a person holds over their
lifetime.
a) career
b) vocation
c) occupation
d) lifestyle
898) What is the connection between our personality traits, our perceptions, and our
emotional reaction?
a) direct relationship
b) indirect relationship
c) inverse relationship
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d) non-existent relationship
899) What are the most prevalent insurance benefits offered by companies in Canada?
a) life insurance and disability insurance.
b) accidental death and dismemberment.
c) major illness insurance.
d) occupational illness and accidental insurance.
900) Which definition best describes transformative leaders?
a) someone who possesses superhuman, or even mystical quali ties
b) inspire followers to share a vision and empowers them to achieve it
c)think the same as transactional leaders
d) be more or less successful depending on the situation
901) The actual set of individuals considered for selection is the
a) selection population
b) applicant population
c) labour pool
d) applicant pool
902) _________________ may be app ropriate for an organisation whose work is susceptible to
seasonal changes.
a) flexible staffing
b) temporary employees.
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c) employee leasing
d) independent contractors
903) The most widespread usage of Web-based technology for advantages has been
a) allowing employees to sign up, change and upda te their benefits choices.
b) HR monitoring of benefits usage
c) enabling employees to ask questions of external benefits providers.
d) facilitating the design of benefits programs.
904) E-learning provides several benefits over conventional training. Except
where noted, the following are all advantages of e-learning.
a) it usually lowers costs per trainee
b) it requires support from top management
c) it can be self-paced for the trainee
d) it allows for consistency in presen tation of training
905) Which best describes a management who allows his or her personnel to
operate within certain parameters?
a) initiating structure style
b) production-oriented style
c) laissez-faire style
d) autocratic style
906) Which of the following best describes a task-oriented group that is
supported by its organisation and is highly beneficial for accomplishing work
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that is complicated, complex, interdependent, or much bigger than a single
individual can handle?
a) cohesive group
b) interdependent group
c) work team
d) effective group
907) A(n) employment examination must be
a) accurate and immeasurable
b) well defined and legislated
c) valid and stringent
d) appropriate and job-related
908) The most effective strategy to mitigate the employee's perception of
performance assessment as a threat and a win-lose situation is to provide
constructive feedback.
a) train managers to avoid rating errors
b) have an HR professional sit in on all performance appraisal interviews
c) have managers emphasize development and employee self-improvementin the
performance appraisal interviews.
d) give managers training in forceful communication.
909) When a corporation outsources manufacturing to a country with cheaper labour costs,
it employs _________ to do the real work.
a) third-country nationals
b) expatriates
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c) host-country nationals
d) repatriates
910) In the performance evaluation process, managers play both the judge and the evaluator
roles.
a) advocate
b) jury
c) coach
d) friend
911) Who makes payments to the Worker's Compensation Board's insurance
fund?
a) the employer and the employee associations such as a labour union or an
employee council if the workplace is not unionized.
b) the employer and the employees.
c)the employer and the safety committee
d) the employer.
912) Which leadership theory identifies the exact leader behaviours that are
most effective in various leadershi p situations?
a) behavioural theories
b) trait theories
c) contingency theories
d) transformational theories
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913) Which of the following has the best “chance” of being a beneficial
consequence to work satisfaction and employee performance?
a) non-participative techniques are used
b) pay is linkedto attendance
c) rewards are valued by employees and are tied directly to performance
d) employee turnover is high
914) The assessment approach that utilizes compensable elements is known as the ______
method.
a) classification
b) ranking
c) point
d) total rewards
915) ______________ gets funding from the company's earnings. An employer
makes contributions on an employee's behalf. Contributions and investment
income remain exempt from taxation until retirement.
a) Deferred Portability Plans. (DPP)
b) Canada Forced RetirementSaving (CFRS)
c) Groups RRSPs.
d) Deferred Profit SharingPlans. (DPSP)
916) In an effort to solve the skills deficit in its province, ________________ is
contemplating lowering the minimum age of employment for children.
a) Prince Edward Island.
b) Saskatchewan
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c)Newfoundland
d) New Brunswick.
917) What is the motivation for initial contract arbitration?
a) avoid grievances in the workplace
b) management and labour to bargain productively.
c) reduce the number of strikes.
d) to comply with the labour legislation law of each province.
918) Which of the following is best reflective of a mechanistic structure?
a) formalization is low, specialization is low, and complexity is high
b) specialization is high, standardization is low, and complexity is high
c) specialization is high, formalization is high, and centralization is low
d) formalization is high, specialization is high, and centralization is high
919) In the event that a key employee dies, retires, or departs, succession plans create .
a) advancement maps
b) successor maps
c) replacement charts
d) organizational charts
920) An organisation that recrui ts highly skilled individuals during a time of
stagnant development engages in talent management.
a) cyclical hiring
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b) strategic recruiting
c) negative selection
d) reverse hiring
921) Organizational strategies for decreasing work-life conflict exclude the
following:
a) Reduce employee workloads
b) Increase the control that employees have over their work
c) Provide overtime work
d) Offer “cafeteria-style” benefits programs so that employees can choose the servicesthat
benefit them
922) Which best describes managers who become trapped by success and
respond in disruptive ways by escalating previously successful activities?
a) cynicism
b) active inertia
c) conservativism
d) re-engineering
923) How does Job Characteristics Model compare to GNS?
a) growth-need strength
b) growth-necessity strength
c) greed-never succeeds
d) greed-negotiations solo
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924) Which bestcharacterizes Henry Mintzberg's studies on intuition and
management roles?
a) in most cases managers use a systematic step-by-step approach to decision
making
b) managers rarely use intuition
c) managers make judgments based on hunches
d) intuition has not been shown to be very effective as an antidote to overanalysis
925) The development of the dual career ladder has occurred.
a) make a place in the organization for the “tag along” spouse of a high
performing employee
b) accommodate two-earner couples
c) retool technical and professional employees for movement into a managerial track
d) retain technical and professional employees in a technical/professional track.
926) Which of the following is a premise of the rational model of decision
making?
a) that all possible alternatives can't be known to decision makers
b) preferences of the decision maker are inconsistent
c)that outcomes can't be optimized
d) that the decision maker can calculate the probability of success for
alternatives
927) A persuasive recruitment ad
a) attracts a high proportion of qualif ied applicants
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b) brings in large numbers of applicants
c) generates large numbers of protec ted class applicants
d) taps the largest applicant population
928) The current labour markettendency is to
a) hire technical and professional individuals who have fully developed skills
b) train and develop current employees for future technical and professional
positions
c) computerize and automate tasks carried out by technical and professional
employees
d) outsource technical and professional jobs.
929) Which best describes a choice that is made after researching options and their effects,
so that actions are compatible with the individual's own values and theorganizational and
societal ideals?
a) programmed
b) effective
c) non-programmed
d) ethical
930) Which of the following is an example of an enhancement ritual?
a) kick off banquet for the introduction of a new product
b) job transfer
c) employee of the month award
d) retirement party
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931) Why do Canadian firms provide their employees with social and
recreational benefits?
a) promote friendship at work
b) to promote employee happiness and team spirit.
c) to increase job satisfaction.
d) to increase job productivity.
932) What is the most prevalent method Canadian employers use to address workplace
difficulties and issues?
a) peer review panels.
b) arbitration
c) open door policy.
d) ombudsperson.
933) Multiple types of information must be gathered during an environmental scan.
What aspects of an environmental scan are not typical?
a) Environmental.
b) Political and legal.
c) Climate
d) Technological.
934) Which theory/model, first created in the early 1950s, applies to the team level a
number of notions relevant to the individual level of work design?
a) social information processing model
b) job characteristics model
c) interdisciplinary approach
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d) socio-technical systems theory
935) What is the optimal time frame for environmental scanning?
a) 1-2 years.
b) Less than 1 year.
c) 2-3 years.
d) 3-4 years.
936) Which bestcharacterizes "Six Sigma"?
a) A set of principles and practices whos e core ideas include understanding customer
needs, doing things right the first time and striving for continuous
improvement.
b) A process used to translate customer needs into a set of optimal tasks that are
performed in concert with the others.
c) Contracting outside the organization for work that was formerly done by
internal employees.
d) Finding best practices in other organizations that can be brought into a
company to enhance performance.
937) Cross-functional or horizontal migration from job to job within an
organisation is considered as a positive development.
a) career plateau
b) career path
c) lack of career progression
d) failed career
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938) What is the primary purpose of commun ication?
a) receive the message
b) transmitthe message
c) code the message
d) understand the message
939) According to the textbook and a poll by the Canadian Policy Research
Networks, what is the most essential job quality?
a) Flexible hours and schedules
b)Good pay
c) Receive recognition for work well done
d) Free from harassment& discrimination
940) In contrast to a performance-driven corporate culture, a _________ culture exists.
a) commitment
b) bureaucratic
c) individualistic
d) entitlement
941) Which definition better describes the tendency to attribute one's
shortcomings on external causes?
a) explain causes of behaviour in organiza tions
b) remedied by the discounting principle
c) specify correct or appropriate behaviour in organizations
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d) observe behaviour in organizations
942) Which best represents the challenger role on a team, which is often filled
by:
a) is a collaborator
b) is a good devil's advocate
c) is a good facilitator, listener, and commun icator
d) provides data and necessary information for probl em solutions
943) The ________________ approach to training may discourage HR professionals and trainers
from pursuing the latest training fads in favour of training that
advances the organization's overall objectives.
a) human-factors
b)goal-oriented
c) organic
d) strategic
944) Human capital is a word used to define the worth of an organization's
workforce. This value does not shown on a company's b alance sheet but has a significant
effect on the organization's success. What does the phrase "human
capital" not encompass?
a)Value of appearance
b)Value of knowledge
c) Value of abilities
d) Value of skill
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945) Which strategy places human concerns atthe heart of decisions regarding work
design?
a) perceptual motor
b) mechanistic
c) biological
d) anthropocentric
946) Which sort of technique might a company employ to reduce the chance
of conflict amongst individuals with different roles?
a) job enrichment
b) job enlargement
c) job rotation
d) job reclassification
947) A worker whose compensation ratio is 125
a)is paid less than the midpoint of the pay range
b)is paid at the midpoint of the pay range
c)is paid more than the midpoint of the pay range
d) will have their pay adjusted downwardto meet the market rate
948) Which of the following best completes the statement: organisations with
strong cultures, according to the s trong culture perspective?
a) have less turnover and more absenteeism
b) are more adaptable to the various environmental influences
c) improve organizational performanc eby energizing employees
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d) tend to pursue a variety of goals
949) When requested for references, attorneys often advise businesses to
provide very minimal informattion
ion about former workers. Which of the following
references would an attorney NOT sugges t disclosing regarding a former
employee?
a) name
b) compensation
c) employment date
d) title
950) Which of the following is a false statement?
a) “Normal” retirement age is 65.
b) Forcing an employee to retire by reason of age is considered to b e a human rights issue
in most Canadian jurisdictions.
c) Employees forced to retire over the age of 65 can file a complaint of age
discrimination.
d) Despite the removal of manda tory retirement provisions in many provinces
and territories, the age at which individuals retire continues to decline in
Canada
951) Disciplinary action against a persistently bad performer falls under the
_______ application of performance evaluation.
a) developmental
b) behaviour modification
c) administrative
d) bureaucratic
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952) Training on the job is a sort of _________ training.
a) informal
b) invalid
c) external
d) outsourced
953) Which negotiating strategy describes the areas in which each side wan ts to maximize
its resources?
a) integrative negotiation
b) distributive bargaining
c) spiral bargaining
d) collective bargaining
954) According tothe Canadian Constitution, employment law is primarily:
a) a labour relations board responsibility.
b) a federal responsibility.
c) a provincial responsibility.
d) an employer responsibility.
955) A Just-So Pants assembly line worker gets compensated forty cents per
waistband added to each pair of jeans. Her hourly quota is 15 waistbands. The
employee earns sixty cents for each waistline beyond 15. This is an illustration of
a _________ piece rate.
a) variable
b) straight
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c) fixed
d) differential
956) Which best describes a person's capacity to produce several possible
solutions to a problem?
a) divergent thinking
b) convergent thinking
c) rational thinking
d) group think
957) Which of the following best explains the key to understanding culture
through artefacts?
a) identifying the most important artifact of culture which is symbols
b) identifying the visible portion of culture
c) figuring out what they mean
d) the awareness of how values are commun icatedthrough culture
958) Which of the following could be utilised by a company to boost creativity?
a) keeping the organizational structure simple
b) providing quiet offices
c) emphasizing win-lose competition for creative ideas
d) focusing on specific or identifiable rewards
959) Which best describes interpersonal incompatibilities, which generally
include tension and friction?
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a) task (cognitive) conflict
b) relationship (affective) conflict
c) process conflict
d) intergroup conflict
960) Which of the following best reflects the findings of research on gender and emerging
leadership?
a) women were more likely to emerge as leade rs than men.
b) men were more likely to emerge as leaders than women.
c)team members who described themselves in feminine terms were more likely
to emerge as leaders than members who described themselves as masculine.
d) team members who described themselves in masculine terms were more
likely to emerge as leaders than members who described themselves as
feminine.
961) Which characteristics must line managers possess in order to be successful?
a) A working knowledge of human resource management
b)Technical knowledge only
c) Business skills only
d) Interaction with only upper management
962) Amber was perplexed after the job interview. The interviewer talked almost
exclusively in the form of questions. Amberleft the interview without knowing
how she had performed because the interviewer was pleasant but did not
converse or nod. His most encouraging reaction was "That's intriguing." This is an example
of an encouraging response.
a) effective interview technique
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b) stress interview
c) realistic job preview showing corporate culture
d) snap judgment on the part of the interviewer
963) Profit-sharing is a form of _____ ince ntive.
a) group/team
b) individual
c) organizational
d) industry
964) The primary responsibility for workplace health, safety, and security rests
with
a) law enforcement professionals.
b) HR professionals
c) OSHA personnel.
d) supervisors and managers.
965) Among the benefits of internal recruitment are ALL OF THE FOLLOWING
EXCEPT
a) the ability of the firm to hire only at the entry level
b) higher morale of the person promoted
c)the inbreeding and strengthening of organizational culture
d) motivation of higher performance among employees
966) The biggest or most extensive level of union organizational structur
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a) international
b) convention
c) alliance
d) federation
967) Which elements contribute to Hertzberg's employment discontentment?
a) hygiene factors
b) motivation factors
c)lower level needs
d) the absence of motivation factors
968) Alternative dispute resolution methods are "alternatives" to official
grievance procedures and involve the use of a neutral third party.
a) ombudsmen
b) lawsuits
c) peer review panels.
d) unions
969) Generally speaking, a benefit is provided to a person or group of
employees.
a) for being members of the organization.
b) based on their individual or group productivity
c) because it is mandated by the federal government.
d) in order forthe employer to receive tax advantages.
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970) During a primary interview, which of the foll owing is most likely to form the
interviewer's initial perceptions about the interviewee (or target)?
a) the resume
b) the references
c)the language
d) the perception of the candida te
971) Which industry has the highest union membership rate?
a) construction
b) education
c) public administration.
d) utilities
972) If a supervisor is reluctant to provide negative feedback to alowperforming employee, the supervisor is likely to withhold such feedback.
a) not conduct a performance appraisal of this employee.
b) inflate the employee’s performance appraisal
c) request that an HR professional conduc tthe performance appraisal
interview.
d) deny the employee the opportunity to participate actively in the appraisal interview
973) Which best explains the process by which a college professor selects the textbook,
formulates course objectives, specifies course requirements, selects instructional
techniques, prepares tests, and evaluates student performance?
a) task specificity
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b) autonomy
c) skill heterogeneity
d) feedback
974) The first party on management’s side who is involved inthe grievance
procedure is the
a) union steward.
b) first-line supervisor.
c) HR manager.
d) company labour attorney.
975) In a typical multisource performance review, the following information
sources are excluded:
a) subordinates
b) peers
c) customers
d) EEOC staff
976) The definition of flexible work arrangements is:
a) Family-friendly policies that involve modifications to the traditional work
schedule
b) Arrangements in which employees work full-time hours in fewer days per
week
c) Arrangements in which two employees share the responsibilities of a single position
d) All of the above
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977) What are the four leadership perspectives?
a)attitudinal, transformational, contingency and trait
b) trait, behavioural, contingency and transformational
c)behavioural, transformational, contingency and attitudinal
d) contingency, attitudinal, trait and behavioural,
978) The majority of sales force pay programmes evaluate salesperson
performance based on:
a) obtaining new accounts
b) comparing current sales revenues aga inst established quotas.
c) selling high-value versus low-value items
d) comparing each sales person’s revenues relative to those of other sales staff.
979) In a/an _________________, a dismissed employee promises not to sue in
exchange for a stipulated compensation.
a) termination contract
b) amicable departure clause
c) separation agreement
d) severance package
980) Competitive intelligence entails what?
a) A formal approach to obtain information about competitors.
b) The sum of employees’ knowledge, skills, experience and commitment
invested in the organization.
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c) Resources and capabilities that serve as a firm’s compe titive advantage.
d) A technique that utilizes the sum of all employees’ intellectual capacity.
981) Continue with wave after wave of change, despite apparently
insurmountable challenges, until the vision becomes a reality.
a) create short-term wins
b)don’t let up
c) get the vision right
d) communicate for the buy-in
982) Which of the following best describes the process of designing and
modifying an organization's structure to fulfil its objectives?
a) strategy-structure fit
b) organizational design
c) strategic management
d) organizational reconfiguration
983) A managed care method in which an employer contracts with a health care provider
to offer health care services to workers a t a competitive price is a/an
a) consumer-driven health plan.
b) health maintenance organization.
c) preferred provider organization.
d) employee assistance program.
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984) If a company intends to quickly fill vacancies, the most essential measure would be
a) selection rate
b) success base rate
c) average time from contact to hire
d) yield ratio
985) The primary method for recrui ting personnel from within is
a) word-of-mouth
b) managerial selection
c) an organizational database
d) job posting
986) Which term is equivalent to ADR?
a) alternative dispute rationale
b) alternative decision resolution
c) alternative decision rationale
d) alternative dispute resolution
987) A "feedback card" enclosed with a restaurant customer's bill requests that they rate
the wait staff on five distinct performance factors, each on a scale of 1 to 7. This is/is an
a) forced distribution method.
b) graphic rating scale
c) critical incident scorecard
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d) simple performance checklist
988) Which complements organisation development the most?
a) emphasizes intervention at the lowest possible level of the organization
b) focuses primarily on the individual in bringing about change
c) is goal oriented and utilizes an organization-wide problem solving approach to change
d) is unstructured problem solving in organizations
989) There are two sources of work-family conflict:
a) Psychological and environmental involvement in work and family roles
b) Behavioural and emotional involvement in work and familyroles
c) Behavioural and psychologic al involvement in work and family roles
d) Psychological and social involvement in work and familyroles
990) According to Frederick Taylor, wh ich of the following is the function of the worker?
a) to set appropriate goals for the organization
b) to provide the strategic direction of the organization
c) to execute the task
d) to calibrate and define each task carefully
991) Which better describes an employee's emotional and intellectual
investment in their organisation?
a) job satisfaction
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b) job involvement
c) employee engagement
d) job morale
992) Which of the following consists of three crucial components: a description ofthe
problematic behaviour, a revelation of your sentiments about the
behaviour, and a statement about the impact of the person's behaviour?
a) conflict management strategy
b) ADR system
c) ACR
d) XYZ model
993) The initial phase of progressive discipline is
a) written reprimand.
b) verbal counseling.
c) formal counseling.
d) fact-finding.
994) In a pure competency-based pay system, employees earn increases
depending on their performance.
a) according to cost-of-living data
b) annually on their date of hire.
c) according to their performance on the job.
d) as they learn new skills or knowledge
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995) Organizations with fewer layers of hierarchy are more ef ficient.
a)are able to accelerate the promotion of protected classes
b) provide fewer promotion opportunities for employees
c) must rely on external recruitment to fill positions
d) tend to have high levels of political infighting
996) Which of the following factors is not used to evalua te "just cause" in
employee terminations?
a) was the employee warned of the consequences of the conduct?
b)was there is a complaint process available?
c) did management investigate before disciplining?
d) were the rules and penalties applied even handedly?
997) Which of the following personali ty traits demonstrates a person's
determination to "do whatever it takes?"
a) self-determination
b) ingratiation
c) Machiavellianism
d) rational persuasion
998) The labour markets for car mechanics and physic al therapists are both impacted
by the ageing population.
a) overseas competition
b) geographic area
c)the need for special licenses
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d) technological innovations
999) Clarence's performance at work has declined in recent months. His six-year-old
daughter has been having therapy to decrease an incurable brain tumor. Clarence's
marriage is under strain due to the issue with his child, and his
employees believe he is melancholy. Which of the statements below is TRUE?
a) Clarence is probably disabled under the ADA due to his depression.
b) Clarence should be referredto the company’s EAP
c) If Clarence is receiving FMLA leave, then the organization is doing all it can
for him.
d) Once Clarence’s FMLA runs out, the organization should disci pline him for
poor performance.
1000)What is an illustration of paying retention bonuses to gain employee
commitment as a change management strategy?
a) facilitation
b) communication
c) negotiation
d) coercion
1001) An employee of a firm who is elected by union members to serve as their first-line
representative with management is known as the
a) union steward.
b) business agent.
c) union organizer.
d) contract enforcer.
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1002) If the supervisor lacks a comprehe nsive and representative perspective of his or her
subordinate's job outcomes, then the supervisor's performance
evaluation is likely to contain _______ mistake.
a) contrast
b) central tendency
c) sampling
d) varying standards
1003) The formal, methodical method of determining the relative value of
occupations within an organisation.
a) Job analysis
b) Job evaluation
c) Pay structure development
d) Pay surveying
1004)Which of the followingwas created to combatthe monotony associated with scientific
management?
a) job specialization
b) job enlargement
c) job enrichment
d) job design
1005) General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) is a _____ test.
a) personality trait
b) psychological
c) integrity
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d) cognitive ability
1006) If a projectteam grows through stages of inertia, transition, and inertia
again, which modelof team
eam development does the team adhere to?
a) punctuated equilibrium
b) pooled interdependence
c) sequential interdependence
d) reciprocal interdependence
1007)Which is synonymous with ambition, integrity, self-reliance, independence, and
bravery?
a) terminal values
b) instrumental values
c) primary factors
d) secondary factors
1008)Which collection of factors is utilised in the construction of environmental
uncertainty?
a) global GDP, domestic GDP, and local market conditions
b) complexity and stability
c) capacity, demand and supply, and economic growth
d) volatility and analyzability
1009)Which generation is skeptical, independent, often tech-savvy, careerfocused, and less at ease with hierarchy?
a) Baby Boomers
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b) Generation X
c) Generation Y
d) Veterans
1010)Which of the following is crucial to organizational change success, given
that fear of the unknown might create a reaction to change?
a) education
b) communication
c) support
d) employee involvement
1011) Evan accepted a position as a bill collector for a major retailer. He
abandoned the position after three months, citing the "hostility and negativity"
involved as the reason. There is a significan t turnover rate among the company's bill
collectors. Using these techniques, the corporation could be able to lowerits turnover.
a) the multiple hurdles approach to selection
b) ability tests
c)the compensatory approach to selection
d) realistic job previews
1012)Which implies enhanced creative performance the most?
a) there is a supportive environment
b) flexible structures are implemented
c) individuals are part of a team with diverse skills
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d) there is a match, or fit, between the individual and organizational influences
on creativity
1013) Group individual jobs with the same job value by .
a) Pay grades
b) Pay ranges
c) Job classifications
d) Pay matrices
1014)Which economic system emphasizes free entrepreneurship, private
property rights, and collaboration between management and labour the most?
a) Japanese
b) German
c) Scandinavian
d) Canadian
1015) The training director of a bank would want to compare the outcomes of a somewhat
expensive training programme to those of other firms. The training
director should have
a) a return on investment analysis
b) benchmarking data
c) a cost-benefits analysis
d) a pre/post measure test with a control group
1016) In the ________ strategy, managers use fact-finding and advice rather than
punishmentsto deter bad behaviour.
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a) positive discipline
b) due process
c) progressive discipline
d) effective discipline
1017) The benefit of compelled distribution is that
a) the results can be easily compared from one organizational department to
another
b) it is easily defended in court.
c) it discourages rater inflation of evaluations
d) it avoids labeling any one individual inthe department as the worst performer
1018)Which of the following claims about graphic rating scales is TRUE?
a) Raters tend to use the highest and lowest numbers in rating scales
b) Odd-numbered scales are used more frequen tly than even-numbered scales.
c) The highest number in a rating scale is supposed to be perfection.
d) In graphic rating scales, “1” always indicates low performance regardless of
what the highest number in the scale is
1019) The optimal degree of training evaluation is the
a) learning of trainees
b) reactions of trainees
c) behaviour of trainees
d) results of the training
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1020)Which of the following subjects is investigated at the organizational level?
a) motivation and perception
b) job design and leadership
c) change and culture
d) leadership and motivation
1021)Which of the statements below is TRUE?
a) There is no strategic reason to give part-time employees benefits because
they are not important to the organization’s performance.
b) If the employer gives regular employees benefits, it must give part-time
employees benefits.
c) U.P.S, Starbucks and Canadian Tire provide benefits to their part time
employees
d) Quebec employers are legally required to provide part time employees
benefits if they provide employee benefits to full time employees
1022)What is the major function of the HR professional inside an organisation?
a) To help equip the line manager with the best people practices so that the
organization can be successful.
b) To formulate and implement policy.
c) To perform recruitment and training.
d) To liaise between employees and management.
1023)Which of the following describes when your words and body languag
languagee
correspond to your thoughts and emotions?
a) counterfeit questions
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b) jargon
c) cross-cultural training
d) congruence
1024) Profit-sharing is a/an __________ -level incentive.
a) group/team
b) individual
c) organizational
d) industry
1025)Which of the following is an example of a benefit of groupthink?
a) time requirement
b) pressure to conform
c) group polarization
d) synergy
1026)Which of the following competencies are acquired via learning?
a) abilities and intelligence
b) intelligence and personal attributes
c) skills, abilities and values
d) abilities and personal attributes
1027)Which better describes the exten t to which work activities are frequently and
precisely specified and performed?
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a) Standardization
b) centralization of decisional authority
c) complexity
d) formalization
1028)Which of the following is NOT a Canadian journal devoted to HR research?
a) Canadian Labour Law Repor ter.
b) Benefits Canada.
c) Canadian Journal of Administrative Studies.
d) Canadian Compensation News.
1029)Which three categories did Henry Mintzberg use to classify management
roles?
a) interpersonal, informational and decisional
b) planning, leading and communicating
c) interpersonal, controlling and organizing
d) leading, controlling and communicating
1030)Which of the following best defines work happiness, organizationalloyalty, and
employee engagement?
a) work related attitudes
b) psychological contract
c) normative commitment
d) organizational citizenship commitment
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1031)Which of the following best describes the typical logical response of
individuals to change?
a) what is in the best interest of the organization
b) self-interest
c) how customers might respond to the change
d) how the change will affect profitability
1032)Which of the following has demonstrated that views acquired via direct
experience are stronger, more confidently held, and more resistant to change?
a) social learning
b) observation
c) heredity
d) direct experience
1033) Of the _____________ provision in a collective bargaining agreement,
management strives to protect its unilateral right to make changes in its
company in areas not covered in the contract.
a) managerial independence
b) management rights
c) management autonomy
d) managerial discretion
1034)Which is the capacity to detect and control one's own and others'
emotions?
a) empathy
b) multi-source feedback
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c) emotional intelligence
d) kinesics
1035)All of the following are outsourcing recruitment approaches EXCEPT
a) employee leasing companies
b) professional employment organizations
c) Internet-based recruiting
d) employment agencies
1036) A small group of employees who work volun tarily on company time, often one hour
per week, to solve work-related issues like quality control, cost
reduction, production planning and processes, and produc t design.
a) problem-solving teams
b) SDWT
c) quality-circle
d) cross-functional team
1037)Which feature defines dysfunctional conflict?
a) structure
b) health
c) unhealthy
d) instability
1038) Managers frequently avoid discipline for all ofthe reasons listed below
EXCEPT
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a) fear of lawsuits.
b) guilt
c)the time loss involved.
d) ignorance of due process.
1039) The third phase in the communication process is .
a) decode
b) encode
c) form message
d) receive message
1040)What province has the highest unionization rate in Canada?
a) Ontario
b)Newfoundland
c) Alberta
d) Quebec
1041)Which best describes an organizational culture that promotes employee
confidence and risk-taking, has leadership that generates change, and focuses onthe everevolving demands of customers?
a) strong culture
b) strategically appropriate culture
c) weak culture
d) adaptive culture
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1042) Organizations are beginning to recognizethe significance of core skills as
component of human capital. What is an illustration of a core competency?
a
a) Focus on customer
b) Outsourcing
c) ISO 9000
d) Benchmarking
1043)Which best describes the magnitude, quantity, and interdependence of theparticular
and general forces that an organisation must manage?
a) environmental uncertainty
b) environmental dynamism
c) environmental complexity
d) environmental richness
1044) These are the worrying facts concerning youthful workers:
a) machine injuries and electrocutions are the second cause of death in young people
b) one in every seven workers are injured on the job.
c) young workers are often too afraid to ask about safety or job training
because they want to make a good impression.
d) all ofthe above.
1045)Which of the following is one of the most influential factors in determining selfefficacy?
a) high self-esteem
b) an internal locus of control
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c) previous success
d) the tendency to be a low self-monitor.
1046)Which of the following pertains to Henry Mintzberg’s interp ersonal roles?
a) leading, monitoring and communicating
b) planning,leading and controlling
c) figurehead, liaison and leader
d) monitor, leader and controller
1047) The most likely consequence of an in ternal centre of control is .
a) make more unethical decisions
b) give into social pressures
c) believe that external forces caused their behaviours
d) take personal responsibility for the consequences of their behaviours
1048) Under Canadian human rights legislation, a potential employer may
inquire about the medical history of an applicant.
a) after the person is hired
b) during the interview
c) once a job offer has been made
d) if it is relevant to the function of the job
1049)Which of the following best represents the motivational focus of the
expectation theory?
a) social process
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b) individual needs
c) personal perceptions
d) learning
1050)When a company is prepared for bankruptcy and the accountants may become
overly dominant, what is most likely to occur?
a) their nonsubstitutability
b) high centrality
c) operational knowledge of the firm
d) their ability to better cope wi th change
1051) Education is distinct from development in that
a) development teaches employees specific behaviours and actions
b) Training differs from development in that
c)
d) effective development can be measured by tests and certifications earned by
participants
1052)Which aspect of conflict management separates the integrated
approach from the compromise style?
a) intermediate concern for self and others
b) high concern for self and low concern for others
c) intermediate concern for self and high concern for others
d) high concern for self and high concern for others
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Staffing
1053) Rick, a general manager, has to evaluate 4 of his employees’
performance. Instead of taking the time to properly evaluate each employee,
Rick opts to assign each one an average ra ting. What does this exemplify?
a) Severity errors
b) Leniency errors
c) Central tendency errors
d) Halo errors
1054)Which of the following is NOT a technique for estimating the reliability of a test?
a) Using alternate forms
b) Test and retest
c) Verifying external reliability
d) Inter-rater reliability
1055)When using a psychological test for selection purposes, it is important to
use valid and reliable test. Where can you get information to assess whether the test you
are considering using is psychome trically sound?
a) Non-peer reviewed articles (internet or newspapers)
b) Buros Center for Testing
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c) Popular management journals
d) The National Enquire
1056)When choosing a job analysis me thod, which of the following should NOT betaken
into consideration?
a) Reliability of the method
b) The cost
c) Sample size
d) Employment Equity Laws
1057) A work arrangement in which workers work a fixed number of hours per
day but with variable start and finish periods is known as a staggered schedule.
a) flextime
b) shift work.
c) virtual work.
d) compressed work week.
1058)Which of the following occurs when individuals who are predicted to
perform successfully for a given position (based on pre-selection assessment
scores) do not perform at satisfactory levels when placed on the job?
a) False negatives
b) False positives
c) True negatives
d) True positives
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1059) An effective recruitment plan should do all of the following EXCEPT which ofthe
following?
a) Meet management goals
b) Attract alarge pool of candidates
c) Meet current legal requirements
d) Attract very few candidates from minority groups
1060)Which law is the supreme law in Canada and has a pe rvasive impacton employment
practices?
a) Human rights law
b) Constitutional law
c) Employment equity
d) Labour law
1061) Research has demonstrated that using proper effective recruitmentand
selectionpractices can lead to which of the foll owing?
a) Increased employee turnover and decreased productivity
b) Reduced employee turnover and increased productivity
c) Decreased trust and increased productivity
d) Increased employee turnover and increased employee commitment
1062)Which of the following is NOT representative of an executive search firm?
a) Executive searches can cost 30% of the candidate’s gross starting salary.
b) Executive searches are non expensive
c) Executive search firms can contact potential clients directly
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d) Executive search firms conduct hiring negotiations.
1063)Which of the following is an authentic concern aboutWeighted
Application Blanks?
a) Questions do not predict valid work behaviours. (e.g. absenteeism)
b)Weights are not based on job analysis.
c) Questions, although supported by empirical research, may not explain the
relationship between behaviours and p erformance
d) Good predictors of work behaviour
1064)Which of the following is the correctterm for advertising designed to raise an
organization’s profile in a positive manner in order to attract job seeker’s
interest?
a) Positive image enhancing promotions
b) Image advertising
c) Guerrilla advertising
d) Realistic job preview
1065) Jenny is currently in the process of being asked in terview questions. She
has noticed, thus far, that all the questions are focused on what she did or how she acted in
the past. What type of interview is this?
a) Comprehensive structured interviews
b) Situational interviews
c) Job knowledge interviews
d) Behavioural description interviews
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1066)What is a simulation exercise designed to assess leadership,organization, and
communication skills also known as?
a) In-basket test
b) Leaderless group discussion
c) Assessment Centre
d) All of the above
1067) Providing interview training to future interviewers should provide what
information?
a) How to develop probe questions during the interview
b) How to use your “gut-instinct”
c) How to avoid the similar-to-me effect
d) How to stress the candidates
1068)Which of the following is NOT representative of screening practices?
a) Reviewing resumes
b) Reviewing applications
c) Employmenttesting
d) Screening interviews
1069)Which of the following is the correctterm for an indication of the stability or
dependability of a set of measurements over repeated applications of the
measurement procedure?
a) Reliability
b)Validity
c) Coefficient determination
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d) ConstructValidity
1070)Which of the following refers to knowledge that is derived from experience when
learning is not the primary objective?
a) Practical intelligence
b) Tacit knowledge
c) Emotional intelligence
d) “Book smarts”
1071)What is the first step in developing and implementing an employment
equity plan?
a) To remove systemic employment barriers to increase representation for
designated groups.
b) To conduct a survey to determine the present representation of designated
groups.
c) To obtain support of senior management for the employment equity effort.
d) To set future representation targets for designated groups based availability
of qualified workers in the labour market.
1072)What are the three categories of job performance?
a) Task performance, contextual performance, counterproductive performance
b) Conscientiousness, contextual performance, counterproductive performance
c) Overall performance, declarative knowledge, motivation
d) Overall performance, practical knowledge, dedication
1073)Which of the following applies to a scoring guide for interviews?
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a) It should only use a Likert scale from 1 to 7.
b) It should be based on subjective information.
c) It should use a behavioural rating scale with sample answers to each
question.
d) It should use an open ended format, so the interviewer can focus on
whatever he or she wants.
1074)Which of the following is the correctterm for modifying an existing
selection test so to allow persons with mental or physical disabilities a fair
chance to demonstrate their abilities?
a) Reverse discrimination
b) Individual accommodation
c) Reasonable accommodation
d) Bona fide occupational requir ement
1075)Which of the following is a practicethat can negatively affect test
reliability?
a) Having a candidate who is physicall y complete a selection test
b) Using standardized testing procedures
c) Having candidates complete the test in a quiet and controlled environment
d) Providing candidates with a standardized set of instructions
1076)Which of the followingwould NOT be an example of an objective
measure of job performance?
a) Speed of production
b) Number of times late for work
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c) Rate of increase in production
d) Decision making processes
1077)What is the correctterm for the difference, on average, that any one
score is from the mean score and from any other score?
a) The variance
b) The mean
c) A correlation coefficient
d) Reliability
1078) Based on a recent survey by Simola, Tagger, & Smith, which types of
interview questions are the most commonly used in Canada?
a) Behaviour description
b) Situational
c) Job knowledge
d) Personal (e.g., are you married? )
1079)Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a) A job analysis breaks down a job into its constituent parts, rather than looking at the job
as a whole
b) A job analysis does not refer to a single methodology but rather to a range of techniques.
c) A job analysis is a formal, structured process carried out under a set of
guidelines established in advance.
d) A job analysis is required by the law and must always be done.
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1080) The fundamental pillar of human resource management is
a) job design
b) job analysis
c) task analysis
d) work flow design
1081)Which of the following is a disadvantage to using the internet to recruit
external candidates?
a) Inexpensive
b) Reaches a mass audience
c) Time consuming
d) Unknown audience
1082)Which of the following refers to an individual’s deg ree of proficiency or
competency on a given task, which develops through performing the task?
a) Skill
b) Abilities
c) Knowledge
d) Aptitude
1083)Which of the following is the correctterm for an interviewer’s beliefs about the
requirements of the job and the characteristics of applicants?
a) Knowledge structures
b) Competency structures
c) Skill structures
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d) Ability structures
1084)Which of the following is an inapp ropriate behaviour that may negatively influence
your interviews perception of you during a screening interview?
a) Remaining confident and determined throughout the interview, regardless of how the
interviewer’s cues suggest the interview is going
b) Making direct eye contact with the interviewer.
c) Emphasizingmonetary issues
d) Answering questions quickly
1085)Which of the following is the correctterm for a highly structured interview in which
hypothetical situations are described and applicants are asked what
they would do?
a) Comprehensive structured interview
b) Situational interview
c) Job knowledge interview
d) Behavioural description interview
1086)Which of the following group is NOT a designated protected group as
defined by employment equity?
a) Minorities
b)Women
c) Aboriginals
d) Senior citizens
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1087) Kim, an HR manager, is conducting interviews for an intern position. She
has very little experience conducting interviews; consequently she has done
very little preparation and has been just coming up with questions as the
interviews progress. What style of interview is Kim conducting?
a) Stress interviews
b) Structured interviews
c) Unstructured interviews
d) Comprehensive interviews
1088)What is the degree to which the criterion measure is influenced by, or
measures, behaviours or compe tencies that are not part of job performance?
a) Criterion deficiency
b) Criterion contamination
c) Criterion relevance
d) Criterion defectiveness
1089) Observation would be the most suitable approach of work analysis for the position of
a) obtain top management support
b) research scientist at NASA.
c) pediatrician in a family health clinic
d) welder in a car manufacturing plan t
1090) Your organisation has a selection ration of 0.05. Based on this number, how many
applicants did your organisation receive, and how many positions were
available?
a) 150 applicants/ 50 positions
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b)300 applicants/ 10 positions
c) 200 applicants/ 10 positions
d) 100 applicants/ 60 positions
1091)Which of the following is NOT one of the grounds of employment
discrimination on which all Canadian jurisdictions agree?
a) Religion
b) Race
c) Sexual orientation
d) Age
1092) If an interviewee is having difficulties answering an interview question. Say for
example, the interviewee needs more information. The interviewer can help the guide the
interviewee by asking which of the following?
a) Leading question
b) Probe
c) Subjective tip
d) Situational example
1093)Which style of interviews has greater levels of predictive validity and
reliability?
a) Structured interviews
b) Unstructured interviews
c) Organized interviews
d) Personality based interviews
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1094)When conducting employment testing, it is important to abide by a code of ethics.
Which of the following is NOT representative of the CPA’s Canadian
Code of Ethics for Psychologist?
a) Responsible caring discrepancy
b) Respect for the dignity of the person
c) Responsibility to society
d) Responsibility to the organization
1095)Which of the following best explains why a candidate with average
qualifications who is interviewed after a candidate with extremely poor
qualifications may receive a higher evalua tion than deserved?
a) halo error
b) contrast effect
c) similarity effect
d) recency effect
1096)Which law prohibits discrimination in both employment and the provision of goods
and services in Canada?
a) Human rights law
b) Constitutional law
c) Employment equity
d) Labour law and employment standards
1097)With respects to recruitment and selection and the HR profession, many
organisations are requesting that HR professionals hold which type of
qualification?
a) Certified Human Resource Professional
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b) Canadian Human Resource Profession al
c) Human ResourceProfessional Certificate
d) Human Resource Professional Credential certificate
1098)Which of the following is NOT representative of a science-based system in human
resource management?
a) Rational decision making
b) The use of valid and useful predictors
c) Implemented on a case-by-case basis
d) Based on empirical evaluation processes
1099)Which of the following is NOT a social economic factor that caninfluence recruitment
and selection?
a) Labour employee relations
b) Globalization
c) Demographics
d) Marketplace
1100) A firm operating 24 hours a day may anticipate all of the following EXCEPT
a) for mistakes to be fewer on the day shift.
b) to have more accidents on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift.
c) for employees to valuethe variation in scheduling
d) to have higher labour costs for evening and night shifts.
1101) Telework is expectedto
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a) decrease in the future due to the inability to properly supervise and control
teleworkers
b) decrease in the future due to the excessive stress on employees.
c) increase in the future because of the high cost of real estate making office
space very expensive
d) increase in the future because of globalization of business.
1102)While developing recruitmen
tment and selection practices, taking into
consideration compensation and benefits would refer to which element in a
Human Resource System?
a) Personnel
b)Work environment
c) Retention
d) Performance management
1103)When screening a resume, whic h of the following characteristics would be a potential
warning sign that you may have a bad candidate?
a) Conflicting details or overlapping dates in work experience
b)A well detailed section on work experience
c) An exhaustive list of past employers
d) A detailed education system
1104)All of the following are employee behavioural competencies EXCEPT
a) leadership
b) customer focus
c) results orientation
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d) financial expertise.
1105)What is the validity of resumes in predicting future job success?
a) Resumes have high validity
b) Resumes have relatively low validity
c) Resumes have moderate validity
d) Resumes have absolutely no validity
1106)Which of the following is a technique that selects the top scorer in one
band and then constructs a new band from the next highest score?
a) Sliding bands
b) Fixed bands
c) Moving bands
d) Stable bands
1107) In one decision-making model, current employees who are considered
successful on the job are assessed on se veral predictors. Their average score on each
predictor are used to form an ideal profile of scores required for successful job
performance. Which model is this?
a) Profile matching
b) Multiple hurdle
c) Multiple cut-offs
d) Current employee predictions
1108)What has research shown about individuals designated with a CHRP
designation?
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a) They are more likely to struggle to keep jobs
b) They are more likely to receive higher salaries
c) They are more likely to enjoy their jobs more
d) They are more likely to have negative perceptions associated with their
performance
1109)Which of the following is NOT a benefit of recruiting internal candidates?
a) They are familiar with the organizational culture.
b) They have greater expectations about the job or organization.
c) They have higher levels of organizational commitment
d) They have higher levels of satisfaction
1110)Which of the following is NOT an example of attitudinal measures thatcan be used to
evaluate recruitment methods?
a) Job involvement
b) Job satisfaction
c) Turnover
d) Sales quotas
1111) Identify which of the following can be a major weakness of using
interviews during a job analysis?
a) Interviewees respond more ope nly to questions
b) Provide information which may otherwise be overlooked
c) Employees can distort information (especially if questions are linked to pay)
d) Allows for one on one interaction
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1112)Which of the following staff would be the greatest choice for teamwork?
a) an individualistic idealist
b) a brilliant introvert
c) a strong leader
d) an extrovert with good job skills
1113)Which of the following is NOT representative of component in human
resource system?
a) Personnel requirements
b) Legislative laws
c) Personal preferences
d) Work environment
1114)Which of the following is a decision-makingmodel where an applicant
must pass the minimum cut-off for each predictor before moving on to the nex t predictor?
a) Multiple regression
b) Multiple cut-offs
c) Multiple hurdle
d) Combination
1115)Which of the following is the correctterm for the degree to which
accumulated evidence and theory support specific interpretations of testscores inthe
context of the test’s proposed use?
a)Validity
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b) Reliability
c) A high correlation coefficient
d) Cronbach’s alpha
1116)Which of the following test can be used to collect information on workers’ traits?
a) The critical incidenttechnique
b) Fleishman job analysis survey
c) Position analysis questionnaire
d) Harvey’s common-metric questionnaire
1117) Raters for 360 degree performance evaluation do NOT include?
a) Peers
b) Supervisors
c) Self-ratings
d) External consultants
1118)When conducting reference checks, which of the following guidelines
should you use?
a) Ask closed questions to the person giving you the reference
b) Have candidates sign a waiver
c) Only conduct1 reference check
d) Try to get personal references (i.e. friends or family)
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1119)When conducting profile matching, which of the following is a technique that
calculates the differences between an applicant’s scores and ideal profile scores on each
predictor, squaring the differences and then summing the
squared difference?
a) The D2 method
b) The correlation method
c) The R2 method
d) The difference method
1120)Which of the following could be identified as a weakness when an
organisation (client) outsources recruitment and selection to an external firm?
a) Client can be subject to discrimination claims.
b) The employee is “leased” to the client from the outside firm.
c) Clienthas to pay increased administrative task.
d) Client suffers from a decrease in work force flexib ility.
1121) Based on Campbell’s eight job dimensions, the dimension of “facilitating peer and
team performance” would fall under which of the following job
performance categories?
a) Contextual behaviours
b) Job task behaviours
c) Counterproductive behaviours
d) Written and oral communication and task proficiency
1122)Which of the following information can NOT be found on the National
Occupational Classification System?
a) Interest
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b) Aptitudes
c) Physical activity
d) Average salaries (nationally and by province)
1123)Which of the following is the correctterm for characteristics that apply onlyto
specific positions within the organization?
a) Job-specific competencies
b) Competencies
c) Functional competencies
d) Core competencies
1124)Which of the following is the only way that you can defend a
discriminatory policy or practice?
a) By using a bona fide occupational requirement
b) By using a bona fide work requirement
c) By using aindividual accommodation
d) By using a reasonable accommodation
1125)Which of the following is a criticism of using self-report inventories?
a) They are time consuming
b) They are expensive
c) They are prone to social desirability responses
d) They can only be done in pap er and pencil
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1126) You are applying for a job and had to complete an application form with the
following question: “How many parties do you go to in a year? Which of the following are
you completing?
a)Weighted Application Blank
b) Biographical Information Blank
c) A regular/basic application form
d) A discriminatory application form
1127) The major reason that Canadian jobs have been outsourced to foreign
locations is
a) the stronger work ethic of foreign workers than Canadian workers
b) lower labour costs in foreign countries
c)the ability of Canadian firms to evade strict Canadian labour and
employment laws
d) avoidance of union work rul es
1128) A background investigation would immediately follow which step of an
effective selection process?
a) After the candidate writes a written selection test
b) After the candidate completes an application form
c) After the candidates undergoes a screening interview
d) After the candidates undergoes a second (in-person) interview
1129)Although recruitment methods change over time, which of the following does recent
research suggest is the most used recruitment method that people use to find work?
a) Family or friend
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b) Personal initiative
c) Help-wanted sign
d) Directly recruited by employer
1130) To be effective, an employee orientation programme must include the following:
a) Cognitive dissonance
b) A needs analysis
c) An ongoing follow-up procedure
d) Provide for sharing of group norms
1131)Which of the following statements is NOT true about using Canadian
EmploymentCentersto recruit external candidates?
a) Job-KSAO fit
b) Inexpensive
c) Success limited to certain occupational categories
d) Random process
1132)When making selection decisions, what technique ranks all candidates based on
the highest scores and then selects the candidates with the highest scores?
a) Banding
b) Top-down method
c) Highest score method
d) The regression method
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1133) Upon examining a compe tency dictionary, which of the following
information would NOT be found?
a) Proficiency level
b) Proficiency scale
c) Core competencies
d) Organizational citizenship behaviour index
1134) A new HR intern has been asked to generate a pool of po tential
candidates for a new position within the organization. What is task defined as?
a) Selection
b) Recruitment
c) Recruitment and Selection
d) Promotion
1135)While developing recruitmen
tment and selection practices, taking into
consideration training and developingwould refer to which element in a Human Resource
System?
a)Work environment
b) Performance Management
c) Personnel requirements
d) Retention
1136)Which of the following is the correctterm for a job analysis technique that emphasizes
work outcomes and description of the various tasks performed to
accomplish those outcomes?
a)Worker-oriented job analysis
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b)Work-oriented job analysis
lysis
c) Work-description job analysis
d) Work-outcomes job analysis
1137)Which of the following is NOT a fundamental principle underlying a Human Resource
Systems?
a) Human resource managers mustthink in terms of systems.
b) Human resource managers must carefully coordinate their activities with
other organizational units.
c) Human resource managers should focus solely on their departmental
objectives.
d) Human resource managers should consider the welfare of the entire
organization.
1138)Which of the following is NOT an appropriate technique to increase the
perceived fairness and satisfaction of your performance rating systems?
a) Using behaviour observation scales (BORS)
b) Using behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)
c) Using Trait scales
d) Allowing employees to help develop the performance evaluations
1139)Which of the following question should NOT be asked on an ap plication
form?
a) Job experience
b) Languages spoken
c) Date of birth
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d) Name
1140)Which of the following is the correctterm for attempts by applicants to
create a favourable impression by moni toring interviewer reactions and
responding accordingly?
a)Social desirability
b) Impression management
c) Recency effect
d) Primacy effect
1141)Which of the following is NOT a technique for establishing the validity of a test?
a) Compare it to other non-related variables
b) Gather evidence based on test content
c) Examine test-criterion relationships
d) Examine internal consistency rates
1142) The LAST step in the process of job analysis is to
a) obtain top management support
b) finalize job descriptions and recommendations
c) review drafted job descriptions with employees and managers
d) periodically review all jobs
1143) You have just hired a recent job candidate, who scored very highly during
selectiontesting and interviews. Unfortunately, once he started working, he
turned out to be a very poor choice. What is this type of error?
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a) False negative error
b) False positive error
c) True positive error
d) False choice error
1144)Which of the following is the correctterm when each predictor adds value to the
selection system, and the validity of the system increases?
a) Predictive reliability
b) Predictive validity
c) Incremental validity
d) Adding-up validity
1145) During the recruitment and selection process it is possible for candidates
to suddenly decide that he/she no longer wants to work for the company which was
recruiting them. What is the term for this?
a) Self-selecting out
b)Walk outs
c) Quitters
d) False-positives
1146) Paul, a manager, is at the final stage of the recruitment and selection
process. For making his hiring decision, he basic ally just formed an overall
impression of the applicants based on his gut feelings. What is this type of
approach?
a) Pure judgment approach
b) Trait rating approach
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c) Profile interpretation
d) Simplified rating approach
1147) As a general rule, which of the following is the MOST appropriate length of an
interview?
a) Less than 16 minutes
b) Less than 12 minutes
c) Less than 20 minutes
d) Less than 45 minutes
1148) Having each interviewee undergo the sam e series of interview questions
and the same series of probes are characteristic of which type of interview?
a) Structured interviews
b) Unstructured interviews
c) Personality based interviews
d) Organized interviews
1149)What is the correctterm for a case when a job candidate has the
knowledge, skills, abilities, or competencies required by the job in question?
a) Person-organization fit
b) Person-job fit
c) KSAO’s match
d) Person competency fit
1150) In one decision-making model, scores on all predictors are obtaine
just as in the multiple regression model; however, in this particular
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model, applicants are rejected if their scores on any of the predictors fall b elow the cut-off
scores. Which model is this?
a) Multiple predictors
b) Multiple hurdle
c) Multiple cut-offs
d) Comprehensive predictors
1151)Which allegation is the most commonly cited signed complaints at the
Canadian Human Rights Commission?
a) Employment-related
b) Service-related
c) Harassment-employment
d) Retaliation
1152) Jamie just underwent an interview where she was being interviewed by 4
individuals. Which type of interview is this?
a) A team interview
b) A serial interview
c) A panel interview
d) A group interview
1153)Which group receives the highest amount of cited signed complaints for
discrimination at the Canadian Human Rights Commission?
a) Sex
b) Disability
c) Race
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d) Age
1154)Which of the following type of test is the most powerful predictor of job
performance when used by itself?
a) General cognitive ability
b) Personality
c) Integrity
d) Graphology
1155)Which of the following represents the strongest correlations between two variables?
a) r = -0. 55
b) r = 0.01
c) r = 0.80
d) r = - 0.84
1156)When should a physical/medical exam be given?
a) After the screening interview
b) During the recruitment process
c) During other employmenttest
d) After the applicant has received a job offer
1157) A corporation that want a defensible foundation for salary, selection, and training in
the high tech industry should employ a:
a) traditional task-based job analysis
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b) consulting firm that does business process re-engineering
c) competency-based job analysis.
d) behavioural-based job analysis.
1158)Which of the following is NOT an external factor that can influence HR
recruitment strategies?
a) The legal environment
b) The labour market
c) Organizational values
d) Competition
1159)Which of the following is the correctterm for a structured interview
technique that includes job knowledge interviews, work sample interviews, and walkthrough interviews (that require actual demonstration of behaviours)?
a) Behavioural sample interview
b) Situational interviews
c) Job knowledge interviews
d) Behavioural description interviews
1160)Which of the following are voluntary behaviours that violate significant
organizational norms and in so doing threaten the well-beingof an organisation and its
members?
a) Lack of personal discipline
b) Non-job specific task proficiency
c) Counterproductive behaviours
d) Social loafing
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1161)Which of the following are subsets or scales that are included in a general personality
inventory?
a) Overt honesty tests
b) Covert tests
c) Graphology
d) In-baskets
1162) There are 19 prohibited grounds of em ployment discrimination across all
jurisdictions in Canada. How many grounds of employment discrimination are
there on which all jurisdictions agree?
a)6 prohibited grounds
b) 3 prohibited grounds
c) 9 prohibited grounds
d) 12 prohibited grounds
1163) Using a science-based selection system in human resource management can lead to
which of the following?
a) Lack of competitiveness
b) Marginal employees
c) Decreased productivity
d) A defensible selection system
1164) A practice-based selection system in human resource management is
based on which of the following principles?
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a) Select valid measures of KSAOs
b) A person’s “gut feeling”
c) Rational
d) Information based on a job analysis
1165)Which of the followingwill NOT help job candidates develop accurate
expectations about the job that they are applying for?
a) Use more than one media source to communicate with job candidates.
b) Provide candidates with a realistic job preview.
c) Only provide job candidates with positive information aboutthe job
d) Provide candidates with a broad range of information aboutthe job and organization
1166)Which of the following is the correctterm for an idea or concept
constructed or invoked to explain relationships between observations?
a) Construct
b)Validity
c) Construct validity
d) Reliability
1167)Which of the following internal recruitmentpractices can lead to
allegations of discrimination?
a) Replacement charts
b) Internal job postings
c) Human resources information systems
d) Nominations
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1168)Which of the following is the first step of the selection process which
involves identifying individuals from the applicant pool who have the minimum
qualifications for the position?
a) Recruitment
b) Screening
c) Selection
d) Self-selecting out
1169)Which of the following is NOT representative of making effective selection decisions?
a) Base decisions on “gut feelings” or intuition
b) Use valid selection instruments
c) Keeping track of the selections “hits” and “misses”
d) Periodically evaluate or audit selection decisions
1170)What practice should NOT be taken into consideration to assure that
performance measurement systems meet legal and professional standards?
a) Conduct a job analysis to describe job performa nce domain and
competencies that are necessary for successfully achieve the organization’s
goals.
b) Select criteria that are valid, reliable, and practical measurements of job
performance.
c) Provide written instructions to all assessors/raters on the proper use of the
measurement system.
d) Asking questions not directly linked to performance (i.e., are you planning on having a
family?)
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1171) Betty just evaluated one of her employees; she ra ted her employee on
each performance domain on a 101-point scale (with 50 representing average). Betty was
told that each performance domain was derived through job analytic procedures. What type
of rating system is this?
a) Paired comparisons
b) Rank order
c) Forced distributions
d) Relative percentile method
1172) The ability to access and/or genera te feelings when they facilitate
thought is a component of which of the following?
a) Practical knowledge
b) Tacit knowledge
c) Emotional intelligence
d) Cognitive ability
1173) Most selection policies used to select undergraduate students into
graduate schools are faced with a similar problem. Given that most students
applying to graduate school have similar grades, it can affect the validity of the validity
coefficients. What is this problem defined as?
a) Range restriction
b) Measurement error
c) Sampling error
d) Bias
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1174)Which of the following is the correctterm for the correlation between
assessment scores and job performance measur ement?
a)Validity coefficient
b) Predictive validity
c) Correlation
d) Reliability
1175) Knowledge about facts and things including knowledge of rules,
regulations, and goals is defined as:
a) Declarative knowledge
b) Procedural knowledge
c) Practical knowledge
d) Informative knowledge
1176)Which law aims to eliminate discriminatory practices that prevent the entry or
retention of members from designated groups in the workplace and to the
elimination of unequal treatment in the workplace related to membership in a
designated group?
a) Human rights law
b) Constitutional law
c) Employment equity
d) Labour law and employment standards
1177) In order to develop effective recruitment ads, it’simportant to use which
of the following criteria?
a) Attract, Interest, Desire, Action
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b) Attract, Interest, Devotion, Accounta bility
c) Attract, Seduce, Stimulate interest, Action
d) Attract, Draw attention, Stimulate interest, Accountability
1178) Based on the big five dimensions of job personality, which is the bes t
predictor of several different aspects of performance?
a) Extroversion
b) Conscientiousness
c) Emotional Stability
d) Neuroticism
1179) An employer is using a test that inadvertently discriminates against race. What
type of discrimination would this be?
a) Direct discrimination
b) Adverse effect discrimination
c) Adverse impact
d) Pardonable discrimination
1180)Which of the following is NOT one of the big five dime nsions of job
personality?
a) Extroversion
b) Conscientiousness
c)Hard Worker
d) Emotional Stability
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1181)Which of the following does NOT contribute to having a structured
interview?
a) Follow-up questioning is limited.
b) Interview questions are standardized.
c) Questions from candidate are not allowed until after the interview.
d) Interview questions focus on opinions and self -evaluations.
1182) You are working for an organisation that is has previously had issues with
employment equity. Your director has reques ted that you track designated
group membership within your organization. How would you deal with this on an
application form?
a) Avoid all questions about designated group membership on the application.
b) Directly ask questions about designated group membership on the
application.
c) Ask employees to complete a separate form which explains that the
information is being collected as per government requirements and will not be
accessible to those making hiring decisions).
d) Only ask certain minority groups (i.e., the ones with the least representation in your
organization) to complete additional items on the application form
1183)Well designed test must abide by certain standards. From the list below,
identify which standard does NOT protect the rights and welfare of test takers?
a) Offer test takers an opportunity to view their test results.
b) Have test takers sign an informed consent.
c) Test results should be kept confidential.
d) Not offering candidates an opportunity to write a test in their most fluent
language.
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1184)When conducting a job analysis, mos t HR managers will identify people
who are most knowledgeable about a job and how it is currently performed.
Which of the following is NOT representative of one of these individuals?
a) Immediate supervisors of people holding the position
b) Experienced employees currently holding the position
c) Subject-matter experts
d) New employees
1185)Which of the following is a standardizedquestionnaire that includes 195
items and organizes job elements into 6 dimensions?
a) Position analysis questionnaire
b) The critical incidenttechnique
c) Work profiling system
d) Harvey’s common-metric questionnaire
1186)Which of the following is an approach in which jud gmental and statistical data are
combined statistically?
a) Profile interpretation
b) Judgmental composite
c) Trait rating approach
d) Statistical composite
1187)What is a written outline of what job occupants are required to do, how
they are supposed to do it, and the rationale for any required job procedures?
a) Job specification
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b) Job description
c) Job
d) Position description
1188) An organisation adminis tered a test to existing employees to see how it
correlated with their performance. Which type of evidence does this provide to the validity
of the inferences made between test scores and job performance?
a) Concurrent
b) Predictive
c) Cumulative
d) Composite
1189) If an observed score is quite different from other scores and the mean,
how does it impact the variance?
a) It decreases it
b) It increases it
c) It stays the same
d) This has nothing to do with variance
1190)Which of the following is the correctterm for the notion that you can use a single
criterion to measure overall job performa nce?
a) Ultimate criterion
b) Global criterion
c) Overall criterion
d) Composite criterion
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1191)Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Weighted Application
Blanks?
a) Easy and quick to develop weighted applications blank questions and norms
b)Good predictors of work behaviour (e.g., absenteeism)
c) Cost effective
d) Good predictors of employee turnover
1192) Bill, a job candidate, was just given a set of short reports, notes, telephone messages,
and memos of the type that most managers have to deal with on a
daily basis. The person conducting the interview has asked Bill to set priorities for eachtask
and determine whether or not they can be delegated. What is this
selection test known as?
a) Assessment centre
b) Management skill test
c) In-baskettest
d) Personality tests
1193)Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of ethics or ethical
standards?
a) Follow a code of standards for appropriate behaviour.
b) Taking the time to determine right from wrong.
c) Finding the problem lies within a grey area between right or wrong.
d) Taking actions without considering their ramifications.
1194) The most beneficial and time-saving resource for job analysis and
producing effective job descripttions and requirements is/are
a) the Canadian website for National Occupation Classification
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b) Internet chat rooms for HR professionals.
c) previous job descriptions used in the same company.
d) job descriptions written by HR professionals in other companies
1195) The notion of sufficient risk is important for which of the following?
a) Individual accommodation
b) Reverse discrimination
c) Bona fide occupational requirement defence
d) Adverse effect discrimination
1196) Before starting to collect data for a job analysis, human resource
managers can collect information about the job in question from which of the
following sources?
a) O*Net
b) National Occupational Competency Database
c) National Organizational Database
d) Canadian Classification Dictionary of Job Analysis
1197)Which of the following is NOT one of the grea t8 competencies developed by Bartram
(2005)?
a) Interacting and presenting
b) Leading and deciding
c) Creating and conceptualizing
d) Communicating
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1198) The most effective method for determining the essential responsibilities
and KSAs for a position is to:
a) record the duties and KSAs of the current job incumbent.
b) determine the duties and KSAs of the ideal candidate for the job.
c) determine what the duties and KSAs would be if the current incumbent left
d) redesign the job independent of what the current job duties and KSAs are
1199)Which of the following is not one of Campbell’s 8 dimensions of job
performance?
a) Maintaining personal discipline
b) Demonstrating effort
c) Facilitating peer and team performance
d) Organizational citizenship behaviour
1200)Which of the following is NOT a test that can be used to measure
personality dimensions?
a) Personal Characteristics Inventory
b) NEO-FFI
c) Wonderlic Personnel Test
d) Work Personality Index
1201)What determines individual differences on Campbell’s eight dimensions of job
performance?
a) Practical knowledge, organizational knowledge, and motivation
b) Declarative knowledge, procedural knowledge, and motivation
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c) Contextual knowledge, personal attributes, and motivation
d) Declarative knowledge, organizational knowledge, and m otivation
1202)Although the PAQ has been rated as one of the most cost-efficient jobs
analysis method, it does have some disadvantages. Which of the following
would be a disadvantage to using the PAQ?
a) Does not provide information on work output
b) Readinglevel may be too difficult for certain lower-level workers
c) Does not provide information on mental processes used by employees
d) Does not provide information on the job context
1203) Bill, amanager, is at the final stage of the recruitment and selection
process. For making his hiring decision, he is basic ally looking at statistical data that he
collected during the applicant selection process.
a) Pure statistical approach
b) Pure judgmental approach
c) Profile interpretation
d) Judgmental composite
1204)Which of the following is the correctterm for the proportion of applicants hired
through the selection system who are judged satisfactory?
a) Hired candidate
b) Base rate
c) Selection rate
d) Success rate
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1205)Which of the following is the correctterm for the proportion of applicants who would
be successful if all ofthe applicants for a position had been hired?
a) Selection ratios
b) Utility analysis
c) Taylor-Russell model
d) Base rate
1206)Which of the following is NOT an example of contextual performance?
a) Defending organizational objectives
b) Organizational citizenship behaviour
c) Following organizational rules and procedures
d) Lying
1207) Job applicants are likely to react more positively to which of the following selection
practices?
a) Personality test
b) Cognitive ability test
c) Work samples
d) Interviews
1208)Which of the following is a decision-makingmodel where an applicant’s
scores on each predictor are weighted and summed to yield a total score?
a) Multiple regression
b) Multiple cut-offs
c) Multiple hurdle
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d) Combination
1209)What is a collection of duties assigned to individuals in an organisation at a given
time?
a) Job specification
b) Job family
c) Job
d) position
Total Compensation
1210)Which of the following is the fourth step of the compensation strategy
formulation procedure?
a) determine compensation level
b) define the role of compensation
c) determine the compensation mix
d) define the required behaviour
1211)What does a compa-ratio below 1 indicate?
a)the majority ofemployees are in the fourth pay quartile
b) employees, on average, are being paid ab ove the midpoint at that firm
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c)the firm is paying their employees in the bottom half of the pay range
d) the majority of employees have reached the midpoint of their pay range
1212)Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of commissions?
a) reduce employer risk
b) serve as a source of feedback and as a s elf-correcting mechanism
c) does increase sales
d) produce intense competition among salespeople
1213) Among the instances of family care benefits are the exceptions listed
below:
a) Provision of elder care benefits
b) Provision of daycare
c) Subsidized dependent care provisions
d) Personal days and sick leaves
1214)What are the two most important compensation strategy questions that
must be answered?
a) “What is the mix of intrinsic and extrinsic rewards?” and “How should they be provided?”
b) “How should compensation be paid?” and “How much compensation
should be paid?”
c) “What other rewards are being provided?” and “Can these alone elicitthe
needed behaviour?”
d) “Is the organization getting its money’s worth?” and “Is the money being well spent?”
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1215) As the owner of a large firm, what budgeting strategy do you employ
when you limit the total amount of compensation available for the upcoming
year and then divide the remaining funds among your departmen t managers
for distribution to their employees?
a) top-down
b) zero based
c) projection
d) bottom-up
1216)What are the most expensive components of most companies' benefit
packages?
a) supplemental health and dental insurance plans
b) mandatory benefits
c)tuition reimbursements
d) company pension and retirement plans
1217) A barber ought to be able to cut the hair of four clients per hour. You
have determined that a worker with the skills and abilities to cut hair should earn $20 per
hour on average. What is the piece rate that your employees are paid?
a)25 cents
b) 16
c) 5
d) 20
1218)Which of the following represents indirect compensation?
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a) profit-sharing
b) pay for knowledge
c) salaries
d) health & life insurance
1219)Which of the following have you decided to include in your gain-sharing
plan by stipulating that no bonus will be paid during lost-time accident-affected periods?
a) historical record
b) modifier
c) performance measure
d) target achievement
1220)What serves as the basis for the creation of pay grades and pay ranges?
a) performance appraisals
b) job descriptions
c) job analysis
d) jobs hierarchy
1221)Which of the following is a change in internal conditions that may
necessitate a compensation system redesign?
a) legislative and tax changes
b) socioeconomic changes
c) work force changes
d) competitive environment changes
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1222)Which of the following is not true about merit bonuses?
a) Merit bonuses can be used in conjunc tion with a merit raise system.
b) Merit bonuses represent a permanent increase to base pay.
c) They are generally based on appraisals of overall employee performance.
d) They can be varied from year to year depending on the financial
circumstances of the employer.
1223)Which of the following best describes a stock option plan for employees?
a) Employees provide some kind of direct paymen t in return for company
shares.
b) Employees are granted participation units in a pool of equities of client firms.
c) Employees receive options to purchase company stock at a fu ture time ata fixed price.
d) Employees receive company stock at no cost to themselves.
1224)Which of the followingmakes it easier for publicly traded corporations to
implement employee stock plans than privately held corporations?
a) contract employees are usually excluded from the plan
b) the external marketis used to value company shares
c) employees have extensive control over wha t goes on in the organization
d) employees feel more of a sense of real ownership
1225)What are the advantages of outsourcing benefits administration for you as the
compensation manager of a mid-sized company?
a) makes you more aware of emerging p roblems
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b) provides economies of scale
c) improves your expertise
d) provides the right mix of benefits that best serves your objectives
1226)Which of the following is an example of an award that is not monetary?
a) time off for perfect attendance
b) personal leave day
c) a restaurantvouchers
d) cash bonuses
1227)Which of the following compensation plans fosters teamwork?
a) meritpays
b) profit sharing
c) goal-sharing
d) special purpose incentives
1228)Which of the following compensation data sources is an example of an internal
survey?
a) industry groups
b) government agencies
c) focus groups
d) compensation consultants
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1229) As the new owner of a fast food franchise, you have limited resources and wish to
emphasize teamwork among your employees. Consider which of the
following pay plans to implement.
a) profit-sharing
b) commissions
c) group health and life insurance
d) gainsharing
1230) Under which approach to bonus determination under a profit-sharing plan does
management simply consider the year-end profitability when determining the amount?
a) discretionary
b) fixed step
c) fixed percentage
d) fixed threshold
1231)Which of the following is not a base pay structure component?
a) pay ranges
b) degrees
c) shift differentials
d) pay grades
1232)Which of the following tasks is not one of the most important aspects that
must be addressed when planning c ompensation administration?
a)test the system
b) administering compensation
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c) planning the infrastructure
d) assigning compensation responsibilities
1233) Pay equity is
a) the right to similar pay for similarwork
b) the right to equal pay for the same work
c)the right to equal pay for work of equal value
d) fair pay for fair work
1234)Which of the following base pay methods ranks all jobs within the
organisation according to their value to the organisation and then calibrates the system
to the labour market?
a) competency-based
b) job evaluation
c) market pricing
d) skill-based
1235) Competitive pay is pay that is:
a) within 15% of the market
b) within 10% of the market
c) within 20% of the market
d) sufficient to hire away an employee from a c ompetitor
1236) The lowest-paying employer pays its accounting clerk an average total
compensation of $32,000, while the highest-paying employer pays its
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accounting clerk an average total compensation of $41,600. What is the
variance in accounting clerical compensation between companies?
a)23 percent
b) 77 percent
c) 30 percent
d) 25th percentile
1237)Which dimension of task behaviour is best suited for a traditional
compensation system?
a) low skilled
b) high interdependence
c) complex
d) team-based output
1238)Which of the following is not a component of the plan for creating an effective
compensation system?
a) Implement, management, evalua te and adapt the system.
b) Understand your organization and your people.
c) Conduct a training and development needs analysis.
d) Formulate your reward and compensation strategy.
1239)Which term refers to the differences be tween the range midpoints of adjacent
pay grades in a pay structure expressed by dollars?
a) broadbands
b) range spread
c) split pay range
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d) intergrade differentials
1240)Which of the following bases for allocating profit-sharing bonuses is used the least
frequently by Canadian companies?
a) individual performance
b) seniority
c) equal distribution
d) multiple bases
1241)Which of the following is an example of a symbolic aspectthat mustbe considered
when determining the purpose of your executive compensation
system?
a) an equity or fairness dimension
b) “cascading effect”
c) organizational goal accomplishment
d) long term gain
1242)Which of the following compensation mix options comprises the largest proportion
of an employee's total compensation, is guaranteed by the
employer, and is paid weekly, monthly, or annually?
a) performance pay
b) indirect pay
c) variable pay
d) base pay
1243)Which of the following is not an issue with base pay?
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a) It confines employee attention to only one or two behaviours.
b) Employees prefer predictable and certain rewards.
c) It does not indicate the relative importance of jobs within the organization.
d) It is not self-correcting.
1244)Which of the following is not a primary reason for indirect pay?
a) economies of scale
b) competitive pressure
c) good motivator for task behaviour
d) more favourable income tax treatment
1245)What similarities do merit pay and special-purpose incentives share?
a) They are types of organizational performance pay.
b) They fit human relations organizations.
c) They are always used in combina tion with base pay.
d) They are based on appraisals of overall employee performance.
1246)What is the best piece of advice you can give as a consul tant to a small
business owner attempting to design a compensation system that produces the desired
behavior?
a) A standard set of compensation practices is available and can be appliedto all
organizations
b) There is no “one best” compensation system that fits all firms.
c) Once established you will not need to adopt your system to changing
circumstances.
d) View compensation as a cost to be minimized.
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1247)What aspect of the total rewards approach to compensation are you
typically responsiblefor as a compensa tion manager?
a) compensation strategy
b) reward strategy
c) intrinsic rewards
d) reward system
1248)Which of the following best describes a stock bonus plan for employees?
a) Employees may purchase shares in their employer firm.
b) Employees receive shares in their employer firm at no cost to the employee.
c) Group members share equally inthe performance bonus.
d) A firm provides bonus payments to employees based on the profitability of
the firm.
1249)Which of the following represents a required benefit?
a) mortgage subsidies
b) supplemental unemployment benefits
c) Canada Pension Plan
d) health care spending accounts
1250)What phenomenon influences the wagelevels of employees in Ontario
and Alberta?
a) compensating differential
b) scarcity oflabour
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c) perceived employee value
d) industrial averages
1251) You have decided to pay your employees 4% more than the average
starting salary? Which compensation policy are you utilizing?
a) lead
b) lag
c) match
d) over cost
1252)Which of the following is an element of compensation management?
a) negotiate and draw up contracts with service providers
b) prepare and distribute remittances
c) prepare job evaluation manuals
d) plan for information technology
1253)Which of the following strategies will assist you, as the hospital's
compensation manager, in determining the pay-level strategy for your 700
employees?
a) utility analysis
b) differentiation
c) integration
d) cost/benefit analysis
1254)Which of the following is an issue with using job evaluation to determine base pay?
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a) inhibits change, flexibility, and skill development
b) prevents centralized control of costs
c) violates pay equity legislation
d) higher training costs
1255)Which of the following statements regarding the evaluation of a
compensation system's effectiveness is true?
a) This aspect of compensation management is probably the most neglected
b) Initial dip phenomena is one of two main indictors firms should examine in the process of
examining compensation costs.
c) Examining its impact on managerial strategy is one of three main ways to
evaluate the impact of the system
d) An increase in your compensa tion cost ratio compared to last year’s tells you managers
have inconsistently applied the new system.
1256)Which of the following plans encourages employees to "think like owners” and can
contribute to the development of citizenship and membership
behaviors?
a) group commissions
b) employee stock plans
c) gain-sharing plans
d) meritpays
1257)Which of the following compensation components is not part of the total rewards
approach?
a) union membership
b) career advancement opportunities
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c) workplace culture
d) compensation
1258) Providing an incentive or reward to employees with a perfectattendance record for
the year is an example of what type of performance pay plan?
a) gain-sharing
b) long-term incentives
c) special-purpose incentives
d) pooled performance pay
1259)Which method of job evaluation is useful for organisations with a large
number of positions and is most frequently used for paying equity?
a) factor comparison
b) ranking
c) statistical/policy capturing
d) point-factor
1260)What is determined by the pay policy line?
a) the correlation coefficient
b) the pay for any job under the new job evaluation system
c)the intended pay level strategy for the organization
d) the relationship of job evaluation points to marketpay for the benchmark
jobs
1261)Which component of the strategic framework for compensation
determines the actual management strategy employed by a company?
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a) contextual variables
b) corporate strategy
c) structural variables
d) task environment/domain
1262)What is the primary benefit of using market pricing to determine base
pay?
a) compliance with pay equity legislation
b) simplicity and cost
c) promotes internal equity
d) source of competitive advantage
1263)Which of the following best describes the equal increase method for
determining pay grade sizes?
a) increase each pay grade in size by a constan t number of points
b) make point spreads equal for all pay grades
c) increase point spreads but not by an equal percentage
d) reduce number of pay grades by creating large grades
1264) How will a competitive labour market affect your compensation strategy?
a) It will be much easier to attract employees at compensation levels
favourable to you.
b) You have much more latitude in designing your compensation system.
c) You will need to hire contingent workers to de al with the severe swings in
demand for your product.
d) You will need to raise compensa tion levels to attract qualified employe
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1265) The decision to relocate your manufacturing company to a province with lower
minimum wage laws and mandatory benefits is a result of which of the
following?
a) financial
b) labour market
c) legislated
d) product/service market
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Answers
1 D
160 C 319 D 478 B 637 B 796 A 955 C 1114 B
2 D
161 D 320 D 479 D 638 D 797 A 956 A 1115 D
3 A
162 C 321 B 480 A 639 D 798 C 957 B 1116 B
4 B
163 D 322 B 481 C 640 C 799 B 958 D 1117 A
5 D
164 A 323 A 482 B 641 B 800 D 959 A 1118 A
6 C
165 A 324 C 483 A 642 B 801 D 960 A 1119 A
7 C
166 A 325 D 484 A 643 D 802 B 961 C 1120 D
8 D
167 A 326 D 485 B 644 B 803 B 962 D 1121 A
9 B
168 C 327 D 486 A 645 C 804 C 963 C 1122 A
10 A 169 A 328 C 487 A 646 A 805 B 964 D 1123 C
11 B 170 B 329 D 488 C 647 A 806 D 965 A 1124 A
12 D 171 B 330 B 489 C 648 B 807 D 966 B 1125 B
13 A 172 C 331 B 490 B 649 D 808 D 967 A 1126 D
14 B 173 D 332 A 491 C 650 D 809 B 968 D 1127 A
15 A 174 C 333 C 492 C 651 B 810 B 969 B 1128 C
16 D 175 B 334 B 493 C 652 A 811 B 970 B 1129 D
17 C 176 B 335 A 494 B 653 B 812 C 971 B 1130 B
18 B 177 D 336 D 495 B 654 A 813 D 972 B 1131 D
19 A 178 D 337 D 496 A 655 D 814 B 973 D 1132 B
20 B 179 D 338 B 497 B 656 B 815 B 974 A 1133 C
21 B 180 A 339 B 498 A 657 B 816 D 975 B 1134 B
22 C 181 B 340 B 499 C 658 C 817 C 976 B 1135 C
23 D 182 B 341 A 500 B 659 D 818 D 977 C 1136 C
24 D 183 C 342 A 501 C 660 D 819 C 978 A 1137 C
25 D 184 D 343 D 502 B 661 D 820 D 979 B 1138 B
26 A 185 A 344 C 503 D 662 B 821 A 980 B 1139 D
27 A 186 D 345 B 504 D 663 C 822 B 981 C 1140 D
28 C 187 D 346 B 505 D 664 A 823 C 982 C 1141 B
CHRL KE
508
29 D 188 D 347 C 506 B 665 D 824 C 983 D 1142 C
30 D 189 B 348 D 507 D 666 D 825 B 984 D 1143 A
31 B 190 A 349 D 508 A 667 D 826 C 985 B 1144 A
32 C 191 A 350 D 509 D 668 D 827 B 986 C 1145 B
33 D 192 B 351 C 510 D 669 A 828 A 987 C 1146 A
34 D 193 A 352 B 511 A 670 D 829 C 988 C 1147 B
35 D 194 B 353 B 512 B 671 A 830 A 989 C 1148 C
36 C 195 A 354 D 513 D 672 A 831 D 990 D 1149 A
37 D 196 A 355 C 514 A 673 A 832 D 991 B 1150 C
38 D 197 A 356 D 515 C 674 A 833 D 992 D 1151 B
39 B 198 B 357 D 516 C 675 D 834 B 993 B 1152 A
40 D 199 B 358 D 517 C 676 C 835 A 994 B 1153 D
41 C 200 C 359 B 518 C 677 B 836 B 995 C 1154 D
42 B 201 A 360 B 519 B 678 A 837 A 996 C 1155 C
43 D 202 A 361 A 520 D 679 A 838 C 997 B 1156 C
44 D 203 C 362 D 521 D 680 D 839 A 998 C 1157 A
45 D 204 D 363 A 522 C 681 B 840 D 999 A 1158 C
46 B 205 A 364 A 523 C 682 A 841 A 1000 C 1159 B
47 B 206 B 365 A 524 D 683 A 842 A 1001 B 1160 A
48 D 207 A 366 D 525 D 684 A 843 A 1002 B 1161 D
49 D 208 C 367 C 526 B 685 B 844 D 1003 D 1162 B
50 C 209 B 368 B 527 A 686 A 845 A 1004 A 1163 D
51 A 210 D 369 B 528 B 687 D 846 B 1005 B 1164 A
52 D 211 C 370 D 529 B 688 B 847 C 1006 B 1165 D
53 C 212 C 371 C 530 B 689 D 848 B 1007 B 1166 B
54 D 213 A 372 A 531 D 690 B 849 D 1008 B 1167 A
55 D 214 A 373 D 532 A 691 C 850 C 1009 D 1168 D
56 D 215 D 374 C 533 A 692 B 851 B 1010 D 1169 D
57 B 216 C 375 A 534 B 693 A 852 D 1011 A 1170 C
58 A 217 A 376 B 535 A 694 A 853 D 1012 B 1171 A
CHRL KE
509
CHRL KE
510
59 B 218 B 377 D 536 A 695 A 854 C 1013 B 1172 A
60 D 219 B 378 A 537 B 696 B 855 B 1014 A 1173 A
61 B 220 B 379 C 538 C 697 B 856 C 1015 C 1174 C
62 D 221 B 380 C 539 C 698 D 857 C 1016 B 1175 A
63 D 222 B 381 C 540 D 699 C 858 A 1017 D 1176 B
64 B 223 A 382 C 541 D 700 A 859 C 1018 C 1177 B
65 D 224 C 383 A 542 C 701 C 860 B 1019 C 1178 C
66 B 225 A 384 D 543 D 702 A 861 A 1020 A 1179 D
67 D 226 B 385 D 544 B 703 B 862 D 1021 D 1180 C
68 D 227 D 386 A 545 A 704 A 863 D 1022 C 1181 D
69 D 228 A 387 B 546 B 705 C 864 C 1023 D 1182 D
70 C 229 C 388 C 547 B 706 D 865 D 1024 C 1183 A
71 A 230 D 389 B 548 D 707 C 866 B 1025 A 1184 D
72 D 231 C 390 B 549 D 708 B 867 B 1026 D 1185 B
73 B 232 C 391 D 550 C 709 C 868 A 1027 A 1186 A
74 D 233 C 392 C 551 D 710 C 869 C 1028 A 1187 B
75 A 234 B 393 C 552 B 711 D 870 B 1029 B 1188 A
76 A 235 C 394 A 553 D 712 B 871 A 1030 D 1189 A
77 C 236 B 395 A 554 B 713 D 872 D 1031 B 1190 C
78 D 237 B 396 D 555 B 714 A 873 C 1032 C 1191 D
79 C 238 B 397 C 556 D 715 A 874 A 1033 C 1192 A
80 D 239 A 398 C 557 B 716 C 875 C 1034 C 1193 C
81 A 240 C 399 A 558 B 717 A 876 D 1035 C 1194 A
82 D 241 C 400 C 559 C 718 C 877 C 1036 D 1195 D
83 A 242 D 401 B 560 B 719 C 878 B 1037 D 1196 C
84 D 243 C 402 D 561 B 720 A 879 C 1038 D 1197 D
85 A 244 D 403 D 562 A 721 C 880 B 1039 D 1198 C
86 C 245 D 404 C 563 A 722 B 881 D 1040 A 1199 B
87 D 246 B 405 C 564 B 723 D 882 C 1041 C 1200 B
88 D 247 D 406 C 565 C 724 D 883 A 1042 D 1201 A
CHRL KE
511
CHRL KE
512
89 D 248 A 407 A 566 A 725 B 884 A 1043 C 1202 D
90 A 249 C 408 C 567 B 726 A 885 A 1044 C 1203 D
91 B 250 D 409 A 568 D 727 D 886 C 1045 D 1204 D
92 B 251 A 410 C 569 B 728 B 887 A 1046 D 1205 D
93 B 252 D 411 D 570 B 729 C 888 B 1047 C 1206 A
94 D 253 C 412 A 571 C 730 A 889 B 1048 A 1207 D
95 B 254 A 413 B 572 C 731 C 890 C 1049 B 1208 A
96 C 255 C 414 D 573 B 732 A 891 B 1050 D 1209 C
97 D 256 A 415 B 574 C 733 B 892 A 1051 C 1210 D
98 C 257 B 416 A 575 C 734 C 893 A 1052 C 1211 D
99 D 258 B 417 A 576 C 735 A 894 D 1053 B 1212 B
100 B 259 C 418 C 577 C 736 B 895 A 1054 D 1213 A
101 A 260 A 419 C 578 C 737 A 896 A 1055 A 1214 B
102 D 261 B 420 B 579 A 738 D 897 A 1056 B 1215 C
103 D 262 B 421 D 580 A 739 C 898 B 1057 D 1216 D
104 B 263 A 422 C 581 D 740 C 899 D 1058 B 1217 B
105 D 264 C 423 D 582 A 741 D 900 B 1059 B 1218 D
106 B 265 C 424 A 583 C 742 A 901 A 1060 B 1219 C
107 D 266 C 425 B 584 B 743 D 902 B 1061 C 1220 B
108 B 267 A 426 B 585 A 744 B 903 C 1062 B 1221 C
109 C 268 A 427 C 586 D 745 D 904 C 1063 D 1222 B
110 C 269 A 428 A 587 D 746 C 905 D 1064 B 1223 B
111 A 270 A 429 D 588 D 747 A 906 C 1065 C 1224 C
112 A 271 B 430 D 589 B 748 B 907 C 1066 C 1225 C
113 A 272 A 431 B 590 A 749 A 908 C 1067 A 1226 C
114 D 273 D 432 C 591 B 750 B 909 D 1068 B 1227 D
115 B 274 A 433 D 592 D 751 A 910 C 1069 C 1228 A
116 D 275 A 434 B 593 A 752 C 911 C 1070 A 1229 B
117 D 276 A 435 B 594 B 753 A 912 C 1071 C 1230 A
118 D 277 C 436 B 595 C 754 A 913 D 1072 C 1231 C
CHRL KE
513
CHRL KE
514
119 C 278 D 437 B 596 A 755 D 914 B 1073 A 1232 B
120 B 279 C 438 B 597 A 756 C 915 B 1074 D 1233 B
121 D 280 B 439 A 598 A 757 D 916 D 1075 A 1234 C
122 D 281 C 440 B 599 D 758 C 917 C 1076 A 1235 A
123 D 282 A 441 C 600 D 759 A 918 B 1077 D 1236 C
124 A 283 D 442 D 601 B 760 C 919 C 1078 B 1237 D
125 A 284 B 443 A 602 B 761 A 920 B 1079 D 1238 C
126 C 285 D 444 A 603 D 762 A 921 A 1080 A 1239 A
127 A 286 B 445 C 604 D 763 A 922 C 1081 A 1240 D
128 B 287 B 446 D 605 B 764 C 923 D 1082 C 1241 D
129 A 288 C 447 B 606 D 765 A 924 D 1083 B 1242 C
130 A 289 B 448 C 607 A 766 D 925 A 1084 D 1243 C
131 D 290 C 449 A 608 D 767 D 926 A 1085 C 1244 B
132 D 291 D 450 B 609 C 768 D 927 D 1086 B 1245 A
133 C 292 D 451 D 610 A 769 A 928 C 1087 D 1246 B
134 D 293 D 452 B 611 B 770 B 929 B 1088 C 1247 C
135 A 294 C 453 A 612 C 771 B 930 C 1089 C 1248 A
136 A 295 A 454 C 613 B 772 C 931 C 1090 B 1249 A
137 C 296 C 455 A 614 A 773 C 932 D 1091 A 1250 B
138 D 297 B 456 D 615 C 774 A 933 C 1092 D 1251 A
139 D 298 D 457 D 616 A 775 A 934 B 1093 B 1252 A
140 B 299 B 458 B 617 A 776 D 935 B 1094 A 1253 A
141 B 300 C 459 C 618 C 777 D 936 D 1095 A 1254 B
142 B 301 B 460 C 619 C 778 A 937 D 1096 C 1255 A
143 A 302 D 461 D 620 A 779 A 938 D 1097 A 1256 C
144 A 303 C 462 C 621 D 780 A 939 A 1098 C 1257 D
145 D 304 D 463 B 622 B 781 C 940 B 1099 D 1258 C
146 D 305 A 464 D 623 C 782 A 941 D 1100 C 1259 C
147 B 306 D 465 C 624 A 783 B 942 A 1101 A 1260 B
148 D 307 B 466 B 625 B 784 D 943 D 1102 D 1261 A
CHRL KE
515
CHRL KE
516
149 D 308 B 467 A 626 A 785 C 944 C 1103 B 1262 D
150 D 309 A 468 C 627 B 786 D 945 C 1104 A 1263 C
151 C 310 D 469 C 628 A 787 B 946 C 1105 A 1264 C
152 A 311 A 470 B 629 A 788 C 947 B 1106 B 1265 A
153 D 312 B 471 C 630 D 789 B 948 A 1107 B
154 B 313 B 472 C 631 D 790 C 949 C 1108 C
155 B 314 C 473 D 632 D 791 C 950 A 1109 C
156 C 315 D 474 A 633 B 792 A 951 B 1110 D
157 D 316 D 475 C 634 A 793 C 952 C 1111 C
158 D 317 B 476 A 635 C 794 D 953 D 1112 C
159 B 318 B 477 C 636 C 795 A 954 A 1113 A
CHRL KE
517
Flashcards
CHRL KE
518
Business Case -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Compare est cost to benefits, make
recommendation for approach.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Six Sigma -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
519
Definition: Principles and practices whose core ideas
include understanding the customer's needs and doings
things right the first time
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: reenginering -
..............................................................................................
Definition: re-thinking and radical redesign of busssiness
processes to acheive dramtic improvements in cost, quality,
service and speed.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
520
Term: outsourcing -
..............................................................................................
Definition: contrating outsie the org to have work done that
was formly done in house.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: offshoring -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
521
Definition: sending jobs to other countries also called global
sourcing.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: human capital -
..............................................................................................
Definition: intangible, konwledge, skills and capabilities of
individ that have economic value
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
522
Term: employee leasing -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The process of dismissing employees who are
then hired by a leasing company (which handles all HRrelated activities) and contracting with that company to
lease back the employees
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Furloughing -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
523
Definition: a situation in which an organization asks or
requires employees to take time off for either no pay or
reduced pay
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Nearshoring -
..............................................................................................
Definition: process of moving jobs closer to home country
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
524
Term: pay equity -
..............................................................................................
Definition: equal pay for work of equal value
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Employment Equity Act -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Federal law to remove employment barriers and
to promote equality.
CHRL KE
525
employ designated group (women, Indigenous people, ppl
w/ disabilities and POC).
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Flow data -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Data that provide a profile of the employment
decisions affecting designated groups
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
526
Term: stock data -
..............................................................................................
Definition: provice snapshot og org to show whee
memebers of designeated groups are employed in org
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Job sepecification -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
527
Definition: statment of the needed knowledge, skills and
abilities of person to perform job.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: job description -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A statement of the tasks, duties, and
responsibilities of a job to be performed
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
528
Term: Job Analysis -
..............................................................................................
Definition: is the process of obtaining job info about jobs by
determining the duties, tasks or activities of the job.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Approaches to Job Analysis: Position Analysis
Questionnaire (PAQ) -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
529
Definition: a standardized job analysis questionnaire
containing 194 questions about work behaviors, work
conditions, and job characteristics that apply to a wide
variety of jobs
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Approaches to Job Analysis: Critical Incident Method -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A job analysis method by which important job
tasks are identified for job success
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
530
Term: Approaches to Job Analysis: Task Inventory Analysis -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Organization specific list of tasks and their
descriptions used as a basis to identify components of jobs
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Approaches to Job Analysis: Competency-based
Analysis -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
531
Definition: traditional approach.
assumes that job environments are static
Jobs are defined in terms of tasks, duties, processes, skills
necessary for job's success.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Approaches to Job Analysis: Functional job analysis -
..............................................................................................
Definition: utliziaes inventory of various types of works to
identify componets of jobs.
CHRL KE
532
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Job Design -
..............................................................................................
Definition: improves jobs through technology and human
considerations to enhance org efficeny and employee
satisfaction
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Job Encrichment -
CHRL KE
533
..............................................................................................
Definition: increases difficulty and responsibility of job.
Employees retain more authoruty and control. Adding new
tasks, training and growth.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: employee involvement groups -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
534
Definition: Groups of employees who meet to resolve
problems or offer suggestions for organizational
improvement
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: cross-functional team -
..............................................................................................
Definition: a team composed of employees from different
functional areas of the organization (marketing,
engineering, ...) and formed to accomplish speific objective
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
535
Term: Project Team -
..............................................................................................
Definition: a team created to complete specific, one-time
projects or tasks within a limited time
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: self-directed teams -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
536
Definition: group of highly trained individs performing a set
of interdependant job tasks w/in work unit
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: task force -
..............................................................................................
Definition: formed by mangt to immediately resolve major
problem
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
537
Term: process improvment team -
..............................................................................................
Definition: group made up of experienced ppl from diff
departments or functions and charged w/ improving
quality, decrease waste, or enhance productivity.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: job characteristic model -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
538
Definition: a job design theory that purports that 3
psychological states
1. experiencing meaningfullmess of work
2. responsibility for work outcomes
3. knowledge of results of work perform
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Hackman and Oldham's Job Characteristics Model -
..............................................................................................
Definition: 5 Dimension produce 2 pshyological states
1. skill variety
CHRL KE
539
2. task identity
3. task signicance
4. automony
5. feedback
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: industrial engineering -
..............................................................................................
Definition: fied of study concerned w/ analyzing work
methods and est time standards.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
540
Term: Eustress -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A positive stress that energizes a person and helps
a person reach a goal
Eustress helps employees overcome obstacles
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Segmental vibration symptoms -
CHRL KE
541
..............................................................................................
Definition: - sore joints
- white fingers due to restricted bloodcirculation
- decalcification.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Segmental vibration -
..............................................................................................
Definition: vibrations that affect only parts of the body
CHRL KE
542
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Employees in your plant are being exposed to loud
noises, off andon, over a period of eight hours. In order to
assess the exactamount of time individuals will be exposed
to noise, which of the following assessment tool should you
use? -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Dosimeter
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Carolyn Hume has been working in a loud
manufacturing environment since she graduated from high
CHRL KE
543
school and is now having trouble hearing. What instrument
would be used to measure her hearing loss? -
..............................................................................................
Definition: audiometer
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: audiometer -
..............................................................................................
Definition: machine used to test hearing
CHRL KE
544
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Health and Safety frequency rate is calculated as: -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Number of accidents divided by total number of
hours worked
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: To increase the effectiveness of medical surveillance
programs, itis important to: -
CHRL KE
545
..............................................................................................
Definition: Establish baseline andongoing records of
employee health
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Toxicity -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The degree to which a substance can cause
harm to human skinor tissue
CHRL KE
546
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Daily stress -
..............................................................................................
Definition: stressors encountered daily as a part of everyday
life
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: chronic stress -
CHRL KE
547
..............................................................................................
Definition: stress associated with long-term problems that
are beyond a person's control
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: psychological stress -
..............................................................................................
Definition: a particular relationship between the person and
the environment that is appraised by the person as taxing or
exceeding his or her resources and endangering his or her
well-being
CHRL KE
548
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: acute stress -
..............................................................................................
Definition: short term stress
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: The transactional model of stress indicates that: -
CHRL KE
549
..............................................................................................
Definition: Different employees will respond differently to the
same stressors
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Transactional Model of Stress -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A four-step framework for evaluating an
individual's coping process for a stressor; an individual
evaluates the stressor and her or his coping resources
before deciding how to respond and then whether the
response was successful.
CHRL KE
550
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: psychosocial model of health -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Approach to the study of health that highlights
the importance of both the social environment and
psychological factors (i.e family situations, expo to violence,
self-esteem).
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Describes the impacts of stress -
CHRL KE
551
..............................................................................................
Definition: When stress occurs, performance increases and
then decreases.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: unwanted event thatcauses harm to people, property
or processes -
..............................................................................................
Definition: incident
CHRL KE
552
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Example of Situational factors causing safety hazards -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Equipment with inadequate warning signals
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Cedric is planning to perform an annual maintenance
check onhis electrical metal cutter. Which of the following is
the proper safety procedure? -
CHRL KE
553
..............................................................................................
Definition: lockout
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Trend analysis -
..............................................................................................
Definition: quantitative approach to forecasting labour
demends based on an org index
CHRL KE
554
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: value-based hiring -
..............................................................................................
Definition: the process of outlining the behaviors that
exemplify a firm's corporate culture and then hiring people
who are a fit for them
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: staffing tables -
CHRL KE
555
..............................................................................................
Definition: Graphic representations of all organizational jobs,
along with the numbers of employees currently occupying
those jobs and future (monthly or yearly) employment
requirements
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Markov Analysis -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A method for tracking the pattern of employee
movements through various jobs
CHRL KE
556
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Balanced Scorecard -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A measurement framework that helps managers
translate strategic goals into operational objectives
- finanical
- customer
- processes
- learning
CHRL KE
557
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Value Creation -
..............................................................................................
Definition: what firm adds to a product/service by virtue of
making it (value = benefits - costs).m
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: low cost strategy -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
558
Definition: keeping cost low to offer an attrative price to
customers
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: differentiation strategy -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Distinguishing an organization's products from the
products of competitors on dimensions such as product
design, quality, or after-sales service.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
559
Term: vertical fit/alignment -
..............................................................................................
Definition: focuses on the connection between the
business's objectives and the major initiatives undertaken by
HR
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Horizontal Fit/Alignment -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
560
Definition: Aligning HR practices with one another internally
to establish a configuration that is mutually reinforcing
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: tight market -
..............................................................................................
Definition: high employment, few available workers
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
561
Term: loose market -
..............................................................................................
Definition: low employment, many available workers
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Yeild ratio -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
562
Definition: % of applicants from recruitment source that
make it to the next stage
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: employee profiles -
..............................................................................................
Definition: profiles of worker developed by studying an org
top performs to recrit similar types of people
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
563
Term: outplacement services -
..............................................................................................
Definition: help terminated else find jobs elsewhere
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: employee leasing -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The process of dismissing employees who are
then hired by a leasing company (which handles all HR-
CHRL KE
564
related activities) and contracting with that company to
lease back the employees
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: reverse mentoring -
..............................................................................................
Definition: younger and newly hired employees mentor their
seniors
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
565
Term: Reliability -
..............................................................................................
Definition: consistency of measurement (weight scale shows
the same weight every time you step on it).
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: validity -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
566
Definition: The ability of a test to measure what it is intended
to measure (actually measuring your weight).
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: sequential interview -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A candidate is interviewed by multiple people,
one right after another
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
567
Term: multiple hurdle model -
..............................................................................................
Definition: mulitple stages of interview where only those w/
the highest scorces move on.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: compensatory model -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
568
Definition: selection decison model in which a high score in
one area makes up for a low score in another
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Cross-validation -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Verifying the results obtained from a validation
study by administering a test or test battery to a different
sample (drawn from the same population)
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
569
Term: Strategic model for training and development -
..............................................................................................
Definition: stage one: needs assessment
- org anal:
- task anal:
- personal anal:
stage two: desgin objectives
stage three: implement
stage four: evaluation
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
570
Term: Managing Hazard -
..............................................................................................
Definition: 1. Enginnering controls (include erognomics).
2. Adminstrative controls
3. PPE
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: A "hazard analysis" process -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
571
Definition: is used to assess hazards and risk in the
workplace.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: "walk-through survey" -
..............................................................................................
Definition: is used to determine the types and possible
exposures to hazards in the workplace.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
572
Term: "safety audit" -
..............................................................................................
Definition: is used to ensure compliance with safety policy
and safe work practices.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: to facilitate post-injury medical attention, employers
may -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
573
Definition: Provide health and safetytraining to employees
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Simplex Ltd. is holding a training session and has
determined thatit will cost $5,000 for course materials and
$2,000 for overtime wages of replacement workers. These
two costs represent: -
..............................................................................................
Definition: direct and in direct cost
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
574
Term: Centralized Organization: -
..............................................................................................
Definition: When a single manager or a small management
team makes most of the decisions, including strategic and
day-to-day operating decisions.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Decentralized organization: -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
575
Definition: Decision making is not confined to a few top
executives but rather is spread throughout the organization,
with managers at various levels making decisions that
pertain to their area of responsibility.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: cost center -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A segment whose manager has control over
costs, but not over revenues or profits. Examples are:
accounting, finance, general administration and HR.
CHRL KE
576
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Investment center -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A segment whose manager has control over
costs, revenues, profit and investments in operating assets.
An example would be corporate headquarters.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Profit Centre -
CHRL KE
577
..............................................................................................
Definition: A segment whose manager has control over both
costs and revenues, but no control over investment funds.
An example would be managers of individual stores or a
major retail chain.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: ROI (Return on Investment) -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Net Operating Income / Average Operating
Assets
CHRL KE
578
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: 3 way to improve ROI -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Increase sales
reduce expenses
reduce assests (yup!)
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Residual Income (RI) -
CHRL KE
579
..............................................................................................
Definition: measure of an investment centre's performance
net operating income that an investment centre earns
above the minimum required return on its operating assets.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: transfer price -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
580
Definition: the price charged for the internal sale of product
between two different divisions of the same company
used for computing profitablity of non-revenue-generating
segments
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Determining transfer price -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Market based price
Cost-based price
Negotiated price
CHRL KE
581
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: The Balanced Scorecard -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Management translates its strategy into
performance measures that employees understand and
accept.
1. financial
2. Internal business
3. Customers
4. Learning and Growth
CHRL KE
582
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Capital Budgeting -
..............................................................................................
Definition: the process a firm and manager uses to evaluate
long-term investment proposals
examples:
Cost reduction decisions
Expansion decisions
Equipment selection decisions
Lease or buy decisions
Equipment replacement decisions
CHRL KE
583
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: The Net Present Value Method -
..............................................................................................
Definition: positive ...acceptable bc promises a greater
return than the required rate of the return
zero ... acceptable bc promises a return equal to the
required rate of return
negative ...not acceptable bc it promises a return less than
required rate of return
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
584
Term: cost of capital -
..............................................................................................
Definition: cost of capital is the average rate of return the
company must pay to its long-term creditors and
shareholders for the use of their funds.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: incremental-cost approach -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
585
Definition: only those cash flows that differ between the two
alternatives are considered.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Internal Rate of Return -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The internal rate of return (IRR) of a project is the
discount rate that makes the net present value of the
project equal zero.
If IRR is:
Equal to or greater than cost of capital, accept project
Less than cost of capital, reject project.
CHRL KE
586
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: The Payback Method -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The payback period is the length of time that it
takes for a project to recover its initial cost out of the cash
receipts that it generates.
investment required/net annual cash inflow
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
587
Term: Zero-Based Budgeting -
..............................................................................................
Definition: a budgeting approach in which each
department starts from zero every year and must justify
every item in the budget, rather than simply adjusting the
previous year's budget amounts
used in governmental and not-for-profit sectors.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Master Budget -
CHRL KE
588
..............................................................................................
Definition: 1. A sales budget, including a schedule of
expected cash collections.
2. A production budget (a merchandises purchases budget
is used for a merchandising company).
3. A direct materials budget, including a schedule of
expected cash disbursements for raw materials (not
required for a merchandising company).
4. A direct labor budget (not required for a merchandising
company).
5. A manufacturing overhead budget.
6. An ending finished goods inventory budget.
7. A selling and administrative expenses budget.
8. A cash budget.
9. A budgeted income statement.
10. A budgeted balance sheet.
CHRL KE
589
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: self-imposed budget -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A method of preparing budgets in which
managers prepare their own budgets. These budgets are
then reviewed by higher-level managers, and any issues are
resolved by mutual agreement.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Responsibility Accounting -
CHRL KE
590
..............................................................................................
Definition: A system of accountability in which managers
are held responsible for those items of revenue and cost—
and only those items—over which they can exert significant
control. T
he managers are held responsible for differences between
budgeted and actual results.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: The Beyond Budgeting Round Table -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
591
Definition: has recommended a model that uses relative
performance targets and emphasizes the principles of
strategic management and empowering employees.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Cash Budget -
..............................................................................................
Definition: composed of
- recipts
- disbursements
- cash excess or deificency
- financing
CHRL KE
592
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Standard Costs -
..............................................................................................
Definition: predetermined unit costs
used for benchmarking
used for planning labour, material and overhead
requirements
simplify accounting system
CHRL KE
593
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: The Static Budget -
..............................................................................................
Definition: budget developed for a single planned activity
level.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: A standard cost variance -
CHRL KE
594
..............................................................................................
Definition: is the amount by whichan actual cost differs from
the standard cost.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Flexible Budgets -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Show revenues and expensesthat should have
occurred at the actual level of activity.
Reveal variances due to good cost control or lack of cost
control.
CHRL KE
595
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: differential cost (or incremental cost) -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The difference in costs between the two
alternatives is known as the
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Avoidable costs -
CHRL KE
596
..............................................................................................
Definition: Costs that can be eliminated (in whole or in part)
by choosing one alternative over another are avoidable
costs.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Sunk costs -
..............................................................................................
Definition: a cost that has already been incurred and that
cannot be avoided regardless of what a manager decides
to do.
CHRL KE
597
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Future costs -
..............................................................................................
Definition: that do not differ between the alternatives.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Opportunity Cost -
CHRL KE
598
..............................................................................................
Definition: The benefits that are foregone as a result of
pursuing some course of action.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Target Costing -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Provides an alternative, market-based approach
to pricing new products.
Target Cost = estimated selling price - company's required
profit margin.
CHRL KE
599
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: The Breakeven Point -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The point where total sales revenue equals total
expenses (variable and fixed).
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Break-even analysis can be approached in two ways:
-
CHRL KE
600
..............................................................................................
Definition: Equation method
Contribution margin method.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Equation Method -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
601
Definition: Profits = Sales - (Variable expenses + Fixed
expenses)
At the break-even point
profits equal zero.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Contribution margin method. -
..............................................................................................
Definition: The contribution margin method is a variation of
the equation method.
Break-even point in units sold = Fixed expenses/Unit
contribution margin
CHRL KE
602
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Operating Leverage -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A measure of how sensitive net income is to
percentage changes in sales.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Which of the following legislation has been designed
to alleviate the inequity for four designated groups? -
CHRL KE
603
..............................................................................................
Definition: Employment Equity
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Eustress -
..............................................................................................
Definition: A positive stress that energizes a person and helps
a person reach a goal
CHRL KE
604
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: In order to assess the exact amount of time individuals
will be exposed to noise, which of the following assessment
tool should you use -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Dosimeter
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: medical surveillance programs -
CHRL KE
605
..............................................................................................
Definition: systematic collection, analysis, and evaluation of
health data in the workplace to identify cases, patterns, or
trends suggesting an adverse effect on workers' health.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: When applying the psychosocial model of health to
assess thehealth risks of your employee population, which of
the followingfactors would you -
..............................................................................................
Definition: b)Employee's level of self-esteem
CHRL KE
606
c)Employee's exposure to violence
d)Employee's family situation
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: When stress occurs... -
..............................................................................................
Definition: When stress occurs, performance increases and
thendecreases.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
607
Term: unwanted event thatcauses harm to people, property
or processes? -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Incident
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: situational hazard -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
608
Definition: Situational risks are the risks inherent to the
situation or the proximate cause of injury (e.g., fall to a lower
level, struck by an object, electrocution, etc.) ... Struck by
machinery, vehicle, debris, equipment or part: An injury or
death occurs due to a worker being struck by an object
with forcible impact.
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: union security clause -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Union membership andcollection of dues
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
609
Term: Typical grievance procedures include -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Specified remedies for different categories of
grievances
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Policy grievances are brought forward by -
..............................................................................................
CHRL KE
610
Definition: Union leadership
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Final-offer arbitration -
..............................................................................................
Definition: arbitrator is limited to adopting either the union's
position orthe management's position,
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
611
Term: labour relationsboards -
..............................................................................................
Definition: Their purpose is to provide a faster alternative to
the courtprocess.
They oversee the certification and decertification of unions.
They make declarations of illegal strikes or lockouts
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
Term: Community of Interest -
CHRL KE
612
..............................................................................................
Definition: Determining the bargaining unit within an
organization
✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂✂
CHRL KE
613
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